There are a number of questions here discussing gravity as a gauge theory of the Lorentz group. I am trying to find the Lagrangian this gauge produces, and the other discussions stop just short of providing that. For example consider those questions:
https://physics.stackexchange.com/a/127587/747
where the answer states:
Gravity can be seen as a gauge theory of the Lorentz group (which acts on the tangent space). These was pointed out by Kibble and Sciama during the 50s and 60s.
Another relevant question is:
https://physics.stackexchange.com/a/46367/747
Where the author specifically shows the correspondence between a general linear gauge and the Christoffel symbols.
I am just trying to get a bit more complete with these answers and finish the answer to something useable. I assume these theories are suppose to produce a Lagrangian, but all of these questions and answers seem to stop just short of doing that.
Knowing that:
$$ \psi'=g\psi g^{-1} \tag{1} $$
and
$$ D_\mu = \partial_\mu \psi - [ig A_\mu , \psi] \tag{2} $$
and
$$ R_{\mu\nu} = [D_\mu,D_\nu] \tag{3} $$
Can I construct a Lagrangian from this?
Inspired by QED, I previously suggested (as a draft).
$$ \mathcal{S}=\int \bar{\psi} (i\hbar c \gamma^\mu D_\mu - m c^2)\psi-\frac{1}{4} R_{\mu\nu}R^{\mu\nu} \tag{4} $$
I don't actually necessarily think (4) is correct, but I propose it only to stimulate creativity and to set fix the expectations.
Is there a prescription to construct a Lagrangian from 1,2 and 3? Using the "Yang-Mills method" it produces 4, but it appears this is not what people has in mind when describing gravity as a gauge theory (as I was told in another question). How would you produce the Lagrangian from 1,2 and 3 that satisfy the people who claim it can be understood as a gauge theory of the Lorentz group?