Suras SBI Clerical Exam Solved Q Paper - July 2008

STATE BANK OF INDIA

Solved Question Paper Paper

Bank Clerical Exam - July 2008

Based on Memory

GENERAL AWARENESS
1. Who won the Best Director Award at the 80th Annual Academy Awards in February 2008 ? A) Martin Scorsese B) Joel Coen & Ethan Coen C) Alan Arkin D) Emily Robinson E) None of these Which of the following is printed on a commonly used fluorescent tubelight ? A) 220 K B) 273 K C) 6500 K D) 9000 K E) None of these Where is Owen Falls, the largest man-made lake situated? A) Egypt B) Uganda C) Brazil D) Ghana E) None of these Who among the following is Russias new President? A) Mr. Dmitry Medvedev B) Mr. Samuel Hinds C) Mr. Vladimir Putin D) Mr. Lansana Kouyato E) None of these When is World Health Day observed every year? A) April 5 B) April 7 C) April 17 D) April 18 E) None of these Who among the following cricketers emerged as the highest earner at the BCCIbacked IPL (Indian Premier League) auction of various Indian and International players for eight teams held in Mumbai on February 20, 2008 ? A) Andrew Symonds B) Saurav Ganguly C) Mahendra Singh Dhoni D) Ricky Ponting E) None of these 7. Which of the following countries is the first in the world to propose a carbon tax for its people to address global warming? A) New Zealand B) Japan C) Germany D) Australia E) None of these 8. Budala Biosphere Reserve which was recently added to the UNESCOs Man and Biosphere (MAB) network is located in A) Russia B) India C) Sri Lanka D) Bangladesh E) None of these 9. Who among the following was adjudged Best Actress at the 53rd Filmfare Awards Ceremony held in Mumbai on February 23, 2008 ? A) Preity Zinta B) Kareena Kapoor C) Bipasha Basu D) Rani Mukherjee E) None of these 10. Who was the Chief Justice of India when Public Interest Litigation (PIL) was introduced to the Indian Judicial system? A) M. Hidayatullah B) A.M. Ahmad C) A.S. Anand D) P.N. Bhagwati E) None of these 11. In which of the following countries is the committee, which selects winners for Nobel Peace Prize, located? A) Norway B) Sweden C) Finland D) Denmark E) None of these 12. Which one of the following countries is the leading producer of uranium? A) USA B) Canada C) Germany D) Zambia E) None of these

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

SU

A' S

Suras SBI Clerical Exam Solved Q Paper - July 2008

C) Java Trench D) Philippine Trench E) None of these What is the name of the region where the north-east and southeast trade winds converge? A) Doldrums B) Sub-tropical high pressure belt C) Arctic circle D) Horse latitude E) None of these Asteroids are found between the orbits of A) Mars and Jupiter B) Mercury and Venus C) Earth and Mars D) Uranus and Neptune E) None of these Who was the President of India at the time of the proclamation of Emergency in the year 1975? A) V.V. Giri B) Giani Zail Singh C) Shanker Dayal Sharma D) Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed E) None of these Which rock edict of Ashoka provides a description of the horrors of Kalinga war ? A) Kalinga Edict at Dhauli B) The edict at Jaugada C) 10th Rock Edict D) 13th Rock Edict E) None of these To which one of the following processes is the term CMYK related? A) Railway signalling B) Navigation C) Offset printing D) Electronic voting machine E) None of these Which one among the following is NOT a good source of nutritional calcium ? A) Rice B) Ragi C) Skimmed milk D) Egg E) None of these Which one of the following countries is NOT a member of ASEAN ? A) Vietnam B) Brunei Darussalam

13. The Allahabad Pillar inscription is associated with which of the following? A) Mahapadma Nanda B) Chadragupta Maurya C) Ashoka D) Samudragupta E) None of these 14. In which State is Rajiv Gandhi National Institute of Youth Development located? A) Tamil Nadu B) Karnataka C) Himachal Pradesh D) Uttarakhand E) None of these 15. Mr. Kostas Karamanlis, who was on an official visit to New Delhi recently, is the Prime Minister of A) Italy B) Greece C) Poland D) Finland E) None of these 16. Asha-Rose Migiro, who is the new United Nations Deputy Secretary- General, belongs to A) Malaysia B) Tanzania C) Kenya D) Ghana E) None of these 17. Who is the first Arab minister in the history of Israel? A) Raleb Majadele B) Shimon Peres C) Amir Peretz D) Nuri al-Maliki E) None of these 18. The 15th Indian Cooperative Congress took place in January 2008 in A) Bengalooru B) Hyderabad C) Kolkata D) New Delhi E) None of these 19. Who among the following is one of the recipients of the countrys second highest civilian honour, Padma Vibhushan, for the year 2008 ? A) T.K. Oommen B) P.R.S. Oberoi C) Sunita Williams D) Ustad Asad Ali Khan E) None of these 20. Which one of the following is the deepest point in the ocean floor? A) Challenger Deep B) Milwaukee Deep

21.

22.

23.

SU

R
25. 26. 27.

A' S
24.

Suras SBI Clerical Exam Solved Q Paper - July 2008

28. C) Bangladesh D) Myanmar E) None of these Who among the following is a Hindustani classical singer? A) Geeta Chandran B) Leela Samson C) Gangubai Hangal D) Swapnasundari E) None of these Which one of the following companies is associated with the exploration and commercial production of oil in Barmer Sanchore basin of Rajasthan? A) Cairn Energy B) Unocal Corporation C) Reliance Energy Ventures D) ONGC E) None of these Which one of the following revolts was made famous by Bankim Chandra Chatterjee in his novel Anand Math? A) Bhil uprising B) R a n g p u r a n d D i n a p u r uprising C) Bishnupur and Birbhum rebellion D) Sanyasi rebellion E) None of these Under whose presidency was the Lahore Session of the Indian National Congress held in the year 1929 wherein a resolution was adopted to gain complete independence from the British? A) Bal Gangadhar Tilak B) Gopal Krishna Gokhale C) Jawaharlal Nehru D) Motilal Nehru E) None of these Which one of the following countries is NOT a member of the Nordic Council ? A) Norway B) Denmark C) Iceland D) United Kingdom E) None of these What is the approximate mean velocity with which the Earth moves round the Sun in its orbit? A) 20 km/s B) 30 km/s C) 40 km/s D) 50 km/s E) None of these Which one of the following Indian banks is NOT a nationalised bank?

35.

29.

36.

30.

37.

31.

38.

39.

32.

33.

40.

34.

A) Corporation Bank B) Dena Bank C) Federal Bank D) Vijaya Bank E) None of these Which one of the following subjects is under the Union List in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India? A) Regulation of labour and safety in mines and oilfields B) Agriculture C) Fisheries D) Public health E) None of these Who among the following British officials was sent to Lahore to negotiate the Treaty of Amritsar with Ranjit Singh? A) Major Broodfoot B) Charles T. Metcalfe C) John Lawrence D) Lord McCartney E) None of these A Shared Vision for the 21st Century is a document of partnership and cooperation between India and A) USA B) Russia C) China D) African countries E) None of these Prof. Muhammad Yunus is renowned in which one of the following areas? A) International economics B) Human rights C) Freedom of press D) Microcredit concept E) None of these Who is the author of the book The Last Mughal-The Fall of a Dynasty, Delhi, 1857' ? A) John Kirkland B) William Dalrymple C) Thomas Wilson D) Simon Digby E) None of these Who among the following became the first batsman in the cricket history to score 150 or more runs in an innings in four consecutive Tests? A) Jacques Kallis B) Ricky Ponting C) Sachin Tendulkar D) Kumar Sangakkara E) None of these

SU

A' S

Suras SBI Clerical Exam Solved Q Paper - July 2008

GENERAL ENGLISH
Directions (Qns. 41 to 55) : Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words are printed in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions. It is an established fact of history that the Western world has made a significant contribution in discovering the new world. James Cook is known as a discoverer who set out on the sea to find new places. He was the first to discover river Lawrence of Canada. He also tried to study the way to Venus during one of his voyages in the Pacific Ocean. He is accredited for having surveyed the inner most part of Canada as also for discovering Australia and its southern parts. In his latter discoveries, he got the assistance of the British Government. In fact, Australia and its Southern countries were talked about, but on one had ever ventured there nor anybody knew, for that matter, whether that land was a reality. James Cook undertook hazardous voyages and discovered the continent of Australia. It was believed then, that Australia was inhabited by the savages and was a backward country, hence fit only for sending convicts, murderers and other prisoners. J a m e s C o o k , h o w e v e r, discovered the coastal areas and found them fit for the British to settle there. But, unfortunately, the Government did not take seriously and sent criminals there. Later, to prove his point, Cook himself settled there. The secret of James Cooks success was his skill as a sailor and his inborn leadership qualities. Cook was born in Yorkshire but he spent his life on board of his ship always on the move, in search of new lands. One of his sterling qualities was his ability to win the confidence of the native tribals and to work with them in unison. It is therefore, ironic that he should be killed by the tribals. 41. Cook settled in the continent of Australia because
A) he had undertaken the task of criminal reforms B) he was upset with the apathy of the British Government C) the British Government had not taken his suggestion seriously D) he wanted to prove his claim of suitability of that part to live in E) None of these James Cook found that A) the coastal areas of Australia were already overcrowded by the British B) the coastal areas of Australia were suitable for the British to live C) criminals and murderers were occupying the coastal areas of Australia D) the coastal areas of Australia were unsuitable for others to settle E) None of these Which of the following discoveries had Cook accomplished successfully? I. River Lawrence of Canada II. Way to Venus III. Australia and its Southern parts A) Both I and II B) Both II and III C) Both I and III D) All the three E) None of these The author gives credit to the West for their contribution in A) exploring new world B) discovering Western part of the world C) establishing facts of history D) rewriting historical facts E) None of these Before Cooks discovery of Australia, people believed that I. the inhabitants of Australia were uncivilized. II. the continent was fit only for criminals to dwell III. there was no such continent in existence

42.

SU

A' S
43. 44. 45.

Suras SBI Clerical Exam Solved Q Paper - July 2008

A) Both I and II B) Both II and III C) Both I and III D) All the three E) None of these 46. James Cooks murder by tribals was A) expected because he had failed to win their confidence B) unexpected because he had failed to work with them in unison C) ironic because he had discovered their place of dwelling D) ironic because he had spent major part of his life among them E) None of these 47. The author has narrated certain qualities of James Cook except A) skill as a sailor B) good relations with tribals C) zeal to explore new things D) reasonable antagonism against British Government E) tenacity to undertake risky voyage 48. According to the author, James Cook made his achievements on the strength of I. support from the British Government. II. his skills as a sailor and leadership qualities. III. the savage inhabitants of Australia. A) I Only B) II Only C) III Only D) Both I and II E) None of these 49. According to the passage, major part of Cooks life was spent A) in Yorkshire B) in Australia C) on board of his ship D) in Canada E) None of these Directions (Qns. 50 to 52) : Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage. 50. Latter A) Final B) Concluding C) Second D) Former E) First

51. Hazardous A) Harmful B) Risky C) Comfortable D) Luxurious E) Safe 52. Significant A) Trivial B) Noteworthy C) Momentous D) Important E) Neglected Directions (Qns. 53 to 55) : Choose the word which is most SAME in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage. 53. Sterling A) Essential B) Formidable C) Genuine D) Glamorous E) Diamond 54. Ventured A) Dared B) Discouraged C) Emphasized D) Repented E) Travelled 55. Seriously A) Slightly B) Sincerely C) Casually D) Consciously E) Acutely Directions (Qns. 56 to 60) : In each question below four words which are numbered (A), (B), (C) and (D) have been printed of which one may be wrongly spelt. The number of that word is the answer. If all the four words are correctly spelt, mark (E) i.e. All Correct as the answer. 56. A) Genuineness B) Buffallow C) Incremental D) Determination E) All Correct 57. A) Abnormal B) Insignificant C) Immovable D) Coinsidence E) All Correct 58. A) Diligence B) Dignity C) Distruction D) Immense E) All Correct 59. A) Obsolete B) Demonstration C) Visionalry D) Meticulous E) All Correct 60. A) Archary B) Immunity C) Indispensable D) Exaggeration E) All correct

SU

A' S

Suras SBI Clerical Exam Solved Q Paper - July 2008

Directions (Qns. 66 to 70) : Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blank in each sentence to make the sentence meaningfully complete. 66. They work hard not because of the........, but because of their inner urge. A) desire B) drive C) energy D) incentive E) motivation 67. His..........background has made him so docile. A) famous B) lucrative C) rich D) advanced E) humble 68. It is.......... for everyone to abide by the laws of the land. A) expected B) obligatory C) meant D) optional E) recommended 69. ..........he is a hard worker, his quality of work is not of a desirable level. A) Despite B) Because C) Although D) Somehow E) However 70. In spite of repeated instructions, he ........ the some mistakes. A) commits B) detects C) corrects D) imitates E) exhibits Directions (Qns. 71 to 80) : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it, The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence, The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E) i.e. No Error, (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any). 71. People who intend (A)/ to visit the tourist spots (B)/ are always thrilling (C)/ to see the scenario here. (D) / No error (E) 72. In such delicate matters, (A)/ we often go with (B) / his advice as the has (C)/ been handling such cases effectively. (D)/ No error (E) 73. You should think (A)/ of all the possibilities (B) / before you take (C)/ any decision. (D)/ No error (E) 74. He was too tired that (A)/he could not cross (B) / the street even with (C) / the help of a porter. (D)/ No error (E)

Directions (61 to 65) : Rearrange the following sentences I, II, III, IV, V and VI in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them. I. Besides, they get a lot of exposure to novel things through media II. Therefore, their mental development did not show any extraordinary signs. III. Children of the present generation appear to be smarter than their earlier counterparts. IV. Thus, the environment of present days has brought out these changes. V. This is probably because there are lots of opportunities for their indirect learning. VI. Children of yester years did not have these facilities. 61. Which of the following will be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement? A) I B) II C) III D) IV E) V 62. Which of the following will be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement? A) I B) II C) III D) IV E) V 63. Which of the following will be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence after rearrangement? A) I B) II C) III D) IV E) V 64. Which of the following will be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement? A) I B) II C) III D) IV E) V 65. Which of the following will be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement? A) I B) II C) III D) IV E) V

SU

A' S

Suras SBI Clerical Exam Solved Q Paper - July 2008

75. Your desire to (A)/meet the President (B) / without prior appointment (C)/ cannot be fulfil. (D)/ No error (E) 76. Whenever man attains fame, (A)/ his person qualities are (B)/ imitated by others who (C)/ are close to him. (D)/ No error (E) 77. Rivers mountains and deep forests (A)/ are the places (B)/ mostly like by (C) / people living in urban areas. (D)/ No error (E)

78. When we visited his office (A)/ we found that (B) / he was sipping coffee (C)/ with some of his colleagues. (D)/ No error (E) 79. For giving up (A)/the bad habit of smoking (B) / use of chewing gum or (C)/ similar other method can be helped. (D)/ No error (E) 80. His obviously reluctance (A)/was viewed seriously by (B) / his superiors and (C) / he was suspended. (D)/ No error (E)

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE
Directions (Qns. 81 to 85) : What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions? 81. 94.5 % of 650 =? A) 606.45 B) 521.65 C) 518.55 D) 614.25 E) None of these 82. 1313 137 = ? A) 13 6 B) 13 19 C) 13 20 D) 13 6 E) None of these 83. 13.33 +33.31 + 331.13 =? A) 350.55 B) 377.77 C) 350.05 D) 255.05 E) None of these 84. 464 (16 2.32) = ? A) 12.5 B) 14.5 C) 10.5 D) 8.5 E) None of these 85. 178 5 0.5 = ? A) 15.6 B) 71.2 C) 17.8 D) 20.4 E) None of these 86. A bus covers a distance of 2,924 kms. in 43 hours. What is the speed of the bus? A) 72 kmph B) 60 kmph C) 68 kmph D) Cannot be determined E) None of these 87. If (11)3 is subtracted from the square of a number, the answer so obtained is 7930. What is the number? A) 36 B) 28 C) 21 D) 48 E) None of these
88. What should be the simple interest obtained on an amount of Rs. 5,760 at the rate of 6 p.c. p.a. after 3 years? A) Rs.1,036.80 B) Rs.1,666.80 C) Rs.1,336.80 D) Rs.1,063.80 E) None of these 89. What is 333 times 135? A) 46,323 B) 43,623 C) 43,290 D) 44,955 E) None of these 90. The product of two successive numbers is 8556. What is the smaller number? A) 89 B) 94 C) 90 D) 92 E) None of these 91. Find the average of the following set of scores: 221, 231, 441, 359, 665, 525 A) 399 B) 428 C) 407 D) 415 E) None of these 92. 45% of a number is 255.6. What is 25% of that number? A) 162 B) 132 C) 152 D) 142 E) None of these 93. What is the least number to be added to 4321 to make it a perfect square? A) 32 B) 34 C) 36 D) 38 E) None of these

SU

A' S

Suras SBI Clerical Exam Solved Q Paper - July 2008

A) 2916 B) 2988 C) 3000 D) 2800 E) None of these 101. The difference between 42% of a number and 28% of the same number is 210. What is 59% of that number? A) 630 B) 885 C) 420 D) 900 E) None of these 102. What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question? 4275 496 (21)2 =? A) 3795 B) 3800 C) 3810 D) 3875 E) 3995 103. A canteen requires 112 kgs. of wheat for a week. How many kgs. of wheat will it require for 69 days? A) 1,204 kgs B) 1,401 kgs C) 1,104 kgs D) 1,014 kgs E) None of these 104. If an amount of Rs. 41,910 is distributed equally amongst 22 persons, how much amount would each person get? A) Rs. 1,905 B) Rs. 2,000 C) Rs. 1,885 D) Rs. 2,105 E) None of these 105. The cost of 4 cell-phones and 7 digital cameras is Rs. 1,25,627. What is the cost of 8 cell-phones and 14 digital cameras? A) Rs. 2,51,254 B) Rs. 2,52,627 C) Rs. 2,25,524 D) Cannot be determined E) None of these Directions (Qns. 106 to 110) : Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II are given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and: Give answer (A) : If the data in Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

94. What would be the compound interest obtained on an amount of Rs. 3.000 at the rate of 8 p.c.p.a. after 2 years? A) Rs. 501.50 B) Rs. 499.20 C) Rs. 495 D) Rs. 510 E) None of these 95. The owner of an electronics shop charges his customer 22% more than the cost price. If a customer paid Rs. 10,980 for a DVD player, then what was the cost price of the DVD player? A) Rs. 8,000 B) Rs. 8,800 C) Rs. 9,500 D) Rs. 9,200 E) None of these 96. If (78)2 is subtracted from the square of the number, the answer so obtained is 6,460. What is the number? A) 109 B) 111 C) 113 D) 115 E) None of these 97. In an examination it is required to get 40% of the aggregate marks to pass. A student gets 261 marks and is declared failed by 4% marks. What are the maximum aggregate marks a student can get? A) 700 B) 730 C) 745 D) 765 E) None of these 98. A, B and C divide an amount of Rs. 4,200 amongst themselves in the ratio of 7:8:6 respectively. If an amount of Rs. 200 is added to each of their shares, what will be the new respective ratio of their shares of amount? A) 8 : 9 : 6 B) 7 : 9 : 5 C) 7 : 8 : 6 D) 8 : 9 : 7 E) None of these 99. Ms. Suchi deposits an amount of Rs. 24,000 to obtain a simple interest at the rate of 14 p.c.p.a. for 8 years. What total amount will Ms. Suchi get at the end of 8 years? A) Rs. 62,080 B) Rs. 28,000 C) Rs. 50,880 D) Rs. 26,880 E) None of these 100. The average of 5 consecutive even numbers A, B, C, D and E is 52. What is the product of B & E?

SU

A' S

Suras SBI Clerical Exam Solved Q Paper - July 2008

Give answer (B) : If the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question. Give answer (C) : If the data in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question. Give answer (D) : If the data in both the Statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question. Give answer (E) : If the data in both the Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question. 106. What is the area of the circle? I. Perimeter of the circle is 88 cms. II. Diameter of the circle is 28 cms. 107. What is the rate of interest? I. Simple interest accured on an amount of Rs. 25,000 in two years is less than the compound interest for the same period by Rs. 250. II. Simple interest accured in 10 years is equal to the principal. 108. What is the number of trees planted in the field in rows and columns? I. Number of columns is more than the number of rows by 4. II. Number of trees in each column is an even number. 109. What is the area of the rightangled triangle? I. Height of the triangle is three fourth of the base. II. Hypotenuse of the triangle is 5 metres. 110. What is the fathers present age? I. Fathers present age is five times the sons present age. II. Five years ago the fathers age was fifteen times the sons age that time. Directions (Qns. 111 to 115) : Study the following graph carefully to answer these questions: Profit earned (in Crore Rs.) by Seven Companies during 2003-04
Profit = Income- Expenditure

9
2003 2004

Profit earned in Crore Rs.

100 90 80 70 60 50 40 30 20 10 0

companies 111. What is the ratio between the profit earned by Company A in 2004 and the profit earned by Company B in 2003 respectively? A) 4 : 3 B) 3 : 2 C) 3 : 4 D) 2 : 3 E) None of these 112. What is the difference (in crore Rs.) between the total profit earned by companies E, F and G together in 2003 and the total profit earned by these companies in 2004? A) 70 B) 75 C) 78 D) 82 E) None of these 113. What is the ratio between the total profit earned by company C in 2003 and 2004 together and the total profit earned by company E in these two years respectively? A) 11 : 9 B) 9 : 10 C) 10 : 11 D) 11 : 10 E) None of these 114. What was the average profit earned by all the companies in 2003? (In crore Rs. rounded off to two digits after decimal). A) 52.75 B) 53.86 C) 52.86 D) 53.75 E) None of these 115. Profit earned by company B in 2004 is what per cent of the profit earned by the same company in 2003? A) 133.33 B) 75 C) 67.66 D) 75.25 E) None of these

SU

A' S

10

Suras SBI Clerical Exam Solved Q Paper - July 2008

117. How many female youths were unemployed in State D in 2005? A) 14,400 B) 1,44,000 C) 1,40,000 D) 14,000 E) None of these 118. Number of unemployed male youths in State A in 2005 was what per cent of the number of unemployed female youths in State E in 2006? A) 66 B) 50 C) 200 D) 133 E) None of these 119. What was the difference between the number of unemployed male youths in State F in 2005 and the number of unemployed male youths in State A in 2006? A) 70,000 B) 45,000 C) 68,000 D) 65,000 E) None of these 120. What was the respective ratio between unemployed male youths in State D in 2005 and the unemployed male youths in State D in 2006? A) 1 : 1 B) 2 : 3 C) 3 : 2 D) 4 : 5 E) None of these

Directions (Qns. 116 to 120): Study the following table carefully to answer these questions: Table giving percentage of unemployed male and female youth and the total population for different states in 2005 and 2006. 2005 2006 State M F T M F T A 12 15 32 7 8 35 B 8 7 18 10 9 20 C 9 10 28 10 12 34 D 10 6 24 8 8 30 E 6 8 30 7 6 32 F 7 5 28 8 7 35
M = Percentage of unemployed Male youth over total population F = Percentage of unemployed Female youth over total population T = Total population of the state in lakhs 116. What was the total number of unemployed youths in State A in 2006? A) 2,20,000 B) 3,25,000 C) 5,20,000 D) 5,25,000 E) None of these

SU

121. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that DOES NOT belong to the group? A) Table B) Chair C) Cupboard D) Bed E) Computer 122. In a certain code RETAIL is written as UFSBJM, how is EXPECT written in that code? A) FQYFDU B) QYFUDF C) FYQFDU D) QYFFDU E) None of these 123. If in the number 76534218 each digit is replaced by the next digit i.e. 1 is replaced by 2, 2 is replaced by 3 and so on and then the digits are arranged in

REASONING ABILITY
ascending order from left to right, which digit will be fifth from the left end? A) 6 B) 5 C) 7 D) 4 E) None of these 124. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that DOES NOT belong to the group? A) 119 B) 123 C) 143 D) 133 E) 149 125. If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?

A' S

Suras SBI Clerical Exam Solved Q Paper - July 2008

A) None B) One C) Two D) Three E) More than three 126. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that DOES NOT belong to the group? A) Apple B) Papaya C) Litchi D) Guaua E) Orange 127. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet ? A) None B) One C) Two D) Three E) More than three 128. If the digits in the number 5734629 are arranged in ascending order from left to right, how many digits will remain at the same position? A) None B) One C) Two D) Three E) More than three 129. If it is the possible to make only one meaningful word from the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of the word is your answer. If more than one such word can be formed your answer is A and if no such word can be formed your answer is B A) V B) T C) E D) A E) B 130. ACF : GIL : : CEH : ? A) ILN B) IKN C) IKM D) ILM E) None of these Directions (Qns. 131 to 135) : These questions are based on the following set of numbers. 738 495 329 653 849 131. If in each number the first and the third digits are interchanged and the newly formed numbers are arranged in ascending order, which number will be the third?

11

A) 738 B) 495 C) 329 D) 653 E) 849 132. If 1 is added to the first digit of each number and 1 is subtracted from the second digit, which number will be the largest? A) 738 B) 495 C) 329 D) 653 E) 849 133. If in each number the positions of the first and second digits are interchanged which number will be the smallest? A) 738 B) 495 C) 329 D) 653 E) 849 134. If 1 is subtracted from the last digit as well as the first digit and then the second and third digits are interchanged, which number will be the second if arranged in ascending order? A) 653 B) 849 C) 495 D) 738 E) 329 135. If 1 is subtracted form the last digit of each number and then the numbers are arranged in descending order, which number will be the first? A) 653 B) 849 C) 495 D) 738 E) 329 136. I f e a c h a l t e r n a t e l e t t e r beginning with the first in the word WORKING is replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet and each of the remaining letters is replaced by the previous letter in the English alphabet, which of the following will be the fourth from the right end after the replacement? A) N B) Q C) J D) M E) None of these 137. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that DOES NOT belong to that group?

SU

A' S

12

Suras SBI Clerical Exam Solved Q Paper - July 2008

Conclusions: I. All roses are sunflowers. II. Some jasmines are roses. 142. Statements: Some papers are files. All files are books. Some books are printers. Conclusions: I. Some files are printers. II. Some books are papers. 143. Statements: Some leaves are branches. Some branches are trees Some trees are flowers. Conclusions: I. Some leaves are trees. II. Some branches are flowers. 144. Statements: Some blades are knives. Some knives are tables. All books are tables. Conclusions: I. Some books are knives. II. Some books are blades. 145. Statements: All windows are houses. All roads are houses. Some houses are hills. Conclusions: I. Some hills are windows. II. Now hill is window. Directions (Qns. 146 to 152) : Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below: R 4 E J 5 T1 AMQ38N I K 7 W F 6 D 9 U 2 Y V 146. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that DOES NOT belong to that group? A) J 54 B) 38 M C) 7 WI D) 2 Y 9 E) 8 I Q 147. How many such vowels are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a number and immediately followed by a consonant? A) None B) One

A) March B) January C) July D) June E) May 138. M is older than R. Q is younger than R and N. N is not as old as M. Who among M, N, R and Q is the oldest? A) M B) R C) M or R D) Data inadequate E) None of these 139. The positions of how many digits in the number 7354612 will remain unchanged after the digits within the numbers are rearranged in decending order from left to right? A) None B) One C) Two D) Three E) More than Three 140. If M means , R means +, T means and K means , then 20 R 16 K 5 M 10 T 8 = ? A) 36 B) 20 C) 36.5 D) 12 E) None of these Directions (Qns. 141 to 145): In each question below are three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II . You have to take the three given statements to true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the three statements disregarding commonly known facts. Give answer (A) if only conclusion I follows. Give answer (B) if only conclusion II follows. Give answer (C) if either I or II follows. Give answer (D) if neither I nor II follows. Give answer (E) if both I and II follow. 141. Statements: All roses are marigolds. All marigolds are sunflowers. Some sunflowers are jasmine.

SU

A' S

Suras SBI Clerical Exam Solved Q Paper - July 2008

C) Two D) Three E) More than three 148. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a consonant but not immediately followed by a consonant? A) One B) Two C) Three D) Four E) More than four 149. Which of the following is exactly in the middle between A and D in the above arrangement ? A) I B) N C) K D) 8 E) None of these 150. If all the numbers in the above arrangement are dropped, which of the following will be the ninth to the left of D ? A) T B) A C) V D) J E) None of these 151. Which of the following is the sixth to the left of the eleventh from the left end of the above arrangement ? A) M B) 9 C) W D) 5 E) None of these 152. Which of the following is the fourth to the right of the tenth from the right end of the above arrangement? A) 8 B) D C) I D) T E) None of these Directions (Qns. 153 to 157) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below: P, Q, R, S, T and V are six students studying in a class. Each of them has a different height and weight. The tallest is not the heaviest. T is taller than only p but lighter than R. Q is taller than S and P and heavier than only T and V. P is lighter than only S. T is heavier than V. S is taller than V and Q is not the tallest.

13

153. How many of them are heavier than T? A) One B) Two C) Three D) Five E) None of these 154. How many of them are shorter than Q? A) Two B) Four C) Three D) Five E) None of these 155. Who among them is the tallest? A) V B) P C) T D) R E) None of these 156. Who among them is third from top if arranged in descending order of height? A) Q B) V C) S D) Data inadequate E) None of these 157. Who among them is the lightest? A) V B) T C) P D) R E) None of these 158. In a certain code SEAL is written as $75@ and DOSE is written as #8$7. How is SOLD written in that code? A) $8@# B) #87$ C) #8$7 D) $5@# E) None of these 159. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that DOES NOT belong to the group? A) Red B) Pink C) Green D) Violet E) Yellow 160. If + means , means +, means + and means then what is the value of 540 36 + 12 75 55? A) 255 B) 512 C) 180 D) 235 E) None of these

SU

A' S

14

Suras SBI Clerical Exam Solved Q Paper - July 2008

MARKETING KNOWLEDGE
161. How many companies from India found a place in the Global-500 list? A) 5 B) 4 C) 8 D) 10 E) 9 162. For the year 2007-08, World Bank has predicted Indias GDP growth at A) Below 8% B) Below 7% C) 8.5% D) 9.6% E) 10% 163. National Electricity Policy envisages elimination of power shortage by 2012 through addition of............. during 10th and 11th Plan periods. A) 75,000 MW B) 50,000 MW C) 100,000 MW D) 125,000 MW E) 60,000 MW 164. Recently Tata Consultancy Services (TCS) has succeeded in acquiring a big deal from Bank of China worth A) $ 75 million B) $ 50 million C) $ 100 million D) $125 million E) $ 150 million 165. As per the latest estimates of Petroleum Ministry, Indias refining capacity will be increased to .......... million tonnes per annum by the end of the coming 11th Plan. A) 220 B) 210 C) 230 D) 240 E) 180 166. Beyond Scarcity: Power, Poverty and Global Water Crisis is the theme of A) Human Development Report 2006 B) Human Development Report 2005 C) World Development Report 2005 D) World Development Report 2006 E) None of these 167. Report of the Sachar Committee is related to A) Status of the Scheduled Castes in India. B) Social, economic and educational status of the Muslim community. C) Economic status of Backward Classes in India. D) Educational Status of Backward Classes in India. E) None of these 168. According to the Global Gender Gap Report, 2006 by the World Economic Forum, the country which has provided more political empowerment to women among the following is A) USA B) India C) Sri Lanka D) Bangladesh E) Bhutan 169. According to the Human Development Report 2006 of UNDP, the position of India in Human Development Index is A) 135th B) 126th C) 137th D) 81st E) None of these 170. Noted author and activist Arundhati Roy has been supporting the farmers of Singur in West Bengal who are resisting the State Governments move to acquire land and give it to A) Tata Motors B) Maruti Udyog Ltd. C) Hindustan Motors D) Infosys E) Hero Motors 171. Year 2007 is being celebrated by India & China as the A) Tourism year B) Friendship year C) Co-operation year D) Water Year E) None of these 172. The 14th Asia Pacific Economic Co-operation (APEC) 2006 Summit was held in A) Thailand B) Vietnam C) Brazil D) China E) Nepal

SU

A' S

Suras SBI Clerical Exam Solved Q Paper - July 2008

173. In the Union Budgets in India, which one of the following is the largest in amount? A) Non-Plan Expenditure B) Plan Expenditure C) Revenue Expenditure D) Capital Expenditure E) Defence Expenditure 174. Centre for DNA Fingerprinting is located at A) Bengalooru B) New Delhi C) Pune D) Hyderabad E) Chennai 175. Cryogenic engines are used in A) Atomic reactors B) Rockets C) Defrost Refrigerators D) Doing research connected with superconductivity E) Aeroplanes 176. Threat of global warming is increasing due to increasing concentration of A) Nitrous oxideB) Ozone C) Sulphur dioxide D) Carbon dioxide E) None of these 177. The 2008 Olympic Games will be held at A) Montreal B) Beijing C) Atlanta D) London E) Athens 178. N a r a i n K a r t h i k e y a n i s a sportsman in the field of A) Shooting B) Car racing C) Chess D) Golf E) Snooker 179. EI Nino is A) A sea storm B) A warm ocean current C) A tropical disturbance D) Another name of typhoon E) None of these 180. Which of the following industries are the major beneficiaries of the Mumbai port? A) Sugar and Cotton textile industry B) Iron and Steel industry C) Cotton textile and Petrochemical industry D) Engineering and Fertilizer industry E) None of these

15

181. The World Trade Organization (WTO) was earlier known as A) UNICEF B) GATT C) UNCTAD D) FAO E) None of these 182. What is Value Added Tax (VAT)? A) A new initiative taken by the Government to increase the tax-burden of high income groups B) A simple, transparent, easy to pay tax imposed on consumers C) A single tax that replaces State tax like surcharge, turnover tax, etc. D) A new tax to be imposed on the producers of capital goods. E) None of these 183. The outcome of devaluation of currency is A) Increased export and foreign reserve deficiency B) Increased export and improve-ment in balance of payments C) Increased import and improve-ment in balance of payments D) Increased export and import E) None of these 184. The common currency which has been introduced among 11 European nations is known as A) Euro B) Euro Pound C) Euro Dollar D) Euro Sterling E) None of these 185. Nuclear reactors used to produce electricity are based on A) Nuclear fusion B) Nuclear fission C) Cold fusion D) Superconductivity E) None of these 186. Who amongst the following was the head of the Investment Commission which submitted its report to the Government of India recently? A) Dr. Rakesh Mohan B) Mr. Ratan Tata C) Mr. Kumara Mangalam Birla D) Mr. Rahul Bajaj E) Mr. Anil Ambani

SU

A' S

16

Suras SBI Clerical Exam Solved Q Paper - July 2008

A) 6 B) 4 C) 10 D) 15 E) 20 194. ASEAN, the major trade bloc of the world, consists of the following nations A) I n d o n e s i a , M a l a y s i a , Thailand, Philippines and Singapore B) India, Bangladesh, Myanmar, Sri Lanka and Pakistan C) Indonesia, India, Thailand, Malaysia and Singapore D) V i e t n a m , T h a i l a n d , Mauritius, Singapore and Philippines E) None of these 195. The states through which the Cauvery river flows is A) Kerala, Karnataka & Tamil Nadu B) Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu C) Kerala, Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu D) Maharashtra, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu E) None of these 196. Which one of the following is NOT correctly matched? A) White Revolution-Dairy B) Green RevolutionAgriculture C) Blue Revolution-Fishery D) Red Revolution-Wool E) None of these 197. Which one of the following is NOT a department in the Ministry of Human Resource Development? A) Department of Secondary Education and Higher Education B) Department of Elementary Education and Literacy C) Department of Technical Education and Literacy D) Department of Woman and Child Development E) None of these 198. In India, National Income is estimated by A) C e n t r a l S t a t i s t i c a l Organisation B) Planning Commission

187. Mr. Arvind Kejriwal who got the Ramon Magsaysay Award 2006 is the founder of which of the following NGOs? A) Aawahan B) Sankalp C) Parivartan D) Sammelan E) Banyan 188. Which bank has launched a new health cover scheme under the name of Arogya Shree ? A) PNB B) SBI C) Andhra BankD) OBC E) IOB 189. The Eleventh Five-Year Plan has been named as A) Towards Fast and More Inclusive Growth B) Towards Infra structural and Agricultural Growth C) Towards Rapid Educational and Economical Growth D) Towards reduce the unemployment problem E) None of these 190. Which of the following State Governments has decided to provide health insurance to people living below the poverty line with effect from January 2007? A) Andhra Pradesh B) Orissa C) Karnataka D) West Bengal E) Kerala 191. In November 2006, Prime Minister Dr. Manmohan Singh and Chinese President Hu Jintao signed how many agreements including the Bilateral Investment Protection Agreement, in New Delhi ? A) 11 B) 15 C) 13 D) 9 E) 20 192. What is the position of Tatas, the largest Indian group in terms of revenues and market capitalisation, in the Forbes list of worlds most reputed companies? A) 20th B) 18th C) 22nd D) 24th E) 23rd 193. The Indian Railways has decided to start how many new luxury trains on the line of Palace on Wheels to ensure foreign customer?

SU

A' S

Suras SBI Clerical Exam Solved Q Paper - July 2008

C) Indian Statistical Institute D) National Sample Survey Organisation E) Finance Commission 199. Which state in the country has the largest number of districts? A) Maharashtra B) Madhya Pradesh C) Tamil Nadu D) Uttar Pradesh E) Andhra Pradesh

17

200. Who among the following has been given World Citizenship Award 2006 ? A) Jimmy Carter B) Kofi Annan C) Bill Clinton D) Ronald Reagan E) Tony Blair

COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE
201. The instructions of a program that is currently being executed is sorted in A) Secondary memory B) Main memory C) Read only memory D) Random access memory E) None of these 202. The number of bits used to represent a character is A) 4 B) 8 C) 16 D) 22 E) None of these 203. The programming language FORTRAN is mainly used for A) Data processing applications B) Scientific applications C) Real time applications D) Multimedia applications E) None of these 204. The MS DOS operating system is a A) Time sharing operating system B) Single user operating system C) Distributed operating system D) Multi user operating system E) None of these 205. The number of select input lines in an 8-to-1 Multiplexer is A) 1 B) 8 C) 256 D) 3 E) None of these 206. The number of bits used to represent a number (integer) is A) 4 B) 8 C) 16 D) 24 E) None of these 207. A toggle flip-flop can be constructed using a JK flip-flop by connecting the A) Toggle input to J and the inverted form of toggle input to K B) The toggle input to J C) Inverted form of toggle input to K D) Toggle input to K and the inverted form of toggle input to J. E) None of these 208. In a stack computer, there is support for A) PUSH and POP instructions only B) Zero address instructions only C) Zero address instructions, PUSH and POP D) PUSH instructed only E) None of these 209. The minimum hardware required to construct a 3-to-8 decoder is A) Two 2-to-4 decoders B) Two 2-to-4 decoders and 1-to-2 decoders C) Three 2-to-4 decoders D) Depends on the technology (TTL, CMOS, etc) E) None of these 210. The microprocessor 40486 is a processor with reduced A) Instruction set B) Power Requirement C) MIPS performance D) R e g i s t e r t o r e g i s t e r addition E) None of these

SU

A' S

18

Suras SBI Clerical Exam Solved Q Paper - July 2008

A) Telephone line only B) Satellite channel only C) Either telephone line or satellite channel D) Coaxial cable only E) Both telephone and satellite channel 220. E-mail stands for A) Electronic mail B) Excess mail C) Educational mail D) Electrical Mail E) None of these 221. Modem refers to A) Modulation B) Modulator C) Modulator and Demodulator D) Modern modes of communication E) None of these 222. Messages are transferred in a computer network through A) Circuit switching B) Message switching C) Packet switching D) Multiplexing E) None of these 223. Signals that involve human communications are generally A) Digital B) Analog C) Either digital or analog D) Both Digital and Analog E) None of these 224. Frequency range of the human voice is usually A) 100 - 4000 Hz B) 200 - 600 Hz C) 199 - 200 Hz D) 400 - 800 Hz E) None of these 225. Data Networks usually use A) Simplex transmission B) Half duplex transmission C) Full duplex transmission D) Duplex transmission E) None of these 226. Twisted wire pair can accommodate a maximum data rate of A) 2400 bps B) 4800 bps C) 9600 bps D) 19200 bps E) None of these 227. Co-axial cables are widely used in A) Telephone Networks B) Cable TV Networks C) Both in telephone and cable TV networks

211. In the IEEE 754 floating point representation standard, the word length of double precision is A) 23 bits B) 127 bits C) 16 bits D) 64 bits E) None of these 212. The sum of two hexadecimal numbers 23D and 9AA gives the hexadecimal number A) AF7 B) BF6 C) BE7 D) BE5 E) None of these 213. The simplified form of the expression AB + ABC is A) AB B) A (B + C) C) A (B + C) D) AB (1 + C) E) None of these 214. Which of the following is NOT a universal building block? A) Three-input NAND gate B) Two-input NOR gate C) Two-input multiplexer D) Two-input EXOR gate E) None of these 215. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of asynchronous circuit? A) High speed B) Lesser power consumption C) Smaller design effort D) No need to provide clock generation circuitry E) None of these 216. The minimum number of bits required to represent numbers in the range 23 to +31 is A) 8 B) 7 C) 6 D) 5 E) None of these 217. A CPU has a 16 bit program counter. This means that the CPU can address A) 16 K memory locations B) 32 K memory locations C) 64 K memory locations D) 256 K memory locations E) None of these 218. A large sized network is termed as A) WAN B) LAN C) MAN D) VAN E) None of these 219. Computers in a computer network are connected via

SU

A' S

Suras SBI Clerical Exam Solved Q Paper - July 2008

D) Computer Networks E) None of these 228. Angle modulation is referred to as A) Phase modulation only B) Frequency modulation only C) Amplitude and frequency modulation D) Frequency and phase modulation E) None of these 229. Radio broadcasting is a common example of A) FDM B) TDM C) Both FDM and TDM D) Either FDM or TDM E) None of these 230. In network terminology, SAP refers to the A) Secured application program B) Service access points C) Simple access protocol D) Service access protocol E) Sample access print 231. Which one of the following is NOT a Bit-oriented protocol? A) BISYNC B) DDCMP C) HDLC D) SDLC E) None of these 232. The local loop of a telephone channel consists of which of the following transmission mediums? A) Twin-wire B) Microwave C) Satellite D) Coaxial cable E) None of these 233. Which of the following modulations requires the lowest bandwidth ? A) ASK B) PSK C) FSK D) QPSK E) None of these 234. Which of the following is NOT a part of a FAX transmitter? A) PCM encoder B) Scanning C) Data compaction D) Digital modulation E) None of these

19

235. Satellite to ground communication takes place through A) Medium wave B) Short wave C) Microwave D) Optical signal E) None of these 236. An IBM compatible PC 386 SX system uses A) A 16-bit CPU B) A 32-bit CPU C) A 64-bitCPU D) A 386-bit CPU E) None of these 237. The language BASIC is normally used along with A) An assembler B) A compiler C) An interpreter D) A programmer E) None of these 238. A linker is a program which generates A) The executable program from object program B) An object program from an assembly language program C) The use of global variables D) An source program from an machine language program E) None of these 239. A debugging tool is a program which A) Removes bugs from a user program B) Removes viruses from the computer C) Helps the user find bugs in his program D) Displays the errors in a user program E) None of these 240. Which of the following is NOT an output of an assembler? A) Executable program B) A symbol table C) Object program D) Machine code E) None of these

SU

A' S

20

Suras SBI Clerical Exam Solved Q Paper - July 2008

ANSWERS
1. 8. 15. 22. 29. 36. 43. 50. 57. 64. 71. 78. 85. 92. 99. 106. 113. 120. 127. 134. 141. 148. 155. 162. 169. 176. 183. 190. 197. 204. 211. 218. 225. 232. 239. (A) (C) (A) (A) (A) (B) (C) (D) (D) (E) (C) (E) (B) (D) (C) (C) (A) (A) (E) (C) (A) (D) (D) (A) (B) (D) (B) (C) (C) (B) (D) (A) (C) (A) (C) 2. 9. 16. 23. 30. 37. 44. 51. 58. 65. 72. 79. 86. 93. 100. 107. 114. 121. 128. 135. 142. 149. 156. 163. 170. 177. 184. 191. 198. 205. 212. 219. 226. 233. 240. (C) (B) (B) (D) (D) (C) (A) (E) (C) (B) (E) (D) (C) (E) (D) (C) (C) (E) (C) (B) (B) (A) (C) (C) (A) (B) (A) (C) (A) (D) (C) (C) (C) (B) (A). 3. 10. 17. 24. 31. 38. 45. 52. 59. 66. 73. 80. 87. 94. 101. 108. 115. 122. 129. 136. 143. 150. 157. 164. 171. 178. 185. 192. 199. 206. 213. 220. 227. 234. (B) (B) (A) (D) (D) (D) (D) (A) (E) (D) (B) (A) (C) (B) (B) (D) (B) (D) (D) (C) (D) (A) (A) (C) (B) (B) (B) (A) (D) (C) (D) (A) (C) (A) 4. 11. 18. 25. 32. 39. 46. 53. 60. 67. 74. 81. 88. 95. 102. 109. 116. 123. 130. 137. 144. 151. 158. 165. 172. 179. 186. 193. 200. 207. 214. 221. 228. 235. (D) (A) (D) (C) (D) (B) (D) (B) (A) (E) (A) (D) (A) (E) (B) (E) (D) (A) (B) (D) (D) (D) (A) (D) (B) (A) (B) (A) (C) (D) (B) (C) (D) (D) 5. 12. 19. 26. 33. 40. 47. 54. 61. 68. 75. 82. 89. 96. 103. 110. 117. 124. 131. 138. 145. 152. 159. 166. 173. 180. 187. 194. 201. 208. 215. 222. 229. 236. (B) (B) (B) (A) (B) (D) (D) (A) (A) (B) (D) (C) (D) (E) (C) (E) (B) (A) (A) (A) (C) (B) (B) (A) (A) (C) (C) (A) (B) (C) (C) (C) (A) (B) 6. 13. 20. 27. 34. 41. 48. 55. 62. 69. 76. 83. 90. 97. 104. 111. 118. 125. 132. 139. 146. 153. 160. 167. 174. 181. 188. 195. 202. 209. 216. 223. 230. 237. (D) (D) (A) (C) (D) (D) (B) (E) (C) (C) (B) (B) (D) (E) (A) (E) (C) (A) (E) (D) (E) (E) (E) (B) (D) (B) (A) (A) (B) (B) (C) (B) (B) (C) 7. 14. 21. 28. 35. 42. 49. 56. 63. 70. 77. 84. 91. 98. 105. 112. 119. 126. 133. 140. 147. 154. 161. 168. 175. 182. 189. 196. 203. 210. 217. 224. 231. 238. (A) (A) (A) (C) (A) (B) (C) (B) (D) (A) (C) (A) (C) (D) (A) (E) (E) (E) (C) (B) (C) (B) (A) (B) (B) (C) (B) (D) (B) (D) (C) (A) (A) (B)

SU

A' S

Suras SBI Clerical Exam Solved Q Paper - July 2008

21

EXPLANATORY ANSWERS
General English
50.(D) The meaning of the word lattter (Adjective, Noun) as used in the passage is the second of two things, people or groups that have just been mentioned or the last in a list. Look at the sentence: He presented two solutions, The latter seems much better. Out of the given alternatives the word former means used to refer to the first of two things or people mentioned. Look at the sentence: He had to choose between giving up his job and giving up his principles. He chose the former. Hence the words former and latter are antonymous. 51. (E) The meaning of the word hazardous (Adjective) as used in the Passage is involving risk or danger, especially to somebodys health or safety. Look at the sentences : It would be hazardous to invest so much. The department issued a list o f products that are potentially hazardous to health. Hence, the words hazardous and safe are antonymous. Look at the sentence: The results of the experiment are not statistically significant. It is significant that girls generally do better in examinations than boys. Out of the given alternatives the word trivial (Adjective) means not important or serious; not worth considering. Look at the sentence: I know it sounds trivial, but I am worried about it. Hence, the words Significant and trivial are antonymous.

52.(A) The meaning of the word significant (Adjective) as used in the passage is large or important enough to have an effect, meaningful important.

SU

A' S

53. (B) The meaning of the word Sterling (Adjective) as used in the passage is : excellent. Look at the sentence: He has done sterling work on the finance committee. Hence, the words fomidable and sterling are synonymous. 54. (A) The meaning of the word Venture (Verb) as used in the passage is to go somewhere eventhough you know that it might be dangerous or unpleasant. Look at the sentence: He has never ventured aborad in his life. Hence, the words dare and Venture are synonymous. 55. (E) The meaning of the word seriously (Adjective) as used in the passage is in a serious way, very extremely.

22

Suras SBI Clerical Exam Solved Q Paper - July 2008

Look at the sentence: You are not seriously expecting me to believe that? Hence, the words seriously and acutely are synonymous. The correct spelling is : Buffalo. The correct spelling is : Coincidence. The correct spelling is : Destruction. The correct spelling is : Archery. Use Passive voice. The use of Present Continuous is improper. Look at the sentence: He was thrilled at the prospect of seeing them again. Hence, .........are always thrilling should be replaced by ...........are always thrilled. Use Preposition about in place of preposition of. Look at the sentence: What did you think about the idea? 74. (A) Use he was so tired............. in place of he was too tired ................... Look at the sentences : He was too tired to walk. (with too) He was so tired that he was not able to walk. (without too) 75. (D) Use cannot be fulfilled (Passive Voice) in place of cannot be fulfil. 76. (B) .......his person qualities should be used in place of .........his person qualities. The Adjective form of person is personal and qualities is a Noun. 77. (C) Use mostly liked by...... in place of mostly like by. 79. (D) Use Active Voice. Hence ......... can help will be a correct usage. 80. (A) The word obviously is an Adverb. The word reluctance is Noun which should be preceded by an Adjective. Hence, obvious reluctance is correct usage.

56. (B) 57. (D) 58. (C) 60. (A) 71. (C)

SU
81. (D) 650 82. (C)
94 .5 = 614.25 100

? = 1313 137 = 1313+7 = 1320

? = 13 .33 + 33 .31 + 331 .13 = 377.77 84. (A) ? = 464 (16 2.32)

83. (B)

73. (B)

Quantitative Aptitude
86. (C) Speed of bus Dis tan ce cov ered = Time taken 2924 = = 68 kmph 43 87.(C) Let the number be x. According to the question, x3 (11)3 = 7930 x3 = 7930 + 1331 = 9261 x = 3 9261 = 3 21 21 21 = 21

85. (B)

464 = 12.5 16 2.32 ? = 178 5 0.5 178 = = 71.2 5 0 .5 =

A' S

Suras SBI Clerical Exam Solved Q Paper - July 2008

88. (A)
S.I. = Pr incipal Time Rate 100
2

23

5760 3 6 = Rs.1036.80 100 89. (D) Product = 135 333 = 44955 90. (D) Let the numbers be x and (x+1). According to the question, x(x+1) = 8556 x(x+1) = 92 93 x = 92 91. (C) Average Score = = 221 + 231 + 441 + 359 + 665 + 525 6
=

2 = 3000 1 + 25 27 27 = 3000 25 25 = Rs. 3499.20 C.I. = Rs. (3499.20 3000) = Rs. 499.20

95. (E) CP of DVD player 100 = SP (100 + 22) 100 = 10980 = Rs.9000 122 96. (E) Let the number be x. According to the question, x2 782 = 6460

2442 = 407 6 92. (D) Let the number be x x 45 = 255.6 100

25 = 142 100 93. (E) 6 4321 65 6 36 125 721 5 625 130 96 Clearly, 652 < 4321 < 662 652 < 4321 < 4356 Required answer = 4356 4321 = 35 = 568

SU
T 2

255 .6 100 = 568 45 Required answer x=

R 94. (B) Amount = P 1 + 100 8 = 30001 + 100

A' S
A

x 2 = 6460 + 60 84

x2 = 12544

x = 12544 = 112 97. (E) The student gets 4% less than 40% Clearly, 36% of total marks = 261 Total marks 261 100 = = 725 36 98. (D) Ratio of the amounts received by A, B and C = 7 : 8 : 6 Sum of the ratios = 7+8+6 = 21 Sum received by

7 4200 = Rs.1400 21 8 B 4200 = Rs.1600 21 6 C 4200 = Rs.1200 21 On adding Rs.200 to the share of each one, the required ratio = 1600 : 1800 : 1400 =8:9:7

24

Suras SBI Clerical Exam Solved Q Paper - July 2008

104.(A) Amount received by each person
41910 = Rs.1905 22 105.(A) 4 cell phones + 7 cameras = Rs.125627 8 cell phones + 14 cameras = Rs.(2125627) = Rs.2,51,254 =

59 1500 = 885 100 102.(B) ? = 4275 496212 =

SU
= 4275 (21)2 496

210 100 = 1500 14 Required Answer x=

4275 441 = = 3800 496 103.(C) Requirement of which for 7 days = 112 kg Requirement of wheat for

A' S
x =

24000 8 14 100 = Rs. 26880 Total amount = Rs.(24000 + 26880) = Rs. 50880 100.(D) Let the five consecutive even numbers be x, x+2, x+4, x+6 and x+8 respectively. According to the question, x + x+2+x+4+x+6+x+8 = 5 52 5x + 20 = 260 5x 240 = 260 20 x = = 48 5 B = x+2 = 48+2 = 50 E = x+8 = 48 + 8 = 56 B E = 50 56 = 2800 101.(B) Let the number be x. Difference of percentage = 42 28 = 14% According to the question,

99. (C) S.I. =

106.(C) From statement I, Circumference of circle = 88 cm 2 r = 88 cm Thus we can find out r (radius) and hence area of the circle by using the formula r2 . From statement II, Diameter of circle = 28 cm Radius = 14 cm 2 Area of circle = r

107.(C) From statement II, If principal = Rs. x, then interest after 10 years = Rs. x
x Rate 10 100 Rate = 10% p.a. From statement I,

Pr incipal =

Difference (100)2 (Rate)2 250 (100)2 (Rate )2

25000 =
(Rate )2 =

1 day =

112 kg 7 The requirement of wheat for 112 69 7

250 10000 = 100 25000

Rate = 100 = 10 % p.a.

108.(D) The data given in both statements are inadequate.

69 days = = 1104 kg

Suras SBI Clerical Exam Solved Q Paper - July 2008

109.(E) From statements I and II, Let the base of the triangle be x metre. 3x Height = metre 4
Base 2 + Height 2 = Hypotenuse

25

3x x2 + = 5 4
x2 + 9x 2 =5 16

16x 2 + 9x 2 = 5 16

25x 2 =5 16

1 4 3 = 6m 2 2 110.(E) From statement I, Let the present age of son = x years Present age of father = 5x years From statements I and II, 5x 5 = 15 (x 5) 5x 5 = 15x 75 15x 5x = 75 5

triangle =

70 =7 10 Fathers present age = 57 = 35 years 111.(E) Profit earned by company A in 2004 = Rs.40 crore Profit earned by company B in 2003 = Rs. 40 crore Required ratio = 40 : 40 = 1 : 1
10x = 70 x =

SU

5x 45 = 5 x = =4 4 5 Base = 4 metre 3 4 = 3 metre and height = 4 Area of right angled

A' S
= =

112.(E) Profit earned by companies E, F and G in Year 2003 50+80+60 = Rs.190 crore Year 2004 40+20+50 = Rs. 110 crore Required difference = 190 110 = Rs.80 crore 113.(A) Profit earned by company C in 2003 and 2004. = 50+60 = Rs.110 crore Profit earned by company E in 2003 and 2004 = 40+50=Rs.90 crore Required ratio = 110 : 90 = 11 : 9 114.(C) Required average profit
20 + 40 + 50 + 70 + 50 + 80 + 60 = Rs. crore 7

370 = Rs. 52.86 crore 7 115.(B) Earned profit by company B in 2004 = Rs.30 crore Earned profit by company B in 2003 = Rs.40 crore Required percentage 30 = 100 = 75 40 116.(D) Required number = (7+8)% of total population 15 = 35 lakh 100 = 5.25 lakh = 5,25,000 117.(B) Number of unemployed female youths in State D in 2005 6 24 = lakh 100 = 1.44 lakh = 1,44,000 118.(C) Number of unemployed male youths in State A in 2005 12 32 = 3.84 lakh 100

26

Suras SBI Clerical Exam Solved Q Paper - July 2008

7 35 = 2.45 lakh 100 Required difference =(2.45 1.96) lakh =0.49 lakh = 49,000 =

Number of unemployed female youths in State E in 2006 6 32 = = 1.92 lakh 100 Required percentage 3.84 = 100 = 200 1.92 119.(E) Number of unemployed male youths in State F in 2005 7 28 = = 1.96 lakh 100 Number of unemployed youths in State A in 2006 121.(E) Except Computer all others are different types of furniture. Computer is an electronic device. 122.(D) R E T A I L
+1 +1 +1 +1

120.(A) Number of unemployed youths in State D in

Year 2005
Year 2006

10 24 = 2.4 lakh 100

8 30 = 2.4 lakh 100 Required ratio = 2.4 : 2.4 = 1 : 1

Reasoning Ability

R
B J M

SU
Similarly,
E X P E C
+1

F S

+1 +1 +1

A' S
128.(C) 129.(D)
T

126.(E) Orange is a citrus fruit. 127.(E)

5 24 3 21 18 19 9 15 14 E X C U R S I O N

5 7 3 4 6 2 9 2 3 4 5 6 7 9
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 D E V I A T I O N

Meaningful Words : VETO, VOTE 130.(B)

A C F
+6 +6 +6

G I L

Y F

D U

123.(A) 7 6 5 3 4 2 1 8 87645329 Ascending order of digits

2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 5th from left

Similarly,
C E H
+6 +6 +6

I K N

124.(A) Except 119 all others are Prime Numbers. 125.(A) H A N D O V E R V R O N H E D A No letter is at the same position.

131.(A) 738 837; 495 594; 329 923; 653 356; 849 948 356 < 594 < 837 < 923 < 948
3rd Number

Suras SBI Clerical Exam Solved Q Paper - July 2008

132.(E) The largest number 849 939 133.(C) 738 378; 495 945; 329 239; 653 563; 849 489 Smallest number 239 134.(C) 738 637; 495 394;

27

142.(B) First and third Premises are Particular Affirmative (Itype). Second Premise is Universal Affirmative (A-type). Some papers are files. All files are books. I + A I-type Conclusion Some papers are books. Conclusion II is Converse of the derived Conclusion. 143.(D) All the three Premises are Particular Affirmative (I-type) No conclusion follows from Particular Premises. 144.(D) First and second premises are Particular Affirmative (I-type). Third Premise is Universal Affirmative (A-type). Second and third Premises are not alligned. 145.(C) First and second Premises are Universal Affirmative (A-type). Third Premise is Particular Affirmative (I-type). All windows are houses. Some houses are hills. A+I No Conclusion. Conclusions I and II form Complementary Pair. Therefore, either Conclusion I or Conclusion II follows.
+1 3 146.(E) J 5 4 +1 3

W O R K I N G X N S J

J M H

4th from right

140.(B) ? = 20 + 16 5 10 8 5 8 or, ? = 20 + 16 10 or, ? = 20 + 8 8 = 20 141.(A) First and second Premises are Universal Affirmative (A-type). Third Premise is Particular Affirmative (I-type). All roses are marigolds. All marigolds are sunflowers. A +A A - type Conclusion All roses are sunflowers

SU
7 3 5 4 6 1 2 7 6 5 4 3 2 1

137.(D) Except June, all other months have 31 days each. 138.(A) M>R; Q<R, N; N<M M>R, N>Q 139.(D)

A' S
+1 +1
+2

329 228; 653 552; 849 748 Now, 637 673; 394 349; 228 282; 552 525; 748 784 282<349<525<673<784 135.(B) The numbers according to question would be : 737, 494, 328, 652, 848 136.(C)

3 8 M 7 W I 2 Y 9
8 I Q
4

28
147.(C)

Suras SBI Clerical Exam Solved Q Paper - July 2008

Number Vowel Consonant Such combinations are 4EJ , 1AM
153.(E) S, P, R and Q are heavier than T. 154.(B) S, V, T and P are shorter than Q. 155.(D) R is the tallest. 156.(C) S is the third from the top. 157.(A) V is the lightest. 158.(A)
S E A L

148.(D)

Consonant Number Vowel or Number Such combinations are :

R4E , T1A , Q38 , D9U

149.(A)
...A M Q 3 8 N I K 7 W F 6 D... 6 elements 6 elements

$ 7 5 @ D OS E # 8 $ 7

150.(A) New sequence

REJTAMQNIKWFDUYV 9 th to left of D

SU

151.(D) 6th to the left of 11th from the left means 5th from left. 5th from left 5 152.(B) 4th to right of 10th from right means 6th from right. 6th from right D 153-157. According to height R>Q>S>V>T>P According to weight S>P>R>Q>T>V

A' S
S O L D

Therefore,
$ 8 @#

159.(B) Except Pink, all others are different colours of a rainbow. 160.(E) ? = 5403612+75 55 or, ? = 1512+75 55 or, ? = 180+75 55 = 200.