Scoring: 4 points 90-100 3 points 80-89 2 points 70-79

Practice Test Skeletal System

(These topics will not be on the lecture exam) Axial Skeleton 1. Which of the following is not a part of the axial division of the skeletal system? a. Skull b. Auditory ossicles c. Hyoid bone d. Pectoral girdle e. Vertebral column 2. Which of the following is a function of the axial skeleton? a. Provides an attachment for muscles that move the appendicular skeleton b. Provides an attachment for muscles that move the head, neck, and trunk c. Provides an attachment for muscles involved in respiration d. All of the above e. B and C only 3. The foramen magnum would be found in the _____ bone. a. Frontal b. Parietal c. Sphenoid d. Occipital e. Temporal 4. The suture that forms the articulation of the two parietal bones is the _____ suture. a. Lamboidal b. Rostral c. Coronal d. Squamosal e. Sagittal

5. The calvaria is formed by the _____ bones. a. Frontal, temporal, and parietal b. Frontal, parietal, and occipital c. Temporal, parietal, and occipital d. Frontal, temporal, and occipital e. Frontal, temporal, parietal and occipital 6. Each of the following bones contributes to forming the orbit, except the _____ bone. a. Lacrimal b. Nasal c. Sphenoid d. Ethmoid e. Frontal 7. The zygomatic arch is formed by the union of processes from which two bones? a. Temporal and maxilla b. Frontal and temporal c. Sphenoid and temporal d. Zygomatic and maxilla e. Temporal and zygomatic 8. The external auditory meatus is found in the _____ bone. a. Sphenoid b. Zygomatic c. Temporal d. Parietal e. Occipital

BI 231 Pamela VanZanten, MD

Skeleton Practice Test

9. The prominent bulge just posterior and inferior to the external auditory meatus is the a. Mastoid process. b. Styloid process. c. Occipital condyle. d. Condyloid process. e. Temporal process. 10. The bony portion of the nasal septum is formed by the a. Nasal bones. b. Perpendicular plate of the ethmoid bone. c. Perpendicular plate of the ethmoid and vomer bones. d. Vomer and sphenoid bone. e. Perpendicular plate of the ethmoid and sphenoid bones. 11. Each of the following landmarks is associated with the occipital bone except the a. Superficial nuchal lines. b. Jugular foramen. c. Hypoglossal canals. d. Supraorbital foramen. e. Occipital crest. 12. Ligaments that support the hyoid bone are attached to the a. Styloid process. b. Mastoid process. c. Articular tubercle. d. Posterior clinoid process. e. Middle concha. 13. The structure that separates the condylar and coronoid processes of the mandible is the a. Ramus. b. Angle. c. Styloid process. d. Mandibular notch. e. Mandibular canal.

14. The lower jaw articulates with the temporal bone at the a. Mandibular fossa. b. Mastoid process. c. Superior clinoid process. d. Foramen rotundum. e. Cribriform plate. 15. Each of the following is associated with the temporal bone, except the a. Mastoid cells. b. Petrous portion. c. Sella turcica. d. Internal acoustic meatus. e. Tympanic cavity. 16. The hypophyseal fossa or sella turcica contains the _____ gland. a. Lacrimal b. Pituitary c. Olfactory d. Nasal e. Salivary 17. The bony roof of the mouth is formed by the _____ bone(s). a. Palatine b. Vomer c. Maxillae d. Sphenoid e. Both A and C 18. The hyoid bone a. Serves as a base of attachment for muscles that move the tongue. b. Is part of the mandible. c. Is located inferior to the larynx. d. All of the above e. A and C only

BI 231 Pamela VanZanten, MD

Skeleton Practice Test

19. The bone that serves as a bridge uniting the cranial and facial bones is the a. Ethmoid. b. Sphenoid. c. Frontal. d. Lacrimal. e. Nasal.

24. Thoracic vertebrae can be distinguished from other vertebrae by the presence of a. Transverse processes. b. Transverse foramina. c. Facets for the articulation of ribs. d. Notched spinous processes. e. Costal cartilages. 25. The coccyx is composed of _____ vertebra(e). a. A single b. 3 to 5 fused c. 2 or 3 fused d. 6 fused e. 8 fused 26. All of the following are true of the sacrum, except that it a. Provides protection for reproductive, digestive, and excretory organs. b. Provides a point of attachment for leg muscles. c. Articulates with the pelvic bones. d. Articulates with the first pair of ribs. e. Articulates with the coccyx. 27. The ribs articulate with the _____ of the vertebrae. a. Spinous process b. Transverse process c. Lamina d. Pedicles e. Neural arch 28. The costal groove would be found on a. Cervical vertebrae. b. Thoracic vertebrae. c. Lumbar vertebrae. d. The sternum. e. Ribs.

20. The nasal complex consists of all of the following bones except the a. Zygomatic. b. Ethmoid. c. Sphenoid. d. Frontal. e. Maxillae.

21. The paranasal sinuses are located in all of the following bones except the a. Frontal. b. Ethmoid. c. Sphenoid. d. Maxillae. e. Zygomatic. 22. The odontoid process is found on the a. Atlas. b. Axis. c. Sacrum. d. Coccyx. e. Ribs.

23. Costal processes are located on _____ vertebrae. a. Cervical b. Thoracic c. Lumbar d. Sacral e. Coccygeal

BI 231 Pamela VanZanten, MD

Skeleton Practice Test

29. The portion of the sternum that articulates with the clavicles is the a. Manubrium. b. Body. c. Xiphoid process. d. Angle. e. Tuberculum. 30. Sutures can be found at all of the joints of an adult skull except between a. The mandible and the cranium. b. The zygomatic bone and the maxillary bone. c. The occipital bone and the parietal bone. d. The vomer and the zygomatic bone. e. None of the above, as they are all sutures. 31. You witness two of your friends in a fight. Your friend Gregg is hit in the jaw and when looking at him, his face looks misaligned. You immediately take him to the local emergency room and are not surprised to learn that he has a broken a. Temporal bone. b. Zygomatic bone. c. Mandible. d. External auditory meatus. e. Clavicle. 32. While visiting your friend who recently gave birth, she comments on her new childs soft spot. You think to yourself that the correct term for the soft spot is a. Sphenoidal fontanel. b. Anterior fontanel. c. Occipital fontanel. d. Mastoid fontanel. e. Cushion spot.

33. A notched spinous process is said to be a. Mifid. b. Bifid. c. Trifid. d. Difid. e. Notchy. 34. All of the following are true of lumbar vertebrae except that a. The superior articular processes face medially. b. They do not have costal facets. c. The transverse process is slender and projects dorsolaterally. d. The vertebral foramen is triangular. e. They bear little weight. 35. The sternum contains a. The manubrium. b. The jugular notch. c. The body. d. The xiphoid process. e. All of the above 36. While performing cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) on an unconscious person, you are careful to position your hands correctly to avoid damage to the a. Ribs. b. Scapula. c. Xiphoid process. d. Sacrum. e. Both A and C 37. Of the following bones, which is unpaired? a. Vomer b. Maxillary c. Palatine d. Nasal e. None of these

BI 231 Pamela VanZanten, MD

Skeleton Practice Test

38. The styloid process, zygomatic process, and auditory ossicles are associated with the a. Parietal bone. b. Occipital bone. c. Sphenoid. d. Temporal bone. e. Ulna.

39. The membranous areas between the cranial bones of the fetal skull are a. Fontanels. b. Sutures. c. Wormian bones. d. Foramina. e. Fibrocartilaginous discs.

43. Ridges that intersect the occipital crest are termed a. Anterior and posterior nuchal lines. b. Anterior and superior nuchal lines. c. Inferior and superior nuchal lines. d. Superior and posterior nuchal lines. e. Dorsal and ventral nuchal lines. 44. As you proceed from the head down the vertebral column a. The vertebrae become larger and heavier. b. The size of the neural arch decreases. c. The spinous process becomes longer. d. All of the above e. A and B only 45. Mick gets into a fight and sustains a blow to the nose. Which of the following bones might be fractured by this blow? a. Ethmoid bone b. Sphenoid bone c. Temporal bone d. Mandible e. Parietal bone 46. In a car accident, Tom suffers a fracture of the alveolar process of his maxillae. As a consequence of this injury he loses a. Sight. b. His sense of smell. c. Some teeth. d. The ability to form tears. e. Feeling in his lower jaw.

40. The function of the hyoid is to a. Support the larynx. b. Support the clavicle. c. Support the sternum. d. Support the skull. e. Provide leverage for joint movement. 41. Vertebrae of the a. Thoracic region are fused. b. Cervical region are fused. c. Coccyx are not fused. d. Coccyx are fused. e. Lumbar region are fused. 42. Lumbar vertebrae are _____ massive and _____ mobile. a. Least; most b. Most; most c. Least; least d. Not; excessively e. Most; least

BI 231 Pamela VanZanten, MD

Skeleton Practice Test

The Appendicular Skeleton 47. The appendicular skeleton consists of all of the following, except the a. Bones of the arms. b. Bones of the legs. c. Hyoid bone. d. Bones that connect the limbs to the axial skeleton. e. Bones at the hands and feet. 48. Which of the following is not a component of the appendicular skeleton? a. Scapula b. Sacrum c. Femur d. Humerus e. Os coxae 49. The pectoral girdle contains the a. Humerus. b. Manubrium. c. Sternum. d. Scapula. e. Both A and B 50. Which end of the clavicle is the larger end? a. Sternal b. Acromial c. Medial d. Superior e. Inferior 51. The small, anterior projection of the scapula that extends over the superior margin of the glenoid fossa is the a. Scapular spine. b. Coracoid process. c. Acromion. d. Supraspinous fossa. e. Median process. 52. The clavicle articulates with the scapula at the a. Acromion process. b. Coracoid process. c. Glenoid tuberosity. d. Scapular spine. e. Subscapular fossa.

53. A landmark found near the proximal end of the humerus would be the a. Medial epicondyle. b. Lateral epicondyle. c. Greater tubercle. d. Olecranon fossa. e. Capitulum.

54. The depression on the anterior medial surface at the distal end of the humerus is the a. Olecranon fossa. b. Coronoid fossa. c. Radial fossa. d. Intertubercular groove. e. Radial groove.

55. The bones of the forearm include the a. Humerus. b. Femur. c. Tibia. d. Fibula. e. Radius.

56. The olecranon process is found on the a. Humerus. b. Radius. c. Ulna. d. Femur. e. Tibia.

BI 231 Pamela VanZanten, MD

Skeleton Practice Test

57. The process that extends along the lateral border of the shaft of the humerus is the a. Radial groove. b. Medial epicondyle. c. Lateral epicondyle. d. Deltoid tuberosity. e. Coronoid process. 58. The radius articulates with the a. Humerus. b. Ulna. c. Scapula. d. Carpals. e. Both B and D 59. The _____ of the radius assists in the stabilization of the wrist joint. a. Olecranon process b. Coronoid process c. Styloid process d. Radial tuberosity e. Capitulum 60. The bones that form the wrist are the a. Carpals. b. Tarsals. c. Metacarpals. d. Metatarsals. e. Phalanges.

63. Each of the following bones is part of the pelvic girdle, except the a. Ilium. b. Ischium. c. Pubis. d. Os coxae. e. Femur. 64. Which of the following is not a part of the pelvis? a. Sacrum b. Coccyx c. Coxae d. Lumbar vertebrae e. Both B and D 65. What bone articulates with the coxa at the acetabulum? a. Sacrum b. Femur c. Humerus d. Tibia e. Fibula 66. The superior border of the ilium that acts as a point of attachment for both ligaments and muscles is the a. Anterior iliac spine. b. Acetabulum. c. Posterior superior iliac spine. d. Iliac crest. e. Iliac notch. 67. The greater sciatic notch would be found on the a. Ilium. b. Ischium. c. Pubis. d. Femur. e. Patella. 68. The ischial spine projects above the a. Ischial notch. b. Ischial tuberosity. c. Ischial ramus. d. Lesser sciatic notch. e. Pubic symphysis.
Skeleton Practice Test 7

61. The bones that form the palms of the hands are the a. Carpals. b. Tarsals. c. Metacarpals. d. Metatarsals. e. Phalanges.

62. The bones that form the fingers are the a. Carpals. b. Tarsals. c. Metacarpals. d. Metatarsals. e. Phalanges.

BI 231 Pamela VanZanten, MD

69. When seated, the weight of the body is borne by the a. Ischial tuberosities. b. Posterior inferior iliac spines. c. Iliac crests. d. Obturator foramina. e. Inferior rami of the pubis.

75. Which of the following is the heel bone? a. Talus b. Navicular c. Calcaneus d. Cuboid e. Patella 76. Another name for the first toe is a. Hallux. b. Pollex. c. Tarsal. d. First cuneiform. e. Phalanx. 77. Which of the following is not a characteristic of the male pelvis? a. Heavy, rough textured bone b. Heart-shaped pelvic inlet c. Angle of pubic arch greater than 100 degrees d. Relatively deep iliac fossa e. Ilia extend farther above sacrum 78. Compared to the male skeleton, the female skeleton a. Is larger. b. Is heavier. c. Has a greater angle inferior to the pubic symphysis. d. Has a smaller average cranium. e. Both C and D 79. The only direct connection between the pectoral girdle and the axial skeleton is where the a. Clavicle articulates with the humerus. b. Clavicle articulates with the manubrium of the sternum. c. Os coxae articulates with the femur. d. Vertebral column articulates with the skull. e. Clavicle articulates with the xiphoid process.

70. The pubic and ischial rami encircle the a. Pubic symphysis. b. Lesser sciatic notch. c. Greater sciatic notch. d. Obturator foramen. e. Acetabulum.

71. The distal end of the tibia articulates with the a. Talus. b. Fibula. c. Patella. d. Calcaneus. e. Coxa. 72. The medial bulge at your ankle is a projection from the a. Fibula. b. Femur. c. Tibia. d. Calcaneus. e. Talus. 73. The lateral malleolus is found on the a. Femur. b. Tibia. c. Fibula. d. Patella. e. Calcaneus. 74. The fibula articulates with the a. Femur. b. Tibia. c. Patella. d. Navicular. e. Both A and B

BI 231 Pamela VanZanten, MD

Skeleton Practice Test

80. Each os coxae of the pelvic girdle consists of the following three fused bones: a. Ulna, radius, and humerus b. Ilium, ischium, and pubis c. Femur, tibia, and fibula d. Hamate, capitate, and trapezium e. Femur, patella, and tibia

86. The prominent portion of the humerus that is a rounded projection on the lateral surface of the epiphysis, near the margin of the humeral head, is known as the a. Neck. b. Greater tubercle. c. Lesser trochanter. d. Greater trochanter. e. Lesser tubercle. 87. In the anatomical position, the ulna is located _____ to the radius. a. Distal b. Proximal c. Medial d. Superior e. None of these 88. Lateral to the coronoid process, the radial _____ holds the head of the radius in the joint. a. Notch b. Tendon c. Ligament d. Groove e. Muscle

81. The largest bone of the leg is the a. Tibia. b. Femur. c. Fibula. d. Humerus. e. Calcaneus.

82. What markings found on bones are indicative of nerve pathways? a. Ridges b. Sulci c. Flanges d. Foramina e. Both B and D 83. The three sides of this bone form a broad triangle. a. Radius b. Clavicle c. Vertebra d. Sternum e. Scapula

89. The pinky finger is known as metacarpal number I. a. True b. False 90. Each hand has _____ finger bones. a. 15 b. 20 c. 14 d. 18 e. 10 91. Which bone is not a composite structure of the pelvis? a. Coccyx b. Ossa coxae c. Sacrum d. Femur e. None of the above
Skeleton Practice Test 9

84. The glenohumeral joint, or shoulder joint, is an articulation between which two bones? a. Humerus and ulna b. Scapula and humerus c. Clavicle and scapula d. Clavicle and humerus e. None of the above 85. The fusion of the ilium, ischium, and ileus form each os coxae. a. True b. False
BI 231 Pamela VanZanten, MD

92. A male has a _____ pelvic outlet when compared to the womans pelvic outlet. a. Larger b. Longer c. Smaller d. Wider e. Same size 93. The Achilles tendon attaches to which anatomical structure? a. Cuboid bone b. Calcaneus c. Talus d. Lesser trochanter e. Navicular bone 94. Bone markings are more prominent on a male skeleton. a. True b. False 95. The only fixed support for the pectoral girdle is the a. Scapula. b. Clavicle. c. Humerus. d. Sternum. e. Shoulder musculature. 96. Tina falls and fractures her pisiform bone. What part of her body was injured? a. Upper arm b. Forearm c. Wrist d. Hand e. Shoulder 97. When standing normally, most of your weight is transmitted to the ground by the a. Talus and calcaneus. b. Talus and cuneiforms. c. Calcaneus and cuneiforms. d. Cuboid and cuneiforms. e. Calacaneus and cuboid.

98. Compared to the hand, the foot a. Has more phalanges. b. Has fewer metatarsals than the hand has metacarpals. c. Has a more restricted range of movement. d. Contains ellipsoidal arches that help distribute body weight. e. Has the same number of tarsals as the hand has carpals.

99. Because of a developmental defect, Joe is born without clavicles. As a result of this condition, you would expect a. Him to have less mobility at the shoulder joint. b. Him to have little use of his arms. c. Him to have an increased range of motion at the shoulder joint. d. The humerus to not attach at the scapula. e. A complete lack of mobility of the shoulder joint.

100. On a field trip you discover a skeleton with the following characteristics. The acetabulum is directed laterally, the ischial spine points medially, and the angle inferior to the pubic symphysis is less than 90 degrees. The long bones of the arms and legs are relatively light and they show definite signs of epiphyseal plates. This skeleton is probably from a. A young male. b. A young female. c. An elderly male. d. An elderly female. e. Cannot tell on the basis of this information

BI 231 Pamela VanZanten, MD

Skeleton Practice Test

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