UPSC IAs new polity bank

UPSC CSE IAS Prelims GS Paper-I Polity Mock
Test 2021
(UPSC MCQ Polity Ans. & Explanation at the end of Questions)
1. The statements related to Information Management & Analysis Centre (IMAC) given
as
0
1. The IMAC is a nodal centre for maritime security information collation and
dissemination established in 2014.
36
2. The IMAC is jointly operated by the Navy and the Coast Guard.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are incorrect?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
S
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
R
2. The grounds for the loss of citizenship in India are
1. The citizen showing disloyalty to the Constitution of India.

E
2. Indian citizens voluntarily acquire the citizenship of another country.
3. Declaration by the citizen to renounce his/her citizenship.
E
Select the correct answer using the code given below for the loss of citizenship:
R
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
A
3. Consider the writs which can be issued against administrative authorities

1. Certiorari
C
2. Mandamus
3. Prohibition
4. None of the above
Select the correct answer using the code given below

(a) 1 (b) 2&3
(c) 1 & 2 (d) 3&1
4. Name the Indian authority who is the Chairman of National Crisis Management
Committee (NCMC)?
(a) The Prime Minister

(b) Union Home Minister
(c) Union Defence Minister
(d) Union Cabinet Secretary
5. Which of the following statements with respect to Virtual court (Traffic) is/are
0
correct.
1. Virtual court is an online court being managed by Virtual Judge, which is not a
36
person but an algorithm, whose jurisdiction can be extended to the entire state.
2. Virtual court is an initiative of the E-Committee of the Supreme Court along with
the Department of Justice.
(a) 1 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
S
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
R
6. Which of the following statements with respect to Article 32 of Indian Constitution
E
is incorrect?
(a) It grants the right to move the Supreme Court for the enforcement of the
E
fundamental rights guaranteed under Part III of the Indian Constitution.
(b) It cannot be abridged or taken away even by way of an amendment to the

R
Constitution.
A
(c) The jurisdiction of the Supreme Court in case of the enforcement of Fundamental
Rights is original and exclusive.
C
(d) Only the Fundamental Rights guaranteed by the Constitution can be enforced under
Article 32 and not any other right like non-fundamental constitutional rights,
statutory rights, customary rights and so on.
7. Consider the following statements with reference to the “Law Commission of India”:
1. The Law Commission of India is a non-statutory and advisory body.

2. It is established by an order of the Central Government for every 5 years.
3. Its function is to recommend legislative measures for the purpose of
consolidation and codification of laws.
4. Its recommendations are binding on the government.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
8. Consider the following statements with respect to Disturbed Areas under AFSPA
1. The Government of India, Governor of the State or administrator of the Union

Territory can declare the whole or part of the State or Union Territory as a
0
disturbed area.
2. Among North East states only Nagaland and Manipur are existing disturbed
areas.
36
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a)1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
S
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
9. Which of the statement(s) given below with respect to the Assam Movement is/are
R
correct?
1. It is a movement against illegal immigrants in Assam led by All Assam

E
Students Union (AASU).
2. The Assam Movement came to an end following the signing of Assam
E
Accord in 1985.
R

(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
A
10. Consider the following statements
1. The President can appoint a judge of a High Court as an acting Chief Justice, if the
C
office of Chief Justice of the High Court is vacant.

2. The newly-created Union Territories of Jammu and Kashmir, and Ladakh will have
a common High Court.

11. Consider the following statements with respect to Voting Rights of NRI
1. Voting rights for NRIs were introduced only in 2011, through an amendment to the
Representation of the People Act 1950.
2. The bill on proxy voting rights for NRIs was passed in both Houses of the
Parliament in 2017.

0
12. Consider the following statements with respect to “Contempt of Courts”
36
1. In the case of the Supreme Court, the Attorney General may bring in a motion
before the court for initiating a case of criminal contempt.
2. The Attorney General’s consent is mandatory when a private citizen wants to
S
initiate a case of contempt of court against a person in the Supreme Court.

R
E
13. Within the light of Part VI of the Constitution, consider the subsequent statements:
E
1. The Governor is the chief executive head of the state and also acts as an agent of
the Central Government.
R
2. The 7th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1956 facilitated the appointment of 1

person as a Governor of just one state.
A
3. The qualification for the appointment of the Governor of a state is that he/she
should be an Indian; however, it doesn't mention any age restrictions.
C
4. The Governor of a state shall have the facility to grant pardons, reprieves, respites
or remissions of punishment or to suspend, remit or commute the sentence of a
person convicted of any offence against any law concerning an interest which the
chief power of the State extends.
Which of the above statements is true?

(a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 4
(c) Only 3 (d) 1 and 4
14. Which of the subsequent is/are functions of the National Commission of Backward
Classes?
1. To research and monitor all matters that relate to the safeguards provided for the
socially and educationally backward classes under this Constitution or under the
other law for the nonce effective or under any order of the government and to
gauge the working of such safeguards.
2. To participate and advise on the socio-economic development of the socially and
educationally backward classes.
3. To adjudicate the dispute matters of socially and economically backward classes.
0
4. To discuss specific complaints those are concerned with the deprivation of rights
and safeguards of the socially and educationally backward classes.
36
(a) 1 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 4 only
S
15. The Supreme Court considers the subsequent statements.
R
1. It can withdraw a case pending during a subordinate court if it involves a
considerable question of law that needs the interpretation of the constitution.
E
2. it's the facility to review its judgment or order or decision.
3. It's the facility to adjudicate interstate dispute matters.
E
4. It's the facility to adjudicate dispute matters between the govt of India and one or
more States.
R
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 Only (b) 2 and 3 only
A
(c) 2 and 4 only (d) 4 only
16. In the light of Directive Principles of State Policy, consider the following
C
statements:
1. The Directive Principles constitute a really comprehensive economic, social and

platform for a contemporary democratic State.
2. The Directive Principles are justifiable, that is, they are legally enforceable by the
courts for their violation.
3. The phrase ‘Directive Principles of State Policy’ denotes the ideals that the State
should keep in mind while formulating policies and enacting laws.
4. The Directive Principles help the courts in examining and determining the
constitutional validity of a law.

(c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 2 only
17. Regarding the Fundamental Rights consider the following statements:
1. The Fundamental Rights operate as limitations on the tyranny of the executive
0
and arbitrary laws of the legislature.
2. All the fundamental rights are positive, i.e. they act to preserve the interests of
36
the State only.
3. They are not justiciable thus; people cannot demand their enforcement in the
court of law.
4. Fundamental Rights in our Constitution are more elaborate than those found in
S
the Constitution of any other country in the world.
R
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) All are correct. (b) 1 and 3 only
E
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only.
18. Consider the following statements regarding the Election Commission of India:
E
1. The Election Commission in India holds the power of superintendence, direction

and control of elections to Parliament, State Legislatures, the office of the
R
President of India and the office of Vice-President of India.

2. The Chief Election Commissioner of India cannot be removed from his office.
A
3. The terms and qualifications for the members of the Election Commission are
given in the Constitution of India.
C
4. Retiring Election Commissioners are not eligible for further appointment by the
Government.

(a) 3 and 4 only (b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) 2 and 3 only
19. About Writ Jurisdiction, consider the following statements.
1. Parliament has the power by law to empower any court except the Supreme
Court to exercise Writ Jurisdiction for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights.
2. The Writ Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court is narrower than that of the High
Court.
3. The Supreme Court has the power to issue directions or orders or writs for the
enforcement of any of the rights conferred by this Part.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are true?
0
(a) Only 1 (b) All of the above
(c) None of the above (d) 1 and 3 only
36
20. Consider the following statements:
1. The National Commission for Backward Classes is a constitutional body.
S
2. State Public Service Commission is a constitutional body.
3. The Central Vigilance Commission is a constitutional body.
R
4. The National Human Rights Commission is a constitutional body.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are true?

E
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
E
21. In the light of Fundamental Rights, consider the following statements:

R
1. Article 17 tells about the protection of life and liberty

A
2. Article 21 tells Freedom to manage religious affairs

3. Article 30 tells about the right of minorities to establish and administer educational
C
institutions
4. Article 26 tells about the abolition of untouchability
Which of the above is correctly paired?

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only
22. India is described as ‘an indestructible union of destructible states’. Which of the
following statements justify the above phrase?
1. Indian states can be ceded to a foreign country.

2. There can be no new states formed without the concern of the State legislature.
3. The territorial integrity of a state is not guaranteed by the Constitution of India.
4. The boundaries of a state cannot be diminished without the concurrence of the State
legislature.
0
Choose the correct statement(s)
36
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 4 only
23. Consider the following statements about the Union Public Service Commission.
1. Union Public Service Commission has an independent constitutional status which
S
means it has been directly created by the Constitution of India.
2. Article 315 of the Indian Constitution talks about the removal of the members of
R
the Union Public Service Commission.
3. The President of India has the power to remove the Chairman or any other
E
member of UPSC from the office.
4. The Chairman and Members of the Commission can hold the office for a term of 6
E
years or until they attain the age of 65 years.

R
Which of the above statements is wrong?

(a) 2 and 3 Only (b) 1 and 2 only
A
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 3 and 4 Only
24. Which of the following statements is true about the Governor of any state?
C
1. The Governor of a state is directly elected by the people.

2. The Governor of a state is indirectly elected by a specially constituted electoral
college.
3. The Governor is appointed by the President of India by warrant under his hand and
seal.
4. The office of the Governor of a state is employed under the Central Government.
Choose the correct statement(s):
(a) 3 Only (b) 2 and 3 only
25. Which of the following statements with regard to the Constituent Assembly is/are
correct:
1. The Constituent Assembly in India adopted the Constitution on 26 November 1947

but the Constitution came into effect on 26 January 1950.
0
2. Mahatma Gandhi was a member of the Constituent Assembly of India.
36
Select the correct answer code:
S
26. Which parts of the Indian Constitution highlights the secular character of the
Indian State?
R
1. Preamble
E
2. Fundamental Rights
3. Schedule VII of the Indian Constitution
E
4. Directive Principles of State Policy

R

A
(c) 1, 2, and 4 only (d) All of the above
27. Which of the following features of the Indian Constitution is taken from the USA?
C
1. Judicial review
2. Concept of “procedure established by Law”
3. Advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme Court
4. Supreme Court and High Court Judges Removal

(c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of the above
28. Find out statements which is/are not correct about the Directive Principles of
State Policy?
(a) Directive Principles of State Policy prohibits the consumption of drugs or toxic drinks.
(b) Directive Principles of State Policy promotes equal justice and free legal aid to the
poor.
(c) It directs the state to provide early childhood care and education to children until
they complete the age of 5 years.
0
(d) It directs the state to organize agriculture on modern and scientific lines.
36
29. Consider the following statements regarding the Fundamental Duties contained in
the Indian Constitution?
1. Fundamental duties can be enforced through writ jurisdiction.
S
2. Fundamental duties became a part of the Constitution according to the
recommendations made by the Swaran Singh Committee.
R
3. Fundamental duties are applicable only to citizens of India.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

E
E
30. The Directive Principles of the Indian Constitution resemble the ‘Instrument of
R
Instructions’ enumerated in the

A
(a) Government of India Act of 1935

(b) Montague Chelmsford Act 1919
C
(c) Objectives Resolution, 1946

(d) Nehru Report, 1928
31. Consider the following are features with regard to the Presidential form of
government
1. Single executive.
2. The President and legislators are elected separately.
3. President is responsible to the legislature.
4. Dissolution of the lower house.
Which of the above statement (s) is/are correct?
0
(a) 1 and 2, only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2, 4 only (d) All of the above
36
32. Which of the following is / are parts of the Union Executive in India?
1. Union Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister

2. President of India
3. Central Secretariat
S
R
4. Vice President
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:

E
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1,2 and 4 only
E
33. There are some articles, select which of the following is not matched correctly?
R
(a) Article 163: sworn in of the Chief Minister

(b) Article 167: Duties of the Chief Minister
A
(c) Article 166: Operations by the State Government

(d) Article 164: Provisions related to State Ministers
C
34. Consider the following statements regarding the role of President in appointment
of Prime Minister:
1. As per the conventions of the parliamentary system of government, the President

has to appoint the leader of the majority party in the Lok Sabha as the Prime
Minister.
2. In the absence of a clear majority of a political party in the Lok Sabha, then the
President may exercise his personal discretion in the selection and appointment of
the Prime Minister.
3. For the first time the discretion was exercised by the President in 1979, when
Neelam Sanjiva Reddy (the then President) appointed Charan Singh (the coalition
leader) as the Prime Minister after the fall of the Janata Party government headed by
Morarji Desai.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
0
(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2
36
(c) 2 and 3 (d) All of the above
35. Consider the following Statements:

1. “Proclamation of emergency” is only mentioned but not explicitly defined in the
Constitution.
S
2. A proclamation declaring a financial emergency has to be approved by both the
R
houses of the Parliament within one month from the date of issue.
3. A resolution of the Central Government approving the proclamation of financial
emergency can be passed by either House of Parliament only by a simple
E
majority.
E
Which of the given statements are correct about different kinds of Emergency
provisions in the Indian Constitution?
R
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only

(c) 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only
A
36. Consider the following Statements:

C
1. The Proclamation of national emergency under Art. 352 is applicable to the entire
country and not to any particular part of it.
2. The President of India can proclaim a National Emergency only after receiving a
written recommendation from the Union Cabinet.
Which of the given statement/s is/are correct?

37. Consider the subsequent statements regarding the enactment of the Union
Budget:
1. Parliament has the facility to scale back the tax; it can even abolish the tax but cannot
increase it.
2. Parliament has the facility to extend , reduce or abolish the tax.
3. Receipts on the revenue account and other receipts are going to be distinguished
within the budget.
4. Grant can't be demanded except on the advice of the President.
0
Which of the above statements is correct?
36
(c) 2 and three only (d) 1, 3 and 4 only
38. Consider the subsequent statements regarding the Council of Ministers:
S
1. Ministers are legally liable for the Acts passed within the Parliament.
R
2. Ministers haven't any liability for the acts passed within the Parliament.
3. The President can remove a minister only on the recommendation of the Prime
Minister.
E
4. The President cannot remove a minister.
E

R

A
39. Consider the subsequent statements regarding the cupboard Committees:
1. Cabinet Committees can neither be made by the Constitution nor by the Parliament
C
but only by the cupboard and thus, they're extra-constitutional in nature

2. The discontinuation of a cupboard Committee must be approved by the Lok Sabha.
3. The establishment of a cupboard Committee must be approved by the Lok Sabha
4. Cabinet Committees are founded by the Parliament and are statutory bodies.

40. Consider the following statements regarding the Panchayat:
1. The tenure of the Panchayat is fixed for 5 years starting from the date of its first
meeting.
2. The Panchayat is dissolved according to the procedure defined by the 73rd
Amendment of the Indian Constitution.
3. A reconstituted Panchayat after the premature dissolution of the previous one
shall continue just for the rest of the term.
4. The reconstituted Panchayat after the premature dissolution of the previous one
0
shall continue for a term ranging from the date of its first meeting.
36
S
41. About Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha, consider the following statements:
1. Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha have equal powers in the matters of introduction and
R
passage of Constitutional Amendment Bills.
2. Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha have equal powers in the matter of electing the Vice
E
President.
3. Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha have equal powers in the matter of approval of the
E
proclamation of all three types of emergencies.

4. Money bills can be introduced by either of the houses, Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha.
R

A

C
42. Consider the following statements regarding the veto powers available to the
President of India:
1. The President of India has an absolute veto.

2. The President of India has qualified veto.
3. The President of India has a suspensive veto.
4. The President of India has a pocket veto.
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 3 and 4 only
43. About the attendance of a house, consider the following statements:
1. The minimum number of members required to be present in the House before it

can transact any business is one-tenth of the total number of members in the
House excluding the Presiding officer.
0
36
House excluding the nominated members of the House.
can transact any business is one-eighth of the total number of members in the
House including the Presiding officer.
S
R
House including the Presiding officer.

E
E
44. Consider the following statements regarding the discretionary powers of the
R
President:
1. President has the power to ask the council of ministers to reconsider the advice given
A
to him.
2. The President has the power to refuse to give assent to an ordinary bill passed by the
C
Parliament.
3. The President has the power of appointment of the Prime Minister in case of a hung
assembly.
4. The President has the power to return the Money Bill for reconsideration of the
Parliament.

45. Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court of India:
1. Judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the Collegium of the Supreme Court.
2. The salaries and pensions of the judges of the Supreme Court are charged on the
Consolidated Fund of India.
3. The Parliament is not authorized to curtail the jurisdiction and powers of the Supreme
Court.
4. A judge may be removed from his office by the order of the President.
0
36
46. Regarding the joint sitting of the Parliament, consider the following statements:
S
1. It is an innovative parliamentary tool with its origin in the Rules of Procedure of
R
Lok Sabha to resolve the legislative deadlock.
2. It is presided over by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha and in his absence by the
E
chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
3. New amendments cannot be proposed under any circumstances, to the bill at a
E
Joint Sitting of the two houses of the Indian Parliament.

4. The Joint Sitting of the Parliament is called by the President of India and is
R
presided over by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha or, in his absence, by the Deputy
Speaker of the Lok Sabha, or in his absence, the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya
Sabha.
A

C

47. Regarding the members of the Rajya Sabha, consider the following statements:
1. The Constitution has adopted territorial representation for the Rajya Sabha.
2. The number of members to be elected from each state has been fixed by the
Fourth Schedule of the Constitution of India
3. The President nominates some members from the Anglo-Indian community if the
community is not adequately represented.

48. Consider the following statements regarding the Inter-state Council:
1. It is a permanent institution to effect coordination between the states and
0
between the Centre and the States.
2. It is established by the President of India.
36
3. Being a constitutional body, its decisions are binding in nature.

S
49. Preamble reveals which of the components?
R
1. States the authority of the Constitution.
E
2. Nature of the Indian State.
3. Geographical boundaries of India.
E
4. Date of adoption of the Constitution.
Choose the correct statements:

R

A
50. Consider the following statement about the Parliament’s power to reorganise the
states.
C
1. The Parliament can increase the area of any state.

2. Alter the boundaries of any state.
3. Parliament’s power to diminish the area of a state also includes the power to
cede Indian Territory to a foreign country.
4. Parliament is bound to accept the views of the state legislature and has to accept
its views on alteration of the state’s boundaries and name.
Choose the correct statements:
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2 only
51. Consider the following statements:-
1. A person born in India on or after 1st July 1987 is considered a citizen of India
irrespective of the nationality of his parents.
2. An individual born in India on or after 26th January 1950 but before 1st July 1987
may be a citizen of India as long as either of his parents may be a citizen of India
0
at the time of his birth.
3. An individual born outside India on or after 26th January 1950 but before 10th
36
December 1992 is taken into account as a citizen of India by descent if his father
was a citizen of India at the time of his birth.
4. From 3rd December 2004 onwards, a person born outside India shall not be a
citizen of India by descent, unless his birth is registered at an Indian consulate
within one year of the date of birth.
Which of the above statements are correct? S

R
E
52. The State that is India includes:

E
1. Government and Parliament of India, that is, executive and legislative organs of
the Union Government.
R
2. Government and legislature of the state, that is, executive and legislative organs
of state government.
A
3. All local authorities that are municipalities, panchayats, district boards,

improvement trusts, etc.
C
4. All other authorities that are statutory or non-statutory authorities like LIC,
ONGC, SAIL, etc.
Which of the above statements are correct?

(c) 1,3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
53. Consider the following statements:
1. President of India or the Governor is answerable only to the Supreme Court for
the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his office.
2. Only the Supreme Court can issue for the process of arrest and imprisonment of
the President or the Governor during his term of office.
3. No member of the Legislature of a state shall be liable to any proceedings in any
court in respect of anything said or any vote given by him in the Parliament or any
committee thereof.
4. The foreign sovereign, ambassadors, and diplomats are no exception to the Rule
0
of Law as embodied in Article 14.
36
Which of the statements are correct?
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1 and 3 only
S
54. Consider the following statements in light of Article 18.
1. State cannot confer any title except a military or academic distinction on anybody,
R
whether a citizen or a foreigner.
2. Citizens of India can accept titles from any foreign state.
E
3. A foreigner holding any office of profit or trust under the state cannot accept any
title from any foreign state without the consent of the President.
E
4. The hereditary titles of nobility that were conferred by the colonial states are
allowed.
R
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
55. Consider the following statements in the light of DPSP.

C
The state shall be required to:
1. To organise village panchayats and endow them with necessary powers and
authority to enable them to function as units of self-government.
2. To market cottage industries on a private or co-operation basis in rural areas.
3. To prohibit the consumption of intoxicating drinks and drugs that are injurious to
health.
4. To secure opportunities for the healthy development of children.
Which of the above principles of DPSP are based on Gandhian Ideology?
56. Consider the following statements in the light of fundamental duties as listed in
Article 51 A.
It shall be the duty of each citizen of India:
1. To protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers
0
and wildlife and to possess compassion for living creatures.
2. To safeguard property and to abjure violence.
36
3. To pay taxes, cast their votes and plan their families according to the government
policies.
4. To supply opportunities for education to his child or ward between the age of six
and fourteen years.
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only S

Which of the above statements is not listed as a duty in Article 51 A?
R
E
57. In the light of the Parliamentary form of Government, consider the following
statements:
E
1. The council of ministers headed by the Prime Minister to assist and advise the
President within the exercise of his functions. The advice so tendered is binding
R
on the President.
2. The ministers are collectively responsible to the Parliament generally and to the
A
Lok Sabha especially .

3. The President can dissolve the House of Representatives- the lower house on his
own.
C
4. The President is elected by a body .
Which of the above statements is/are the feature(s) of the Parliamentary system?
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 4 only
58. Consider the following statements regarding the President of India:
1. The President is the supreme commander of the defence forces of India and
appoints the chiefs of the military , the Navy and therefore the Air Force.
2. On being presented with a Bill for his assent he may return the bill for
amendments until the recommended changes have been made.
3. The President has the power to grant pardon to a person who has been tried and
convicted of any offence.
0
36
59. Regarding the protection of ‘Six Rights’ according to Article 19, consider the
following statements:
S
1. Article 19 guarantees the right to assemble peaceably and without arms.
2. Article 19 guarantees the right to reside and settle in any part of the territory of India.
R
3. Article 19 guarantees the right to a decent environment including pollution-free water
and air protection against hazardous industries.
4. Article 19 guarantees the right of women to be treated with decency and dignity.
E
Which of the above statements are true?

E

(c) 3 only (d) 2, 3 and 4 only
R
60. The Parliamentary System of Government has:

A
(a) Political Homogeneity

(b) Single Executive
(c) Separation of Powers.
C
(d) No dissolution of Lower House
61. Which of the following statement(s) given below with respect to the Treaty on the
Prohibition of Nuclear Weapons is/are correct?
1. The treaty banned the ratifying countries to develop, test, produce, acquire,
possess or stockpile nuclear weapons under any circumstances.
2. India is neither party to nor bound by any obligations of the treaty.
3. Japan, the world's only country to suffer nuclear attacks, does not support the
treaty.

(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
62. Which of the following statement(s) given below with respect to the National
Commission for Scheduled Tribes (NCST) is/are correct?
0
1. The term of office of Chairperson, Vice-Chairperson and each member is 3
years from the date of assumption of charge.
36
2. The tenure and conditions of service of office of the Chairperson,
Vice-Chairperson are determined by the Indian President.
S
3. The Chairperson has been given the rank of Union Cabinet Minister, and the
Vice-Chairperson that of a Minister of State.
R
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
E
63. Which of the following Indian States has launched “MICE” Tourism policy 2021-25?
E
(a) Assam (b) Meghalaya

(c) Gujarat (d) Bihar
R
64. Which of the following statement(s) given below with respect to Appointment of
A
Judges of High Courts is/are correct?
1. Appointment procedures of Judges of the High Courts are same as that of the
C
Appointment procedures of Judges of the Supreme Court.
2. The Collegium headed by the CJI makes recommendations to the Union

Government for appointment of High Court judges.

65. Which of the following statement(s) given below with respect to Exercise
Pabbi Anti-Terror 2021 is/are correct?
1. The Pabbi Anti-Terror 2021 is a joint anti-terror exercise which will include
India, Pakistan, China and other members of the Shanghai Cooperation
Organisation (SCO).
2. This would be the first time that Pakistan forces will travel to China for any
military exercise.
0
36
66. Consider the following statements with respect to President’s Rule:
1. President’s Rule can be extended for a maximum period of six months with
the approval of the Parliament.
S
2. The revoking of proclamation of President’s Rule does not require the
R
Parliamentary approval.
E
E

R
67. Consider the following statements with respect to Open Skies Treaty (OST):
1. Under the Open Skies treaty, a member state can “spy” on any part of the host
A
nation, with the latter’s consent.

2. Recently India and UAE signed an OST agreement which will enhance airline
C
connectivity between both nations.
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

68. Consider the following statements with respect to International Organization of
Securities Commissions (IOSCO):
1. The IOSCO is an intergovernmental organization that works closely with G7

nations.
2. It brings the world's securities regulators together, and acts as a global
standard setter for the securities sector.
0
36
69. Which of the following ministries has launched Smart Code Platform?
(a) Ministry of Corporate Affairs

(b) Ministry of Electronics and Information technology
S
(c) Ministry of Information and Broadcasting
(d) Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs
R
70. Consider the following statements with respect to Indus Water Treaty, 1960:
E
1. According to the Indus Water Treaty, water from Eastern rivers had been
E
allocated to India and water from Western rivers were allocated to Pakistan.
2. The treaty gives Pakistan the right to raise concerns on the design of Indian
R
hydroelectric projects on western rivers.
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

A

C
71. Which of the following statement(s) given below with respect to Gandhi Peace
Prize is/are correct?
1. The Gandhi Peace Prize award is open to all persons regardless of nationality,
race, language, caste, creed or sex.
2. The Jury for the Prize is chaired by the Indian Prime Minister and comprises
Chief Justice of India and Leader of the single largest Opposition Party in Lok
Sabha as ex-officio members.
3. Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) was the recipient of
the award for the year 2020.

(c) 1 and 3 only (d) None of the above
0
72. Which of the following pairs are matched correctly with respect to imported
weapons of India?
36
Weapon name Country of Origin
1. SPICE 2000 Bomb - South Korea

2. Scanter 6000 Radar - Denmark
3.
4.
Embraer Jets
Milan -2T
-
- S Brazil
Russia
R
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
E
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) All of the above
E
73. Consider the following statements with respect to Juvenile Justice (Care and
R
Protection of Children) Amendment Bill, 2021
1. The Bill seeks to amend the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children)
A
Act, 2015.
2. The bill increases the functions of District Magistrate as supervising authority
C
of the District Child Protection Unit.

3. A person will not be eligible to be a member of the Child Welfare Committees
(CWC), if he/she is part of the management of a child care institution in a
district.

(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
74. Who among the following are eligible for postal ballot under the Conduct of
Elections (Amendment) Rules 2020?
1. Overseas electors
2. Senior citizens above 80 years of age
3. COVID 19 suspect or affected persons
4. Persons with disability flagged in the electoral roll
0
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) All of the above
36
75. Which of the following organizations has launched Adaptation Gap Report 2020?
(a) UN Environment Programme (UNEP)

(b) Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC)
S
(c) International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN)
R
(d) World Meteorological Organization (WMO)
__________________________________________________________________
E
E
R
A
C
Ans. & Explanation of Polity Mock Test for UPSC-CSE/IAS
Prelims Exam
1. Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
Information Management & Analysis Centre (IMAC)
● The Information Management & Analysis Centre (IMAC) to ensure the working of
Indian Navy, Coast Guard, and Marine Police in an integrated manner, was set up
0
in 2014.
● It is a nodal centre for maritime security information collation and dissemination
36
and based in Gurgaon.
● The Navy and the Coast Guard jointly operate the IMAC for monitoring maritime
traffic in India’s area of interest.
● It is the cornerstone of the National Command Control Communication and
Intelligence Network.
S
R
2. Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
E
● A citizen, whether a citizen at the commencement of the Constitution or
E
subsequent to it, may lose his/her citizenship according to the Citizenship Act,
1955 in three ways i.e. renunciation, termination and deprivation.
● Under renunciation applicants willing to surrender their passport at Passport
R
Offices mainly for renunciation of Indian citizenship and acquiring foreign

nationality.
A
● When any citizen of India voluntarily acquires the citizenship of another country
his/her citizenship gets terminated from India.
C
● An Indian citizen is deprived of his/her citizenship by an order of the Central

Government.
3. Answer: (c) 1&2

Explanation:
There are five kinds of writs for enforcing the fundamental rights of the citizens. The five
types of writs are:
1. Habeas Corpus
2. Mandamus
3. Prohibition
4. Certiorari
5. Quo-Warranto
● The Supreme Court of India or High Court in a state can issue Habeas Corpus writ
0
against both private and public authorities.
● Unlike Habeas Corpus, Mandamus cannot be issued against a private individual,
36
but it can be issued against administrative authorities.
● Writ of Prohibition can only be issued against judicial and quasi-judicial
authorities. It can’t be issued against administrative authorities, legislative bodies
and private individuals or bodies.
S
● Before1991, the writ of Certiorari used to be issued only against judicial and
R
quasi-judicial authorities and not against administrative authorities
● But post1991, the Supreme Court ruled that the certiorari can be issued even
E
against administrative authorities affecting the rights of individuals however, it
cannot be issued against legislative bodies and private individuals or bodies.
E
● Quo-Warranto can be issued only when the substantive public office of a

permanent character created by a statute or by the Constitution is involved, but it
R
can’t be issued against private or ministerial office
4. Answer: (d) Union Cabinet Secretary

A
Explanation:
C
● The Union Cabinet Secretary presided as a chairman of the National Crisis

Management Committee (NCMC) to review the status of any urgent matter on
national crisis.
● The National Crisis Management Committee (NCMC) works for the effective
implementation of relief measures in the wake of natural calamities, the
Government of India has set up a Standing National Crisis Management
Committee.
5. Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:
Virtual Court
● Virtual Court is an online court managed by Virtual Judge. Its judge is not a person
but an algorithm whose jurisdiction can be extended to the entire state and
working hours may be 24X7.
● It is started by E-Commitee of Supreme Court along with Department of Justice,
Ministry of Law& Justice, Government of India.
● It doesn’t have a brick & mortar building of the court office.
0
● Neither litigant shall come to the court nor will the Judge have to sit physically in
the court to adjudicate the case.
36
● In this court, only a single process is allowed and there can be no argument.
Virtual Courts at present in India are 9 which are all dealing with Traffic Challan
cases only.
1. Delhi (2 Courts)
S
R
2. Haryana (Faridabad)
3. Maharashtra (Pune)
E
4. Madras
E
5. Karnataka (Bengaluru)
6. Maharashtra (Nagpur)
R
7. Kerala (Kochi)
8. Assam (Gauhati)
A
6. Answer: (c) The jurisdiction of the Supreme Court in case of the enforcement of
C
Fundamental Rights is original and exclusive

Explanation:
In the recent past, the Chief Justice of India during the hearing of a plea filed for
release of Kerala journalist Siddique Kappan, said the court is trying to discourage
petitions filed under Article 32.
Article 32
● Article 32 grants the right to move the Supreme Court by appropriate proceedings
for the enforcement of the fundamental rights guaranteed under Part III of the
Indian Constitution.
● Article 32 allows incarcerated people to directly approach the top court against
violation of their fundamental rights.
● Article 32 gives the Supreme Court the power to issue directions or orders or
writs, for the enforcement of any of the rights conferred under Part III.
● In case of the enforcement of Fundamental Rights, the jurisdiction of the
Supreme Court is original but not exclusive.
0
● People can directly approach the high court under Article 226.
36
7. Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only
Explanation:
● The Law Commission of India is a non-statutory advisory body.
S
● It is established by an order of the Government of India from time to time for a 3
years period.
R
● Its function is to recommend legislative measures for the purpose of
consolidation and codification of laws.
E
● Its recommendations are not binding on the Government of India.
8. Answer: (a) 1 only

E
Explanation:
Disturbed Areas under AFSPA
R
● The Armed Forces Special Powers Act (AFSPA), was passed in the Indian
A
Parliament on September 11, 1958.

● A disturbed area is the one which is declared by notification under Section 3 of
C
the AFSPA Act.

● AFSPA can be invoked in places where the use of armed forces in aid of civil
power is necessary.
● An area can be considered to be disturbed due to differences or disputes
between members of different religious, racial, language or regional groups or
castes or communities.
● Once declared ‘disturbed’ under AFSPA, the region is maintained as disturbed for
a period of three months straight, according to The Disturbed Areas (Special
Courts) Act, 1976.
● The government of a state can suggest whether the Act is required in the state or
not.
● Manipur, Nagaland, Assam, Arunachal Pradesh are the four states in North
Eastern India which are declared as disturbed areas under AFSPA.

Explanation:
The Assam Movement continued from 1979 to 1985.
● Assam Movement was a popular movement against illegal immigrants in Assam.
0
● It was led by All Assam Students Union (AASU) and the All Assam Gana Sangram
36
Parishad (AAGSP).
● It was to compel the Indian government to identify and expel illegal, mainly
Bangladeshis, immigrants and protect and provide constitutional, legislative and
administrative safeguards to the indigenous Assamese people.
S
● The agitation programs were largely non-violent, but the Nellie massacre was a
case of extreme violence.
R
● It ended in August 1985 following the Assam Accord, which was signed by
leaders of AASU-AAGSP and the Indian Government.
E
Explanation:
E
According to Article 223 of Indian Constitution, President of India can appoint a judge
R
of a High Court as an acting Chief Justice of the High Court in case of
1) the office of Chief Justice of High Court is vacant; or

A
2) the Chief Justice of the High Court is absent; or

C
3) the Chief Justice of the High Court is unable to perform the duties of his office.

Explanation:
Voting Rights for NRI in
India
● In 2015, a panel recommended that NRIs should be given the “additional
alternative options of e-postal ballot and proxy voting”, apart from voting in
person.
● Under proxy voting, a registered elector can delegate his voting power to a
representative.
● The Indian Law Ministry accepted the recommendation on proxy voting.
● The Union Cabinet passed the proposal on proxy voting rights for NRIs in 2017.
● The Government of India brought a Bill to amend the Representation of the
People Act 1950.
0
● The Bill was passed in the Lok Sabha and was awaiting Rajya Sabha’s approval
when it lapsed with the dissolution of the 16th Lok Sabha.
36
● This proposal hasn’t been revived till now.

Explanation:
Contempt of Courts in India:
S
R
● The Contempt of Courts Act, 1971, lays down the legal provision on contempt of
court.
E
● In the case of the Supreme Court, the Attorney General or the Solicitor General
may bring in a motion before the Supreme Court for initiating a case of criminal
E
contempt.
● In the case of High Courts, the Advocate General may bring in a motion before the
R
High Courts for initiating a case of criminal contempt.

● In case the motion is brought by any other person, the consent in writing of the
Attorney General or the Advocate General is required.
A
● The Attorney General’s consent is mandatory when a private citizen wants to

initiate a case of contempt of court against a person.
C
● However, when the court itself initiates a contempt of court case, the Attorney
General’s consent is not required.
13. Answer: (d) 1 and 4

Explanation:
● Article 154 of the Constitution of India says that the Governor is the chief
executive head of the state and also acts as an agent of the Central Government.
● Article 161 of the Constitution of India says that the Governor of a state shall have
the facility to grant pardons, reprieves, respites or remissions of punishment or to
suspend, remit or commute the sentence of a person convicted of any offence
against any law concerning a interest which the chief power of the state extends.
● The 7th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1956 facilitated the appointment of 1
person as a Governor of two or more states.
● Article 157 put a lower regulation , it says nobody shall be eligible for
appointment as Governor unless he's a citizen of India and has completed the age
0
of thirty-five years.
36
14. Answer: (d.) 1, 2 and 4 only
Explanation:
According to Article 338B (5), it shall be the duty of the National Commission
of Backward Classes:
S
● To investigate and monitor all matters concerning the safeguards provided for the
R
socially and educationally backward classes under the Constitution of India or
under the other law for the nonce effective or under any order of the govt. and to
gauge the working of such safeguards.
E
● To discuss specific complaints concerning the deprivation of rights and safeguards
of the socially and educationally backward classes.
E
● To participate and advise on the socio-economic development of the socially and

educationally backward classes and to gauge the progress of their development
R
under the Union and any State.

● To present to the President, annually and at such other times because the
A
Commission may deem fit, reports upon the working of these safeguards.
● To make in such reports the recommendations on the measures that ought to be
taken by the Union or any State for the effective implementation of these
C
safeguards and other measures for the protection, welfare and socio-economic
development of the socially and educationally backward classes
● To discharge such other functions concerning the protection, welfare and
development and advancement of the socially and educationally backward
classes because the President may, subject to the provisions of any law made by
Parliament, by rule specify.
15. Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only

Explanation:
● The supreme court of a state can withdraw a case pending during a subordinate
court if it involves a considerable question of law that needs the interpretation of
the constitution. It can then either eliminate the case itself or determine the
question of law and return the case to the subordinate court with its judgment.
● As per Order 47, Rule 1 of CPC, every court has been conferred power to review
its own decision if its decision is vitiated by an error or error apparent on the face
of the record.
● However, Article 131 within the Constitution of India gives the Supreme Court
exclusive jurisdiction within the matters of interstate disputes and dispute
0
matters between the govt of India and one or more states.
16. Answer: (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
36
Explanation:
● The Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) constitute a very comprehensive

economic, social and political program for a modern democratic State with the
S
aim at realizing the high ideals of justice, liberty, equality and fraternity as
outlined in the Preamble to the Constitution of India.
R
● The DPSP, though non-justifiable, helps the courts in examining and determining
the constitutional validity of a law.
E
● The Supreme Court of India has ruled many times that in determining the
constitutionality of any law if a court finds that the law in question seeks to give
E
effect to a Directive Principle, it may consider such law to be ‘reasonable

concerning Article 14 (equality before law) or Article 19 (six freedoms) and thus
save such law from unconstitutionality.
R
● The phrase ‘Directive Principles of State Policy’ denotes the ideals that the nation
should keep in mind while formulating policies and enacting laws. These are the
A
constitutional instructions or recommendations to the nation-state in legislative,

executive and administrative matters.
C
● According to Article 36, the term ‘State’ in Part IV has the same meaning as in
Part III dealing with Fundamental Rights.
● However, the DPSP are non-justiciable, that is, they are not legally enforceable by
the courts for their violation. Therefore, the government (Central, state and local)
can't be compelled to implement them.
17. Answer: (d) 1 and 4 only.

Explanation:
Part III of the Indian Constitution is rightly described as the Magna Carta of India
that contains a very long and comprehensive list of ‘justiciable’ Fundamental
Rights.
● The Fundamental Rights in the Indian Constitution have been described more
elaborately than the Fundamental Rights in the Constitution of any other country
in the world even better than the USA.
● Such rights in the Indian Constitutions are meant for promoting the idea of
political democracy.
● The Fundamental Rights also provide a shield against the establishment of an
0
authoritarian and despotic rule in the country.
● Fundamental Rights protect the liberties and freedoms of the people against the
36
invasion by the State.
● The Fundamental Rights operate as limitations on the tyranny of the executive
and arbitrary laws of the legislature with an aim of establishing a government of
laws and not of men.
18. Answer: (c) 1 and 2 only S

R
Explanation:
E
● According to Article 324 of the Indian Constitution, the Election Commission has
the power of superintendence, direction and control of elections to Parliament,
E
State Legislatures, the office of President of India and the office of Vice-President
of India.
R
● The Indian Constitution provides the Election Commissioner in India a secured

tenure in the office and cannot be removed from his office except in the same
manner and on the same grounds as a judge of the Supreme Court of India.
A
● The Constitution of India has not prescribed the qualifications (legal, educational,
administrative or judicial) of the members of the Election Commission.
C
● The Constitution of India has not specified the term of the members of the
Election Commission.
● The Constitution of India has not debarred the retiring election commissioners
from any further appointment by the government.
19. Answer: (b) All of the above

Explanation: According to Article 32 of the Indian Constitution
● The Supreme Court of India shall have the power to issue directions or orders or
writs.
● The writs can be like habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, quo warranto and
certiorari, whichever may be appropriate, for the enforcement of any of the rights
conferred by this Part, the Supreme Court of India can issue directions and orders.
● The Supreme Court and High courts simultaneously have the power to issue writs
for the enforcement of fundamental rights.
● One of the facts is that the power of the Supreme Court is narrower than the High
Court because the Supreme Court is empowered to issue writs only against
0
violation of Fundamental Rights whereas the High Courts can issue writs for the
enforcement of other Rights also such as Legal Rights.
36
Explanation:
S
● India's National Commission for Backward Classes is a constitutional body while
the State Public Service Commission (SPSC) is an independent constitutional body.
R
● From Article 31 to Article 323 of the Indian Constitution, the appointment and
removal of the members of UPSCs and the powers and functions of SPSC are
E
provided partially in XIV of the Indian Constitution.
● The Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) is an independent constitutional body
E
and only responsible to the Parliament.

● In 2003, the Parliament enacted the CVC Act and conferred the statutory status to
R
the CVC.
● National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) may be a statutory body constituted
in 1993 under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993.
A
21. Answer: (b.) 3 only

C
Explanation:
● Under Article 17 of the Indian Constitution, the abolition of untouchability and its
practice in any form is forbidden.
● The inability in enforcement of the law out of "Untouchability" shall be an
offence and punishable under law.
● Under Article 21 of the Indian Constitution, that no person shall be deprived of his
life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law, nor shall
any person be denied equality before the law or the equal protection of the laws
within the territory of India
● Under Article 26 of the Indian constitution, freedom to administer religious affairs
subject to public order, morality and health, every religious denomination or any
section thereof shall have the right.
● Article 30 of the Indian Constitution mentioned the right of minorities to establish
and administer educational institutions in the country.
0
22. Answer: (c) 3 only
36
Explanation:
● The formation of new states and alteration of areas, boundaries or names of
existing states, are given under Article 3 of the Indian Constitution.
S
● The Parliament of India may form a new state by the law:
★ By separation of territory from any state or by uniting two or more states
R
or parts of states.
★ By uniting any territory to a part of any state in order to increase the area
E
of any state or to diminish the area of any state or change the boundaries
of any state and change the name of any State.
★ But, it does not ensure the territorial integrity of a state.
E
● Further, the Supreme Court of India held that the power of Parliament to diminish
the area of a state under Article 3 does not cover the cession of Indian Territory to
R
a foreign country.
● Moreover, the Parliament of India can alter the boundaries of a state even though
A
the state legislature presented the bill for expressing its views, the Parliament
may or may not accept those recommendations.
C
23. Ans: (d) 1, 3 and 4 Only

Explanation:
● Article 315 of Indian Constitutions has mentioned about the Public Service
Commissions for the Union as well as for the States.
● References in this Constitution to the Union Public Service Commission or a State
Public Service Commission shall, unless the context otherwise requires, be
construed as references to the Commission serving the requirements of the
Union or, because the case could also be , the State as respects the actual matter
in question.
● Article 317 of the Indian Constitution has mentioned about the removal and
suspension of a member of the Public Service Commission.
24. Answer: (a) only 3
0
Explanation:
● The Governor of a State is neither directly elected by the people nor indirectly
36
elected by a specially constituted electoral college as is the case with the election
of President of India.
● According to Article 155 of the Indian Constitution, the Governor of a State is
S
appointed by the President of India by warrant under his hand and seal.
● The Governor of State is like a nominee of the Central Government but not an
R
employment under the Central Government which was clarified by the Supreme
Court in its judgment given in 1979.
E
● The office of the Governor is an independent constitutional office and is not
under the control of or subordinate to the Central government.
E
25. Ans: (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:
R
● The Constituent Assembly adopted the Constitution on 26 November 1949 but

A
the Constitution came into effect on 26 January 1950.

● Mahatma Gandhi was not a member of the Constituent Assembly. But, Mahatma
C
Gandhi’s ideas were followed by many members.
26. Ans: (c) 1, 2, and 4 only

Explanation:
● The word ‘secular’ was later added to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution in
1976 by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act.
● Article 15 of the Indian Constitution says that the State shall not discriminate
against any citizen on the ground of religion.
● Article 44 is given in Part IV (DPSP) says that the State shall endeavour to secure
for all the citizens a Uniform Civil Code.
● The Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution defines and specifies the
allocation of powers and functions between Union & States. It contains three lists
i.e. Union List, State List, and Concurrent List.
27. Ans: b) 1 and 4 only
0
Explanation: The following features of the Indian Constitution have been taken from
the USA:
36
1. Written Constitution
2. Impeachment of the president
3. Functions of president and vice-president
4.
5. S
Removal of Supreme Court and High court judges
Fundamental Rights
R
6. Judicial review
7. Independence of judiciary
E
8. The preamble of the constitution
● Canada's Constitution: Advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme Court.
E
● Japan's Constitution: Concept of “procedure established by Law”.

R
28. Ans: (c) Directive Principles of State Policy directs the state to provide early
childhood care and education to children until they complete the age of 5 years.
A
Explanation:
Directive Principles of State Policy directs the state to provide early childhood care
C
and education to children until they complete the age of 6 years.
29. Ans: (c) 2 and 3 only

Explanation:
The Indian Constitution does not provide provisions of direct

enforcement of Fundamental Duties by the courts. But, Parliament
of India is free to enforce them by suitable legislation
30. Ans: (a) Government of India Act of 1935
Explanation:
Dr B. R. Ambedkar had said “the Directive Principles are like the instrument of
instructions, which were issued to the Governor-General and to the Governors of
the colonies of India by the British Government under the Government of India
Act of 1935.”
31. Ans: (a) 1 and 2, only
0
Explanation:
36
● The President and his/her secretaries are not responsible to the legislature in the
Presidential form of government.
● In the Presidential form of government, the President cannot dissolve the House
S
of Representatives i.e. the lower house of Congress.
32. Ans: (b) 1, 2 and 4 only

R
Explanation: The Executive in the Union Government consists of the President, the
Vice-President, and the Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister as the head to
E
aid and advise the President of India.
E
33. Ans. (a) Article 163: sworn in of the Chief Minister

Explanation:
R
Article 163-Council of Ministers to aid and advise the Governor of a

state
A
● Except in his discretion, there shall be a Council of Ministers with the Chief
Minister at the head to aid and advise the Governor of a state in the exercise of
C
his functions
● The Governor of a state has the final power of decision in his discretion, and the
validity of anything done by the Governor shall not be called in question on the
ground that he ought or ought not to have acted in his discretion.
● The question on advice tendered by Ministers to the Governor shall not be
inquired into in any court.
34. Ans: (d) All of the above
Explanation:
● As per the conventions of the parliamentary system of government, the President

has to appoint the leader of the majority party in the Lok Sabha as the Prime
Minister. However, when no party has a clear majority in the Lok Sabha, then the
President may exercise his personal discretion in the selection and appointment
of the Prime Minister.
● In the above situation, the President usually appoints the leader of the largest
0
party or coalition in the Lok Sabha as the Prime Minister and asks him to seek a
vote of confidence in the House within a month.
36
35. Ans: (d) 2 and 3 only
Explanation:
● Article 366 of the Indian Constitution contains the definitions of various terms
S
used in different provisions of the Constitution, including the Proclamation of
Emergency.
R
● A financial emergency proclamation must be approved by both the Houses of
Parliament within two months from the date of its issue.
E
● Either House of the Indian Parliament can pass a resolution approving the
proclamation of financial emergency only by a simple majority i.e. a majority of
E
the members of that house present and voting.
36. Ans: (b) 2 only

R
Explanation:
The 42nd Amendment to the Indian Constitution Act of 1976 authorizes the
A
President to limit the operation of National emergency to a specific part of India.

C
37. Answer: (b) 1 and 4 only

Explanation:
The Constitution of India contains the next provisions about the enactment of the
budget:
● The President shall in respect of each fiscal year cause to be laid before both the
houses of Parliament a press release of estimated receipts and expenditure of the
govt of India for that year (Article 112).
● No demand for a grant shall be made except on the advice of the President
(Article 113).
● No money shall be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India except under
appropriation made by law (Article 114).
● No money bill imposing the tax shall be introduced within the Parliament except
on the advice of the President, and such a bill shall not be introduced within the
Rajya Sabha (Article 117).
● No tax shall be levied or collected except by authority of law (Article 265).
● Parliament can reduce or abolish a tax but cannot increase it (Article 117).
0
● The expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India shall not be
submitted to the vote of Parliament. However, it is often discussed by Parliament
36
(Article 113).
38. Answer: (c) 2 and three only

Explanation:
● S
There is no provision within the Indian Constitution for the system of liability of a
R
minister. it's not required that an order of the President for a public action should
be countersigned by a minister.
E
● The courts are barred from inquiring into the character of recommendation
rendered by the ministers to the President.
E
● Ministers hold office during the pleasure of the President, which suggests that the
President can remove a minister on the recommendation of the Prime Minister
R
even at a time when the Council of Ministers enjoys the arrogance of the Lok
Sabha.
● Just in case of a difference of opinion or dissatisfaction with the performance of a
A
minister, the Prime Minister can ask him to resign or advise the President to
dismiss him.
C

Explanation:
● The cupboard Committee is a corporation instrumental in reducing the workload

of the cupboard .
● These committees are extra-constitutional in nature and are nowhere mentioned
within the Constitution.
● The composition of a cupboard Committee varies from 3 to eight people and
every Cabinet Committee has a minimum of one Cabinet Minister.
● Even ministers who aren't a part of the cupboard are often added to a cupboard
Committee and therefore the members are often added from both the Lok Sabha
and the Rajya Sabha.
● Cabinet Committees are found out by the Prime Minister consistent with the
exigencies of the time and requirements of things.
● They're disbanded after their task is completed which will be done by the Prime
minister at any time that it doesn't require approval of Lok Sabha.
0
40. Answer: (d) 1 and 3 only
36
Explanation:
● The 73rd Amendment provides for a five-year term of office to the Panchayat at
every level which specified that every Panchayat shall continue for five years
S
starting from the date of its first meeting.
● A Panchayat can be dissolved before the completion of its term by the procedure
R
prescribed by state law.
● Following the dissolution fresh new elections will be conducted to constitute the
E
Panchayat within 6 months from the date of the dissolution.
● In case the remainder period is only six months then there would be no need to
E
conduct new elections.

● A Panchayat constituted upon the dissolution of a Panchayat before the
R
expiration of its duration shall continue just for the rest of the number.
41. Answer: (c) 1, 2 and 3 only

A
Explanation:
The powers and standing of the Rajya Sabha are adequate to that of the Lok
C
Sabha within the following matters:
● Introduction and passage of ordinary bills.

● Introduction and passage of Constitutional amendment bills.
● Introduction and passage of monetary bills involving expenditure from the
Consolidated Fund of India.
● Election and impeachment of the President.
● Election of the Vice-President. The Vice-President is elected by a body consisting
of members of both Houses of Parliament.
● Making recommendations to the President for the removal of judge and judges of
Supreme Court and high courts, chief election commissioner and comptroller and
auditor general.
● Approval of ordinances issued by the President.
● Approval of proclamation of all three sorts of emergencies by the President.
● Selection of ministers including the Prime Minister.
● Consideration of the reports of the constitutional bodies like Finance
Commission, Union Public Service Commission, comptroller and auditor general,
etc.
0
● Enlargement of the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and therefore the Union
Public Service Commission.
36
● However, certain bills can only be introduced in Lok Sabha such as Financial Bills
and Money Bill.
42. Answer: (d) 1, 3 and 4 only

Explanation:
S
The veto power enjoyed by the chief in modern states are often classified into the
R
subsequent four types:
E
• Absolute veto, which is withholding of assent to the bill gone by the legislature.
• Qualified veto, which may be overridden by the legislature with a better majority.
E
• Suspensive veto, which may be overridden by the legislature with a standard majority.
R
• Veto, which is taking no action on the bill gone by the legislature.

A
Of the above four, the President of India has three- absolute, suspensive and pocket
veto. There is no qualified veto in the case of the Indian President.
C
43. Answer: (b) 4 only

Explanation:
The minimum number of members required to be present within the House
before it can transact any business is named Quorum.
● It is one-tenth of the total number of members in each House of the parliament

including the presiding officer.
● It means there must be a minimum of 55 members present within the Lok Sabha
and 25 members present within the Rajya Sabha if any business is to be
conducted.
● If there's no quorum during a gathering of the House, it's the duty of the leader
either to adjourn the House or to suspend the meeting until there is a quorum.

Explanation:
There are at least three situations where the President of India can exercise the
0
powers using his or her discretion.
● When the President thinks that the advice given to him by the Council Of
36
Ministers has certain legal flaws or legal lacunae, or that it is not in the best
interest of the country, the President can ask the Council to reconsider the
decision.
● However, the Council can still remit an equivalent advice and therefore the
S
President would then be bound by that advice.
● Normally, in the parliamentary system, a leader who has the support of the
R
majority in the Lok Sabha would be appointed as Prime Minister, however, if no
leader has a clear majority in the Lok Sabha and after forging alliances, two or
E
three leaders are claiming that they have the support of the majority in the
house. Now, the President has got to decide whom to appoint because the Prime
E
Minister.
● The President has veto power by which he can withhold or refuse to offer assent
R
to Bills gone by the Parliament.

● However, he can refuse to give assent to any Bill other than Money Bill. Moreover,
A
if the Parliament passes the Bill again then the President has to give assent to that
bill.
C

Explanation:
The constitution has made the following provisions for the impartial functioning
of the Supreme Court:
● The judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the President in consultation
with the members of the judiciary itself.
● The judges of the Supreme Court are provided with the Security of Tenure and
they can be removed from the office by the president only in the manner and on
the grounds mentioned in the Constitution.
● The salaries, allowances and pensions of the judges and therefore the staff also as
all the executive expenses of the Supreme Court are charged on the Consolidated
Fund of India.
● The retired judges of the Supreme Court are prohibited from pleading or acting in
any Court or before any authority within the territory of India.
● The Parliament is not authorized to curtail the jurisdiction and powers of the
0
Supreme Court because the Constitution of India has guaranteed to the Supreme
Court, jurisdiction of various kinds. However, the Parliament can extend an
36
equivalent.
● A judge may be removed from his office by an order of the President. The
President can pass an order only if it's been addressed to the both Houses of
S
Parliament within the same session. The address must be supported by a majority
of the total membership of that House and also by a majority of not less than
R
two-thirds of the members of that house present and voting.
E
E
Explanation:
Joint sitting is a piece of extraordinary machinery provided by the Constitution
R
(Article 108) to resolve a deadlock between the two Houses over the passage of a
bill. A deadlock is deemed to have taken place under any one of the following
three situations after a bill has been passed by one House and transmitted to the
A
other House:
C
➢ If the bill is rejected by the other House;

➢ If the Houses have finally disagreed as to the amendments to be made in the bill;
or
➢ If more than six months have elapsed from the date of the receipt of the bill by
the other House without the bill being passed by it.
● The Speaker of Lok Sabha presides over a joint sitting of the two Houses and the
Deputy Speaker, in his absence. If the Deputy Speaker is also absent from a joint
sitting, the Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha presides. If he is also absent, such
another person as may be determined by the members present at the joint sitting
presides over the meeting. It is clear that the Chairman of Rajya Sabha does not
preside over a joint sitting as he is not a member of either House of Parliament
● The Constitution has specified that at a joint sitting, new amendments to the bill
cannot be proposed except in two cases:
● Those amendments that have caused final disagreement between the Houses;
and
● Those amendments might have become necessary due to the delay in the
passage of the bill.
0
36
Explanation:
● The Constitution has adopted the system of proportional representation in the

case of Rajya Sabha, it has not preferred the same system in the case of Lok
S
Sabha. Instead, it has adopted the system of territorial representation for the
election of members to the Lok Sabha. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
R
● The number of members to be elected from each State has been fixed by the
fourth schedule of the Constitution. Hence statement 2 is correct.
E
● The president nominates 12 members to the Rajya Sabha from people who have
special knowledge or practical experience in art, literature, science and social
E
service. In the case of Lok Sabha, the president can nominate two members from
the Anglo-Indian community if the community is not adequately represented.
R
Hence statement 3 is not correct.

A
Explanation:
C
● Article 263 contemplates the establishment of an Inter-State Council to effect

coordination between the states and between Centre and states. Thus, the
President can establish such a council if at any time it appears to him that the
public interest would be served by its establishment. He can define the nature of
duties to be performed by such a council and its organisation and procedure.
Thus, it is not a permanent institution, rather an ad hoc one. Hence, statement 1
is not correct and statement 2 is correct.
● Even though the president is empowered to define the duties of an interstate
council, Article 263 specifies the duties that can be assigned to it in the following
manner :(a) Inquiring into and advising upon disputes which may arise between
states. (b) Investigating and discussing subjects in which the states or the Centre
and the states have a common interest(c) making recommendations upon any
such subject, and particularly for the better coordination of policy and action on
it.
● The Council can deal with any controversy whether legal or non-legal, but its
function is advisory unlike that of the court which gives a binding decision. Hence,
0
statement 3 is not correct.
36
49. Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 4
Explanation:
● The preamble states that the Indian Constitution derives its authority from the
people of India.
S
● It declares India to be of a sovereign, socialist, secular, democratic and republican
R
polity.
● It stipulates November 26th 1949 as the date of adoption of the Constitution.
● The preamble doesn’t say anything about the geographical boundaries of India.
E
50. Answer: (c) 1 and 2 only

E
Explanation:
R
● Article 3 of the Indian Constitution authorizes the Parliament to increase the area
of any state and to alter the boundaries of any state.
● The Supreme Court held that the facility of Parliament to diminish the world of a
A
state (under Article 3) doesn't cover the cession of Indian Territory to a foreign
country.
C
● Although the President refers the Bill contemplating any change according to
Article 3 to the state legislature concerned for expressing its views within a
specified period but the Parliament is not bound by the views of the state
legislature and should either accept or reject them, albeit the views are received
in time.
51. Answer: (d.) 3 and 4 only

Explanation:
● A person born in India on or after 1st July 1987 is considered as a citizen of India
only if either of his parents is a citizen of India at the time of his birth.
● An individual born in India on or after 26th January 1950 but before 1st July 1987
may be a citizen of India regardless of the nationality of his parents.
52. Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation:
0
● Article 12 has defined the term for Part III and according to it the State includes:
● The Government and Parliament of India consist of executive and legislative
36
organs of the Union Government.
● The government and legislature of a state consist of executive and legislative
organs of state government.
● All local authorities consist of municipalities, panchayats, district boards,
improvement trusts, etc.
S
● All other authorities that are statutory or non-statutory authorities like LIC,
R
ONGC, SAIL, etc.
53. Ans: (b) 3 only

E
Explanation:
E
● The Rule of Law embodied under Article 14 is not absolute and has certain
exceptions. Under those exceptions, the President of India or the Governor of a
R
state is not answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the
powers and duties of his office.
● Again, the rule of law is not absolute and has certain exceptions according to
A
which no Court can issue for the process of arrest and imprisonment of the
President or the Governor during his term of office.
C
● According to the rule of law, the foreign sovereigns, ambassadors and diplomats
enjoy immunity from criminal and civil proceedings.
● According to Article 194, no member of the Legislature of a state shall be liable to
any proceedings in any court in respect of anything said or any vote given by him
in Parliament or any committee thereof.
54. Answer: (d.) 1 and 3 only

Explanation:
● Article 18 aims at the abolishment of titles and provides 4 provisions and the
above 2 statements are a part of those 4 provisions.
● According to Article 18, Indian Citizens cannot accept any title from any foreign
state.
● Article 18 abolishes all kinds of titles except military and academic, so nobility
titles such as Maharaja, Raj Bahadur etc. are also banned.
0
Explanation:
● To organise village panchayats and endow them with necessary powers and
36
authority to enable them to function as units of self-government mentioned in
Article 40.
● To promote cottage industries on an individual or co-operation basis in rural areas
given in Article 43.
S
● To prohibit the consumption of intoxicating drinks and drugs that are injurious to
health given in Article 47.
R
● These are based on the ideas of Gandhi or the Gandhian Principle.
● However, to secure opportunities for the healthy development of children is from
E
Article 39 which is based on the New Directive Principles which was added in the
42nd amendment act of 1976.
E
56. Answer: (c) Only statement 3 is correct

Explanation: The duty of a citizen of India is:
R
● To guard and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and
A
wildlife and to have compassion for living creatures.

● To safeguard property and to abjure violence.
● To supply opportunities for education to his child or ward between the age of six
C
and fourteen years. These are listed in the list of fundamental duties according to
Article 51 A.
● The information given in statement 3 i.e., to pay taxes, cast their votes and plan
their families according to the government policies is included in the list of
fundamental duties which is a criticism of Article 51 A since it does not include
such important matters.

Explanation:
● In the Parliamentary form of Government, the President can dissolve the lower
house but only on the advice of the Prime Minister.
● These are the features of the Parliamentary System of Government.
● The Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister aids and advises the
President in the exercise of his functions. The advice so tendered is binding on the
President.
● The ministers are collectively responsible to the Parliament generally and to the
Lok Sabha especially.
0
● The President is elected by a body.
36
Explanation:
● The President is the supreme commander of the defence forces of India. He can
S
declare war or conclude peace, subject to the approval of the parliament.
● Article 72 grants the President the power to grant pardons to persons who have
R
been tried and convicted of any offence.
● Why is Statement 2 false?
● The President can return a bill for reconsideration but if the bill is passed again
E
with or without amendments, he must give his assent to the bill.
E
59. Answer: (b) Statements 1 and 2 are correct

Explanation:
R
● The right to assemble peaceably and without arms and the right to reside and
A
settle in any part of the territory of India is guaranteed by Article 19

● In statements 3 and 4, the right to a decent environment including pollution-free
water and air protection against hazardous industries and the right of women to
C
be treated with decency and dignity are given in Article 21.
60. Answer: (a) Political Homogeneity

Explanation:
● Single executive, separation of powers and no dissolution of the Lower House are
the features of the Presidential System.
● However, political homogeneity is usually seen in the Parliamentary System of
Government as members of the same party usually form the government unless
otherwise, it is a coalition government.
61. Ans: (d) 1, 2 and 3
0
Explanation:
● The first-ever treaty to ban nuclear weapons has recently entered into force.
36
● It is an historic step marred by the lack of signatures from the world’s major
nuclear powers.
● As its name (Treaty on the Prohibition of Nuclear Weapons or TPNW) suggests,
S
the treaty limits signatories to not “develop, test, produce, manufacture,
otherwise acquire, possess or stockpile nuclear weapons or other nuclear
R
explosive devices”.
● The UN negotiating conference had adopted the legally binding Treaty on the
E
Prohibition of Nuclear Weapons (TPNW) in July 2017.
● More than 120 approved it when the treaty was approved.
● But none of the 9 countries believed to possess nuclear weapons such as the USA,
E
Russia, the UK, China, France, India, Pakistan, North Korea, and Israel have
R
supported it, and neither have the 30 NATO alliance nations.

● Japan also does not support the treaty, the world’s only country to suffer nuclear
attacks.
A
● However, Japan on its own renounces the use and possession of nuclear
weapons, but the government has said pursuing a treaty ban is not realistic with
C
nuclear and non-nuclear states so sharply divided over it.

● India also reiterated that it is neither party to nor bound by any obligations of the
international pact when the UN nuclear ban treaty enters into force.
62. Ans: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:
● National Commission for Scheduled Tribes (NCST) was established by amending

Article 338 and inserting a new Article 338A in the Constitution through the 89th
Constitution Amendment Act, 2003.
● The 89th amendment has bifurcated erstwhile National Comission for Scheduled
Castes and Scheduled Tribes 2 separate Commissions called as “The National
Commission for Scheduled Castes (NCSC)”, and “The National Commission for
Scheduled Tribes (NCST)”.
0
● The National Commission for Scheduled Tribes (NCST) involves the following
functions:
36
(i) To monitor and investigate matters relating to safeguards provided for STs
under the Constitution.
S
(ii) To inquire into specific complaints relating to Rights & Safeguards of STs.
(iii) To take part and advise in the Planning Process relating to Socio-economic
R
development of STs, and to evaluate the progress of their development
under the Union and any State.
E
63. Ans: (c) Gujarat
E
Explanation:
● The term “MICE” of Gujarat Tourism Policy 2021-25 stands for “Meetings,
R
Incentives, Conferences and Exhibitions”.

● This tourism policy is essentially a version of business tourism that draws
A
domestic and international tourists to a destination.

● This Gujarat tourism policy for 2021-25 aims to make Gujarat one of the top five
C
MICE tourism destinations in the country.

● Under this policy, the Gujarat government has announced an assistance of Rs.
5,000 to the event organiser per foreign participant staying overnight, subject to
an upper limit of Rs. 5 lakh.
64. Ans: (b) 2 only
Explanation:
● The procedure for appointment of Judges of High Courts in India is slightly

different from the appointment of the Judges of the Supreme Court.
● A person selected to become a High Court judge should have held a judicial office
in the territory of India for 10 years or should have been an advocate of the High
Court(s) for 10 years.
● No minimum age is fixed for High Court judges, and unlike in the Supreme Court,
0
there is no provision for appointment of a distinguished jurist as a judge of a High
Court.
36
● According to Art. 217 of Indian Constitution, the Chief Justice of the High Court is
appointed by the President in consultation with the Chief justice of India as well
as the Governor of that state.
65. Ans: (a) 1 only

Explanation: S
R
● The Exercise Pabbi Anti-Terror 2021 was announced recently during the 36th
meeting of the Council of the Regional Anti-Terrorist Structure (RATS) held in
E
Tashkent, Uzbekistan.
● Aims of the Exercise is to improve cooperation between the competent
E
authorities of the SCO member states in identifying and suppressing channels

that finance terrorist activities.
R
● There will be the first time that Indian forces will travel to Pakistan for any military
exercise.
A
● The Regional Anti-Terrorist Structure (RATS) is a permanent organ of the Shanghai

Cooperation Organisation (SCO), headquartered in Tashkent.
C
● RATS serves to promote cooperation of member states against terrorism,

separatism and extremism.
66. Ans: (a) 1 only

Explanation:
● The proclamation of President’s Rule must be approved by both the Houses of

Parliament within 2 months from the date of its issue.
● The proclamation of President’s Rule survives until 30 days from the first sitting of
the Lok Sabha after its reconstitution.
● The proclamation of President’s Rule shall be approved by Rajya Sabha in the
meantime.
● Any resolution approving the proclamation of President’s Rule under Art. 356 or
its continuation can be passed by either House of Parliament only by a simple
majority.
● It’s approval by both the Houses of Parliament implies that the President’s Rule
continues for 6 months.
0
● President’s Rule under Art. 356 can be extended for a maximum period of 3 years
with the approval of the Parliament every six months.
36
● However, the 44th Amendment Act of 1978 introduced a new provision to put
restraint on the power of Parliament to extend a proclamation of President’s Rule
beyond one year.
67. Ans: (b) 2 only

Explanation: S
R
● The Open Skies Treaty (OST) is an accord between over 30 countries that allows
E
participants to fly unarmed reconnaissance flights over any part of their fellow
member states.
E
● This Treaty went into effect in 2002 and had 35 signatories, including US and
Russia, along with one non-ratifying member (Kyrgyzstan), recently both Russia
R
and USA as opted out of the treaty.

● The Treaty’s aim is to build confidence among members through mutual
openness and thus reducing the chances of accidental war.
A
● It allows information gathering on troop movements, military exercises and

missile deployments, and that has to be shared with all member states.
C
● This treaty allows the only approved imaging equipment on the surveillance
flights, and officials from the host state can also stay on board throughout the
planned journey.
● However, the Open Sky Agreements are bilateral agreements that the two
countries negotiate to provide rights for airlines to offer international passenger
and cargo services.
● That is why UAE has expressed interest to have an Open Sky Agreement with
India, it will allow unlimited number of flights to the selected cities of each
other's countries.
68. Ans: (b) 2 only

Explanation:
● The International Organization of Securities Commissions (IOSCO) is the

international organization that brings together the world's securities regulators,
covering more than 95% of the world’s securities markets.
0
● IOSCO is the global standard setter for the securities sector, and its HQ is in
36
Madrid, Spain.
● This Commission works closely with the G20 and the Financial Stability Board
(FSB) in setting up the standards for strengthening the securities markets.
● The International Financial Services Centres Authority (IFSCA) recently has
S
become an Associate Member of the International Organization of Securities
Commissions (IOSCO).
R
69. Ans: (d) Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs
Explanation: Smart Code Platform (SCP)
E
● The Smart Code Platform (SCP) is a platform that enables all ecosystem
E
stakeholders to contribute to a repository of open-source code for various

solutions and applications for urban governance.
R
● The SCP is designed to address the challenges urban local bodies (ULBs) face in
the development and deployment of digital applications to address urban
A
challenges.
● It is based on open-source software, the source code available on the platform
C
will be free to use without any licensing or subscription fees.
70. Ans: (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: Indus Water Treaty, 1960
● Indus Water Treaty, 1960 is a treaty brokered by the World Bank and signed by
then Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru and Pakistan’s President Ayub Khan which
administers how the waters of the Indus and its tributaries that flow in both the
countries will be utilised.
● As per this Treaty, waters of the eastern rivers i.e. Sutlej, Beas and Ravi had been
allocated to India, while the western rivers i.e. the Indus, Jhelum and Chenab to
Pakistan.
● On the basis of this Treaty, India has been given the right to generate
hydroelectricity through a run of the river projects on the western rivers subject
to specific criteria for design and operation.
● This Treaty also provides Pakistan the right to raise concerns on the design of
Indian hydroelectric projects on western rivers.
● This Treaty also gives an arbitration mechanism to solve disputes amicably.
0
● Although the Indus river originates from Tibet, China has been kept out of the
Treaty.
36
● But, if China decides to stop or change the flow of the river, it will affect both
India and Pakistan.
71. Ans: (b) 1 and 2 only

Explanation:
S
R
● The Gandhi Peace Prize is an annual award instituted by the Indian Government
in 1995, the 125th Birth Anniversary commemoration year of Mahatma Gandhi.
E
● The Gandhi Peace Prize is open to all persons regardless of nationality, race,
language, caste, creed or sex.
E
● The Jury for this Prize is chaired by the Prime Minister of India and the Chief
Justice of India and the Leader of the single largest Opposition Party in Lok Sabha
R
as two ex-officio members.

● Other 2 eminent members were also part of the 2020 Jury, namely Shri Om Birla
(Speaker of the Lok Sabha), and Shri Bindeshwar Pathak (Founder of Sulabh
A
International Social Service Organization).

● The Gandhi Peace Prize carries an amount of Rs. 1 crore, a citation, a plaque and
C
an exquisite traditional handicraft/ handloom item.

● This Prize for the year 2020 is being conferred on Bangabandhu Sheikh Mujibur
Rahman.
72. Ans: (b) 2 and 3 only

Explanation: As per data from SIPRI for the period 2015-19, India acquired military
hardware from other countries are given below:
1. SPICE 2000 Bombs are manufactured by the Israeli defence technology
company Rafael.
2. Scanter-6000 radars from Denmark,
3. Embraer ERJ-145 jets from Brazil,
4. Milan-2T Warhead Anti-Tank Guided Missile of MBDA Missile Systems,
France.
5. ACTAS sonar systems from Germany,
6. Super Rapid 76mm naval guns from Italy
7. K-9 Thunder 155mm artillery guns from South Korea.
0
73. Ans: (d) 1, 2 and 3
36
Explanation:
● This Amendment Bill 2021 amends the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of
Children) Act, 2015.
S
● The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015 prescribes the
procedure for the adoption of children by prospective adoptive parents from
R
India and abroad.
● On the acceptance of the child by prospective adoptive parents, a specialised
E
adoption agency applies to a civil court to obtain the adoption order.
● This adoption order issued by the court establishes that the child belongs to the
E
adoptive parents.
● But the Bill 2021 provides that instead of the court, the District Magistrate
R
(including Additional District Magistrate) will issue such adoption orders.

● Additionally the District Magistrate supervises the District Child Protection Unit,
and conducts a quarterly review of the functioning of the Child Welfare
A
Committee.
C
74. Ans: (c) 2, 3 and 4 only

Explanation:
● Recently the Union Government has said it will not be possible to extend postal
ballot facility to overseas electors in the upcoming assembly elections.
● The External Affairs Ministry is considering matters to solve the logistical
challenges involved in the implementation of the proposal.
● The Conduct of Elections (Amendment) Rules 2020 notification to extend the
Postal Ballot Facility for Covid+ve patients under home/institutional quarantined.
75. Ans: (a) UN Environment Programme (UNEP)
Explanation:
● The production of UN Environment’s Adaptation Gap Report series since its first
edition in 2014 has been managed by the UN Environment Programme (UNEP).
● The Report’s aim is to inform national and international efforts to advance climate
change adaptation.
● The Report highlights the Adaptation Cost, which includes costs of planning,
preparing for, facilitating and implementing the climate change adaptation
0
measures.
● Thus, this Report derives benefits as the avoided damage costs or the accrued
36
benefits following the adoption and implementation of adaptation measures.
● Adaptation costs are actually higher in developed countries but the burden of
adaptation is greater for developing countries in relation to their gross domestic
product.
S
● The developing countries, especially in Africa and Asia, which are least equipped
to tackle climate change will also be the most impacted by it.
R
E
E
R
A
C

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UPSC CSE IAS Prelims GS Paper-I Polity Mock

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are incorrect?

1. The citizen showing disloyalty to the Constitution of India.

(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only

3. Consider the writs which can be issued against administrative authorities

Select the correct answer using the code given below

(a) The Prime Minister

fundamental rights guaranteed under Part III of the Indian Constitution.

(b) It cannot be abridged or taken away even by way of an amendment to the

1. The Law Commission of India is a non-statutory and advisory body.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. The Government of India, Governor of the State or administrator of the Union

1. It is a movement against illegal immigrants in Assam led by All Assam

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only

10. Consider the following statements

office of Chief Justice of the High Court is vacant.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

2. The 7th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1956 facilitated the appointment of 1

Which of the above statements is true?

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(c) 2 and 4 only (d) 4 only

1. The Directive Principles constitute a really comprehensive economic, social and

Which of the above statements is true?

17. Regarding the Fundamental Rights consider the following statements:

1. The Fundamental Rights operate as limitations on the tyranny of the executive

1. The Election Commission in India holds the power of superintendence, direction

President of India and the office of Vice-President of India.

Which of the above statements is true?

Which of the above statement(s) is/are true?

1. The National Commission for Backward Classes is a constitutional body.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are true?

21. In the light of Fundamental Rights, consider the following statements:

1. Article 17 tells about the protection of life and liberty

2. Article 21 tells Freedom to manage religious affairs

Which of the above is correctly paired?

1. Indian states can be ceded to a foreign country.

1. Union Public Service Commission has an independent constitutional status which

years or until they attain the age of 65 years.

Which of the above statements is wrong?

(c) 3 only (d) 1, 3 and 4 Only

1. The Governor of a state is directly elected by the people.

1. The Constituent Assembly in India adopted the Constitution on 26 November 1947

4. Directive Principles of State Policy

Select the correct answer code:

(c) 1, 2, and 4 only (d) All of the above

Select the correct answer code:

1. Fundamental duties can be enforced through writ jurisdiction.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Instructions’ enumerated in the

(a) Government of India Act of 1935

(c) Objectives Resolution, 1946

Which of the above statement (s) is/are correct?

1. Union Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister

Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:

(a) Article 163: sworn in of the Chief Minister

(c) Article 166: Operations by the State Government

1. As per the conventions of the parliamentary system of government, the President

Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?