ENGLISH 12

THE FIRST FINAL SEMESTER TEST

PRACTICE 2
Read the following advertisement and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer
sheet to indicate the option that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 1 to 6.
Experience Nature’s Goodness with NutriPure Plant Milk
NutriPure Plant Milk will offer a delicious way to (1) ______ your daily nutritional
needs. Containing essential nutrients, our milk features premium almonds, oats, and
hazelnuts, (2) ______ a naturally smooth and creamy flavour. Every sip supports a
balanced and (3) ______ lifestyle, whether enjoyed during meals or as a quick
refreshment.
Families trust NutriPure for its genuine taste and quality. Free (4) ______ artificial
additives, our product serves as a(n) (5) ______ option for every member of your
household. Whether poured over cereal, blended into a smoothie, or enjoyed alone,
NutriPure is the perfect companion to your routine. Drink NutriPure Plant Milk and
discover a fresh way to care for yourself.
It's time (6) ___ your drinks for better health!
Question 1: A. keep B. meet C. make D. take
Question 2: A. to deliver B. delivered C. delivers D. which deliver
Question 3: A. fulfil B. fulfilment C. fulfiling D. fulfiled
Question 4: A. from B. for C. without D. on
Question 5: A. drink option healthy C. option healthy drink
B. drink healthy option D. healthy drink option
Question 6: A. changing B. to change C. changed D. change

Read the following leaflet and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the option that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 7 to 12

Preserving Cultural Heritage: A Shared Responsibility

Together, let’s protect the legacy of our ancestors!
The State of Cultural Heritage Today:
A(n) (7) ______ of historic landmarks and traditional practices are under threat.
Worse, (8) ______ modernisation and environmental challenges, these invaluable
 treasures have already been lost. This crisis (9) ______ immediate action to preserve
what remains.
The Benefits of Preservation:
• It strengthens cultural (10) ______ and fosters pride in communities.
• It boosts tourism, contributing significantly to local economies.
• It enhances mutual understanding by showcasing (11) ______ cultures and
traditions.
By (12) ______ your time, funding restoration projects, or spreading awareness,
you can step up and help secure our heritage for generations to come.

Question 7: A. level B. amount C. lot D. little

Question 8: A. due to B. regardless of C. thanks to D. in view of
Question 9: A. looks into B. calls for C. works out D. turns up
Question 10: A. experience B. procession C. ceremony D. idenity
Question 11: A. the others B. another C. others D. other
Question 12: A. supervising B. appreciating C. optimising D. volunteering

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best arrangement of
utterances or sentences to make a meaningful exchange of text in each of the following
questions from 13 to 17.
Question 13:
a. Sophia: Hi, Ben! You’re looking really energetic these days.
b. Sophia: I’ve been doing yoga. It’s a great way to stay calm and fit!
c. Ben: Thanks, Sophia! I’ve started jogging in the mornings. What about you?
A. b – c – a B. b – a – c C. a – c – b D. c – a – b

Question 14:
a. Sophia: Hi, Ben! How’s your preparation for the big exam going?
b. Sophia: What’s the hardest part about preparing?
c. Sophia: I get that. Just take it one step at a time—you’ve got this!
d. Ben: Hey, Sophia! It’s stressful, but I’m trying to stay focused.
e. Ben: Time management. There’s so much to cover, and I don’t want to miss anything
important.
 A. b – e – c – d – a B. a – e – c – d – b
C. a – d – b – e – c D. c – d – b – e – a

Question 15:
Hi Liam,
a. I really hope you’re taking enough time to rest and recover fully.
b. Get better soon, so we can hang out together like we usually do!
c. I heard from Anna recently that you’ve been feeling under the weather lately.
d. If you ever need anything, even just a casual chat, feel free to let me know anytime.
e. Remember to drink plenty of water regularly and eat nourishing meals—it helps so
much.
Warm wishes,
Emily
A. c – a – e – d – b B. a – c – e – d – b
C. c – b – a – d – e D. a – c – b – d – e

Question 16:
a. Trying these dishes isn’t just about eating; it’s a way to connect with cultures and
understand their uniqueness.
b. Cultural diversity shines through the incredible variety of foods we enjoy from
different countries.
c. Therefore, tasting new cuisines means that we are discovering the new beauty of
various cultures and traditions.
d. For example, Mexican tacos reflect vibrant street culture and bold flavours, while
Indian curries showcase rich spices and regional traditions.
e. Every dish tells a story about its people, their history, and their way of life.
A. b – d – a – e – c B. b – a – c – d – e
C. b – e – d – a – c D. b – d – e – c – a

Question 17:
a. Liam’s unwavering determination transformed his life, proving that perseverance can
overcome even the greatest odds.
b. Eventually, he earned a full scholarship, graduated with honours, and founded an
organisation to support underprivileged students.
c. Determined to change his circumstances, Liam was finding ways to support his
education; he worked hard during the day while spending nights studying.
d. Growing up in a small, impoverished village, Liam faced overwhelming challenges from
a young age when his parents struggled to make ends meet.
e. When his first attempt to secure a scholarship failed, he refused to give up, applying
again with greater effort.
A. d – e – c – a – b B. a – c – e – b – d
C. c – a – d – e – b D. d – c – e – b – a

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct option that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 18 to 22.
The Resilience of Athletes: Stories of Determination
Athletes, who inspire millions worldwide, are often admired for their resilience
in overcoming adversity. These individuals, whose dedication to their craft is unmatched,
(18) ________. Many spend years training under challenging conditions, sacrificing time
and comfort to achieve their goals. Their stories, (19)________,encourage others to
pursue their dreams, no matter how difficult the path may seem.
Wilma Rudolph, who was the first American woman to win three Olympic gold
medals, is a great example of resilience. She was born early and had polio, which made
her childhood very difficult. (20) ___, but Wilma worked hard every day to improve.
Through her efforts, she became a famous track-and-field athlete. Gaining success
despite obstacles, (21) ________
Similarly, Lionel Messi, one of the greatest footballers in history, faced growth
hormone deficiency as a child. (22) ________. However, Messi’s unwavering dedication to
football, combined with his exceptional talent, led to a career marked by records and
accolades. His journey, supported by those who believed in him, showcases the power of
persistence.
These athletes remind us that resilience, combined with hard work, can transform
lives and inspire the world.
Question 18:
A. facing challenges in their respective fields but owning determination
B. that demonstrate exceptional talent in diverse sports arenas
C. face countless obstacles on their journey to greatness
D. overcoming difficulties but failing to inspire others
Question 19:
A. which are filled with perseverance and triumph
B. show other people their perseverance and triumph
C. how they demonstrate perseverance and triumph
D. what inspires others to become persevering
Question 20:
A. Doctors once assured her that she would recover fully with little effort
B. In the past, doctors suggested that she might not need assistance to move or run
C. Doctors once told her that she might never be able to walk again
D. People claimed that she was already physically capable of competing
Question 21:
A. it was believed that her efforts demonstrated how obstacles can be conquered
B. her achievements proved that perseverance leads to overcoming the hardest
difficulties
C. she proved that determination can help overcome even the toughest challenges
D. many argued that her success showed the value of never giving up
Question 22
A. His performances at youth tournaments caught the attention of scouts worldwide
B. The expensive treatment created financial strain for his family
C. His success was attributed to rigorous training and a strong support system
D. Many admired his ability to adapt quickly to new playing styles

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the best answer to each of the following questions from 23 to 30.
A Curriculum Vitae (CV) is a vital document in the job application process. A well-
written CV not only demonstrates a candidate's job qualifications but also makes a lasting
impression on potential employers. To write an outstanding CV, consider the following
tips.
First and foremost, clarity and conciseness are key. Begin with a convincing
personal statement that clearly outlines your career objectives and core competencies.
Then, ensure that your CV is well-organised, with clearly defined sections for education,
work experience, skills, and achievements. Use bullet points and concise language to
make it easy for the target employers to scan for important details as quickly as possible
because they might not spend much time reading your CV.
Second, tailoring your CV to the specific job you’re applying for is crucial. Highlight
the skills and experiences that are only related to the job description, which
demonstrates your suitability for the job, attention to detail, and commitment to the
application process.
Third, mention specific technical skills and soft skills, along with achievements
related to your work experience wherever possible. You should use specific numbers and
data to illustrate your impact in previous roles. For instance, mention the percentage
increase in sales you achieved or the number of successful projects you managed, using
different skills because detailed information helps you earn the employer’s trust. Finally,
provide the precise contacts of your previous managers or university lecturers in the
references. Future employers could double-check what you present in your CV by
contacting someone reliable in the field.
(Adapted from English Workbook 12 – iLearn Smart World)
Question 23: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage as one of the tips
for crafting a good CV?
A. Tailoring content to the job B. Organising sections clearly
C. Using technical terms precisely D. Highlighting measurable achievements

Question 24: The word detailed in paragraph 4 is OPPOSITE in meaning to ___.

A. creative B. inspiring C. discreet D. insufficient

Question 25: The word they in paragraph 2 refers to: ___________

A. core competencies B. sections
C. achievements D. target employers

Question 26: The word convincing in paragraph 2 can be best replaced byns from 2
A. persuasive B. convenient C. insulting D. unique

Question 27: Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in
paragraph 4?
A. Reliable sources might be used by employers to confirm the accuracy of your CV.
B. Employers sometimes rely on others to question what is written in your CV.
C. Employers may verify your CV details by reaching out to trusted professionals
D. Employers ensure trustworthiness by contacting random individuals listed in your CV.

Question 28: Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?

A. A detailed CV with longer explanations is more likely to impress employers.
B. Employers often focus on personal statements to assess a candidate’s skills.
C. Including measurable achievements in a CV builds credibility with employers.
D. Tailoring a CV involves highlighting all previous work experiences, even unrelated ones.

Question 29: In which paragraph does the author mention the importance of customising
your CV?
A. paragraph 1 B. paragraph 2 C. paragraph 3 D. paragraph 4

Question 30: In which paragraph does the author explore the benefits of a good CV?
A. paragraph 1 B. paragraph 2 C. paragraph 3 D. paragraph 4

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the best answer to each of the following questions from 31 to 40.
The first cities appeared around ten thousand years ago in areas with good
farmland near rivers such as in Mesopotamia and Egypt. This is because when people
started to grow crops, they could live in communities in one place instead of moving
around to find food. The rivers also allowed them to trade with other communities.
People became attracted to cities because they offered trade, education and
work opportunities. However, urbanisation was still a new thing. Until 250 years ago, 90%
of people lived in rural areas. The huge cities of Mesopotamia have disappeared, but
other cities have grown. For example, Cairo in Egypt today has a population of 22 million
people.
The main reason behind the rapid urbanisation we see today was the Industrial
Revolution of the mid-1800s, which started in England and then spread to Europe and
America. (I) People started moving from the countryside to the cities to work in the
factories, which made the city population grow by leaps and bounds. (II) Advances in
infrastructure, transit, education and entertainment still keep attracting more people to
move to big cities. (III) Today, more than half of the world's population lives in urban
areas and experts predict that it will increase to two-thirds by 2050. (IV)
The first megacities with populations of more than 10 million people were New York
City and Tokyo in the 1950s. There are 33 megacities around the world today. Tokyo is
still the biggest with 37.3 million residents, but there are lots of cities with populations
of more than 20 million such as Delhi, Shanghai, Dhaka, Sao Paulo and Mexico City. Experts
predict there will be 41 megacities by the year 2030.
(Adapted from English Workbook 12 – Bright)
Question 31: Where in paragraph 3 does the following sentence best fit?
London, therefore, went from a population of 1 million in 1800 to over 6 million
in ten years.
A. I B. II C. III D. IV

Question 32: The phrase by leaps and bounds in paragraph 3 could be best replaced by
____.
A. very differently B. very strongly
C. very slowly D. very quickly

Question 33: The word them in paragraph 1 refers to ________

A. cities B. rivers C. people D. crops

Question 34: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage as one of the
megacities?
A. New York City B. Mesopotamia C. Sao Paulo D. Delhi

Question 35: Which of the following best summarises paragraph 1?

A. Early cities emerged near rivers, enabling stable communities and trade growth.
B. Early cities were set up quickly as rural areas were preferred for farming.
C. Rivers were primarily used for transportation, not essential to urban development.
D. The rise of early cities caused the start of traditional farming communities.
Question 36: The word appeared in paragraph 1 is OPPOSITE in meaning to ___.
A. vanished B. exposed C. rejected D. destroyed

Question 37: Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?

A. The first cities were established due to industrial advancements.
B. Cairo has one of the smallest urban populations among cities in Egypt.
C. The Industrial Revolution contributed significantly to urbanisation trends.
D. Tokyo lost its position as the largest megacity in the 1950s.

Question 38: Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in
paragraph 2?
A. Cities became appealing due to their social connections and advanced infrastructure.
B. Cities attracted people with opportunities for startups, schools, and trade.
C. People were attracted and moved to cities for better farming and travel
opportunities.
D. Cities appealed to people with opportunities in trade, education, and employment.

Question 39: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Urbanisation has caused rural populations to completely disappear over time.
B. Improvements in infrastructure and opportunities continue to drive urbanisation.
C. Megacities with more than 10 million people are a phenomenon exclusive to Asia.
D. Rural areas are predicted to become more attractive than cities due to
overpopulation.

Question 40: Which of the following best summarises the passage?

A. Urbanisation has been a negative trend throughout human history, driven by farming,
trade, and technological innovation.
B. Cities have transformed over time, growing from small farming communities to modern
megacities thanks to industrialisation and other developments.
C. The rise of megacities highlights the consequences of urbanisation, including
population growth and challenges in rural areas.
D. Urbanisation is a recent phenomenon caused by the Industrial Revolution and is
expected to slow down in the near future.