CLASS: LT NEET GT-3 DATE: 23.04.

2023

PHYSICS

IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS:

1. On the Answer Sheet, fill in the particulars on Side-1 and Side-2 carefully with blue/black ball
point pen only.

2. The test is of 3 hours 20 minutes duration and this Test Booklet contains 200 questions. Each
question carries 4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each
incorrect response, one mark will be deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720.

3. In this Test Paper, each subject will consist of two sections. Section A will consist of 35 questions
(all questions are mandatory) and Section B will have 15 questions. Candidate can choose to
attempt any 10 question out of these 15 questions. In case if candidate attempts more than 10
questions, first 10 attempted questions will be considered for marking.

4. In case of more than one option correct in any question, the best correct option will be considered
as answer.

5. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on this page/marking responses.

6. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only.

7. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator
before leaving the Room/Hall. The candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet
with them.

8. The candidates should ensure that the Answer Sheet is not folded. Do not make any stray marks on
the Answer Sheet. Do not write your Form No. anywhere else except in the specified space in the
Test Booklet/ Answer Sheet.

9. Use of white fluid for correction is not permissible on the Answer Sheet.

SECTION – A

1. It the speed of light (c), acceleration due to gravity(g) and pressure (p) are taken as the
fundamental quantities, then the dimension of gravitational constant is

(a) (b) (c) (d)

2. Two quantities A and B have different dimensions. Which mathematical operation given below is
physically meaningful

(a) A/B (b) A + B (c) A – B (d) None

3. An express train is moving with a velocity v1. Its driver finds another train is moving on the same
track in the same direction with velocity v2. To escape collision, driver applies a retardation a on
the train. The minimum time of escaping collision will be

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 (a) = (b) = (c) None (d) Both

4. A small mass m is attached to a massless string whose other end is

fixed at P as shown in the figure. The mass is undergoing circular
motion in the x – y plane with centre at O and constant angular speed
. If the angular momentum of the system, calculated about O and P
are denoted by ⃗ and ⃗ respectively, then

(a) ⃗ and ⃗ do not vary with time

(b) ⃗ varies with time while ⃗ remains constant
(c) ⃗ remains constant while ⃗ varies with time
(d) ⃗ and ⃗ both vary with time

5. Two bodies of mass 10kg and 5kg moving in concentric orbits of radii R and r such that their
periods are the same. Then the ratio between their centripetal acceleration is

(a) / (b) / (c) / (d) /

6. A satellite in force-free space sweeps stationary interplanetary dust at a rate dM/dt = v where M
is the mass, v is the velocity of the satellite and  is a constant. What is the deacceleration of the
satellite

(a) −2 / (b) − / (c) + / (d) −

7. A student unable to answer a question on Newton’s law of motion attempts to pull himself up by
tugging on his hair. He will not succeed

(a) As the force exerted is small

(b) The frictional force while gripping, is small
(c) Newton’s law of inertia is not applicable to living beings
(d) As the force applied is internal to the system

8. A particle moves in a straight line with retardation proportional to its displacement, Its loss of
kinetic energy for any displacement x is proportional to

(a) (b) (c) x (d)

9. A boy stands over the centre of a horizontal platform which is rotating freely with a speed of 2
revolutions/sec about a vertical axis through the centre of the platform and straight up through the
centre of the platform and straight up through the boy. He holds 2kg masses in each of his hands
close to his body. The combined moment of inertia of the system is 1kg x metre2. The boy now
stretches his arms so as to hold the masses of inertia of the system increases to 2kg x metre2. The
kinetic energy of the system in the latter case as compared with that in the previous case will

(a) Remains unchanged (b) Decreases

(c) Increase (d) Remains uncertain

10. A 10kg body hangs at rest from a rope wrapped around a cylinder 0.2m in diameter. The torque
applied about the horizontal axis of the cylinder is

(a) 98 N – m (b) 19.6 N – m (c) 196 N – m (d) 9.8 N - m

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11. If a new planet is discovered rotating around the sum with the orbital radius double that of earth,
then what will be its time period (in earth’s days)?

(a) 1032 (b) 1023 (c) 1024 (d) 1043

12. If x longitudinal strain is produced in a wire of Young’s modulus y, then energy stored in the
material of the wire per unit volume is

(a) (b) 2 (c) (d)

13. A small spherical ball of steel falls through a viscous medium with terminal velocity v. If a ball of
twice the radius of the first one but of the same mass is dropped through the same method, it will
fall with a terminal velocity (neglect buoyancy)

(a) (b) (c) (d) 2

√

14. Water falls from a tap, down the streamline

(a) Area decreases (b) Area increases

(c) Velocity remains same (d) Area remains same

15. The maximum energy in the thermal radiation from a hot source occurs at a wavelength of 11x10-5
cm. According to Wien’s law, the temperature of the source (on Kelvin scale) will be n times the
temperature of another source (on Kelvin scale) for which the wavelength at maximum energy is
5.5 x 10-5 cm. The value n is

(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) (d) 1

16. Figure shown a thermodynamical process on one moles a gas. How does the work done in the
process change with time?

(a) Decrease continuously (b) Increases continuously

(c) Remains constant (d) First increase and then decreases

17. Heat is supplied to a diatomic gas at constant pressure. The ratio of : : is

(a) 5 : 3 : 2 (b) 5 : 2 : 3 (c) 7 : 5 : 2 (d) 7 : 2 : 5

18. The temperature of a black body is increased by 50%, then the percentage of increase of radiation
is approximately

(a) 100% (b) 25% (c) 400% (d) 500%

19. A mass m attached to a spring oscillates every 2s. If the mass is increased by 2kg, then time period
increases by 1s. The initial mass is

(a) 1.6 kg (b) 3.9 kg (c) 9.6 kg (d) 12.6 kg

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20. The time period of a simple pendulum when it is made to oscillate on the surface of moon

(a) Increases (b) Decreases (c) Remains unchanged (d) Becomes infinite

21. A travelling wave represented by = ( − ) is superimposed on another wave

represented by = ( + ). The resultant is

(a) A standing wave having nodes at = + , = 0,1,2

(b) A wave travelling along +x direction
(c) A wave travelling along – x direction
(d) A standing wave having nodes at = , = 0,1,2

22. An electron and a proton are in a uniform electric field, the ratio of their accelerations will be

(a) Zero (b) Unity

(c) The ratio of the masses of proton and electron
(d) The ratio of the masses of electron and proton

23. The voltage of clouds is 4 x 106 volt with respect to ground. In a lightening strike lasting 100msec,
a charge of 4 coulombs is delivered to the ground. The power of lightening strike is

(a) 160 MW (b) 80 MW (c) 20 MW (d) 500 KW

24. n small drops of same size are charged to V volt each. If they coalesce to form a single large drop,
then its potential will be
/ /
(a) (b) (c) (d)

25. The relation between Faraday’s constant F, electron charge e and Avogadro number N is

(a) = / (b) = (c) = (d) =

26. Assume that each atom of copper contributes one electron. If the current flowing through a copper
wire of 1mm diameter is 1.1A, the drift velocity of electrons will be (density of Cu = 9g cm-3,
atomic wt. of Cu = 63)

(a) 0.3mm (b) 0.5mm (c) 0.1mm (d) 0.2mm

27. Two wires of same metal have the same length but their cross sections are in the ratio 3 : 1. They
are joined in series. The resistance of the thicker wire is 10. The total resistance of the
combination is

a) 5/2 b) 40/3 c) 40 d) 100

28. Which of the field pattern given in the figure is valid for electric field as well as magnetic field?

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29. Isogonic lines on magnetic map will have

a) Zero angle of dip b) Zero angle of declination

c) Same angle of declination d) Same angle of dip

30. Two uniform magnetic fields B and H are perpendicular to each other at a place. When a magnetic
needle is placed in the field, it rest making angle 60o and 30o with B and H respectively. The value
of B : H is

(a) 1 : 2 (b) 2 : 1 (c) √3: 1 (4) 1: √3

31. Which of the following is constructed on the principle of electromagnetic induction

a) Galvanometer b) Electric motor c) Generator d) Voltmeter

32. In a choke coil, the reactance XL and resistance R are such that

a) = b) >> c) << d) =∞

33. In general in an alternating current circuit

a) The average value of current is zero

b) The average value of square of the current is zero
c) Average power dissipation is zero
d) The phase difference between voltage and current is zero

34. In an electromagnetic wave, the electric and magnetizing fields are 100 Vm-1 and 0.265 Am-1. The
maximum energy flow is

a) 26.5Wm b) 36.5Wm (c) 46.7Wm (d) 765Wm

35. Refractive index of glass is and refractive index of water is . If the speed of light in glass is 2.00
x 108 m/s, the speed in water will be

a) 2.67 × 10 m/s b) 2.25 × 10 m/s (c) 1.78 × 10 m/s (d) 1.50 × 10 m/s

SECTION – B

36. Which of the following quantities measured from different inertial reference frames are same?

(a) Force (b) Velocity (c) Displacement (d) Kinetic energy

37. Consider a rubber ball freely falling from a height h = 4.9m onto a horizontal elastic plate. Assume
that the duration of collision is negligible and the collision with the plate is totally elastic. Then the
velocity as a function of time and the height as a function time will be

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38. The moment of inertia of a metre scale of mass 0.6 kg about an axis perpendicular to the scale and
located at the 20cm position on the scale in kgm2 is (Breadth of the scale is negligible)

(a) 0.074 (b) 0.104 (c) 0.148 (d) 0.208

39. If the radius of earth’s orbit is made 1/4th, then duration of an year will become

(a) 8 times (b) 4 times (c) 1/8 times (d) ¼ times

40. The density of ice x and water y are respectively gcm-3. If m gram of ice melts, then change in its
volume is

(a) − (b) ( − ) (c) − (d)

41. If  is the ratio of specific heats and R is the universal gas constant, then the molar specific heat at
constant volume Cv is given by
( )
(a) (b) (c) (d)

42. A simple wave motion represented by = 5( 4 + √3 4 ). Its amplitude is

(a) 5 (b) 5√3 (c) 10√3 (d) 10

43. In an ac circuit, the current is given by = 5 ( 100 − ) and the ac potential is V = 200
sin(100) volt. Then the power consumption is

(a) 20 watts (b) 40 watts (c) 1000 watts (d) 0 watt

44. Electric fields induced by changing magnetic fields are

(a) Conservation (b) Non-conservation

(c) May be conservative or non-conservation depending on the conditions (d) Nothing can be said

45. A satisfactory photographic print is obtained when the exposure time is 10s at a distance of 2m
from a 60cd lamp. The time of exposure required for the same quality print at a distance of 4m
from a 120cd lamp is

(a) 5s (b) 10 s (c) 15 s (d) 20 s

46. Focal length of a convex lens will be maximum for

(a) Blue light (b) yellow light (c) green light (d) red light

47. An oil flowing on water seems coloured due to interference. For observing this effect, the
approximate thickness of the oil film should be

(a) 100 (b) 10000 (c) 1 mm (d) 1 cm

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48. When a cathode ray tube is operated at 2912V, the velocity of electrons is3.2 × 10 m/s. Find the
velocity of cathode ray if the tube is operated at 5824 V

(a) 2.4 × 10 m/s (b) 5.2 × 10 m/s (c) 4.525 × 10 m/s (d) 2.4 × 10 m/s

49. A charged particle q is shot towards another charged particle Q which is fixed, with a speed v. It
approaches Q upto a closest distance r and then returns. If q was given a speed 2v, the closest
distance of approach would be

(a) r (b) 2r (c) r/2 (d) r/4

50. Three capacitors of capacitances 3µF, 9µF and 18µF are connected once in series and another time
in parallel. The ratio of equivalent capacitance in the two cases will be

(a) 1 : 15 (b) 15 : 1 (c) 1 : 1 (d) 1 : 3

CHEMISTRY

SECTION – A

51. Incorrect match of the flame colour of given metals is

Column I Column II

a) Potassium Violet
b) Lithium Crimson red
c) Barium Blue
d) Calcium Brick red

52. Consider the following statements

1. Boric acid is a weak monobasic protonic acid

2. Orthoboric acid on heating above 370 K forms metaboric acid
3. Diborane on hydrolysis forms boric acid.

The correct statements are

a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3

53. Optically inactive compound among the following

a) b) c) d)

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54. The compound which will react at fastest rate with aqueous silver nitrate solution is

a) b) c) d)

55. The species in which hyperconjugation does not take place is

a) b) c) d)

56. Which among the following is a homopolymer?

a) Buna-N b) Neoprene c) Glyptal d) Nylon 6, 6

57. Consider the following reaction sequence

Product D is

a) b) c) d)

58. Furacine is used as an

a) Antiseptic b) Antihistamine c) Antibiotic d) Antacid

59. The most acidic compound among the following is

a) b) c) d)

60. The species which is not isostructural with is

a) b) c) d)

61. Energy of 2s orbital of which element is lowest?

a) K b) H c) Li d) Na

62. Which ion is blue in colour in aqueous medium?

a) b) c) d)

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63. Correct order of bond dissociation enthalpy of the given halogens is

a) > > > b) > > >

c) > > > d) > > >

64. Which among the following has maximum density?

a) Fe b) Ti c) Ni d) Cr

65. What is the maximum number of orbital(s) in an atom that can be identified with the following
quantum numbers? n = 4, l = 2, m = - 1

a) 16 b) 5 c) 2 d) 1

66. Which among the following is an extensive property?

a) Volume b) Viscosity c) Density d) Temperature

67. The metal which is not purified by vapour phase refining is

a) Ni b) Zn c) Zr d) Ti

68. 21.75 g of on reaction with forms 2/8 L of ( ) at STP, the percentage purity of
is (atomic mass of = 55 )

+4 → + +2

a) 80 % b) 75 % c) 33 % d) 50 %

69. The radii of 2nd Bohr orbit of ion is

a) 26.45 pm b) 52.9 pm c) 79.35 pm d) 105.8 pm

70. If the value of ionization enthalpy of K is then the value of electron gain enthalpy of is

a) − b) −2 c) +2 d) −

71. Which of the following pairs of compounds are isostructural?

a) and b) and c) and d) and

72. The number of and bonds in the following compound respectively are

a) 12 and 3 b) 11 and 3 c) 12 and 4 d) 11 and 4

73. Van der Waals constant (a) for the gases A, B, C and D are 1.25, 3.29, 4.28 and 0.244 respectively.
The gas which is most easily liquefied is

a) A b) B c) C d) D

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74. Four monobasic acids A, B, C and D have their respective ∆ values as −11.5, −7.5, −12.4
and −8.9 / . Which of the following acids has the highest value?

a) A b) B c) C d) D

75. Conjugate acid and conjugate base of respectively are

a) and b) and
c) and d) and

76. The oxidation state of central bromine atom in is

a) +6 b) +3 c) +4 d) +5

77. The characteristic colour exhibited by Rb atom to an oxidizing flame is

a) Crimson red b) Yellow c) Red Violet d) Blue

78. Thermodynamically, the most stable allotrope of carbon is

a) Coke b) Fullerene c) Diamond d) Graphite

79. Kjeldahl’s method is applicable to which of the following compounds?

a) b) c) d)

80. Which of the following pairs of compounds are metamers of each other?

a) b)

c) d)

81. Anti-aromatic species among the following is

a) b) c) d)

82. Packing efficiency of fcc unit cell is

a) 74 % b) 68 % c) 52.8 % d) 26 %

83. Which of the following metal has the highest conductivity at room temperature?

a) Na b) Cu c) Ag d) Au

84. For the coagulation of methylene blue sol, the flocculating power of which of the following ion is
maximum?

a) b) c) d)
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85. The compound which has the highest reducing character among the following is

a) b) c) d)

SECTION B

86. The fraction of the total volume occupied by the atoms present in bcc unit cell is

a) /3√2 b) √3 /8 c) √2 /8 d) √3 /6

87. Correct order of limiting molar conductivity of the given ions is

a) > > b) > >

c) > > d) > >

88. If 10 ml of 0.4 M solution is mixed with 40 mol of 0.1 M NaOH solution then the pH of
the resultant solution becomes (Given: of = 4.75)

a) 9.5 b) 8.8 c) 7.8 d) 10.8

89. Cathode used in Leclanche cell is

a) Zinc-mercury amalgam b) Graphite rod surrounded by and carboon

c) Paste of HgO and carbon d) Paste of KOH and ZnO

90. If rate constant of a reaction is 1.155 × 10 then the half life period for the reaction will be

a) 20 min b) 15 min c) 5 min d) 10 min

91. Conjugate acid and base pair of respectively are

a) and b) and c)
and d) and

92. Correct order of boiling points of the given compounds is

a) > > b) > >

c) > > d) > >

93. Consider the following reaction sequence Product B is

a) b) c) d)

94. The co-ordination complex which shows linkage isomerism is

a) [ ( ) ] b) [ ( ) ]
c) [ ( ) ] d) [ ( ) ]

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95. The alcohol which reacts fastest with Lucas reagent is

a) b) c) d)

96. Consider the following reaction sequence, major

product D is

a) b) c) d) =

97. Purine base among the following is

a) Cytosine b) Guanine c) Thymine d) Uracil

98. Antidepressant drug among the following is

a) phenelzine b) chloramphenicol c) prontosil d) Salvarsan

99. Consider the following reaction, The major product (B) obtained n
the above reaction is

a) Sallcylaldehyde b) Salicylic acid c) Benzoic acid d) Phthalic acid

100. If the standard electrode potential for a cell, ( )+2 ( )→ ( )+2 ( ) is 1.9 V, then
the standard Gibbs energy for the reaction is

a) 3.8 F J/mol b) – 1.9 F J/mol c) – 3.8 F J/mol d) – 7.6 F J/mol

BOTANY

SECTION A

101. Bacteria differs from BGA in

(a) Being prokaryotic in nature (b) Performing oxygenic photosynthesis

(c) Having peptidoglycan in cell wall (d) Presence of flagella in some forms

102. Find correct match between column I and II

Column I Column II

(a) Red tide (i) Trichodesmium erythraeum

(b) Red sea (ii) Chlamydomonas nivalis
(c) Red snow (iii) Gymnodinium sp.
(d) Red rust (iv) Cephaleuros sp.

(a) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv) (b) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
(c) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(iv) (d) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv)

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103. What is correct w.r.t. chromosomes number in the sexual reproduction of Ophioglossum?

(a) Embryo = 1260, Endosperm = 1890, Oospore = 630

(b) Sporocyte = 1260, Venter Canal Cell = 630, Oospore = 630
(c) Oospore = 1260, Oosphere = 1260, Leaf cells = 1260
(d) Gametes = 630, Neck Canal Cell = 1260, Gametangium = 1260

104. Find out the correct order (w.r.t. development of male gametophyte)

A. B. C. D.

(a) D → A → C → B (b) D → B → A → C
(c) D → C → B → A (d) A → B → C → D

105. Mark the incorrect one

(a) Pollen consumption has been claimed to increase the performance of athletes and race
horses
(b) Viability of pollen grain depends upon temperature, not humidity
(c) Pollen grains of a large number of species can be stored in liquid nitrogen for years
(d) Pollen grains of rice and wheat lose viability within the half an hour

106. Process involving transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of another flower of the
same plant is

(a) Genetically as well as functionally self-pollination

(b) Functionally cross-pollination and genetically self-pollination
(c) Functionally as well as genetically cross pollination
(d) Genetically cross-pollination and functionally self-pollination

107. Minimum chromosome number in gamete is concerned with organism

(a) Onion (b) House fly (c) Garden pea (d) Fruit fly

108. Find out the base sequence on RNA which is made from the following DNA molecule.
3’ - G C T A A C G A T C - 5’
5’ - C G A T T G C T A G - 3’

(a) 5’ G C U A A C G A U C 3’ (b) 5’ C G A U U G C U A G 3’
(c) 3’ C G A U U G C U A G 5’ (d) 3’ G C U A A C G A U G 5’

109. If the sequence of nucleotides is AUG UUU UGC UAC, the sequence of amino acids will be
Met- Phe-Cys -Tyr. Likewise, if the sequence of amino acids is
Met-Tyr-Cys-Phe, then the sequence of nucleotides will be

(a) AUG UAC UGC UUU (b) AUG UAU UGU AUC
(c) AUG UAC UAU UUU (d) Any one of the above three

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110. Select the incorrect match

(a) ϕ× 174 – 5386 bp (b) λ phage – 48502 bp

(c) E. coli – 4.6 × 106 bp (d) Haploid human cell – 3.3 × 109 bp

111. In the life cycle of a plant, the secondary tissues are made by

(a) Intercalary meristem and vascular cambium

(b) Apical meristem and cork cambium
(c) Cork-cambium and vascular cambium
(d) Primary meristems and Interfascicular Cambium

112. Conjoint, collateral and close vascular bundles are found in

(a) Roots of wheat (b) Stem of sunflower (c) Leaf of gram (d) Stem of mango

113. Below labeled structures (A and B) in the diagram represent modification of

(a) A – Stem B – Leaf (b) A – Bud B – Leaf

(c) A – Leaf B – Bud (d) A – Leaf B – Leaf

114. Which one of the statement is correct for colchicine yielding family?

(a) Dichlamydeous flower with epipetalous condition

(b) Superior ovary with basal placentation
(c) Epiphyllous condition with axile placentation
(d) Trimerous and epigynous flower

115. Position of ovary is superior in

(a) Hypogynous flower (b) Perigynous flower

(c) Epigynous flower (d) Mesogynous flower

116. Match the column correctly

Column I Column II
a. Phenylketonuria (i) Autosomal trisomy associated with mongolism
b. Down’s syndrome (ii) Gynaecomastia
c. Klinefelter’s syndrome (iii) Autosomal recessive trait associated with mental
retardation
d. Turner’s syndrome (iv) Sterile females with rudimentary ovaries

(a) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii) (b) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)
(c) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv) (d) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)

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117. Marriage between the carrier woman and colour-blind man produces

(a) 75% normal boys are with normal vision (b) 50% girls are colour blind
(c) 50% girls with normal vision (d) both b&c

118. How many types of gametes are formed from the mother cell having AaBbCCDd genotypes?

(a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 16 (d) 32

119. The prokaryotic cells are represented by all, except

(a) Red algae (b) Blue green algae (c) Mycoplasma (d) Ray fungi

120. The endomembrane system of cell includes

(a) ER + Golgi body + Mitochondria (b) ER + Golgi body + Vacuole + Microtubules

(c) ER + Golgi body + Lysosome + Vacuole (d) ER + Golgi body + Chloroplast + Lysosome

121. Photosynthetic pigments found in chlorophycean members are

(a) Chlorophyll a, b and carotenoids (b) Chlorophyll a, c and fucoxanthin

(c) Chlorophyll a, d and violaxanthin (d) Chlorophyll a, b and phycobilins

122. Female sex organ of red algae is

(a) Unicellular carpogonium (b) Multicellular carpogonium with trichogyne

(c) Unicellular nucule (d) Multicellular archegonium

123. Some events of cell cycle are given below

a. Duplication of centriole b. Tubulin synthesis

c. Formation of synaptonemal complex, and
d. Decondensation of chromosomes

Find the stages of cell cycle where these events take place respectively

(a) G2 phase, G2 phase, Zygotene, Diakinesis (b) S phase, G2 phase, Zygotene, Telophase
(c) S phase, G1 phase, Diplotene, Telophase (d) G1 phase, G2 phase, Pachytene, Diakinesis

124. How many meiosis divisions are required for the formation of 200 seeds in Pisum sativum?

(a) 200 (b) 250 (c) 300 (d) 400

125. In facilitated diffusion

(a) Special proteins allow movement of molecules from low to high concentration
(b) Transport rate reaches maximum when all transporter lipids are used
(c) Allows cell to select substances for uptake
(d) Sensitive to inhibitors which react with fatty acid side chains

126. Girdling experiments cannot be carried out in

(a) Monocots (b) Dicots with bicollateral vascular bundles

(c) Dicots with collateral vascular bundles (d) More than one option is correct

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127. Symptoms of manganese toxicity may actually be the deficiency symptoms of

(a) Fe, Ca and N (b) Fe, Mg and Ca (c) Zn, Ca and B (d) Ca, Mg and P

128. Find incorrect match with respect to catalytic effect of minerals

(a) Dinitrogenase – Mo (b) Z- scheme - Mn

(c) PEP carboxylase – Mg (d) Carbonic anhydrase – Ca

129. First stable product of PCR cycle is

(a) Oxaloacetic acid (b) Sedoheptulose-1, 7-diphosphate

(c) 3-phosphoglyceraldehyde (d) 3-phosphoglyceric acid

130. Photorespiration

(a) Does not produce energy and CO2 (b) Begins when light intensity is very low
(c) Rate increases with the age of leaves (d) Requires carboxylase activity of Rubisco

131. The fermentation product of yeast are

(a) Methyl alcohol and ethyl alcohol (b) Methyl alcohol and carbon dioxide
(c) Ethyl alcohol and carbon dioxide (d) Pyruvate and acetaldehyde

132. For five molecules of acetyl CoA entering the aerobic respiratory pathway, how many ATP
molecules are produced by substrate level phosphorylation?

(a) 10 (b) 20 (c) 12 (d) 5

133. The formation of cork by the activity of cork cambium is an example of

(a) Differentiation (b) Dedifferentiation

(c) Redifferentiation (d) Plasmatic growth

134. Environmental plasticity is found in

(a) Cotton (b) Buttercup (c) Larkspur (d) Coriander

135. In maize, resistance to stem borer and in cotton resistance to jassids is achieved by which
of the following characteristics respectively?

(a) Morphological and genetical (b) Physiological and physical

(c) Biochemical and morphological (d) Genetical and biochemical

SECTION B

136. Capacity to generate a whole plant from any cell/explant is called

(a) Regeneration (b) Rejuvenation (c) Totipotency (d) Propagation

137. Select the incorrect match

(a) Monascus – Statins (b) Trichoderma – Cry toxin

(c) Aspergillus – Citric acid (d) Propionibacterium – Swiss cheese

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138. Find the odd one out with respect to distillation of fermented broth.

(a) Rum (b) Brandy (c) Wine (d) Whisky

139. Which of the following restriction enzyme is present with rop site of pBR322?

(a) Pst-I (b) Pvu-I (c) Pvu-II (d) BamH-I

140. Biolistic is suitable for

(a) Constructing recombinant DNA by joining with vectors (b) DNA fingerprinting
(c) Disarming pathogen vector (d) Transformation of plant cells

141. Which of the following is the correct set of primary metabolites?

(a) Codeine, Lecithin, Carotenoid, Glycerol

(b) Cholesterol, Uridine, Lecithin, Palmitic acid
(c) Anthocyanin, Cellulose, Rubber, Morphine
(d) Gums, Vinblastin, Cellulose, Codeine

142. Which one is the most abundant protein in animal world?

(a) Collagen (b) RUBISCO (c) Trypsin (d) Insulin

143. Find the wrong statement

(a) Living state is non-equilibrium steady state to be able to perform work

(b) There is no uncatalysed metabolic conversion in living systems
(c) Tertiary structure is absolutely necessary for the many biological activities of ` proteins
(d) Cellulose contain complex helices where it can hold iodine

144. RNAi takes place in all eukaryotic organisms as a method of cellular defense. This method
involves silencing of specific mRNA. The source of the insert RNA could be

(a) From an infection by virus having RNA genome

(b) Mobile genetic elements (transposons) that replicate via an RNA intermediate
(c) Both (1) & (2) (d) Tobacco plant

145. Periodic infusion of genetically engineered lymphocytes is required in a patient suffering

from SCID because of

(a) Insertional inactivation of recombinant gene (b) Depletion of nutrients

(c) Limited life span of cells (d) Packing up of transferred gene

146. The endosperm in gymnosperm is

(a) Gametophytic in nature (b) Formed after fertilization

(c) The result of double fertilization (d) Formed from megaspore mother cell by mitosis

147. Synaptonemal complex is

(a) Formed between sister chromatids (b) Required for synapsis

(c) Formed in zygotene (d) More than one option is correct

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148. Facilitated transport is similar to simple diffusion in

(a) Presence of uphill transport (b) Absence of transport saturation

(c) Absence of movement of transport proteins (d) Response to protein inhibitors

149. CF0 – CF1 particles found on thylakoid membrane

(a) Are not similar to F0 – F1 particles (b) Are concerned with ATP hydrolysis only
(c) Perform facilitated diffusion to produce ATP (d) Have no proton channel

150. In glycolysis, ATP is synthesized during conversion of

(a) Phosphoenolpyruvate to pyruvate (b) Fructose-6-phosphate to fructose 1,6- bisphosphate

(c) 3-phosphoglyceric acid to 2-phosphoglyceric acid
(d) 2-phosphoglycerate to Phosphoenol pyruvate

ZOOLOGY

SECTION A

151. A triploblastic, eucoelomate animal that exhibit both bilateral and radial symmetry in its life time
is :

a) Brittle star b) Sea hare c) king crab d) Blood sucking leech

152. In which of the following animal sexual dimorphism is distinct

a) Hook worm b) Tape-worm c) Round worm d) a & c

153. (1) Choanocytes line the spongocoel and the canals

(2) Sponges reproduce asexually by budding and sexually by formation of gametes
(3) Polyp is motile and cylindrical form like motile spongilla
(4) The property of living organisms to emit light is called bioluminescence
Find out the incorrect statement/s

a) 1 &2 b) 2 & 3 c) 3 & 4 d) 1 & 4

154.

What is the function of 3 in the diagram.

a) They provide cellular contact b) They provide strength, elasticity and flexibility to the tissue
c) They form intercellular matrix d) They provide cellular defence

155. Human heart consists of how many types of tissues?

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
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156. (1) Anterior end of the head bears appendages forming biting and chewing type of mouth parts
(2) Each thoracic segment bears a pair of walking legs
(3) The hind wings are opaque, leathery and are used in flight
(4) In both sexes, the 10th segment bears a pair of jointed filamentous structures called anal styles
Find out statements about cockroach which are incorrect ?

a) 1,2,3,4 b) 1 & 2 c) 2 &3 d) 3 &4

157. Location of liver in human beings

a) in the abdominal cavity, just above diaphragm

b) in the lower thoracic cavity, just below diaphragm
c) in the abdominal cavity, just below diaphragm
d) in thoracic cavity, just above diaphragm

158. The optimum pH for the hydrolytic action of carbohydrate splitting enzyme ptyalin
(Salivary amylase ) is :
a) 1.8 b) 6.8 c) 7.8 d) 7
159. Protein deficiency unaccompanied by calorie deficiency in children causes :

a) Kwashiorker b) Marasmus c) obesity d) both a & b

160. (1) The anatomical setup of lungs in thorax is such that any change in the volume of pulmonary
cavity will be reflected in thoracic cavity
(2)The diaphragm and a specialized set of muscles – external intercostal and internal intercostals
between the ribs, help in generation of pressure gradients

a) statement 1 and 2 are wrong b) Statement 2 wrong 1 correct

c) Statement 1 and 2 are correct d) Statement 1wrong 2 correct

161. How much amount of oxygen can be delivered by 500 ml of oxygenated blood to the tissues under
normal physiological conditions?

a) 5 ml b) 25 ml c) 50 ml d) 100 ml

162 Assertion (A) : The SAN is called the pace maker

Reason (R): The sino-atrial node can generate maximum number of action potentials, i.e. 70 – 75
, and is responsible for initiating and maintaining the rhythmic contractile activity of the
heart.
a) Both A and R correct R is correct explanation for A
b) Both A and R correct R is not correct explanation for A
c) A is wrong R is correct
d) A is wrong R is correct and it is correct explanation for A
163. (1) Sebacious glands eliminate certain substances like sterols, carbohydrates and wax through
sebum.
(2) Uremia is due to malfunctioning of kidneys.
(3) Insoluble mass of crystallised salts within the kidney causes renal calculi
(4) On an average 30 -35 gm of urea is excreted out per day
Find out correct statements from the above:

a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 4 c) 2 and 3 d) 1 and 4

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164. All mammals (except a few) have ________cervical vertebrae

a) 7 b) 7 pairs c) 12 d) 5

165. Assertion (A) : The neural system is better organized in insects

Reason (R): In insects a brain is present along with a number of ganglia and neural tissues
a) Both A and R are correct. R is correct explanation for A
b) Both A and R are correct. R is not a correct explanation for A
c) A is wrong R is correct
d) A is correct R is wrong
166. (1) Insulin, Glucogon
(2) Gastrin, Gastric inhibitory peptide
(3) Epinephrine, Norepinephrine
(4) TCT, PTH
Non-antagonistic hormones from the above.

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

167. Which hormones among the following produce anabolic (synthetic) effects on protein and
carbohydrate metabolism?

a) Glucocorticoides b) Androgens
c) Adrenaline d) FSH and LH

168. The place of in the fertilization in the fallopian tube of female is

a) fimbriae b) ampulla c) infundibulum d) both a and b

169. (1) The primary oocyte forms a new membrane called zona pellucida
(2) The primary oocyte within the tertiary follicle grows in size and completes its first meiotic
division
(3) The primary spermatocyte completes the first meiotic division leading to formation of two
unequal, haploid secondary spermatocytes
(4) The seminal plasma is rich in fructose, calcium and certain enzymes
Incorrect statements from the above

a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3 c) 1 and 3 d) 3 and 4

170. The world population which was around ( ) in 1900 rocketed to about ( ) by 2000 and
( ) in 2011.

a) A – 20 million; B – 60 million; C – 72 million

b) A – 2000 million;B– 6000 million; C – 7200 million
c) A – 200 million; B – 600 million; C – 720 million
d) A – 2 million; B – 10 million; C – 2 million

171. Which one among the following make the uterus unsuitable for implanation and the cervix hostile
to the sperm?

a) LNG-20 b) Multiload - 375

c) Lippes loop d) Implants

20
172. Assertion (A): The fitness, according to Darwin, refers ultimately and only to reproductive fitness.
Reason (R): Those who are better fit in an environment, leave more progency than others.

a) A is correct R is wrong b) Both A and R are wrong

c) Both A and R are correct. R is not correct explanation for A
d) Both A and R are correct. R is correct explanation for A

173. The first cellular form of life did not possibly originate till about ______

a) 2 bya b) 200 mya c) 2000 bya d) 2.5 bya

174. Australopithecines probably lived in :

a) Ethiopia and Tanzania b) Java and Sumatra grass land

c) East and Central Asia d) East African grasslands
175 (1) Ligament, tendon, bones, cartilage
(2) Cartilage, bones, dense regular connective tissue
(3) Blood, bones, muscle (4) Bones, blood, cartilage
Specialised connective tissue from the above
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
176. Which diagnosis technique for cancer do not use ionizing radiation?

a) X-rays b) CT scan c) CAT scan d) MRI

177. Match the following :

Drug / plant Effect

(A) Datura (1) Stimulant
(B) Hashish (2) Hallucinogen
(C) Poppy (3) Cardio – vascular system
(D) Crack (4) Gastro-intestinal tract &CNS

a) A – 1,B – 2, C – 3, D – 4 b) A – 2,B – 3, C – 4, D – 1
c) A – 2,B – 4, C – 3, D – 1 d) A – 3,B – 2, C – 4, D – 1

178. In the integral form of the exponential growth equation = ; e – value is :

a) 0.0205 b) 2.71828 c) 4 × 10 d) 2.51828

179. What are the other alternatives for survival of the organisms, if the stressful external conditions
are localized or remain only for a short duration?

a) dormancy, diapause b) migration, hibernation

c) hibernation , aestivation d) All of the above

180. In a small pond the decomposers are :

a) fungi, bacteria and flagellates b) fungi ,bacteria and blue green algae
c) fungi, bacteria and diatoms d) fungi, bacteria and bottom dwelling higher carnivores
181. (1) In an ecological succession, the individual transitional communities are termed as seres
(2) Description of ecological succession usually focuses on changes in vegetation
(3) In Xerarch succession, the pioneer communities are usually lichens
(4) Out of total cost of various ecosystem services, the cost of climate regulation and habitat for
wildlife are about 10 % each
21
 Find the incorrect statement/s:

a) 2,3 b) 2,4 c) 1,3 d) 1, 4

182. Match the following:

Column I (Sacred groves) Column II (Areas)

(A) Khasi and Jaintia Hills (1) Karnataka and Maharastra
(B) Chanda and Baster areas (2) Rajasthan
(C) Western Ghat regions (3) Madhya Pradesh
(D) Aravali Hills (4) Meghalaya

a) A – 3,B – 2, C – 1, D – 4 b) A – 4,B – 3, C –2, D – 1

c) A – 1,B – 3, C – 3, D – 4 d) A – 4,B – 3, C – 1, D – 2

183. Exploring molecular, genetic and species – level diversity for products of economic importance
known as :

a) Biotagging b) Eugenics c) Bioprospecting d) Biopiracy

184. Match the following

Column I Column II
(A) Joint Forest Management (1) 1988
(B) Chipko Movement (2) 1981
(C) National Forest Policy (3) 1980
(D) Montreal Protocol (4) 1974
(E) Air (Prevention and Control (5) 1987
of pollution ) Act

a) A – 3,B – 4, C – 1, D – 4, E-5 b) A – 2,B – 1, C –3, D – 5, E - 5

c) A – 4,B – 3, C – 2, D – 1, E - 5 d) A – 3,B – 4, C – 1, D – 5, E – 2

185. Relative contribution of various green house gases to total global warming is :

a) − 20%, − 60%, − 14%, -6%

b) − 62%, − 18%, − 14%, -6%
c) − 60%, − 20%, − 14%, -6%
d) − 60%, − 20%, − 6%, -14%

SECTION – B

186. Assertion (A) : Air bladder in bony fishes regulates buoyancy

Reason(R) : Due to the absence of air bladder cartilaginous fish have to swim constantly to avoid
sinking
a) Both A and R are correct b) A is correct R is wrong
c) A is wrong R is correct d) Both A and R are wrong.

187 . Gonorrhoea, syphilis, genital herpes, chlamydiasis genital warts, trichomoniasis, hepatitis – B and
AIDS. Protozoan disease/s from the above

a) Chlamydiasis b) genital warts c) Genital herpes d) Trichomoniasis

22
188. (1) The sub-mucosal layer is formed of tight connective tissues containing nerves, blood and
lymph vessels
(2) An oblique muscle layer may be present in some regions of alimentary canal

a) Both 1 and 2 are correct b) Both 1 and 2 are wrong

c) 2 is correct 1 is wrong d) 1 is correct 2 is wrong

189. Exchange of nutrients, gases, etc. between the blood and the cells always occur through

a) tissue fluid b) intra cellular fluid c) interstitial fluid d) both a and c

190. Substance like glucose, amino acids , , . in glomerular filtrate are reabsorbed ( ) where
as nitrogenous wastes are absorbed by ( ) .

a) A – actively; B-actively b) A – passively, B – actively

c) A – passively, B – passively d) A – actively, B -passively

191. Match the following

Column I Column II
(A) affects neuromuscular junction (1) Gout
(B) Tetany (2) Progressive degeneration of skeletal
muscles
(C) Inflammation of joints (3) Rapid sapsms of muscles due to low in body
fluid
(D) Muscular dystrophy (4) Arthritis
(E) Accumulation of uric acid (5) Myasthenia gravis
crystals causing inflammation
of joints

a) A – 5, B – 3, C – 4, D – 2, E – 1 b) A – 5, B – 3, C – 1, D – 2, E – 4
c) A – 2, B – 5, C – 1, D – 3, E – 4 d) A – 1, B – 2, C – 3, D – 4, E – 5

192. (1) Hypothalamus and limbic system together forms emotional brain
(2) When a stimulus is applied at the site ‘A’ then the membrane at site ‘A’ become freely
permeable to
(3) Action potential is also known as nerve impulse
(4) Mid brain, pons, medulla and cerebellum together make up the brain stem
Find out the incorrect statements

a) 1,2,4 b) 1,2 c) 2,3 d) 2,4

193. (1) During pregnancy the levels of estrogens, progestogens, insulin, adrenaline, etc, are increased
several folds in maternal blood
(2) The hormones hCG, hPL and relaxin are produced in women only during pregnancy
(3) The first sign of growing foetus may be noticed by listening to the heart sound carefully
through the stethoscope
(4) The mammory glands are one of the female secondary sexual organs
Find out correct statements:

a) All b) 1,2 c) 2,3 d) 2,3,4

23
194. (1) ICSI is an invivo technique
(2) In ZIFT embryos with 8 – 16 blastomeres are transferred into the fallopian tube
(3) AI technique is to correct the infertility cases either due to inability of the male partner to
inseminate the female (or) due to very low sperm counts in ejaculation
(4) Emotional, religious, and social, factors are also deterrents in adoption of ART
Find out the correct statements
a) 1,4 b) 2,3 c) 3 , 4 d) 1,2

195. The factors that affect Hardy – Weinberg equilibrium are :

(1) gene flow, genetic drift, mutation, genetic recombination and natural selection
(2) gene flow, genetic drift, migration, genetic recombination and natural selection
(3) gene migration, genetic drift, mutation, genetic recombination and natural selection
Correct statement/s from the above:

a) 1,2,3 b) 1,2 c) 1,3 d) 2 , 3

196. The organ in the human body that acts as a filter of the blood by trapping blood-borne micro-
organisms

a) bone- marrow b) Thymus c) Spleen d) Kidney

197. Statement I : Predators also help in maintaining species diversity in a community, by increasing
the intensity of competition among competing prey species
Statement II : In interference competition, the feeding efficiency of one species might be reduced
due to the interfering and inhibitory presence of the other species, even if resources are abundant

a) Both I and II are wrong b) I correct II wrong

c) I wrong II correct d) Both I and II are correct

198. Assertion (A) : Of the incident solar radiation less than 50 % of it is PAR
Reason (R): Plants capture only 2 % - 10 % of the PAR and this small amount of energy sustains
the entire living world

a) Both A and R are correct. R is correct explanation for A

b) Both A and R are correct R is not correct explanation for A
c) A is correct R is wrong d) A is wrong R is correct

199. The IUCN Red List (2004) documents the extinction of ( ) species including ( ) vertebrates,
( ) invertebrates and ( ) plants.

a) A – 874, B – 378, C – 398, D – 98 b) A – 784, B – 338, C – 359, D – 87

c) A – 754, B – 318, C – 349, D – 87 d) A – 764, B – 324, C – 343, D – 97

200. As the automobile exhaust passes through the catalystic converter, ( ) are converted into
( ) and ( ) respectively

a) A – Unleaded petrol; B - ; − b) A – Unburnt hydrocarbons; B - ; −HO

c) A – burnt hydrocarbons; B - ; −H O d) A – leaded petrol; B - ; −

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