In Lp Supplement December 2024 Examination 78454
In Lp Supplement December 2024 Examination 78454
In Lp Supplement December 2024 Examination 78454
PROFESSIONAL PROGRAMME
INSOLVENCY-LAW AND PRACTICE
(FOR DECEMBER, 2024 EXAMINATION)
MODULE 3
PAPER 9. 5
Case Laws 22
LESSON 3
CORPORATE INSOLVENCY RESOLUTION PROCESS
Number of creditors in the class Fee per meeting of the committee (Rs.)
10-100 30,000
101-1000 40,000
More than 1000 50,000
The authorised representative shall be entitled to receive fee for every meeting of the
class of creditors convened by him in the following manner, namely: -
Number of creditors in the class Fee per meeting of creditors in class with
authorised representative (Rs.)
10-100 10,000
101-1000 12,000
More than 1000 15,000
Fee of AR to be part of IRP cost: The payment of fee to authorised representative shall be
part of insolvency resolution process cost in respect of two meeting with the creditors he
represents corresponding to a meeting of the committee of creditors.
Approval of fee of AR: The fee for any additional meeting beyond two meetings
corresponding to a meeting of the committee of creditors shall be part of insolvency
resolution process cost subject to approval of committee of creditors.
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Duties of Authorised Representative
The Duties of Authorised Representative shall: -
(a) assist the creditors in a class he represents in understanding the discussions
and considerations of the committee meetings and facilitate informed decision-
making;
(b) review the contents of minutes prepared by the resolution professional and
provide his comments to the resolution professional, if any;
(c) help the creditors in a class he represents during the consultations made by
the resolution professional to prepare a strategy for marketing of the assets of the
corporate debtor in terms of sub-regulation (1) of regulation 36C
(d) work in collaboration with the creditors in a class he represents to enhance
the marketability of the assets of the corporate debtor in terms of sub-regulation
(3) of regulation 36C;
(e) assist the creditors in a class he represents in evaluating the resolution plans
submitted by resolution applicants;
(f) ensure that the creditors in a class he represents have access to any
information or documents required to form an opinion on issues discussed in the
committee meetings;
(g) update regularly the creditors in a class he represents on the progress of the
corporate insolvency resolution process;
(h) make suggestions for modifications of the resolution plan as may be required
by the creditors in class he represents;
(i) record proceedings and prepare the minutes of the meeting with the creditors
in a class he represents; (The provisions regarding minutes of meetings in this
regulation shall apply mutatis mutandis to class meetings) and
(j) act as a representative for the creditors in a class he represents in
representations before the Adjudicating Authority, National Company Law
Appellate Tribunal, and other regulatory authorities.
The creditors in a class may propose any additional responsibility upon the authorised
representative in relation to the representation of their interest in the committee.
Regulatory Fee
Regulation 31A of the IBBI (Insolvency Resolution Process for Corporate Persons)
Regulations, 2016 provides that a regulatory fee calculated at the rate of 0.25 per cent of
the realisable value to creditors under the resolution plan approved under section 31,
shall be payable to the Board, where such realisable value is more than the liquidation
value: Provided that this sub-regulation shall be applicable where resolution plan is
approved under section 31, on or after 1st October 2022.
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Explanation: For removal of doubts, it is hereby clarified that the regulatory fee under
this sub-regulation, shall not be payable in cases where the approved resolution plan in
respect of insolvency resolution of a real estate project is from an association or group of
allottees in such real estate project.
A regulatory fee calculated at the rate of one per cent of the cost being booked in
insolvency resolution process costs in respect of hiring any professional or other services
by the interim resolution professional or resolution professional, as the case may be, for
assistance in a corporate insolvency resolution process, shall be payable to the Board, in
the manner as specified in regulation (7)(2) (cb) of Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of
India (Insolvency Professionals) Regulations, 2016.
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The fee under this regulation may be paid from the funds, available with the corporate
debtor, contributed by the applicant or members of the committee and/or raised by way
of interim finance and shall be included in the insolvency resolution process cost.
Issue of Information Memorandum, Evaluation Matrix and a Request for Resolution Plans
Regulation 36B (1) of the IBBI(CIRP) Regulations provides that the resolution
professional shall, within five days of the date of issue of the final list under regulation
36A (12), issue the information memorandum, evaluation matrix and a request for
resolution plans to every resolution applicant in the final list:
Provided that where such documents are available, the same may also be provided to
every prospective resolution applicant in the provisional list.
Strategy for Marketing of Assets of the Corporate Debtor
According to Regulation 36C of the IBBI (Insolvency Resolution Process for Corporate
Persons) Regulations, 2016, the resolution professional shall prepare a strategy for
marketing of the assets of the corporate debtor in consultation with the committee,
where the total assets as per the last available financial statements exceed one hundred
crore rupees and may prepare such strategy in other cases.
Decision of implementing such strategy along with its cost shall be subject to the approval
of the committee. The member(s) of committee may also take measures for marketing of
the assets of the corporate debtor.
Assessment of Compromise or Arrangement.
Regulation 39BA(1) of the IBBI (Insolvency Resolution Process for Corporate Persons)
Regulations, 2016 states that while deciding to liquidate the corporate debtor under
section 33, the committee shall examine whether to explore compromise or arrangement
as referred to under sub - regulation (1) of regulation 2B of the Insolvency and
Bankruptcy Board of India (Liquidation Process) Regulation, 2016 and the resolution
professional shall submit the committee’s recommendation to the Adjudicating Authority
while filing application under section 33
Where a recommendation has been made under sub-regulation (1), the resolution
professional and the committee shall keep exploring the possibility of compromise or
arrangement during the period the application to liquidate the corporate debtor is
pending before the Adjudicating Authority.
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LESSON 7
LIQUIDATION OF CORPORATE PERSON
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(f) review of marketing strategy in case of failure of sale of corporate debtor as a going
concern;
(g) continuation or institution of any suits or legal proceedings by or against the
corporate debtor;
(h) extension of payment of balance sale consideration as provided in clause (12) of Para
1 of Schedule I, beyond ninety days, to be disclosed in the auction notice.
Early Dissolution
Regulation 14 of the IBBI (Liquidation) Process Regulations, 2016, provides that any time
after the preparation of the Preliminary Report, if it appears to the liquidator that-
(a) the realizable properties of the corporate debtor are insufficient to cover the cost of
the liquidation process; and
(b) the affairs of the corporate debtor do not require any further investigation;
he shall consult the consultation committee and if it advises for early dissolution, he may
apply, along with a detailed report incorporating the views of the consultation committee,
to the Adjudicating Authority for early dissolution of the corporate debtor and for
necessary directions in respect of such dissolution.
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Lesson 8
VOLUNTARY LIQUIDATION OF COMPANIES
IBBI (Voluntary Liquidation Process) Regulations, 2017 apply to the voluntary
liquidation of corporate persons under Chapter V of Part II of the Insolvency and
Bankruptcy Code, 2016.
Initiation of Liquidation
Regulation 3(1) of the IBBI (Voluntary Liquidation Process) Regulations provides that
without prejudice to section 59(2), liquidation proceedings of a corporate person shall
meet the following conditions, namely: —
(ii) individuals constituting the governing body in case of other corporate persons, as the
case may be, verified by an affidavit stating that-
(i) they have made a full inquiry into the affairs of the corporate person and they have
formed an opinion that either the corporate person has no debt or that it will be able to
pay its debts in full from the proceeds of assets to be sold in the liquidation;
(ii) the corporate person is not being liquidated to defraud any person; and
(iii) the corporate person has made sufficient provision to meet the obligations arising
on account of pending matters mentioned in sub-clause (iii) of clause (b).
(b) the declaration under sub-clause (a) shall be accompanied with the following
documents, namely: —
(i) audited financial statements and record of business operations of the corporate
person for the previous two years or for the period since its incorporation, whichever is
later;
(ii) a report of the valuation of the assets of the corporate person, if any prepared by a
registered valuer; and
(c) within four weeks of a declaration under sub-clause (a), there shall be-
(i) a resolution passed by a special majority of the partners or contributories, as the case
may be, of the corporate person requiring the corporate person to be liquidated and
appointing an insolvency professional to act as the liquidator; or
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(ii) a resolution of the partners or contributories, as the case may be, requiring the
corporate person to be liquidated as a result of expiry of the period of its duration, if any,
fixed by its constitutional documents or on the occurrence of any event in respect of
which the constitutional documents provide that the corporate person shall be dissolved,
as the case may be, and appointing an insolvency professional to act as the liquidator.
It may be noted that the corporate person owes any debt to any person, creditors
representing two-thirds in value of the debt of the corporate person shall approve the
resolution passed under sub-clause (c) within seven days of such resolution.
As per Regulation3(2), the corporate person shall notify the Registrar and the Board
about the resolution under sub-regulation (1) to liquidate the corporate person within
seven days of such resolution or the subsequent approval by the creditors, as the case
may be.
Subject to approval of the creditors under sub-regulation (1), the liquidation proceedings
in respect of a corporate person shall be deemed to have commenced from the date of
passing of the resolution under sub-clause (c) of sub-regulation (1).
Reporting
(1) The liquidator shall endeavour to complete the liquidation process of the corporate
person and submit the Final Report under regulation 38 within: -
(a) two hundred and seventy days from the liquidation commencement date where the
creditors have approved the resolution under clause (c) of subsection (3) of section 59
or clause (c) of sub-regulation (1) of regulation 3, and
(b) ninety days from the liquidation commencement date in all other cases.
(2) In the event of the liquidation process continuing for more than the period stipulated
in sub-regulation (1), the liquidator shall
(a) hold a meeting of the contributories of the corporate person within fifteen days –
(i) from the end of two hundred and seventy days or ninety days, as the case may be, and
(ii) thereafter at the end of every succeeding two hundred and seventy days or ninety
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days, as the case may be, as stipulated in sub-regulation (1), till submission of application
for dissolution of the corporate person; and
(vii) the reasons for not completing the process within stipulated time period and the
additional time required for completing the process.
(3) The Status Report shall enclose the audited accounts of the liquidation showing the
receipts and payments pertaining to liquidation since the liquidation commencement
date.
(4) The liquidator shall file the Status Report with the Board within seven days of the
meeting of contributories.
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LESSON 17
PROFESSIONAL AND ETHICAL PRACTICES FOR
INSOLVENCY PRACTITIONERS
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be, shall requisition from the personnel of the corporate debtor, its promoters or
any other person associated with the management of the corporate debtor as the
case maybe, the information relating to the assets, finances and operations of the
corporate debtor referred in clause (a) of section 18 and such information required
under regulation 36 which were required to be maintained by the corporate debtor
but have not yet been handed over.
(6) Requisition by IRP/RP for assets in records but not handed over: The interim
resolution professional or resolution professional, as the case may be, shall
requisition from the personnel of the corporate debtor, its promoters or any other
person associated with the management of the corporate debtor as the case maybe,
the assets which are recorded in the balance sheet or in any other records referred
in clause (f) of section 18 and whose custody has not been handed over.
(7) An application made under sub-section (2) of section 19 in respect of failure to
provide any asset or record as requisitioned under the Code and this regulation,
shall show presence of such asset or record in the notice of requisition and absence
of such asset or record in the list of assets and records taken in control and custody
under sub-regulation (2) and (3).
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If the Board is satisfied, it may accept the request for surrender of certificate of
registration within thirty days of its receipt and upon acceptance, the registration of such
insolvency professional shall stand cancelled.
On and from the date of cancellation of certificate of registration, the concerned person
shall not represent itself to be a holder of the certificate for carrying out the activity for
which such certificate had been granted.
Special Procedure for Action on Surrender, Expulsion, etc.
According to Regulation 10A (1), while disposing of the matter under this regulation, the
Board shall not be bound by the procedure specified in regulation 11.
(2) On receipt of information under clause (e) and (f) of sub-regulation (1) of regulation
10, the Board may issue a notice, if required, to such professional member, calling upon
it to explain as to why the certificate of registration, granted under the regulations, should
not be cancelled.
(3) The professional member may make written submission(s), if any, within a period
not exceeding twenty-one days from the date of service of notice.
(4) On being satisfied with the submission(s) made under sub-regulation (3), the Board
may decide to cancel the registration or issue directions to complete the ongoing
assignments, make pending compliances including payment of fee, etc.
(5) The Board shall communicate its decision under sub-regulation (4) within thirty days
from date of receipt of written submissions under sub-regulation (3).
(6) On receipt of information under clause (g) of sub-regulation (1) of regulation 10, the
registration of such insolvency professional with the Board shall be deemed to have been
cancelled from the date of demise or winding up or dissolution, as the case may be.
(7) On and from the date of cancellation of the certificate of registration, under this
regulation, the legal heirs or assignee of the insolvency professional shall take steps for
delivery of any record(s) or document(s) or assets that may be in its custody or control,
within the time period and in the manner, as may be required under the relevant
regulations or as may be directed by the Board.
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(c) majority of its equity shares and voting rights are held by insolvency professionals,
who are its directors, in case it is a company,
(d) majority of capital contribution is made by insolvency professionals, who are its
partners, in case it is a limited liability partnership firm or a registered partnership firm;
(e) majority of its partners or directors, as the case may be, are insolvency professionals;
(f) majority of its whole-time directors are insolvency professionals; in case it is a
company; and
(g) none of its partners or directors is a partner or a director of another insolvency
professional entity.
It may be noted that ‘net worth’ means- (i) the net worth as defined under section 2(57)
of the Companies Act, 2013 in case of a company; (ii) sum of partners’ contribution in the
capital account and their undistributed profits net of accumulated losses, if any, in case
of a registered partnership firm or limited liability partnership.
Explanation: For the purposes of clause 8B and 8C above, ‘relationship’ shall mean
any one or more of the following four kinds of relationships at any time or during the
three years preceding the appointment of other professionals:
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8D. An insolvency professional shall ensure timely and correct disclosures by it, and
other professionals appointed by it and shall provide a confirmation to the
insolvency professional agency of which he is a professional member to the
effect that the appointment, if any, of every other professional has been made at
arms’ length relationship.
9. An insolvency professional shall not influence the decision or the work of the
committee of creditors or debtor, or other stakeholders under the Code, so as to
make any undue or unlawful gains for itself or its related parties, or cause any
undue preference for any other persons for undue or unlawful gains and shall not
adopt any illegal or improper means to achieve any mala fide objectives.
Professional Competence
10. An insolvency professional must maintain and upgrade his professional
knowledge and skills to render competent professional service.
Representation of Correct Facts and Correcting Misapprehensions
11. An insolvency professional must inform such persons under the Code as may be
required, of a misapprehension or wrongful consideration of a fact of which he
becomes aware, as soon as may be practicable.
12. An insolvency professional must not conceal any material information or
knowingly make a misleading statement to the Board, the adjudicating authority
or any stakeholder, as applicable.
Timeliness
13. An insolvency professional must adhere to the time limits prescribed in the Code
and the rules, regulations and guidelines thereunder for insolvency resolution,
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liquidation or bankruptcy process, as the case may be, and must carefully plan
its actions, and promptly communicate with all stakeholders involved for the
timely discharge of its duties.
14. An insolvency professional must not act with mala fide or be negligent while
performing its functions and duties under the Code.
Information Management
15. An insolvency professional must make efforts to ensure that all communication
to the stakeholders, whether in the form of notices, reports, updates, directions, or
clarifications, is made well in advance and in a manner which is simple, clear, and
easily understood by the recipients.
15A. An insolvency professional shall prominently state in all its communications to
a stakeholder, its name, address, e-mail, registration number and validity of
authorisation for assignment, if any, issued by the insolvency professional agency of
which he is a member.
15. An insolvency professional must ensure that he maintains written
contemporaneous records for any decision taken, the reasons for taking the
decision, and the information and evidence in support of such decision. this shall
be maintained so as to sufficiently enable a reasonable person to take a view on
the appropriateness of its decisions and actions.
16. An insolvency professional must not make any private communication with any
of the stakeholders unless required by the Code, rules, regulations and
guidelines thereunder, or orders of the adjudicating authority.
17. An insolvency professional must appear, co-operate and be available for
inspections and investigations carried out by the Board, any person authorised
by the Board or the insolvency professional agency with which he is enrolled.
18. An insolvency professional must provide all information and records as may be
required by the Board or the insolvency professional agency with which he is
enrolled.
19. An insolvency professional must be available and provide information for any
periodic study, research and audit conducted by the Board.
Confidentiality
20. An insolvency professional must ensure that confidentiality of the information
relating to the insolvency resolution process, liquidation or bankruptcy process,
as the case may be, is maintained at all times. However, this shall not prevent it
from disclosing any information with the consent of the relevant parties or
required by law.
Occupation, Employability and Restrictions
21. An insolvency professional must refrain from accepting too many assignments,
if he is unlikely to be able to devote adequate time to each of his assignments.
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Clarification: An insolvency professional may, at any point of time, not have more
than ten assignments as resolution professional in corporate insolvency resolution
process, of which not more than three shall have admitted claims exceeding one
thousand crore rupees each.
22A. Resignation by an Insolvency Professional: An insolvency professional may resign
from the assignment, subject to the recommendation of the committee of creditors
in a corporate insolvency resolution process, consultation committee in
liquidation process, the debtor or the creditor in the insolvency resolution process
of personal guarantor to the corporate debtor, as the case may be, and the
approval of the Adjudicating Authority. It is further explained that the insolvency
professional shall continue to discharge his duties, functions and responsibilities
till the approval of resignation by the Adjudicating Authority.
22. An insolvency professional must not engage in any employment when he holds a
valid authorisation for assignment or when he is undertaking an assignment.
23A. Where an insolvency professional has conducted a corporate insolvency
resolution process, he and his relatives shall not accept any employment, other
than an employment secured through open competitive recruitment, with, or
render professional services, other than services under the Code, to a creditor
having more than ten percent voting power, the successful resolution applicant,
the corporate debtor or any of their related parties, until a period of one year has
elapsed from the date of his cessation from such process.
23B. An insolvency professional shall not engage or appoint any of his relatives or
related parties, for or in connection with any work relating to any of his
assignment.
For the purposes of this clause, the insolvency professional which is an insolvency
professional entity may engage or appoint its partners or directors, as the case may
be, for or in connection with any work relating to any of its assignment other than
work related to valuation and audit of the debtor.
23C. An insolvency professional shall not provide any service for or in connection
with the assignment which is being undertaken by any of his relatives or related
parties.
Explanation - For the purpose of clauses 23A to 23C, “related party” shall have
the same meaning as assigned to it in clause (24a) of section 5, but does not
include an insolvency professional entity of which the insolvency professional is
a partner or director.
For the purposes of this clause, the insolvency professional which is an insolvency
professional entity may provide any service, other than service related to
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valuation and audit, for or in connection with the assignment which is being
undertaken by any of its partners or directors, as the case may be.
23. An insolvency professional must not conduct business which in the opinion of the
Board is inconsistent with the reputation of the profession.
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which undermines or affects his independence as an insolvency professional.
28. An insolvency professional shall not offer gifts or hospitality or a financial or any
other advantage to a public servant or any other person, intending to obtain or
retain work for himself, or to obtain or retain an advantage in the conduct of
profession for himself.
In the case of Pooja Menghani vs. Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India & Anr,
judgement dated November 20, 2023, Hon’ble High Court of Delhi inter alia observed that
an Insolvency Professional performs very important functions in the insolvency
resolution process of a company. An Insolvency Professional virtually takes over the
company during the period it goes through the insolvency resolution process. An
Insolvency Professional in fact becomes the heart and brain of the company under the
insolvency resolution process and a person having slightest of disqualification cannot be
permitted to be appointed as an Insolvency Professional otherwise the entire purpose of
the IBC will get vitiated.
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CASE LAWS
3. In the case of Greater Noida Industrial Development Authority Vs. Prabhjit Singh Soni
& Anr Civil Appeal Nos.7590-7591 OF 2023 (Arising out of Diary No.3628 of 2023)
judgement dated February 12, 2024 Hon’ble Supreme Court of India inter alia observed
that ……… a Court or a Tribunal, in absence of any provision to the contrary, has inherent
power to recall an order to secure the ends of justice and/or to prevent abuse of the
process of the Court. Neither the IBC nor the Regulations framed thereunder, in any way,
prohibit, exercise of such inherent power. Rather, Section 60(5)(c) of the IBC, which
opens with a non-obstante clause, empowers the NCLT (the Adjudicating Authority) to
entertain or dispose of any question of priorities or any question of law or facts, arising
out of or in relation to the insolvency resolution or liquidation proceedings of the
corporate debtor or corporate person under the IBC. Further, Rule 11 of the NCLT Rules,
2016 preserves the inherent power of the Tribunal. Therefore, even in absence of a
specific provision empowering the Tribunal to recall its order, the Tribunal has power to
recall its order. However, such power is to be exercised sparingly, and not as a tool to re-
hear the matter. Ordinarily, an application for recall of an order is maintainable on limited
grounds, inter alia, where (a) the order is without jurisdiction; (b) the party aggrieved
with the order is not served with notice of the proceedings in which the order under recall
has been passed; and (c) the order has been obtained by misrepresentation of facts or by
playing fraud upon the Court /Tribunal resulting in gross failure of justice.
In a recent decision (i.e., Union Bank of India vs. Dinakar T. Vekatasubramanian & Ors.),
a five-member Full Bench of NCLAT held that though the power to review is not conferred
upon the Tribunal but power to recall its judgment is inherent in the Tribunal and is
preserved by Rule 11 of the NCLT Rules, 2016. It was held that power of recall of a
judgment can be exercised when any procedural error is committed in delivering the
earlier judgment; for example, necessary party has not been served or necessary party
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was not before the Tribunal when judgment was delivered adverse to a party. It was
observed that there may be other grounds for recall of a judgment one of them being
where fraud is played on the Court in obtaining a judgment. This decision of NCLAT was
upheld by a two-Judge Bench of Supreme Court vide order dated 31.07.2023 in Civil
Appeal No.4620 of 2023 (Union Bank of India vs. Financial Creditors of M/s Amtek Auto
Ltd. & Ors.).
4. In the case of Dilip B Jiwrajka{Petitioner(s)} Vs. Union of India & Ors {Respondent(s)},
Supreme Court of India, Writ Petition (Civil) No 1281 of 2021 judgement dated
November 09, 2023, Hon’ble Supreme Court while upholding the constitution validity of
Section 95-100 of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC), held that (i) No judicial
adjudication is involved at the stages envisaged in Sections 95 to Section 99 of the IBC;
(ii) The resolution professional appointed under Section 97 serves a facilitative role of
collating all the facts relevant to the examination of the application for the
commencement of the insolvency resolution process which has been preferred under
Section 94 or Section 95. The report to be submitted to the adjudicatory authority is
recommendatory in nature on whether to accept or reject the application; (iii) The
submission that a hearing should be conducted by the adjudicatory authority for the
purpose of determining ‘jurisdictional facts’ at the stage when it appoints a resolution
professional under Section 97(5) of the IBC is rejected. No such adjudicatory function is
contemplated at that stage. To read in such a requirement at that stage would be to
rewrite the statute which is impermissible in the exercise of judicial review; (iv) The
resolution professional may exercise the powers vested under Section 99(4) of the IBC
for the purpose of examining the application for insolvency resolution and to seek
information on matters relevant to the application in order to facilitate the submission of
the report recommending the acceptance or rejection of the application; (v) There is no
violation of natural justice under Section 95 to Section 100 of the IBC as the debtor is not
deprived of an opportunity to participate in the process of the examination of the
application by the resolution professional; (vi) No judicial determination takes place until
the adjudicating authority decides under Section 100 whether to accept or reject the
application. The report of the resolution professional is only recommendatory in nature
and hence does not bind the adjudicatory authority when it exercises its jurisdiction
under Section 100; (vii) The adjudicatory authority must observe the principles of
natural justice when it exercises jurisdiction under Section 100 for the purpose of
determining whether to accept or reject the application; (viii) The purpose of the interim-
moratorium under Section 96 is to protect the debtor from further legal proceedings; and
(ix) The provisions of Section 95 to Section 100 of the IBC are not unconstitutional as
they do not violate Article 14 and Article 21 of the Constitution.
5. in the case of Sunil Kumar Agrawal (Appellant)vs. New Okhla Industrial Development
Authority (Respondent) 12th January, 2023, National Company Law Appellate Tribunal,
Principal Bench, New Delhi Company Appeal (AT) (Ins.) No. 622 of 2022. Hon’ble
National Company Law Appellate Tribunal inter-alia observed that Section 14 of the Code
deals with the moratorium and Section 14(1)(d) of the Code says that there would be a
prohibition from the recovery of any property by an owner or lessor where such property
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is occupied by or in the possession of the Corporate Debtor. However, explanation
appended to Section 14(1) (d) says that with the prohibition of recovery of any property
by an owner or lessor, a license, permit, registration, quota, concession, clearance or a
similar grant or right either given by the Central Govt., State Govt. local authority, sectoral
regulator or any other authority constituted under any other law for the time being in
force, shall not be suspended or terminated on the grounds of insolvency but there would
be a condition for its continuation if there is no default in payment of the dues of such
license, permit, registration, quota, concession, clearance or a similar grant or right
during the moratorium period. The similar grant or right has to be read in respect of the
licence, permit, registration, quota, concession, clearance but it cannot be read as the
premium amount or lease rent which has been so ordered by the Adjudicating Authority
to be paid by the Appellant to the Respondent.
7. In the matter of Vallal RCK Vs. M/s Siva Industries and Holdings Limited and Ors. [Civil
Appeal Nos. 1811-1812 of 2022] the Hon’ble Supreme Court in its judgment dated 3rd
June, 2022 observed that Section 12A was brought on the basis of the Insolvency Law
Committee’s Report. Though by the Amendment Act No. 26 of 2018, the voting share of
75% of CoC for approval of the resolution plan was brought down to 66%, section 12A of
the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 (Code) which was brought by the same
amendment, requires the voting share of 90% of CoC for approval of withdrawal of
corporate insolvency resolution process (CIRP).
The provisions under section 12A of the Code have been made more stringent as
compared to Section 30(4) of the Code. Whereas under section 30(4) of the Code, the
voting share of CoC for approving the resolution plan is 66%, the requirement under
section 12A of the Code for withdrawal of CIRP is 90%.
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When 90% and more of the creditors, in their wisdom after due deliberations, find that it
will be in the interest of all the stake-holders to permit settlement and withdraw CIRP,
the adjudicating authority or the appellate authority cannot sit in an appeal over the
commercial wisdom of CoC.
This Court has consistently held that the commercial wisdom of the CoC has been given
paramount status without any judicial intervention for ensuring completion of the stated
processes within the timelines prescribed by the IBC. It has been held that there is an
intrinsic assumption, that financial creditors are fully informed about the viability of the
corporate debtor and feasibility of the proposed resolution plan. They act on the basis of
thorough examination of the proposed resolution plan and assessment made by their
team of experts.
The interference would be warranted only when the adjudicating authority or the
appellate authority finds the decision of the CoC to be wholly capricious, arbitrary, and
irrational and de hors (outside) the provisions of the statute or the Rules.
8. In the case of NOIDA vs. Anand Sonbhadra [Civil Appeal No. 2222, 2367-2369 of 2021]
Judgement dated 17th May, 2022, Hon’ble Supreme Court inter-alia observed that a debt
is a liability or an obligation in respect of a right to payment. Irrespective of whether there
is adjudication of the breach, if there is a breach of contract, it may give rise to a debt. In
the context of section 5(8), disbursement has been understood as money, which has been
paid. In the context of the transaction involved in such real estate projects, the
homebuyers advance sums to the builder, who would then utilise the amount towards
the construction in the real estate project.
What is relevant is to attract section 5(8), on its plain terms, is disbursement. While, it
may be true that the word ‘transaction’ includes transfer of assets, funds or goods and
services from or to the corporate debtor, in the context of the principal provisions of
section 5(8) of the Code, to import the definition of ‘transaction’ in section 2(33),
involving the need to expand the word ‘disbursement’, to include a promise to pay money
by a debtor to the creditor, will be uncalled for straining of the provisions.
‘Debt’ means a liability or obligation, which relates to a claim. The claim or right to
payment or remedy for breach of contract occasioning a right to payment must be due
from any person.
In the lease in question, there has been no disbursement of any debt (loan) or any sums
by the NOIDA to the lessee.
The subject matter of section 5(8)(d) is a lease or a hire-purchase contract. It is not any
lease or a hire purchase contract, which would entitle the lessor to be treated as the
financial creditor. There must be a lease or hire-purchase contract, which is deemed as a
finance or capital lease. The law giver has not left the courts free to place, its
interpretation on the words ‘finance or capital lease’. The legislature has contemplated
the finance or a capital lease, which is deemed as such a lease under the Indian Accounting
Standards.
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The Appellant is not the financial lessor under section 5(8)(d) of the Code. Needless to
say, there is always power to amend the provisions which essentially consist of the Indian
Accounting Standards in the absence of any rules prescribed under section 5(8)(d) of the
Code by the Central Government.
Section 5(8)(f) is a residuary and catch all provision. A lease, which is not a finance or a
capital lease under section 5(8)(d), may create a financial debt within the meaning of
section 5(8)(f), if, on its terms, the Court concludes that it is a transaction, under which,
any amount is raised, having the commercial effect of the borrowing.
The lease in question does not fall within the ambit of section 5(8)(f). This is for the
reason that the lessee has not raised any amount from the Appellant under the lease,
which is a transaction. The raising of the amount, which, according to the Appellant,
constitutes the financial debt, has not taken place in the form of any flow of funds from
the Appellant/Lessor, in any manner, to the lessee. The mere permission or facility of
moratorium, followed by staggered payment in easy instalments, cannot lead to the
conclusion that any amount has been raised, under the lease, from the Appellant, which
is the most important consideration.
The appeal failed, Supreme Court held that the Appellant is not a Financial Creditor.
However, the Apex court indicated that the Centre can bring a prospective amendment to
classify NOIDA as a financial creditor. Hon’ble Justice K.M. Joseph in his initial remark
noted that hardly six years old, the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (hereinafter referred
to as the ‘IBC”) continues to be a fertile ground to spawn 2 litigation.
9. In the case of Sunil Kumar Agrawal (Appellant)vs. New Okhla Industrial Development
Authority (Respondent) 12th January, 2023, National Company Law Appellate Tribunal,
Principal Bench, New Delhi Company Appeal (AT) (Ins.) No. 622 of 2022, Hon’ble
National Company Law Appellate Tribunal inter-alia observed that Section 14 of the Code
deals with the moratorium and Section 14(1)(d) of the Code says that there would be a
prohibition from the recovery of any property by an owner or lessor where such property
is occupied by or in the possession of the Corporate Debtor. However, explanation
appended to Section 14(1) (d) says that with the prohibition of recovery of any property
by an owner or lessor, a license, permit, registration, quota, concession, clearance or a
similar grant or right either given by the Central Govt., State Govt. local authority, sectoral
regulator or any other authority constituted under any other law for the time being in
force, shall not be suspended or terminated on the grounds of insolvency but there would
be a condition for its continuation if there is no default in payment of the dues of such
license, permit, registration, quota, concession, clearance or a similar grant or right
during the moratorium period. The similar grant or right has to be read in respect of the
licence, permit, registration, quota, concession, clearance but it cannot be read as the
premium amount or lease rent which has been so ordered by the Adjudicating Authority
to be paid by the Appellant to the Respondent.
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10. In the matter of Ms. Ashish Ispat Private Limited Vs Primuss Pipes & Tubes Ltd. ,
NCLAT held that when a withdrawal application u/s 12A of the Code is filed prior to
constitution of CoC, the requirement of 90% vote of CoC is not applicable, and the
Adjudicating Authority has to consider the application without requiring any approval
from CoC. Approval of 90% shall be applicable only when Committee of Creditors is
constituted and withdrawal application u/s 12A of IBC has been filed post that.
11. Supreme Court in the matter of Jaypee Kensington Boulevard Apartments Welfare
Association & Ors. Vs. NBCC (India) Ltd. & Ors. held that:
➢ The AA has limited jurisdiction in the matter of approval of a resolution plan. In
the adjudicatory process concerning a resolution plan under IBC, NCLT does not have
scope for interference with the commercial aspects of the decision of the CoC; and there
is no scope for substituting any commercial term of the resolution plan approved by CoC.
➢ There is no scope for the NCLT or the NCLAT to proceed on basis of perceptions
or to assess the resolution plan on the basis of quantitative analysis. Thus, the treatment
of any debt or asset is essentially required to be left to the collective commercial wisdom
of the financial creditors.
➢ There is no prohibition in the scheme of IBC and CIRP Regulations, that CoC cannot
simultaneously consider and vote upon more than one resolution plan at the same time
for electing one of the available plans. i.e. CoC can vote upon multiple resolution plans at
the same time.
12. The Supreme Court in the matter of Lalit Kumar Jain Vs. Union of India & Ors. upheld
the validity of notification dated November 15, 2019 enforcing the provisions related to
personal guarantor to corporate debtor under the Code. Approval of resolution plan of a
corporate debtor undergoing CIRP does not per se operate as a discharge to its
surety/guarantor of their liabilities under the contract of guarantee. The nature and
extent of liability would depend upon the terms of guarantee.
13. In the matter of Ghanashyam Mishra and Sons Private Limited Vs. Edelweiss Asset
Reconstruction Company Limited and Others, Supreme Court held that:
➢ Any debt due to government (Central/State/Local Authority) including statutory
dues is covered under the term “Creditor” and in any other case by the term “Other
Stakeholders” as provided u/s 31(1) of IBC,2016 and hence an approved resolution plan
is also binding on government.
➢ After the approval of Resolution Plan no surprise claim should flung upon the
successful resolution applicant. Once a resolution plan is approved by an Adjudicating
Authority, the claim forming part of Resolution Plan stands frozen and claims not
forming part of Resolution Plan stands extinguished and no one would be entitled to
initiate or continue any proceeding in respect of the claim which is not part of the
approved Resolution Plan.
➢ An approved Resolution Plan is binding upon the Corporate Debtor, its employees,
members, creditors, government (Central/State/Local Authority) and any other
stakeholder.
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14. In the case of Vbuiltfine Properties Private Ltd(Appellant) vs. Registrar of Companies,
Mumbai (Respondent) Company Appeal (AT) No.27 of 2023, the appellant’s name was
struck of from the register of companies and an appeal for restoration of the name was
filed by the Appellant before the NCLT. By the impugned order under challenge, NCLT
directed the ROC Mumbai to restore the name of the company i.e., Vbuiltfine Properties
Pvt Ltd, to the register of Registrar of Companies with imposition of cost of Rs. 5,00,000/-
Appellant challenged the imposition of this huge cost.
National Company Law Appellate Tribunal in its judgement dated August 18, 2023 inter
alia observed that ongoing through the aforesaid order it is difficult to infer as to under
what circumstances the company petition was allowed and direction was issued for
restoration of the name of the company along with imposition of costs.
It is evident from the impugned order that the company petition was preferred under
Section 252(1) of the Companies Act, 2013. However, since the date of striking off the
name of the company is not mentioned. It is difficult to infer as to whether the petition
was filed within three years from the striking off the name of the company or not. The
order does not reflect any plausible reason for passing an order for restoration. Similarly,
nothing has been indicated as to under what circumstances the cost of Rs.5 lakhs was
imposed.
On examination of aforesaid provision, it is evident that from the date of striking off the
name of the company from the register of Registrar of Companies, one can prefer an
appeal within a period of three years from the date of striking off the name of the
company. In the order impugned date of striking off under Section 248(5) of Companies
Act, 2013 has not been mentioned. On examination of the impugned order, it is evident
that though date of striking off was not mentioned, the appeal was preferred after four
years. The order on this issue appears to be completely vague. Moreover, if the NCLT was
exercising its jurisdiction under Section 252(3) of the Companies Act, 2013, in such
situation the appellant was required to satisfy the NCLT that on the date of striking off
the company, the company was carrying on business or in operation. There was third
condition for passing of the restoration order in case it was otherwise just for restoring
the name of the company.
The order does not meet either of the three criteria under Section 252(3) of the Act.
Moreover, since the appeal was preferred under Section 252(1) of the Companies Act,
2013 the learned NCLT was required to examine the appeal strictly in accordance with
the provision under Section 252(1) of the Companies Act, 2013. In absence of exact date
of striking off it would be difficult to approve the impugned order. Moreover, learned
NCLT has imposed cost of Rs. 5 lakhs but no plausible reason has been given for imposing
such cost. In such view of the matter, we are left with no option but to set aside the order
and remit back the matter to the NCLT for passing order afresh after affording
opportunity to both the parties i.e., Appellant and ROC.
****
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