IMAT Questions

General Knowledge

Q1. Which country has the most monuments protected by UNESCO?

A] France
B] Italy
C] Greece
D] China

Q2. What is the book of Plato that describes the ideal constitution called?
A] Apology
B] The allegory of the cave
C] The symposium
D] Republic

Q3. Who was the teacher of Aristotle?

A] Plato
B] Socrates
C] Alexander the Great
D] Pericles

Q4. When was the European Union founded?

A] 1993
B] 2000
C] 1990
D] 1987

Q5. Which is the capital of Switzerland?

A] Zurich
B] Geneve
C] Bern
D] St. Gallen
Q6. Who is the god of commerce according to the Greek mythology?
A] Zeus
B] Hermes
C] Poseidon
D] Ares

Q7. The book “The Prince” is attributed to:

A] Leonardo da Vinci
B] Francesco Petrarca
C] Christopher Marlowe
D] Niccolò Machiavelli

Q8. Which of the following is referred to the latitude of the globe?

A] A geographic coordinate that specifies the depth of the sea
B] The lines near to the equator
C] A geographic coordinate that specifies the east-west position of a point
on the Earth’s surface
D] A geographic coordinate that specifies the north-south position of a
point on Earth’s surface

Q9. Which of the following countries is not a member of the United

Nations?
A] Israel
B] Portugal
C] Turkey
D] Palestine

Q10. Which is the origin of Romans?

A] France
B] Italy
C] Turkey
D] Spain
Q11. Which artist painted the Mona Lisa?
A] Botticelli
B] Titian
C] Da Vinci
D] Caravaggio

Q12. Which city is the capital of Armenia?

A] Yerevan
B] Baku
C] Tbilisi
D] Tirana

Q13. In which language did Dante Alighieri write the Divine Comedy?
A] Spanish
B] Italian
C] Greek
D] French

Q14. Which famous artist painted the Birth of Venus?

A] Caravaggio
B] Botticelli
C] Picasso
D] Monet

Q15. When did the Second World War start?

A] 1939
B] 1945
C] 1940
D] 1942
Q16. Which planet is the closest to the sun?
A] Venus
B] Jupiter
C] Mercury
D] Saturn

Q17. Which is the most populated country in the world?

A] China
B] Indonesia
C] United States
D] India

Q18. Which of the following books is written by Gerald Durrell?

A] To Kill a Mockingbird
B] My Family and Other Animals
C] Animal Farm
D] The Road to Wigan Pier

Q19. What is the name of the sea between Italy and the Balkans?
A] Aegean
B] Adriatic
C] Tyrrhenian
D] Black

Q20. Which of the following operas is written by Johann Strauss?

A] Turandot
B] Madam Butterfly
C] Ariadne on Naxos
D] Four Seasons
Q21. In Art, who is considered the father of Impressionism?
A] Claude Monet
B] Wassily Kandinsky
C] Joan Miró
D] Max Ernst

Q22. Which century is considered to be The Golden Age of Pericles?

A] 7th century BC
B] 2nd century BC
C] 5th century BC
D] 3rd century BC

Q23. Which of the following currencies has the lowest market value?
A] Dollar
B] Pound
C] Euro
D] Rubles

Q24. Which is the highest mountain in Europe?

A] Shkhara
B] Mount Elbrus
C] Tetnuldi
D] Mont Blanc

Q25. Which is the country of origin of the famous painter Rembrandt?

A] Netherlands
B] France
C] England
D] Scotland
Biology

Q1: Which of the following biological molecules consist of BOTH Hydrogen

& Phosphodiester bonds?

A. Viral Envelope & Capsid

B. Adenine & Guanine
C. Triacylglycerol & Amino Acids
D. Nucleotide & ATP
E. Cytosine & Fatty Acids

Q2: Which of the following types of mutation could explain the difference
between the T and R?

T = ACTACTACTCA
R = ACCTACTGCTCAA

A. Addition, Deletion & Substitution

B. Addition and Deletion
C. Addition and Substitution
D. Addition only
E. None of the above
Q3: Diagram below shows the sarcomere regions during both contraction
and relaxation.

Which of the following regions within a sarcomere CHANGES in length

when a human muscle cell contracts?

1. A-band
2. I-band
3. H-zone/band

A. 1,2 and 3
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1 and 2 only
E. None of the above
Q4: Which enzyme is responsible for catalysing the reaction between CO2
and water to produce carbonic acid?

A. Carbonic Dehydrogenase
B. Carbonic Carboxylase
C. Carbonic Kinase
D. Carbonic Hydrate
E. Carbonic Anhydrase

Q5: Photosystems are found on the thylakoid membrane of a chloroplast.

Which one of the following functions of photosystem is not correct?

A. Photosystems absorb photons of light energy.

B. They act as transducers by transferring this light energy to high energy
electrons.
C. Energy obtained from photosystems is used to fuel proton pumps and
the synthesis of ATP.
D. Photosystems form clusters with associated proteins known as
antenna complexes.
E. Primary pigments are not found in the PSI and PSII.
Q6: Which processes are NOT involved in the transpiration stream which
helps water travel up the xylem to the leaves of the plant.

A. Cohesion Tension Theory

B. Capillarity
C. Root Pressure
D. Transpiration Pull
E. Upstream Stream

Q7: The Hardy-Weinberg principle can be used to estimate the

frequencies of dominant or recessive alleles or of different genotypes of a
characteristic in a population using the following equation:
p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1

Which term of this binomial expansion indicates the frequency of Aa

(heterozygous)?

A. P2
B. 2PQ
C. Q2
D. 1
E. None of the above

Q8: In endospermic seeds, which plant hormone is involved in the process

of germination of monocotyledons?

A. Antidiuretic Hormone
B. Gibberellin Hormone
C. Auxin Hormone
D. Amylerellin Hormone
E. None of the above
Q9: Which elements mentioned in the options are not present during the
presence of gibberellin to control the production of hydrolytic enzymes?

A. DELLA - repressor protein

B. GA – Glucose Amylase
C. GD1D1 – receptor
D. SCF - Protein turnover complex
E. GA-TRXN - Gibberellin-dependent transcription factors

Q10: Which enzyme is involved in the synthesis of ATP from ADP

(Adenosine Diphosphate) and Pi (Inorganic Phosphate) in a condensation
reaction?

A. ATPase
B. ATP Dehydrogenase
C. ATP Synthase
D. ATP Carboxylase
E. ATP Synkinase

Q11: Which of the following isolating mechanisms is an example of

Allopatric Speciation AND Prezygotic?

A. Geographical Isolating Mechanism

B. Behavioural Isolating Mechanism
C. Morphological Isolating Mechanism
D. Seasonal Isolating Mechanism
E. Hybrid Isolating Mechanism
Q12: Ribosomes are found 'free' in the cell cytoplasm and also attached to
rough endoplasmic reticulum. In which regions, ribosomes are not
present for protein synthesis?

A. Eukaryotic Cells
B. Prokaryotic Cells
C. Bacterial Cells
D. Viruses
E. None of the above

Q13: Myoglobin is a protein that's found in your striated muscles, which

includes skeletal muscles (the muscles attached to your bones and
tendons) and heart muscles.

Which option is correct regarding its protein structure formation?

A. It is a quaternary structure consisting of 4 polypeptide chains.

B. It has a 3D arrangement of its polypeptide chain in the space of
tertiary structure.
C. Consist of a haem group to transport oxygen.
D. It facilitates the oxygen through facilitated co transport.
E. None of the above.

Q14: Maltose is a sugar made out of two glucose molecules bound

together. Which test should be used to validate its presence?

A. Iodine Solution
B. Biuret Reagents
C. Benedict’s Reagents - Reducing Sugar
D. Dissolve in organic solvent
E. Benedict’s Reagents - Non - Reducing Sugar
Q15: Pupil dilation, digestion, and acceleration of heartbeat is regulated
by:

A. Somatic Nervous System

B. Autonomic Nervous System
C. Sympathetic Nervous System
D. Parasympathetic Nervous System
E. None of the above

Q16: Which statements describe how we would set up the potometer to

calculate the rate of transcription?

1. Fit leafy shoot & seal all joints with Vaseline (petroleum jelly) so the
apparatus is airtight.
2. Pat the leaves dry otherwise the water potential gradient will be
reduced and this could affect the results.
3. Measure the distance the air bubble moves along the scale in a
specific time.
4. Completely fill the apparatus with water to avoid introducing air
bubbles into the glassware.
5. Cut a leafy shoot under water to prevent the entry of air bubbles into
the xylem vessels as these would break hydrogen bonds, affecting
cohesion.
6. Introduce one air bubble into the capillary tube. (open the tap).

A. 5,4,1,2,3,6
B. 5,4,1,2,6,3
C. 3,6,5,4,1,2
D. 5,4,2,6,3,1
E. 2,1,4,3,6,5
Q17: Which of the features below may be present in both Bacterial E.coli
and Mammalian Liver Cells?

1. Nucleus
2. Nucleic Acid
3. Nucleotide
4. Nucleoside
5. Nucleosome

A. 1,2 and 3 only

B. 2,3,4 and 5 only
C. 1,2,3,4 and 5
D. 1,3,4 and 5 only
E. None of the above

Q18: During a forest exhibition, a group of 10 students find a dead animal X

which upon karyotyping indicates that it has 72 chromosomes.

Which one of the following statements is correct regarding this animal X?

A. It will consist of 72 daughter cells made by meiosis.

B. It will consist of 32 daughter cells made by mitosis.
C. It will consist of 72 daughter cells made by meiosis.
D. It will consist of 32 daughter cells made by meiosis.
E. None of the above.
Q19: Which hormones secreted by the adrenal medulla, have the same
effect as sympathetic stimulation to increase the heart rate?

A. Adrenaline and Noradrenaline

B. Acetylcholine and Noradrenaline
C. Epinephrine and Acetylcholine
D. Acetylcholine and Angiotensin
E. Noradrenaline and Progesterone

Q20: Which type of immune cell have clear cytoplasm and spherical
nucleus in the bloodstream?

A. Agranulocyte
B. Thrombocyte
C. Erythrocyte
D. Granulocyte
E. None of the above
Q21: Cellular immunity is due to:

A. Neutrophils
B. Eosinophils
C. T Lymphocytes
D. B Lymphocytes
E. Erythrocytes

Q22: Motor Neurons have (Efferent Neurons):

A. A long dendrite and a long axon.

B. A long dendrite and a short axon.
C. A short dendrite and a short axon.
D. Their axons and dendrites may be either long or short.
E. A short dendrite and a long axon.

Q23: Which of the following is considered as a central organ of the

lymphatic system:

A. Spleen
B. Tonsils
C. Thymus
D. Liver
E. Lymph Nodes
Q24: Which one of the following statements is correct during isotonic
contraction of the skeletal muscle fibres:

A. The bands are shortened.

B. Tension between fibre increases.
C. Tension between fibre decreases.
D. The length of the sarcomere is shortened.
E. None of the above.

Q25: Movement of solvent and dissolved substances across a cell

membrane by hydrostatic pressure is overcome by which type of
transport mechanism?

A. Facilitated Diffusion
B. Osmosis
C. Filtration
D. Active Transport
E. Bulk Transport
Chemistry

Q1: Aspirin is prepared by chemical synthesis from salicylic acid, through

acetylation with acetic anhydride.

Which of the following functional groups are contained in a molecule of

Aspirin?

1. Carboxylic Group
2. Alcohol
3. Ketone
4. Ester Group
5. Aromatic Ring

A. 1,2,3 and 4
B. 1,2,3 and 5
C. 1,4 and 5
D. 1,2 and 3
E. All of the above

Q2: Which of the following is a NOT example of a displacement reaction?

A. Cl2 (g) + 2NaBr (aq) → 2NaCl (aq) + Br2 (aq)

B. Fe + CuSO4(aq) → FeSO4(aq) + Cu(s)
C. K + NaCl → Na + KCl
D. Fe + CuSO₄ = FeSO₄ + Cu
E. None of the above
Q3: Which of the following statements is INCORRECT for Nonredox
Reactions?
1. Are chemical reactions where no change in oxidation states of
chemical elements occur.
2. Chemical reactions do not have half-reactions for oxidation and
reduction.
3. No particular half reactions can be observed.
4. Electron transfers are present.
5. Examples include neutralisation reactions and double
displacement reactions.

A. 1,2,3 and 5
B. Only 3
C. Only 4
D. 1 and 4
E. 3 and 4

Q4: Chlorine is a chemical element with the symbol Cl and atomic number
17.
Compounds of chlorine include:

Cl2O - ClO2 - Cl2O4 - Cl2O6 - Cl2O7

Which one of the following options correctly lists the oxidation states of
chlorine that are shown in these compounds?

A. +1, +4, +6 and +7 only

B. +4, +3, +5 and +7 only
C. +5, +3, +2 and +7 only
D. +1, +2, +4 and +5 only
E. +3, +5, +7 and +4 only
Q5: Bromine is a chemical element with the symbol Br and atomic number
35.
Compounds of bromine include:

1. BrO2
2. BrF3
3. BrO3-

Which one of the following options correctly lists the oxidation states of
bromine that are shown in these compounds?

A. +3, +4, and +5

B. +2, +4, and +6
C. +2, +3, and +4
D. +1, +4, and +5
E. +2, +4, and +5

Q6: What is the order of increasing thermal stability of the halogen

hydrides?

A. HI HBr HCl HF
B. HF HCl HBr HI
C. HF HBr HCl HI
D. HI HCl HBr HF
E. HI HBr HCl HF
Q7: Propane reacts with HBr and produces 2-bromopropane. It is an alkyl
halide compound and this reaction is an electrophilic addition reaction.

Which statement about the cations is correct?

A. Y is more stable than Z because a CH3 group pulls electrons from the
carbon atom it is attached to.
B. Z is more stable than Y because a CH3 group pulls electrons from the
carbon atom it is attached to.
C. Y is more stable than Z because a CH3 group pushes electrons
towards the carbon atom it is attached to.
D. Z is more stable than Y because a CH3 group pushes electrons
towards the carbon atom it is attached to.
E. None of the above

Q8: What is the total number of electrons present in the S Subshell of

Mg2+?

A. 2
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
E. 7
Q9: Which row gives the correct shapes around the Sulphate (SO4),
Permanganate (MnO4) and Ammonium (NO4)?

A. Trigonal planar with bond angle 120°

B. Tetrahedral with bond angle 109.5°
C. Pyramidal with bond angle 107°
D. Linear with bond angle 104.5°
E. Bent with bond angle 180°

Q10: What values of a, b and c are needed to balance the equation below?

aCu + bHNO3 → 3Cu(NO3)2 + cNO + dH2O

A. a= 3, b= 8, c= 3, d= 2
B. a= 3, b= 3, c= 4, d= 2
C. a= 2, b= 8, c= 3, d= 3
D. a= 3, b= 8, c= 2, d= 2
E. a= 6, b= 8, c= 2, d= 3

Q11: Chain isomerism differs in the arrangement of the atomic structure of

the carbon to carbon chain of a molecule, that may be branched or
straight.

Which of the following are examples of chain isomerism?

1. Pentane
2. 2-Methylbutane
3. 2,2-Dimethylpropane
4. 2-Methylpropane

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 2 and 3 only
D. 3 and 4 only
E. All of the above.
Q12: A buffer solution is an aqueous solution consisting of a mixture of a
weak acid and its conjugate base, or vice versa. Some of the buffers are
also present in living organisms which are known as ‘natural buffers’.

Which of the following are examples of natural buffers?

1. H2CO3 / HCO3–
2. H2PO4– / HPO42–
3. CH3COOH / CH3COO–
4. CH3COOH / CH3COONa

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 3, 4 and 5 only
E. All of the above

Q13. Which of the following statements, if any, are correct for the
properties of Period 6 elements?

1. They form hydrides where the hydrogen has an oxidation state of –1.
2. This period contains the lanthanides, also known as the rare earths.
3. They are known for their magnetic properties.

A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. none of them
E. 2 and 3 only
Q14. Element A is a silvery white in colour solid. It is non-sparking, non-
corrosive, non-magnetic and lightweight. It combines with chlorine in an
exothermic reaction to form a molecule with the formula ACl3 . In this
compound, element A has an oxidation state of +3.

What is the identity of element A?

A. Manganese
B. Fluorine
C. Iodine
D. Carbon
E. Aluminium

Q15. Which of the following statements, if any, are correct for the
properties of covalent compounds?

1. The covalent compounds exist as gases or liquids or soft solids.

2. The melting and boiling points of covalent compounds are generally
low.
3. Covalent compounds are insoluble in water but dissolve in organic
solvents.
4. They are non-conductors of electricity in solid, molten or aqueous
states.

A. 1, 2, 3 and 4
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. none of them
E. 2 and 3 only
Q16. The atomic number of aluminium is 13.

Which electron configuration given below corresponds to the Al3+ ion?

A. 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p1

B. 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p3
C. 1s2 2s2 2p6
D. 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s1
E. 1s2 2s2 2p5 3s2

Q17. Chromium is a transition element with multiple oxidation states.

Which one of the following options show the oxidation number of

chromium in different compounds given below?

Cr(OH)2, Cr2O3, CrO3, K2Cr2O7

A. +2, +3, +6, +6

B. +2, -3, -6, +6
C. -2, +3, +5, +6
D. +2, -3, +6, +6
E. -2, -3, +6, +5

Q18. Calculate the pH of 0.01 M HCl?

pH = - log10 [ H+ ]

A. -0.1
B. +1
C. 2.0
D. 0.1
E. -1
Q19. Which of the following reactions of ethanol are not possible or
feasible?

A. C2H5OH + NaOH ---> C5H5Na + H2O

B. C2H5OH + Na ---> C2H5Na + H2
C. C2H5OH + HCOOH ---> HCOOC2H5 + H2O
D. C2H5OH + CH3COO-OOCCH3 ---> CH3COO-CH2CH3 + CH3COOH
E. All are possible.

Q20: Sulphur forms many isotopes, out of which 4 are stable. Which of the
following is the radioactive and short lived isotope of sulphur?

A. 32
S
B. 33
S
C. 34
S
D. 36
S
E. 35
S

Q21. Which of the following statements, if any, are correct for the
properties of Group 4 elements?

1. It is the second group of transition metals in the periodic table.

2. It contains the four elements.
3. As you go down the group the atomic radius increases.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 3 only
D. 1 and 3 only
E. 1, 2 and 3
Q22: There are various factors which influence the magnitude of ionisation
energy (the attraction of the nucleus for the outer electrons in an atom).

Which of the following factors don’t have a major influence on ionisation

energy?

1. Nuclear charge
2. Atomic mass
3. Shielding effect
4. Atomic/Ionic radius
5. Electronegativity

A. 1,2,3 and 4
B. 2 and 4
C. 2 and 5
D. 1,2, and 5
E. 1,2,3,4 and 5

Q23: Which three groups of the periodic table contain the most elements
classified as metalloids (semi-metals)?

A. 1, 2 and 13
B. 2, 13 and 14
C. 14, 15 and 16
D. 16, 17 and 18
E. 15, 12 and 29

Q24: Which element’s ionic radius is smaller than its atomic radius?

A. Neon
B. Nitrogen
C. Sodium
D. Sulfur
E. None of them
Q25: Which element has the highest first ionization energy?

A. Sodium
B. Aluminum
C. Calcium
D. Phosphorous
E. All elements have the same first ionization energy
Physics and Maths

Q1: Kinetic energy is the energy of:

A. Position
B. Radiation
C. Motion
D. Formation
E. Electricity

Q2: Which of the following phenomena suggest that light may be a

transverse wave?

A. Reflection
B. Polarization
C. Photoelectric effect
D. Diffraction
E. Refraction

Q3: If a three-farad capacitor and a six-farad capacitor are connected

in parallel, what is their equivalent capacitance?

A. 18 Farads
B. 12 Farads
C. 27 Farads
D. 15 Farads
E. 9 Farads
Q4. A beam of white light is passed through a diffraction grating
and the resulting spectrum is allowed to fall on a screen. Which one of
the following is the colour of light that undergoes the greatest deviation
from its original direction?

A. Yellow
B. Blue
C. Red
D. Violet
E. Green

Q5. An increase in the motion of the molecules of a gas confined in a

steel tank will be observed in one of the following ways.
It will be observed as an increase in:

A. the temperature of the gas only

B. the pressure of the gas only
C. both the temperature and pressure of the gas
D. the temperature of the gas and a decrease in its pressure
E. the pressure of the gas and a decrease in its temperature

Q6. A machine’s output is 4000 joules and its frictional losses are 1000
joules.
Which of the following is its efficiency?

A. 25%
B. 30%
C. 75%
D. 50%
E. 80%
Q7. Lenz’s law is an example of which law of conservation of
one of the following:

A. Mass
B. Charge
C. Momentum
D. Energy
E. Volume

Q8. A calorie is the amount of heat needed to raise:

A. 1 gram of water 1 degree Celsius

B. 1 gram of water 1 degree Rankin
C. 1 kilogram of water 1 degree Celsius
D. 1 kilogram of water 1 degree Kelvin
E. 2 grams of water 1 degree Celsius

Q9. The idea that electrons revolved in orbits around the nucleus of an
atom without radiating energy away from the atom was postulated by:

A. Thompson
B. Rutherford
C. Bohr
D. Einstein
E. Planck
Q10. In a constant magnetic field, a charged particle in motion, in
general:

A. It follows a parabolic trajectory

B. It moves with a straight motion uniform
C. Increases progressively there own kinetic energy
D. It follows a trajectory in the form of a cylindrical helix
E. It follows an ellipsoidal trajectory

Q11. As the length increases, the electrical resistance of a conductor

constant section:

A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. It does not vary
D. Increases or decreases depending on the resistivity
of the material
E. Increases in copper and decreases in aluminium

Q12. The unit of measurement of the electric field is the interactional

system is:

A. Newton/Ampere
B. Volts/Ampere
C. Ampere/Metre
D. Ampere/Volt
E. Volt/Metre
Q13. A positive charge of +5 C is moved from point A to point B
of an electric field between which there is a potential difference
equal to 10 V. What is the difference in electric potential energy between
the colon?

A. 2J
B. 20J
C. 0.5J
D. 100 J
E. 50J

Q14. As soon as Giuseppe wakes up, he takes the closed container with
the lunch box out of the fridge and places it on the kitchen counter for a
few minutes before putting it in his backpack. Notice at that point that
some spots have formed on the outer surface of water droplets.
This phenomenon is due to:

A. Atmospheric water vapour which condenses on the cold walls of the

container
B. When a veil of water collected in droplets that had deposited on the
container while it was inside the fridge
C. To the water that oozes through the walls of the vessel
D. None of the other responses.
E. To the overpressure effect internal

Q15. During a slow transition from ice to water the temperature:

A. It stays constant and the ice absorbs heat

B. It rises and the water absorbs heat
C. Decreases and water absorbs heat
D. It increases and the water gives off heat
E. It decreases and the water gives off heat
Q16. During isothermal compression of an ideal gas:

A. Gas volume increases

B. Gas temperature increases
C. There is no heat exchange with the external environment
D. The temperature only increases if the compression is rapid
E. None of the answers above

Q17. The free surface of a liquid in equilibrium:

A. It tends to bend under the effect of gravity

B. It tends to rise under the effect of surface tension
C. It is disposed orthogonally to the resultant of the forces in
each of its points
D. It is arranged parallel to the bottom of the container that contains it
E. It tends to sag due to the forces of gravity

Q18. Regarding Archimedes' thrusts exerted on a piece of cork and a

piece of iron of equal volume, completely immersed in water, it can be
said that:

A. They are equal to each other

B. The one on the cork is greater
C. The one on iron is greater.
D. It is absent from iron because it goes to the bottom
E. They are in opposite directions for cork and iron
Q19. The reason why a balloon filled with hydrogen, left to itself, flies
upwards lies in:

A. Principle of Pascal
B. First law of dynamics
C. Second principle of thermodynamics
D. Avogadro's principle
E. Archimedes' principle

Q20. The kinetic energy of a falling body free in the absence of friction:

A. Increases as the altitude decreases

B. It is constant
C. It decreases as the quota decreases
D. It depends on the characteristics of the body.
E. It depends on the size of the body

Q21. Kinetic energy is conserved:

A. In each elastic collision

B. In any central impact process.
C. In any totally inelastic impact
D. If bodies move with accelerated motion on a straight line
E. If some of the energy turns into heat
Q22. The momentum of a body is defined by:

A. The relationship between mass and velocity

B. product between mass and velocity
C. The product of mass and the square of the velocity
D. The relationship between mass and temperature
E. It is an intensive physical quantity

Q23. Which of the following is NOT a unit of energy measurement?

A. Joule
B. Electron volts
C. Calorie
D. Ohm
E. Kilowatt per hour

Q24. Which of the following quantities can be measured in m³ / kg?

A. Kinetic energy
B. Specific volume
C. Density
D. Acceleration
E. Pressure
Q25. A right triangle has legs that measure 3 and 4. How much is the
height referred to the hypotenuse?

A. ½
B. 5
C. 12/5
D. 20/3
E. 0.5
 IMAT Answers

General Knowledge

1.Which country has the most monuments protected by UNESCO?

Answer: B

2. What is the book of Plato that describes the ideal constitution called?

Answer: D

3. Who was the teacher of Aristotle?

Answer A

4. When was the European Union founded?

Answer: A

5. Which is the capital of Switzerland?

Answer: C

6. Which is the god of commerce according to the Greek mythology?

Answer: B

7. The book “The Prince” is attributed to:

Answer: D

8. Which of the following is referred to the latitude of the globe?

Answer: D
9. Which of the following countries is not a member of the United
Nations?

Answer: D

10. Which is the origin of Romans?

Answer: B

11. Which artist painted the Mona Lisa?

Answer: C

12. Which is the capital of Armenia?

Answer: A

13. In which language did Dante Alighieri write the Divine Comedy?

Answer: B

14. Which famous artist painted the Birth of Venus?

Answer: B

15. When did the Second World War start?

Answer: A

16. Which planet is the closest to the sun?

Answer: C

17. Which is the most populated country in the world?

Answer: A
18. Which of the following books is written by Gerald Durrell?

Answer: B

19. What is the name of the sea between Italy and the Balkans?

Answer: B

20. Which of the following operas is written by Johann Strauss?

Answer: C

21. In Art, who is considered the father of Impressionism?

Answer: A

22. Which century is considered to be The Golden Age of Pericles?

Answer: C

23. Which of the following currencies has the lowest market value?

Answer: D

24. Which is the highest mountain in Europe?

Answer: B

25. Which is the country of origin of the famous painter Rembrandt?

Answer: A
Biology

Q1: Which of the following biological molecules consist of BOTH Hydrogen

& Phosphodiester bonds?
Explanation: The correct answer is D. Bonding between A-G is hydrogen
bonding but it doesn’t consist of phosphodiester bonding. Nucleotide bases
and fatty acids don't form bonds between themselves. Nucleotides
and nucleic acids such as ATP are incorporated into DNA, and adjacent
nucleotides are linked by a phosphodiester bond and consist of nitrogenous
bases joined by hydrogen bonding. Option B is incorrect because bases
don’t contain phosphodiester bands and option E is incorrect because lipids
don't consist of both hydrogen bonds and phosphodiester bonds.

Q2: Which of the following types of mutation could explain the difference
between the T and R?
Explanation: The correct answer is A. In this sequence of bases, the
following mutations have occurred: 1) a base substitution, in which one base
is substituted for another; 2) an insertion or deletion, in which a base is either
incorrectly inserted or deleted from a codon.
Q3: Diagram below shows the sarcomere regions during both contraction
and relaxation.
Which of the following regions within a sarcomere CHANGES in length
when a human muscle cell contracts?
4. A-band
5. I-band
6. H-zone/band
Explanation: The correct answer is B. When a sarcomere contracts, the Z
lines move closer together and the I band gets smaller. The A band stays the
same width and, at full contraction, the thin filaments overlap.

Q4: Which enzyme is responsible for catalysing the reaction between CO2
and water to produce carbonic acid?
Explanation: The correct answer is E. Carbonic anhydrase is an enzyme
that assists rapid interconversion of carbon dioxide and water into carbonic
acid, protons and bicarbonate ions.
Q5: Photosystems are found on the thylakoid membrane of a chloroplast.
Which one of the following functions of photosystem is not correct?
Explanation: The correct answer is E. The PSII reaction centre gets electrons
from water, while the PSI reaction centre is replenished by electrons that flow
down an electron transport chain from PSII. Photosystems absorb photons
of light energy. They act as transducers by transferring this light energy to
high energy electrons. Energy obtained from photosystems is used to fuel
proton pumps and the synthesis of ATP. Photosystems form clusters with
associated proteins known as antenna complexes.

Q6: Which processes are NOT involved in the transpiration stream which
helps water travel up the xylem to the leaves of the plant.
Explanation: The correct answer is E. Cohesion Tension Theory, Capillarity,
Root Pressure and Transpiration Pull are involved in the transpiration stream
which helps water travel up the xylem to the leaves of the plant.

Q7: The Hardy-Weinberg principle can be used to estimate the

frequencies of dominant or recessive alleles or of different genotypes of a
characteristic in a population using the following equation: p2 + 2pq + q2
=1

Which term of this binomial expansion indicates the frequency of Aa

(heterozygous)?
Explanation: The correct answer is B. The sum of the entries is p2 + 2pq +
q2 = 1, as the genotype frequencies must sum to one. In the Hardy-
Weinberg equilibrium equation ( p2+2pq+q2=1 ), the term 2pq represents
the genotype frequency of heterozygotes (Aa) in a population in
equilibrium. The term p2 represents the frequency of dominant
homozygotes (AA) and the term q2 represents the frequency of recessive
homozygotes (aa).
Q8: In endospermic seeds, which plant hormone is involved in the process
of germination of monocotyledons?
Explanation: The correct answer is B. Gibberellin Hormone Gibberellins are
plant growth regulators that facilitate cell elongation, help the plants to
grow taller.

Q9: Which elements mentioned in the options are not present during the
presence of gibberellin to control the production of hydrolytic enzymes?
Explanation: The correct answer is B. Repressor protein, receptor, protein
turnover complex and gibberellin dependent transcription factors are
present during the presence of gibberellin to control the production of
hydrolytic enzymes.

Q10: Which enzyme is involved in the synthesis of ATP from ADP

(Adenosine Diphosphate) and Pi (Inorganic Phosphate) in a condensation
reaction?
Explanation: The correct answer is C. ATP Synthase is the enzyme involved
in the synthesis of ATP from ADP (Adenosine Diphosphate) and Pi (Inorganic
Phosphate) in a condensation reaction.

Q11: Which of the following isolating mechanisms is an example of

Allopatric Speciation AND Prezygotic?
Explanation: The correct answer is A. Geographical Isolating Mechanism is
the example of both allopatric speciation and pre zygotic.

Q12: Ribosomes are found 'free' in the cell cytoplasm and also attached to
rough endoplasmic reticulum. In which regions, ribosomes are not
present for protein synthesis?
Explanation: The correct answer is D. While viruses do not have their own
ribosomes—they hijack the ribosomes of the human cell to make more
virus
Q13: Myoglobin is a protein that's found in your striated muscles, which
includes skeletal muscles (the muscles attached to your bones and
tendons) and heart muscles.
Which option is correct regarding its protein structure formation?
Explanation: The correct answer is B. Myoglobin contains one polypeptide
chain meaning it has a 3D arrangement of its polypeptide chain in the space
of tertiary structure.

Q14: Maltose is a sugar made out of two glucose molecules bound

together. Which test should be used to validate its presence?
Explanation: The correct answer is C. In order to test for reducing sugar
such the maltose, benedict’s reagents will be used in which there will be a
colour change of light blue to brick red. Benedict’s reagents are used only
for all monosaccharide monomers with the exception of sucrose which
require addition of heat and acid (hydrochloric acid).

Q15: Pupil dilation, digestion, and acceleration of heartbeat is regulated

by:
Explanation: The correct answer is D. The Parasympathetic Nervous System
is involved in the regulation of pupil dilation, digestion, and the acceleration
of the heartbeat.
Q16: Which statements describe how we would set up the potometer to
calculate the rate of transcription?
Explanation: The correct answer is B. Cut a leafy shoot under water to
prevent the entry of air bubbles into the xylem vessels as these would break
hydrogen bonds, affecting cohesion. Completely fill the apparatus with
water to avoid introducing air bubbles into the glassware. Fit leafy shoot &
seal all joints with Vaseline (petroleum jelly) so the apparatus is airtight. Pat
the leaves dry otherwise the water potential gradient will be reduced and
this could affect the results. Introduce one air bubble into the capillary tube.
(open the tap). Measure the distance the air bubble moves along the scale
in a specific time.

Q17: Which of the features below may be present in both Bacterial E.coli
and Mammalian Liver Cells?
Explanation: The correct answer is B. Prokaryotes are organisms whose
cells lack a nucleus, hence the option 1 is incorrect. However, they consist of
plasmid and other loops of DNA molecules which are made up of nucleic
acid which contain components listed in options such as nucleotide,
nucleoside and nucleosome.

Q18: During a forest exhibition, a group of 10 students find a dead animal X

which upon karyotyping indicates that it has 72 chromosomes.
Which one of the following statements is correct regarding this animal X?
Explanation: The correct answer is D. The candidate must know the
number of chromosomes and chromatids in each phase of mitosis,
meiosis i and meiosis ii.
Q19: Which hormones secreted by the adrenal medulla, have the same
effect as sympathetic stimulation to increase the heart rate?
Explanation: The correct answer is A. The hormones adrenaline and
noradrenaline, secreted by the adrenal medulla, have the same effect as
sympathetic stimulation, i.e. they increase the heart rate.

Q20: Which type of immune cell have clear cytoplasm and spherical
nucleus in the bloodstream?
Explanation: The correct answer is A. Agranulocytes are a type of white
blood cell that, unlike granulocytes, lack visible granules. As such, they
have a clear cytoplasm that allows for better visibility of the nucleus.

Q21: Cellular immunity is due to:

Explanation: The correct answer is C. Cellular immunity occurs inside
infected cells and is mediated by T lymphocytes. The pathogen's antigens
are expressed on the cell surface or on an antigen-presenting cell such as
B cells, macrophages and dendritic cells.

Q22: Motor Neurons have (Efferent Neurons):

Explanation: The correct answer is E. Sensory neurons have long dendrites
and short axons. Motor neurons have a long axon and short dendrites.
Relay neurons consist of short dendrites and short or long axons. Hence, to
summarise the concept you have to memorise, the sensory neurons (long
dendrites and short axons), motor neurons (short dendrites and long
axons) and relay neurons (short dendrites and short or long axons).

Q23: Which of the following is considered as a central organ of the

lymphatic system:
Explanation: The correct answer is C. The primary (or central) lymphoid
organs generate lymphocytes from immature progenitor cells. The thymus
and the bone marrow constitute the primary lymphoid organs involved in
the production and early clonal selection of lymphocyte tissues.
Q24: Which one of the following statements is correct during isotonic
contraction of the skeletal muscle fibres:
Explanation: The correct answer is D. In the isotonic system, the muscle
shortens against a fixed load.

Q25: Movement of solvent and dissolved substances across a cell

membrane by hydrostatic pressure is overcome by which type of
transport mechanism?
Explanation: The correct answer is C. Filtration is movement of water and
solute molecules across the cell membrane due to hydrostatic pressure
generated.
Chemistry Answers

Q1: Aspirin is prepared by chemical synthesis from salicylic acid, through

acetylation with acetic anhydride.
Which of the following functional groups are contained in a molecule of
Aspirin?
Explanation: The correct answer is C. Aspirin (acetylsalicylic acid) is an
aromatic compound containing both a carboxylic acid functional group
and an ester functional group.

Q2: Which of the following is a NOT example of a displacement reaction?

Explanation: The correct answer is E. A displacement reaction occurs when
a more reactive element displaces a less reactive element in its compound.
All 4 reactions are examples of displacement reactions as a less reactive
element is being replaced by a more reactive one.

Q3: Which of the following statements is INCORRECT for Nonredox

Reactions?
Explanation: The correct answer is C. Nonredox reactions are chemical
reactions where no change in oxidation states of chemical elements occur.
Therefore, these chemical reactions do not have half-reactions for
oxidation and reduction as in redox reactions. In other words, there are
electron transfers occurring during the progression of the chemical
reaction. Examples include neutralisation reactions and double
displacement reaction

Q4: Chlorine is a chemical element with the symbol Cl and atomic number
17.
Compounds of chlorine include:
Cl2O - ClO2 - Cl2O4 - Cl2O6 - Cl2O7
Which one of the following options correctly lists the oxidation states of
chlorine that are shown in these compounds?
Explanation: The correct answer is A. The oxidation state of Cl2O - ClO2 -
Cl2O4 - Cl2O6 - Cl2O7 is +1, +4, +4, +6 and +7 only respectively.
Q5: Bromine is a chemical element with the symbol Br and atomic number
35.
Compounds of bromine include:
1. BrO2
2. BrF3
3. BrO3-
Which one of the following options correctly lists the oxidation states of
bromine that are shown in these compounds?
Explanation: The correct answer is A. The oxidation state of BrO2, BrF3, and
BrO3- is +3, +4 and +5 respectively.

Q6: What is the order of increasing thermal stability of the halogen

hydrides?
Explanation: The correct answer is A. The stability of oxides of halogens
decreases in the order : I > Cl > Br > F. HF > HCl > HBr > HI. Thus HF is most stable
while HI is least stable. The decreasing stability of the hydrogen halide is also
reflected in the values of dissociation energy of the H–X bond.

Q7: Propane reacts with HBr and produces 2-bromopropane. It is an alkyl

halide compound and this reaction is an electrophilic addition reaction.
Which statement about the cations is correct?
Explanation: The correct answer is C. Propene is an unsymmetrical alkene
with three carbon atoms. With HBr, propene readily reacts and gives 2-
bromopropane as the major product and 1-bromopropane as the minor
product. Hence, in this case, Y is more stable than Z because a CH3 group
pushes electrons towards the carbon atom it is attached to.
Q8: What is the total number of electrons present in the S Subshell of
Mg2+?
Explanation: The correct answer is B. Mg atom converts to ion having 2
units of positive charge, i.e. Mg2+. Therefore, in Mg ions having +2 charge,
Number of electrons = 12– 2 = 10. In each subshell (including s), there will
be one orbital having m=0 which contains two electrons. P orbital can hold
6 electrons because they each have three orbitals that can hold two
electrons each but s can hold 2 as they have one orbital containing a
maximum of 2 electrons.

Q9: Which row gives the correct shapes around the Sulphate (SO4),
Permanganate (MnO4) and Ammonium (NO4)?
Explanation: The correct answer is B. Sulphate (SO4), Permanganate
(MnO4) and Ammonium (NO4) forms bonds with four oxygen atoms. And
as a result of this, it has a tetrahedral molecular geometry. Therefore,
Sulphate (SO4), Permanganate (MnO4) and Ammonium (NO4) have a
tetrahedral molecular geometry.

Q10: What values of a, b and c are needed to balance the equation below?
aCu + bHNO3 → 3Cu(NO3)2 + cNO + dH2O
Explanation: The correct answer is D. First of all, label each compound
(reactant or product) in the equation with a variable to represent the
unknown coefficients. Then create an equation for each element (K, Mn, F,
Sb) where each term represents the number of atoms of the element in
each reactant or product. Use substitution, guess elimination, or a
calculator to solve for each variable. And finally Simplify the result to get
the lowest, whole integer values. Substitute Coefficients and Verify Result.
Q11: Chain isomerism differs in the arrangement of the atomic structure of
the carbon to carbon chain of a molecule, that may be branched or
straight.
Which of the following are examples of chain isomerism?
Explanation: The correct answer is C. Chain isomers are part of structural
isomers and are defined as the compounds that have the same molecular
formula but a different arrangement of the carbon chain within the
molecule. Pentane, 2-methylbutane and 2,2-dimethylpropane show chain
isomerism as they are structured differently in terms of their carbon chain
arrangement despite having the same molecular formula.

Q12: A buffer solution is an aqueous solution consisting of a mixture of a

weak acid and its conjugate base, or vice versa. Some of the buffers are
also present in living organisms which are known as ‘natural buffers’.
Which of the following are examples of natural buffers?
Explanation: The correct answer is A. Natural buffers occur in living
organisms, where the biochemical reactions are very sensitive to change in
pH. The main natural buffers are H2CO3/HCO3– and H2PO4–/HPO42–. The three
major buffer systems of our body are carbonic acid bicarbonate buffer
system, phosphate buffer system and protein buffer system.

Q13. Which of the following statements, if any, are correct for the
properties of Period 6 elements?
Explanation: The correct option is E. Lanthanides are earth metals in the
period 6 of the periodic table. They show an oxidation state of -2 and are
known for their magnetic properties. Many period 6 transition metals are
very valuable, such as gold etc. Thus, the correct option is E, since statement
2 and 3 are both correct.
Q14. Element A is a silvery white in colour solid. It is non-sparking, non-
corrosive, non-magnetic and lightweight. It combines with chlorine in an
exothermic reaction to form a molecule with the formula ACl3 . In this
compound, element A has an oxidation state of +3.
What is the identity of element A?
Explanation: The correct answer is E. Aluminium chloride (AlCl3) is a pure
compound formed by the exothermic reaction of metallic aluminium and
hydrogen chloride (HCl) in the temperature range of 650-750 °C. It has low
density, is non-toxic, has high thermal conductivity, has excellent resistance
to corrosion, and can be cast, machined and moulded quickly. It's non-
magnetic and non-sparking as well.

Q15. Which of the following statements, if any, are correct for the
properties of covalent compounds?
Explanation: The correct answer is A. All the given statements are correct
and define the properties of a covalent compound with covalent bonds.

Q16. The atomic number of aluminium is 13.

Which electron configuration given below corresponds to the Al3+ ion?
Explanation: The correct option is C. The atomic number of Al is 13 and its
electronic configuration is 2,8,3. So, the electronic configuration of Al3+ is 2,8
as it has donated 3 electrons. Hence, the right configuration should be 1s2
2s2 2p6.
Q17. Chromium is a transition element with multiple oxidation states.

Which one of the following options show the oxidation number of

chromium in different compounds given below?

Cr(OH)2, Cr2O3, CrO3, K2Cr2O7

Explanation: The correct answer is A. Chromium is an element of the 4ᵗʰ pe-

riod of the 6ᵗʰ group. Three different colours are observed from compounds
containing different oxidation states of chromium: +2 (blue), +3 (green), and
+6 (orange). We know the oxidation numbers of O (-2), H (+1) and K(+1).
Hence we can calculate the oxidation number of Cr on the given
compounds easily. IN Cr(OH)2 it’s +2, in Cr2O3 it’s +3, in CrO3 it’s +6 and in
K2Cr2O7 it’s +6 as well.

Q18. Calculate the pH of 0.01 M HCl?

pH = - log10 [ H+ ]

Explanation: The correct answer is C. pH is defined as the negative log of

the hydrogen ion concentration. Mathematically, it is expressed as –

• pH = - log10 [ H+ ]
• Putting the value of hydrogen ion concentration, we get –
• pH = - log [0.01]
• pH = - log (\[{{10}^{-2}}\])
• pH = 2 log 10

Since, log 10 = 1,

Therefore, pH = 2

Hence, the answer is – option (C) – the pH of 0.01 M solution of HCl is 2.

Q19. Which of the following reactions of ethanol are not possible or

feasible?
Explanation: The correct answer is A. Ethanol does not reach with sodium
hydroxide, no reaction occurs. It reacts with rest all other compounds to form
different products.
Q20: Sulphur forms many isotopes, out of which 4 are stable. Which of the
following is the radioactive and short lived isotope of sulphur?
Explanation: The correct answer is E. Sulphur has 18 isotopes, four of which
are stable: 32S (95.02%), 33S (0.75%), 34S (4.21%), and 36S (0.02%). Other than 35S,
the radioactive isotopes of sulphur are all short lived. 35S is formed from
cosmic ray spallation of 40Ar in the atmosphere. It has a half-life of 87 days.

Q21. Which of the following statements, if any, are correct for the
properties of Group 4 elements?
Explanation: The correct answer is E. Group 4 is the second group of
transition metals in the periodic table. It contains the four elements titanium
(Ti), zirconium (Zr), hafnium (Hf), and rutherfordium (Rf). Down a group, the
number of energy levels (n) increases, so there is a greater distance
between the nucleus and the outermost orbital. This results in a larger
atomic radius.

Q22: There are various factors which influence the magnitude of ionisation
energy (the attraction of the nucleus for the outer electrons in an atom).
Which of the following factors don’t have a major influence on ionisation
energy?
Explanation: The correct answer is C. There are three major factors which
influence the magnitude of ionisation energy (the attraction of the nucleus
for the outer electrons in an atom) and these are nuclear charge, distance
of electrons from the nucleus (atomic/ionic radius) and shielding effect.
Nuclear charge relates to the number of protons in the atom. The more
protons the greater the nuclear charge.

Also, nuclear attraction is significantly reduced with increasing distance. The

further the electron is from the nucleus the easier it is to remove. Any inner-
shell electrons repel the outer electrons.

This repelling effect reduces the attraction experienced by the outer

electrons from the nucleus. The electrons in the inner shells shield the outer
electrons from the attractive force of the nucleus.
Q23: Which three groups of the periodic table contain the most elements
classified as metalloids (semi-metals)?

Explanation: The correct answer is C. The metallic properties of the

elements decrease going from left to right in the periodic
table without a clear separation between metals and non-metals. Silicon
(Si), Germanium (Ge), Arsenic (As), Antimony (Sb), Tellurium (Te) and
Polonium (Po) are classified as semi-metals because they are not metals,
but they retain some characteristics of these. Si and Ge are found in the
fourteenth group, As and Sb in the fifteenth, Te and Po in the sixteenth.

Q24: Which element’s ionic radius is smaller than its atomic radius?

Explanation: The correct answer is C. The atomic radius is a periodic

property of the elements which therefore depends on the electronic
configuration and in particular on the effective nuclear charge and on the
distance of the electrons from the nucleus. It increases as you go down a
group and decreases from left to right in each period. Moving down a
group, in fact, the electrons occupy increasingly higher energy levels
(further away from the nucleus), thus being much less affected by the
nuclear attraction, which is shielded by the electrons of the innermost
shells. On the contrary, moving to the right over a period, the increase in
the atomic number corresponds to an increase in electrons in the same
energy level. The shielding effect of the electrons present in the innermost
energy levels is always the same, while the nuclear charge increases.
This leads to an increase in the effective nuclear charge and therefore a
decrease in the atomic radius.

Q25: Which element has the highest first ionization energy?

Explanation: The correct answer is D. Ionization energy increases up the

group and goes from right to left in this case, we can see that phosphorus
has the highest ionization energy.
Physics and Maths

Q1: Kinetic energy is the energy of:

Explanation: The correct answer is C. The kinetic energy K of a body of

mass m, which moves with speed v.

Q2: Which of the following phenomena suggest that light may be a

transverse wave?

Explanation: The correct answer is B. The polarization of an

electromagnetic wave indicates the the direction in which the electric field
vector oscillates during the propagation of the wave in space. In particular,
the phenomenon of the polarization of light shows that the electric field
oscillates in a direction perpendicular to the direction of propagation of the
light itself, which is precisely the condition that defines the transverse
waves.

Q3: If a three-farad capacitor and a six-farad capacitor are connected

in parallel, what is their equivalent capacitance?

Explanation: The correct answer is E. The capacity of the parallel of the

two condensers is from the date sum of single capacity, for which:

3F+6F=9F

Q4. A beam of white light is passed through a diffraction grating

and the resulting spectrum is allowed to fall on a screen. Which one of
the following is the colour of light that undergoes the greatest deviation
from its original direction?

Explanation: The correct answer is C. For small angles from the main
optical axis, the position of the diffraction minimum is approximately
directly proportional to the wavelength of light. So the red light, which has a
longer wavelength than the others, will be deflected more.
Q5. An increase in the motion of the molecules of a gas confined in a
steel tank will be observed in one of the following ways.
It will be observed as an increase in:

Explanation: The correct answer is C. If the speed of the molecules of a

gas increases, then the internal energy and, therefore, the temperature of
the gas also increases. By the ideal gas law, if the temperature increases
and the volume remains constant since the vessel is rigid and closed, then
the pressure also increases.

Q6. A machine’s output is 4000 joules and its frictional losses are 1000
joules.
Which of the following is its efficiency?

Explanation: The correct answer is E. For the conservation of total energy,

the initial energy is equal to the sum of the work produced and the energy
dissipated by friction:

The efficiency η represents the fraction of Ei which is converted into work L

by the machine:

4000J + 1000J= 5000J. 4000/5000J= 0.8X100=80%

Q7. Lenz’s law is an example of which law of conservation of

one of the following:

Explanation: The correct answer is D. According to the Faraday-Neumann

law, a variation in the flux of the the magnetic field through a conductive
coil produces an induced electromotive force in the coil and, consequently,
an induced current.

According to Lenz's law, this induced current opposes the variation of the
flux that produced it, to ensure the conservation of total energy and in
accordance with Newton's third law of action-reaction.
Q8. A calorie is the amount of heat needed to raise:

Explanation: The correct answer is A. A calorie is the amount of heat

needed to raise the temperature of 1 g of water at sea level from 14.5 °C to
15.5 °C.

Q9. The idea that electrons revolved in orbits around the nucleus of an
atom without radiating energy away from the atom was postulated by:

Explanation: The correct answer is C. According to Bohr's model, the

electronic states are stationary, so the electron, despite being an
accelerated electric charge as it makes a circular motion, and does not
emit any radiation. Furthermore, Bohr quantizes the energy that an atom
can emit or absorb and introduces the correspondence principle, so that
as the quantum number increases, quantum behaviours tend to be
classical. However, Bohr's model was in contradiction with Heisenberg's
the uncertainty principle, since it confined the electron to the plane of the
orbit.

Q10. In a constant magnetic field, a charged particle in motion, in

general:

Explanation: The correct answer is D. The trajectory of a charge in a

constant magnetic field is shaped like a cylindrical helix (option D correct,
options A and E incorrect) since the force acting on it has the properties of
a centripetal force, which is a motion the uniform circular has the constant
and non-zero modulus (wrong option B) and determines changes in
direction and direction of the speed (but not of the modulus, so v is
constant and therefore kinetic energy is constant, wrong option C).
The same thing happens for example to a satellite that rotates around the
Earth and is subject to the force of gravity.
Q11. As the length increases, the electrical resistance of a conductor
constant section:

Explanation: The correct answer is A. The relationship between electrical

resistance, length and section of a conductor is Ohm's second law, so R =
(length resistivity) / section.
Therefore, as the length increases and with a constant section, since the
resistivity of the material is constant, the resistance increases.

Q12. The unit of measurement of the electric field is the interactional

system is:

Explanation: The correct answer is E. The units of measurement of the

electric field can be obtained starting from two formulas:

E = F / q and E = V / s.

So knowing the units of measurement of force (Newton), electric charge

(Coulomb), potential (Volt) and displacement (meter), we obtain that the
units of measurement of the electric field are: N / C and V / m.

Q13. A positive charge of +5 C is moved from point A to point B

of an electric field between which there is a potential difference
equal to 10 V. What is the difference in electric potential energy between
the colon?

Explanation: The correct answer is E. We know the value of the test charge
(different from the generating charge that generates the field) and of the
potential difference between the two points, so we can calculate the
potential energy as U = qV and substituting the values U = 50 J.
Q14. As soon as Giuseppe wakes up, he takes the closed container with
the lunch box out of the fridge and places it on the kitchen counter for a
few minutes before putting it in his backpack. Notice at that point that
some spots have formed on the outer surface of water droplets.
This phenomenon is due to:

Explanation: The correct answer is A. The humid air in the atmosphere can
contain up to 7% by volume of water vapor, which condenses when it
encounters a colder surface (option A), that is, it passes from the gaseous
state to the liquid state (think also of the droplets on the window glass in
cold weather).

Q15. During a slow transition from ice to water the temperature:

Explanation: The correct answer is A. If we supply energy in the form of

heat to a piece of ice, it gradually begins to heat up (the molecules
increase their kinetic energy) until the temperature is such as to allow the
transition of state (melting temperature).
Until all the ice passes to the liquid state, the temperature remains
constant at the melting temperature since all the energy supplied is used
to break the forces that hold the molecules together in the solid state
and not to raise the temperature.

Q16. During isothermal compression of an ideal gas:

Explanation: The correct answer is E. In an isothermal transformation the

temperature is constant and therefore pV-constant (option Be D wrong)
but it is not certain that there are no heat exchanges because we do not
know if the transformation is adiabatic (option C wrong). Also, the volume
may vary but the text speaks of compression, which indicates a decrease
in volume (wrong option A).
Q17. The free surface of a liquid in equilibrium:

Explanation: The correct answer is C. The free surface of a liquid in

equilibrium is isobaric therefore the pressure applied in each of its points is
constant. By applying the law of stevino which allows us to calculate the
variation in pressure as the depth of a liquid varies, the surface of the liquid
must therefore be arranged horizontally because I know that the same
pressure is applied over the entire surface. However, it need not be parallel
to the bottom plane, which could also be arranged obliquely (Derrata
response). The only force acting on the liquid is the weight force which
acts perpendicular to the surface of the liquid.

Q18. Regarding Archimedes' thrusts exerted on a piece of cork and a

piece of iron of equal volume, completely immersed in water, it can be
said that:

Explanation: The correct answer is A. The two bodies will receive the
same Archimedes thrust because they have equal volume.
Attention: receiving the same thrust as Archimedes does not mean that
the two bodies will behave in the same way, in that case, the density of the
bodies must be taken into account.

Q19. The reason why a balloon filled with hydrogen, left to itself, flies
upwards lies in:

Explanation: The correct answer is E. Thanks to Archimedes' principle, the

balloon filled with hydrogen receives an upward thrust equal to the weight
of the displaced fluid (a fluid can be both liquid and gaseous). Hydrogen
has a lower density than air so it will fly high. Pascal's principle states that
pressure exerted at any point of a fluid is transmitted to any other point of
the fluid with the same intensity (wrong option A). The first principle of
dynamics expresses the concept of inertia of a body (wrong option B). The
second principle states that F = ma (incorrect option C). Avogadro's
principle states that equal moles of different gases occupy the same
volume (wrong option).
Q20. The kinetic energy of a falling body free in the absence of friction:

Explanation: The correct answer is A. The kinetic energy of a body

increases with its speed (K = 1/2 mv^2), which, in the case of a body in free
fall, progressively increases as the altitude decreases due to the
acceleration of gravity.

Q21. Kinetic energy is conserved:

Explanation: The correct answer is A. In elastic collisions, in addition to the

momentum, the kinetic energy is also always conserved.

Q22. The momentum of a body is defined by:

Explanation: The correct answer is B. The momentum of a body is a

physical quantity whose value is equal to the product of the mass of the
body and its velocity: Q = m x v.
It is a physical quantity that therefore depends on the size of the sample,
therefore it is not intensive but extensive (Answer E incorrect).

Q23. Which of the following is NOT a unit of energy measurement?

Explanation: The correct answer is D. Joule (option A) is the unit of

measurement of energy in the S.I. and 4,186 Joules correspond to 1 calorie
option C). The electronvolt (option B) is a unit of measurement of energy
usually used in electrostatics and 1 eV corresponds to 1.6.10-19 J? The
kilowatt hour (option E) is a unit of measurement of energy, in particular, a
watt-hour is defined as the energy supplied with a power of 1 W
maintained for 1 hour. Instead, the Ohm (option D) is the unit of
measurement of electrical resistance.
Q24. Which of the following quantities can be measured in m³ / kg?

Explanation: The correct answer is C. Kinetic energy (option A) is

measured in Joules (kg m2 / s²), density (option C) in kg / m³, acceleration
(option D) in m / s² and pressure (option E) in kg / ms2. The specific volume
(option B) is defined as the ratio between the volume and mass of a body
and is therefore measured in m³ / kg.

Q25. A right triangle has legs that measure 3 and 4. How much is the
height referred to the hypotenuse?
Explanation: The correct answer is C. With the Pythagorean theorem, or
remembering the Pythagorean triple (3,4,5), we find the hypotenuse which
is 5. With the first Euclid's theorem, we find the projections of the cathets on
the hypotenuse, that is for the cathetus short 9/5 and for the long cathetus
16/5. With Euclid's second theorem, we find the height relative to the
hypotenuse starting from the projections: h = rad (16/5 9/5) = 12/5. Faster
method: I know that the area is 3 x 4/2 = 6, but the area can also be
calculated as the hypotenuse x its height / 2, so: 5 x h / 2 = 6 → h = 12/5.