1 What are Personal Laws?

(A) Laws relating to inter personal behaviour

(B) Customs (religious beliefs) that now have codified
(C) Laws that a person makes
(D) Laws based on opinion
2 Fundamental Rights are mentioned under which part of the Constitution of India?
(A) Part - II (B) Part - III
(C) Part - IX (D) Part - XII

3 What is the lowest court to approach for criminal matters?

(A) Munsif Court (B) Judicial Magistrate
(C) Sessions Court (D) District Court
4 Money Bill is introduced in which house of the Parliament?
(A) Council of People-Lok Sabha (B) Council of States – Rajya Sabha
(C) Both the Houses (D) None of the Houses

5 Which Article of the Constitution of India empowers the legislature to make laws?
(A) Article - 12 (B) Article 245
(C) Article 243 (D) Article 141

6 What is the difference between a void and a voidable contract under the Indian Contract Act?
Choose the correct point from the following options:
(A) A void contract is illegal, whereas avoidable contract is legal.
(B) A void contract is valid but becomes void at a later stage, whereas a voidable
contract is void from the beginning.
(C) A void contract is not enforceable by law, whereas a voidable contract is
enforceable
(D) A void contract is enforceable, whereas a voidable contract is not enforceable.

7 What is the legal position of a minor in a contract under the Indian Contract Act?
(A) Minors can enter into a contract on their own without any restrictions.
(B) A minor can enter into a contract with the consent of their parents or guardians.
(E) A minor cannot enter into a contract
(D) A minor can enter into a contract only for necessary goods and services.
8 What is the meaning of ‘Consideration’ in Indian Contract Act?
(A) The lawful object of the agreement
(B) An act or promise by one party to do or abstain from doing something which is bargained by
a promisor in exchange for their promise
(C) The intention to create legal relationship.
(D) An agreement that is enforceable by law

9 Which of the following is not an essential element of a valid contract under the Indian Contract
Act?
(A) Intention to create legal relationship (B) Offer and Acceptance
(C) Written Agreement (D) Lawful Consideration

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 10 In which of the following situations can agreement be considered as void under the Indian
Contract Act?
(A) When both parties to an agreement are of sound mind and have given free consent.
(B) When the agreement is made with inadequate consideration.
(C) When the parties to an agreement are relatives.
(D) When the consent is influenced by coercion.
11 An agreement which is enforceable by law at the option of other or others is –
(A) An optional contract (B) A contract
(C) A voidable contract (D) A void contract
12 In order to convert a proposal into a promise, the acceptance must
(A) be communicated in some usual and reasonable manner, unless the proposal
prescribes the manner in which it is to be accepted.
(B) be absolute and qualified.
(C) be absolute and unqualified.
(D) Both (A) and (C) are correct.

13 When a proposal can be revoked?

(A) A proposal may be revoked at any time when the communication of its acceptance is
complete as against the proposer, but not afterwards.
(B) A proposal may be revoked at any time before the communication of its acceptance is
incomplete as against the proposer, but not after wards.
(C) A proposal may be revoked at any time after the communication of its acceptance is
complete as against the proposer, but not beforehand.
(D) A proposal may be revoked at any time before the communication of its acceptance is
complete as against the proper, but not afterwards.

14 A entered into a contract with B to marry her on a fixed date. However, before the marriage
date, A went mad. With reference to the Indian Contract Act which is the valid response?
(A) B can’t marry till A dies.
(B) The executers of A can enforce the contract against B.
(C) The contract becomes void.
(D) All of the statements are incorrect.

15 In which of the following cases, the doctrine of supervening impossibility will apply?
(A) Difficulty in performance
(B) Commercial impossibility
(C) Impossibility known to the parties at the time of making the contract
(D) None of the above

16 A promises to deliver goods to B on a certain day on payment of `10,000. A dies before that day.
(A) The contract is not enforceable anymore.
(B) A’s representatives are bound to deliver the goods to B and B is bound to pay
`10,000 to A’s representative
(C) A’s representatives have right to change the terms of the earlier agreement and
continue to fulfil the revised/new agreement.
(D) All of the statements are incorrect.

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 17 When a person positively asserts, makes an absolute and explicit statement of facts, that a fact
is true, though he has no reliable source to form this opinion, but he believes it to be true. This
is an example of _______________________________________________ _.
(A) Mistake (B) Fraud
(C) Misrepresentation (D) undue influence
18 Which of the following acts does not create any Quasi Contract obligation?
(A) Payment by an interested person
(B) Benefits of gratuitous act
(C) Money paid by mistake or under coercion
(D) Responsibility of finder of goods

19 A contract which is vitiated by undue influence is declared as which one of the following by the
Indian Contract Act?
(A) Invalid (B) Void
(C) Illegal (D) Voidable
20 If A sells, by auction to B a horse which A knowns to be unsound and A says nothing to B
about the horse unsoundness. This amounts to –
(A) Fraud (B) Not Fraud
(C) Unlawful (D) Illegal
21 ‘Goods’ as defined in Sale of Goods Act will include
(A) Stocks and shares
(B) Growing crops attached to or forming part of the land agreed to be served before sale.
(C) Actionable claim.
(D) Both (A) and (B)

22 A delivered a horse to B on the condition of sale or return within 10 days. The horse died within
5 days while in B’s custody. Which of the following is the correct solution as per Sale of Goods
Act?
(A) The loss would fall on the buyer
(B) The loss will fall on the Seller (A) as the property in goods has not yet passed to the buyer (B).
(C) The loss will be shared equally between (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above

23 As per Sale of Goods Act, 1930, there are ________________ modes of delivery.
(A) 3 (B) 2
(C) 4 (D) 5
24 A contract of sale made by person of unsound mind is ___________________ _.
(A) Valid contract (B) illegal agreement
(C) void contract (D) voidable contract
25 In a contract of sale, under Sale of Goods Act, there must be transfer of
(A) general property in goods (B) special property in goods.
(C) possession of goods (D) None of the above

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 26 In a contract of sale, where goods lie undelivered with the seller, the risk of loss of goods
remains with
(A) seller only (B) buyer only
(C) buyer and seller equally (D) insurance company
27 Breach of ‘Warranty’ in a contract of sale of goods, gives rights to
(A) claim for damages (B) reject the goods.
(C) repudiate the contract (D) All of the above
28 Where under a contract of sale the property in goods is transferred from the seller to the
buyer, the contract is called ____________________________ _.
(A) an agreement to sell (B) a sale
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) Either (A) or (B)
29 A sells 200 bags of sugar to B lying in C’s godown. A gives an order to C, asking him to transfer
the bags of sugar to B. C approves such order and transfers the goods in his books to B. A then
hands over the order to B. This is an example of
___________________________
(A) Constructive deliver (B) Actual delivery
(C) Symbolic delivery (D) None of the above
30 As per the provisions of Sale of Goods Act, voluntary transfer of possession fromone
person to another is called as ______________________
(A) Ownership (B) Delivery
(C) Gift (D) Surrender
31 Which of the following presumptions is incorrect in respect of Negotiable Instruments?
(A) Every Negotiable Instrument was made or drawn for consideration.
(B) Every Negotiable Instrument bearing a date was made or drawn on that date.
(C) That a lost Promissory Note, Bill of Exchange or Cheque was not duly stamped.
(D) Every transfer of a Negotiable Instrument was made before its maturity.

32 Identify the incorrect characteristic of Promissory Note from the following:

(A) 2 parties – maker and payee
(B) acceptance is necessary.
(C) Notice of dishonour is not necessary
(D) Grace period is available is payable after specified time.

33 An instrument, incomplete in one way or other is called.

(A) Ambiguous instrument (B) Inchoate instrument
(C) Dishonoured instrument (D) None of the above
34 Instrument entitled to ‘period of grace’ is _____________________ _.
(A) a cheque
(B) a bill or note payable on demand
(C) a bill or note in which no time is mentioned
(D) a bill or note payable ‘after sight’
Negotiable Instrument means a Promissory Note, Bill of Exchange or Cheque, payable to _.
35
(A) bearer (B) order
(C) either bearer or order (D) neither bearer not order

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36 The nature of ‘Promissory Note’ is ____________________
(A) it contains an unconditional order to the drawee to pay the payee
(B) It is drawn on specified banker to pay on demand.
(C) It contains an unconditional promise by the maker to pay the payee
(D) None of the above
37 A holder in due course is a person who becomes the possessor of the instrument
_____________________
(A) before maturity
(B) for consideration
(C) without any notice as to the defect in title of the transfer
(D) All of the above
38 The term Negotiable Instrument is associated with which of the following?
(A) A written document entitled on an individual by delivery or endorsement.
(B) A written document that transfer the value in it from one person to other.
(C) A written document, entitled on a person to received money.
(D) All of the above.

39 ________________ is an instrument in writing containing an unconditional undertaking signed

by the maker, to pay a certain sum of money only to, or to the order of , a certain person or to the
bearer of the instrument.
(A) Promissory Note (B) Bill of exchange
(C) Cheque (D) None of the above
40 The presumption as to the date of a negotiable instrument under section 118 is that, every
negotiable instrument bearing a date was made or drawn
(A) prior to that date. (B) on such date.
(C) may be on or prior to the date (D) None of the above
41 Which of the following is not one of the 8C’s communication?
(A) Conciseness (B) Curiousness
(C) Completeness (D) Coherence
42 The way the information is described or translated into a message and put in verbal or non-
verbal medium is called _______________________________ _.
(A) Feedback (B) Decoding
(C) Encoding (D) None of the above
43 “It is a type of communication in which one person tells something to some of its most trusted
people and then they tell them to their trustworthy friends and the communication continues.”
From the following options, choose the type of informal communication structure mentioned
above.
(A) Gossip Chain (B) Cluster Chain
(C) Probability Chain (D) Multiple Chain

44 Providing Frequently Asked Questions (FAQ) to customers results in which of the

following benefits of internet communication most appropriately?
(A) Support care (B) Professional presentation
(C) Personal touch (D) Good relation to customers

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 45 Which of the following is not a correct way for an employee to exhibit business etiquette in
work place?
(A) Commitment (B) Accountability
(C) Integrity (D) None of the above
46 Horizontal communication takes place between _____________________ _.
(A) Subordinate to superior (B) Superior to subordinate
(C) Employee with same status (D) None of the above
47 The formal greeting with which a business letter begin is called ____________________ _.
(A) Salutation (B) Reference
(C) Introduction paragraph (D) Subject
48 Types of business letters are ________________________________________________ _.
(A) Quotation Letter (B) Order Letter
(C) Recovery Letter (D) All of the above
49 Which business communication usage provides a bird’s view on a matter?
(A) Group Discussion (B) Speech
(C) Presentation (D) Debate
50 Excessive use of technical jargons and double meaning words are what type of
communication barrier?
(A) Psychological Barrier (B) Sematic Barrier
(C) Physical Barrier (D) None of the above

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