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KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA GACHIBOWLI, GPRA CAMPUS, HYD–32

PRACTICE PAPER 02 - CHAPTER 02 POLYNOMIALS (2023-24)


(ANSWERS)
SUBJECT: MATHEMATICS MAX. MARKS : 40
CLASS : X DURATION : 1½ hrs
General Instructions:
(i). All questions are compulsory.
(ii). This question paper contains 20 questions divided into five Sections A, B, C, D and E.
(iii). Section A comprises of 10 MCQs of 1 mark each. Section B comprises of 4 questions of 2 marks
each. Section C comprises of 3 questions of 3 marks each. Section D comprises of 1 question of 5
marks each and Section E comprises of 2 Case Study Based Questions of 4 marks each.
(iv). There is no overall choice.
(v). Use of Calculators is not permitted

SECTION – A
Questions 1 to 10 carry 1 mark each.

1. If one of the zeroes of the quadratic polynomial (k – 1)x2 + kx + 1 is –3, then the value of k is
(a) 4/3 (b) -4/3 (c) 2/3 (d) -2/3
Ans: (a) (k – 1)x2 + kx + 1
One zero is – 3, so it must satisfy the equation and make it zero.
∴ (k – 1) (– 3)2 + k(– 3) + 1 = 0
⇒ 9k – 9 – 3k + 1 = 0
8 4
⇒ 6k – 8 = 0 ⇒ k  
6 3

2. If the zeroes of the quadratic polynomial x2 + (a + 1) x + b are 2 and –3, then


(a) a = –7, b = –1 (b) a = 5, b = –1 (c) a = 2, b = –6 (d) a = 0, b = –6
Ans: (d) x2 + (a + 1)x + b
∵ x = 2 is a zero and x = – 3 is another zero
∴ (2)2 + (a + 1)2 + b = 0
and (– 3)2 + (a + 1) (– 3) + b = 0
⇒ 4 + 2a + 2 + b = 0 and 9 – 3a – 3 + b = 0
⇒ 2a + b = – 6 ...(i) and – 3a + b = – 6 ...(ii)
Solving (i) and (ii), we get 5a = 0
⇒ a = 0 and b = – 6.

3. Zeroes of a polynomial p(x) can be determined graphically. No. of zeroes of a polynomial is


equal to no. of points where the graph of polynomial
(a) intersects y-axis (b) intersects x-axis
(c) intersects y-axis or intersects x-axis (d) none of these
Ans: (b) Intersects x-axis

4. If graph of a polynomial p(x) does not intersects the x-axis but intersects y-axis in one point, then
no. of zeroes of the polynomial is equal to
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 0 or 1 (d) none of these
Ans : (a) 0

5. If p(x) = ax2 + bx + c and a + b + c = 0, then one zero is


(a) -b/a (b) c/a (c) b/c (d) none of these
Ans: (b) p(1) = 0; a(1)2 + b(1) + c = 0 ⇒ a + b + c = 0 ∴ one zero (a) = 1
β = product of zeroes = c/a
⇒ 1.  = c/a ⇒  = c/a
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∴ zeroes are 1 and c/a

6. The number of polynomials having zeroes as –2 and 5 is


(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) more than 3
1 3
Ans: (d) ∵ x2 – 3x – 10, 2x2 – 6x – 20, x 2  x  5 , 3x2 – 9x – 30 etc.,
2 2
have zeroes – 2 and 5.

7. The quadratic polynomial, the sum of whose zeroes is –5 and their product is 6, is
(a) x2 + 5x + 6 (b) x2 – 5x + 6 (c) x2 – 5x – 6 (d) –x2 + 5x + 6
Ans: (a), sum of zeroes = –5, product = 6
Polynomial is, x2 – (sum of zeroes) x + product of zeroes
⇒ x2 – (–5)x + 6 = x2 + 5x + 6.

8. If zeroes of p(x) = 2x2 – 7x + k are reciprocal of each other, then value of k is


(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
Ans: (b) Zeroes are reciprocal of each other
k
∴ Product of zeroes = 1  = 1  k = 2
2

In the following questions 9 and 10, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason
(R). Mark the correct choice as:
(a) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation of
assertion (A).
(b) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true but reason (R) is not the correct explanation of
assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.
9. Assertion (A): x2 + 4x + 5 has two real zeroes.
Reason (R): A quadratic polynomial can have at the most two zeroes.
Ans : p(x) = 0 ⇒ x2 + 4x + 5 = 0
Discriminant, D = b2 – 4ac
= 42 – 4 x 1 x 5
= 16 – 20 = – 4 < 0
Therefore, no real zeroes are there.
(d) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.

10. Assertion (A): If the sum of the zeroes of the quadratic polynomial x2 – 2kx + 8 are is 2 then
value of k is 1.
Reason (R): Sum of zeroes of a quadratic polynomial ax2 + bx + c is –b/a
b
Ans : Relation is true as we know that Sum of zeroes =
a
(2k )
⇒ =2⇒k=1
1
So, Assertion is true.
Correct option is (a) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct
explanation of assertion (A).

SECTION – B
Questions 11 to 14 carry 2 marks each.
11. Find the zeroes of √3x2 + 10x + 7√3

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Ans: √3x2 + 10x + 7√3 = √3x2 + 3x + 7x + 7√3
= √3x(x + √3) + 7(x + √3)
= (√3x + 7)(x + √3)
For zeroes of the polynomial,
(√3x + 7)(x + √3) = 0
⇒ √3x + 7 = 0 or x + √3 = 0
⇒ √3x = -7 or x = -√3
⇒ x = -7/√3 or x = -√3

1
12. Find a quadratic polynomial whose zeroes are –9 and  .
9
 1  81  1 82
Ans: Sum of zeroes = 9      
 9 9 9
 1
Product of zeroes = 9      1
 9
Quadratic polynomial = x2 – (sum of zeroes) x + product of zeroes
 82 
= x2   2
 x  1  9 x  82 x  9
 9 
13. If the sum of the zeroes of the quadratic polynomial ky2 + 2y – 3k is equal to twice their product,
find the value of k.
Ans: p(y) = ky2 + 2y – 3k
a = k, b = 2, c = –3k
According to the question, Sum of zeroes = 2 × product of zeroes
b c 2 3k
  2   2
a a k k
2 1
 6k 
k 3

14. If the product of the zeroes of the polynomial ax2 – 6x – 6 is 4, then find the value of a. Also find
the sum of zeroes of the polynomial.
Ans: p(x) = ax2 – 6x – 6
Product of zeroes = 4
c 6 6 3
 4 4 a  
a a 4 2
b (6)
Now sum of zeroes =   4
a 3
2
3
a and sum of zeroes = – 4
2

SECTION – C
Questions 15 to 17 carry 3 marks each.
15. Find the zeroes of p(x) = 4x2 + 24x + 36 quadratic polynomials and verify the relationship
between the zeroes and their coefficients.
Ans: p(x) = 4x2 + 24x + 36
For zeroes, p(x) = 0
⇒ 4x2 + 24x + 36 = 0 ⇒ 4(x2 + 6x + 9) = 0
⇒ 4(x2 + 3x + 3x + 9) = 0 ⇒ (x + 3) (x + 3) = 0
⇒ x + 3 = 0 or x + 3 = 0 ⇒ x = –3, x = –3
Zeroes are –3, –3.

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Now a = 4, b = 24, c = 36
b 24
  6
a 4
Sum of zeroes = –3 + (–3) = –6
b
⇒ Sum of zeroes =
a
c 36
Also,  9
a 4
and Product of zeroes = (–3) × (–3) = 9
c
⇒ Product of zeroes =
a

16. If α and β are zeroes of the quadratic polynomial 4x2 + 4x + 1, then form a quadratic polynomial
whose zeroes are 2α and 2β.
Ans : p(x) = 4x2 + 4x + 1
α, β are zeroes of p(x)
b
α + β = sum of zeroes =
a
4
α+β= = – 1 ...(i)
4
c
Also α. β = Product of zeroes =
a
1
α. β = ...(ii)
4
Now a quadratic polynomial whose zeroes are 2α and 2β
x2 – (sum of zeroes)x + Product of zeroes
= x2 – (2α + 2β)x + 2α × 2β = x2 – 2(α + β)x + 4(αβ)
1
= x2 – 2 × (–1)x + 4 × [Using eq. (i) and (ii)]
4
= x2 + 2x + 1

17. If α, β re zeros of quadratic polynomial 2x² + 5x + k, find the value of k such that (α + β)² - αβ =
24
Ans: We know that α +β = −b/a and αβ = c/a
Given, 2x2 + 5x + k = 0
⇒ a = 2, b = 5, c = k
Given that (α + β)2 – αβ = 24
⇒ (−b/a)2 – c/a = 24
⇒ b2 − ca = 24a2 (Multiplying both sides by a2)
⇒ 52 − 2k = 24(2)2
⇒ 2k = 25 – 96 = −71
∴ k = −71/2

SECTION – D
Questions 18 carry 5 marks.
18. If α, β are zeroes of polynomial p(x) = 5x2 + 5x + 1 then find the value of
(i) α 2 + β2 (ii) α–1 + β–1 (iii) α3 + β3
Ans: Given polynomial is p(x) = 5x2 + 5x + 1
Here a = 5, b = 5, c = 1

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b 5
α + β = sum of zeroes = ⇒ α+β= =–1
a 5
c 1
Also α. β = Product of zeroes = ⇒ α. β =
a 5
1 2 3
(i)  2   2  (   )2  2  (1)2  2   1  
5 5 5
1 1  
(ii)  1   1     5
  
1 3 2
(iii)  3   3  (   )3  3 (   )  (1)3  3   (1)  1  
5 5 5

SECTION – E (Case Study Based Questions)


Questions 19 to 20 carry 4 marks each.
19. Case Study-1 : Lusitania Bridge
Quadratic polynomial can be used to model the shape of many architectural structures in the
world. The Lusitania Bridge is a bridge in Merida, Spain. The bridge was built over the
Guadiana River in 1991 by a Spanish consortium to take the road traffic from the Romano
bridge. The architect was Santiago Calatrava. The bridge takes its name from the fact that
Emerita Augusta (present day Merida) was the former capital of Lusitania, an ancient Roman
province.

Based on the above information, answer the following questions.


(i) If the Arch is represented by 10x2 – x – 3, then find its zeroes. (2)
(ii) Find the quadratic polynomial whose sum of zeroes is 0 and product of zeroes is 1. (2)
OR
(ii) Find the sum and product of zeroes of the polynomial √3 x2 – 14x + 8√3 (2)
Ans: (i) Put 10x2 – x – 3 = 0
⇒ 10x2 – 6x + 5x – 3 = 0
⇒ 2x(5x – 3) + 1(5x – 3)
⇒ (2x + 1) (5x – 3) = 0
⇒ x = -1/2, 3/5
(ii) Sum of zeroes = 0 and Product of zeroes = 1
Required polynomials = k[x2 – (sum)x + Product]
= k(x2 – 0x + 1)
= k(x2 + 1)
OR
(ii) Here a = 3 , b = - 14 and c = 8 3
b (14) 14
Sum of zeroes   
a 3 3

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c 8 3
Product of zeroes   8
a 3

20. The figure given alongside shows the path of a diver, when she takes a jump from the diving
board. Clearly it is a parabola. Annie was standing on a diving board, 48 feet above the water
level. She took a dive into the pool. Her height (in feet) above the water level at any time ‘t’ in
seconds is given by the polynomial h(t) such that h(t) = -16t² + 8t + k.

(i) What is the value of k? (2)


(ii) At what time will she touch the water in the pool? (2)
OR
(ii) Rita’s height (in feet) above the water level is given by another polynomial p(t) with zeroes -
1 and 2. Then find p(t) (2)
Ans: (i) Initially, at t = 0, Annie’s height is 48ft
So, at t = 0, h should be equal to 48
h(0) = -16(0)² + 8(0) + k = 48 ⇒ k = 48
(ii) When Annie touches the pool, her height = 0 feet
i.e. -16t² + 8t + 48 =0 above water level
2t² – t – 6 =0
⇒ 2t² – 4t +3t -6 =0
2t(t – 2) + 3(t – 2) =0
(2t + 3) (t – 2) = 0
i.e. t = 2 or t = -3/2
Since time cannot be negative, so t = 2seconds
OR
(ii) t = -1 & t = 2 are the two zeroes of the polynomial p(t)
Then p(t) = k(t + 1)(t – 2)
When t = 0 (initially) h₁ = 48ft
p(0) = k(0² - 0 - 2) = 48
⇒ -2k = 48
So the polynomial is -24(t² - t - 2) = -24t² + 24t + 48.

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KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA GACHIBOWLI, GPRA CAMPUS, HYD–32
PRACTICE PAPER 03 (2023-24)
CHAPTER 03 LINEAR EQUATIONS IN TWO VARIABLES
(ANSWERS)
SUBJECT: MATHEMATICS MAX. MARKS : 40
CLASS : X DURATION : 1½ hrs
General Instructions:
(i). All questions are compulsory.
(ii). This question paper contains 20 questions divided into five Sections A, B, C, D and E.
(iii). Section A comprises of 10 MCQs of 1 mark each. Section B comprises of 4 questions of 2 marks
each. Section C comprises of 3 questions of 3 marks each. Section D comprises of 1 question of 5
marks each and Section E comprises of 2 Case Study Based Questions of 4 marks each.
(iv). There is no overall choice.
(v). Use of Calculators is not permitted

SECTION – A
Questions 1 to 10 carry 1 mark each.

1. The pair of linear equations 2x + 3y = 5 and 4x + 6y = 10 is


(a) inconsistent (b) consistent
(c) dependent consistent (d) none of these
Ans: (c) dependent consistent

2. The pair of equations y = 0 and y = –7 has


(a) one solution (b) two solutions
(c) infinitely many solutions (d) no solution
Ans: (d) No solution (parallel lines)

3. The pair of equations x = 4 and y = 3 graphically represents lines which are


(a) parallel (b) intersecting at (3, 4)
(c) coincident (d) intersecting at (4, 3)
Ans: (d) When lines x = 4, y = 3 will intersect, then x coordinate = 4, y-coordinate = 3

4. A pair of linear equations which has a unique solution x = 2, y = –3 is


(a) x + y = –1; 2x – 3y = –5 (b) 2x + 5y = –11; 4x + 10y = –22
(c) 2x – y = 1 ; 3x + 2y = 0 (d) x – 4y – 14 = 0; 5x – y – 13 = 0
Ans: (b) 2x + 5y = – 11; 4x + 10y = – 22

5. If x = a, y = b is the solution of the pair of equations x – y = 2 and x + y = 4, then the respective


values of a and b are
(a) 3, 5 (b) 5, 3 (c) 3, 1 (d) –1, –3
Ans: (c) 3, 1
Adding both equations, we get 2x = 6 ⇒ x = 3
⇒y=4-3=1

6. The pair of equations ax + 2y = 7 and 3x + by = 16 represent parallel lines if


(a) a = b (b) 3a = 2b (c) 2a = 3b (d) ab = 6
Ans: (d) ab = 6

4 1
7. Using the following equations: + 6y = 10; – 6y = 5, find the value of p if p = 3x.
x x
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

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Ans: (a) 1
5 5 1
Adding both equations, we get  15  x  
x 15 3
1
 p  3x  3   1
3

8. The value of k for which the system of equations x + y – 4 = 0 and 2x + ky = 3, has no solution,
is
(a) – 2 (b) ≠ 2 (c) 3 (d) 2
Ans: (d) 2
1 1 4
For no solution,   k 2
2 k 3

In the following questions 9 and 10, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason
(R). Mark the correct choice as:
(a) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation of
assertion (A).
(b) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true but reason (R) is not the correct explanation of
assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.

9. Assertion (A): If the pair of lines are coincident, then we say that pair of lines is consistent and it
has a unique solution.
Reason (R): If the pair of lines are parallel, then the pair has no solution and is called
inconsistent pair of equations.
Ans: We know that if the lines are coincident, then it has infinite number of solutions
So, Assertion is false
We know that if the lines are parallel, then it has no solution.
So, reason is true.
Correct option is (d) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.

10. Assertion (A): The value of k for which the system of linear equations 3x – 4y = 7 and 6x - 8y =
k have infinite number of solution is 14.
Reason (R): The system of linear equations a1x + b1y + c1 = 0 and a2x + b2y + c2 = 0 have
a b
infinitely many solution if 1  1
a2 b2
Ans: We know that the system of linear equations

Correct option is (c) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.

SECTION – B
Questions 11 to 14 carry 2 marks each.
11. Solve for x and y: 2x + 3y = 7; 4x + 3y = 11
Ans: Given equation are
2x + 3y = 7 ...(i)

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4x + 3y = 11 ...(ii)
Here coefficients of y in both the equations are equal
Subtracting (i) and (ii), we get 2x = 4
⇒x=2
when x = 2, equation (i) becomes
2 × 2 + 3y = 7 ⇒ 3y = 3 ⇒ y = 1
Hence, the required solution is x = 2, y = 1

12. Find the values of a and b for which the following pair of linear equations has infinitely many
solutions:
2x + 3y = 7; (a + b)x + (2a – b)y = 21
Ans: Consider equations 2x + 3y = 7 and (a + b)x + (2a – b)y = 21
a b c
For infinitely many solutions, 1  1  1
a2 b2 c2
2 3 7
   ...(i)
a  b 2a  b 21
2 1 3 1
  and 
ab 3 2a  b 3
⇒ a + b = 6 and 2a – b = 9
Adding both we get 3a = 15
⇒a=5
⇒b=1
Hence, for a = 5 and b = 1, pair of equations has infinite solutions.

13. Find the value(s) of k so that the pair of equations x + 2y = 5 and 3x + ky + 15 = 0 has a unique
solution
Ans: x + 2y – 5 = 0 ...(i)
3x + ky + 15 = 0 ...(ii)
a1 = 1, b1 = 2, c1 = – 5
a2 = 3, b2 = k, c2 = 15
a b
For unique solution, 1  1
a2 b2
1 2
  k 6
3 k
So, given system of equations is consistent with unique solution for all values of k other than 6.

14. In the below Figure, ABCD is a rectangle. Find the values of x and y.

Ans: We know that the opposite sides of rectangle are equal.


∴ x + y = 30 and x – y = 14
Adding both equations we get, 2x = 44
⇒ x = 22 cm
Putting x = 22 in eq. (i), we have
22 + y = 30
⇒ y = 30 – 22 = 8
∴ x = 22 cm and y = 8 cm

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SECTION – C
Questions 15 to 17 carry 3 marks each.
15. The sum of the digits of a two digit number is 9. The number obtained by reversing the order of
digits of the given number exceeds the given number by 27. Find the given number.
Ans: Let the tens digit be x and unit place digit be y.
Number = 10x + y
According to the Question, x + y = 9 ...(i)
and 10y + x = 10x + y + 27 –9x + 9y = 27
– x + y = 3 ...(ii)
Adding (i) and (ii), we get 2y = 12
⇒y=6
Putting value of y in equation (i), we get x + 6 = 9
⇒x=9–6
⇒x=3
So, the given number is 36.

x 2y x 3y
16. Solve for x and y:   7;   11
4 3 6 5
x 2y 3x  8 y
Ans:  7 = 7  3x  8 y  84 ……….. (i)
4 3 12
x 3y 5 x  18 y
  11   11  5 x  18 y  330 ……….. (ii)
6 5 30
Multiplying (i) by 5 and (ii) by 3, we get
15x + 40y = 420
15x + 54y = 990
570 285
Subtracting both we get 14y = 570  y  
14 7
285
 3x  8   84  21x  2280  588
7
 21x  588  2280  1692
1692 564
x 
21 7
x y
17. Solve for x and y:   0; ax  by  a 2  b 2
a b
Ans: bx  ay  0 ………. (i)
ax  by  a 2  b 2 ………… (ii)
Multiplying (i) by b and (ii) by a, we get
b 2 x  aby  0
a 2 x  aby  a(a 2  b 2 )
Adding both equations we get, (a 2  b 2 ) x  a(a 2  b 2 )  x  a
 ab  ay  0  ab  ay  y  b

SECTION – D
Questions 18 carry 5 marks.
18. Solve the following system of equations graphically for x and y: 3x + 2y = 12; 5x – 2y = 4. Find
the co-ordinates of the points where the lines meet the y-axis.
Ans: 3 x  2 y  12  2 y  12  3x
12  3 x
 y
2

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The solution table for 3x + 2y = 12 is
x 0 1 2
y 6 4.5 3
5x  2 y  4  2 y  5x  4
5x  4
 y
2
The solution table for 5x – 2y = 4
x 0 1 2
y -2 ½ 3
Points where lines meet the y-axis are (0, 6), (0, –2).

SECTION – E (Case Study Based Questions)


Questions 19 to 20 carry 4 marks each.
19. A test consists of ‘True’ or ‘False’ questions. One mark is awarded for every correct answer
1
while mark is deducted for every wrong answer. A student knew answers to some of the
4
questions. Rest of the questions he attempted by guessing. He answered 120 questions and got 90
marks.
Type of Question Marks given for correct answer Marks deducted for wrong answer
True/False 1 0.25
(a) If answer to all questions he attempted by guessing were wrong, then how many questions
did he answer correctly?
(b) How many questions did he guess?
(c) If answer to all questions he attempted by guessing were wrong and answered 80 correctly,
then how many marks he got?
(d) If answer to all questions he attempted by guessing were wrong, then how many questions
answered correctly to score 95 marks?
Ans: Let the no. of questions whose answer is known to the student x and questions attempted
by cheating be y
x 1
According to the question, x + y = 120 and = 90
4y
Solving these two we get x = 96 and y = 24

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(a) He answered 96 questions correctly.
(b) He attempted 24 questions by guessing.
1
(c) Marks = 80 – of 40 = 70
4
1
d) x – of (120 – x) = 95
4
5x = 500, x = 100

20. Amit is planning to buy a house and the layout is given below. The design and the measurement
has been made such that areas of two bedrooms and kitchen together is 95 sq.m.

Based on the above information, answer the following questions:


(a) Form the pair of linear equations in two variables from this situation.
(b) Find the length of the outer boundary of the layout.
(c) Find the area of each bedroom and kitchen in the layout.
(d) Find the area of living room in the layout.
Ans: (a) Area of two bedrooms = 10 × sq m
Area of kitchen = 5y sq m
10x + 5y = 95
2x + y = 19
Also, x + 2 + y = 15
x + y = 13
(b) Length of outer boundary = 12 + 15 + 12 + 15 = 54 m
(c) On solving two equations part (a)
x = 6 m and y = 7 m
Area of bedroom = 5 × 6 = 30 m2
Area of kitchen = 5 × 7 = 35 m2
(d) Area of living room = (15 × 7) – 30 = 105 – 30 = 75 sq m

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KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA GACHIBOWLI, GPRA CAMPUS, HYD–32
PRACTICE PAPER 04 (2023-24)
CHAPTER 04 QUADRATIC EQUATIONS (ANSWERS)

SUBJECT: MATHEMATICS MAX. MARKS : 40


CLASS : X DURATION : 1½ hrs
General Instructions:
(i). All questions are compulsory.
(ii). This question paper contains 20 questions divided into five Sections A, B, C, D and E.
(iii). Section A comprises of 10 MCQs of 1 mark each. Section B comprises of 4 questions of 2 marks
each. Section C comprises of 3 questions of 3 marks each. Section D comprises of 1 question of 5
marks each and Section E comprises of 2 Case Study Based Questions of 4 marks each.
(iv). There is no overall choice.
(v). Use of Calculators is not permitted

SECTION – A
Questions 1 to 10 carry 1 mark each.

1. If a and b are the roots of the equation x2 + ax – b = 0, then find a and b.


(a) a = – 1 and b = 2 (b) a = 1 and b = 2
(c) a = – 2 and b = 1 (d) a = 2 and b = – 1
Ans: (a) a = – 1 and b = 2
B
Sum of the roots = a + b = =–a
A
C
Product of the roots = ab = = – b
A
⇒ a + b = – a and ab = – b
⇒ 2a = – b and a = –1 ⇒ b = 2 and a = – 1

2. Which of the following are the roots of the quadratic equation, x2 – 9x + 20 = 0?


(a) 3, 4 (b) 4, 5 (c) 5, 6 (d) 6, 7
2
Ans: (b) Given equation is x – 9x + 20 = 0
⇒ x2 – 5x – 4x + 20 = 0 ⇒ x(x – 5) – 4(x – 5) = 0
⇒ (x – 5) (x – 4) = 0 ⇒ either x – 5 = 0 and x – 4 = 0
⇒ x = 5 and x = 4
∴ x = 4 and 5 are the roots/solution of the given quadratic equation.

3. If (1 – p) is a root of the equation x2 + px + 1 – p = 0, then roots are


(a) 0, 1 (b) – 1, 1 (c) 0, – 1 (d) – 1, 2
Ans: (c) (1 – p) is a root
∴ (1 – p)2 + p (1 – p) + 1 – p = 0
⇒ (1 – p) [1 – p + p + 1] = 0
⇒ (1 – p) (2) = 0 ⇒ p = 1
x2 + x = 0
One root = 0 and another root = – 1
∴ roots are 0 and –1.

4. Which of the following equations has two distinct real roots?


9
(a) 2x2 – 3 2 x + = 0 (b) x2 + x – 5 = 0
4
(c) x2 + 3x + 2 2 = 0 (d) 5x2 – 3x + 1 = 0
Ans: (b) x2 + x – 5 = 0 as D > 0

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5. Which of the following equations has no real roots ?
(a) x2 – 4x + 3 2 = 0 (b) x2 + 4x – 3 2 = 0
(c) x2 – 4x – 3 2 = 0 (d) 3x2 + 4 3 x + 4 = 0
Ans: (a) x2 – 4x + 3 2 = 0 as D < 0

6. If the roots of ax2 + bx + c = 0 are equal in magnitude but opposite in sign, then
(a) a = 0 (b) b = 0 (c) c = 0 (d) none of these
b
Ans: (b) ∵ sum of roots = 0  0b0
a

7. If the roots of equation 3x2 + 2x + (p + 2) (p – 1) = 0 are of opposite sign then which of the
following cannot be the value of p?
1
(a) 0 (b) – 1 (c) (d) – 3
2
Ans: (d) ∵ roots are of opposite sign
∴ product of the roots is negative
⇒ (p + 2)(p – 1) should be negative.
Clearly when p = – 3, (p + 2) (p – 1) is not negative.

8. The value of k for which the equation x2 + 2(k + 1)x + k2 = 0 has equal roots is
1
(a) – 1 (b) – (c) 1 (d) none of these
2
Ans: (b) For equal roots, D = 0
⇒ [2(k + 1)]2 – 4 × k2 = 0
⇒ 4(k + 1)2 – 4k2 = 0
⇒ 4(k2 + 2k + 1) – 4k2 = 0
1
⇒ 8k + 4 = 0 ⇒ k = – .
2

In the following questions 9 and 10, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason
(R). Mark the correct choice as:
(a) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation of assertion (A).
(b)Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true but reason (R) is not the correct explanation of assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.
(d)Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.

2
9. Assertion (A): If one root of the quadratic equation 6x2 – x – k = 0 is , then the value of k is 2.
3
Reason (R): The quadratic equation ax2 + bx + c = 0, a ≠ 0 has almost two roots.
Ans: (a) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true but reason (R) is not the correct explanation
of assertion (A).

10. Assertion (A): The roots of the quadratic equation x2 + 2x + 2 = 0 are imaginary
Reason (R): If discriminant D = b2 – 4ac < 0 then the roots of quadratic equation ax2 + bx + c =
0 are imaginary.
Ans (a) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation of assertion
(A).

SECTION – B
Questions 11 to 14 carry 2 marks each.
11. Solve for x : 4x2 – 2(a2 + b2) x + a2 b2 = 0.

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Ans: 4x2 – 2(a2 + b2)x + a2b2 = 0
4x2 – 2a2x – 2b2x + a2b2 = 0
2x(2x – a2) – b2(2x – a2) = 0
(2x – a2) (2x – b2) = 0
a2 b2
x= ,x=
2 2

12. The sum of the squares of three consecutive positive integers is 50. Find the integers.
Ans: Let three consecutive positive integers be x, x + 1 and x + 2.
According to the question, x2 + (x + 1)2 + (x + 2)2 = 50
x2 + x2 + 2x + 1 + x2 + 4x + 4 = 50
3x2 + 6x – 45 = 0
x2 + 2x – 15 = 0
(x + 5)(x – 3) = 0
x = – 5 or x = 3
But x is positive integer, x ≠ – 5
Hence x = 3; when x = 3 integers are 3, 3 + 1, 3 + 2 i.e. 3, 4 and 5.

13. Find the value of such that the quadratic equation ( – 12)x2 + 2( – 12)x + 2 = 0, has equal
roots.
Ans: Here, a = – 12, b = 2( – 12), c = 2
For equal roots, D = 0 b2 – 4ac = 0
[2( – 12)]2 – 4 × [2( – 12)] = 0
2( – 12) [2( – 12) – 4] = 0
( – 12) (2 – 28) = 0
= 12, 14
= 12 not possible, take = 14

14. Find the value of p, for which one root of the quadratic equation px2 – 14x + 8 = 0 is 6 times the
other.
Ans: Let the root be α then other root will be 6α
⇒ Sum of the roots = −b/a
(14) 14 2
⇒ α + 6α = ⇒ 7α = ⇒ α= -------- ( 1 )
p p p
⇒ Product of the roots = c/a
2
8 8 2 8
⇒ α.6α = ⇒ 6α2 = ⇒6  = [ From ( 1 ) ]
p p  p p
2 8
⇒ 6× 2 = ⇒ p2  3 p  0
p p
⇒ p(p – 3) = 0 ⇒ p = 0, 3
If p = 0, then the given equation will not remain quadratic.
So, p = 0 is rejected. Hence, the value of p is 3.

SECTION – C
Questions 15 to 17 carry 3 marks each.
15. If – 5 is a root of the quadratic equation 2x2 + px – 15 = 0 and the quadratic equation p(x2 + x)
+ k = 0 has equal roots, find the value of k.
Ans: Since, – 5 is a root of equation
2x2 + px – 15 = 0
2(–5)2 + p(–5) – 15 = 0
50 – 5p – 15 = 0 p = 7

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p(x2 + x) + k = 0 becomes 7(x2 + x) + k = 0
7x2 + 7x + k = 0
7x2 + 7x + k = 0 has equal roots
D=0
(7)2 – 4 × 7 × k = 0
7
28k = 49 k =
4

16. If the equation (1 + m2)x2 + 2mcx + c2 – a2 = 0 has equal roots, then show that c2 = a2(1 + m2).
Ans: The given equation is
(1 + m2)x2 + 2mcx + c2 – a2 = 0
Here A = (1 + m2), B = 2mc, C = c2 – a2
We know that For equal roots, D = 0
⇒ B2 – 4AC = 0
⇒ (2mc)2 – 4(1 + m2)(c2 – a2) = 0
⇒ 4m2 c2 – 4(c2 – a2 +m2c2 – m2a2) = 0
⇒ 4m2c2 – 4c2 + 4a2 – 4m2c2 + 4m2a2 = 0
⇒ – 4c2 + 4a2 + 4m2a2 = 0
⇒ 4c2 – 4a2 – 4m2a2 = 0
⇒ c2 – a2 – m2a2 = 0
⇒ c2 = a2 + m2a2
⇒ c2 = a2(1+ m2)

1 1 1 1
17. Solve the following for x :   
2a  b  2 x 2a b 2 x
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
Ans:       
2 a  b  2 x 2a b 2 x 2a  b  2 x 2 x 2 a b
2 x  2a  b  2 x b  2a
 
(2a  b  2 x)(2 x) 2ab
(2a  b) 2a  b
 
(2a  b  2 x)(2 x) 2ab
1 1
 2

4ax  2bx  4 x 2ab
2
4x + 2bx + 4ax = –2ab
4x2 + 2bx + 4ax + 2ab = 0 2x(2x + b) + 2a(2x + b) = 0
b
(2x + b) (2x + 2a) = 0 x = – or x = – a
2

SECTION – D
Questions 18 carry 5 marks.
18. In a flight of 600 km, an aircraft was slowed due to bad weather. Its average speed for the trip
was reduced by 200 km/hr and time of flight increased by 30 minutes. Find the original duration
of flight.
Ans: Let original speed of the aircraft be x km/hr
Reduced speed = (x – 200) km/hr
600 600 30 1
According to given condition,   
x  200 x 60 2
600 x  600 x  120000 1 120000 1
   2 
x( x  200) 2 x  200 x 2
2
⇒ x – 200x = 240000
⇒ x2 – 200x – 240000 = 0

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⇒ x2 – 600x + 400x – 240000 = 0
⇒ x(x – 600) + 400(x – 600) = 0
⇒ (x + 400) (x – 600) = 0
⇒ x + 400 = 0 or x – 600 = 0
⇒ x = – 400 (rejected) or x = 600
∴ original speed = 600 km/hr
600
∴ original duration of flight = = 1 hour
600

SECTION – E (Case Study Based Questions)


Questions 19 to 20 carry 4 marks each.
19. Raj and Ajay are very close friends. Both the families decide to go to Ranikhet by their own cars.
Raj’s car travels at a speed of x km/h while Ajay’s car travels 5 km/h faster than Raj’s car. Raj
took 4 hours more than Ajay to complete he journey of 400 km.

(a) What will be the distance covered by Ajay’s car in two hours? (1)
(b) Which of the following quadratic equation describe the speed of Raj’s car? (2)
(c) What is the speed of Raj’s car? (1)
Ans: (a) Given, Raj’s car travel at a speed of x km/h.
Then Ajay’s car travels a distance in one hour is (x + 5) km.
Therefore, Ajay’s car travels a distance in two hours is 2(x + 5) km.
Distance
(b) We know that, Time =
Speed
400 400
Time taken by Ajay = and Time taken by Raj =
x5 x
400 400
According to the question, we have  4
x x5
100 100 100 x  500  100 x
  1 1
x x5 x( x  5)
500
  1  x 2  5 x  500  x 2  5 x  500  0
x ( x  5)
(c) x2 + 5x – 500 = 0
⇒ x2 + 25x – 20x – 500 = 0
⇒ x(x + 25) – 20(x + 25) = 0
⇒ (x + 25)(x – 20) = 0
⇒ x + 25 = 0 or x – 20 = 0
⇒ x = – 25 or x = 20
Since, speed cannot be negative, so we consider only, x = 20.
Hence, speed of Raj’s car is 20 km/h.

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20. John and Jivanti are playing with the marbles. They together have 45 marbles. Both of them lost
5 marbles each, and the product of the number of marbles they now have is 124.

(a) Find the quadratic equation related to the given problem (2)
(b) Find the Number of marbles John had. (2)
Ans: If John had x number of marbles, then Jivanti had (45 – x) marbles, because there are total
45 marbles.
Number of marbles left with John, when he lost 5 marbles = x – 5
Number of marbles left with Jivanti, when she lost 5 marbles
= (45 – x – 5) = (40 – x)
(a) According to question, (x – 5)(40 – x) = 124
⇒ – x2 – 200 + 40x + 5x – 124 = 0
⇒ x2 – 45x + 324 = 0
(b) x2 - 45x + 324 = 0
⇒ x2 – 9x – 36x + 324 = 0 ⇒ x(x – 9) – 36(x – 9) = 0
⇒(x – 9)(x – 36) = 0 ⇒ Either x = 9 or x = 36.
Therefore, the number of marbles John had 9 or 36.

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KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA GACHIBOWLI, GPRA CAMPUS, HYD–32
PRACTICE PAPER 05 (2023-24)
CHAPTER 05 ARITHMETIC PROGRESSION
(ANSWERS)
SUBJECT: MATHEMATICS MAX. MARKS : 40
CLASS : X DURATION : 1½ hrs
General Instructions:
(i). All questions are compulsory.
(ii). This question paper contains 20 questions divided into five Sections A, B, C, D and E.
(iii). Section A comprises of 10 MCQs of 1 mark each. Section B comprises of 4 questions of 2 marks
each. Section C comprises of 3 questions of 3 marks each. Section D comprises of 1 question of 5
marks each and Section E comprises of 2 Case Study Based Questions of 4 marks each.
(iv). There is no overall choice.
(v). Use of Calculators is not permitted

SECTION – A
Questions 1 to 10 carry 1 mark each.

1. In an AP, if a = 3.5, d = 0, n = 101, then an will be


(a) 0 (b) 3.5 (c) 103.5 (d) 104.5
Ans: (b) a101 = 3.5 + 0 (100) = 3.5

2. If p – 1, p + 3, 3p – 1 are in AP, then p is equal to ________.


(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 2 (d) none of these
Ans: ∵ p – 1, p + 3 and 3p – 1 are in AP.
∴ 2(p + 3) = p – 1 + 3p – 1
⇒ 2p + 6 = 4p –2.
⇒ –2p = –8 ⇒ p = 4.

3. In an AP, if d = –2, n = 5 and an = 0, the value of a is


(a) 10 (b) 5 (c) –8 (d) 8
Ans: (d) d = – 2, n = 5, an = 0
∵ an = 0
⇒ a + (n – 1)d = 0
⇒ a + (5 – 1)(– 2) = 0
⇒a=8
Correct option is (d).

4. If the common difference of an AP is 3, then a20 – a15 is


(a) 5 (b) 3 (c) 15 (d) 20
Ans: (c) Common difference, d = 3
a20 – a15 = (a + 19d) – (a + 14d) = 5d = 5 × 3 = 15

5. The next term of the AP 18, 50, 98,..... is


(a) 146 (b) 128 (c) 162 (d) 200
Ans: (c) 18, 50, 98,.....  3 2,5 2, 7 2,....
Next term is 9 2  162

1 1 p 1 2 p
6. The common difference of the AP , , ,.... .... is
p p p
(a) p (b) – p (c) –1 (d) 1

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1  p 1 1  p 1
Ans: (c) Common difference = a2 – a1 =    1
p p p

7. An AP consists of 31 terms. If its 16th term is m, then sum of all the terms of this AP is
(a) 16 m (b) 47 m (c) 31 m (d) 52 m
31
Ans: (c) S31  (2a  30d )
2
a16 = a + 15d = m
31
⇒ S31 = × 2(a + 15d) ⇒ S31 = 31m
2

8. If the sum of first n terms of an AP is An + Bn2 where A and B are constants, the common
difference of AP will be
(a) A + B (b) A – B (c) 2A (d) 2B
2
Ans: (d) Sn = An + Bn
S1 = A × 1 + B × 12 = A + B
∵ S1 = a1
∴ a1 = A + B ... (i)
and S1 = A × 2 + B × 22
⇒ a1 + a2 = 2A + 4B
⇒ (A + B) + a2 = 2A + 4B [Using (i)]
⇒ a2 = A + 3B
∴ d = a2 – a1 = 2B

In the following questions 9 and 10, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason
(R). Mark the correct choice as:
(a) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation of assertion (A).
(b)Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true but reason (R) is not the correct explanation of assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.
(d)Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.

9. Assertion (A): The sum of series with the nth term an= (9 – 5n) is 220 when no. of terms n = 6
n
Reason (R): Sum of first n terms in an A.P. is given by the formula: S n  [2a  (n  1)d ]
2
Ans: (a) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation of assertion
(A).

10. Assertion (A): The value of n, if a = 10, d = 5, an = 95 is 20


Reason (R): The formula of general term an is an = a + (n - 1)d.
Ans: (d) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.

SECTION – B
Questions 11 to 14 carry 2 marks each.
11. Determine k so that 4k + 8, 2k2 + 3k + 6 and 3k2 + 4k + 4 are three consecutive terms of an AP.
Ans: For consecutive terms of AP,
2(2k2 + 3k + 6) = (3k2 + 4k + 4) + (4k + 8)
4k2 + 6k + 12 = 3k2 + 8k + 12 k2 – 2k = 0
k(k – 2) = 0 k = 0 or k = 2

12. In an AP, the 24th term is twice the 10th term. Prove that the 36th term is twice the 16th term.
Ans: Let 1st term = a, common difference = d.
a10 = a + 9d, a24 = a + 23d

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According to the question, a24 = 2 × a10
a + 23d = 2(a + 9d) a + 23d = 2a + 18d a = 5d
Now, a16 = a + 15d = 5d + 15d = 20d ...(i)
a36 = a + 35d = 5d + 35d = 40d ...(ii)
From (i) and (ii), we get
a36 = 2 × a16 Hence proved.

13. Find 10th term from end of the AP 4, 9, 14, .... , 254.
Ans: 10th term from end of AP 4, 9, 14, ..., 254 is 10th term of the AP 254, 249, 244, ... 14, 9, 4
Here a = 254
d = 249 – 254 = –5
a10 = a + 9d a10 = 254 + 9 × (–5) = 209

14. If the sum of first n terms of an AP is given by Sn = 3n2 + 2n, find the nth term of the AP.
Ans: Given: Sn = 3n2 + 2n. Let an be the nth term.
an = Sn – Sn – 1 = (3n2 + 2n) – {3(n – 1)2 + 2(n – 1)} = 3n2 + 2n – 3n2 + 6n – 3 – 2n + 2
Hence, an = 6n – 1.

SECTION – C
Questions 15 to 17 carry 3 marks each.

15. Find the value of the middle term of the following AP: –6, –2, 2, ..., 58.
Ans: Here, a = – 6, d = – 2 + 6 = 4 and an = 58
an = 58
a + (n – 1)d = 58 – 6 + (n – 1)4 = 58
(n – 1)4 = 64 n – 1 = 16 n = 17 (odd)
17  1 18
Middle term =  = 9th term
2 2
9th term is the middle term.
Now, a9 = a + 8d = –6 + 8 × 4 = –6 + 32 = 26

1 2
16. Which term of the progression 19, 18 ,17 ,... ... is the first negative term.
5 5
1 2
Ans: The given expression is 19, 18 ,17 ,...
5 5
91 91  95 4
Here, a2 – a1 =  19  
5 5 5
87 91 4
a3 – a2 =  
5 5 5
4
Therefore, (i) is an AP with a = 19, d =
5
Let the nth term of the given AP be the first negative term. Then, nth term < 0.
4
Tn < 0 19  (n  1) 0
5
3
(99 – 4n) < 0 4n > 99 n > 24
4
n = 25, i.e. 25th term is the first negative term in the given AP.

17. If the pth, qth, rth terms of an AP be x, y, z respectively, show that x(q – r) + y(r – p) + z(p – q) =
0.
Ans: Let a be the first term and d be the common difference of the AP.
ap = x a + (p – 1) d = x ...(i)

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aq = y a + (q – 1) d = y ...(ii)
ar = z a + (r – 1) d = z ...(iii)
Substituting the values of x, y and z from (i), (ii) and (iii), we get
x(q – r) + y(r – p) + z(p – q)
= [a + (p – 1)d] (q – r) + [a + (q – 1)d] (r – p) + [a + (r – 1)d] (p – q)
= a[(q – r) + (r – p) + (p – q)] + d [(p – 1) (q – r) + (q – 1)(r – p) + (r – 1) (p – q)]
= a(0) + d [p(q – r) + q (r – p) + r (p – q) – (q – r + r – p + p – q)] = d(0 – 0) = 0.

SECTION – D
Questions 18 carry 5 marks.
18. If S1, S2, S3 are the sum of n terms of three APs, the first term of each being unity and the
respective common difference being 1, 2, 3; prove that S1 + S3 = 2S2.
Ans: Here d1 = 1, d2 = 2, d3 = 3
Ist term, a = 1
n n n
S1 = [2 × 1 + (n – 1)d1] = [2 + (n – 1)1] = (n + 1)
2 2 2
n n
S2 = [2 × 1 + (n – 1)d2] = [2 + (n – 1)2] = n2
2 2
n n
S3 = [2 × 1 + (n – 1)3] = [3n – 1]
2 2
n n n n
Now S1 + S3 = (n + 1) + (3n – 1) = (n + 1 + 3n – 1) = × 4n = 2n2 ...(i)
2 2 2 2
2
and 2 × S2 = 2 × n ...(ii)
From (i) and (ii), we have
S1 + S3 = 2S2

SECTION – E (Case Study Based Questions)


Questions 19 to 20 carry 4 marks each.
19. Aditya is a fitness freak and great athlete. He always wants to make his nation proud by winning
medals and prizes in the athletic activities.

An upcoming activity for athletes was going to be organised by Railways. Aditya wants to
participate in 200 m race. He can currently run that distance in 51 seconds. But he wants to
increase his speed, so to do it in 31 seconds. With each day of practice, it takes him 2 seconds
less.
(i) He wants to makes his best time as 31 sec. In how many days will be able to achieve his
target? (2)
(ii) What will be the difference between the time taken on 5th day and 7th day. (2)
OR
(ii) Which term of the arithmetic progression 3, 15, 27, 39 .... will be 120 more than its 21st
term? (2)

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Ans: Ans:
(i) Let, the number of days taken to achieve the target be n.
In the given A.P., a = 51, d = – 2
Since an = a + (n – 1)d ⇒ 31 = 51 + (n – 1)(– 2)
⇒ 31 – 51 = (n – 1)(– 2) ⇒ – 20 = (n – 1) (– 2)
⇒ (n – 1) = 10 ⇒ n = 11
Hence, 11 days are needed to achieve the target.
(ii) a5 = a + 4d = 51 + 4(– 2) = 51 – 8 = 43 sec
a7 = a + 6d = 51 + 6(– 2) = 51 – 12 = 39 sec
Now, time difference = 43 – 39 = 4 sec.
OR
(ii) We have, a = 3 and d = 12
∴ a21 = a + 20d = 3 + 20 × 12 = 243
Let nth term of the given AP be 120 more than its 21st term. Then, an = 120 + a21
⇒ 3 + (n – 1)d = 120 + 243
⇒ 3 + 12(n – 1) = 363 ⇒ 12(n – 1) = 360
⇒ n – 1 = 30 ⇒ n = 31
Hence, 31st term of the given AP is 120 more than its 21st term.

20. In the month of April to June 2022, the exports of passenger cars from India increased by 26% in
the corresponding quarter of 2021–22, as per a report. A car manufacturing company planned to
produce 1800 cars in 4th year and 2600 cars in 8th year. Assuming that the production increases
uniformly by a fixed number every year.

Based on the above information answer the following questions.


(i) Find the production in the 1st year. (1)
(ii) Find the production in the 12th year. (1)
(iii) Find the total production in first 10 years. (2)
OR
(iii) In how many years will the total production reach 31200 cars? (2)
Ans: (i) Since the production increases uniformly by a fixed number every year, the number of
Cars manufactured in 1st, 2nd, 3rd, . . .,years will form an AP.
So, a + 3d = 1800 & a + 7d = 2600
So d = 200 & a = 1200
(ii) a12 = a + 11d ⇒ a30 = 1200 + 11 × 200
⇒ a12 = 3400
n 10
(iii) S n  [2a  (n  1) d ]  S10  [2  1200  (10  1)  200]
2 2
 S10  5[2400  1800]  5  4200  21000
OR
n
S n  [2a  (n  1) d ]  31200
2

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n
 [2  1200  ( n  1)  200]  31200
2
n
  200[12  ( n  1)]  31200
2
⇒ n[12 + (n − 1) ] = 312
⇒ n2 + 11n – 312 = 0
⇒ n2 + 24n – 13n – 312 = 0
⇒ (n +24)(n – 13) = 0
⇒ n = 13 or – 24.
As n can’t be negative. So n = 13

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KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA GACHIBOWLI, GPRA CAMPUS, HYD–32
PRACTICE PAPER 06 (2023-24)
CHAPTER 06 TRIANGLES (ANSWERS)

SUBJECT: MATHEMATICS MAX. MARKS : 40


CLASS : X DURATION : 1½ hrs
General Instructions:
(i). All questions are compulsory.
(ii). This question paper contains 20 questions divided into five Sections A, B, C, D and E.
(iii). Section A comprises of 10 MCQs of 1 mark each. Section B comprises of 4 questions of 2 marks
each. Section C comprises of 3 questions of 3 marks each. Section D comprises of 1 question of 5
marks each and Section E comprises of 2 Case Study Based Questions of 4 marks each.
(iv). There is no overall choice.
(v). Use of Calculators is not permitted

SECTION – A
Questions 1 to 10 carry 1 mark each.

AD AE
1. In the given figure,  and ∠ADE = 70°, ∠BAC = 50°, then angle ∠BCA =
BD EC

(a) 70° (b) 50° (c) 80° (d) 60°


Ans: (d) ∵ DE || BC
∴ ∠ABC = 70º. (Corresponding angles)
Using angle sum property of triangle ∠ABC + ∠BCA + ∠BAC = 180°
∠BCA = 60º.

2. In given figure, AD = 3 cm, AE = 5 cm, BD = 4 cm, CE = 4 cm, CF = 2 cm, BF = 2.5 cm, then

(a) DE || BC (b) DF || AC (c) EF || AB (d) none of these


CF CE
Ans: (c)   EF || AB
FB AE

3. If ΔABC ~ ΔEDF and ΔABC is not similar to ΔDEF, then which of the following is not true?
(a) BC . EF = AC . FD
(b) AB . EF = AC . DE
(c) BC . DE = AB . EF
(d) BC . DE = AB . FD
Ans: (c) ∵ ΔABC ~ ΔEDF
AB BC AC
Then,  
ED DF EF
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⇒ AB.DF = ED.BC
or AB.EF = AC.ED
or BC.EF = DF.AC
∴ BC.DE ≠ AB.EF

AB BC CA

4. If in two triangles ABC and PQR,  , then
QR PR PQ
(a) ΔPQR ~ ΔCAB (b) ΔPQR ~ ΔABC (c) ΔCBA ~ ΔPQR (d) ΔBCA ~ ΔPQR
Ans: (a) ΔPQR ~ ΔCAB

AB BC
5. If in triangles ABC and DEF,  , then they will be similar, when
DE FD
(a) ∠B = ∠E (b) ∠A = ∠D (c) ∠B = ∠D (d) ∠A = ∠F
Ans: (c) ∠B = ∠D

6. The perimeters of two similar triangles are 25 cm and 15 cm respectively. If one side of first
triangle is 9 cm., what is the corresponding side of the other triangle?
(a) 5.4 (b) 3.5 (c) 5.5 (d) 4.5
Ans: (a) 5.4
Let corresponding sides of two similar Δ’s are a, b, c and d, e, f respectively, let a = 9 cm.
Δ’s are similar
a b c a bc a
    (Using property of proportion)
d e f d e f d
25 9 9 15
  d   5.4cm
15 d 25

7. In figure DE || BC. If BD = x – 3, AB = 2x. CE = x – 2 and AC = 2x + 3. Find x.

(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 9 (d) none of these


Ans: (c) 9
In ΔABC, DE || BC

(x – 2)(x + 3) = (x + 5)(x – 3) x2 + x – 6 = x2 + 2x – 15
x=9 x = 9 cm

8. In the figure, AP = 3 cm, AR = 4.5 cm, AQ = 6 cm, AB = 5 cm and AC = 10 cm. Find the length
of AD.

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(a) 6.5 (b) 7.5 (c) 5.5 (d) 4.5
Ans: (b) 7.5
AP 3
In ΔABC,  ...(i)
AB 5
AQ 6 3
  ...(ii)
AC 10 5
From (i) and (ii),
AP AQ
 ⇒ PQ || BC
AB AC
(By converse of BPT)
In ΔABD, PR || BD
AP AR 3 4.5
 (By BPT)    AD  7.5cm
AB AD 5 AD

In the following questions 9 and 10, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason
(R). Mark the correct choice as:
(a) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation of assertion (A).
(b)Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true but reason (R) is not the correct explanation of assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.
(d)Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.

9. Assertion (A): D and E are points on the sides AB and AC respectively of a ΔABC such that
DE║BC then the value of x is 11, when AD = 4cm, DB = (x – 4) cm, AE = 8cm and EC = (3x –
19) cm.
Reason (R): If a line divides any two sides of a triangle in the same ratio then it is parallel to the
third side.
Ans: (b) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true but reason (R) is not the correct explanation
of assertion (A).

10. Assertion (A): D and E are points on the sides AB and AC respectively of a ΔABC such that AD
= 5.7cm, DB = 9.5cm, AE = 4.8cm and EC = 8cm then DE is not parallel to BC.
Reason (R): If a line divides any two sides of a triangle in the same ratio then it is parallel to the
third side.
Ans: (d) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.

SECTION – B
Questions 11 to 14 carry 2 marks each.
11. In figure, ΔABD is a right triangle, right angled at A and AC ⊥ BD. Prove that AB2 = BC.BD.

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Ans: In Δ DAB, and ΔACB
DAB = ACB = 90°
B = B (common)
ΔDAB ~ ΔACB
AD AB BD AB BD
   
AC BC AB BC AB
AB2 = BC.BD Hence proved.

12. In ΔABC, D and E are points on the sides AB and AC respectively, such that DE || BC. If AD
= x, DB = x – 2, AE = x + 2 and EC = x – 1, Find the value of x.
Ans: In ΔABC, DE || BC (Given)

AD AE
 (By BPT)
DB EC
x x2

x  2 x 1
x(x – 1) = (x + 2) (x – 2)
x2 – x = x2 – 22 x2 – x = x2 – 4
x=4

13. In the figure, PQR and QST are two right triangles, right angled at R and T respectively. Prove
that QR × QS = QP × QT

Ans: In ΔPRQ and ΔSTQ


Q = Q (common)
R = T (each 90°)
ΔPRQ ~ DSTQ (SS similarity corollary)
QR QP
 QR × QS = QP × QT
QT QS

14. In the given figure, ABC is a triangle, right angled at B and BD ⊥ AC. If AD = 4 cm and CD = 5
cm, find BD and AB.

Ans: Here ΔADB ~ ΔBDC


AD BD
 AD × CD = BD × BD
BD CD
4 × 5 = BD2

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BD = (2 5)2 cm
In right ΔBDA
AB2 = BD2 + AD2
AB2 = (2 5)2 + 42
AB2 = 36 AB = 6 cm

SECTION – C
Questions 15 to 17 carry 3 marks each.

15. In figure, two triangles ABC and DBC lie on the same side of base BC. P is a point on BC such
that PQ || BA and PR || BD. Prove that QR || AD.

Ans:
Given : In ΔABC, PQ || AB and PR || BD
To prove : QR || AD
CP CQ
Proof : By BPT  ...(i)
BP AQ
Now in ΔBCD, PR || BD
CP CR
By using BPT  …(ii)
BP RD
CQ CR
From (i) and (ii),  By converse of BPT, QR || AD
AQ RD

16. P and Q are points on the sides AB and AC respectively of a triangle ABC. If AP = 2 cm, PB = 4
cm, AQ = 3cm, QC = 6 cm, prove that BC = 3PQ.
AP 2 1 AQ 3 1
Ans:   ...(i)   ...(ii)
PB 4 2 QC 6 2
AP AQ
From (i) and (ii)  PQ || BC
PB QC
In ΔABC and ΔAPQ.
AB AC
 ( PQ || BC)
AP AQ
A = A (Common)
ΔABC ~ ΔAPQ, (SAS similarity)
AB BC AP  PB BC
 
AP PQ AP PQ
2  4 BC 6 BC 1
   BC = 3PQ. Hence proved.
2 PQ 2 PQ 3

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1
17. In figure, D and E are points on AB and AC respectively, such that DE || BC. If AD = BD, AE
3
= 4.5 cm, find AC.

1
Ans: Here AD = BD,
3
AE = 4.5 cm, DE || BC
AD AE
 (using B.P.T.)
BD EC
1
BD
3 4.5

BD EC
1 4.5

3 EC
EC = 4.5 × 3 cm
EC = 13.5 cm
Now AC = AE + EC = 4.5 + 13.5 = 18 cm

SECTION – D
Questions 18 carry 5 marks.
18. If a line is drawn parallel to one side of a triangle, the other two sides are divided in the same
ratio, prove it. Use this result to prove the following :
AE BF
In the given figure, if ABCD is a trapezium in which AB || DC || EF, then 
ED FC

Ans: Given - ½ mark


To prove - ½ mark
Figure - ½ mark
Construction - ½ mark
Proof – 2 marks

Second part - 1 mark


Join BD intersecting EF at G.
In ΔDAB, EG || AB
AE BG
 (Using B.P.T.) ...(i)
ED GD

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In ΔDBC, GF || DC
BG BF
 ...(ii)
GD FC
AE BF
From (i) and (ii) 
ED FC

SECTION – E (Case Study Based Questions)


Questions 19 to 20 carry 4 marks each.
19. On one day, a poor girl of height 90 cm is looking for a lamp-post for completing her homework
as in her area power is not there and she finds the same at some distance away from her home.
After completing the homework, she is walking away from the base of a lamp-post at a speed of
1.2 m/s. The lamp is 3.6 m above the ground (see below figure).

(i) Find her distance from the base of the lamp post. (2)
(ii) Find the length of her shadow after 4 seconds. (2)
OR
(ii) Find the ratio AC:CE. (2)
Ans:
(i) Let AB denote the lamp-post and CD the girl after walking for 4 seconds away from the lamp-
post. From the figure, DE is the shadow of the girl.
Let DE be x metres.
Now, her distance from the base of the lamp =
BD = 1.2 m × 4 = 4.8 m.
(ii) ABE ~ CDE
BE AB 4.8  x 3.6
     4.8  x  4 x  3 x  4.8  x  1.6m
DE CD x 0.9
OR
AE BE 4.8  1.6 6.4
   4
CE DE 1.6 1.6
 AE  4CE  AC  CE  4CE  AC  3CE
AC 3
 
CE 1

20. Vijay is trying to find the average height of a tower near his house. He is using the properties of
similar triangles. The height of Vijay’s house if 20 m when Vijay’s house casts a shadow 10 m
long on the ground. At the same time, the tower casts a shadow 50 m long on the ground and the
house of Ajay casts 20 m shadow on the ground.

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(a) What is the height of the tower? (1)
(b) What is the height of Ajay’s house? (1)
(c) What will be the length of the shadow of the tower when Vijay’s house casts a shadow of 12
m? (2)
OR
(c) When the tower casts a shadow of 40 m, same time what will be the length of the shadow of
Ajay’s house? (2)
Ans:
(a) When two corresponding angles of two triangles are similar, then ratio of sides are equal.
Height of Vijay's house/Length of Shadow = Height of Tower/Length of Shadow
⇒ 20 m/10 m = Height of Tower/50 m
⇒ Height of Tower = 20 × 50/10 = 100 m
(b) Height of Vijay's house/Length of Shadow = Height of Ajay's house/Length of Shadow
20 m/10 m = Height of Ajay's house/20 m
Height of Ajay's house = 20 × 20/10 = 400/10 = 40m
(c) The height of Vijay’s house is AC = 20m.
The height of the tower is A’C’ = 100m.
The length of shadow of Vijay’s house is AB = 12cm.
∵ A′B′/A B = A′C′/A C
⇒ A′B′ = AB/A C × A′C′ = 12/20 × 100 = 12 x 5 = 60m
OR
(c) The height of tower is A’C’= 100m.
And the height of Ajay’s house is PR = 40m
The length of shadow of tower is A’B’= 40m.
The length of shadow of Ajay’s house is PQ.
∵ ΔA′B′C′ and ΔPQR are similar triangles.
∴ PQ/A′B′ = PR/A′C′
⇒ PQ = (PR/A′C′) × A′B′ = 40 × 40 /100 = 16m

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KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA GACHIBOWLI, GPRA CAMPUS, HYD–32
PRACTICE PAPER 07 (2023-24)
CHAPTER 07 COORDINATE GEOMETRY
(ANSWERS)
SUBJECT: MATHEMATICS MAX. MARKS : 40
CLASS : X DURATION : 1½ hrs
General Instructions:
(i). All questions are compulsory.
(ii). This question paper contains 20 questions divided into five Sections A, B, C, D and E.
(iii). Section A comprises of 10 MCQs of 1 mark each. Section B comprises of 4 questions of 2 marks
each. Section C comprises of 3 questions of 3 marks each. Section D comprises of 1 question of 5
marks each and Section E comprises of 2 Case Study Based Questions of 4 marks each.
(iv). There is no overall choice.
(v). Use of Calculators is not permitted

SECTION – A
Questions 1 to 10 carry 1 mark each.

1. If the distance between the points (4, p) and (1, 0) is 5 units, then the value of p is
(a) 4 only (b) ± 4 (c) –4 only (d) 0
Ans: (b) ± 4
(4  1)2  ( p  0)2 = 5
⇒ 32 + p2 = 52 ⇒ p2 = 25 – 9 = 16 ⇒ p = ± 4

2. The points (2, 5), (4, – 1) and (6, – 7) are vertices of an/a
(a) isosceles triangle (b) equilateral triangle (c) right-angled triangle (d) none of these
Ans:(d) Let A(2, 5), B(4, –1) and C(6, –7)

∴ AB + BC = AC.
∴ A, B and C are collinear.

3. AOBC is a rectangle whose three vertices are A(0, 3), O(0, 0) and B(5, 0). The length of its
diagonal is
(a) 5 (b) 3 (c) 34 (d) 4
Ans: (c) 34

4. The perimeter of a triangle with vertices (0, 4), (0, 0) and (3, 0) is
(a) 5 (b) 12 (c) 11 (d) 7 + 5
Ans: (b) 12

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Perimeter of ΔABC = AB + BC + AC
=4+3+ 4 2  32 = 7 + 25 = 7 + 5 = 12

5. The ratio in which x-axis divides the join of (2, -3) and (5, 6) is:
(a) 1: 2 (b) 3 : 4 (c) 1: 3 (d) 1: 5
Ans: (a) 1 : 2
Let P(x, 0) be the point on x-axis which divides the join of (2, -3) and (5, 6) in the ratio k : 1.
∴ By section formula,
 5k  2 6k  3 
P(x, 0) =  , 
 k 1 k 1 
6k  3 1
 y0  0  6k  3  0  k 
k 1 2

a 
6. If P  , 4  is the mid-point of the line segment joining the points Q (– 6, 5) and R (–2, 3), then
3 
the value of a is
(a) –4 (b) –12 (c) 12 (d) –6
Ans: (b) –12
6  2 5  3
(b) Mid-point of QR = , = (– 4, 4)
2 2
a 
P =  , 4
3 
a
So, = – 4 ⇒ a = – 12
3

7. If P(2, p) is the mid-point of the line segment joining the points A(6, –5) and B(–2, 11), find the
value of p.
(a) 5 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
Ans: (c) 3
P(2, p) is the mid-point of A(6, –5) and B(–2, 11)
 6  2 5  11 
 ,   (2, p )
 2 2 
 (2,3)  (2, p )  p  3

8. Find the value of k if P(4, –2) is the mid-point of the line segment joining the points A(5k, 3) and
B(–k, –7).
(a) 4 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 5
Ans: (b) 2
P(4, – 2) is mid-point of A(5k, 3) and B(– k, – 7)
 5k  k 3  7 
 ,  = (4, – 2)
 2 2 
(2k, – 2) = (4, – 2) 2k = 4 k = 2.

In the following questions 9 and 10, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason
(R). Mark the correct choice as:

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(a) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation of assertion (A).
(b)Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true but reason (R) is not the correct explanation of assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.
(d)Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.

9. Assertion (A): The value of y is 3, if the distance between the points P(2, -3) and Q(10, y) is 10.
Reason (R): Distance between two points is given by ( x2  x1 ) 2  ( y2  y1 )2
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of
Assertion (A).
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of
Assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true.
Ans: (a) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation of
assertion (A)
For y = 3
Distance PQ  (10  2)2  ( y  3)2  82  62  64  36  100  10 units

10. Assertion (A): The point (–1, 6) divides the line segment joining the points (–3, 10) and (6, –8)
in the ratio 2 : 7 internally.
Reason (R): Given three points, i.e. A, B, C form an equilateral triangle, then AB = BC = AC.
(a) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation of
assertion (A)
(b) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is not the correct explanation of
assertion (A)
(c) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.
Ans: (b) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is not the correct explanation
of assertion (A)

SECTION – B
Questions 11 to 14 carry 2 marks each.
11. Find the point on y-axis which is equidistant from the points (5, – 2) and (–3, 2).
Ans: Let point on y-axis be (0, a)
Now distance of this point from (5, –2) is equal to distance from point (–3, 2)
i.e., 52  (2  a )2  32  (a  2) 2
Squaring and simplifying, we get
25 + 4 + a2 + 4a = 9 + a2 + 4 – 4a 8a = –16 a = –2
Hence, the required point is (0, –2)

12. The centre of a circle is (2 – 1, 7) and it passes through the point (– 3, –1). If the diameter of the
circle is 20 units, then find the value of .
Ans: Here, OA = 10 units

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OA = (2  1  3)2  (7  1)2
10 = 4 2  4  8  64
Squaring 100 = 4 2 + 8 + 68
4 2 + 8 – 32 = 0 2
+2 –8=0
2
+4 –2 –8=0 ( + 4) – 2( + 4) = 0 ( + 4) ( – 2) = 0
= – 4, = 2

13. Points A(3, 1), B(5, 1), C(a, b) and D(4, 3) are vertices of a parallelogram ABCD. Find the
values of a and b.
Ans:

14. If the point C (–1, 2) divides the line segment AB in the ratio 3 : 4, where the coordinates of A
are (2, 5), find the coordinates of B.
Ans:

Coordinates of B are (–5, –2).

SECTION – C
Questions 15 to 17 carry 3 marks each.

15. Show that the points A(1, 2), B(5, 4), C(3, 8) and D (–1, 6) are the vertices of a square.
Ans: A(1, 2), B (5, 4),C(3, 8) and D (–1, 6)

Here AB = BC = CA = DA

All sides of quadrilateral are equal and diagonals are equal.


ABCD is square.

AP 1
16. Point P divides the line segment joining the points A(2, 1) and B(5, –8) such that  . If P
AB 3
lies on the line 2x – y + k = 0, find the value of k.
Ans:

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P is the point of intersection of line segment AB and line 2x – y + k = 0.
AP 1
Such that  3AP = AB
AB 3
3AP = AP + PB 2AP = PB
AP 1
 AP : PB = 1 : 2
PB 2
P divides the join of A(2, 1) and B(5, – 8) in the ratio 1 : 2.
 5  4 2 8 
Coordinates of point P are  ,  i.e., P (3, – 2)
 1 2 1 2 
As point P lies on the line 2x – y + k = 0
6+2+k=0 k=–8

1 
17. If point  , y  lies on the line segment joining the points A(3, –5) and B(–7, 9), then find the
2 
ratio in which P divides AB. Also find the value of y.
Ans:

Let P divides AB in the ratio k : 1.


 7 k  3 9k  5   1 
 ,    , y
 k 1 k 1   2 
7 k  3 1
 
k 1 2
– 14k + 6 = k + 1
1
– 15k = – 5 k = .
3
1
Ratio is k : 1, i.e., : 1 1 : 3
3
1
9  5
9k  5 3 6 3
and y =   
k 1 1 4 2
1
3

SECTION – D
Questions 18 carry 5 marks.
18. Find the vertices of a triangle, the mid-points of whose sides are (3, 1), (5, 6) and (– 3, 2).
Ans: Let the vertices of ΔABC be A(x1, y1), B(x2, y2) and C(x3, y3).

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Let D(3, 1), E(5, 6) and F(– 3, 2) be the mid-points of BC, CA and AB respectively.
x x
Then 2 3 = 3 x2 + x3 = 6 ...(i)
2
y2  y3
= 1 y2 + y3 = 2 ...(ii)
2
x3  x1 y y
= 5 x3 + x1 = 10 ...(iii) and 3 1 = 6 y1 + y3 = 12 ...(iv)
2 2
x1  x2 y y
= – 3 x1 + x2 = – 6 ...(v) and 1 2 = 2 y1 + y2 = 4 ...(vi)
2 2
Adding (i), (iii) and (v), we get
2(x1 + x2 + x3) = 10 x1 + x2 + x3 = 5 ...(vii)
Subtracting (i), (iii), (v) separately from (vii), we get x1 = – 1, x2 = – 5, x3 = 11
Adding (ii), (iv) and (vi), we get
2(y1 + y2 + y3) = 18 y1 + y2 + y3 = 9 ...(viii)
Subtracting (ii), (iv) and (vi) separately from (viii), we get y1 = 7, y2 = – 3, y3 = 5.
Hence, the vertices of the triangle ABC are A(– 1, 7), B(– 5, – 3) and C(11, 5).

SECTION – E (Case Study Based Questions)


Questions 19 to 20 carry 4 marks each.
19. In order to conduct sports day activities in your school, lines have been drawn with chalk powder
at a distance of 1 m each in a rectangular shaped ground ABCD. 100 flower pots have been
placed at the distance of 1 m from each other along AD, as shown in the following figure.
1 1
Niharika runs ( )th distance AD on the 2nd line and posts a green Flag. Preet runs ( ) th
4 5
distance AD on the eighth line and posts are red flags. Taking A as the origin AB along x-axis
and AD along y-axis, answer the following questions:

(i) Find the coordinates of the green flag. (1)

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(ii) Find the distance between the two flags. (1)
(iii) If Rashmi has to post a blue flag exactly halfway between the line segment joining the two
flags, where should she post her flag? (2)
OR
(iii) If Joy has to post a flag at one fourth distance from the green flag, in the line segment
joining the green and red flags, then where should he post his flag? (2)

 1 
Ans: (i) Position of the red flag is  2, 100   (2, 25)
 4 
(ii) Distance between the two flags = (36  25) = 61cm
 2  8 25  20 
(iii) Position of the blue flag =  , 
 2 2 
  5, 22.5 
OR

Required point is (3.5, 23.75)

20. The diagrams show the plans for a sun room. It will be built onto the wall of a house. The four
walls of the sunroom are square clear glass panels. The roof is made using
• Four clear glass panels, trapezium in shape, all the same size
• One tinted glass panel, half a regular octagon in shape

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Refer to Top View for (i) only:
(i) Find the mid-point of the segment joining the points J (6, 17) and I (9, 16). (1)
Refer to Front View for (ii) to (iii):
(ii) Find the distance between the points A and S. (1)
(iii) Find the co-ordinates of the point which divides the line segment joining the points A and B
in the ratio 1:3 internally. (2)
OR
(iii) If a point (x,y) is equidistant from the Q(9,8) and S(17,8),then find the relation between x
and y. (2)
 6  9 17  16   15 33 
Ans: (i) Mid-point of JI =  ,  , 
 2 2   2 2
(ii) Distance between A and S = 16 boxes.
(iii) Coordinates of A and B are (1, 8) and (5, 10) respectively.
Coordinates of point dividing AB in the ratio 1 : 3 internally are:
1  5  3 1 1 10  3  8 8 34
x ,y  x   2, y   8.5
1 3 1 3 4 4
Co-ordinates of required points be (2, 8.5)
OR
(iii) Let P (x,y) is equidistant from the Q(9,8) and S(17,8) then we have
PQ = PS ⇒ PQ2 = PS2
⇒ (x – 9)2 + (y – 8)2 = (x – 17)2 + (y – 8)2
⇒ (x – 9)2 = (x – 17)2
⇒ x2 – 18x + 81 = x2 – 34x + 289
⇒ 34x – 18x + 81 – 289 = 0
⇒ 16x – 208 = 0
⇒ x – 13 = 0

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KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA GACHIBOWLI, GPRA CAMPUS, HYD–32
PRACTICE PAPER 08 (2023-24)
CHAPTER 08 & 09 TRIGONOMETRY (ANSWERS)

SUBJECT: MATHEMATICS MAX. MARKS : 40


CLASS : X DURATION : 1½ hrs
General Instructions:
(i). All questions are compulsory.
(ii). This question paper contains 20 questions divided into five Sections A, B, C, D and E.
(iii). Section A comprises of 10 MCQs of 1 mark each. Section B comprises of 4 questions of 2 marks
each. Section C comprises of 3 questions of 3 marks each. Section D comprises of 1 question of 5
marks each and Section E comprises of 2 Case Study Based Questions of 4 marks each.
(iv). There is no overall choice.
(v). Use of Calculators is not permitted

SECTION – A
Questions 1 to 10 carry 1 mark each.

1. If 3 cot θ = 2, then the value of tan θ


2 3 3 2
(a) (b) (c) (d)
3 2 13 13
3
Ans: (b)
2

2. If sin θ – cos θ = 0, then the value of (sin4 θ + cos4 θ) is


1 3 1
(a) 1 (b) (c) (d)
2 4 4
1
Ans: (b)
2

3. If ΔABC is right angled at C, then the value of sin (A + B) is


1 3
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) (d)
2 2
Ans: (b) 1
ΔABC is right angled at C,
∴ A + B + C = 180°
A + B = 180° – 90° = 90° (∵ ∠C = 90°)
sin (A + B) = sin 90° = 1

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4
4. If cosecA – cotA = , then cosec A =
5
47 59 51 41
(a) (b) (c) (d)
40 40 40 40
41
Ans: (d)
40

41
Adding both we get, cosecA =
40

5. In the given figure, if AB = 14 cm, then the value of tan B is:

4 14 5 13
(a) (b) (c) (d)
3 3 3 3
4
Ans: (a)
3

6. The angle of depression of a car, standing on the ground, from the top of a 75 m high tower, is
30°. The distance of the car from the base of the tower (in m) is:
(a) 25 3 (b) 50 3 (c) 75 3 (d) 150
Ans: (c) 75 3

AB 1 75
In ∆ABC, tan 300     BC  75 3
BC 3 BC

7. If 3 sin θ – cos θ = 0 and 0° < θ < 90°, find the value of θ.


(a) 30° (b) 45° (c) 60° (d) 90°
Ans: (a) 30°

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3 sin θ – cos θ = 0 ⇒ 3 sin θ = cos θ
cos 
⇒ 3 ⇒ cot   3  cot 300 ⇒ θ = 30°
sin 

8. A ladder 15 m long just reaches the top of a vertical wall. If the ladder makes an angle of 60°
with the wall, then the height of the wall is
(a) 15 3 m (b) 15 3 /2 m (c) 15/2 m (d) 15 m
Ans: (b) 15 3 /2 m

AB 3 AB 15 3
In ∆ABC, sin 600     AB  m
AC 2 15 2

In the following questions 9 and 10, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of
reason (R). Mark the correct choice as:
(a) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation of assertion (A).
(b) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true but reason (R) is not the correct explanation of assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.

9. Assertion (A): If x = 2 sin2θ and y = 2 cos2θ + 1 then the value of x + y = 3.


Reason (R): For any value of θ, sin2θ + cos2θ = 1
Ans: We know that for any value of θ, sin2θ + cos2θ = 1
So, Reason is correct.
For assertion: We have x = 2 sin2θ and y = 2 cos2θ + 1
Then, x + y = 2 sin2θ + 2 cos2θ + 1
= 2(sin2θ + cos2θ) + 1
= 2 x 1 + 1 [∵ sin2θ + cos2θ = 1]
= 2 + 1 = 3.
Hence, Assertion is also correct.
Correct option is (a) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct
explanation of assertion (A).

10. Assertion (A): Sin A is the product of Sin and A.


Reason (R): The value of sinθ increases as θ increases.
Ans: For assertion: Sin A is not the product of Sin and A.
It is the Sine of ∠A.
∴ Assertion is not correct.
For reason: The value of sinθ increases as θ increases in interval of 0°< θ < 90°
So, Reason is correct.
Correct option is (d) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.

SECTION – B
Questions 11 to 14 carry 2 marks each.
11. ABC is a right triangle, right angled at C. If A = 30° and AB = 40 units, find the remaining two
sides of ΔABC.
Ans: Since A + B + C = 180°

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30° + B + 90° = 180° B = 60°
AC
Now, cos A =
AB
AC 3 AC
cos 30° = 
40 2 40
AC = units.
BC 1 BC
and, sin A = sin 300   BC = 20 units
AB 2 40

12. Find the value of x if tan 3x = sin 45°. cos 45° + sin 30°.
Ans: tan 3x = sin 45° . cos 45° + sin 30°
1 1 1 1 1
tan 3x =    
2 2 2 2 2
tan 3x = 1 = tan 45°
3x = 45° x = 15°

13. If sin θ + cos θ = p and sec θ + cosec θ = q, show that q(p2 – 1) = 2p.
Ans: sin θ + cos θ = p, sec θ + cosec θ = q
LHS = q(p2 – 1) = (sec θ + cosec θ) [(sin θ + cos θ)2 – 1]
 1 1 
=    [sin2θ + cos2θ + 2 cos θ sin θ – 1]
 cos  sin  
 sin   cos  
=  [1 + 2 cos θ sin θ – 1] ( sin2θ + cos2θ = 1)
 cos  sin  
sin   cos 
= × 2 cos θ sin θ
cos  sin 
= 2(sin θ + cos θ) = 2p ( sin θ + cos θ = p)
LHS = RHS. Hence proved.

5sin 2 300  cos 2 450  4 tan 2 600


14. Evaluate:
2sin 300 cos 600  tan 450
5sin 2 300  cos 2 450  4 tan 2 600
Ans:
2sin 300 cos 600  tan 450
2 2
1  1  2
5 1
5   
 2  2    
4 3
4
  12 7  48 55
2 1
    9
1 1 3 3 6 6
2   1 4
2 2 2 2

SECTION – C
Questions 15 to 17 carry 3 marks each.

p2 1
15. If sec θ + tan θ = p, prove that sin θ = .
p2 1

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p 2  1 (sec   tan  )2  1
Ans: 2 
p  1 (sec   tan  )2  1
(sec2   1)  tan 2   2sec  tan  tan 2   tan 2   2sec  tan 
 
sec 2   (tan 2   1)  2sec  tan  sec 2   sec2   2sec  tan 
2 tan 2   2sec  tan  2 tan  (tan   sec  )
 
2sec 2   2sec  tan  2sec  (sec   tan  )
2 tan  sin 
  tan   cos    cos   sin 
2sec  cos 

sin   cos  sin   cos  2sec 2 


16. Prove that:  
sin   cos sin   cos  tan 2   1
sin   cos  sin   cos 
Ans: LHS = 
sin   cos  sin   cos 
(sin   cos  )2  (sin   cos  ) 2

(sin   cos  )(sin   cos  )
sin 2   cos 2   2sin  .cos   sin 2   cos2   2sin  .cos 

sin 2   cos 2 
sin 2   cos 2   sin 2   cos 2  11 2
 2 2
 
sin   cos  sin   cos  sin   cos 2 
2 2 2

2
cos 2  2sec2 
  = RHS
sin 2  cos 2  tan 2   1

cos 2  cos 2 

1 1 1 1
17. Prove that:   
cos ec  cot  sin  sin  cos ec  cot 
1 1 1 1 2
Ans: This can be written as    
cos ec  cot  cos ec  cot  sin  sin  sin 
1 1 cos ec  cot   cos ec  cot 
LHS =  
cos ec  cot  cos ec  cot  (cos ec  cot  )(cos ec  cot  )
2 cos ec 2cos ec 2
 2 2
  2 cos ec  = RHS
cos ec   cot  1 sin 

SECTION – D
Questions 18 carry 5 marks.

18. If cosec θ – sin θ = m and sec θ – cos θ = n, prove that (m2n)2/3 + (mn2)2/3 = 1.
Ans: cosec θ – sin θ = m
1 1  sin 2  cos 2 
  sin   m  m  m ...(i)
sin  sin  sin 
Also, sec θ – cos θ = n
1 1  cos 2  sin 2 
  cos   n  n  n ...(ii)
cos  cos  cos 
Now, LHS = (m2n)2/3 + (mn2)2/3
2/3 2/3
 cos 2   2  sin 2     cos2   sin 2  2 
=         
 sin    cos     sin   cos   

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2/3 2/3
 cos 4  .sin 2    cos 2  .sin 4  
= 2    2 
 sin  .cos    sin  .cos  
= (cos3 θ)2/3 + (sin3 θ)2/3 = cos2 θ + sin2 θ = 1 = RHS

SECTION – E (Case Study Based Questions)


Questions 19 to 20 carry 4 marks each.

19. A lighthouse is a tall tower with light near the top. These are often built on islands, coasts or on
cliffs. Lighthouses on water surface act as a navigational aid to the mariners and send warning to
boats and ships for dangers. Initially wood, coal would be used as illuminators. Gradually it was
replaced by candles, lanterns, electric lights. Nowadays they are run by machines and remote
monitoring. Prongs Reef lighthouse of Mumbai was constructed in 1874-75. It is approximately
40 meters high and its beam can be seen at a distance of 30 kilometres. A ship and a boat are
coming towards the lighthouse from opposite directions. Angles of depression of flash light from
the lighthouse to the boat and the ship are 300 and 600 respectively.

(i) Which of the two, boat or the ship is nearer to the light house. Find its distance from the
lighthouse? (2)
(ii) Find the time taken by the boat to reach the light house if it is moving at the rate of 2 km per
hour. (2)
OR
(ii) The ratio of the height of a light house and the length of its shadow on the ground is √3 : 1 .
What is the angle of elevation of the sun? (2)
Ans:

OR
(ii) Let height of light house be AB and its shadow be BC.
AB
In ∆ABC, tan  
AC

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AB 3
But   3  tan   3  tan 600    600
AC 1

20. A 1.2 m tall girl spots a balloon moving with the wind in a horizontal line at a height of 88.2 m
from the ground. The angle of elevation of the balloon from the eyes of the girl at any instant is
60°. After 30 seconds, the angle of elevation reduces to 30° (see the below figure).

Based on the above information, answer the following questions. (Take √3 =1.732)
(i) Find the distance travelled by the balloon during the interval. (2)
(ii) Find the speed of the balloon. (2)
OR
(ii) If the elevation of the sun at a given time is 30°, then find the length of the shadow cast by a
tower of 150 feet height at that time. (2)
Ans: (i) In the figure, let C be the position of the observer (the girl).
A and P are two positions of the balloon.
CD is the horizontal line from the eyes of the (observer) girl.
Here PD = AB = 88.2 m − 1.2 m = 87 m
AB 87
In ∆ABC, we have  tan 600   3
BC BC
87
 BC   29 3
3
PD 87 1
In ∆PDC, we have  tan 300  
CD CD 3
 CD  87 3

Now, BD = CD = BC = 87 3  29 3  58 3 m

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Thus, the required distance between the two positions of the balloon = 58 √3 m
= 58 x 1.732 = 100.46 m (approx.)
(ii) Speed of the balloon = Distance/time = 100.46/30 = 3.35 m/s (approx.)

OR

In right ∆ABC
AB
= tan 30°
BC
150 1
   BC  150 3 feet
BC 3

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KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA GACHIBOWLI, GPRA CAMPUS, HYD–32
PRACTICE PAPER 09 (2023-24)
CHAPTER 10 CIRCLES (ANSWERS)

SUBJECT: MATHEMATICS MAX. MARKS : 40


CLASS : X DURATION : 1½ hrs
General Instructions:
(i). All questions are compulsory.
(ii). This question paper contains 20 questions divided into five Sections A, B, C, D and E.
(iii). Section A comprises of 10 MCQs of 1 mark each. Section B comprises of 4 questions of 2 marks
each. Section C comprises of 3 questions of 3 marks each. Section D comprises of 1 question of 5
marks each and Section E comprises of 2 Case Study Based Questions of 4 marks each.
(iv). There is no overall choice.
(v). Use of Calculators is not permitted

SECTION – A
Questions 1 to 10 carry 1 mark each.

1. In the given below figure, point P is 26 cm away from the centre O of a circle and the length PT
of the tangent drawn from P to the circle is 24 cm. Then the radius of the circle is

(a) 25 cm (b) 26 cm (c) 24 cm (d) 10 cm


Ans: (d) ∵ OT is radius and PT is tangent

∴ OT ⊥ PT
Now, in ∆OTP,
OP2 = PT2 + OT2
⇒ 262 = 242 + OT2
⇒ 676 – 576 = OT2
⇒ 100 = OT2 ⇒ 10 cm = OT

2. In the below figure AT is a tangent to the circle with centre O such that OT = 4 cm and OTA =
30°. Then AT is equal to
(a) 4 cm (b) 2 cm (c) 2√3 cm (d) 4√3 cm

Ans: (c) 2√3 cm

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∠OAT = 900 [∵ Tangent is perpendicular to the radius]
In right angled ∆OAT,
AT 3 AT
cos 300     AT  2 3 cm
OT 2 4

3. In figure if O is centre of a circle, PQ is a chord and the tangent PR at P makes an angle of 50°
with PQ, then POQ is equal to

(a) 100° (b) 80° (c) 90° (d) 75°


Ans: (a) 100°
OP ⊥ PR [∵ Tangent and radius are ⊥ to each other at the point of contact]
OPQ = 90º – 50º = 40º
OP = OQ [Radii]
∴ OPQ = OQP = 40º
In ΔOPQ,
⇒ POQ + OPQ + OQP = 180º
⇒ POQ + 40º + 40º = 180º
POQ = 180° – 80° = 100º.

4. In figure, O is the centre of a circle, AB is a chord and AT is the tangent at A. If AOB = 100°,
then BAT is equal to

(a) 100° (b) 40° (c) 50° (d) 90°


Ans: (c) 50°
AOB = 100°
OAB = OBA (∵ OA and OB are radii)
Now, in ∆AOB,
AOB + OAB + OBA = 180° (Angle sum property of ∆)
⇒ 100° + x + x = 180°
[Let OAB = OBA = x]
⇒ 2x = 180° – 100°
⇒ 2x = 80° ⇒ x = 40°
Also, OAB + BAT = 90° [∵ OA is radius and TA is tangent at A]
⇒ 40° + BAT = 90° ⇒ BAT = 50°

5. In the figure PA and PB are tangents to the circle with centre O. If APB = 60°, then OAB is

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(a) 30° (b) 60° (c) 90° (d) 15°
Ans: (a) 30°
Given APB = 60°
∵ APB + PAB + PBA = 180°
⇒ APB + x + x = 180° [∵ PA = PB ∴ PAB = PBA = x (say)]
⇒ 60° + 2x = 180°
⇒ 2x = 180° – 60°
1200
⇒ 2x = 120° ⇒ x = = 60°
2
Also, OAP = 90° ⇒ OAB + PAB = 90°
⇒ OAB + 60° = 90°
⇒ OAB = 30°

6. In the given figure, TP and TQ are two tangents to a circle with centre O, such that POQ =
110°. Then PTQ is equal to

(a) 55° (b) 70° (c) 110° (d) 90°


Ans: (b) 70°
In quadrilateral POQT,
PTQ + TPO + TQO + POQ = 360°
⇒ PTQ + 90° + 90° + 110° = 360°
⇒ PTQ + 290° = 360°
⇒ PTQ = 360° – 290° = 70°

7. In figure, AP, AQ and BC are tangents to the circle. If AB = 5 cm, AC = 6 cm and BC = 4 cm,
then the length of AP (in cm) is

(a) 7.5 (b) 15 (c) 10 (d) 9


Ans: (a) 7.5
AP = AQ
⇒ AB + BP = AC + CQ
⇒ 5 + BP = 6 + CQ
BP = 1 + CQ
BP = 1 + CR
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(∵ CQ = CR)
BP = 1 + (BC – BR)
BP = 1 + (4 – BP) (∵ BR = BP)
5
2BP = 5 ⇒ BP = = 2.5 cm
2
Now, AP = AB + BP = 5 + 2.5 = 7.5 cm

8. In figure, PQ and PR are tangents to a circle with centre A. If QPA = 27°, then QAR equals to

(a) 63° (b) 153° (c) 126° (d) 117°


Ans: (c) 126°
QPA = RPA [∵ ∆AQP ≅ ∆ARP (RHS congruence rule)]
⇒ RPA = 27°
∴ QPR = QPA + RPA = 27° + 27° = 54°
Now, QAR + AQP + ARP + QPR = 360°
⇒ QAR = 90° + 90° + 54° = 360°
⇒ QAR = 360° – 234° = 126°

In the following questions 9 and 10, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of
reason (R). Mark the correct choice as:
(a) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation of assertion (A).
(b) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true but reason (R) is not the correct explanation of assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.

9. Assertion (A): From a point Q, the length of the tangent to a circle is 24 cm and the distance of
Q from the centre is 25 cm then the radius of the circle is 7 cm.
Reason (R): A tangent to a circle is perpendicular to the radius through the point of contact
Ans: (a) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation of
assertion (A).

10. Assertion (A): In the below figure, AB and CD are common tangents to circles which touch
each other at D. If AB = 8 cm, then the length of CD is 4 cm

Reason (R): A tangent to a circle is perpendicular to the radius through the point of contact
Ans: (b) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true but reason (R) is not the correct explanation of
assertion (A).

SECTION – B
Questions 11 to 14 carry 2 marks each.

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11. In the below figure, there are two concentric circles, with centre O and of radii 5 cm and 3 cm.
From an external point P, tangents PA and PB are drawn to these circles. If AP = 12 cm, find the
length of BP.

Ans: PA = 12 cm, OA = 5 cm, OB = 3 cm

OP2 = OA2 + AP2 = OB2 + BP2


25 + 144 = 9 + BP2
169 – 9 = BP2
BP = 160 cm = 12.65 cm. (Approx.)

12. In figure, a circle touches the side BC of ∆ABC at P and touches AB and AC produced at Q and
R respectively. If AQ = 5 cm, find the perimeter of ∆ABC.

Ans: AQ and AR are tangents from the same point


AQ = AR = 5 cm ...(i) [Tangents from the same external points are equal]
BQ and BP are tangents from same point
BQ = BP ...(ii)
CP and CR are also tangents from the same point
CP = CR ...(iii)
In ∆ ABC, Perimeter of ∆ ABC = AB + BC + AC = AB + BP + CP + AC
AB + BQ + CR + AC = AQ + AR [From (ii) and (iii)]
= 5 cm + 5 cm = 10 cm [From (i)]
Perimeter of ∆ ABC = 10 cm

13. Two tangents PA and PB are drawn to the circle with centre O, such that APB = 120°. Prove
that OP = 2AP.
Ans: Consider ∆s PAO and PBO

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PA = PB [Tangents to a circle, from a point outside it, are equal.]
OP = OP [Common]
OAP = OBP = 90°
∆OAP ≅ ∆OBP [RHS]
1 1
OPA = OPB = APB = × 120° = 60°.
2 2
AP 1
In right angled ∆OAP, = cos 60° = OP = 2AP.
OP 2
14. In figure, AP and BP are tangents to a circle with centre O, such that AP = 5 cm and APB =
60°. Find the length of chord AB.

Ans: AP = BP [tangents from external point P]


PAB = PBA [Angles opposite to equal sides]
Now APB + PAB + PBA = 180°
60° + 2 PAB = 180°
PAB = 60°
APB is an equilateral
AB = AP = 5 cm

SECTION – C
Questions 15 to 17 carry 3 marks each.

15. Prove that the intercept of a tangent between two parallel tangents to a circle subtends a right
angle at the centre.
Ans: AB and CD are two tangents to a circle and AB || CD.
Tangent BD intercepts an angle BOD at the centre.

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OP ⊥ BD.
[A tangent at any point of a circle is perpendicular to the radius through the point of contact.]
In right angled ∆s OQB and OPB,
1 = 2,
Similarly in right angled ∆s OPD and ORD
3= 4
1 1
BOD = 1 + 3 = [2 1 + 2 3)] = ( 1 + 1 + 3 + 3)
2 2
1 1
= ( 1 + 2 + 3 + 4) = (180°) = 90°.
2 2

16. In figure, from an external point P, two tangents PT and PS are drawn to a circle with centre O
and radius r. If OP = 2r, show that OTS = OST = 30°.

Ans: In OTS OT = OS [radii]


OTS = OST ...(i)
OT
In right OTP, = sin TPO
OP
r 1
= sin TPO sin TPO = = sin30° TPO = 30°
2r 2
Similarly OPS = 30°
TPS = 30° + 30° = 60°
Also TPS + SOT = 180°
SOT = 120°
In SOT, SOT + OTS + OST = 180°
120° + 2 OTS = 180°
OTS = 30° ...(ii)
From (i) and (ii)
OTS = OST = 30°

17. In figure, two equal circles, with centres O and O′, touch each other at X. OO′ produced meets
the circle with centre O′ at A. AC is tangent to the circle with centre O, at the point C. O′D is
DO '
perpendicular to AC. Find the value of .
CO

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Ans: AC is tangent
CO AC
Also O′D AC
O′D || OC
Now OX = XO′ = O′A
AO ' 1
AO = 3AO  ...(i)
AO 3
In AO′D, AOC
ADO = ACO [each 90°]; A = A
AO′D ~ AOC
AO ' DO '

AO CO
DO ' 1
 [Using (i)]
CO 3

SECTION – D
Questions 18 carry 5 marks.

18. In figure, the sides AB, BC and CA of triangle ABC touch a circle with centre O and radius r at
P, Q and R respectively.
Prove that
(i) AB + CQ = AC + BQ
1
(ii) Area ( ABC) = (perimeter of ABC) × r
2

Ans:
(i) AP = AR [Tangents from A] ...(i)
Similarly, BP = BQ ...(ii)
CR = CQ ...(iii)

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Now,
AP = AR
(AB – BP) = (AC – CR)
AB + CR = AC + BP
AB + CQ = AC + BQ [Using eq. (ii) and (iii)]
(ii) Let AB = x, BC = y, AC = z
Perimeter of ABC = x + y + z ...(iv)
1
Area of ABC = [area of AOB + area of BOC + area of AOC]
2
1 1 1
Area of ABC = × AB × OP + × BC × OQ + × AC × OR
2 2 2
1 1 1
Area of ABC = x×r+ y×r+ z×r
2 2 2
1
Area of ABC = (x + y + z) × r
2
1
Area of ABC = (Perimeter of ABC) × r [Using (iv)]
2

SECTION – E (Case Study Based Questions)


Questions 19 to 20 carry 4 marks each.

19. The discus throw is an event in which an athlete attempts to throw a discus. The athlete spins
anti-clockwise around one and a half times through a circle, then releases the throw. When
released, the discus travels along tangent to the circular spin orbit.

In the given figure, AB is one such tangent to a circle of radius 75 cm. Point O is centre of the
circle and ∠ABO = 30°. PQ is parallel to OA.

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Based on the above, information:
(a) Find the length of AB. (1)
(b) Find the length of OB. (1)
(c) Find the length of AP. (2)
OR
(c) Find the length of PQ. (2)
1 75
Ans: (a) tan 300    AB  75 3 cm
3 AB
1 75
(b) sin 300    OB  150 cm
2 OB
(c) QB = 150 – 75 = 75 cm
⇒ Q is mid point. of OB
Since PQ || AO therefore P is mid point of AB
75 3
Hence AP = cm.
2
OR
QB  150  75  75cm
Now, BQP ~ BOA
QB PQ 1 PQ 75
     PQ  cm
OB OA 2 75 2

20. Circles play an important part in our life. When a circular object is hung on the wall with a cord
at nail N, the cords NA and NB work like tangents. Observe the figure, given that ∠ANO = 30°
and OA = 5 cm.

Based on the above, answer the following questions:


(a) Find the distance AN.
(b) Find the measure of ∠AOB.
(c) Find the total length of cords NA, NB and the chord AB.

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OR
(c) If ∠ANO is 45°, then name the type of quadrilateral OANB.
5
Ans: (a) tan 300   AN  5 3 cm
AN

bBNO = 300 ⇒ BNA = 600


∴AOB = 1800 – 600 = 1200
(c) AN = 5 3 and in ∆ANB, ANB = 600 and NA = NB
∴ NAB = NBA = 600 or ∆NAB is an equilateral triangle.
Hence, AB = 5 3 cm.
AN + NB + AB = 3 × 5√3 = 15√3 cm.
OR
(c) ANO = 450 ⇒ AOB = 900
⸫ Each angle of quad. AOBN is 900.
Also, OA = OB.
∴ OANB is a square.

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KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA GACHIBOWLI, GPRA CAMPUS, HYD–32
PRACTICE PAPER 10 (2023-24)
CHAPTER 11 AREAS RELATED TO CIRCLES
(ANSWERS)
SUBJECT: MATHEMATICS MAX. MARKS : 40
CLASS : X DURATION : 1½ hrs
General Instructions:
(i). All questions are compulsory.
(ii). This question paper contains 20 questions divided into five Sections A, B, C, D and E.
(iii). Section A comprises of 10 MCQs of 1 mark each. Section B comprises of 4 questions of 2 marks
each. Section C comprises of 3 questions of 3 marks each. Section D comprises of 1 question of 5
marks each and Section E comprises of 2 Case Study Based Questions of 4 marks each.
(iv). There is no overall choice.
(v). Use of Calculators is not permitted

SECTION – A
Questions 1 to 10 carry 1 mark each.

1. In the given figure, three sectors of a circle of radius 7 cm, making angles of 60°, 80° and 40° at
22
the centre are shaded. The area of the shaded region (in cm2) is [Use   ]
7

(a) 77 (b) 154 (c) 44 (d) 22


Ans: (a) 77
1800 22
Area of shaded region = area of sector with angle (60° + 80° + 40°) = 0
  7  7  77cm 2
360 7
2. The ratio of the areas of the incircle and circumcircle of a square is
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 1 : 3 (c) 1 : 4 (d) 1: 2
Ans: (a) 1 : 2
Let side of square = x units
∴ Diagonal of the square = 2 x units
Diameter of the incircle = x units
Diameter of the circumcircle = 2 x units
2
x
 
Area of incircle 2  1
Now,  2
Area of Circumcircle  2x  2
 
 2 
3. A circular wire of radius 42 cm is cut and bent into the form of a rectangle whose sides are in the
ratio of 6 : 5. The smaller side of the rectangle is
(a) 30 cm (b) 60 cm (c) 70 cm (d) 80 cm
Ans: (b) 60 cm
22
Length of wire = 2πr = 2π × 42 = 2 × × 42 = 264 cm
7
Let sides of rectangle are 6x and 5x

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⇒ 2(6x + 5x) = 264 ⇒ 11x = 132 ⇒ x = 12
∴ Smaller side = 12 × 5 = 60 cm

4. ABCDEF is any hexagon with different vertices A, B, C, D, E and F as the centres of circles
with same radius r are drawn. The area of the shaded portion is

(a) πr2 (b) 2πr2 (c) 3πr2 (d) 4πr2


2
Ans: (b) 2πr
Internal angles of a regular Hexagon = 1200
1200 2 1 2
Area of one sector = r = r
3600 3
1 2
∴ Area of 6 sectors = 6   r = 2 r 2
3
5. In the figure, PQRS is a square and O is centre of the circle. If RS = 10 2 , then area of shaded
region is

(a) 90 π – 90 (b) 80π – 80 (c) 50 π – 100 (d) 100 π – 100


Ans: (c) 50 π – 100
Diagonal of square = 2 10 2 = 20 units
∴ Diameter of circle = 20 units
Area of circle = π × (10)2 = 100π sq.units
2

Area of square = 10 2  = 200 sq. units
Area of circle not included in the square = (100π – 200) sq.units
1
∴ Area of shaded portion = (100π − 200) = 50π – 100.
2

6. If the sum of the circumferences of two circles with radii R1 and R2 is equal to the circumference
of a circle of radius R, then
(a) R1 + R2 = R (b) R1 + R2 > R (c) R1 + R2 < R
(d) nothing definite can be said about the relation among R1, R2 and R.
Ans: (a) R1 + R2 = R
2πR1 + 2πR2 = 2πR
⇒ R1 + R2 = R.

7. If the perimeter of a circle is equal to that of a square, then the ratio of the area of circle to the
area of the square is
(a) 14: 11 (b) 12: 13 (c) 11:14 (d) 13:12
Ans: (a) 14: 11

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r
Here, it is given that 4s = 2πr  s 
2
Area of Circle  r 2  r 2 4 4  7 14
Now,  2  2 2   
Area of Square s  r  22 11
4
So, the ratio of the area of the circle to the area of square is 14 : 11.

8. The number of revolutions made by a circular wheel of radius 0.7 m in rolling a distance of 176
m is
(a) 22 (b) 24 (c) 75 (d) 40
Ans: (d) 40

In the following questions 9 and 10, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of
reason (R). Mark the correct choice as:
(a) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation of assertion (A).
(b) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true but reason (R) is not the correct explanation of assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.

9. Assertion (A): A bicycle wheel makes 5000 revolutions in covering 11 km. Then diameter of the
wheel is 70 cm.
 1
Reason (R): Area of segment of a circle is 0
  r 2  r 2 sin 
360 2
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of
Assertion (A)
(b) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is not the correct explanation of
Assertion (A)
(c) Assertion (A) is true but reason(R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false but reason(R) is true.
Ans: (b) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is not the correct explanation
of Assertion (A)
11000 11 1100 1100 1100  7
We have, 2 r   m cm  2r    2r  70cm
5000 5 5 5 22
Diameter = 70 cm
∴ A is true and R is also true but not the correct explanation of A.

10. Assertion (A): The length of the minute hand of a clock is 7 cm. Then the area swept by the
minute hand in 5 minute is 77/6 cm2.

Reason (R): The length of an arc of a sector of angle q and radius r is given by l   2 r
3600
Ans: (b) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is not the correct explanation
of Assertion (A)
SECTION – B
Questions 11 to 14 carry 2 marks each.

11. The minute hand of a clock is 21 cm long. Find the area described by the minute hand on the
22
face of the clock between 7.00 am and 7.05 am. [Use = ]
7
Ans: Time taken by minute hand to make one circle = 60 minutes.
Angle described in 60 minutes = 360°

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3600
Angle described in 5 minutes [i.e., from 7.00 a.m. to 7.05 a.m.] = × 5 = 30°
60
Radius of circle = length of minute hand = 21 cm
 2 300 22 1 22 11
Area swept = 0
  r  0
  21  21    21  cm 2  5.5cm 2
360 360 7 12 7 2

12. A horse is placed for grazing inside a rectangular field 70 m by 52 m and is tethered to one
corner by a rope 21 m long. On how much area can it graze?
Ans: Area of the portion that horse can graze = area of the shaded portion.

Shaded portion is a sector of radius 21 m = length of the rope


Angle of this sector = angle of the corners of the rectangle = 90°
Area of the shaded portion that horse can graze
 2 900 22 1 22 11
= 0
  r  0
  (21) 2    21 21   3  21m 2  346.5m 2
360 360 7 4 7 2

13. Find the perimeter of the shaded region in figure, if ABCD is a square of side 14 cm and APB
22
and CPD are semicircles. [Use = ]
7

Ans: Perimeter = AD + BC + length of DPC + length of APB


= 14 + 14 + r + r
22 14
= 28 + 2 × × = 72 cm
7 2

14. An arc of a circle is of length 5π cm and the sector if bounds has an area of 20π cm2. Find the
radius of the circle.
Ans: Given, Arc AB = 5π cm and area of sector OAB = 20π cm2
 
0
2 r  5 and 0
 r 2  20
360 360


 r2
0 20 r
Diving both we get, 360    4  r  8 cm

2 r 5 2
3600

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SECTION – C
Questions 15 to 17 carry 3 marks each.

15. Find the area of the segment of a circle of radius 14 cm, if the length of the corresponding arc
22
APB is 22 cm. [Use = ]
7

Ans: l = APB = 22 cm
  22
0
 2 r  22  0
 2   14  22
360 360 7
7 1 3600
   3600   22    900
22 2 14 4
lr 22  14
Area of the sector =  = 154 cm2
2 2
1 1
Area of the triangle AOB = × OA × OB = × 14 × 14 = 98 cm2
2 2
Area of the segment = (154 – 98) cm2 = 56 cm2

16. In figure, the boundary of shaded region consists of four semicircular arcs, two smallest being
equal. If diameter of the largest is 14 cm and that of the smallest is 3.5 cm, calculate the area of
22
the shaded region. [Use = ]
7

Ans: Given AD = 14 cm, AB = CD = 3.5 cm


BC = 7 cm

Area of shaded region = Area of largest semicircle + Area of semicircle on BC – Area of 2 small
semicircles
2 2
1 1 7 1 7
=  (7)2      2    
2 2 2 2 4
1  49 49  1 22  1 1
=   49       49  1   
2  4 8 2 7  4 8

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1 22 9
=   49 
2 7 8
= 86.63 sq. cm

17. In the given figure, O is the centre of the circle with AC = 24 cm, AB = 7 cm and BOD = 90°.
Find the area of the shaded region. [Use = 3.14]

Ans: In CAB CAB = 90° (Angle in semicircle)


BC2 = AC2 + AB2
BC2 = (24)2 + (7)2
BC2 = 625 BC = 25 cm
Diameter of circle = 25 cm
25
Radius = cm
2
1 1
Area of DACB = AB × AC = × 7 × 24 = 84 cm2
2 2
BOD = 90°
COD = 90°
Area of shaded part = area of circle – Area of CAB – area of quadrant COD
1 1 1
=  r 2   24  7   r 2 =  r 2   r 2  84
2 4 4
3 2 3 25 25
=  r  84 =  3.14    84
4 4 2 2
= 367.96875 – 84 = 283.96875 cm2 = 283.97 cm2

SECTION – D
Questions 18 carry 5 marks.

18. A chord of a circle of radius 15 cm subtends an angle of 60° at the centre. Find the areas of the
corresponding minor and major segments of the circle. (Use π = 3.14 and √3 = 1.73)
Ans: Here, O is the centre of circle, AB is a chord
AXB is a major arc, OA = OB = radius = 15 cm
Arc AXB subtends an angle 60⁰ at O.
60 60
Area of sector AOB    r2   3.14  (15) 2  117.75 cm 2
360 360

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Area of minor segment (Area of Shaded region) = Area of sector AOB − Area of △ AOB
By trigonometry, AC = 15sin30⁰ and OC = 15cos30⁰
Also, AB = 2AC
∴ AB = 2 × 15sin30⁰ = 15 cm
3 1.73
 OC  15cos 300  15  15   12.975
2 2
∴ Area of △AOB = 0.5×15×12.975 = 97.3125cm2
∴ Area of minor segment (Area of Shaded region) =117.75 − 97.3125 = 20.4375 cm2
Area of major segment = Area of circle − Area of minor segment
= (3.14×15×15) − 20.4375 = 686.0625 cm2
OR
PQRS is a diameter of a circle of radius 6 cm. The lengths PQ, QR and RS are equal. Semi-
circles are drawn on PQ and QS as diameters as shown in below figure. Find the perimeter and
area of the shaded region (Use π = 3.14)

Ans: Here, PS = 12 cm
1 1
as PQ = QR = RS = × PS = ×12 = 4 cm
3 3
and QS = 2PQ ⇒ QS = 2 × 4 = 8 cm
Area of shaded region: A = area of a semicircle with PS as diameter + area of a semicircle with
PQ as diameter – the area of a semicircle with QS as diameter;
1
= [ 3.14 × 6² + 3.14 × 2² - 3.14 × 4² ]
2
1
= [ 3.14 × 36 + 3.14 ×4 – 3.14 ×16 ]
2
1
= [ 3.14 ( 36 + 4 – 16)]
2
1 1
= ( 3.14 × 24 ) = × 75.36 = 37.68 cm²
2 2
The area of shaded region = 37.68 cm².
The perimeter of the shaded region = Arc of the semicircle of radius 6 +Arc of the semicircle of
radius 4 cm + Arc of the semicircle of radius 2 cm
= (6π + 4π + 2π) = 12π
= 12 × 3.14 = 37.68 cm

SECTION – E (Case Study Based Questions)


Questions 19 to 20 carry 4 marks each.

19. In an annual day function of a school, the organizers wanted to give a cash prize along with a
memento to their best students. Each memento is made as shown in the figure and its base
ABCD is shown from the front side. The rate of silver plating is 20 per cm2.

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Based on the above, answer the following questions :
(i) What is the area of the quadrant ODCO? (1)
(ii) Find the area of ∆AOB. (1)
(iii) What is the total cost of silver plating the shaded part ABCD? (2)
OR
(iii) What is the length of arc CD? (2)
Ans:
900 22 77
(i)Area of sector ODCO = 0
 77   38.5cm 2
360 7 2
1
(ii) ar (∆AOB) =  10  10  50cm 2
2
(iii) Required cost = (50 – 38·5) × 20 = Rs. 230
OR
0
90 22
(iii) Length of arc CD = 0
 2   7  11cm 2
360 7

20. Governing council of a local public development authority of Dehradun decided to build an
adventurous playground on the top of a hill, which will have adequate space for parking.

After survey, it was decided to build rectangular playground, with a semi-circular are allotted for
parking at one end of the playground. The length and breadth of the rectangular playground are
14 units and 7 units, respectively. There are two quadrants of radius 2 units on one side for
special seats.
Based on the above information, answer the following questions:
(i) What is the total perimeter of the parking area?
(ii) (a) What is the total area of parking and the two quadrants?
OR
(b) What is the ratio of area of playground to the area of parking area?
(iii) Find the cost of fencing the playground and parking area at the rate of ` 2 per unit.
Ans: (i) Radius of semi-circle (r) = 7/2 = 3.5 units
22
Circumference of semi-circle =  r   3.5  11 units
7
∴ Perimeter of parking area = circumference of semi-circle + diameter of semi-circle

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= 11 + 7 = 18 units
1 2 1 22
(ii) (a) Area of parking =  r    3.5  3.5  11 0.5  3.5  19.25 unit2
2 2 7
Area of quadrants = 2 × area of one quadrant
1 1 22
= 2   r12    2  2  6.285 unit2 [∵ r1 = 2 units]
4 2 7
Thus, total area = 19.25 + 6.285 = 25.535 unit2
OR
(b) Area of playground = length × breadth
= 14 × 7
= 98 unit2
Area of parking = 19.25 unit2 [from part (ii) a]
∴ Ratio of playground : Ratio of parking area = 98 : 19.25 = 9800/1925 = 56/11
Thus, required ratio is 56 : 11.
(iii) We know that,
Perimeter of parking area = 18 units
Also, Perimeter of playground = 2(l + b)
= 2(14 + 7) = 2 × 21 = 42 units
Thus, total perimeter of parking area and playground
= 18 + 42 – 7 = 53 units
Hence, total cost = Rs. 2 × 53 = Rs. 106

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PM SHRI KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA GACHIBOWLI,GPRA CAMPUS,HYD–32
PRACTICE PAPER 11 (2023-24)
CHAPTER 12 SURFACE AREAS AND VOLUMES
(ANSWERS)
SUBJECT: MATHEMATICS MAX. MARKS : 40
CLASS : X DURATION : 1½ hrs
General Instructions:
(i). All questions are compulsory.
(ii). This question paper contains 20 questions divided into five Sections A, B, C, D and E.
(iii). Section A comprises of 10 MCQs of 1 mark each. Section B comprises of 4 questions of 2 marks
each. Section C comprises of 3 questions of 3 marks each. Section D comprises of 1 question of 5
marks each and Section E comprises of 2 Case Study Based Questions of 4 marks each.
(iv). There is no overall choice.
(v). Use of Calculators is not permitted

SECTION – A
Questions 1 to 10 carry 1 mark each.

1. A tank is made of the shape of a cylinder with a hemispherical depression at one end. The height of
the cylinder is 1.45 m and radius is 30 cm. The total surface area of the tank is:
(a) 30 m (b) 3.3 m (c) 30.3 m (d) 3300 m
Ans: (b) 3.3 m
Total surface area of tank = CSA of cylinder + CSA of hemisphere
= 2πrh + 2πr2= 2πr(h + r)
= 2 x 22/7 x 30(145 + 30) cm2
= 33000 cm2 = 3.3 m2

2. A cone, a hemisphere and cylinder are of the same base and of the same height. The ratio of their
volumes is
(a) 1 : 2 : 3 (b) 2 : 1 : 3 (c) 3 : 1 : 2 (d) 3 : 2 : 1
Ans: (a) 1 : 2 : 3
Let the base radii of them be r and height h.
Then ratio of volumes
cone : hemisphere : cylinder
1 2 1 2
  r 2 h :  r 3 :  r 2 h   r 2 r :  r 3 :  r 2 r (∵ r = h)
3 3 3 3
1 3 2 3 1 2
  r :  r :  r 3  : :1  1: 2 : 3
3 3 3 3

3. Volumes of two spheres are in the ratio 64 : 27. The ratio of their surface areas is
(a) 3 : 4 (b) 4 : 3 (c) 9 : 16 (d) 16 : 9
Ans: (d) 16 : 9
Let the radius of two spheres be r1 and r2.
Given, the ratio of the volume of two spheres = 64 : 27
4 3
r
V1 3 1 r 3 64 r 4
  13   1 
V2 4  r 3 r2 27 r2 3
2
3
Let the surface areas of the two spheres be S1 and S2.
2
S 4 r12 r12  4  16
∴ 1     
S 2 4 r2 2 r2 2  3  9

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4. The ratio of the total surface area to the lateral surface area of a cylinder with base radius 80 cm and
height 20 cm is
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 2 : 1 (c) 3 : 1 (d) 5 : 1
Ans: (d) 5 : 1

5. The ratio of the volumes of two spheres is 8 : 27. The ratio between their surface areas is
(a) 2 : 3 (b) 4 : 27 (c) 8 : 9 (d) 4 : 9
Ans: (d) 4 : 9

6. The radius (in cm) of the largest right circular cone that can be cut out from a cube of edge 4.2 cm is
(a) 4.2 (b) 2.1 (c) 8.1 (d) 1.05
Ans: (b) 2.1
Edge of the cube = 4.2 cm
Diameter of base of largest possible cone = 4.2 cm
4.2
∴ Radius = = 2.1 cm
2

7. A cube whose edge is 20 cm long, has circles on each of its faces painted black. What is the total
area of the unpainted surface of the cube if the circles are of the largest possible areas?
(a) 90.72 cm2 (b) 256.72 cm2 (c) 330.3 cm2 (d) 514.28 cm2
2
Ans: (d) 514.28 cm
Diameter of largest circle = 20 cm.
∴ Area of circle = 100π cm2
∴ Area of 6 circles = 6 × 100π = 600π cm2
(∵ there are six faces in a cube)
Also, Area of cube = 6 × (20)2 = 2400 cm2
22
Area of unpainted surface = 2400 – 600π = 2400 – 600 × = 514.28 cm2.
7

8. The radii of 2 cylinders are in the ratio 2 : 3 and their heights are in the ratio 5 : 3. Then, the ratio of
their volumes is:
(a) 19 : 20 (b) 20 : 27 (c) 18:25 (d) 17:23
Ans: (b) 20 : 27
Let r1 and r2 be the two radii and h1 and h2 be the corresponding two heights of the two cylinders.
Then
r1 L h 5
 and 1  (Given)
r2 3 h2 3
V1  r12 h1 4 5 20
∴    
V2  r22 h2 9 3 27

In the following questions 9 and 10, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of
reason (R). Mark the correct choice as:
(a) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation of assertion (A).
(b) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true but reason (R) is not the correct explanation of assertion (A).

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(c) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.
9. Assertion (A): Total surface area of the cylinder having radius of the base 14 cm and height 30 cm
is 3872 cm2.
Reason (R): If r be the radius and h be the height of the cylinder, then total surface area = (2πrh +
2πr2).
Ans: (a) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation of
assertion (A).

10. Assertion (A): If the height of a cone is 24 cm and diameter of the base is 14 cm, then the slant
height of the cone is 15 cm.
Reason (R): If r be the radius and h the slant height of the cone, then slant height = √(h2 + r2)
Ans: (d) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.

SECTION – B
Questions 11 to 14 carry 2 marks each.
11. Find the volume of the largest right circular cone that can be cut out of a cube whose edge is 9 cm?
[Use = 22/7]
1 9
Ans: Radius of cone = × edge of cube = cm
2 2
Height of cone, h = 9 cm

1 2
Volume of cone = rh
3
1 22 9 9
= × × × ×9
3 7 2 2
= 190.928 cm = 190.93 cm3 (approx.)
3

12. Two cubes each of side 4 cm are joined end to end. Find the surface area of the resulting cuboid.
Ans: Length of resulting cuboid, l = 4 cm + 4 cm = 8 cm, breadth, b = 4 cm, height, h = 4 cm
Surface area of cuboid = 2 (l × b + b × h + h × l)
= 2 (8 × 4 + 4 × 4 + 8 × 4) = 160 cm2

13. A solid is in the shape of a cone mounted on a hemisphere of same base radius. If the curved surface
areas of the hemispherical part and the conical part are equal, then find the ratio of the radius and the
height of the conical part.
Ans: Let radius of the base be r

Height of conical part = h


Slant height of conical part = l
l= h 2  r 2 ...(i)

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ATQ 2 r2 = rl l = 2r
Equation (i) becomes 2r = h2  r 2
r2 1
4r2 = h2 + r2 h2 = 3r2 
h2 3
r 1
  r : h  1: 3
h 3

14. A solid cube is cut into two cuboids of equal volumes. Find the ratio of the total surface area of the
given cube and that of one of the cuboids.
Ans: Let edge of the cube be 2x is cut into two cuboids.
Dimension of each cuboid are 2x, 2x, x.
Total surface area of the cube = 6 (edge)2 = 6(2x)2 = 6 × 4x2 = 24x2
Total surface area of one of the cuboid
= 2(lb + bh + lh)
= 2(2x × 2x + 2x × x + 2x × x)
= 2(4x2 + 2x2 + 2x2) = 16x2
Total surface area of cube : Total surface area of one cuboid = 24x2 : 16x2 = 3 : 2

SECTION – C
Questions 15 to 17 carry 3 marks each.

15. A toy is in the form of a hemisphere surmounted by a right circular cone of the same base radius as
2
that of the hemisphere. If the radius of base of the cone is 21 cm and its volume is of the volume
3
22
of the hemisphere, calculate the height of the cone and the surface area of the toy. [Use = ]
7
Ans: Radius of the base of cone = 21 cm

2
Volume of cone = volume of hemisphere
3
1 2 2 2 3
rh=  r
3 3 3
4 4
h = r  × 21 = 28 cm
3 3
l2 = h2 + r2 = (28)2 + (21)2 = 784 + 441 = 1225
l = 1225 = 35 cm
Surface area of the toy = rl + 2 r2
22
= × 21 × 35 cm2 + 2 × 22 × 21 × 21 cm2
7
= 2310 cm2 + 2772 cm2 = 5082 cm2

16. A juice seller serves his customers using a glass as shown in figure. The inner diameter of the
cylindrical glass is 5 cm, but the bottom of the glass has a hemispherical portion raised which

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reduces the capacity of the glass. If the height of the glass is 10 cm, find the apparent capacity of the
glass and its actual capacity. [ = 3.14]

Ans: Here, inner diameter of the cylindrical glass = 5 cm


height of the glass = 10 cm
Apparent capacity of glass = r2h
2
5
= 3.14 ×   × 10 cm3 = 196.25 cm3
2
Actual capacity of glass = apparent capacity – volume of hemispherical part
2
2 5
= 196.25 cm – × 3.14 ×   cm3
3
3 2
= 196.25 cm – 32.70 cm = 163.55 cm3
3 3

17. From a solid cylinder whose height is 15 cm and diameter 16 cm, a conical cavity of the same height
and same diameter is hollowed out. Find the total surface area of the remaining solid. [Take =
3.14]
Ans: Here, height of cylinder = 15 cm and diameter = 16 cm. So, radius, r = 8 cm

Total surface area of the solid = 2 rh + rl + r2


= 2 × 8 × 15 + × 8 × l + (8)2
= 240 + 8 × 17 + 64 [l = 82  152 = 17 cm]
= [240 + 136 + 64] = 440 = 440 × 3.14 cm2 = 1381.6 cm2

SECTION – D
Questions 18 carry 5 marks.

18. A rectangular metal block has length 15 cm, breadth 10 cm and height 5 cm. From this block, a
circular hole of diameter 7 cm is drilled out. Find: (i) the volume of the remaining solid (ii) the
surface area of the remaining solid.
Ans: (i) The volume of the remaining solid
= Volume of rectangular block – Volume of the circular hole

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2
22  7 
= (15  10  5)      5 cm³
7 2
= 750 cm³ – 192.5 cm³ = 557.5 cm³
(ii) The surface area of the remaining solid
= Total surface area of the block – 2 (area of circle of the hole) + curved surface of circular hole
(cylinder)
= 2(l × b + b × h + h × l) – 2(πr2) + 2πrh
2
22  7  22 7
= 2(15  10  10  5  5 15)  2      5  2    5
7 2 7 2
= 550 cm² – 77 cm² + 110 cm² = 583 cm².
OR
Due to heavy floods in a state, thousands were rendered homeless. 50 schools collectively decided to
provide place and the canvas for 1500 tents and share the whole expenditure equally. The lower part
of each tent is cylindrical with base radius 2.8 m and height 3.5 m and the upper part is conical with
the same base radius, but of height 2.1 m. If the canvas used to make the tents costs ₹120 per m2,
find the amount shared by each school to set up the tents.
Ans: Radius of the base of cylinder (r) = 2.8 m = Radius of the base of the cone (r)
Height of the cylinder (h)=3.5 m
Height of the cone (H)=2.1 m.
Slant height of conical part (l)=√(r2 + H2) = √[(2.8)2 + (2.1)2] = √(7.84 + 4.41) = √12.25 = 3.5 m
Area of canvas used to make tent = CSA of cylinder + CSA of cone = 2πrh + πrl
22
= πr(2h + l) =  2.8  (7  3.5)  22  0.4  10.5  92.4m2
7
Cost of 1500 tents at ₹120 per sq.m = 1500 × 120 × 92.4 = 1,66,32,000
Share of each school to set up the tents = 16632000/50 = ₹3,32,640

SECTION – E (Case Study Based Questions)


Questions 19 to 20 carry 4 marks each.
19. In a toys manufacturing company, wooden parts are assembled and painted to prepare a toy. One
specific toy is in the shape of a cone mounted on a cylinder. For the wood processing activity center,
the wood is taken out of storage to be sawed, after which it undergoes rough polishing, then is cut,
drilled and has holes punched in it. It is then fine polished using sandpaper. For the retail packaging
and delivery activity center, the polished wood sub-parts are assembled together, then decorated
using paint. The total height of the toy is 26 cm and the height of its conical part is 6 cm. The
diameters of the base of the conical part is 5 cm and that of the cylindrical part is 3 cm. On the basis
of the above information, answer the following questions:

(a) If its cylindrical part is to be painted yellow, find the surface area need to be painted. [1]

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(b) If its conical part is to be painted green, find the surface area need to be painted. [2]
OR
(b) Find the volume of the wood used in making this toy. [2]
(c) If the cost of painting the toy is 3 paise per sq cm, then find the cost of painting the toy. (Use π =
3.14) [1]
Ans: Let the radius of cone be r, slant height of cone be l, height of cone be h, radius of cylinder be r′
and height of cylinder be h′.
Then r = 2.5 cm, h = 6 cm, r′ = 1.5 cm, h′ = 26 – 6 = 20 cm and
Slant height, l  r 2  h 2  2.52  62  6.25  36  42.25  6.5cm
(a) Area to be painted yellow = CSA of the cylinder + area of one base of the cylinder
= 2πr′h′ + π(r′)2 = πr′ (2h′ + r′) = (3.14 × 1.5) (2 × 20 + 1.5) cm2
= 4.71 × 41.5 cm2
= 195.465 cm2
(b) Area to be painted green = CSA of the cone + base area of the cone – base area of the cylinder
= πrl + πr2 – π(r′)2 = π[(2.5 × 6.5) + (2.5)2 – (1.5)2] cm2
= π[20.25] cm2 = 3.14 × 20.25 cm2
= 63.585 cm2
OR
Volume of wood used in making the toy = Volume of cone + Volume of cylinder
1 1  1 
=  r 2 h   r '2 h '    r 2 h  r '2 h '  3.14   2.5  2.5  6  1.5  1.5  20 
3 3  3 
3
 3.14(12.5  45)  180.55cm
(c) Total area of painting = 195.465 + 63.585 = 259.05 cm2
Cost of painting 1 cm2 = Re. 0.03
Total cost of painting = Rs. 0.03 x 256.05
= Rs. 7.77

20. A pen stand made of wood is in the shape of a cuboid with four conical depressions to hold pens.
The dimensions of the cuboid are 15 cm by 10 cm by 3.5 cm. The radius of each of the depressions
is 0.5 cm and the depth is 1.4 cm.

Based on the above information, answer the following questions.


(i) Find the volume of four conical depressions in the entire stand [2]
(ii) Find the volume of wood in the entire stand [2]
OR
(ii) Three cubes each of side 15 cm are joined end to end. Find the total surface area of the resulting
cuboid. [2]
Ans: (i) Dimensions of the cuboid are 15 cm, 10 cm and 3.5 cm.
∴ Volume of the cuboid = 15 × 10 × 35/10 cm3
= 15 × 35 cm3
= 525 cm3

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Since each depression is conical with base radius (r) = 0.5 cm and depth (h) = 1.4 cm,
∴ Volume of each depression (cone)

Since there are 4 depressions,


∴ Total volume of 4 depressions

(ii) Volume of the wood in entire stand


= [Volume of the wooden cuboid] − [Volume of 4 depressions]

OR
(ii) New length (l) = 15+15+15 = 45cm,
New breadth (b) = 15cm,
New height (h) = 15cm,
Total surface of the cuboid = 2(lb + bh + hl)
= 2( 45 x 15 + 15 x 15 + 15 x 45)
= 2 × 1575 = 3,150 cm2

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PM SHRI KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA GACHIBOWLI,GPRA CAMPUS,HYD–32
PRACTICE PAPER 12 (2023-24)
CHAPTER 13 STATISTICS (ANSWERS)

SUBJECT: MATHEMATICS MAX. MARKS : 40


CLASS : X DURATION : 1½ hrs
General Instructions:
(i). All questions are compulsory.
(ii). This question paper contains 20 questions divided into five Sections A, B, C, D and E.
(iii). Section A comprises of 10 MCQs of 1 mark each. Section B comprises of 4 questions of 2 marks
each. Section C comprises of 3 questions of 3 marks each. Section D comprises of 1 question of 5
marks each and Section E comprises of 2 Case Study Based Questions of 4 marks each.
(iv). There is no overall choice.
(v). Use of Calculators is not permitted

SECTION – A
Questions 1 to 10 carry 1 mark each.

1. For the following distribution:


Class 0-5 5-10 10-15 15-20 20-25
Frequency 10 15 12 20 9
the sum of lower limits of the median class and modal class is
(a) 15 (b) 25 (c) 30 (d) 35
Ans: (b) 25

2. If the difference of Mode and Median of a data is 24, then the difference of median and mean is
(a) 8 (b) 12 (c) 24 (d) 36
Ans: (b) 12

3. The mean and mode of a frequency distribution are 28 and 16 respectively. The median is
(a) 22 (b) 23.5 (c) 24 (d) 24.5
Ans: (c) 24
We know that, Mode = 3 Median – 2 Mean
⇒ 3 Median = Mode + 2 Mean
⇒ 3 Median = 16 + 2 × 28 ⇒ Median = 72/3 = 24

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4. The runs scored by a batsman in 35 different matches are given below:
Runs Scored 0-15 15-30 30-45 45-60 60-75 75-90
Frequency 5 7 4 8 8 3
The lower limit of the median class is
(a) 15 (b) 30 (c) 45 (d) 60
Ans: (c) 45
Runs Scored 0-15 15-30 30-45 45-60 60-75 75-90
Frequency 5 7 4 8 8 3
cf 5 12 16 24 32 35
Here, n = 35 ⇒ n/2 = 17.5
Median class is 45 – 60
Hence, lower limit is 45

5. The median class of the following data is:


Marks 0 – 10 10 – 20 20 – 30 30 – 40 40 – 50 50 – 60
No. of students 8 10 12 22 30 18
(a) 20 – 30 (b) 30 – 40 (c) 40 – 50 (d) 50 – 60
Ans: (b) 30 – 40
Marks 0 – 10 10 – 20 20 – 30 30 – 40 40 – 50 50 – 60
No. of students 8 10 12 22 30 18
cf 8 18 30 52 82 100
n
Here, n = 100 So, = 50
2
The cumulative frequency, just greater than 50, is 52 which belongs to class 30 – 40.
So, the median class is 30 – 40.

6. For the following distribution:


Marks Below Below Below Below Below Below
10 20 30 40 50 60
No. of Students 3 12 27 57 75 80
the modal class is
(a) 10 – 20 (b) 20 – 30 (c) 30 – 40 (d) 50 – 60
Ans: (c) 30 – 40
Marks 0 – 10 10 – 20 20 – 30 30 – 40 40 – 50 50 – 60
No. of Students 3 9 15 30 18 5
Highest frequency is 30 which belong to 30 – 40. Hence, Modal class is 30 – 40

7. For the following distribution:


Class 0-5 6-11 12-17 18-23 24-29
Frequency 13 10 15 8 11
the upper limit of the median class is
(a) 18.5 (b) 20.5 (c) 25.5 (d) 17.5
Ans:
Class Frequency Cf
– 0.5 – 5.5 13 13
5.5 – 11.5 10 23
11.5 – 17.5 15 38
17.5 – 23.5 8 46
23.5 – 29.5 11 57
n
Here, n = 57 So, = 28.5
2
The cumulative frequency, just greater than 28.5, is 38 which belongs to class 11.5 – 17.5.
So, the median class is 11.5 – 17.5 Its upper limit is 17.5

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8. If the mean of the following distribution is 2.6, then the value of y is
Variable (x) 1 2 3 4 5
Frequency 4 5 y 1 2
(a) 3 (b) 8 (c) 13 (d) 24
Ans: (b) 8
Variable (x) 1 2 3 4 5 Total
Frequency (f) 4 5 y 1 2 y + 12
fx 4 10 3y 4 10 3y + 28
Here, ∑f = y + 12 and ∑fx = 3y + 28

Mean, x 
 f x  2.6  3 y  28  3 y  28  2.6 y  31.2
f y  12
 0.4 y  3.2  y  8

In the following questions 9 and 10, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of
reason (R). Mark the correct choice as:
(a) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation of assertion (A).
(b) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true but reason (R) is not the correct explanation of assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.
9. Assertion (A): The arithmetic mean of the following given frequency distribution table is 13.81.
Marks 2.5 – 5.5 5.5 – 8.5 8.5 – 11.5 11.5 – 14.5 14.5 – 17.5 17.5 – 20.5
No. of Students 7 10 15 20 25 30
Reason (R): Mean = ∑fx / ∑f
Ans: (a) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation of
assertion (A).
Marks 2.5 – 5.5 5.5 – 8.5 8.5 – 11.5 11.5 – 14.5 14.5 – 17.5 17.5 – 20.5
No. of Students 7 10 15 20 25 30
Class mark ‘x’ 4 7 10 13 16 19
Fx 28 70 150 260 400 570
Here, ∑fx = 1478, ∑f = 107
Mean = ∑fx / ∑f = 1478 / 107 = 13.81

10. Assertion (A): If the value of mode and mean is 60 and 66 respectively, then the value of median is
64.
Reason (R): Median = (mode + 2 mean)/2
Ans: (c) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.
1 1 1
Median  (mod e  2mean)  [60  2(66)]  192  64
3 3 3

SECTION – B
Questions 11 to 14 carry 2 marks each.

11. Calculate mode of the following data:


Marks 0 – 20 20 – 40 40 – 60 60 – 80 80 – 100
No. of Students 5 10 12 6 3
Ans: Since the maximum frequency is 12 which belongs to 40 – 60, therefore modal class is 40 –
60
Here, l = 40, f0 = 10, f1= 12, f2 = 6, h = 20
f1  f 0 12  10 2
Mode  l   h  Mode  40   20  40   20  40  5  45
2 f1  f 0  f 2 24  10  6 8

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12. Calculate median marks of the following data:
Marks 0 – 10 10 – 20 20 – 30 30 – 40 40 – 50
No. of Students 2 12 22 8 6
Ans:

13. Calculate mode of the following data:


Marks 0–6 6 – 12 12 – 18 18 – 24 24 – 30
No. of Students 7 5 10 12 6
Ans:

14. Find the mean of the following distribution:


Class 3–5 5–7 7–9 9 – 11 11 – 13
Frequency 5 10 10 7 8
Ans:
Class 3–5 5–7 7–9 9 – 11 11 – 13 Total
Frequency ‘f’ 5 10 10 7 8 40
Class mark ‘x’ 4 6 8 10 12
fx 20 60 80 70 96 326
Mean, x 
 fx  326  8.15
 f 40
SECTION – C
Questions 15 to 17 carry 3 marks each.

15. Daily wages of 110 workers, obtained in a survey, are tabulated below:
Daily Wages (in Rs. ) 100-120 120-140 140-160 160-180 180-200 200-220 220-240
Number of Workers 10 15 20 22 18 12 13
Compute the mean daily wages and modal daily wages of these workers.
Ans:

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16. The table below shows the salaries of 280 persons:
Salary 5-10 10-15 15-20 20-25 25-30 30-35 35-40 40-45 45-50
(in thousand Rs.)
No. of persons 49 133 63 15 6 7 4 2 1
Calculate the median salary of the data.
Ans:
Salary 5-10 10-15 15-20 20-25 25-30 30-35 35-40 40-45 45-50
(in thousand Rs.)
No. of persons 49 133 63 15 6 7 4 2 1
cf 49 182 245 260 266 273 277 279 280
Here, n = 280 ⇒ n/2 = 140
⇒ Median class is 10-15
l = 10, cf = 49, f = 133, h = 5
n 
 2  cf 
Median  l    h
 f 
 
 140  49  91 5 455
Median  10     5  10   10   10  3.421  13.42
 133  133 133
Hence, median salary is Rs. 13.42 (in thousand)

17. The arithmetic mean of the following frequency distribution is 50. Find the value of p.
Class 0 – 20 20 – 40 40 – 60 60 – 80 80 – 100
frequency 17 p 32 24 19
Ans:

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SECTION – D
Questions 18 carry 5 marks.

18. The median of the following data is 868. Find the values of x and y, if the total frequency is 100
Class Frequency
800 – 820 7
820 – 840 14
840 – 860 x
860 – 880 25
880 – 900 y
900 – 920 10
920 – 940 5
Ans:
Class Frequency Frequency
800 – 820 7 7
820 – 840 14 21
840 – 860 x x + 21
860 – 880 25 x + 46
880 – 900 y x + y + 46
900 – 920 10 x + y + 56
920 – 940 5 x + y + 61

From table, we have x + y + 61 = 100 ⇒ x + y = 100 – 61 ⇒ x + y = 39


Here, median = 868, therefore median class is 860 – 880
So, l = 860, cf = x + 21, f = 25, h = 20, n/2 = 50
n 
 2  cf   50  ( x  21) 
Now, Median  l    h   868  860    20 
 f   25 
 
 50  x  21)  29  x
 868  860    4  8  4
 5  5
 40  (29  x )4  29  x  10  x  29  10  19
 y  39  19  20
OR
The distribution below gives the makes of 100 students of a class, if the median makes are 24, find
the frequencies f1 and f2
Marks 0-5 5-10 10-15 15-20 20-25 25-30 30-35 35-40
No. of students 4 6 10 f1 25 f2 18 5
Ans:
Class Frequency cf
0–5 4 4
5 – 10 6 10
10 – 15 10 20
15 – 20 f1 20 + f1
20 – 25 25 45 + f1
25 – 30 f2 45 + f1 + f2
30 – 35 18 63 + f1 + f2
35 – 40 5 68 + f1 + f2
Now, Median = 24 (Given)
So, median class = 20 – 25
For this class,
I = 20. h = 5, n/2 = 50, cf = 20 + f1, f = 25

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n 
 2  cf 
We know, Median = l    h
 f 
 
50  (20  f1 ) 30  f1
 24  20  5  4   30  f1  20  f1  10
25 5
Also, sum of frequencies = 100
⇒ 68 + f1 + f2 = 100 ⇒ f1 + f2 = 32 ⇒ 10 + f2 = 32 ⇒ f2 = 22
∴ f1 = 10, f2 = 22.

SECTION – E (Case Study Based Questions)


Questions 19 to 20 carry 4 marks each.
19. The COVID-19 pandemic, also known as the coronavirus pandemic, is an ongoing pandemic of
coronavirus disease 2019 (COVID-19) caused by severe acute respiratory syndrome coronavirus 2
(SARS-CoV-2). It was first identified in December 2019 in Wuhan, China.
During survey, the ages of 80 patients infected by COVID and admitted in the one of the City
hospital were recorded and the collected data is represented in the less than cumulative frequency
distribution table.

Age(in year) Below 15 Below 25 Below 35 Below 45 Below 55 Below 65


No. of patients 6 17 38 61 75 80
Based on the above information, answer the following questions.
(a) Find the modal class interval. [1]
(b) Find the median class interval [1]
(c) Find the modal age of the patients admitted in the hospital. [2]
OR
(c) Find the median age of the patients admitted in the hospital. [2]
Ans: (a) Since the highest frequency is 23 which belongs to 35 – 45.
Therefore, modal class is 35 – 45.
Age(in yrs) No. of patients cf
5 – 15 6 6
15 – 25 11 17
25 – 35 21 38
35 – 45 23 61
45 – 55 14 75
55 – 65 5 80
(b) Here, n = 80 ⇒ n/2 = 80/2 = 40 which lies in 35 – 45
Therefore, medial class is 35 – 45.
(c) Here, l = 35, f0 = 21, f1= 23, f2 = 14, h = 10
f1  f 0 23  21 2
Mode  l   h  Mode  35   10  35   10  36.8
2 f1  f 0  f 2 46  21  14 11

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OR
(c) Here, n = 80 ⇒ n/2 = 40, therefore median class is 35 – 45
So, l = 35, cf = 38, f = 23, h = 10
n 
 2  cf   40  38 
Now, Median  l    h   Median  35    10 
 f   23 
 
 20 
 Median  35     35  0.87  35.87
 23 

20. Overweight and obesity may increase the risk of many health problems, including diabetes, heart
disease, and certain cancers. The basic reason behind is the laziness, eating more junk foods and less
physical exercise. The school management give instruction to the school to collect the weight data of
each student.

During medical check of 35 students from Class X- A, there weight was recorded as follows:
Weight (in kg) No. of Students
Less than 38 0
Less than 40 3
Less than 42 5
Less than 44 9
Less than 46 14
Less than 48 28
Less than 50 32
Less than 52 35
(a) Find the median class of the given data. (1)
(b) Find the modal class of the given data. (1)
(c) Calculate the median weight of the given data. (2)
OR
(c) Find the mean of the given data. (2)
Ans: (a)
Weight (in kg) No. of Students cf
Below 38 0 0
38 – 40 3 3
40 – 42 2 5
42 – 44 4 9
44 – 46 5 14
46 – 48 14 28
48 – 50 4 32
50 – 52 3 35

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n
Here, n = 35 So, = 17.5
2
The cumulative frequency, just greater than 17.5, is 28 which belongs to class 46 – 48.
So, the median class is 46 – 48.
(b) The highest frequency in the given data is 14, which belongs to class 46-48.
So, modal classis 46 – 48.
(c) Here, l = 46, cf = 14, f = 14, h = 6
n 
 2  cf   17.5  14 
Now, Median  l    h   Median  46    2
 f   14 
 
 3.5 
 Median  46    2   46  0.5  46.5
 14 
OR
(c)
Weight (in kg) Class mark ‘x’ ‘f’ fx
38 – 40 39 3 117
40 – 42 41 2 82
42 – 44 43 4 172
44 – 46 45 5 225
46 – 48 47 14 658
48 – 50 49 4 196
50 – 52 51 3 153
Total 35 1603

Mean, x 
 fx  1603  45.8
 f 35

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PM SHRI KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA GACHIBOWLI,GPRA CAMPUS,HYD–32
PRACTICE PAPER 13 (2023-24)
CHAPTER 14 PROBABILITY (ANSWERS)

SUBJECT: MATHEMATICS MAX. MARKS : 40


CLASS : X DURATION : 1½ hrs
General Instructions:
(i). All questions are compulsory.
(ii). This question paper contains 20 questions divided into five Sections A, B, C, D and E.
(iii). Section A comprises of 10 MCQs of 1 mark each. Section B comprises of 4 questions of 2 marks
each. Section C comprises of 3 questions of 3 marks each. Section D comprises of 1 question of 5
marks each and Section E comprises of 2 Case Study Based Questions of 4 marks each.
(iv). There is no overall choice.
(v). Use of Calculators is not permitted

SECTION – A
Questions 1 to 10 carry 1 mark each.

1. A bag has 5 white marbles, 8 red marbles and 4 purple marbles. If we take a marble randomly, then
what is the probability of not getting purple marble?
(a) 0.5 (b) 0.66 (c) 0.08 (d) 0.77
Ans: (d) 0.77
Total number of purple marbles = 4
Total number of marbles in bag = 5 + 8 + 4 = 17
Probability of getting not purple marbles = 13/17 = 0.77

2. Two dice are thrown simultaneously. What is the probability of getting doublet?
(a) 1/36 (b) 1/6 (c) 5/6 (d) 11/36
Ans: (b) 1/6
Number of Possible outcomes are 36
Number of favourable outcomes = 6
Probability = 6/36 = 1/6

3. A box contains cards numbered 9 to 53. A card is drawn at random from the box. The probability
that the drawn card has a number which is a perfect square is :
(a) 1/45 (b) 2/15 (c) 4/45 (d) 1/9
Ans. (d) 1/9
P(perfect Square)= 5/45 = 1/9

4. A card is selected from a deck of 52 cards. The probability of being a red face card is
(a) 3/26 (b) 3/13 (c) 2/13 (d) 1/2
Ans: (a) 3/26
Total number of red face cards = 6
∴ Probability of being a red face card = 6/52 = 3/26

5. The probability of getting a bad egg in a lot of 400 is 0.035. The number of bad eggs in the lot is
(a) 7 (b) 14 (c) 21 (d) 28
Ans: (b) 14
Total number of eggs = 400
Probability of getting a bad egg P(E) = 0.035
Consider x as the number of bad eggs
P(E) = Number of bad eggs/ Total number of eggs
Substituting the values
0.035 = x/400 ⇒ 35/1000 = x/400 ⇒ x = 35/1000 x 400

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⇒ x = 140/10 ⇒ x = 14

6. Two dice are thrown at the same time and the product of numbers appearing on them is noted. The
probability that the product is a prime number is
(a) 1/3 (b) 1/6 (c) 1/5 (d) 5/6
Ans: (b) 1/6
Total number of possible outcomes = 36
Now for the product of the numbers on the dice is prime number can be have in these possible ways
= (1, 2), (2, 1), (1, 3), (3, 1), (5, 1), (1, 5)
So, number of possible ways = 6
∴ Required probability = 6/36 = 1/6

7. A ticket is drawn at random from a bag containing tickets numbered from 1 to 40. The probability
that the selected ticket has a number which is a multiple of 5 is
(a) 1/5 (b) 3/5 (c) 4/5 (d) 1
Ans: (a) 1/5

8. Two different dice are thrown together. The probability of getting the sum of the two numbers less
than 7 is:
(a) 5/12 (b) 7/12 (c) 12/5 (d) 3/11
Ans: (a) 5/12
Total outcomes = 36
Number of outcomes in which sum of two numbers is less than 7 = 15
∴ Required probability = 15/36 = 5/12

In the following questions 9 and 10, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of
reason (R). Mark the correct choice as:
(a) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation of assertion (A).
(b) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true but reason (R) is not the correct explanation of assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.
9. Assertion (A): The probability of getting exactly one head in tossing a pair of coins is 1/2.
Reason (R): The sample space of two coin tossed is = {HH, TT, HT, TH} = 4
Ans: (a) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation of
assertion (A).

10. Assertion (A): The probability of winning a game is 0.4, then the probability of losing it, is 0.6.
Reason (R): P(E) + P (not E) = 1
Ans: (a) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation of
assertion (A).

SECTION – B
Questions 11 to 14 carry 2 marks each.
11. Find the probability of getting 53 Fridays in a leap year.
Ans: Leap year contains 366 days. 52 weeks + 2 days 52 weeks contain 52 Fridays.
We will get 53 Fridays if one of the remaining two days is a Friday. Total possibilities for two days
are:
(Sunday, Monday), (Monday, Tuesday), (Tuesday, Wednesday), (Wednesday, Thursday),
(Thursday, Friday), (Friday, Saturday), (Saturday, Sunday)
There are 7 possibilities and out of these there are 2 favourable cases.
2
∴ P (53 Fridays) =
7

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12. One card is drawn at random from a well-shuffled deck of 52 playing cards. Find the probability that
the card drawn is (i) either a red card or a king, (ii) neither a red card nor a queen.
Ans: Total number of cards = 52
(i) Number of either red card or a king card = 28
28 7
Required Probability = 
52 13
(ii) Number of cards neither a red card or a queen card = 52 – 28 = 24
24 6
Required Probability = 
52 13

13. A bag contains 5 red balls and some blue balls. If the probability of drawing a blue ball from the bag
is thrice that of a red ball, find the number of blue balls in the bag.
Ans: Let the number of blue balls be x.
Total number of balls in the bag = 5 + x
5
∴ Probability of drawing a red ball =
5 x
x
and probability of drawing a blue ball =
5 x
Given probability of drawing a blue ball = 3 × probability of drawing a red ball
5 x
3   15  x
5 x 5 x
Number of blue balls = 15

14. Cards numbered 1 to 30 are put in a bag. A card is drawn at random from this bag. Find the
probability that the number on the drawn card is
(i) not divisible by 3.
(ii) a prime number greater than 7.
Ans : Total possible outcomes of drawing a card from a bag out of 30 cards = 30.
(i) Favourable outcomes for a card numbered not divisible by 3 = 20 (i.e. 1, 2, 4, 5, 7, 8, 10, 11, 13,
14, 16, 17, 19, 20, 22, 23, 25, 26, 28 and 29).
Probability of drawing a card numbered not divisible by 3 = 20/30 = 2/3
(ii) Favourable outcomes for a prime numbered card greater than 7 = 6 (i.e. 11, 13, 17, 19, 23 and
29)
Probability of drawing a prime number card, greater than 7 = 6/30 = 1/5

SECTION – C
Questions 15 to 17 carry 3 marks each.
15. Two coins are tossed simultaneously. What is the probability of getting
(i) At least one head? (ii) At most one tail? (iii) A head and a tail?
Ans: Total number of outcomes = 4
(i) Number of outcomes with at least one head = 3
∴ Required probability = 3/4
(ii) Number of outcomes with at most one tail = 3
∴ Required probability = 3/4
(iii)Number of outcomes with a head and a tail = 2
∴ Required probability = 2/4 = 1/2

16. All the black face cards are removed from a pack of 52 playing cards. The reaming cards are well
shuffled and then a card is drawn at random. Find the probability of getting (i) face card (ii) red card
(iii) black card.
Ans: When all the black face cards are removed,
Remaining number of cards = 52 – 6 = 46
(i) Number of face cards in the remaining deck = 6

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∴ P(getting a face card) = 6/46 = 3/23
(ii) Number of red cards in the remaining deck = 26
∴ P (getting a red card) = 26/46 = 13/23
(iii) Number of black cards in the remaining deck = 20
∴ P (getting a black card) = 20/46 = 10/23

17. Two dice are thrown at the same time. What is the probability that the sum of the two numbers
appearing on the top of the dice is
(i) at least 9? (ii) 7? (iii) less than or equal to 6?
Ans: (i) Number of outcomes with sum of the numbers is at least 9 = 10
∴ Required Probability = 10/36 = 5/18
(ii) Number of outcomes with sum of the numbers 7 = 6
∴ Required Probability = 6/36 = 1/6
(iii) Number of outcomes with sum of the numbers less than or equal to 6 = 36
∴ Required Probability = 15/36 = 5/12

SECTION – D
Questions 18 carry 5 marks.

18. From a pack of 52 playing cards, jacks, queens, kings and aces of red colour are removed. From the
remaining a card is drawn at random. Find the probability that the card drawn is (i) a black queen (ii)
a red card (iii) a face card (iv) a spade card
Ans: From the total playing 52 cards, red coloured jacks, queen, kings and aces are removed(i.e., 2
jacks, 2 queens, 2 kings, 2 aces) ∴ Remaining cards = 52 – 8 = 44
(i) Favourable cases for a black queen are 2 (i.e., queen of club or spade)
∴ Probability of drawing a black queen = 2/44 = 1/22
(ii) Favourable cases for red cards are 26 – 8 = 18 (as 8 cards have been removed) (i.e.9 diamonds +
9 hearts)
∴ Probability of drawing a red card = 18/44 = 9/22
(iii) Favourable cases for a face card are 6 (i.e. 2 black jacks, queens and kings each)
∴ Probability of drawing a face card = 6/44 = 3/22
(iv) Favourable cases for a spade card are 13
∴ Probability of drawing a spade card = 13/44
OR
A box contains cards bearing numbers from 6 to 70. If one card is drawn at random from the box,
find the probability that it bears
(i) a one digit number. (ii) a number divisible by 5.
(iii) an odd number less than 30. (iv) a composite number between 50 and 70.
Ans: Number of cards in the box = 65
(i) Cards bearing one digit numbers are 6, 7, 8, 9
Number of such cards = 4
4
Probability of card bears a one digit number =
65
(ii) B = Number on the cards is divisible by 5
Cards favourable to B are 10, 15, 20, 25, 30, 35, 40, 45, 50, 55, 60, 65, 70
13 1
P(B) = 
65 5
(iii) C = Cards with an odd number less than 30 i.e. 7, 9, 11, 13, 15, 17, 19, 21, 23, 25, 27, 29
12
P(C) =
65
(iv) D : Card with composite number between 50 and 70
i.e. 51, 52, 54, 55, 56, 57, 58, 60, 62, 63, 64, 65, 66, 68, 69
15 3
P(D) = 
65 13
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SECTION – E (Case Study Based Questions)
Questions 19 to 20 carry 4 marks each.
19. Tushara took a pack of 52 cards. She kept aside all the black face cards and shuffled the remaining
cards well.

Based on the above information answer the following questions.


(i) Write the number of total possible outcomes.
(ii) She draws a card from the well-shuffled pack of remaining cards. What is the probability that the
card is a face card?
(iii) Write the probability of drawing a black card.
OR
(iii) What is the probability of getting neither a black card nor an ace card?
Ans: (i) Total possible outcomes = 52 – 6 = 46
(ii) Number of favourable outcomes = 6
P(face card) = 6/46 = 3/23
(iii) Number of black cards in the shuffled cards = 13 + 7 = 20
P(black card) = 20/46 = 10/23
OR
Number of black cards and ace = 20 + 2 = 22
∴ Number of favourable outcomes = 46 – 22 = 24
P(neither a black card nor an ace) = 24/46 = 12/23

20. A, B, C, D and E are five friends. They prepared some numbered cards with labelled from 11 to 60
and then they put all the number cards in the empty box. In this game, every friend was asked to pick
the card randomly and after each draw, card was replaced back in the box.

(a) Find the probability that the number on the drawn card is an odd number (1)
(b) Find the probability that the number on the drawn card is a perfect square number (1)
(c) Find the probability that the number on the drawn card is divisible by 5 (1)
(d) Find the probability that the number on the drawn card is a prime number less than 20 (1)
Ans: (a) Total number of outcomes = 50

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Total number of odd number cards = 25
Hence probability of getting an odd number card = 25/50 = 1/2
(b) Total number of perfect square cards = 4
16, 25, 36 and 49.
Hence probability of getting a heart card = 4/50 = 2/25
(c) Total number of cards divisible by 5 = 10
Hence probability of cards divisible by 5 = 10/50 = 1/5
(d) Total number of prime number less than 20 = 4
Hence probability of getting prime number less than 20 = 4/50 = 2/25

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KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA GACHIBOWLI, GPRA CAMPUS, HYD–32
PRACTICE PAPER 01 - CHAPTER 01 REAL NUMBERS (2023-24)
(ANSWERS)
SUBJECT: MATHEMATICS MAX. MARKS : 40
CLASS : X DURATION : 1½ hrs
General Instructions:
(i). All questions are compulsory.
(ii). This question paper contains 20 questions divided into five Sections A, B, C, D and E.
(iii). Section A comprises of 10 MCQs of 1 mark each. Section B comprises of 4 questions of 2 marks
each. Section C comprises of 3 questions of 3 marks each. Section D comprises of 1 question of 5
marks each and Section E comprises of 2 Case Study Based Questions of 4 marks each.
(iv). There is no overall choice.
(v). Use of Calculators is not permitted

SECTION – A
Questions 1 to 10 carry 1 mark each.

1. If two positive integers a and b are written as a = x3y2 and b = xy3, where x and y are prime
numbers, then the HCF (a, b) is:
(a) xy (b) xy2 (c) x3y3 (d) x2y2
Ans: (b) Here, a = x3y2 and b = xy3
⇒ a = x × x × x × y × y and b = xy × y × y
∴ HCF(a, b) = x × y × y = x × y2 = xy2

2. Find the greatest number of 5 digits, that will give us remainder of 5, when divided by 8 and 9
respectively.
(a) 99921 (b) 99931 (c) 99941 (d) 99951
Ans : (c) The greatest number will be multiple of LCM (8, 9)
LCM of 8 and 9 = 72
On verification we find that 99941 when divided by 72 leaves remainder 5.

3. The ratio between the LCM and HCF of 5, 15, 20 is:


(a) 9 : 1 (b) 4 : 3 (c) 11 : 1 (d) 12 : 1
Ans: (d) 5, 15 = 5 × 3, 20 = 2 × 2 × 5
LCM(5, 15, 20) = 5 × 3 × 2 × 2 = 60
HCF(5, 15, 20) = 5
Ratio = LCM/HCF = 60/5 = 12/1 = 12 : 1

4. Two alarm clocks ring their alarms at regular intervals of 50 seconds and 48 seconds. If they first
beep together at 12 noon, at what time will they beep again for the first time?
(a) 12.20 pm (b) 12.12 pm (c) 12.11 pm (d) none of these
Ans : (d) LCM of 50 and 48 = 1200
∴ 1200 sec = 20 min
Hence at 12.20 pm they will beep again for the first time.

5. The HCF of 2472, 1284 and a third number N is 12. If their LCM is 23 × 32 × 5 × 103 × 107,
then the number N is :
(a) 22 × 32 × 7 (b) 22 × 33 × 103 (c) 22 × 32 × 5 (d) 24 × 32 × 11
3
Ans : (c) 2472 = 2 × 3 × 103
1284 = 22 × 3 × 107
∵ LCM = 23 × 32 × 5 × 103 × 107
∴ N = 22 × 32 × 5 = 180

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6. Two natural numbers whose difference is 66 and the least common multiple is 360, are:
(a) 120 and 54 (b) 90 and 24 (c) 180 and 114 (d) 130 and 64
Ans : (b) Difference of 90 and 24 = 66 and LCM of 90 and 24 = 360
∴ Numbers are 90 and 24

7. HCF of 52 × 32 and 35 × 53 is:


(a) 53 × 35 (b) 5 × 33 (c) 53 × 32 (d) 52 × 32
Ans : (d) HCF of 5 × 3 and 3 × 5 = 5 × 32
2 2 5 3 2

8. The HCF and the LCM of 12, 21, 15 respectively are


(a) 3, 140 (b) 12, 420 (c) 3, 420 (d) 420, 3
Ans : (c), as 12 = 22 × 3
21 = 3 × 7
15 = 3 × 5
HCF = 3
LCM = 22 × 3 × 7 × 5 = 420

9. In the following questions, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R).
Choose the correct answer out of the following choices.
Assertion (A): For no value of n, where n is a natural number, the number 6n ends with the digit
zero.
Reason (R): For a number to end with digit zero, its prime factors should have 2 and 5.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

10. In the following questions, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R).
Choose the correct answer out of the following choices.
Assertion (A): If LCM of two numbers is 2475 and their product is 12375, then their HCF is 5.
Reason (R): HCF (a, b) × LCM (a, b) = a × b.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

SECTION – B
Questions 11 to 14 carry 2 marks each.
11. Find the HCF and LCM of 6, 72 and 120 using fundamental theorem of arithmetic.
Ans : 6 = 2 × 3
72 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 3 × 3
120 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 3 × 5
Common factors of 6, 72 and 120 are 2 and 3.
HCF = 2 × 3 = 6
LCM = 2 × 2 × 2 × 3 × 3 × 5
LCM = 360

12. Find the largest number that divides 2053 and 967 and leaves a remainder of 5 and 7
respectively.
Ans : Required number is HCF of 2053 – 5 and 967 – 7 = HCF of 2048 and 960 = 64

13. Two numbers are in the ratio 21 : 17. If their HCF is 5, find the numbers.

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Ans : Let numbers are 21x and 17x.
Now, common factor of 21x and 17x = x
Also HCF = 5
⇒ x=5
∴ numbers are 21 × 5 and 17 × 5 i.e. 105 and 85.

14. Can we have any n ∈ N, where 12n ends with the digit zero?
Ans : 12n = (2×2×3)n = 2n × 2n × 3n
For units digit to be 0, 12n should have 2 and 5 as its prime factors, but 12n does not contain 5 as
its prime factor.
Hence 12n will not end with digit 0 for n∈N.

SECTION – C
Questions 15 to 17 carry 3 marks each.
15. Prove that √5 is and irrational number.
p
Ans: Let 5 is a rational number then we have 5 , where p and q are co-primes.
q
 p  5q
Squaring both sides, we get p 2  5q 2
 p2 is divisible by 5  p is also divisible by 5
So, assume p = 5m where m is any integer.
Squaring both sides, we get p2 = 25m2
But p 2  5q 2
Therefore, 5q2 = 25m2  q2 = 5m2
 q2 is divisible by 5  q is also divisible by 5
From above we conclude that p and q have one common factor i.e. 5 which contradicts that p and
q are co-primes.
Therefore, our assumption is wrong.
Hence, 5 is an irrational number.

16. Find HCF and LCM of 404 and 96 and verify that HCF × LCM = Product of the two given
numbers
Ans : HCF of 404 and 96
404 = 2 × 2 × 101
96 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 3
Common factor = 2 × 2 = 4
∴ HCF = 4
LCM of 404 and 96 = 2 × 2 × 101 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 3 = 9696
Verification:
HCF × LCM = 4 × 9696 = 38784
Product of two numbers = 404 × 96 = 38784
Clearly, HCF × LCM = Product of two numbers
Hence verified.

17. Given that √2 is irrational, prove that (5 + 3√2) is an irrational number.


Ans: Let 5  3 2 be a rational number such that
5  3 2 = a, where a is a non-zero rational number.

a5
 3 2  a 5  2 
3

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a 5
Since 5 and 3 are integers and a is a rational number, therefore is a rational number
3
⇒ √2 is a rational number which contradicts the fact that √2 is an irrational number.
Therefore, our assumption is wrong.
Hence 5  3 2 is an irrational number

SECTION – D
Questions 18 carry 5 marks.
18. (a) On a morning walk three persons step off together and their steps measure 40 cm, 42 cm, 45
cm, what is the minimum distance each should walk so that each can cover the same distance in
complete steps?
(b) There are 576 boys and 448 girls in a school that are to be divided into equal sections of
either boys or girls alone. Find the total number of sections thus formed.
Ans : (a) Minimum distance = LCM of 40, 42 and 45
Now 40 = 23 × 5
42 = 2 × 3 × 7
45 = 32 × 5
LCM of 40, 42 and 45 = 23 × 32 × 5 × 7 = 2520
They should walk 2520 cm or 25.20 m to cover the distance in complete steps.
(b) 576 = 26 × 3 × 3
448 = 26 × 7
∴ HCF of 576 and 448 = 26 = 64
576 448
∴ Number of sections =  = 9 + 7 = 16
64 64

SECTION – E (Case Study Based Questions)


Questions 19 to 20 carry 4 marks each.
19. Ravish runs a book shop at school of Math, Gurgaon.
He received 480 chemistry books, 192 physics books and 672 Mathematics books of class XI.
He wishes to average these books in minimum numbers of stacks such that each stack consists of
the books on only one subject and the number of books in each stack is the same.

(a) Find the number of books in each stack.


Ans: 96
(b) Find the Number of stacks of Mathematics books are
Ans: 7
(c) Find the Minimum number of stacks of all the books.
Ans: 14
(d) Find the Difference in number of stacks of Mathematics books and sum of stacks of Physics
and Chemistry books is
Ans: 0

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20. A Mathematics Exhibition is being conducted in your School and one of your friends is making a
model of a factor tree. He has some difficulty and asks for your help in completing a quiz for the
audience.
Observe the following factor tree and answer the following:

(i) What will be the value of x?


Ans: 13915

(ii) What will be the value of y?


Ans: 11

(iii) What will be the value of z?


Ans: 23

(iv) Write the prime factorisation of 13915.


Ans: 13915 = 5 x 11 x 11 x 23

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