AUXESIS REVIEW CENTER Day 1 – Nuclear Chemistry

Regular Review Program Prepared by: Engr. Rey Martin Estoque

1. Determine which particles are being B. Pb-196 goes through two

described by each of the following successive electron capture
statements: C. As-69 undergoes positron
A. Has the greatest penetrative emission
capability
B. Sometimes called as the positive a. Bi-214, Au-196, Ge-32
electron b. Pb-82, Hg-80, Ge-32
C. Contact with it can cause the c. Tl-81, Hg-82, Se-34
greatest biological destruction d. Pb-214, Hg-196, Ge-69
D. Cannot be affected by a magnetic
field 6. Which among the following
radioactive decay series does not
a. Alpha Particles, Beta Particles, occur naturally?
Gamma Rays, Positron a. Actinium Series
b. Gamma Rays, Positron, Alpha b. Uranium Series
Particles, Gamma Particles c. Neptunium Series
c. Beta Particles, Neutrino, Alpha d. Thorium Series
Particles, Beta Particles
d. Neutrino, Positron, Gamma Rays, 7. To which decay series does Rn-219
Beta Particles and Ac-225 belong to respectively?
a. Actinium Series and Plutonium
2. For a criminal case, two men are Series
interrogated in regards to an b. Uranium Series and Actinium
attempted poisoning of a police Series
officer. During the investigation, it c. Thorium Series and Uranium
was found that both men had traces Series
of Polonium-210 on their hands while d. Plutonium Series and Thorium
a third accomplice of theirs had Po- Series
210 on his clothes. Through analysis
of the police officers stomach 8. Which among the following
content, it was confirmed that he had statements regarding Sb-122 and
ingested Po-210. Which among them Xe-136 is TRUE?
is/are bound to die if not properly a. Sb-122 is more stable than Xe-
treated? 136 because of its atomic number
a. The police officer only b. Xe-136 and Sb-122 are
b. The two men and the third radioactive
accomplice c. Xe-136 is more stable than Sb-
c. The police officer and the two 122 because of the amount of its
men neutrons
d. All four of them d. Sb-122 and Xe-136 are both
stable
3. Which among the following scientists
discovered radioactivity? 9. Determine whether each of the
a. Marie Curie following statements is True or False
b. Henri Becquerel A. Calcium-42 is more abundant in
c. Otto Hahn natural sources in comparison to
d. Ernest Rutherford Calcium-40
B. Phosphorus-29 undergoes beta
4. Fill in the blank: Protium is a/an particle emission in order to
_____ of Hydrogen while Protium, become more stable
Deuterium, and Tritium comprise the C. Potassium-46, a radioactive
Hydrogen _____. nuclide, undergoes positron
a. Isotope, Isotopes emission in order to reach a new
b. Nuclide, Nuclides level of stability
c. Nuclide, Isotopes
d. Isotope, Nuclides a. True, True, True
b. True, False, False
5. What nuclide is obtained in each c. False, True, True
process? d. False, False, False
A. Ra-226 undergoes three
successive alpha emissions

1
AUXESIS REVIEW CENTER Day 1 – Nuclear Chemistry
Regular Review Program Prepared by: Engr. Rey Martin Estoque

10. Which among the following can 15. Determine the age of a mineral
detect the neutrons produced by U- sample which contains 50.05 mg of
235 undergoing nuclear fission? 238-Uranium and 14.05 mg of 206-
a. A Geiger counter containing Lead. Assume a half-life for the
Fluorine Gas process of 238-U and 206-Pb at
b. A Scintillation Counter containing 4.52x109 years.
Zinc Sulfide and Xenon a. K = 1.5x10-10 per year; 75.2 mg
c. A Geiger Counter containing 238-U; 2.2x109 years old
Argon and Boron Trifluoride b. K = 1.8x10-9 per year; 66.2 mg
d. A Scintillation Counter containing 238-U; 1.8x109 years old
Tungsten Carbide c. K = 0.9x10-8 per year; 56.1 mg
238-U; 1.3x109 years old
11. Which among the following is the d. K = 2.1x10-9 per year; 87.1 mg
phosphor of a scintillation counter 238-U; 2.8x109 years old
intended for the detection of gamma
radiation? 16. Sedimentary rocks along the
a. Zinc Sulfide Salagdoong Forest Reserve were
b. Metastable Technetium-99 analyzed for their age. Based on
c. NaI Crystals containing Thallium spectrometric analysis, the mass
(II) Iodide ratio of U-238 to Pb-206 present in
d. Buckminsterfullerene the rock is 1.09. What is the likely age
of the rocks?
12. Determine the number of days it will a. 2.71x106 years old
take for 1 mg of Rubidium to decay to b. 6.42x107 years old
0.6 mg. c. 8.03x108 years old
a. 132 d. 7.38x109 years old
b. 98
c. 64 17. A lunar rock from the Smithsonian
d. 211 Museum was rented to the
Philippine National Museum of
13. Six small bone and eight teeth Natural History for an exhibition. For
samples of Homo luzonensis was authentication of the information
obtained in Callao Cave at provided, the rock was analyzed for
Penablanca, Cagayan. The carbon its potassium-40 and argon-40
obtained from one of the teeth content. If the lab analysis shows that
samples gave 0.008 disintegrations the mass ratio of Argon-40 to
of Carbon-14 per minute per gram of Potassium-40 is 0.14, what is the age
Carbon. How old is the Homo of the lunar rock? The half-life of
luzonensis from Callao Cave? Potassium-40 is 1.26x109 years.
a. Between 50,000 to 55,000 years a. 3.33x109 years old
old b. 2.38x108 years old
b. Between 55,000 to 60,000 years c. 1.47x109 years old
old d. 6.47x108 years old
c. Between 60,000 to 65,000 years
old 18. Define atomic mass unit.
d. Between 65,000 to 70,000 years a. The mass of one Carbon-12 atom
old b. One half the mass of a Carbon-14
mole
14. A sample of Pitchblende from Bataan c. One-twelfth the mass of a
is being analyzed for its age. For this Carbon-12 atom
analysis, the amounts of Uranium- d. One-twelfth the mass of
23
238 and Lead-206 were determined. 6.022x10 atoms of Carbon-14
If the results show that nuclides ratio
of 0.2:1 for the U-238:Pb-206, what is 19. Determine the binding energy per
the age of the mineral? Assume a nucleon involved in the formation of a
half-life of 4.5x109 years for the single silver-107 atom. The
process. measured mass of the nuclide in
a. 1.35x109 yrs question is 106.879289 atomic mass
b. 1.73x109 yrs units.
c. 1.62x109 yrs a. 4.51 MeV/nucleon
d. 1.89x109 yrs b. 8.58 MeV/nucleon
c. 6.33 MeV/nucleon

2
AUXESIS REVIEW CENTER Day 1 – Nuclear Chemistry
Regular Review Program Prepared by: Engr. Rey Martin Estoque

d. 9.61 MeV/nucleon milk was determined to contain K-40.

The cow’s milk has a specific activity
20. When Boron-10 is bombarded with of about 6x10-11 mCi per milliliter.
an alpha particle, a proton and a How many disintegrations of K-40
single nuclide of carbon- 13 is are there per minute in 1 qt of milk?
produced. How much energy is a. 109 disintegrations per minute
released for the aforementioned b. 126 disintegrations per minute
nuclear reaction? c. 144 disintegrations per minute
a. 12.7 MeV d. 173 disintegrations per minute
b. 6.88 MeV
c. 9.32 MeV 26. Which among the following
d. 4.06 MeV statements regarding Nuclear Fusion
and Nuclear Fission is False?
21. For an energy of 7.95x108 MeV, how a. Nuclear fusion involves the
many neutrons can be created? amalgamation of lighter nuclei in
a. 8.58x105 neutrons order to form heavier, stabler
b. 1.22x106 neutrons nuclei
c. 7.19x105 neutrons b. The maximum binding energy per
d. 3.47x107 neutrons nucleon can be achieved at a
mass number of 60
22. Based on the units commonly used c. Nuclear fusion releases more
in Nuclear Chemistry, which among energy than Nuclear fission on a
the following measures the amount of per nucleon basis
energy acquired by an electron when d. The fragmentation of heavier
it falls through an electric potential nuclides displays a relatively
difference of 1 volt? plateau decrease in binding
a. Ci energy when compared to the
b. Bq reverse
c. eV
d. Gy 27. A brain scan procedure performed
at St. Lukes Medical Center involves
23. Which among the following can injecting 20 mCi of metastable
cause the greatest damage to a Technetium-99 on a patient. Tc-99m
material assuming that all of them decays by gamma radiation and has
can penetrate it equally? a half-life of 6 hours. The energy of a
a. 100 rad Gamma rays gamma photon is 2.29x10-14 J. The
b. 100 rad Beta Emission RBE of these photons is 0.98 and
c. 100 rad Neutron Emission only two-thirds of the photons are
d. 100 rad Alpha Emission absorbed by the body. Assuming all
of the Tc-99m nuclei decay inside the
24. Several aluminum cans from were patient’s body, what is the rem dose
bombarded with neutrons prior to a received by a 70 kg patient?
scheduled analysis. A 35 g irradiated a. 0.49 rem
aluminum can has an initial activity of b. 0.78 rem
40 Curies. The safety office would not c. 0.62 rem
allow anyone to touch the cans d. 0.91 rem
having an activity in excess of 0.1
Curies. Assuming the entire 28. In which among the following can a
radioactivity is coming from Cherenkov Radiation be observed?
Aluminum-29, which has a half- life of a. In the water surrounding the core
2.28 min, how many minutes must a of a Nuclear Reactor
personnel have to wait after the b. In the Mushroom Cloud produced
bombardment for her to handle the after a Hydrogen Bomb Explosion
cans safely? c. In a particle accelerator after the
a. 9.85 min bombardment of two nuclides
b. 344.75 min d. In the Sun’s Corona during a
c. 19.7 min Solar Eclipse
d. 689.5 min
29. An experiment conducted by the
25. Milk samples from a dairy farm in Philippine Nuclear Research
Bohol were collected as per ordered Institute involves the usage of 265
by the Department of Agriculture. The g laboratory rat. The said specimen

3
AUXESIS REVIEW CENTER Day 1 – Nuclear Chemistry
Regular Review Program Prepared by: Engr. Rey Martin Estoque

absorbs 1.77x1010 beta particles, 33. At the Philippine General Hospital, a

each with an energy of 2.2x10-13 J. If small region in a cancer patient’s
the RBE is 0.75, what is the brain is exposed to Cobalt-60 for
absorbed dose and equivalent dose treatment of a tumor. The region was
of radiation the laboratory rat had exposed to 475 Bq of radioactivity for
absorbed in Grays and Sieverts 27 min. If the brain mass exposed is
respectively? 1.588 g and each beta particle
a. 1.469 Gy and 1.1 Sv emitted has an energy of 5.05x10 -14 J,
b. 0.147 Gy and 100 Sv what is the dose in rads?
c. 0.0147 Gy and 0.011 Sv a. 7.12x10-6 rad
d. 146.9 Gy and 110 Sv b. 2.45x10-3 rad
c. 8.69x10-2 rad
30. The Bataan Nuclear Power Plant is d. 1.28x10-1 rad
planned to be retrofitted in hopes of
using it for the first time. One point of 34. Which among the following
concern is the material that would be radioactive nuclides is often
used in the outer portions of the room attributed as the greatest source of
housing the fuel rods. If the radiation radiation that affects most of the
coming from the fuel rods would be a population?
strong beta emission, which material a. Strontium-90
among the following should be b. Americium-241
utilized? c. Polonium-218
a. 1 cm of Aluminum d. Radon-222
b. 7.5 m of Concrete
c. 8 mm of Lucite 35. A biochemical sample is detected
d. 35 m of Lead to contain 1000 times the
detectable activity limit of
31. Across the three most notorious Phosphorus-32. Given that the half
accidents regarding nuclear power life of the radioisotope is 14.2 days, in
plants: Three Mile Island, Chernobyl, your estimation, how long can this
and Fukushima, what is the most experiment be conducted while
common cause for their failure that fully utilizing the effectivity of the
led to several environmental aforementioned sample? Take 1
problems? month = 30 days
a. A leak in the fuel rods initiating an a. Around 2 and ahalf months
explosion b. A little less than 3 months and 2
b. Bursting of reactor due to days
uncontrolled pressurized steam c. No more than 4 months and 3
c. Loss of proper cooling and/or weeks
moderator d. A minimum of 5 months and 8
d. Run-off chain reactions of the days
fissile material
36. A nuclear chemist from the Philippine
32. Which among the following Nuclear Research Institute is
statements regarding Nuclear dissolving a sample of NaCl, that
Fission is FALSE? contains the radioactive sodium-24,
a. Nuclear Fission is a nuclear in 100 mL aliquot of aqueous
reaction in which a heavy sodium nitrate. The mixture was
nucleus splits into lighter nucleus subsequently cooled in order to
and energy is released recrystallize the sodium nitrate salt.
b. A series of self-sustaining nuclear Which among the following is true?
fissions is called a nuclear chain a. The chloride anions will
reaction selectively reform an ionic bond
c. Nuclear Fission is the main with the sodium-24 cation
proponent of nuclear power b. The sodium nitrate crystals
plants, atomic bombs, and should be non-radioactive
hydrogen bombs c. All of the sodium-24 cations
d. Critical mass is the minimum would specifically bond with the
amount of a fissionable material nitrate ion due to its electron-
that can cause a nuclear chain distribution capability
reaction d. Some of the anions will randomly
bond with the sodium-24 nuclide

4
AUXESIS REVIEW CENTER Day 1 – Nuclear Chemistry
Regular Review Program Prepared by: Engr. Rey Martin Estoque

37. A certain nuclide with a half life of 10

days undergoes alpha emission. If
one mole of the nuclide is kept in a
sealed vessel for 20 days, determine
the amount of He that will accumulate
at NTP?
a. 11.37 L
b. 22.41 L
c. 18.04 L
d. 27.63 L
38. Actinium-27 can decay into two
nuclides. One forming Thorium-227
and the other as Francium-223. With
respect to radioactive decay, the half
life of Ac-227 is 21.8 years. If the
fractional yield of Th-227 and Fr-223
is 0.012 and 0.988 respectively,
what is the decay rate constant for
each of the respective paths leading
to the daughter nuclides?
a. 3.82x10-4 per year; 0.0314 per
year
b. 4.12x10-4 per year; 0.0172 per
year
c. 2.75x10-5 per year; 0.1221 per
year
d. 6.92x10-5 per year; 0.0719 per
year

39. A 1 g sample of microline (KAlSi3O8),

containing K-40, was allowed to
undergo radioactive decay. Based
on literature data, 89% of the
nuclide undergoes beta particle
emission while the remainder
undergoes electron capture and
positron emission. How many beta
particles are produced per second if
the percent natural abundance of the
concerned nuclide is 0.0117%. The
half life of K-40 is 1.26x109 years.
a. 4
b. 8
c. 12
d. 16

40. The fission of 1 g of uranium-238

releases a tremendous amount of
energy equivalent to 8.2x10 7 kJ. How
much metric tons of bituminous coal
needs to combust in order to release
the same amount of energy as 1 kg of
U-238?
a. 1520 Metric Tons
b. 2900 Metric Tons
c. 3800 Metric Tons
d. 5708 Metric Tons

5
AUXESIS REVIEW CENTER DAY 1: PHYSICAL & CHEMICAL PRINCIPLES
PHYSICAL CHEMISTRY
Conceptual Question Conceptual Question
An ideal gas will only be considered in the The state of an ideal gas is changed in a closed
following operating parameters: path 1→2→3→4→1. Which of the following is
a. High Temperature, High Pressure true about the work done on the gas?
b. High Temperature, Low Pressure
c. Low Temperature, High Pressure
d. Low Temperature, Low Pressure

Conceptual Question
Which of the following is false regarding absolute
zero?
a. All molecules will stop moving
b. Absolute zero can be achieved
c. Temperature is 0K
d. Temperature is 0R

Conceptual Question
For a real gas, what causes the deviation from
the ideal pressure at a molecular level?
a. Energy is lost for each collision against
the sides of the container a. W12>0, W23=0, W34<0, W41=0
b. Energy is lost due to the collision of b. W12<0, W23=0, W34=0, W41>0
molecules with one another c. W12=0, W23>0, W34=0, W41<0
c. Intermolecular forces of attraction of the d. W12=0, W23<0, W34=0, W41>0
molecules with one another
d. Molecules randomly hit the sides of the Conceptual Question
wall with less force than usual Which of the following is a characteristic of an
adiabatic process?
Conceptual Question a. ΔU=0 c. Q=0
When gas molecules collide, they experience b. W=0 d. ΔV=0
collision.
a. Perfectly elastic c. Perfectly inelastic Conceptual Question
b. Imperfect elastic d. Imperfect inelastic A sample of an ideal gas has an internal energy
of U and is then compressed to ½ of its original
Conceptual Question volume while the temperature stays the same.
Which of the following is false with KMT? What is the new internal energy of the ideal gas
a. Gas molecules move in random motion in terms of U?
b. Due to collision of gas molecules with a. U c. U/4
each other, some kinetic energy is lost b. U/2 d. 2U
c. The temperature of the whole system
does not change with time Conceptual Question
d. The size of the molecules are negligible Which of the following is not conserved in any
process?
Conceptual Question a. Mass c. Momentum
This is the pressure exerted by the gas molecules b. Energy d. Entropy
that are in equilibrium with the liquid.
a. Partial pressure c. Total pressure Conceptual Question
b. Atmospheric pressure d. Vapor pressure An isentropic process is:
a. Isothermal and adiabatic
Conceptual Question b. Reversible and isothermal
The internal energy of an ideal gas depends on: c. Reversible and adiabatic
a. Volume c. Pressure d. Reversible and isochoric
b. Absolute temperature d. Number of moles
AUXESIS REVIEW CENTER DAY 1: PHYSICAL & CHEMICAL PRINCIPLES
PHYSICAL CHEMISTRY

Conceptual Question Conceptual Question

Increasing the temperature of the cold reservoir The amount of heat absorbed when CO2 gas
the Carnot efficiency. reacts with a solid CaO to form solid CaCO3 is
a. Increases measured in a bomb calorimeter. The data
b. Decreases obtained give a direct measure of:
c. Does not change a. ΔU
d. NOTA b. VΔP
c. ΔH
Conceptual Question d. CP
If the entropy of a system decreases, the entropy
of its surroundings Conceptual Question
a. Must always increase Heat required to raise the temperature of 1lbm
b. Must always decrease of water by 1˚F.
c. May increase or decrease a. Calorie
d. Not enough information to answer the b. BTU
question c. Specific heat
d. Heat capacity
Conceptual Question
Which of the following is not true? Conceptual Question
𝜕𝐺 Which of the following statements is/are true?
a. ( ) = 𝑉
𝜕𝑃 𝑇 1. The criterion of equilibrium at constant
𝜕𝐻
b. ( ) =𝑉 temperature and pressure is dG=0.
𝜕𝑃 𝑇
c.
𝜕𝐺
( 𝜕𝑇) = −𝑆 2. For a reversible process, dS=dQ/T.
𝑃 a. 1 only
𝜕𝐻
d. ( ) = −𝑆 b. Both 1 and 2
𝜕𝑉 𝑇
c. 2 only
Conceptual Question d. None of the above
Which of the following is not true?
𝜕𝐺 Conceptual Question
a. ( ) = 𝑉
𝜕𝑃 𝑇 The general statement of the Third Law of
𝜕𝐺 Thermodynamics is attributed to:
b. (𝜕𝑇) = −𝑆
𝑃 a. Nikolaus Otto
𝜕𝐻
c. ( ) =𝑉 b. Jacobus Clapeyron
𝜕𝑃 𝑆
d.
𝜕𝐴
( 𝜕𝑉) = −𝑆 c. William Clausius
𝑇 d. Walther Nernst

Conceptual Question Conceptual Question

Which of the following is true? The equilibrium intensive state of a system is
𝜕𝑇 𝜕𝑃
a. ( ) = ( )
𝜕𝑉 𝑆
described by specifying the temperature,
𝜕𝑆 𝑉
𝜕𝑃 𝜕𝑆 pressure, and:
b. ( ) = − ( ) a. Mole fractions
𝜕𝑇 𝑉 𝜕𝑉 𝑇
𝜕𝑇 𝜕𝑉
c. ( 𝜕𝑃) =( ) b. Number of moles
𝑆 𝜕𝑆 𝑃
𝜕𝑉 𝜕𝑆 c. Volume
d. ( ) = ( ) d. Chemical potential
𝜕𝑇 𝑆 𝜕𝑃 𝑇

Conceptual Question Conceptual Question

Enthalpy can be expressed as a function of T and The fugacity of a real gas is equal to:
P. This relationship is shown by: a. The pressure of an ideal gas which has
𝜕𝑉 the same chemical potential as the real
a. 𝑑𝐻 = 𝐶𝑃𝑑𝑇 + [𝑉 − 𝑇 (𝜕𝑇) ] 𝑑𝑃
b. 𝑑𝐻 = 𝐶 𝑑𝑇 + [𝑃 − 𝑇 ( 𝜕𝑃)
𝑃 b. gas
The pressure of a real gas which has the
𝑃 ] 𝑑𝑃
𝜕𝑉
𝜕𝑇 𝑉 same chemical potential as the ideal gas
c. 𝑑𝐻 = 𝐶𝑃𝑑𝑇 + [𝑇 (𝜕𝑇) − 𝑉] 𝑑𝑃 c. The chemical potential of an ideal gas
𝑃
𝜕𝑃
which has the same pressure as the real
d. 𝑑𝐻 = 𝐶𝑃𝑑𝑇 + [𝑇 (𝜕𝑇) − 𝑃] 𝑑𝑃
𝑉 gas
d. The chemical potential of a real gas
which has the same pressure as the ideal
gas
AUXESIS REVIEW CENTER DAY 1: PHYSICAL & CHEMICAL PRINCIPLES
PHYSICAL CHEMISTRY

Conceptual Question (Oct. 2021 PBE) Conceptual Question (Oct. 2021 PBE)
An adiabatic process is one in which the system Determine which of the following occurrences
under investigation is thermally isolated so that tells us what happens when Le Chatelier’s
there is no exchange of heat with the principle is applied whether these are true or
surroundings. Thus, the work done on a closed false.
system in an adiabatic process is _. 1. The addition of a component causes the
a. Equal to zero equilibrium to shift to the opposite side
b. Not equal to the exchange of heat with 2. The removal of a component causes the
surroundings equilibrium to the side from which the
c. Equal to the increase in internal energy component is removed
of the system 3. Increasing the temperature drives an
d. Not equal to the increase in internal exothermic reaction to the side of the
energy of the system reactants, an endothermic equilibrium
to the side of the products
Conceptual Question (Oct. 2021 PBE) 4. The addition of a catalyst has NO effect
If enthalpy is defined as present in a constant on the position of the equilibrium
pressure process change of state, using the a. T, F, T, F
relationship of ΔH=ΔU+ΔPV, where H is enthalpy, b. T, T, T, T
U is the energy change in the system and PV c. F, T, F, T
represents pressure and volume states, d. F, F, F, F
determine the ΔU and ΔH of 1kg of water when
vaporized at constant temperature of 100˚C and Conceptual Question (Nov. 2019 PBE)
constant pressure of 101.35kPa. The specific Define entropy.
volumes of liquid and vapor water are 0.001041 a. Entropy is a function of the state of the
and 1.67m3/kg. An amount of 2257kJ of heat is system and determines whether a
added to the water. physical change or chemical reaction can
a. ΔU=2087kJ; ΔH=2257kJ occur simultaneously in a closed system
b. ΔU=2378kJ; ΔH=2221kJ b. Entropy is the opposite of enthalpy
c. ΔU=2226kJ, ΔH=2378kJ c. Entropy determines the time required
d. None of these for a reaction to proceed and complete
d. All of these
Conceptual Question (Oct. 2021 PBE)
A certain gas confined in a cylinder by a piston, Conceptual Question (Oct. 2021 PBE)
where the initial pressure in the system is 7 bar Determine whether the changes in entropy (ΔS)
and the volume is 0.11 cubic meter. The piston is and enthalpy (ΔH) are positive, negative, or near
held in place by latches and the apparatus is in zero.
vacuum. Determine the change in energy when 1. Ethyl alcohol evaporating from glass
the latches are removed suddenly and the gas container
expands to double its initial volume and the 2. A diatomic molecule dissociates into
piston strikes the latches at the end of the atoms
process. 3. Charcoal is burned to form CO2 and
a. 11.54kJ water
b. 0.77kJ a. 1. ΔH>0, ΔS>0; 2. ΔH>0, ΔS>0; 3. ΔH>0,
c. 0.59kJ ΔS>0
d. No change b. 1. ΔH<0, ΔS<0; 2. ΔH>0, ΔS<0; 3. ΔH>0,
ΔS<0
Conceptual Question (Nov. 2019 PBE) c. 1. ΔH>0, ΔS<0; 2. ΔH<0, ΔS>0; 3. ΔH>0,
State Le Chatelier’s Principle. ΔS>0
a. Le Chatelier’s principle states that when d. 1. ΔH<0, ΔS>0; 2. ΔH<0, ΔS<0; 3. ΔH<0,
a stress is placed on a system in ΔS<0
equilibrium, the system tends to change
in a way that relieves the stress. Conceptual Question (Nov. 2019 PBE)
b. All of these Choose the process that occurs with a decrease
c. Examples of the application of Le in entropy.
Chatelier’s principle are blowing your a. Freezing of water
breath through a straw and dissolving b. Boiling of water
alka seltzer tablet in a glass of water. c. Dissolving salt in water
d. Le Chatelier’s principle explains both the d. Sublimation of dry ice
formation and decomposition of acids,
where anything that might act to
increase the concentration of an acid
would produce an increase in the other
components so as to keep the numerical
AUXESIS REVIEW CENTER DAY 1: PHYSICAL & CHEMICAL PRINCIPLES
PHYSICAL CHEMISTRY

1. A vessel of volume 22.4dm3 contains 2mol H2 10. (Nov. 2019 PBE) Applying the combined gas
and 1mol N2 at 273.15K. What is the total laws, determine the volume of 1mol of Ne(g) in a
pressure inside the vessel? Assume ideal gas. flask at the temperature of 25˚C and a pressure of
a. 1atm c. 3atm 1atm.
b. 2atm d. 4atm a. 12.2L c. 32.21L
b. 18.6L d. 24.51L
2. In an industrial process, nitrogen is heated to
500K at a constant volume of 1m3. The gas 11. (Nov. 2019 PBE) In the combustion of 25g of
enters the container at 300K and 100atm. Use methane gas, what is the volume of oxygen
the Van der Waal’s equation to determine the required at 25˚C and 0.21atm?
approximate pressure of the gas at its a. 411 c. 363
working temperature of 500K. For nitrogen, b. 298 d. 521
a=1.352dm6-atm/mol2, b=0.0387dm3/mol.
a. 120atm c. 160atm 12. Determine the volume of carbon dioxide in
b. 140atm d. 180atm cubic feet occupied by 120lb at a pressure of
1.5atm. (T=40˚C)
3. A perfect gas undergoes isothermal a. 750 c. 560
compression, which reduces its volume by b. 490 d. 680
1.8dm3. The final pressure and volume of the
gas are 1.97bar and 2.14dm3, respectively. 13. (Nov. 2019 PBE) If 1mol of an ideal gas is kept
Calculate the original pressure of the gas. at 0˚C, during an expansion from 3.0 to 10.0L,
a. 10.5bar c. 750torr examine and calculate how much work is done as
b. 1.07bar d. 850torr the gas during expansion.
a. -2.2x104J c. -7.8x104J
3
4. At 100˚C and 1.6kPa, the mass density of b. -5.4x10 J d. -2.7x103J
phosphorus vapor is 0.06388kg/m3. What is
the molecular formula of phosphorus under 14. (Oct. 2021 PBE) In a gas mixture containing
these conditions? 100mg/L of H2S gas at 25˚C and 1atm, determine the
a. P c. P3 partial pressure exerted by the gas.
b. P2 d. P4 a. 0.071 c. 0.101
b. 0.003 d. 0.006
5. A 1dm3 glass bulb contains 1x1023 H2
molecules. If the pressure exerted by the gas Conceptual Question (Nov. 2019 PBE)
is 100kPa, assuming ideal gas, determine the Which of the following does not have a zero
temperature of the gas. enthalpy of formation at 298.15K?
a. 56.54K c. 103.64K a.Li(g) c. Hg(l)
b. 72.43K d. 159.64K b. He(g) d. Br2(l)

6. 5000J of heat are added to 2mol of an ideal 15. Calculate the enthalpy change of the reaction (in
monoatomic gas, initially at a temperature of kJ/mol).
500K, while the gas performs 7500J of work. CS2(l) + 3O2(g) → CO2(g) + 2SO2(g)
What is the final temperature of the gas? C(s) + O2(g) → CO2(g); ΔHF = -393.5kJ/mol
a. 200K c. 400K S(s) + O2(g) → SO2(g); ΔHF = -296.8kJ/mol
b. 300K d. 500K C(s) + 2S(s) → CS2(l); ΔHF = 87.9kJ/mol
7. What is the final temperature of a sample a. -900 c. -1300
of argon of mass 12g that is expanded reversibly b. -1100 d. -1500
and adiabatically from 1dm3 and 273.15K to
3dm3? 16. (Nov. 2019 PBE) Calculate the net and the
a. 122K c.145K gross heats of combustion for methane gas.
b. 131K d. 159K a. -491kJ; -998kJ/mol c. -891kJ/mol; -802kJ/mol
b. -362kJ; -731kJ/mol d. -598kJ; -1120kJ/mol
For Numbers 8-9:
8. A sample of 4.5g of methane occupies 17. (Nov. 2019 PBE) If 5g of methane gas is burned
12.7dm3 at 310K. Calculate the work done at constant pressure, determine the heat released
when a gas expands isothermally against a in kJ if the change in entropy that accompanied the
constant external pressure of 200torr until its reaction is -890kJ.
volume has increased by 3.3dm3. a. -360.00K c. -278.12K
a. -79J c. -126J b. -250.01K d. -192.00K
b. -150J d. -120J
18. (Oct. 2021 PBE) The standard molar enthalpy
9. Calculate the work that would be done if the change is -905kJ for the oxidation of ammonia,
same expansion occurred reversibly and 4NH3(g)+5O2→4NO(g)+6H2O(g)
isothermally. Analyze and calculate the standard molar enthalpy
a. -150J c. -103J of formation for ammonia based on the following
b. -167J d. -120J standard enthalpies of formation:
AUXESIS REVIEW CENTER DAY 1: PHYSICAL & CHEMICAL PRINCIPLES
PHYSICAL CHEMISTRY
HF[NO(g)]=+90kJ/mol; and HF[H2O(g)]=-240kJ/mol The density of ethanol at this temperature is
a. -227kJ/mol c. -406kJ/mol 800kg/m3.
b. -500kJ/mol d. -692kJ/mol a. 0.25 c. 25
b. 2.5 d. 250
For Numbers 19-22:
19. A block of iron weighing 3.6kg at a 28. What is the minimum work in BTU required to
temperature of 807˚C was inserted into a produce 20lb of ice from water at 32˚F if the
container containing 1L of water at a surrounding air is 85˚F and the latent heat of fusion
temperature of 30˚C isolated from the of ice is 143.4BTU/lb?
environment. The cooling process of iron a. 300 c. 320
happens in two steps, the first phase the water b. 310 d. 330
is heated the boiling point and in the second
stage the water evaporates. The phase Conceptual Question
continues until the temperature of the iron is It is the property of a fluid that is caused by
equal to the temperature of the water. The final shearing effect of a fluid layer moving past
temperature of the water and the iron is 100˚C. another layer.
The specific heat of solid iron is 0.45J/g-K and a. Density c. Flow
the heat of vaporization for water is 2259.23J/g. b. Viscosity d. Compressibility
The energy given off by the iron block in MJ is
nearest to: 29. A sphere of radius 5mm and density of 1.1g/cm3
a. 1.1 c. 0.7 falls at a constant velocity through a liquid of density
b. 1.3 d. 0.9 1g/cm3 and viscosity of 1cP. What is the velocity of
the falling sphere in m/s?
20. How much sensible heat was used by the a. 1.36m/s c. 5.45m/s
water to get to its boiling point in J? b. 2.72m/s d. 10.88m/s
a. 200,000 c. 400,000
b. 300,000 d. 500,000 30. An Ostwald Viscometer is used to measure the
viscosity of a monoatomic gas. The inlet and outlet
21. The amount of water vaporized in grams in pressures of the gas are 1.1atm and 1.08atm. What
this process is nearest to: is the viscosity in μP of 100mL of this gas measured
a. 200 c. 400 at 300K if it took 5hrs for the gas to flow through a
b. 300 d. 500 0.5m tube of 1mm diameter?
a. 0.5 c. 50
22. If the density of water at all temperatures is b. 5 d. 500
1g/mL, The amount of water left in the
container in L is: For Numbers 31-33:
a. 0.5 c. 0.7 31. The collision diameter for oxygen molecules is
b. 0.6 d. 0.8 3.742x10-10m at 25˚C and 1atm. Its average speed
is 474.61m/s. Calculate its mean free path in m.
For Numbers 23-26: a. 6.5x10-8m c. 8.3x10-8m
-8
23. A 2kg open calorimeter at 100˚C has a heat b. 7.4x10 m d. 9.2x10-8m
capacity of 4kJ/K. 100g of ice at -10˚C was
placed inside the calorimeter. If CP of 32. Calculate the average number of collisions
ice=0.5cal/g-K and latent heatof fusion is experienced by one molecule per minute.
80cal/g, calculate the final temperature in ˚C. a. 4.2x1011 c. 2.4x1011
11
a. 78 c. 86 b. 4.36x10 d. 3x1011
b. 82 d. 90
33. Calculate the average number of collisions
24. Calculate the entropy change of per cubic meter per second for O2.
the calorimeter in cal/K. a. 9x1034 c.11x1034
34
a. -184 c. -46 b. 10x10 d. 12x1034
b. -92 d. -24
34. Calculate the molecular weight in g/mol of HBr
25. Calculate the entropy change of the ice in using the given data on the densities of HBr gas
cal/K. at various pressures at 273.15K.
a. 200 c. 60 P (atm) ρ (g/L)
b. 100 d. 40 1 3.64444
2/3 2.422
26. Calculate the entropy change of the universe 1/3 1.2073
in cal/K. a. 80.89 c. 80.96
a. 12 c. 16 b. 80.93 d. 81
b. 14 d. 18

27. Ethanol may be treated as an incompressible

fluid at an appreciable pressure range. If the
pressure is changed from 1bar to 3bar at 350K,
what is the change in the Gibbs free energy in J/g?
AUXESIS REVIEW CENTER DAY 1: PHYSICAL & CHEMICAL PRINCIPLES
PHYSICAL CHEMISTRY
b. The Clausius-Clapeyron equation does not
35. The following data were taken in measuring apply to this situation
the molecular weight of a certain gas by the c. The Clausius-Clapeyron theory is
Regnault Method: Wt. of evacuated bulb = applicable only for vaporization and
42.505g; Wt. of bulb + gas = 43.3412g; Wt. of sublimation condition
bulb + water = 365.531g; Temperature = 25˚C; P d. Both scientists apply their postulates to
= 745torr. Calculate the molecular weight of the linear and curvilinear representation
gas.
a. 64.61 c. 66 37. The equilibrium constant KC for the reaction:
b. 65.2 d. 67 2𝐴(𝑔) ⇌ 3𝐵(𝑔) + 𝐶(𝑙)
Is 0.0271M at 1100K. Calculate KP at that
36. Calculate the critical density in g/cm3 of a temperature in bar.
certain hydrocarbon from the following a. 2 c. 3
saturated properties. Critical temperature of b. 2.5 d. 3.5
the hydrocarbon is 240˚C.
T (˚C) P (atm) ρL (g/mL) ρG (g/mL) For Numbers 38-41:
150 13.57 0.65 0.0156 38. A mixture of 11.02mmol of H2S and 5.48mmol
225 61.25 0.47 0.1 of CH4 was placed in an empty container along
a. 0.285 c. 0.275 with a Pt catalyst and the equilibrium:
b. 0.28 d. 0.27 𝐻2𝑆(𝑔) + 𝐶𝐻4(𝑔) ⇌ 𝐻2(𝑔) + 𝐶𝑆2(𝑔)
Was achieved at 700˚C and 762torr. The reaction
Conceptual Question mixture was removed from the catalyst and
The Clapeyron Equation gives the slope: rapidly cooled to room temperature, where the
a. dV/dT forward and reverse rates of reaction are
b. dT/dP negligible. Analysis of the equilibrium mixture
c. dT/dV found 0.711mmol of CS2. Find the amount of
d. dP/dT hydrogen sulfide at equilibrium in mmol.
a. 11.7 c. 9.6
Conceptual Question b. 10.3 d. 8.2
The Clausius-Clapeyron Equation does NOT apply
to: 39. Find KP˚.
a. S-V equilibrium c. S-L equilibrium a. 3x10-5 c. 3x10-3
b. L-V equilibrium d. None of these c. 3x10-4 d. 0.03

Conceptual Question (Nov. 2019 PBE) 40. Find ΔG˚.

What is the Clapeyron Equation? a. 0 c. 45
a. Any of these b. 25 d. 65
b. It postulates that the colligative 41. Find ΔG.
properties, freezing point depression, a. 0 c. 40
boiling point elevation, osmotic b. 20 d. 60
pressure, and vapor pressures are all
dependent on the number f particles in For Numbers 42-44:
the solution and any change thereof is 42. Dinitrogen tetroxide gas is 18.46%
described. dissociated to nitrogen dioxide at 298.15K
c. It postulates that if two components and 1bar in equilibrium. Calculate KP at 25˚C.
systems consisting of solid and liquid a. 0.14atm c. 0.56atm
phases are miscible in the liquid state b. 1.4atm d. 5.6atm
and immiscible in the solid state, only
the pure solid systems will separate out 43. Calculate ΔG˚ at 25˚C.
on cooling solutions. a. 4850J/mol c.1440kJ/mol
d. It postulates that if the temperature and b. 834kJ/mol d. 4270kJ/mol
pressure are both change in such a way
as to keep the chemical potentials of two 44. Calculate KP at the normal boiling point of
phases equal to each other, the rates of water assuming that ΔH=57.2kJ/mol at that
change are given by the equation. range.
a. 14.4atm c. 57.9atm
Conceptual Question (Oct. 2021 PBE) b. 144.7atm d. 578.8atm
The coexistence curve where the plot of pressure
versus temperature along which the two phases 45. The normal boiling point of Br2 is 58.8˚C, and its
coexist was shown by Clausius-Clapeyron. What vapor pressure at 25˚C is 0.287bar. Estimate the
did Clausius postulate? average ΔHVAP in kJ/mol of Br2 in this
a. The Clapeyron equation was simplified temperature range.
by assuming that the vapor obeys the a. 29 c. 35
ideal gas law and by neglecting the molar b. 31 d. 38
volume of the liquid VL in comparison
with the molar volume of the gas VG
AUXESIS REVIEW CENTER DAY 1: PHYSICAL & CHEMICAL PRINCIPLES
PHYSICAL CHEMISTRY
For Numbers 46-47: Conceptual Question
46. Accurate vapor-pressure data for a substance In a process involving osmosis, at equilibrium,
are given in the table. Estimate the latent the chemical potential of the pure solvent side
heat of vaporization in kJ/mol over this should be the chemical potential of the
temperature range. side with solute.
T (˚C) P (torr) a. Less than
40 55.364 b. More than
50 92.592 c. Equal to
60 149.51 d. Can’t be determined
70 233.847
80 355.343 Conceptual Question
a. 41 c. 45 When a solute is introduced to a liquid system, the
b. 43 d. 47 entropy of the said system:
a. Increases
47. Estimate the boiling point of this substance. b. Decreases
a. 40 c. 80 c. Stays the same
b. 60 d. 100 d. Can’t be determined

48. The vapor pressure of solid CO2 is 76.7mmHg Conceptual Question

at -103˚C and its normal sublimation point is - Among the following, which compound will
78.5˚C. What is the heat of sublimation of CO2 produce the least lowering of the vapor pressure
in cal/mol at its normal sublimation point? of a solution?
a. 6061 c. 6610 a. sucrose, C12H22O11
b. 6160 d. 6801 b. Aluminum chloride, AlCl3
c. Table salt, NaCl
49. (Nov. 2019 PBE) Calculate the heat of d. Sodium sulfate, Na2SO4
vaporization in kJ/mol of a compound with
the following characteristics. Conceptual Question
T (K) P (torr) Which of the following statements is true?
388.12 52.301 a. Trouton’s rule fails for highly polar
369.52 141.801 liquids
a. 33.06kJ/mol c. 44.62kJ/mol b. It is impossible to go from vapor phase
to liquid phase without condensation
b. None of these d. 36.99kJ/mol
c. For C compounds and P phases, there
are a total of CP intensive variables to be
50. What is the ionic strength in M of a solution
that is 0.1M potassium nitrate and 0.2M specified
potassium sulfate? d. At high pressures, the latent heat of
vaporization is a measure of the strength
a. 0.5 c. 0.7
of the intermolecular forces of the liquid
b. 0.6 d. 0.8
For Numbers 51-53:
51. An aqueous solution at 26.85˚C of 0.72% by
Conceptual Question
weight HCl freezes at -0.706˚C. Calculate the
For miscible systems, the boiling point of the
Van’t Hoff factor i.
solution is:
a. 1.8
a. Lower than the boiling point of the liquid
b. 1.85
with the lower boiling point
c. 1.9
b. Between the boiling points of the two
d. 1.95
liquids
c. Above the boiling point of the liquid with
52. Calculate the osmotic pressure of the solution in
the higher boiling point
mmHg.
d. Cannot be determined
a. 4000
Conceptual Question b. 5000
All colligative properties stem from the _ of c. 6000
the chemical potential of the liquid solvent as d. 7000
a result of the presence of the solute.
53. Calculate the boiling point of the solution in
a. Reduction ˚C.
b. Change a. 100.1
c. Enlargement b. 100.2
d. A or B or C, depending on the c. 100.3
identities of the solute and solvent d. 100.4

For Numbers 54-56:

54. 150g of NaCl is dissolved in 300g of diethyl
ether. The boiling point elevation of the solution
is 26K.
AUXESIS REVIEW CENTER DAY 1: PHYSICAL & CHEMICAL PRINCIPLES
PHYSICAL CHEMISTRY
Assuming that the Trouton- Hildebrand- How long did the current flow? What mass of
Everett Rule applies, compute for the copper was deposited?
ebullioscopic constant KB. Normal boiling a. 864.64s, 0.576g
point of diethyl ether is 34.6˚C. b. 756.86s, 0.553g
a. 2.32 c. 867.98s, 0.427g
b. 3.22 d. 896.5s, 0.452g
c. 2.23
d. 1.32 60. Calculate the EMF at 25˚C of the cell:
Pt|Sn2+(0.1m),Sn4+(0.01m)||Fe3+(0.5m)|Fe
55. Compute for the Van’t Hoff factor. Fe3++3e-→Fe; E˚=-0.041V
a. 1.36 Sn4++2e-→Sn2+; E˚=0.151V
b. 1.23 a. -0.17V
c. 1.63 b. 0.17V
d. 1.32 c. -0.086V
d. 0.086V
56. Compute for the degree of dissociation (%).
a. 31.6
b. 30.61
c. 36.1
d. 33.3

57. Determine the boiling and freezing points,

vapor pressures at 23˚C of pure benzene,
and a solution of benzene in 1.202g of
naphthalene in 25.63g benzene; the
molality and osmotic pressure of the
solution.
a. 75˚C, 1.6˚C, 82.1mmHg, 0.247M, 6.3atm
b. 91˚C, 5˚C, 102mmHg, 0.432M, 9atm
c. None of these
d. 81˚C, 3.6˚C, 83.6mmHg, 0.32M, 7.78atm

Conceptual Question (Nov. 2019 PBE)

Are galvanic cells and electrolytic cells the
same? Why?
a. No. because galvanic cells are
electrochemical cells in which
chemical cells occur simultaneously;
while in electrolytic cells, the chemical
reaction is caused by an externally
applied potential difference.
b. No, because galvanic cells need a
constant supply of electricity while
electrolytic cells depend on
intermittent source of power.
c. Yes, because they are both
electrochemical cells and their uses
are common to each other
d. Yes, because galvanic cells and
electrolytic cells are both
electrochemical cells.

58. A constant current was passed through a

solution of CuSO4 for 1hr and 0.04g of
copper was deposited. What is the current?
a. 33.76mA
b. 16.88mA
c. 8.44mA
d. 4.22mA

59. Three electrolyte cells A, B, and C

containing solution of ZnSO4, AgNO3, and
CuSO4, respectively are connected in series.
A steady current of 1.5A was passed
through them until 1.45g of silver deposited
at the cathode of cell B.
 AUXESIS REVIEW CENTER DAY 1: PHYSICAL & CHEMICAL PRINCIPLES
ANALYTICAL CHEMISTRY

Subject: Analytical Chemistry Lecturer: 2. A 30% solution of phosphoric acid (97.9956)

Rey Martin G. Estoque, ChE has a specific gravity of 1.18. What is its
normality as an acid assuming partial
Introduction neutralization to HPO42-?
• ANALYTICAL CHEMISTRY is a branch of a. 3.61N
chemistry involved with the analysis of a b. 7.22N
chemical substance. c. 4.82N
• Qualitative Analysis establishes the chemical d. 9.63N
identity of the species in a sample.
• Quantitative Analysis determines the relative 3. How many mL of 1N AgNO3 would be
amounts of these species, or analytes, in required to precipitate the chloride from
numerical terms. 20mL of 0.55N SrCl26H2O?
a. 11mL
Quantitative Methods b. 5.5mL
• Gravimetric Methods c. 3.5mL
- Determination of mass of the analyte or d. 14mL
some compound chemically related to it.
• Volumetric Methods 4. How much water must be added to a 0.4N
- Measurement of the volume of a solution solution of Cr2(SO4)318H2O in order to make it
containing sufficient reagent to react 0.05M? The solution is to be used in the
completely with the analyte. precipitation of chromium as the hydroxide.
• Instrumental Methods a. 40mL
- Measurement of electrical properties b. 62.2mL
(potential, current, resistance, quantity of c. 16.7mL
electric charge, etc.), emission of radiation by d. 25.5mL
analytes, etc.
5. An aqueous solution containing 20wt% KI
Concentration (166.002) has a density of 1.168g/mL. Find
• A general expression for an amount of solute in the molality of the KI solution.
a given amount of material. a. 1.24m
• Molarity (M) b. 1.05m
𝑎𝑚𝑜𝑢𝑛𝑡 𝑜𝑓 𝑠𝑜𝑙𝑢𝑡𝑒 (𝑚𝑜𝑙) c. 1.65m
𝑀𝑜𝑙𝑎𝑟𝑖𝑡𝑦 =
𝑣𝑜𝑙𝑢𝑚𝑒 𝑜𝑓 𝑠𝑜𝑙𝑢𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛 (𝐿) d. 1.51m
• Molality (m)
𝑎𝑚𝑜𝑢𝑛𝑡 𝑜𝑓 𝑠𝑜𝑙𝑢𝑡𝑒 (𝑚𝑜𝑙) 6. The concentration of icosane (282.56) in a
𝑀𝑜𝑙𝑎𝑙𝑖𝑡𝑦 =
𝑚𝑎𝑠𝑠 𝑜𝑓 𝑠𝑜𝑙𝑣𝑒𝑛𝑡 (𝑘𝑔) particular sample of rainwater is 0.2ppb.
What is its molar concentration?
Normality a. 5x10-10M
• Allows for simplified calculations involved with b. 7x10-10M
certain types of problems c. 9x10-10M
• Based on measuring the amount of a substance d. 8x10-10M
required to react with an analyte completely.
• The reaction ratio still must be taken into 7. What is the density of 53.4% NaOH (40) if
account, but it is done by combining it with the 16.7mL of the solution diluted to 2L gave
molarity to produce a new unit of 0.169M NaOH?
concentration called “normal.” a. 1.52g/mL
𝑎𝑚𝑜𝑢𝑛𝑡 𝑜𝑓 𝑠𝑜𝑙𝑢𝑡𝑒 (𝑒𝑞) b. 1.32g/mL
𝑁𝑜𝑟𝑚𝑎𝑙𝑖𝑡𝑦 = c. 0.97g/mL
𝑣𝑜𝑙𝑢𝑚𝑒 𝑠𝑜𝑙𝑢𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛 (𝐿)
• Normality is related to molarity in the following d. 1.21g/mL
way:
𝑁𝑜𝑟𝑚𝑎𝑙𝑖𝑡𝑦 = 𝑀𝑜𝑙𝑎𝑟𝑖𝑡𝑦 × ℎ 8. How many grams of B(OH)3 (61.83) should be
• Redox Reactions used to make 2L of 0.05M solution?
ℎ = 𝑛𝑢𝑚𝑏𝑒𝑟 𝑜𝑓 𝑒𝑙𝑒𝑐𝑡𝑟𝑜𝑛𝑠 𝑙𝑜𝑠𝑡 𝑜𝑟 𝑔𝑎𝑖𝑛𝑒𝑑 𝑖𝑛 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑟𝑒𝑎𝑐𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛 a. 5.21g
• Neutralization Reactions b. 6.18g
ℎ = 𝑛𝑢𝑚𝑏𝑒𝑟 𝑜𝑓 𝑝𝑎𝑟𝑡𝑖𝑐𝑖𝑝𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑛𝑔 𝐻+ 𝑜𝑟 𝑂𝐻− 𝑖𝑜𝑛𝑠 c. 3.44g
d. 8.32g
1. How many grams of nickel (II) nitrate
hexahydrate must be used to prepare a
200ml solution containing 0.5M nitrate ions?
Assume 100% ionization. (Ni=58.69)
a. 14.53g
b. 35.41g
c. 41.35g
d. 53.14g
AUXESIS REVIEW CENTER DAY 1: PHYSICAL & CHEMICAL PRINCIPLES
ANALYTICAL CHEMISTRY

9. Marie Curie dissolved 0.09192g of RaCl2 and 14. A solid mixture weighing 0.5485g contained
treated with excess AgNO3 to precipitate only ferrous ammonium sulfate
0.0889g of AgCl. In her time, the atomic mass hexahydrate, FeSO4(NH4)2SO4 6H2O (392.13)
of Ag was known to be 107.8 and that of Cl and ferrous chloride hexahydrate, FeCl2
was 35.4. Find the atomic mass of Ra from 6H2O (234.840). The sample was dissolved
these values. in 1M H2SO4, oxidized to Fe3+ with H2O2, and
a. 225.6 precipitated with cupferron. The ferric
b. 225.8 cupferron complex was ignited to produce
c. 225.3 0.1678g of ferric oxide (159.69). Calculate
d. 225.1 the wt% Cl (35.453) in the original sample.
a. 41.15%
10. A method to measure soluble organic b. 13.7%
carbon in seawater includes oxidation of the c. 64.12%
organic materials to CO2 with K2S2O8, d. 22.65%
followed by a gravimetric determination of
the CO2 trapped by a column of ascarite. A 15. (Nov. 2019 PBE) Determine the molarity of
water sample weighing 6.234g produced a solution prepared in the laboratory by
2.378mg CO2 (44.009). Determine the ppm dissolving 12.7g of HCl in sufficient water to
C in the seawater. make 1L of solution.
a. 442.5 a. 0.1277M
b. 104.1 b. 0.5221M
c. 612.7 c. 0.3481M
d. 242.1 d. 0.4231M

11. Twenty dietary iron tablet total mass of 16. (Oct. 2021 PBE) Determine the number of
22.131g were ground and mixed moles and grams of N2HPO4 in 1.75L in
thoroughly. Then, 2.998g of the powder 0.46M of NaHPO4 solution.
were dissolved in HNO3 and treated to a. 0.556mol; 85g
convert all iron to Fe3+. Addition of NH3 b. 0.805mol; 114g
precipitated Fe2O3·xH2O, which was ignited c. 0.46mol; 185g
to give 0.264g of Fe2O3 (159.69). What is the d. 0.656mol; 90g
average mass of FeSO47H2O (278.01) in each
tablet? 17. (Oct. 2021 PBE) Determine the number of
a. 0.512g moles of an unknown base in a solution
b. 0.339g when titrated with 0.15M HCl and 22.01mL
c. 0.155g of the acid were needed to reach the end
d. 0.769g point of the titration.
a. 2.2x10-3ml
12. The amount of calcium present in milk can b. 1.1x10-3ml
be determined by adding oxalate to a c. 0.9x10-3ml
sample and measuring the mass of calcium d. 3.3x10-3ml
oxalate precipitated. What is the mass
percent of calcium, if 0.429g of calcium 18. (Oct. 2021 PBE) If one gallon of blood was
oxalate forms in a 125g sample of milk when added in three gallons of water, and one
excess aqueous sodium oxalate is added. ounce of that dilution was added to 9
Na2C2O4 (aq) + Ca+2 (aq) -> CaC2O4(S) + 2Na+ ounces of water, what is the final dilution
(aq) when 7mL of that dilution was added to
Atomic wts.: Na=23 Ca=40 C=12 O=16 563mL of water?
a. 0.11% a. 5.65x10-3
b. 0.22% b. 2.24x10-2
c. 0.33% c. 1.72x10-4
d. 0.44% d. 3.11x10-4

13. One pound of a mixture of NaCl and KCl was 19. (Nov. 2019 PBE) Determine the final
water treated with sulfuric acid and 1.2lb of volume of 0.51M KBr when the starter
potassium and sodium sulfate were volume is 100mL. From a 50mL solution of
recovered. What is the mass ratio of NaCl 0.25M alanine, what volume will be
to KCl in the original mixture? required using 0.11M alanine?
a. 2.14 a. 196mL; 114mL
b. 2.41 b. 51mL; 33mL
c. 4.12 c. 179mL; 102mL
d. 4.21 d. 201mL; 120mL
AUXESIS REVIEW CENTER DAY 1: PHYSICAL & CHEMICAL PRINCIPLES
ANALYTICAL CHEMISTRY
Acid-Base / Neutralization Titrations
Conceptual Question
• Water, as an amphiprotic solvent, undergoes Water at room temperature usually has a slightly
self-ionization or autoprotolysis. acidic pH. This is largely attributed to what
2𝐻2𝑂 ⇌ 𝐻3𝑂+ + 𝑂𝐻− compound(s)?
• Strong acids and bases ionize completely in a. Sulfuric acid
water. b. Dissolved metals
• Weak acids and bases ionize only partially in c. Carbonic acid
water; extent of ionization depends on the d. Nitric acid
dissociation constants, which are equilibrium
constants. Conceptual Question
𝐻𝐴 + 𝐻2𝑂 ⇌ 𝐻3𝑂+ + 𝐴−, 𝐾𝑒𝑞 = 𝐾𝑎 When benzoic acid dissolves in water, it partially
𝐵 + 𝐻2𝑂 ⇌ 𝐵𝐻+ + 𝑂𝐻−, 𝐾𝑒𝑞 = 𝐾𝑏 reacts with water and ionizes to form benzoate
and hydronium ions. In this reaction, what is the
pH Buffers conjugate acid?
• Mixtures of weak acids or bases and their a. Benzoate ions
conjugate. b. Hydronium ions
• Have the ability to resist changes in pH upon c. Water
dilution or addition of small amounts of acid or d. Benzoic acid
base.
• Henderson-Hasselbalch Equation: Conceptual Question (Nov. 2019 PBE)
[𝑎𝑐𝑖𝑑] Define a salt in terms of acid and base.
𝑝𝐻 = 𝑝𝐾𝑎 − 𝑙𝑜𝑔
[𝑏𝑎𝑠𝑒] a. A salt is a compound that follows Le
• Buffer capacity – the quantity of strong acid or Chatelier’s Principle in reactions with
strong base needed to cause 1L of the buffer to other compounds.
undergo a pH change of 1. b. All of these
• The buffer capacity increases as the c. A salt is a compound formed when the
concentration ratio approaches 1. nucleus of a hydrogen tom enters a
quantity of water.
Summary of Acid-Base Titrations d. A salt is a compound (other than water)
• Strong Acid Titrated with Strong Base produced by the reaction of an acid and
Region Constituents Comments a base.
Before EP HA+MA Strong Acid
At EP MA Neutral Conceptual Question (Oct. 2021 and May 2022
After EP MA+MOH Strong Base PBE)
When a can of soda is opened and CO2 is released
• Strong Base Titrated with Strong Acid to the atmosphere, what is the resultant pH of
Region Constituents Comments the soda?
Before EP MA+MOH Strong Base a. Decreases
At EP MA Neutral b. Increases
After EP HA+MA Strong Acid c. The same
d. All these
• Weak Acid Titrated with Strong Base
20. What is the pH of a 0.035M KOH solution?
Region Constituents Comments
a. 12.54
Initial HA Weak Acid
b. 1.46
Before EP HA+MA Buffer
c. 3.5
At EP MA Weak Base d. 9.97
After EP MA+MOH Strong Base
21. BHClO4 is a salt formed from the weak base
• Weak Base Titrated with Strong Acid B (Kb=1x10-4) and perchloric acid, a strong
Region Constituents Comments acid. Find the pH of 0.1M BHClO4.
Initial A Weak Base a. 5.5
Before EP A+MA Buffer b. 2.15
At EP MA Weak Acid c. 8.93
After EP MA+HA Strong Acid d. 10.1

Conceptual Question 22. A 0.045M solution of benzoic acid has a pH

A solution is basic if: of 2.78. Calculate its pKa.
a. [OH-] > 0 a. 6.75
b. [OH-] = 1x10-7M b. 2.15
c. [OH-] > [H+] c. 5.77
d. [OH-] > 1x10-7M d. 4.2
AUXESIS REVIEW CENTER DAY 1: PHYSICAL & CHEMICAL PRINCIPLES
ANALYTICAL CHEMISTRY

23. A 0.1M solution of a base has pH=9.28. Find 31. When 10mL of 0.1M HBr is added
Kb. a. 6
a. 5.2x10-8 b. 7
b. 3.6x10-9 c. 8
c. 4.4x10-6 d. 9
d. 1.7x10-5
32. When 10.5mL of 0.1M HBr is added
24. A 0.1M solution of a base is 2% hydrolyzed. a. 3.08
Find Kb. b. 4.08
a. 2.4x10-8 c. 5.08
b. 5.5x10-9 d. 6.08
c. 3.1x10-7
d. 4.1x10-5 For Numbers 33-36:
Find the pH at the following points in the
25. A 10.231g sample of window cleaner titration of 25mL of 0.3M HF with 0.3M NaOH.
containing ammonia was diluted with The KA value is 6.6x10-4.
39.466g of water. Then 4.373g of solution 33. After adding 10mL of 0.3M NaOH
were titrated with 14.22mL of 0.1063M HCl a. 2
to reach a bromocresol green endpoint. b. 3
Find the weight % of NH3 (17.031) in the c. 4
cleaner. d. 5
a. 10.9%
b. 16.3% 34. After adding 12.5mL of 0.3M NaOH
c. 5.33% a. 2.18
d. 2.86% b. 3.18
c. 4.18
26. (Nov. 2019 PBE) In a titration experiment, d. 5.18
15.02mL of an HCl solution required 26.1mL
of 0.32M sodium hydroxide. Determine the 35. After adding 25mL of 0.3M NaOH
concentration of HCl. a. 7.18
a. 2.15M b. 8.18
b. 0.52M c. 9.18
c. 1.12M d. 10.18
d. 0.64M
36. After adding 26mL of 0.3M NaOH
For Numbers 27-29: a. 10.77
Find the pH at the following points in the b. 11.77
titration of 30mL of 0.05M HClO4 with 0.1M KOH. c. 12.77
27. When 5mL of 0.1M KOH is added d. 13.77
a. 1.54
b. 2.54 For Numbers 37-39:
c. 3.54 You are given 90 mL of 0.6 M of the weak base
d. 4.54 NH3 (Kb = 1.8 × 10-5), and 1 M of the strong acid
titrant HCl.
28. When 15mL of 0.1M KOH is added 37. What is the pH after 50 mL of acid is added?
a. 5 a. 6.16
b. 6 b. 7.16
c. 7 c. 8.16
d. 8 d. 9.16

29. When 20mL of 0.1M KOH is added 38. What is the pH at the equivalence point?
a. 9 a. 3.84
b. 10 b. 4.84
c. 11 c. 5.84
d. 12 d. 6.84

For Numbers 30-32: 39. What is the pH after 60 mL of acid is added?

Find the pH at the following points in the a. 1.4
titration of 50mL of 0.02M KOH with 0.1M HBr. b. 2.4
30. When 3mL of 0.1M HBr is added c. 3.4
a. 10.12 d. 4.4
b. 11.12
c. 12.12
d. 13.12
AUXESIS REVIEW CENTER DAY 1: PHYSICAL & CHEMICAL PRINCIPLES
ANALYTICAL CHEMISTRY

Conceptual Question 44. (Oct. 2021 PBE) Determine the pH of a

Which of the following pairs will form a buffer 0.21M solution of sodium benzoate in water
solution in the course of a titration? at room temperature. (KA=6.3x10-5)
a. Nitric acid, sodium hydroxide a. 6.35
b. Sulfuric acid, potassium hydroxide b. 4.37
c. Acetic acid, sodium hydroxide c. 0.74
d. Hydrochloric acid, potassium hydroxide d. 2

Conceptual Question 45. (Nov. 2019 PBE) Determine the pH of a

Buffer capacity is maximum when: 0.05M solution of each salt:
a. pH = 0.5pKa • Potassium acetate (KA=1.8x10-5)
b. pH = pKa • Sodium benzoate
c. pH = 2pKa • Potassium carbonate
d. pH = 0.1pKa • Sodium dihydrogen phosphate
• Ammonium nitrate
Conceptual Question a. 11.5, 8.45, 4.56, 4.26, 1.23
Which of the following acids would be most b. 10.65, 3.22, 11, 8.45, 5.27
suitable for preparing a buffer of pH 3.1? c. 8.45, 4.26, 7, 11.5, 8.73
a. Hydrogen peroxide, pKa = 11.65 d. 8.73, 5.99, 8.45, 7.33, 7
b. Propanoic acid, pKa = 4.874
c. Cyanoacetic acid, pKa = 2.472 46. (Oct. 2021 PBE) When formic acid is 4.6%
d. Sulfanilic acid, pKa = 3.232 ionized in 0.105M of aqueous solution at
room temperature, determine the
40. How many grams of Na2CO3 (105.99) should ionization constant of the acid. If the
be mixed with 5g of NaHCO3 (84.01) to solution containing 0.25N of 25mL acid is
produce 100mL of buffer with pH 10? diluted to 202mL and titrated with 0.35
pKa1=6.351, pKa2=10.329. NaOH, calculate the pH value and the
a. 2.96g concentration of the hydrogen ion at the
b. 2.02g equivolume part.
c. 2.56g a. 2.2x10-4; 8.06; 8.7x10-9
d. 2.34g b. 1.8x10-5; 9.1; 7.2x10-10
c. 4.1x10-4; 7.21; 6.4x10-10
41. How many mL of 0.246M HNO3 should be d. 3.4x10-4; 6.32; 5.23x10-11
added to 213mL of 0.00666M 2,2’-
bipyridine (pKa = 4.34) to give a pH of 4.19? 47. (Oct. 2021 PBE) A solution of HCl and a
a. 2.25mL monobaric acid is titrated with NaOH. If the
b. 6.44mL initial volume of the solution is 100mL and
c. 3.38mL the concentration of each moment is
d. 8.1mL 0.011M and the ionization constant is
1.01x105 and the concentration of the
42. What is the pH at the equivalence point titrant base is 0.1M, estimate the pH of the
when 0.1M hydroxyacetic acid (pKa=3.832) solution when 5mL and 15mL of the titrate
is titrated with 0.05M KOH? has been added and the optimum pKa of a
a. 2.56 weak acid indicator to allow determination
b. 4.75 of the HCl present.
c. 10.2 a. 2.3, 5.0, 3.5
d. 8.18 b. 3.7, 6.0, 4.5
c. 3.4, 4.5, 5.2
43. (Nov. 2019 PBE) Determine the: d. 4.2, 7.0, 6.2
• Moles of analyte
• Volume of titrant to reach end point Applications of Neutralization Titrations
• pH at the start, halfway and at the • Kjeldahl Method – determination of nitrogen
endpoint for each of the titrations based on the conversion of organic nitrogen
performed. to ammonia, which is then separated by
For the titration shown as follows: 50mL of a distillation and determined by titration.
weak base (pKb=5), 0.072M with 0.153M HCl. • Determination of organic functional groups –
a. 3x10-3mol; 24mL; 10.84, 8.82, 5.06 a large variety of esters can be determined by
b. 11.25x10-4mol; 12.22mL; 7.34, 2.11, an acid-base back-titration technique; almost
12.23 all esters react with hydroxide to give a
c. 10.35x10-1mol; 16mL; 5.32, 4.23, 8.45 carboxylate ion and an alcohol
d. 7.24x10-2mol; 11.25mL; 11.23, 5.31, 9.56 (saponification).
𝑅𝐶𝑂𝑂𝑅′ + 𝑂𝐻− → 𝑅𝐶𝑂𝑂− + 𝑅′𝑂𝐻
AUXESIS REVIEW CENTER DAY 1: PHYSICAL & CHEMICAL PRINCIPLES
ANALYTICAL CHEMISTRY

48. The Kjeldahl procedure was used to analyze

256 microliters of a solution containing
37.9mg/mL protein. The liberated NH3
(17.031) was collected in 5mL of 0.0336M
HCl, and the remaining acid required
6.34mL of 0.01M NaOH for complete
titration. What is the weight % of nitrogen
(14.007) in the protein?
a. 55.2%
b. 15.1%
c. 95.6%
d. 67.2%

49. The formaldehyde content of a pesticide

preparation was determined by weighing
0.2985g of the liquid sample into a flask
containing 50mL of 0.0959M NaOH and
50mL of 3% H2O2. Upon heating, the
formaldehyde was oxidized to acetate,
consuming the base in a 1:1 ratio. After
cooling, the excess base was titrated with
22.71mL of 0.0537M H2SO4. Calculate the
percentage of formaldehyde (30.026) in the
sample.
a. 11.5%
b. 45.6%
c. 75.2%
d. 23.7%

50. (Oct. 2021 PBE) If the normality of HCl is

greater by 10% compared to KOH, estimate
the normality of the HCl solution when
0.67g of (NH4)2SO4 is dissolved in water,
treated with excess NaOH and the ammonia
released is passed through a solution of
20mL of HCl. The excess acid solution is
titrated using 15.01mL of KOH solution.
a. 0.275N
b. 3.17x10-3N
c. 0.152N
d. 2.32x10-2N

Analysis of Hydroxide, Carbonate and

Bicarbonate Solutions
• Carbonate, bicarbonate, and hydroxide ions
are all bases that can be titrated with a strong
acid such as HCl.
• It is important to note that appreciable
amounts of bicarbonate and hydroxide ions
cannot coexist in the same solution because
they react:
𝐻𝐶𝑂− + 𝑂𝐻− → 𝐶𝑂2− + 𝐻2𝑂
3 3
• Any attempt to prepare a mixture of these
two compounds will yield a solution
containing carbonate and whichever reactant
is in excess.
• There are 5 possible sample compositions:
Na2CO3 alone, NaOH alone, NaHCO3 alone,
Na2CO3+NaOH, and Na2CO3+NaHCO3.
AUXESIS REVIEW CENTER DAY 1: PHYSICAL & CHEMICAL PRINCIPLES
ANALYTICAL CHEMISTRY

Sample Composition Volume of Titrant 55. 1.906g of soda ash is dissolved in 500ml of
Na2CO3 Vph = Vbcg water. Using parallel titration method, the
NaOH Vph > 0, Vbcg = 0 50ml aliquot needed 15.6ml of 0.10N HCl
NaHCO3 Vph = 0, Vbcg > 0 for the phenolphthalein endpoint and
Na2CO3 + NaOH Vph > Vbcg 28.8ml of 0.10N HCl to reach the methyl
Na2CO3 + NaHCO3 Vph < Vbcg orange endpoint. What is the weight
percent of NaOH, Na2CO3, and NaHCO3
51. A solution contains NaHCO3, Na2CO3, and present in the sample? Use correct number
NaOH, either alone or in permissible of significant digits. O = 16, C = 12, H = 1, Na
combination. Titration of a 50mL portion to = 23
a phenolphthalein endpoint requires a. Na2CO3 = 5.04% and NaOH = 73.41%
22.1mL of 0.1M HCl. A second aliquot b. Na2CO3 = 26.59% and NaOH = 73.41%
requires 48.4mL of the HCl when titrated to c. Na2CO3 = 73.41% and NaOH = 5.04%
a bromocresol green endpoint. Determine d. Na2CO3 = 73.41% and NaOH = 26.59%
the composition in terms of molar solute
concentrations of the original solution. Precipitation Titrations
a. 0.0084M Na2CO3, 0.0442M NaHCO3 • Titrations based on reactions that produce
b. 0.0442M Na2CO3, 0.0084M NaHCO3 sparingly soluble substances (precipitates).
c. 0.0084M Na2CO3, 0.0442M NaOH • Among the oldest titrations known, but are
d. 0.0442M Na2CO3, 0.0084M NaOH limited in scope because it is sometimes
non-stoichiometric, has a slow reaction
For Numbers 52-54: rate, and has issues of co-precipitation.
A series of solutions containing NaOH, Na 2CO3, • Only procedures using silver ion (Ag+,
and NaHCO3, alone or in compatible argentometric titrations) as the titrant or
combinations, was titrated with 0.1202M HCl. analyte have remained competitive with
Shown in the table are the volumes of acid newer analytical methods.
needed to titrate 25mL portions of each solution
to a phenolphthalein (1) and a bromocresol Applications of Precipitation Titrations
green (2) endpoint. Mohr Method
Solution V1 V2 • Analyte: Cl-, Br-, CN-
S1 22.42 22.44 • Titrant: AgNO3 (Ag+)
S2 15.67 42.13 • Indicator: Na2CrO4
S3 29.64 36.42 • Titration reaction: 𝐴𝑔+ + 𝐶𝑙− ↔ 𝐴𝑔𝐶𝑙(𝑠)
S4 16.12 32.23 • Indicator reaction: 2𝐴𝑔+ + 𝐶𝑟𝑂42− ↔
𝑨𝒈𝟐𝑪𝒓𝑶𝟒(𝒔)
S5 0 33.33
• Carried out at 6.5<pH<10.3 to prevent
52. Which solution contains only Na2CO3?
formation of a soluble complex (pH<6.5) or
a. S1
an unwanted insoluble hydroxide or oxide
b. S3
(pH>10.3).
c. S4
d. S2
Fajans Method
• Analyte: Cl-, Br-, I-, SCN-
53. Which solution contains Na2CO3 and NaOH?
• Titrant: AgNO3 (Ag+)
a. S1
• Indicator: Dichlorofluorescein (Cl-, Br-, I-,
b. S3
SCN-), eosin (Br-, I-, SCN-)
c. S4
• Titration reaction: 𝐴𝑔+ + 𝐶𝑙− ↔ 𝐴𝑔𝐶𝑙(𝑠)
d. S2
• Indicator reaction: 𝐴𝑔𝐶𝑙 ∙ 𝐴𝑔+ + 𝐷𝐶𝐹− ↔
𝑨𝒈𝑪𝒍 ∙ 𝑨𝒈+ ∙ 𝑫𝑪𝑭−(𝒔)
54. For the solution that contains Na2CO3 and
• Done with vigorous shaking to avoid
NaHCO3, calculate the mass of Na2CO3
coagulation.
(105.99) present.
• Addition of dextrin inhibits undesired
a. 199.6mg coagulation of the AgCl.
b. 536.7mg
c. 337.1mg
Volhard Method
d. 477.6mg
• Analyte: Cl-, Br-, I-
• Titrant: SCN-
• Indicator: FeSCN2+ (comes from ferric alum)
• Analyte reaction: 𝐴𝑔+ + 𝐶𝑙− ↔ 𝐴𝑔𝐶𝑙(𝑠)
• Titration reaction: 𝐴𝑔+ + 𝑆𝐶𝑁− ↔
𝐴𝑔𝑆𝐶𝑁(𝑠)
• Indicator reaction: 𝐹𝑒3+ + 𝑆𝐶𝑁− ↔
𝑭𝒆𝑺𝑪𝑵𝟐+(𝒔)
• Nitrobenzene may be added to mask AgCl
from reacting with SCN-.
AUXESIS REVIEW CENTER DAY 1: PHYSICAL & CHEMICAL PRINCIPLES
ANALYTICAL CHEMISTRY

56. A 30mL solution of HBr was treated with • Ligands can be classified according to how
5mL of freshly boiled and cooled 8M HNO3, many donor atoms it contains (dentate)
and then with 50mL of 0.365M AgNO3 with • When polydentate ligands coordinate with
rigorous stirring. Then, 1mL of saturated metal ions, ring structures known as
ferric alum was added and the solution was chelates are formed.
titrated with 0.287M KSCN. When 3.6mL
had been added, the solution turned red. Ethylenediaminetetraacetic Acid (EDTA)
What was the molar concentration of HBr in • A hexadentate, containing 4 oxygen and 2
the original solution? nitrogen donor atoms.
a. 0.5739M • In strongly basic solutions (pH>12), all four
b. 0.3395M carboxylic acid groups are unprotonated
c. 0.2724M and EDTA forms stable 1:1 complexes with
d. 0.6788M virtually all multivalent metal ions.
• A tetraprotic acid, hence can exist in a
57. A silver nitrate solution contains 14.77g of variety of protonated forms.
primary-standard AgNO3 (169.87) in 1L. • Any or all of its protonated forms may react
What volume of the solution will be needed with a given metal to yield a metal-EDTA
to react with 0.2631g of NaCl (58.44)? complex.
a. 28.54mL • Metals react most completely with EDTA in
b. 51.78mL basic solution where many form insoluble
c. 63.34mL hydroxides.
d. 79.81mL
Theory of Complexation Indicators
58. A mixture of pure LiCl (42.394) and BaI2 • These indicators are weak complexing
(391.136) weighing 0.6g is treated with agents that exhibit different colors in their
45.15mL of 0.2M AgNO3 solution, and the complexed and uncomplexed forms. When
excess silver is then titrated with 25mL of such an indicator is added to the solution to
KSCN at 0.1M with ferric alum as an be titrated, it forms a colored complex with
indicator. Find the percentage of iodine the analyte:
(126.904) in the mixture. 𝑀 + 𝐼𝑛 ↔ 𝑀𝐼𝑛
a. 54.1% • When the titrant is added, it reacts with the
b. 88.5% free metal until essentially none is left, at
c. 23.5% which point it takes the metal away from
d. 44.6% MIn.
𝑀𝐼𝑛 + 𝑌 ↔ 𝑀𝑌 + 𝐼𝑛
59. (Oct. 2021 PBE) Analyze and calculate the
percentage of nickel in a 1.201g sample of 60. A 50mL sample of Ni2+ was treated with
nickel ore which was analyzed by the 25mL of 0.05M EDTA to complex all the Ni2+
volumetric method. A solution of 48mL and leave excess EDTA in solution. The
containing 1.4x10-2g of KCN/mL and the excess EDTA was then back-titrated,
excess cyanide required half a milliliter of requiring 5mL of 0.05M Zn2+. What was the
silver nitrate solution with 1.25x10-2g AgNO3 concentration of Ni2+ in the original
per milliliter. solution?
a. 9.36% a. 0.0125M
b. 15.21% b. 0.05M
c. 12.5% c. 0.02M
d. 8.22% d. 0.01M

Complexometric Titrations 61. Ni2+ can be analyzed by a back titration by

Coordination Chemistry using standard Zn2+ with xylenol orange
• Most metal ions can accept unshared pairs indicator. A solution containing 25mL of Ni2+
of electrons from an anion or molecule to is treated with 25mL of 0.05283M Na2EDTA.
form coordinate covalent bonds – bonds The solution turns yellow when a few drops
where both bonding electrons come from of indicator are added. Titration with
one of the two atoms involved. 0.02299M Zn2+ requires 17.61mL to reach
• Ligand or coordinating agent: the molecule the red endpoint. What is the molarity of
or ion containing the donor atom. Ni2+ in the unknown?
• Coordination compound or complex ion: a. 0.03664M
the product resulting from the reaction b. 0.04663M
between a metal ion and a ligand c. 0.06346M
• Coordination number: the number of pairs d. 0.06436M
of electrons accepted by a particular metal
ion (at least 4, often 6)
AUXESIS REVIEW CENTER DAY 1: PHYSICAL & CHEMICAL PRINCIPLES
ANALYTICAL CHEMISTRY

62. Cyanide solution (12.73mL) was treated 65. Calculate the weight of primary standard
with 25mL of Ni2+ solution in excess to Na2C2O4 (134g/mol) necessary to react with
convert the cyanide to tetracyanonickelate 25mL of 0.2005M KMnO4 in acidic medium.
(II). Excess Ni2+ was then titrated with a. 0.671g
10.15mL of 0.01307M EDTA. If 39.35mL of b. 1.679g
EDTA were required to reach equilibrium c. 1.313g
with 30.1mL of the original Ni2+ solution, d. 2.687g
calculate the molarity of CN- in the 12.73mL
sample. 66. Aqueous glycerol (C3H8O3, 92.095) solution
a. 0.09254M weighing 100mg was treated with 50mL of
b. 0.04415M 0.0837M Ce4+ in 4M HClO4 at 60˚C for 15min
c. 0.03256M to oxidize glycerol to formic acid, H2CO2. The
d. 0.02313M excess Ce4+ required 12.11mL of 0.0448M
Fe2+ to reach a ferroin endpoint. Find the
63. A 50mL solution containing Ni2+ and Zn2+ weight % glycerol in the unknown.
was titrated with 25mL of 0.0452M EDTA to a. 86.2%
bind all the metal. The excess unreacted b. 41.9%
EDTA required 12.4mL of 0.0123M Mg2+ for c. 33.1%
complete reaction. An excess of the reagent d. 68.4%
2,3-dimercapto-1-propanol was then added
to displace the EDTA from zinc. Another 67. A 50mL sample containing La3+ was treated
29.2mL of Mg2+ were required for reaction with sodium oxalate to precipitate
with the liberated EDTA. Calculate the La2(C2O4)3, which was washed, dissolved in
molarity of Ni2+ in the original solution. acid, and titrated with 18.04mL of
a. 0.0072M 0.006363M KMnO4. Find [La3+] in the
b. 0.0124M unknown.
c. 0.0685M a. 6.123mM
d. 0.0414M b. 9.314mM
c. 5.523mM
64. A 25mL sample containing Fe3+ and Cu2+ d. 3.826mM
required 16.06mL of 0.05083M EDTA for
complete titration. A 50mL sample of the 68. A 3.026g portion of a copper (II) salt was
unknown was treated with NH4F to protect dissolved in a 250mL volumetric flask. A
the Fe3+. Then Cu2+ was reduced and masked 50mL aliquot was analyzed by adding 1g of
by thiourea. Addition of 25mL of 0.05083M KI and titrating the iodine with 23.33mL of
EDTA liberated Fe3+ from its fluoride 0.04668M Na2S2O3. Find the wt% of Cu
complex to form an EDTA complex. The (63.546) in the salt.
excess EDTA required 19.77mL of 0.01883M a. 53.15%
Pb2+ to reach a xylenol orange endpoint. b. 25.22%
Find [Cu2+] in the unknown. c. 11.43%
a. 0.01468M d. 42.59%
b. 0.04186M
c. 0.06814M 69. (Oct. 2021 PBE) A certain volume of a
d. 0.08641M solution of KMnO4 will oxidize sufficient
potassium tetraoxalate that requires half of
Redox Titrations that volume using 0.201N of KOH solution
Titrants: Oxidants for neutralization. Determine the quantity
• Potassium Permanganate (KMnO4) of KMnO4 in a liter of its solution.
- Redox couple: MnO4-/Mn2+ (pH<2) a. 4.213g
- Redox couple: MnO4-/MnO2 (5<pH<9) b. 2.01g
• Cerium (IV) c. 8.621g
- Redox couple: Ce4+/Ce3+ d. 5.02g
• Potassium dichromate (K2Cr2O7)
- Redox couple: Cr2O72-/Cr3+ BONUS DAY 1 QUESTION
• Iodine (I2) 70. (Nov. 2019 PBE) The distance of the Earth to
- Redox couple: I2/I- the most remote normal galaxy is calculated
to be:
Titrants: Reductants a. 2x1022m
• Iron (II) (Fe2+) b. 1.4x1026m
- Redox couple: Fe3+/Fe2+ c. 4x1016m
• Iodide (I-) d. 9x1025m
- Redox couple: S2O32- (thiosulfate) / S4O62-
(Tetrathionate)