51

INDIAN ASSOCIATION OF PHYSICS TEACHERS

National Standard Examination in Junior Science – 2024
Date of Examination November 24, 2024
Time: 2:30 PM to 4:30 PM
Question Paper Code: 51
Student’s
Roll No:

Write the Question Paper Code (mentioned above) on YOUR OMR Answer Sheet (in the space
provided), otherwise your Answer Sheet will NOT be evaluated. Note that the same Question Paper
Code appears on each page of the Question Paper.

Instructions to Candidates:

1. Use of mobile phone, smart watch, and iPad during examination is STRICTLY PROHIBITED.
2. In addition to this Question Paper, you are given OMR Answer Sheet along with candidate’s copy.
3. On the OMR sheet, make all the entries carefully in the space provided ONLY in BLOCK CAPITALS
as well as by properly darkening the appropriate bubbles.
Incomplete/ incorrect/ carelessly filled information may disqualify your candidature.
4. On the OMR Answer Sheet, use only BLUE or BLACK BALL POINT PEN for making entries and
filling the bubbles.
5. Your Eleven-digit roll number and date of birth entered on the OMR Answer Sheet shall remain your
login credentials means login id and password respectively for accessing your performance / result in
National Standard Examination in Junior Science 2024.
6. Question paper has two parts. In part A-1 (Q. No.1 to 48) each question has four alternatives, out of
which only one is correct. Choose the correct alternative and fill the appropriate bubble, as shown.
Q.No.12 a c d c c
In part A-2 (Q. No. 49 to 60) each question has four alternatives out of which any numberdof
alternative(s) (1, 2, 3, or 4) may be correct. You have to choose all correct alternative(s) and fill the
appropriate bubble(s), as shown
a c
Q.No.52
7. Attempt all sixty questions. For Part A-1, each correct answer carries 3 marks whereas 1 mark will be
deducted for each wrong answer. In Part A-2, you get 6 marks if all the correct alternatives are marked
and no incorrect. No negative marks in this part.
8. Rough work should be done in the space provided. There are 14 printed pages in this paper
9. Calculator is not allowed.
10. No candidate should leave the examination hall before the completion of the examination.
11. After submitting answer paper, take away the question paper & candidate’s copy of the OMR for your
future reference.

Please DO NOT make any mark other than filling the appropriate bubbles properly in the space
provided on the OMR Answer Sheet.

OMR Answer Sheets are evaluated using machine, hence CHANGE OF ENTRY IS NOT
ALLOWED. Scratching or overwriting may result in a wrong score.

DO NOT WRITE ON THE BACK SIDE OF THE OMR ANSWER SHEET.

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Instructions to Candidates (Continued) :

You may read the following instructions after submitting the Answer Sheet.

12. Comments/Inquiries/Grievances regarding this question paper, if any, can be shared on the
Inquiry/Grievance column on www.iapt.org.in on the specified format till Dec 3, 2024

13. The Answers/Solutions to this Question Paper will be available on the website:
www.iapt.org.in by Dec 2, 2024. The score card may be downloaded after Dec 24, 2024

14. CERTIFICATES and AWARDS:

Following certificates are awarded by IAPT to students, successful in the
National Standard Examination in Junior Science – 2024
(i) “CENTRE TOP 10 %” To be downloaded from iapt.org.in after 30.01.25
(ii) “STATE TOP 1 %” Will be dispatched to the examinee
(iii) “NATIONAL TOP 1 %” Will be dispatched to the examinee
(iv) “GOLD MEDAL & MERIT CERTIFICATE” to all students who attend OCSC – 2025 at
HBCSE Mumbai
Certificate for centre toppers shall be uploaded on iapt.org.in

15. List of students (with centre number and roll number only) having score above Minimum Admissible
Score will be displayed on the website: www.iapt.org.in by Dec 26, 2024. See the MAS clause on
the student’s brochure on the web.

16. List of students eligible to appear for Indian National Junior Science Olympiad (INJSO – 2025)
shall be displayed on www.iapt.org.in by Dec 30, 2024.

Physical constants you may need….

31
Mass of electron me  9.11  10 kg Magnitude of charge on electron e  1.60 1019 C

34
27
Mass of proton m p  1.67  10 kg Planck’s constant h  6.625 10 Js

Density of water is   1.0 10 kg m

3 3
Acceleration due to gravity g = 9.81 ms-2

1  x 
11 2
Universal gravitational constant G  6.67  10 Nm kg
2
 1  nx, if x  1
n

Universal gas constant R  8.31 J mol 1 K 1 1 eV  1.6  10

 19
J

Boltzmann constant k  1.38 1023 J K1 sin  A  B   sin A cos B  cos A sin B

Avogadro’s constant A  6.02 10 mol

1
E  mc gives mass and energy equivalence.
23 2

7. Atmospheric pressure (at STP) = 1.013 × 105 Nm-2 One unit of electric power = 1kWh

1
Speed of light in free space c  3.0 10 m s
8

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INDIAN ASSOCIATION OF PHYSICS TEACHERS

NATIONAL STANDARD EXAMINATION IN JUNIOR SCIENCE
(NSEJS – 2024)
Time: 120 minute Max. Marks: 216
Attempt All Sixty Questions
A–1
OUT OF THE FOUR OPTIONS ONLY ONE IS CORRECT. BUBBLE THE CORRECT OPTION.

1. In bilaterally symmetrical animals, segmentation of body into a linear series of similar parts is called
metamerism. In which of the following, did it appear for the first time?
(a) Platyhelminthes (b) Arthropoda (c) Vertebrata (d) Annelida

2. While discussing human evolution generally Hominid stocks, Prehistoric and species of Modern Man are
described on the basis of fossil records. Select the correct option showing the pair member of a Hominid
stocks and a Prehistoric man:
(a) Homo erectus pekinensis & Homo habilis
(b) Homo heidelbergensis & Homo sapiens neanderthalensis
(c) Australopithecus & Homo habilis
(d) Ramapithecus & Homo sapiens fossilis

3. The median longitudinal section of human brain given here under is marked with important parts as
1 to 4.

Following are the functions/disorders related to these parts:

(i) Controls the sleep cycle, manages pain signals and is the pneumotaxic center involved in breathing
rhythm regulation. Double vision (diplopia) can be a consequence of damage to this part.
(ii) It maintains homeostasis by directly influencing autonomic nervous system or by managing
hormones. Besides controlling hunger and thirst, it senses fullness when eating etc. It secretes feel-
good hormone (Dopamine). Malfunctioning causes Prader-Willi Syndrome.
(iii) Plays an important role in controlling emotions and making decisions. Damage to this part can
interfere with judging the size of or distance from objects; makes it harder to learn new words or
skills; causes trouble in reaching for objects. Responsible for congenital disorder like Chiari
malformation.
(iv) Largest structure of white matter; allows perception of depth and enables the two sides of brain
to communicate. Related with coordination and complex problem-solving. Disfunction may cause
Schizophrenia, dementia and other psychiatric disorders.

Correlate the above referred characteristics (i) – (iv) with the parts labeled (1 – 4) in the diagram above
and choose the correct option:
(a) (i)-2; (ii)-3; (iii)-1 and (iv)-4 (b) (i)-4; (ii)-1; (iii)-2 and (iv)-3
(c) (i)-3; (ii)-2; (iii)-4 and (iv)-1 (d) (i)-4; (ii)-2; (iii)-1 and (iv)-4

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4. Many insects are serious pests of crop plants. Sap-sucking insects can be controlled by spraying systemic
insecticides, like:
(a) Chloropyriphos (b) Malathion (c) Metasystox (d) Chlorantraniliprole

5. What kind of joint is found between the odontoid process of the 2nd vertebra of mammals and the atlas
vertebra?
(a) Pivotal Joint (b) Saddle Joint (c) Sliding Joint (d) Hinge Joint

6. Match the items given under Column-1 with those of Column-2:

Column-1 Column-2
1. Hexacanth (i) Goose Flesh
2. Renette Cell (ii) Ascaris
3. Respiratory Tree (iii) Sea Cucumber
4. Piloerectum (iv) Taenia

(a) 1- (i), 2- (iii), 3- (ii) & 4- (iv) (b) 1- (i), 2- (ii), 3- (iv) & 4- (iii)
(c) 1- (iv), 2- (ii), 3- (iii) & 4- (i) (d) 1- (iii), 2- (i), 3- (iv) & 4- (ii)

7. The tympanic cavity is connected with the auditory capsule through very fine openings. Choose the
correct option for such openings:
(a) Fossa ovalis and Fenestra ovalis (b) Fenestra rotundus and Fossa ovalis
(c) Foramen ovale and Fenestra ovalis (d) Fenestra ovalis and Fenestra rotundus

8. Currently, all new vehicles sold and registered in India should be compliant with which of the following
versions of emission standards?
(a) BS-VI (b) BS-IV (c) BS-V (d) BS-VII

9. In the flow chart given below, accumulation of various products (marked 1 to 4) results in some inborn
diseases in man.

Give the correct sequence of diseases caused by accumulation of products marked as 1 to 4:

(a) Phenylketonuria, Tyrosinosis, Alkaptonuria & Albinism

(b) Alkaptonuria, Albinism, Tyrosinosis & Phenylketonuria
(c) Tyrosinosis, Alkaptonuria, Phenylketonuria & Albinism
(d) Phenylketonuria, Alkaptonuria, Albinism & Tyrosinosis

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10. Match the Plants mentioned in Column-1 with their characteristics in Column-2:
Column-1 Column-2
1. Wheat (i) Pseudostem and monocarpy
2. Banyan Tree (ii) Glumes and lodicules
3. Banana (iii) Seeds but no fruits
4. Pine Tree (iv) Prop roots and hypanthia

Choose the correct option:

(a) 1-(iv), 2-(i), 3-(ii) & 4-(iii) (b) 1-(ii), 2-(iii), 3-(i) & 4-(iv)
(c) 1-(ii), 2-(iv), 3-(i) & 4-(iii) (d) 1-(i), 2-(ii), 3-(iv) & 4-(iii)

11. Under the electron microscope ‘Chromatin’ appears to

have a string of bead like structures, as a number of
repeating units, called ‘Nucleosomes’. The adjoining
diagram shows one such unit. The labeled parts 1 and 2 are
its important constituents made up of a total of 5
components. Choose the correct option showing the correct
sequence of the 5 component units included in the labeled
parts 1 and 2:
(a) H1, H2a, H2b, H3 and H4
(b) H1, H2b, H3a, H3b and H4
(c) H2a, H2b, H3, H4 and H1
(d) H1, H2, H3a, H3b and H4

12. Two statements marked as ASSERTION (A) and REASON (R) are given below. Choose the correct
answer as per the given codes:
ASSERTION (A): The eyes of nocturnal, cave and deep water dwelling animals have only rods in their
retina.
REASON (R): Rods provide high sensitivity to light, but with relatively low spatial discrimination and no
ability to distinguish different wavelengths of light.

Choose the correct option:

(a) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and the reason (R) is the correct explanation of the
assertion (A).
(b) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and the reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the
assertion(A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.
(d) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are false.

13. In the diagram given below, what are the maximum kinds of ploidy levels of the various parts labeled?

(a) Only Haploid (b) Only Diploid

(c) Haploid and Diploid (d) Haploid, Diploid and Polyploid

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14. According to Cohesion Theory for the ascent of sap in tall trees, all the forces together which create
obstacle in the ascent of sap are about 50 atm. What is the cohesive force of water which helps
continuous rise of sap in tallest trees?
(a) 350 atm. (b) 200 atm. (c) 140 atm. (d) 600 atm.

15. Some human males show hypertrichosis of ear pinna. Which of the following is the cause of this genetic
characteristic?
(a) A dominant gene in male and a recessive allele in female
(b) Aneuploidy
(c) Holandric gene
(d) Trisomy of an autosome

16. Which of the following is the agreement to protect the stratospheric ozone layer by phasing-out the
production and consumption of ozone-depleting substances?
(a) Kyoto Protocol (b) Montreal Protocol (c) Rio Summit (d) Stockholm Convention

17. A sample of 1.0 liter milk weighs 1.032 kg. The milk contains 4% milk fat by volume having density
865 kg/m3. The density of fat free (skimmed) milk in kg/m3 is
(a) 1036.95 (b) 1037.95 (c) 1038.95 (d) 1040.95

18. A research scholar requires 50 milliliter aqueous NaNO3 solution containing 70.0 mg of
Na+ per milliliter. The amount of NaNO3 required for this purpose is
(a) 0.350 g (b) 0.161 g (c) 29.75 g (d) 12.94 g

19. One structural isomer of C2 H 4 I 2 contains both the Iodine (I) atoms attached to same carbon atom. The
bond length of C – I bond is 2.10 Å. Assuming tetrahedral angles and additivity of covalent bond radii,
the distance between two Iodine (I) atoms is (given that sin 54.75° = 0.815 and sin 109.5° = 0.94)
(a) 2.10 Å (b) 2.47 Å (c) 4.20 Å (d) 3.42 Å

20. Amongst the following, select the option in which all the oxides express acidic nature.
(a) F-oxide, S-oxide, C-oxide, In-oxide (b) Cl-oxide, P-oxide, Ga-oxide, Be-oxide
(c) At-oxide, Xe-oxide, Se-oxide, As-oxide (d) Br-oxide, Xe-oxide, Te-oxide, Sn-oxide

21. How many moles of the so called ‘electron gas’ weighs one kilogram?
6.02 100 10
(a)  1054 (b)  106 (c) 6.02  1023 (d)  1030
9.11 6.02  9.11 9.11

22. The magnitude of electrostatic force between two tiny spherical balls carrying charge q1 and q2
q1 q 2
separated by a distance r in free space is given by F = K 2
where the constant K = 9 × 109 in SI units
r
Two tiny spherical balls of carbon  
12
6C weighing 1 g each are kept 1 cm apart in free space. The two
spheres carry equal and opposite charges. The magnitude of electrostatic force of attraction between the
two charged spheres is F  1.0  10 5 N. The ratio of the number of excess electrons to total number of
atoms in the negatively charged sphere is
(a) 4.15 × 1014 (b) 2.08 × 109 (c) 5.02 × 10 22 (d) 6.02 × 10 23

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23. The correct choice for the properties of the atomic species shown in the following table is

Properties A B C D E

Smallest ionic radius Li+ Na+ K+ Be2+ Mg2+

Highest electronegativity Cl S O He N

Highest electron affinity N Cl F Be O

+ 2+ 2+ 4+
Highest magnetic moment Cr Fe Cu Ni Sc3+

(a) D, D, B, A (b) A, D, B, D (c) D, C, B, E (d) D, C, E, A

24. On Fahrenheit scale of temperature, the freezing point of water is marked as 32°F and the boiling point of
water is marked as 212°F. While the freezing point and boiling point of water on the Celsius scale are
marked as 0°C and 100°C respectively.
During the routine checkup of some patient, a doctor measures the temperature of the patient as
102.6°F. The temperature of patient on Celsius scale is
(a) 37.0 °C (b) 39.0 °C (c) 39.2 °C (d) 39.4 °C

25. The pH of neutral pure water at 25 °C is 7. When water is heated to 70 °C the pH value
(a) decreases and its nature turns acidic (b) increases and its nature turns basic
(c) remain constant as 7 (d) decreases but its nature remains neutral

26. The concentration (mole/liter) of hydronium ion [H3O+ ] for a solution having pH 8.26 is
(a) 10 7 (b) 1  10 9 (c) 5.5  10 9 (d) 3.2  10 3

27. The expected values of the normal boiling point of the two compounds A and B given below are TA and
TB respectively. Then
Cl H H H
C C C C
H Cl Cl Cl
(A) (B)

(a) TA < TB (b) TA = TB (c) TA > TB (d) Can’t be predicted

28. Which of the following is the strongest material (in terms of tensile strength)?
(a) Diamond (b) Tungsten (c) Graphene (d) Steel

29. Which pair of the following group 13 elements represents the pair of the most stable oxidation state of the
pair?
(a) B+ , T +
(b) B3+ , T 3+
(c) B3+ , T +
(d) B+ , T 3+

30. To have a secured and safe travel, air bags are being used in modern vehicles/automobiles for road
journey. The substance most often used in the air bags in automobiles is
(a) NaN3 (b) Na3N (c) KO2 (d) Acurite

31. Most predominantly used metal in magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) contrast solutions is
(a) Lr (b) Gd (c) Pm (d) Sm

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32. An esterification process has been represented by the following chemical reaction

O Conc.
H + H3C OH Ester + Water
Ph O
18 H2SO4

The fate of the labelled oxygen (O18) atom in the product is:
O
18
CH3 O
(a) Ph O (b) CH3
18 Ph O
O
18
CH3 O
(c) Mixture of Ph O and (d) H2O18
CH3
18 Ph O

33. Which of the following motions has largest magnitude of acceleration? Assume that all objects are
moving in straight line with constant acceleration.
(a) A bus moving with an initial velocity 72 km/hr comes to rest in 2.50 s
(b) A rock during its free fall near the earth surface
(c) A car accelerates from rest to a velocity v = 108 km/hr in 4.00 s
(d) A train, starting from rest, takes 6.00 s to cover a distance of 216 m

34. A sound wave is propagating in a medium in the + x direction at a speed of 360 m/s. At a given instant, a
snap shot of the plot of displacement (D) of various particles of medium from their equilibrium position
(taken along y axis) vs the position (x) of particle on x axis, is shown in figure below. The incorrect
option is

+5
D (mm)
0 10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80 x (cm)
–5

(a) the amplitude of wave is 5 mm

(b) the frequency of wave is 900 Hz
(c) after 0.01 sec the trough of the wave will occur at x = 20 cm and x = 40 cm
(d) this wave will travel a distance of 1.62 km along + x axis in 4.5 s

35. When placed inside a liquid of density d1, a sphere sinks, as shown in figure (i). When placed inside a
liquid of density d2, the same sphere floats with half of its volume appearing above the liquid surface, as
shown in figure (ii). Given that the density of the sphere is d

d1
d

d d2

(i) (ii)
If F1 and F2 are buoyant forces acting on the sphere in the two situations (i) and (ii) respectively due to
F1
the two liquids, then the ratio equals
F2
d1 d d1 d
(a) (b) 1 (c) (d)
d2 2 d2 d d2

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36. A car is moving on a horizontal cement road with uniform velocity 90 km/hr. Read the following
statements regarding motion of car.
S1: The acceleration of car is zero
S2: No force is acting on the car
S3: Kinetic energy and linear momentum of car are constant during this motion
S4: Engine of car is doing no work
Now choose the correct option
(a) Only the statements S1 and S2 are true (b) Only the statements S1 and S3 are true
(c) Only the statements S1, S2 and S3 are true (d) All the statements S1, S2, S3 and S4 are true

37. A particle is moving along circular path of diameter D = 14 cm with constant speed v. It takes
0.02 second to complete an arc which subtends an angle of 45° at the center. If f is its frequency of
revolution, then the correct option is
(a) v  5.5 m sec1 , f  6.25 Hz (b) v  5.5 m sec1, f  12.5 Hz
(c) v  2.75 m sec1 , f  6.25 Hz (d) v  2.75 m sec1 , f  12.5 Hz

38. The same liquid is filled in vessels of three different shapes up to the same height, as shown in figures
(a), (b) and (c). Each vessel has equal base area.

(a) (b) (c)

Let Pa, Pb and Pc are the values of liquid pressure on the base of vessels in figure (a), (b) and (c)
respectively. Wa, Wb and Wc are the weights of liquid contained in vessels in figure (a), (b) and (c)
respectively. Choose the correct option
(a) Pa  Pb  Pc and Wa  Wb  Wc (b) Pa  Pb  Pc and Wa  Wb  Wc
(c) Pa  Pb  Pc and Wa  Wb  Wc (d) Pa  Pb  Pc and Wa  Wb  Wc

39. An ant moves at constant speed on the principal axis of concave mirror of focal length f , from a point at
distance 5 f from the pole of the mirror to the focus F of the mirror. During the motion of the ant
(consider the ant as a point), its image formed by the mirror
Statement S1: moves with constant speed
Statement S2: has same velocity as that of the ant when the ant is at center of curvature C of the mirror
Statement S3: moves slower in the beginning and faster towards the end
Statement S4: moves faster in the beginning and slower towards the end
Now, choose the correct option:
(a) Only the statement S1 is correct (b) Statements S2 and S3 are correct
(c) Only the statement S3 is correct (d) The statements S2 and S4 are correct

40. Which of the following cannot be used as a unit of electric current (i)?
coulomb joule watt volt
(a) (b) (c) (d)
second coulomb - ohm volt coulomb - meter

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41. From the famous Einstein mass-energy equivalence relation, energy equivalent to one atomic mass unit
(u) (given that 1u = 1.6605 × 10–27 kg and the speed of light in vacuum c = 2.9979 × 108 m/s) is close to
(a) 931 J (b) 931 eV (c) 931 MeV (d) 931 keV

42. Each resistance in the electrical network shown as a tetrahedron in the A

adjacent figure is R = 12 Ω. The electrical resistance between any two R
vertices of tetrahedron must be R
(a) 2  R
R B
(b) 3 
D R
(c) 4 
R
(d) 6  C

43. Two particles of mass 1 kg and 4 kg are moving with equal kinetic energy. Ratio of magnitudes of their
linear momenta is (Assume nonrelativistic velocity)
(a) 1 : 4 (b) 1 : 2 (c) 2 : 1 (d) 1 : 16

44. In the following figures, all the conducting coils are in Y-Z plane. The magnet is moved along +X axis or
– X axis with a constant speed v. The direction of induced current in the coils has been shown, as viewed
from +X axis. Identify the diagram/diagrams which show correct direction of induced current.

Y Y

S N S N
O X O X

Z Z
(i) (ii)

Y Y

N S N S
O X O X

Z Z
(iii) (iv)

(a) only (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) only (iii)

(c) only (ii), (iii) and (iv) (d) only (i), (ii) and (iv)

45. The heater filament of an electric kettle is made up of a conducting wire of length L and diameter D.
When connected to a line voltage source, it takes 6 minute to raise the temperature of 500 ml of water by
40°C. If the heater filament is replaced by a new one of same material but length 2L and diameter 2D, the
time taken for heating the same quantity of water through the same temperature difference will be
(Assume that entire system is thermally insulated)
(a) 12 minute (b) 6 minute (c) 3 minute (d) 1.5 minute

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46. On straight rails a train is moving with constant velocity v . Suddenly a wagon breaks away from train.
The train continues to move with same velocity while the wagon moves with constant retardation. After
breaking away from train, the wagon covers distance d1 before coming to rest and the train covers
d1
distance d 2 in the same duration, is
d2
1 1 2
(a) (b) (c) (d) 1
3 2 3

47. A person with short-sightedness (myopia) cannot see objects clearly, beyond 2.5 meter. The power of
lens required to correct his vision is
(a) + 2.5 D (b) + 0.4 D (c) – 2.5 D (d) – 0.4 D

48. The mass and radius of the planet-one are M and R respectively. The mass and radius of planet-two are
2M and 2R respectively. Assume that both the planets have spherical shape. Acceleration due to gravity
g1
on the surface of planet-one and planet-two are g1 and g2 respectively. must be
g2
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 2 : 1 (c) 1 : 4 (d) 4 : 1

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A–2
ANY NUMBER OF OPTIONS 4, 3, 2 or 1 MAY BE CORRECT
MARKS WILL BE AWARDED ONLY IF ALL THE CORRECT OPTIONS ARE BUBBLED AND NO INCORRECT .

49. Which of the following plant(s) has/have edible aril?

(a) Litchi (Litchi chinensis) (b) Rambutan (Nephelium lappaceum)
(c) Cashew (Anacardium occidentale) (d) Nutmeg (Myristica fragrans)

50. Which of the following statement(s) regarding Viruses is/are incorrect?

(a) Usually potentially infectious (b) Reproduction by genetic material only
(c) Envelope made of Glycolipids (d) Presence of Ribosomes

51. Which of the following major Division(s) of Algae is/are characterised by two flagella?
(a) Rhodophyta (b) Phaeophyta (c) Chlorophyta (d) Cyanophyta

52. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true?

(a) All immunoglobulins are glycoproteins
(b) Eosinophils are not polymorphonuclear phagocytes
(c) Cilia in the windpipe are mechanical barriers
(d) Human 𝛃 cells bear IgM and IgD immunoglobulins on their surface

53. Which of the following colloids is/are medicines?

(a) Argyrol (b) S-sol (c) Milk of Magnesia (d) Purple of Cassius

54. In which of the following process, the N-atom is reduced

(a) NH +4  N 2 (b) NH 2  NO (c) NO2  NO2 (d) NO3  NH 4

55. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true, if one mole of H3POx is completely neutralized by 40 g
NaOH?
(a) x  2 and acid is monobasic (b) x  3 and acid is dibasic
(c) x  4 and acid is tribasic (d) x  2 and acid does not form an acid salt

56. Select the correct statement(s) regarding an element having 2K, 8L, 9M and 2N electrons.
(a) It contains 1 unpaired electron (b) It contains 1 d-electron
(c) It contains 12-p electron (d) It is a non-metal

57. The screen S is placed at a distance of 75 cm in front of an illuminated object AB. A thin convex lens of
focal length f  12 cm is placed somewhere between the object and the screen so as to obtain a real
image of the object on the screen. Choose the correct option(s) f = 12 cm Screen
(a) Distance between lens and object may be 15 cm B
(b) Distance between lens and object may be 60 cm
A
(c) Image size may be larger than object size
(d) Image size may be smaller than object size
75 cm

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58. In the circuit shown in adjacent figure, a voltmeter of resistance 6000 Ω has been connected across 3 kΩ
resistor. Internal resistance of battery is negligible. 12 V
A B
Choose the correct option(s)
(a) Voltmeter reading is 8 volt
1 kΩ
(b) Current passing through 1 kΩ resistor is 2 mA
(c) Current drawn from battery is 6 mA 3 kΩ
D C
(d) Electrical power dissipated in 6 kΩ resistor is 24 mili-watt
+ V –

59. A train, moving on a straight horizontal track with constant speed of 108 km/hour, approaches a hill.
When the engine of train is at distance 1200 m from hill, it produces a whistle of frequency 550 Hz.
Assuming that the speed of sound in air is 330 m/s, the correct option(s) is/are
1
(a) the echo from hill will be heard by driver after minute
9
(b) the distance of engine from hill at which echo is heard by driver is 1000 m
(c) the wavelength of sound produced by whistle is 60 cm
20
(d) the echo from hill will be heard by driver after second
3

60. Velocity-time graphs of three athletes Ramesh, Naresh and Dinesh for a given duration (0-30 Minute) are
given below.

A
20 C

v(km/hr)
D Naresh
10 E

B
O
10 20 30 t (minute)

Graph OAB is v-t graph for athlete Ramesh, graph DE is v-t graph for athlete Naresh and graph OC is v-t
graph for athlete Dinesh. The graphs are linear. Which of the following option(s) is/are correct during
given interval of time?
(a) Athlete Dinesh has travelled maximum distance
(b) Athletes Ramesh, Naresh and Dinesh each have travelled equal distance
(c) Acceleration of athlete Dinesh is 40 km/hr2
(d) None of the athletes is in uniform motion

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Rough Work

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