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Physics - Section A 5 A parallel beam of width 20 mm is incident onto a lens

and the width of the emerging beam decreases at a rate of
The magnification of a compound microscope for the 1 mm as it travels every 3 cm. The lens has a focal length of:
1
1. 30 cm 2. 60 cm
final image at the least distance of distinct vision is 90. The
20 40
magnification of the objective lens is 15. The value of the 3. cm 4. cm
focal length of the eyepiece will be: 3 3
1. 5 cm −1
2. 6 cm 6 The critical angle of a certain medium is sin (3/5). The
1 polarising angle of the medium is:
3. cm
6 1.
−1
sin (4/5) 2.
−1
tan (5/3)
4. 12 cm
−1 −1
3. tan (3/4) 4. tan (4/3)
2 Huygens' principle of secondary wavelets may be used
to: 7 An object is at the centre of the curvature of a concave
(a) Find the velocity of light in a vacuum. mirror having a radius of curvature R. If the object is
(b) Explain the particle behaviour of light. R
displaced by away from the mirror, the displacement of the
(c) Find the new position of a wavefront. 2
image will be:
(d) Explain Snell's law. 5R
1. towards the mirror
8
Choose the correct option from the options given below: 5R
1. (a) and (b) only 2. away from the mirror
8
2. (b) and (c) only R
3. (c) and (d) only 3. towards the mirror
4
4. all of the above R
4. away from mirror
4
3 An incident ray falling at an angle of 30∘ with the x-axis
8 Light travels a distance x in time t1 in air and 10x in
is reflected by a mirror to a (reflected) ray making 60∘ with
the x-axis. The angle made by the mirror's surface (not shown time t2 in another denser medium. What is the critical angle
in the diagram) with the x-axis is: for this medium?
1. sin−1 ( )
10t1
t2

sin−1 ( t )
t2
2.
1

sin−1 ( t )
10t2
3.
1

4. sin ( 10t )
−1 t1
2

1. 15∘
2. 45∘
3. 75∘
4. 105∘

4 The radii of curvature of the faces of a double convex

lens are 10 cm and 15 cm. Its focal length is 12 cm. What is
the refractive index of the material of the lens?
1. 1.2 2. 1.5
3. 1.6 4. 1.8

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9 Two coherent waves of amplitude 8 cm each are 14 The focal length of a convex lens will be maximum for:
superimposed on one another. If the amplitude of a resultant 1. blue light
wave is 8 cm, then the phase difference between the two 2. yellow light
waves is: 3. green light
2π π 4. red light
1. 2.
3 3
π 3π 15 A pair of stars have an angular separation of 1′ (one
3. 4.
4 4 minute of arc) from earth. It is viewed with a telescope whose
objective has a focal length of 100 cm and an eyepiece with a
10 At the first minimum adjacent to the central maximum of focal length of 1 cm. The stars will appear with an angular
a single slit diffraction pattern, the phase difference between separation of:
the Huygens wavefront from the edge of the slit and the 1. 1.67∘
wavefront from the midpoint of the slit is: 2. 1.87∘
π
radian π
radian 3. 1.99∘
1. 2.
4 2 4. 2.41∘
3π
3. π radian 4. 2
radian
16 If a convex lens (μ = 1.5) is immersed in water
Given below are two statements:
11 (μ = )
4
3
then its focal length in water is:
There is no dispersion of light refracted 1
Assertion (A): 1. of that in air
through a rectangular glass slab. 4
Dispersion of light is the phenomenon of 8
Reason (R): splitting of a beam of white light into its 2. of that in air
9
constituent colours. 9
3. of that in air
8
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct 4. 4 times that in air
1.
explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct 17 The focal length of a convex lens is f . An object is
2.
explanation of (A).
placed at a distance x from its second focal point. The ratio of
3. (A) is True but (R) is False. the size of the real image to that of the object is:
4. Both (A) and (R) are False. f x2
1. 2.
x2 f
12 The refractive index of a material of a plano-concave
f x
lens is 5/3, and the radius of curvature is 0.3 m. The focal 3. 4.
x f
length of the lens in air is:
1. −0.45 m
2. −0.6 m
3. −0.75 m
4. −1.0 m

13 Which one of the following statements is true for Young's

double-slit experiment?
1. Fringe width is proportional to wavelength λ.
2. Fringe width is proportional to slit width d.
Fringe width is inversely proportional to screen distance
3.
D.
Fringe width is proportional to the position of the fringe
4.
from the central maximum.

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18 A ray of light AO in vacuum is incident on a glass slab at 20 A refracting telescope consists of an objective lens
angle 60∘ and refracted at angle 30∘ along OB as shown in the (O, focal length fO ) and an eyepiece (E, focal length fE )
figure. The optical path length of light ray from A to B is: placed co-axially, with a separation d. The object is at infinity
and the image formed by the objective lens is viewed through
the eyepiece: the eye being placed just behind the eyepiece, E.

2√ 3
1. 2a + 2b 2. + 2b
a
2b 2b
3. 2a + 4. 2a +
a √3 If the final image, seen by the eye, is at infinity, the separation
d is given by:
19 A concave mirror (M) and a plane mirror (M1 ) are 1. d = fO − fE 2. d = fO + fE
placed in front of each other, with a common principal axis. fO +fE
3. d = fO 4. d =
The radius of the mirror M, OP = 20 cm. A point object (A) 2
is placed at the mid-point of OP . Consider its image, formed
by a first reflection in M and subsequent reflections thereafter. 21 A small luminous body (S) is located at the bottom of a
The rays converge onto a point on the principal axis: pool of liquid of refractive index =√3, and depth 2 m, and
emits light in all directions. What is the radius of circular area
of light formed at the surface?

1. between A & P
2. between A & O
3. at O
1. 1m 2. 1.2 m
4. at A
3. √2 m 4. √3 m

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22 Given below are two statements: 26 Given below are two statements:
The line joining the object and its image The speed of light does not change after it is
Statement I:
Assertion (A): formed by a thin lens pass through the optical reflected from a mirror.
centre. The speed of light depends on the medium in
Statement II:
The ray passing through the optical centre which light is propagating.
Reason (R):
goes undeviated.
1. Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct 2. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
1.
explanation of (A). 3. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct 4. Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect.
2.
explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False. A light ray enters through a right-angled prism at point P
27
4. Both (A) and (R) are False.
with the angle of incidence 30∘ as shown in the figure. It
travels through the prism parallel to its base BC and emerges
23 The angle of a prism is θ. If the angle of minimum
along the face AC. The refractive index of the prism is:
deviation is Dm = (π − 2θ), then the refractive index of the
prism may be written as:
1. μ = tan(θ/2)
2. μ = tan(θ)
3. μ = cot(θ)
4. μ = cot(θ/2)

24 Given below are two statements:

Chromatic aberration has different signs for
Statement I:
concave and convex lenses.
√5 √3
Statement II: Chromatic aberration is absent in mirrors. 1. 2.
2 4
√3 √5
1. Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct. 3. 4.
2 4
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect. A glass slab of refractive index 1.47 disappears in a
28
4. Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect.
trough of liquid. The refractive index of the liquid will be:
1.47
25 A parallel beam of light is incident onto a converging 1. 2. 1.47√2
√2
lens (L1 ) of focal length 20 cm. A second identical lens (L2 )
3. 1.47 4. 1.0
is to be placed behind L1 , coaxially, so that the emerging
beam is parallel. The distance between L1 and L2 should be:

1. 10 cm 2. 20 cm
3. 40 cm 4. zero

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29 An object is mounted on a wall. Its image of equal size is 32 What changes occur in the behaviour of monochromatic
to be obtained on a parallel wall with the help of a convex lens light as it passes through a prism, compared to its behaviour in
placed between these walls. The lens is kept at distance x in the air?
front of the second wall. The required focal length of the lens Speed and wavelength are different, but the frequency
will be: 1.
remains the same.
x
1. less than Speed and frequency are different, but the wavelength
4 2.
remains the same.
x x
2. more than but less than Wavelength and frequency are different, but speed remains
4 2 3.
x the same.
3. 4. Speed, wavelength, and frequency are all different.
2
x
4.
4 33 The diagram represents a concave mirror, where F is the
principal focus and f is the focal length. The mirror is used to
30 What will happen when the light suffers refraction while
produce an image of an object.
it travels from a rarer to a denser medium?

Its wavelength increases but its frequency remains

1.
constant.
Its wavelength decreases but the frequency remains
2.
constant.
Its wavelength remains constant but its frequency
3.
decreases.
4. Its wavelength and frequency both decrease.

31 The following graph depicts the inverse of magnification

versus the distance between the object and lens data for a Which of the following statements are correct?
setup. The focal length of the lens used in the setup is: (assume the mirror is parabolic)
Incident rays travelling parallel to the principal axis
(A)
always pass through F after reflection.
Incident rays passing through F always travel parallel to
(B)
the principal axis after reflection.
(C) The image formed is always inverted.
(D) The image formed is always real.
(E) The image formed is always larger than the object.

Choose the correct option:

1. (A) and (C) only
2. (C), (D) and (E) only
1. 250 m 3. (B) and (D) only
2. 0.004 m
4. (A) and (B) only
3. 125 m
4. 0.002 m

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34 A ring is placed at a distance 2F on the left side of a lens 37 A ray of unpolarised light is incident on a glass plate at
of focal distance F , along the optical axis. Which of these the polarising angle. Then:
pictures best shows the shape of the image?
the reflected and transmitted rays will be completely plane
1.
polarised.
the reflected ray will be completely polarised and the
2.
transmitted ray will be partially polarised.
1. 2. the reflected ray will be partially polarised and the
3.
transmitted ray will be completely polarised.
the reflected ray and the transmitted ray will be partially
4.
polarised.

38 An unpolarized light beam is incident on the polarizer of

a polarization experiment and the intensity of light beam
emerging from the analyzer is measured as 100 Lumens. Now,
3. 4. if the analyzer is rotated around the horizontal axis (direction
of light) by 30∘ in clockwise direction, the intensity of
emerging light will be:
1. 25 Lumens
2. 50 Lumens
35 In the following figures, there is a triangle of glass in the 3. 75 Lumens
4. 100 Lumens
air. Which figure best shows the refracted ray of light?

39 When a thin layer of petrol floats on water and is

observed under bright sunlight, colours are observed. This is
1. 2.
due to:
1. refraction
2. luminescence
3. radioactivity
4. interference
3. 4.

Physics - Section B
36 A parallel beam of light of wavelength 600 nm falls
normally on a slit of width a. What should the value of a so
that the first-order diffraction minimum occurs at an angle of
30∘ ?
1. 1.1 × 10−6 m
2. 1.2 × 10−6 m
3. 1.3 × 10−6 m
4. 1.4 × 10−6 m

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40 Two waves from coherent sources meet at a point in a 43 If a parallel beam of light is incident on the interface
phase difference of ϕ and path difference Δx. Both waves paraxially, parallel to its principal axis, the refracted beam
have same intensities I0 . Based on this information, match forms an image:
column-I and column-II. 1. to the left of the centre-of-curvature (C)
Column-I Column-II 2. between the centre-of-curvature (C) and the pole (P )
λ
(a) If Δx = 3
(p) resultant intensity will be 3I0 to the right of the pole P , at a distance less than the
3.
(b) If ϕ = 60 ∘
(q) resultant intensity will be I0 diameter
λ to the right of the pole P , at a distance more than the
(c) If Δx = 4
(r) resultant intensity will be zero 4.
diameter
∘
(d) If ϕ = 90 (s) resultant intensity will be 2I0
44 Two light sources are said to be coherent when their:
1. a(q), b(p), c(s), d(s)
1. Amplitudes are equal and have a constant phase difference
2. a(s), b(p), c(s), d(q)
2. Wavelengths are equal.
3. a(q), b(s), c(s), d(p)
3. Intensities are equal.
4. a(s), b(r), c(q), d(r)
Frequencies are equal and have a constant phase
4.
difference.
Based on the information provided below, answer the
questions (41-43).
45 The energy in the phenomenon of interference:
A ray of light is incident on the spherical interface separating
two media: medium-1 (refractive index-μ1 ) and medium-2 1. is conserved, gets redistributed
(refractive index-μ2 ). It travels parallel to the principal axis, 2. is equal at every point
undergoes two consecutive reflections and then emerges 3. is not conserved
opposite to its initial direction. The centre-of-curvature (C)
4. is created in place of bright fringes
and the pole (P ) are shown in the figure.

46 A light wave can travel:

(a) in vacuum
(b) in vacuum only
(c) in a material medium
(d) in a material medium only

Choose the correct option from the options given below:

1. (a) and (b) only
2. (b) and (c) only
3. (a) and (c) only
41 The angle of incidence of the ray at the surface is: 4. (c) and (d) only

1. 0∘ 2. 90∘ A Young's double-slit setup is first performed in air and

47
3. 45∘ 4. 135∘
then in a liquid of refractive index μ. At a particular location
The refracted ray, corresponding to the first incident ray, on the screen, the 10th bright fringe in air and the 12th bright
42 fringe in liquid coincide. Then μ =
is observed to make an angle of 15∘ with the principal axis – 1. 1.8
diverging away from it. The relationship between μ1 and μ2 2. 1.54
is: 3. 1.67
1. μ1 = 2μ2 4. 1.2
2. 2μ1 = μ2
3. √2μ1 = μ2
4. 2√2μ1 = √3μ2

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48 The intensities of light coming from two different slits

Chemistry - Section A
are in the ratio 1 : 4 in Young's double-slit experiment. The
ratio of intensities corresponding to the maxima and minima Which molecule(s) has/have delocalized lone pair(s) of
51
in the interference pattern would be:
electrons?
1. √2 : 1
2. 2 : 1
3. 4 : 1
4. 9 : 1 I.

49 In Young's double-slit experiment, a student observes 8

fringes in a certain segment of the screen when a
monochromatic light of 600 nm wavelength is used. If the
wavelength of light is changed to 400 nm, then the number of
II.
fringes he would observe in the same region of the screen is:
1. 12
2. 6
3. 8
4. 9
III.
50 In the given figure S1 and S2 are two coherent sources
oscillating in phase. The total number of bright fringes and
their shape as seen on the large screen will be:
IV. CH3 CH = CHCH2 N̈HCH3

1. I, II and III
2. I, II and IV
3. I and III
4. Only III

52 Which haloalkane has the least reactivity with aqueous

KOH?

1. 3, rectangular strips
1. 2.
2. 3, circular
3. 4, rectangular strips
4. 4, circular
3. 4.

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53 The correct statement(s), among the following, is/are: 55 What is the major product 'A' formed in the following
Phenol is treated with bromine water, and 2,4,6- organic reaction?
a.
tribromophenol is formed as a yellow precipitate.
Commercial alcohol is made unfit for drinking by mixing it
b. with some copper sulphate (to give it a colour) and
pyridine (a foul-smelling liquid).
The boiling point of ether is higher than that of alcohol due
c.
to the presence of hydrogen bonding.
The alkoxy group (-OR) is ortho, para directing and
d. activates the aromatic ring towards electrophilic 1. 2.
substitution.
1. a and b
2. b and d
3. Only b
4. d and c
3. 4.
54 Match the reactions given in Column I with the types of
reactions given in Column II.
Column I Column II

56 Which of the following are aryl bromides?

Nucleophilic
(i) (a) aromatic
substitution

Electrophilic
(ii) (b) aromatic
substitution
1. N, O and P only
Saytzeff 2. N, and P only
(iii) (c)
elimination 3. M, O, and P only
4. N and O only

Electrophilic 57 In the following reaction sequence, what is compound Z?

(iv) (d)
addition 3Cl2 /Δ Br2 /Fe Zn/HCl
C7 H 8 ⟶ X ⟶ Y ⟶ Z
1. m-Bromotoluene
Nucleophilic 2. o-Bromotoluene
(v) (e) substitution ( 3. 3-Bromo-2, 4, 6-trichlorotoluene
SN 1 ) 4. p-Bromotoluene
1 (i) → (a) (ii) → (d) (iii) → (c) (iv) → (b) (v) → (e)
2. (i) → (b) (ii) → (e) (iii) → (c) (iv) → (d) (v) → (c)
3. (i) → (a) (ii) → (c) (iii) → (e) (iv) → (b) (v) → (d)
4. (i) → (b) (ii) → (d) (iii) → (e) (iv) → (a) (v) → (c)

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58 Consider the following reaction: 61 Which of the following compounds is oxidise to prepare
methyl ethyl ketone?
1. 2-Propanol
2. 1-Butanol
3. 2-Butanol
4. t-Butyl alcohol

62 Which is the correct increasing order of boiling points of

What is the major product A?
the following compounds?
1-Iodobutane, 1-Bromobutane, 1-Chlorobutane, Butane
Butane < 1-Chlorobutane < 1-Bromobutane < 1-
1.
Iodobutane
1. 2. 1-Iodobutane < 1-Bromobutane < 1-Chlorobutane <
2.
Butane
Butane < 1-Iodobutane < 1-Bromobutane < 1-
3.
Chlorobutane
Butane < 1-Chlorobutane < 1-Iodobutane < 1-
4.
Bromobutane

63 In an SN 2 reaction, what is the correct reactivity order of

3. 4. these alkyl halides?
1. RF > RCI > RBr > RI
2. RF > RBr > RCI > RI
3. RCI > RBr > RF > RI
4. RI > RBr > RCI > RF

59 Which of the following is the principle behind column 64 How many possible ethers can be represented by the
chromatography? molecular formula C4 H10 O?
1. Gravitational force. 1. 1
2. Capillary action. 2. 2
3. 3
Differential adsorption of the substances on the solid
3. 4. 4
phase.
Differential absorption of the substances on the solid Match the intermediates given in Column I with their
4.
phase.
65
probable structure in Column II.
How many chiral centers are present in the given Column I Column II
60
A. Free radical 1. Trigonal planar
compound?
B. Carbocation 2. Pyramidal
C. Carbanion 3. Linear
Codes:
Options: A B C
1. 1 1 2
2. 1 2 3
1. 1 3. 3 1 2
2. 2 4. 2 1 3
3. 3
4. 4

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66 What is the structure of the major monohalo product in 68 What are the major products A and B formed in the
the following reaction? following reaction sequence?

1.
1.

2.
2.

3. 3.

4. None of the above

67 Which haloarene is the most reactive towards aromatic

4.
nucleophilic substitution?

1. 2. 69 In the Newman projection of 2,3-dimethylpentane, which

of the following options correctly identifies groups (A) and
(B)?

3. 4.

1. −CH3 , −CH3
2. −H, −C2 H5
3. −C2 H5 , −CH3
4. −C2 H5 , −C2 H5

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70 What is the correct increasing order of nucleophilicity for 74 What is the name of the following reaction?
the following nucleophiles? C2 H5 Cl + AgF → C2 H5 F + AgCl
(i) CH3 CO− 2
1. Finkelstein reaction
(ii) H2 O 2. Swarts reaction
(iii) CH3 SO− 3. Hunsdiecker reaction
3
(iv) OH − 4. HVZ reaction
1. (i)<(iv)<(iii)<(ii)
75 Match the following, choosing one item from Column X
2. (ii)<(iii)<(iv)<(i)
3. (iv)<(i)<(iii)<(ii) and the appropriate item from Column Y.
4. (ii)<(iii)<(i)<(iv) X Y
(i) Decarboxylation (a) Addition reaction
71 Which of the following best describes DDT?
(ii) Ozonolysis (b) Soda-lime
1. Greenhouse gas (iii) Williamson's synthesis (c) Structure of alkene
2. A fertilizer
(iv) Dichloroethylene (d) Ether
3. Biodegradable pollutant
4. Non-biodegradable pollutant Codes:
Option (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
72 Which one of the following compounds is the most 1. (a) (b) (c) (d)
acidic? 2. (d) (b) (a) (c)
3. (c) (a) (d) (b)
4. (b) (c) (d) (a)
1. 2.
76 What is the structure of compound E in the following
reaction sequence?

3. 4.

What is the correct order of reactivity for the following 1. 2.

73
compounds in an SN 1 reaction?

3. 4. None of the above

77 Which of the following is the most soluble in water?

1. Isobutyl alcohol
2. n-Butyl alcohol
3. sec-Butyl alcohol
1. II > I > III 4. tert-Butyl alcohol
2. III > II > I
3. I > II > III
4. I > III > II

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78 Which of the following pairs of compounds are 81 Consider the given two statements:
functional isomers? KCN reacts with methyl chloride to give
Assertion (A):
methyl isocyanide.
1. 2. Reason (R): CN − is an ambident nucleophile.
Select the correct option:
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct
1.
explanation of (A).
3. 4. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct
2.
explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.
79 What is the correct IUPAC name for the following
compound? 82 Consider the following reaction:

What is the major product A?

1. 2.

1. 5-Chloro-4-methyl-1-nitrobenzene
2. 2-Methyl-5-nitro-1-chlorobenzene
3. 3-Chloro-4-methyl-1-nitrobenzene
4. 2-Chloro-1-methyl-4-nitrobenzene
3. 4. None of the above
80
Allylic halides show high reactivity towards
Assertion (A):
SN1 reaction.
Allylic carbocation formed gets stabilized
Reason (R): How many sp²-sp² sigma bonds are present in the
through resonance. 83
compound given below?
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct
1.
explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct
2.
explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. Both (A) and (R) are False.

1. 1
2. 3
3. 4
4. 5

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84 What is the correct order of stability for the following

Chemistry - Section B
carbanions?
86 The structure of major monohalo products in the

1. 2. following reaction is:

3. 4. 1. 2.

1. (1) > (2) > (3) > (4)

2. (2) > (3) > (4) > (1) 3. 4. None of the above
3. (4) > (2) > (3) > (1)
4. (1) > (3) > (2) > (4)
87 Which compound will react with RMgX (Grignard
85 Consider the following reaction:
reagent) to form a primary alcohol?
1. HCHO
2. H2 O
3. CO2
4. CH3 CHO

88 What is the correct order of dehydration rate for the

compounds (i), (ii), and (iii) when treated with concentrated
H2 SO4 ?

What is the major product P?

(i)

1. 2.

(ii)

(iii)
3. 4.

1. (i) > (iii) > (ii)

2. (i) > (ii) > (iii)
3. (ii) > (i) > (iii)
4. (ii) > (iii) > (i)

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89 What is the major product 'A' formed in the following 91 In which of the following representations given below
organic reaction? spatial arrangement of group/atom is different from that given
in structure 'A'?

1. 2.

a. b.

3. 4. None of the above

90 Match the items in Column I with the items in Column

II. c. d.
Column I Column II
(Compounds) (Classification)
a.

i. Tertiary alcohol Choose the correct option

1. (a, b, c)
2. (b, c, d)
3. (a,c,d)
b. 4. (a, d, b)

92 Select the correct option based on the statements given

below:
Phenol forms 2,4,6-tribromophenol on
ii. Primary alcohol
Assertion (A): treatment with Br2 in carbon disulphide at
273K.
Reason (R): Bromine polarises in carbon disulphide.

Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct
1.
c. explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct
2.
explanation of (A).
iii. Secondary alcohol 3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. Both (A) and (R) are False.

93 In the Lucas test for alcohols, which intermediate is

1. a-ii; b-iii; c-i formed?
2. a-iii; b-ii; c-i
3. a-iii; b-i; c-ii 1. Carbocation 2. Carbanion
4. a-i; b-ii; c-iii 3. Free Radical 4. No intermediate

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94 When phenol reacts with nitric acid, it produces two 98 What is the product P formed in the following reaction?
different products A and B. Which method can be used to
separate products A and B?
1. Steam distillation
2. Fractional distillation
3. Chromatography
4. Filtration

95 In the following Williamson ether synthesis reaction,

what will be the major product? 1. 2.

1. 1-Methoxypropane 3. 4. None of the above

2. 2-Methoxypropane
3. 3-Methoxypropane
4. All of the above
99 Which of the following reactions is used to prepare
96 In the following sequence of reactions,
salicylaldehyde?
KCN H3 O+ LiAlH4
CH3 − Br −−→A−−→B−−−→C 1. Kolbe’s reaction
ether 2. Etard reaction
what is the final product C? 3. Reimer- Tiemann reaction
1. Acetone 4. Stephen’s reduction.
2. Methane
3. Acetaldehyde What is the major product (A) formed in the following
100
4. Ethyl alcohol
reaction?
97 Which of the following structures exhibits a
hyperconjugation effect?

1.

1. 2.

2.
3. CH2 = CH2 4. None of the above

Biology I - Section A
3. In E. coli cloning vector pBR322, restriction site of
101
which of the following restriction enzymes does not lie within
a gene for antibiotic resistance?
4. None of the above 1. Pvu I
2. BamH I
3. Pst I
4. Pvu II

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102 Consider the given two statements: 107 Given below are two statements: One is labelled as
Assertion Restriction enzymes do not harm the host Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R)
(A): bacterial cell that produces the enzymes. Assertion (A): Restriction enzyme is a type of endonuclease
Host DNA is protected by methylation that Restriction enzyme cuts the two stands of
Reason Reason (R):
modifies the prokaryotic DNA and blocks DNA at specific positions within the DNA
(R):
cleavage.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer
1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A). from the options given below:
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly 1. (A) is True but (R) is False.
2.
explain (A). 2. (A) is False but (R) is True.
3. (A) is True; (R) is False Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct
3.
4. Both (A) and (R) are False explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct
4.
103 Agarose is: explanation of (A).
1. a polysaccharide obtained from certain red alga. Which of the following organic acids is produced by a
2. a polysaccharide obtained from certain brown alga.
108
fungus
3. a polypeptide obtained from certain red alga.
1. Acetic acid 2. Butyric acid
4. a polypeptide obtained from certain brown alga.
3. Lactic acid 4. Citric acid

104 In the anaerobic sludge digesters during sewage water

109 India successfully protected itself against biopiracy in a
treatment:
case where in late 1997, the United States Patent and
The primary sludge is treated with aerobic microbes and
1. Trademark Office granted a patent to:
activated sludge is created
1. Co-667
The primary sludge is treated with anaerobic microbes and 2. Sharbati Sonora
2.
activated sludge is created 3. Lerma Rojo
The activated sludge is digested by anaerobic microbes 4. Basmati
3.
producing biogas during the process
The activated sludge is digested by aerobic microbes 110 Bt cotton is not
4.
producing biogas during the process 1. a GM plant
2. insect resistant
105 GEAC stands for: 3. a bacterial gene expressing system
1. Genetic Engineering Approval Committee 4. resistant to all pesticides
2. Green Environment Action Committee Microbes can be used as biocontrol agents. The
3. Genetic Engineering Appraisal Council
111
Ladybird, and Dragonflies are useful to get rid, respectively,
4. Genetic Ethics Approval Committee
of:
1. Jassids and Dipterans
106 Even if a plant is infected with a virus:
2. Aphids and Mosquitoes
I: the apical meristem is free of virus 3. Corn borers and Bollworms
II: the axillary meristem is free of virus 4. Roundworms and Fungal spores
III: meristem can be grown in-vitro to obtain virus free plants RNAi has been used as a novel strategy in tobacco
112
1. Only I and III are correct 2. Only II and III are correct plants to make them:
1. enriched with nutrients
3. Only I and II are correct 4. I, II and III are correct
2. produce more tobacco per plant
3. drought resistant
4. pest resistant

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113 The common restriction enzyme EcoRI recognizes the 119 BOD (biochemical oxygen demand) and DO (dissolved
palindromic sequence: oxygen) are measures of pollution levels in a given water
1. GAATTC sample. Higher the polluting potential of a water sample:
2. CCCGGG 1. Higher are the values of BOD and DO
3. AAGCTT 2. Lower are the values of BOD and DO
4. TGGCCA
3. Higher is the value of BOD and lower is the value of DO
A host cell normally does not take up a foreign DNA 4. Lower is the value of BOD and higher is the value of DO
114
until it has been made competent to do so. This is because: Trichoderma polysporum is a fungal species:
1. DNA is a hydrophilic molecule
120
1. extensively used in biocontrol of nematode pests
2. DNA is a very large molecule
2. and is a source of an immunosuppressive agent
3. there are no receptors for DNA on the cell membrane 3. used for commercial production of citric acid
4. DNA is an inert molecule 4. that causes ringworm in humans

115 A protoxin is 121 Consider the given two statements:

1. a primitive toxin Toxic insecticidal proteins present in
2. a denatured toxin Assertion (A): protein crystals formed by B. thuringiensis
3. toxin produced by Protozoa do not kill the Bacillus.
4. inactive toxin The Bt toxin protein exists as inactive
Reason (R):
protoxin in the Bacillus.
116 Ligation of foreign DNA at which of the following site
will result in loss of tetracycline resistance of pBR322? 1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A).
1. PsT I 2. (A) is True; (R) is False
2. Pvu I
3. (A) is False; (R) is False
3. EcoR I
4. BamH I Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly
4.
explain (A).
117 Identify the incorrect statement:
122 The main function of the primary treatment in sewage
B. thuringiensis forms protein crystals during a particular
1. treatment plants will be:
phase of its growth.
1. Biological decomposition
2. The protein crystals contain a toxic insecticidal protein.
2. Removal of suspended solids
Once an insect ingests the inactive toxin, it is converted 3. Disinfection
3. into an active form of toxin due to the acidic pH of the 4. Nutrient removal
gut.
The activated toxin binds to the surface of midgut 123 Select the correct statement from the following:
4. epithelial cells and creates pores that cause cell swelling
Gel electrophoresis is used for the amplification of a DNA
and lysis and eventually cause the death of the insect. 1.
segment.
The European Federation of Biotechnology [EFB] The polymerase enzyme joins the gene of interest and the
118 2.
vector DNA.
defines biotechnology as: Restriction enzyme digestions are performed by incubating
The use of living cells and bacteria in industrial and 3. purified DNA molecules with the restriction enzymes of
1.
scientific processes. optimum conditions.
The integration of natural sciences and organisms, cells, PCR is used for the isolation and separation of genes of
2. parts thereof, and molecular analogues for products and 4.
interest.
services.
The use of biology to solve problems and make useful 124 All the following will be true for native plasmids seen in
3.
products.
bacterial cells except:
The use of biology to develop new products, methods and 1. they are circular
4.
organisms intended to improve human health and society. 2. they are chromosomal DNA molecules
3. they replicate autonomously
4. they are double stranded

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125 Which one of the following microbes forms a symbiotic 131 The number of times the recognition sequence of EcoRI
association with plants and helps them in their nutrition? is expected to appear in a dsDNA of 10,000 bp length will be:
1. Azotobacter 1. 1
2. Aspergillus 2. 2
3. Glomus 3. 4
4. Trichoderma 4. 8

126 Thermostable DNA polymerase used in PCR was 132 A single-stranded DNA or RNA fragment that is used to
isolated from: detect a target sequence of DNA in a sample is called as a:
1. Thermus aquaticus 1. rDNA
2. Escherichia coli 2. microRNA
3. Agrobacterium tumefaciens 3. Gene probe
4. Bacillus thuringiensis 4. Proteome

127 Consider the two statements: 133 Which of the following statements will be correct
The use of baculovirus as biocontrol agents is regarding restriction endonucleases used in constructing
Assertion (A): especially desirable when an ecologically recombinant DNA molecules?
sensitive area is being treated.
Baculoviruses are species-specific, narrow 1. They are RNA molecules acting as enzymes.
Reason (R):
spectrum insecticides. The enzymes used in such experiments cut dsDNA
2.
randomly at any site.
1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A). 3. They have been isolated from bacterial cells.
2. (A) is True; (R) is False All restriction enzymes are thermostable and hence can be
4.
3. (A) is False; (R) is False used in PCR procedures.
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly
4. 134 The most critical requirement for any DNA molecule to
explain (A)
be able to act as a cloning vector during rDNA procedures will
128 Which of the following is correctly matched for the be:
1. Ori
product produced by them?
2. MCS
1. Methanobacterium: Lactic acid
3. More than one selectable marker
2. Penicillium notatum: Acetic acid
4. A silent promoter
3. Saccharomyces cerevisiae: Ethanol
4. Acetobacter aceti: Antibiotics
135 RNAi is a method for:

129 Polymerase Chain Reaction, used to amplify DNA, is 1. amplification of DNA

carried out in certain steps. Identify the correct chronology of 2. detecting a gene of interest in a sample of DNA
these steps: regulation of gene expression at the level of initiation of
3.
1. Denaturation - Primer annealing - Extension of primers transcription
2. Denaturation - Extension of primers - Primer annealing 4. post-transcriptional gene silencing
3. Extension of primers - Primer annealing – Denaturation
4. Primer annealing - Extension of primers – Denaturation Biology I - Section B
130 A recombinant DNA is the one that is: 136 Which of the following cheese is ripened with the help
present on the non-sister chromatids of homologous of a fungus?
1. chromosomes after 1. Swiss cheese
recombination in meiosis. 2. Roquefort cheese
results from the exchange of segments between 3. Cottage cheese
2. 4. Cream cheese
heterologous chromosomes.
3. is composed of DNA from different sources/genomes.
4. is synthesised in lab in a template independent manner.

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137 The cutting of DNA at specific locations became 141 In agarose gel electrophoresis the separated DNA
possible with the discovery of? fragments can be visualized only after staining the DNA with
1. Restriction enzymes a compound known as:
2. Probes 1. Polyethylene glycol
3. Selectable markets 2. Janus Green
4. ligases 3. DEC
4. Ethidium bromide
138 A plasmid has two genes providing resistance to
142 Creation of new varieties of pest-resistant GM crops:
antibiotics A and B respectively. A foreign DNA has been
inserted within the gene for resistance to antibiotic A: 1. makes crops more resistant to abiotic stresses
Non-Transformants will not survive in a medium 2. reduces reliance on chemical pesticides
I. containing antibiotic A and in a medium containing 3. enhances nutritional value of food crops
antibiotic B.
4. increases efficiency of mineral usage by plants
Recombinant transformants will survive in a medium
II. containing antibiotic B but not in a medium containing Golden Rice is enriched a micronutrient to prevent:
antibiotic A. 143
Non-recombinant transformants will survive in a medium 1. Atherosclerosis
III. containing antibiotic A and in a medium containing 2. Night blindness
antibiotic B. 3. Hypothyroidism
4. Rickets
1. Only I and II are correct
2. Only I and III are correct
144 Somaclones are obtained by:
3. Only II and III are correct
4. I, II and III are correct 1. tissue culture
2. plant breeding
139 Agrobacterium tumefaciens is used to: 3. irradiation
4. genetic engineering
select recombinant transformants in genetic engineering
1.
experiments It is desirable to use restriction enzymes that create
145
2. transform animal cells in genetic engineering experiments
sticky ends in recombinant DNA technology procedures
3. transform plant cells in genetic engineering experiments
because this:
transform bacterial cells in genetic engineering 1. facilitates the action of DNA ligase
4.
experiments
2. makes selection of recombinant DNA possible
3. increases the copy number of rDNA per cell
140
4. will create multiple fragments of the vector DNA
In order to force bacteria to take up the
Assertion (A): plasmid, the bacterial cells must be
‘competent’ to take up DNA.
Reason (R): No bacteria have natural competence.

1. (A) is True but (R) is False.

Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct
2.
explanation of (A).
3. (A) is False and (R) is True.
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct
4.
explanation of (A).

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146 Match the following columns and select the correct 149
option:- Biolistics is generally preferred over
Column I Column II Assertion (A): Agrobacterium mediation to engineer
Biocontrol agents of several plant [genetically transform] crops, such as cereals.
(a) Dragonflies (i)
pathogens Agrobacterium delivers a piece of DNA
Bacillus known as ‘T-DNA’ to transform normal plant
(b) (ii) Get rid of mosquitoes Reason (R): cells into a tumor and directs these tumor
thuringiensis
Narrow spectrum insecticidal cells to produce the chemicals required by the
(c) Glomus (iii) pathogen.
applications
Biocontrol agents of lepidopteran
(d) Baculoviruses (iv) 1. (A) is True but (R) is False.
plant pests
(v) Absorb phosphorus from soil 2. (A) is False and (R) is True.
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct
3.
Options: (a) (b) (c) (d) explanation of (A).
1. (iii) (v) (iv) (i) Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct
4.
explanation of (A).
2. (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
3. (ii) (iii) (iv) (v) The plantlets produced during plant tissue culture are
150
4. (ii) (iv) (v) (iii)
called somaclones because:
Which of the following tools of recombinant DNA 1. They can be produced in a very short span of time
147
They are the result of the somatic hybridization of two
technology is incorrectly paired with its use? 2.
cells
cutting DNA, creating sticky ends of
1. DNA ligase The gametes develop parthenogenetically to produce
restriction fragments 3.
genetically identical plantlets
polymerase chain reaction to amplify
2. DNA polymerase They are genetically identical to the original plant from
sections of DNA 4.
which they were grown
3. Electrophoresis separation of DNA fragments
Reverse
4.
transcriptase
production of cDNA from mRNA Biology II - Section A
Consider the given two statements: 151 What holds the polypeptide chains in the antibody
148
molecule?
Gel electrophoresis is used to separate DNA fragments
I: 1. Hydrogen bonds
based on their size.
2. Van der Waals forces
DNA fragments move through the gel towards the positive 3. Disulphide bonds
II:
electrode because DNA is negatively charged. 4. Hydrophobic interactions
1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct Given below are two statements:
152
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect Statement Antibiotics are chemicals produced by microbes
I: that kill other microbes.
Statement Antibodies are chemicals formed in body that
II: eliminate microbes.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most
appropriate answer from the options given below.
1. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
2. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
4. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

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153 What constitutes about 50% of the lymphoid tissue in 159

the human body? AIDS patients suffer from infections that
1. Malt 2. Spleen Assertion (A): could have been otherwise easily overcome
3. Lymph nodes 4. Liver by a non-infected person.
HIV is a virus that targets T cells of the
154 Which one of the following organisms is scientifically immune system and, as a result, HIV infection
Reason (R): can lead to progressively worsening
correctly named, correctly printed according to
immunodeficiency, a condition ideal for the
the International Rules of Nomenclature, and correctly
development of such infections.
described?
Plasmodium falciparum – a protozoan pathogen causing
1. 1. (A) is True but (R) is False.
the most serious type of malaria
2. Felis tigris – The Indian tiger, well protected in Gir forests. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct
2.
explanation of (A).
E.Coli – Full name Entamoeba coli, a commonly occurring
3. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct
bacterium in the human intestine 3.
explanation of (A).
4. Musca domestica – The common house lizard, a reptile
4. Both (A) and (R) are False.

155 When a retrovirus infects an animal cell: Insulin earlier extracted from pancreas of slaughtered
160
1. c DNA is introduced into cell
cattle and pigs:
2. Viral RNA is produced by reverse transcription
was not effective at all in bringing blood glucose levels
3. Viral RNA incorporates into host genomes I:
down towards normal range in diabetics.
Infected cell can survive while viruses are being replicated caused some patients to develop allergy or other types of
4. II:
and released reactions to the foreign protein.
1. Only I is correct
156 Which of the given pairs of infections in man are 2. Only II is correct
transmitted primarily by Aedes mosquito? 3. Both I and II are correct
1. Chikungunya and Dengue 4. Both I and II are incorrect
2. Lymphatic filariasis and Malaria
3. Schistosomiasis and Leishmaniasis 161 Malignant cells:
4. Lyme disease and Typhus I: do not exhibit contact inhibition
II: exhibit metastasis
157 Consider the given two statements: 1. Only I is correct
The risk of getting into drug/alcohol abuse is 2. Only II is correct
Assertion (A): 3. Both I and II are correct
higher in adolescence.
4. Both I and II are incorrect
The period between 12-18 years of age may
Reason (R):
be thought of as adolescence period.
162 Cirrhosis of liver is a dangerous complication

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A). commonly associated with chronic abuse of:
1. Morphine
2. (A) is True; (R) is False
2. Cannabinoids
3. (A) is False; (R) is True 3. Alcohol
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly 4. Atropine
4.
explain (A).
163 Which one of the following is not a property of
158 When activated under certain conditions, which of the
cancerous cells, whereas the remaining three are?
following could lead to oncogenic transformation of the cells? 1. They compete with normal cells for vital nutrients
1. Proto-oncogene 2. They do not remain confined in the area of formation
2. Viral-oncogene 3. They divide in an uncontrolled manner
3. Jumping genes 4. They show contact inhibition
4. Pseudogenes

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164 The bottled juices are clarified by the use of: 169 The thymus:
1. lipases and proteases 1. is located dorsal to the heart and aorta
2. lysozyme and chitinase is very small in size at birth and gradually increases in size
3. DNase and protease 2.
after puberty
4. Pectinases and proteases
provides the site for interaction of lymphocytes with the
3.
Coca alkaloid or cocaine is obtained from: antigen
165 4. is a primary lymphoid organ in the human body
1. Papaver somniferum 2. Atropa belladonna
3. Erythroxylum coca 4. Datura 170 The cell mediated immune response:
Interferons in human body are secreted by: I: is mediated by T lymphocytes.
166 produces more antibodies than in the humoral immune
1. Basophils II:
response.
2. B lymphocytes
III: is characterised by memory.
3. Virus infected cells
4. T cytotoxic or Natural Killer cells IV: is responsible for graft rejections.
1. Only I, II and III are correct
167 Consider the given two statements: 2. Only I, III and IV are correct
3. Only II, III and IV are correct
Smoking causes oxygen deficiency in the 4. I, II, III and IV are correct
Assertion (A):
body.
Smoking increases carbon monoxide (CO) 171 Allergic responses are mediated in humans by the
Reason (R): content in blood and reduces the
antibodies belonging to the class:
concentration of haembound oxygen.
1. IgG
2. IgD
1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A). 3. IgE
2. (A) is True; (R) is False 4. IgM
3. (A) is False; (R) is True
172 A normal cellular gene which when altered by mutation
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly
4.
explain (A). can contribute to cancer is called:
1. Oncogene 2. V – Onc
168 Match the drugs in Column I with their correct 3. Neoplastic gene 4. Proto-oncogene
attributes given in Column II and select the correct answer
from the codes given: 173 Consider the given two statements:
Drug Attribute Assertion It is very important that the HIV/AIDS infected
A Opioids P Hallucinogenic at high doses (A): persons are not isolated from family and society.
B Cannabinoids Q Highly effective painkiller Reason
HIV/AIDS is not an infectious disease.
C Cocaine R Can cause cardiovascular side effects (R):
D Nicotine S Stimulates adrenal medulla
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains
1.
Codes: Assertion.
A B C D 2. (A) is True; (R) is False
1. Q R S P 3. (A) is False; (R) is True
2. R Q P S Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly
4.
3. Q R P S explain (A).
4. R Q S P
174 The plasmid of which of the following was used for the
production of recombinant human insulin?
1. Yeast
2. Escherichia coli
3. Salmonella typhimurium
4. Agrobacterium tumefaciens

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175 All the following diseases are caused by viral pathogens 180 The given figure shows the chemical structure of a
except: commonly abused drug. This drug:
1. HIV
2. Polio
3. Tetanus
4. Covid

176 The main phagocytes in our body are:

1. Basophils and Acidophils
2. Neutrophils and Macrophages
3. NK cells and Mast cells
4. Dendritic cells and Glial cells

177 A disease that can be caused by the loss of the ability of

the adaptive immunity to differentiate between self and non- 1. causes hallucinations in low doses
self will be: 2. is derived from the Indian hemp plant
1. Tuberculosis 2. Covid-19 3. is sometimes clinically used as a pain killer
3. Bronchial asthma 4. Rheumatoid arthritis 4. is a CNS stimulant

178 How many of the given statements regarding HIV/AIDS The type of immunity responsible for graft rejection is:
181
are true? 1. Humoral immunity
I. AIDS is a congenital disease 2. Cell mediated immunity
II. Syndrome means a group of symptoms 3. Innate immunity
III. HIV is a rotavirus 4. Hyperimmunity
IV. HIV does not have an envelope Read the following four statements (I-IV):
182
HIV can be transmitted by an infected mother to her child
V. Colostrum is recommended for the newborn because it is
through placenta I.
rich in antigen
1. 2 2. 3 II. Chikungunya is caused by a Gram-negative bacterium
3. 4 4. 5 Tissue culture has proved useful in obtaining virus-free
III.
plants
Consider the given two statements: Beer is manufactured by distillation of fermented grape
179 IV.
juice
Insulin isolated from other cattle or pigs is not
Assertion(A): as effective as that secreted by the human How many of the above statements are wrong?
body itself. 1. Three
Insulin isolated from other cattle or pigs will 2. Four
Reason (R):
elicit an immune response in the human body 3. One
4. Two
1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A).
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly
2.
explain (A).
3. (A) is True; (R) is False
4. Both (A) and (R) are False

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183 In which one of the following options the two examples 188 Which pair of the given bacteria can commonly cause
are correctly matched with their particular type of immunity? pneumonia in humans?
Type of 1. Streptococcus pneumoniae and Staphylococcus aureus
Examples
immunity 2. Haemophilus influenzae and Streptococcus pneumoniae
Polymorphonuclear leukocytes and 3. Pneumocystis carinii and Mycoplasma hominis
(a) Cellular barriers
monocytes 4. Streptococcus pyogenes and Bacillus anthracis
Active
(b) Anti-tetanus and anti-snake bite injection
immunity ELISA is based on the principle of:
189
Physical
(c) Saliva in mouth and tears in eyes 1. Complementary hybridization of nucleic acids
barriers
Mucus coating of the epithelium lining 2. Antigen-antibody interaction
Physiological 3. Clonal selection
(d) the urinogenital tract and HCl in the
barriers
stomach 4. Southern blot
1. (a)
2. (b) 190 Widal test is used for the diagnosis of:
3. (c) 1. malaria
4. (d) 2. pneumonia
3. tuberculosis
184 A significant reduction in the count of which of the
4. typhoid
following cells by HIV leads to typical signs and symptoms
of AIDS? 191 The infectious stage of plasmodium that enters the
1. B lymphocytes. human body is:
2. T cytotoxic cells 1. Sporozoites
3. T helper cells 2. Female gametocytes
4. Natural Killer cells 3. Male gametocytes
4. Trophozoites
185 Which of the following drugs is a very effective
sedative and painkiller, acts on its receptors in CNS and GIT 192 Identify the incorrect statement:
and is also a CNS suppressant?
1. LAB check disease causing microbes in our stomach.
1. Morphine 2. Marijuana
Dough for making foods like dosa and idli are fermented
3. Cocaine 4. Atropine 2.
by yeast.
3. Swiss cheese is fermented by Propionibacterium shermanii
Biology II - Section B 4. Roquefort cheeses is an unripened cheese

186 Where is the antigen binding site present in an antibody Identify the incorrect statement:
193
molecule? The primary lymphoid organs are bone marrow and
1. between the two light chains 1.
thymus.
2. between the two heavy chains Peyer’s patches are masses of lymphoid tissue in small
2.
3. between the light and the heavy chains intestine.
at the very end of the antibody molecules [at their C All blood cells excluding lymphocytes are produced in
4. 3.
terminus] bone marrow.
4. Thymus regresses in size with age.
187 Transgenic animals are the animals that:
194 ‘Toddy’, a traditional drink in some parts of southern
have had their DNA manipulated to possess and express an
1.
extra [foreign] gene. India, is made by fermenting sap from:
are genetically modified with the use of foreign genes from 1. Palms 2. Soybean
2.
a sexually compatible donor organism. 3. Potato 4. Barley
3. are produced by interspecific hybridisation.
4. are produced by inbreeding.

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 NEET Level Test - 17-Nov Contact Number: 9667591930
(Only ONLINE) / 8527521718

195 Which of the following is the correct description of the

relation between T cells and B cells? Fill OMR Sheet*
Both are processed in bone marrow and respond to antigen *If above link doesn't work, please go to test link from
1.
from thymus where you got the pdf and fill OMR from there. After
2. T cells help B cells produce antibodies filling the OMR, you would get answers and explanations
3. B cells increase the phagocytic capabilities of T cells for the questions in the test.
While B cells are involved in first response to an antigen, T
4. cells respond to subsequent encounters with the same
antigen

196 The only known carriers of the bacterium, Salmonella CLICK HERE to get
typhi, are the:
1. Humans 2. Bats
FREE ACCESS for 2
3. Rodents 4. House flies days of ANY
197 MALT constitutes about _______ percent of the NEETprep course
lymphoid tissue in the human body.
1. 20% 2. 70%
3. 10% 4. 50%

198 HIV is a:
retrovirus which has an envelope enclosing the DNA
1.
genome
retrovirus which has an envelope enclosing the RNA
2.
genome
3. retrovirus which lacks an envelope
4. reovirus which lacks an envelope

199 Match List-I with List-II

List-I List-II
(a) Filariasis (i) Haemophilus influenzae
(b) Amoebiasis (ii) Trichophyton
(c) Pneumonia (iii) Wuchereria bancrofti
(d) Ringworm (iv) Entamoeba histolytica

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) (b) (c) (d)
1. (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
2. (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
3. (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
4. (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

200 ELISA stands for:

1. Easily Located Immuno Specific Antigen
2. Early Live Inactive Surface Antigen
3. Energy Loaded Intermediate Site on Apoenzyme
4. Enzyme-Linked Immuno Sorbent Assay

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