23-25 EXAM – 7: 1

SYLLABUS:
ORGANIC FULL (CLASS 11 & 12) INCLUDING STEREOCHEMISTRY,
IUPAC ETC. CLASS 12 FULL SYLLABUS, CLASS 11 IONIC
EQUILIBRIUM, BONDING, PERIODIC TABLE AND PERIODIC
PROPERTIES.

TIME: 3 HOURS FULL MARKS: 392

SECTION – A: SINGLE OPTION CORRECT (+4, –1)
1. The compound with the highest boiling point is

(A) 𝑛-hexane (B) 𝑛-pentane (C) 2,2-dimethylpropane (D) 2-methylbutane

2. Reactivity of alkenes towards 𝐻𝑋 decreases in the order

(A) 𝑏𝑢𝑡𝑒𝑛𝑒 > 𝑝𝑟𝑜𝑝𝑒𝑛𝑒 > 𝑒𝑡ℎ𝑒𝑛𝑒 (B) 𝑏𝑢𝑡𝑒𝑛𝑒 > 𝑒𝑡ℎ𝑒𝑛𝑒 > 𝑝𝑟𝑜𝑝𝑒𝑛𝑒
(C) 𝑒𝑡ℎ𝑒𝑛𝑒 > 𝑝𝑟𝑜𝑝𝑒𝑛𝑒 > 𝑏𝑢𝑡𝑒𝑛𝑒 (D) 𝑁𝑜𝑛𝑒 𝑜𝑓 𝑡ℎ𝑒𝑠𝑒
3. In the presence of peroxide, hydrogen chloride and hydrogen iodide do not give anti-Markownikoff’s
addition to alkenes because

(A) both are highly ionic

(B) one is oxidizing and other is reducing
(C) stronger 𝐻-𝐶𝑙 bond than the 𝐻-𝐵𝑟 bond and large size of 𝐼 atom
(D) all the steps are exothermic in both the cases
4. To synthesize the unsymmetrical alkyne, 𝐶𝐻3 − 𝐶 ≡ 𝐶 − 𝐶𝐻2 − 𝐶𝐻3 , the reagents needed would be

(A) ethene, iodoethane, iodomethane and potassium hydroxide

(B) acetaldehyde, 1-bromopropane and concentration H2SO4
(C) 1, 2-dichloroethane, 1-propanol and alcoholic potassium hydroxide
(D) ethyne, iodomethane, iodoethane and sodamide
5. In the hydration of propyne the first step is
(A) The addition of water to the central carbon
(B) The addition of proton to the second carbon
(C) The addition of proton to the terminal carbon
(D) The addition of proton resulting in a secondary vinylic carbon
6. The reagent(s) for the following conversion,
Br ?
Br H H is/are
(A) alcoholic KOH (B) alcoholic KOH followed by NaNH2
(C) aqueous KOH followed by NaNH2 (D) Zn/CH3OH
7. 2+ +
Hg /H
Ph C C CH3 A. A is
O OH
Ph Ph Ph Ph
O OH

(A) H3C (B) H3C (C) H3C (D) H3C

8. Which one of the following pairs represents the stereoisomerism?
(i) geometrical isomerism, position isomerism
(ii) geometrical isomerism, conformational isomerism
(iii) optical isomerism, geometrical isomerism
(iv) optical isomerism, metamerism

(A) only (ii) (B) only (iii) (C) (ii) and (iii) (D) all of the four

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23-25 EXAM – 7: 2
9. Which one is false in the following statements?

(A) Each carbon in ethylene is in sp2-hybridisation (B) Each carbon in acetylene is in sp3-hybridisation
(C) Each carbon in benzene is in sp2-hybridisation (D) Each carbon in ethane is in sp3-hybridisation
10. Polarization of electrons in acrolein may be written as
δ– δ+ δ– δ+
(A) 𝐶𝐻2 = 𝐶𝐻 − 𝐶𝐻 = 𝑂 (B) 𝐶𝐻2 = 𝐶𝐻 − 𝐶𝐻 = 𝑂
δ+ δ– δ– δ+
(C) 𝐶𝐻2 = 𝐶𝐻 − 𝐶𝐻 = 𝑂 (D) 𝐶𝐻2 = 𝐶𝐻 − 𝐶𝐻 = 𝑂
11. The most stable carbanion among the following is

CH 2 CH 2

CH 2 CH 2 CH 2

(A) (B) (C) OCH 3 (D) NO 2

12. Consider the following structures
+ +
I. CH2 CH II. CH3 CH2
+ +
III. CH2 CH CH2 IV.C6H5 CH C6H5

The correct order sequence of these carbocations in the decreasing order of their stability is

(A) IV, III, II, I (B) I, II, III, IV (C) IV, II, III, I (D) I, III, II, IV
13. Which of the following does not show geometrical isomerism?

(A) 1, 2-dichloro-1-pentene (B) 1, 3-dichloro-2-

pentene
(C) 1, 1-dichloro-1-pentene (D) 1, 4-dichloro-2-
pentene
14. Which of the following molecules can exhibit conformational isomers?

(A) C2H6 (B) H2O2 (C) NH2NH2 (D) All of these

15. Which of the following has Z-configuration?
CH 3 C H CH 3 C H
(i) (ii)
C3H7 C C2H5 C2 H5 C C3H7

Cl C Br Cl C Br
(iii) (iv)
H C F F C H
(A) only (i) (B) only (iii) (C) Both (i) and (iii) (D) Both (i) and
(iv)
16. Which of the following compounds contains all the four (10, 20, 30 and 40) type of carbon atoms?

(A) 2, 3-Dimethylpentane (B) 3, 3-Dimethylpentane

(C) 2, 3, 4-Trimethylpentane (D) 3-Chloro-2, 3-
dimethylpentane
17. Removal of hydrogen atom as proton is easier when it is attached to

(A) 10 carbon (B) 20 carbon (C) 30 carbon (D) no difference

S. Bagchi Classes (School of Chemistry) | Salt Lake | Gariahat | 9830705367

23-25 EXAM – 7: 3
18. In the compound given below
+ +
H3N NH 3
(Y) (Z)
COOH
(X)
The correct order of acidity of the positions (X), (Y) and (Z) is

(A) (Z) > (X) > (Y) (B) (X) > (Y) > (Z) (C) (X) > (Z) > (Y) (D) (Y) > (X) > (Z)
19. Compare stability
+
(1) 𝐶𝐻2 − 𝐶𝐻 = 𝐶𝐻 − 𝐶𝐻 = 𝑂
+ − 𝐶𝐻3 (2) 𝐶𝐻2 = 𝐶𝐻 − 𝐶𝐻 − 𝐶𝐻 = 𝑂 − 𝐶𝐻3
(3) 𝐶𝐻2 − 𝐶𝐻 = 𝐶+ − 𝐶𝐻+ = 𝑂 − 𝐶𝐻3 (4) 𝐶𝐻2 = 𝐶𝐻 − 𝐶𝐻 − 𝐶 = 𝑂 − 𝐶𝐻3

(A) 2 > 1 > 3 > 4 (B) 2 > 1 > 4 > 3 (C) 3 > 4 > 1 > 2 (D) 1 > 2 > 3 > 4
20. If two half reactions having potentials E1 and E2 which are combined to yield a third half reaction having
potential E3. Which of the following expression is correct. [where n1, n2 and n3 are the number of electrons
lost or gain in the given reaction respectively]

𝐸1 𝑛1 +𝐸2 𝑛2 𝐸1 𝑛1 −𝐸2 𝑛2 𝐸1 𝑛1 −𝐸2 𝑛2

(A) 𝐸3 = 𝐸2 − 𝐸1 (B) 𝐸3 = 𝑛3
(C) 𝐸3 = 𝑛3
(D) 𝐸3 = 𝑛32
21. Given the standard oxidation potentials
+0.4 𝑉 −0.8 𝑉
𝐹𝑒 → 𝐹𝑒 2+ (𝑎𝑞) → 𝐹𝑒 3+ (𝑎𝑞)
+0.9 𝑉 +0.6 𝑉
𝐹𝑒 → 𝐹𝑒(𝑂𝐻)2 → 𝐹𝑒(𝑂𝐻)3
2+ 3+
It is easier to oxidise Fe to Fe in

(A) Acid medium (B) Alkaline medium

(C) Neutral medium (D) Both in acidic and alkaline medium
22. Which of the following ion has highest ionic mobility?

(A) 𝑁𝑎 + (B) 𝐹 − (C) 𝑆𝑂42− (D) 𝑂𝐻 −

0 0 0
23. If 𝐸𝐹𝑒 2+/𝐹𝑒 is x1, 𝐸𝐹𝑒 3+/𝐹𝑒 is x2, then 𝐸𝐹𝑒 3+/𝐹𝑒 2+ will be

(A) 3x2 – 2x1 (B) x2 – x1 (C) x2 + x1 (D) 2x1 + 3x2

24. A Zn rod weighing 2.5 g was kept in 10 mL of 1 M CuSO4 solution. After a certain time the molarity of Cu2+ in
solution was found to be 0.8 M. What is the molarity of 𝑆𝑂42− ions in solution?

(A) 0.8 M (B) 3.8 M (C) 0.08 M (D) No change

25. For given cell reactions
𝐴𝑔𝐶𝑙 (𝑠) + 𝑒 − → 𝐴𝑔(𝑠) + 𝐶𝑙 − (𝑎𝑞. ); 𝐸 0 = +0.80 𝑉 and 𝐴𝑔+ (𝑎𝑞) + 𝑒 − → 𝐴𝑔(𝑠); 𝐸 0 = +0.80 𝑉
then solubility product of AgCl(s) at 298 K is

(A) 1.6 × 10−17 (B) 1.6 × 10−5 (C) 1.6 × 10−7 (D) 1.6 × 10−10
26. In the following equilibrium 𝑁2 𝑂4 (𝑔) ⇌ 2𝑁𝑂2 . NO2 is 50% of the total volume. Hence, degree of
dissociation (x) and van’t Hoff factor (𝑖) respectively are:

(A) 0.5, 1.5 (B) 0.25, 1.25 (C) 0.33, 1.33 (D) 0.66, 1.66
27. In the following aqueous solutions
(1) 1 m sucrose (2) 1 m potassium ferrycianide and (3) 1 m potassium sulphate,
maximum value of vapour pressure of solution is that of:

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) equal

S. Bagchi Classes (School of Chemistry) | Salt Lake | Gariahat | 9830705367

23-25 EXAM – 7: 4
28. Which statement comparing solutions with pure solvent is not correct?

(A) A solution containing a non-volatile solute has a lower vapour pressure than pure solvent
(B) A solution containing a non-volatile solute has a lower boiling point than pure solvent
(C) A solution containing a non-volatile solute has a lower freezing point than pure solvent
(D) A solution will have a greater mass than an equal volume of pure solvent if the solute has a molar mass
greater than the solvent
29. A colligative property of a solution depends on the:

(A) arrangement of atoms in solute molecule (B) total number of molecules of solute and solvent
(C) number of molecules of solute in solution (D) mass of the solute molecules
30. van't Hoff factors of aqueous solutions of X, Y, Z are 1.8,, 0.8, and 2.5. hence, their:

(A) b.p. : X < Y < Z (B) f.p. : Z < X < Y (C) osmotic pressure : X = Y = Z (D) v.p. : Y < X < Z
31. An azeotropic solution of two liquids has a boiling point lower than either of them when it:

(A) shows negative deviation from Raoult’s law (B) shows positive deviation from Raoult’s law
(C) shows ideal behaviour (D) is saturated
32. Consider the following statements about a galvanic cell
I. Electrons flow through H2O (medium) from anode to cathode
II. Electrons flow through wire from anode to cathode
III. Salt bridge is necessary to complete the electrical circuit
Select correct alternate(s)

(A) I, II, III (B) I, III (C) II, III (D) I, II

33. In the galvanic cell: 𝐹𝑒(𝑠) + 2𝐹𝑒 3+ (𝑎𝑞) → 3𝐹𝑒 2+ (𝑎𝑞)

(A) Fe(s) is the cathode because it is in contact with Fe2+(aq)

(B) Fe(s) is the cathode because it is in contact with Fe3+(aq)
(C) Fe(s) can’t be used as cathode since it would directly react with Fe3+, then short-circuiting the cell
(D) salt-bridge contains Fe2+ and Fe3+ ions
34. For the galvanic cell: 𝑃𝑡(𝑠)|𝐹𝑒 2+ , 𝐹𝑒 3+ ||𝐹𝑒2+ |𝐹𝑒 cell reaction is:

(A) 3𝐹𝑒 2+ + 𝐹𝑒 → 2𝐹𝑒 3+ (B) 3𝐹𝑒 2+ → 𝐹𝑒 + 2𝐹𝑒 3+

(C) 𝐹𝑒 + 2𝐹𝑒 3+ → 3𝐹𝑒 2+ (D) none of these
35. The standard reduction potentials of Cu2+/Cu and Cu+/Cu are 0.339 V and 0.518 V respectively. The standard
electrode potentials of Cu2+/Cu+ half-cell is:

(A) 0.16 V (B) – 0.179 V (C) – 0.16 V (D) + 0.179 V

0 0
36. For the fuel-cell reaction: 2𝐻2 + 𝑂2 → 2𝐻2 𝑂, ∆𝐺 = −475 𝑘𝐽. Hence, 𝐸𝑐𝑒𝑙𝑙 is:

(A) 1.23 V (B) 2.46 V (C) 0.615 V (D) 0.31 V

37. A current of 5.00 A flowing for 30.00 min deposits 3.048 g of zinc at the cathode. Hence, equivalent weight
of zinc is:

(A) 65.4 (B) 130.8 (C) 32.7 (D) 16.85

38. How many faradays are required to reduce one mol of 𝑀𝑛4− to 𝑀𝑛2+ ?

(A) 1 (B) 5 (C) 3 (D) 2

39. The value of the reaction quotient, Q, for the cell 𝑍𝑛(𝑠)|𝑍𝑛2+ (0.01 𝑀)||𝐴𝑔+ (1.25 𝑀)|𝐴𝑔(𝑠) is

(A) 156 (B) 125 (C) 1.25 × 10−2 (D) 6.40 × 10−3

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23-25 EXAM – 7: 5
0 0 0
40. If 𝐸𝐹𝑒 2+ /𝐹𝑒 is 𝑥1 , 𝐸𝐹𝑒 3+ /𝐹𝑒 is 𝑥2 then 𝐸𝐹𝑒 3+ /𝐹𝑒 2+ will be:

(A) 3𝑥2 − 2𝑥1 (B) 𝑥2 − 𝑥1 (C) 𝑥2 + 𝑥1 (D) 1𝑥2 + 3𝑥1

41. Assume that during electrolysis of AgNO3, only H2O is electrolysed and O2 is formed as:
2𝐻2 𝑂 → 3𝐻 + + 𝑂2 + 4𝑒 −
O2 formed at NTP due to passage of 2 amperes of current for 965 s is:

(A) 0.112 L (B) 0.224 L (C) 11.2 L (D) 22.4 L

42. Electrical potential of a cell is:

(A) an intensive property (B) an extensive property (C) an isothermal property (D) an isobaric property
43. Solubility of KCl is maximum is:

(A) CH3CH2OH (B) CH3OCH3 (C) H2O (D) CH3COOH

44. Which pair is not correct order of lattice energy?

(A) 𝐾𝐶𝑙 > 𝑀𝑔𝑂 (B) 𝐴𝑙𝑁 > 𝑀𝑔𝑂 (C) 𝐵𝑒𝐶𝑂3 > 𝑀𝑔𝐶𝑂3 (D) 𝐵𝑒𝐶𝑂3 = 𝑀𝑔𝐶𝑂3
45. H-bonding is maximum in:

(A) ethanol (B) methoxy methane (C) chloroethane (D) N,N-diethyl amino ethane
46. Which structure appears wrong?

F
+
B F +
+ + 2
(A) H N N N (B) F (C) 𝐻 𝐹 + −
(D) CH2 CH Cl
47. Bond order of 𝑂2 , 𝑂2+ , 𝑂2− and 𝑂22− is in order:

(A) 𝑂2− < 𝑂22− < 𝑂2 < 𝑂2+ (B) 𝑂22− < 𝑂2− < 𝑂2 < 𝑂2+
(C) 𝑂2+ < 𝑂2 < 𝑂2− < 𝑂22+ (D) 𝑂2 < 𝑂2+ < 𝑂2− < 𝑂22−
48. In terms of polar character, which one of the following order is correct?

(A) NH3 < H2O < HF < H2S (B) H2S < NH3 < H2O < HF (C) H2O < NH3 < H2S < HF (D) HF < H2O < NH3 < H2S
49. Consider the following structures:
CH3
CH3CH2CH2CH2 Cl CH3CHCH2CH3 CH3CHCH2Cl CH 3 C CH3
Cl Cl Cl
I II III IV
Type of isomerism shown by 𝐼 ans 𝐼𝐼 is:

(A) chain (B) position (C) both (D) none

50. Which is not the position isomer of 𝐼?

I: CH 2Cl

CH3 CH3 CH3

(A) CH 2Cl (B) Cl (C) Cl (D) Cl

S. Bagchi Classes (School of Chemistry) | Salt Lake | Gariahat | 9830705367

23-25 EXAM – 7: 6
51. Sawhorse staggered representation of ethane is:

H
H
H H H H
H H H H
H
H H H
(A) H (B) H (C) H H (D) All of these
52. Molecular formula C4H9NH2 shows how many isomers of primary amines?

(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5

53. What is the predominant product in the following reaction?

+ CH3 CH2 Cl

CH 2CH 3 CH CH2
(A) (B) (C) (D) None of these
54. In the following reaction 𝜎 complex is:
AlCl 3
(CH3)3CCH2Cl +

H H H

(A) + C(CH 3) 2CH 2CH 3 (B) + CH 2C(CH 3) 3 (C) + C(CH 3)3 (D) None of these
55. Which is the best leaving group (weakest conjugate base)?

F 3C SO 3 H3C SO 3
(A) (B) (C) CH3 (D) OH
56. To replace circles hydrogen by deuterium (D), reagents used are:
I II III CH CHCH2D
CH2 CHCH2 H 2
I II

I II III
(A) Br2/CCl4 Na D2O
(B) NBS Mg/ether D2O
(C) Br2 Mg/ether D2O
(D) HBr Mg/ether D2O
57. Which is not the Wurtz-Fitting reaction?

Na/ether Na/ether
CH 2Cl + CH 3Cl CH 2Cl + Cl
(A) (B)
Na/ether
Cl + CH 3Cl
(C) (D) None of these

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23-25 EXAM – 7: 7
58. CH 2Br
A will give .... by E1 reaction: (A)

CH2 CH3 CH2 CH2

(A) (B) (C) (D)

59.
To prepare anisole OCH 3, which is the best path:

I: Br + CH 3ONa II: ONa + CH 3Cl III: OH + CH 2N2

(A) 𝐼 (B) 𝐼𝐼 (C) 𝐼𝐼𝐼 (D) all are equal

60. NH 3
CH3CH2Br CH3CH2NH 2 (true) hence, Br + NH 3 A, A is:

NH 2 NH
(A) (B) (C) (D) None of these
61. Order of hydrolysis of the following in increasing order is:

Br , Br , Br , (CH3)3CBr

(I) (II) (III) (IV)

(A) 𝐼 < 𝐼𝐼 < 𝐼𝐼𝐼 < 𝐼𝑉 (B) 𝐼 < 𝐼𝑉 < 𝐼𝐼 < 𝐼𝐼𝐼 (C) 𝐼𝑉 < 𝐼𝐼𝐼 < 𝐼𝐼 < 𝐼 (D) 𝐼 < 𝐼𝐼 < 𝐼𝑉 < 𝐼𝐼𝐼
62. CH3
Br
CH3OH
+ CH3ONa A ; A is:

CH3 CH3 OCH3

H3C OCH 3
OCH3 OH OCH3

(A) (B) (C) (D)

63. H3C CH3
Cl FeCl3
o
A ; A is:
CH3NO 2, 0 C
CH3

CH3
H3C CH3

CH3

(A) CH3 (B) CH 2CH 3 (C) both are correct (D) None is correct

S. Bagchi Classes (School of Chemistry) | Salt Lake | Gariahat | 9830705367

23-25 EXAM – 7: 8
64. Br CH3
S N2
+ OH ? Identify the product with proper configuration.
H H

(A) retention (B) inversion (C) racemisation (D) no reaction

65. +
H3 O
CH3MgBr + CH 2 CH C H Product ( 1 : 4 addition). It is:

OH
CH 2 CH C H CH 2CH CH CH3

(A) CH3 (B) OH (C) CH3CH2CH2CHO (D) None is correct

66. O
H2SO5
Identify the product A in the following reaction: A

C4 H9

O
O
OH O
O
O

(A) C4H9 (B) O (C) C4H9 (D) C4H9

67. SOCl2 LiAlH(O tBu)3 HOCH2CH2OH
The reaction sequence: CH3CH2COOH A B C
‘C’ is most likely to be:

H3C O O CH2
CH3CH2CH O

(C) CH3CH2CHO (D) CH3CH2CH2

O O CH2 CHCH2
(A) (B)
68. What is the product B in the following reaction sequence?
O
KCN / H2SO4 LiAlH4
CH3 C CH3 A B

CH3 CH3 CH3

CH 3 C CH COOH CH 3 C COOH CH 3 C CH 2NH 2 CH 3 CH CN

(A) OHCH3 (B) OH (C) OH (D) CH3

69. The reagent that gives an orange precipitate with acetaldehyde is:

(A) Na2CO3 (B) NaOH (C) 2,4-DNP (D) NH2OH

70. Aldehydes and ketones can be distinguished by:

(A) Iodoform test (B) Molisch test (C) Tollen’s reagent (D) 2,4-DNP test
71. O

R C NH 2 + KOH + Br 2 Intermediates of this reaction are except:

O
O R C N Br

(A) R N C O (B) R C N (C) H (D) both (A) and (C)

S. Bagchi Classes (School of Chemistry) | Salt Lake | Gariahat | 9830705367

23-25 EXAM – 7: 9
0
72. Which is the best method of preparing 2 amine?

𝐾𝐶𝑁 𝑆𝑛/𝐻𝐶𝑙 𝐴𝑔𝐶𝑁 𝐿𝑖𝐴𝑙𝐻4

(A) 𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝑙 + 𝑁𝐻3 (B) 𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝑙 → → (C) 𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝑙 → → (D)
73. Ethyl cyanide (A) can be converted to ethyl amine (B) by:

+
H3O NH 3 KBrO
𝑆𝑛/𝐻𝐶𝑙 A B 𝐿𝑖𝐴𝑙𝐻4
(A) 𝐴 → 𝐵 (B) (C) 𝐴 → 𝐵 (D) (A) and (C) are correct
74.
Arrange the following in increasing boiling point: HN CH3 CH3N CH3 NH 2

A B C

(A) A < B < C (B) B < A < C (C) A < C <B (D) B < C < A
75. O
(i) CH3NH 2
The major organic product formed from the following reaction: ..... is
(ii) LiAlH4 (iii) H2O

CH3 O NHCH 3 NHCH 3

(A) OH (B) NHCH 3 (C) OH (D) OH

76. Which of the following chemicals are used to manufacture methyl isocyanate that caused “Bhopal
Tragedy”?
(i) Methylamine (ii) Chloroform/KOH (iii) Phosphine (iv) Dimethyllamine

(A) (i) and (iii) (B) (iii) and (iv) (C) (i) and (ii) (D) (ii) and (iv)

SECTION – B: ASSERTION – REASON TYPE (+4, –1)

77. Br

Statement - I: When CH2 = CHCOOH is treated with HBr,CH 3CHCOOH is the main product.
+ +
Statement - II: The carbocation, CH 2CH2COOH is more stable thanCH3CHCOOH
(A) Statement–I is true, Statement–II is true; Statement–II is the correct explanation of Statement–I.
(B) Statement–I is true, Statement–II is true; Statement–II is NOT the correct explanation of Statement–I.
(C) Statement – I is true, Statement – II is false.
(D) Statement – I is false, Statement – II is true.
78. Statement – I: 1-Butene on reaction with HBr in the presence of a peroxide produces 1-bromobutane.
Statement – II: It involves the formation of a primary radical.

(A) Statement–I is true, Statement–II is true; Statement–II is the correct explanation of Statement–I.
(B) Statement–I is true, Statement–II is true; Statement–II is NOT the correct explanation of Statement–I.
(C) Statement – I is true, Statement – II is false.
(D) Statement – I is false, Statement – II is true.
79. Statement – I: Addition of 𝐻𝐵𝑟 to 𝐻𝐶 ≡ 𝐶 − 𝐶𝐻2 − 𝐶𝐻 = 𝐶𝐻2 gives
𝐻𝐶 ≡ 𝐶 − 𝐶𝐻2 − 𝐶𝐻𝐵𝑟 − 𝐶𝐻3 and not 𝐻2 𝐶 = 𝐶𝐵𝑟 − 𝐶𝐻2 − 𝐶𝐻 = 𝐶𝐻2 .

Statement – II: A triple bond is less reactive than a double bond.

(A) Statement–I is true, Statement–II is true; Statement–II is the correct explanation of Statement–I.
(B) Statement–I is true, Statement–II is true; Statement–II is NOT the correct explanation of Statement–I.
(C) Statement – I is true, Statement – II is false.
(D) Statement – I is false, Statement – II is true.
80. Statement – I: But-2-yne on reduction with 𝑁𝑎/𝑁𝐻3 (𝑙) gives trans-2-butene.
S. Bagchi Classes (School of Chemistry) | Salt Lake | Gariahat | 9830705367
23-25 EXAM – 7: 10
Statement – II: To minimize interelectronic repulsion addition of electrons occur on the opposite faces of
the triple bond.

(A) Statement–I is true, Statement–II is true; Statement–II is the correct explanation of Statement–I.
(B) Statement–I is true, Statement–II is true; Statement–II is NOT the correct explanation of Statement–I.
(C) Statement – I is true, Statement – II is false.
(D) Statement – I is false, Statement – II is true.

SECTION – C: ONE OR MORE THAN ONE OPTIONS IS CORRECT (+4, –1)

81. Which of the following statement is correct regarding stability of the parent alkenes and the product
alkanes?

II III
I
H2 H2
H2

Ia IIa IIIa

(A) All alkenes are equally stable (B) Alkene 𝐼𝐼𝐼 is more stable than 𝐼 and 𝐼𝐼
(C) All alkanes are equally stable (D) Alkane 𝐼𝐼𝐼a is more stable than 𝐼a and 𝐼𝐼a
82. Which of the following will react with sodium metal?

(A) Ethyne (B) Propyne (C) Butyne-2 (D) Ethane

83. Ammonical silver nitrate reacts with

(A) ethyne (B) ethylene (C) butyne-1 (D) butyne-2

84. The cell given 0
is 𝑀𝑔 |𝑀𝑔2+ ‖𝐴𝑔+ |𝐴𝑔(𝑠) (𝐸𝑀𝑔/𝑀𝑔 2+ = 0
2.37 𝑉) (𝐸𝐴𝑔 + /𝐴𝑔 = 0.80 𝑉)

For the cell which of the following statements are correct?

(A) The value of log10Keq is 107.457 (B) 𝜀 0 for the cell is 1.57 V
(C) 𝜀 0 for the cell is 3.17 V (D) The maximum work done is 6.118 × 105 𝐽
85. For the following cell
𝑃𝑡, 𝐻2 (1 𝑎𝑡𝑚 )|𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝑂𝑂𝐻 ‖𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝑂𝑂𝐻|𝑃𝑡, 𝐻2 (1 𝑎𝑡𝑚)
(0.1 M) (0.01 M)
𝐾𝑎 (𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝑂𝑂𝐻) = 1.8 × 10−5

(A) Degree of ionization of 𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝑂𝑂𝐻 (𝐿. 𝐻. 𝑆. ) 𝑖𝑠 1.34 × 10−2

(B) Degree of ionization of 𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝑂𝑂𝐻 (𝑅. 𝐻. 𝑆. ) 𝑖𝑠 4.24 × 10−2
(C) E for the cell is – 0.4575
(D) The given cell is non-spontaneous
86. When a lead storage battery is discharged?

(A) Water is formed (B) SO3 is formed

(C) Lead sulphate is formed at both electrodes (D) Sulphuric acid is consumed
87. A metal rod is dipped in a solution of its ions. It’s electrode potential is independent of

(A) Temperature of the solution (B) Concentration of the solution

(C) Area of the metal exposed (D) Nature of the metal

S. Bagchi Classes (School of Chemistry) | Salt Lake | Gariahat | 9830705367

23-25 EXAM – 7: 11
88. After sometime, the voltage of an electrochemical cell becomes zero. This is because

(A) Their electrode potential becomes zero

(B) Their reduction potential become equal but have opposite sign
(C) Their reduction potential become equal and have the same sign
(D) The ions of the electrolyte in the salt bridge stop moving

SECTION – D: NUMERICAL VALUE TYPE (+4, –1)

89. How many Faradays are required to convert 1 mole of 𝐶𝑙 − to 𝐶𝑙𝑂4− ?

90. For a monobasic acid the equivalent conductance at infinite dilution is 348 Ω−1 𝑐𝑚 −1 𝑒𝑞−1 . The resistivity
of the solution containing 15 g acid (MW = 49) in 1 L is 18.5 Ω cm. Let α be the degree of dissociation of this
acid. What is the value 10 α?
91. 𝑛-butane is produced by the monobromination of ethane followed by the 𝑊𝑢𝑟𝑡𝑧 reaction. The volume of
ethane is 9.25 𝑥 𝐿 at 𝑁𝑇𝑃 required to produce 55 𝑔 𝑛-butane, if the bromination takes place with 90
percent yield and the 𝑊𝑢𝑟𝑡𝑧 reaction with 85 percent yield. Find the approximate value of 𝑥.

92. How many moles of 𝑂2 are required for complete combustion of one mole of propane ?

93. How many of the following four statements are correct?

(A) Methane cannot be prepared by catalytic hydrogenation of alkene.
(B) All isomers of the formula C6H14 can be prepared by catalytic hydrogenation of alkene.
(C) All isomers of the formula C5H12 can be prepared by catalytic hydrogenation of alkene
(D) Trans isomers of alkene will have less dipole moment than cis generally.
94. 1.0 kg of an aqueous solution of sucrose is cooled and maintained at – 3.5340C. how much ice will separate
out if the solution molality is one? 𝐾𝑓 (𝐻2 𝑂) = 1.86 𝑘𝑔 𝑚𝑜𝑙−1 𝐾

95. An aqueous solution containing 228 g of a non-volatile compound having the stoichiometric composition
𝐶𝑛 𝐻2𝑛 𝑂𝑛 in 90.0 g water boils at 101.240C at 1.00 atm pressure. What is the molecular formula of the
compound? 𝐾𝑏 (𝐻2 𝑂) = 0.512 𝐾 𝑚𝑜𝑙 −1 kg, boiling point of (H2O) = 1000C.

96. How would 1 dm3 of a 2.50 weight % of Na2CO3 solution be prepared from Na2CO3∙10H2O and water? The
solution density is 1.0178 × 103 𝑘𝑔 𝑚 −3 .

97. What osmotic pressure would the 1.25 molal sucrose solution exhibit at 250C? The density of this solution is
1.34 g/mL.

98. Chloroacetic acid, a monoprotic acid, has a 𝐾𝑎 (ionisation constant) of 1.36 × 10−3 . Calculate boiling point
of 0.01 M aqueous solution. 𝐾𝑏 (molal elevation constant) = 0.51 𝑚𝑜𝑙−1 𝑘𝑔 𝐾, b.p. (H2O) = 1000C. Assume
0.01 molar = 0.01 molal.

S. Bagchi Classes (School of Chemistry) | Salt Lake | Gariahat | 9830705367

23-25 EXAM – 7: 12
OMR
NAME

Q. # A B C D Q. # A B C D Q. # A B C D
1. 46. 91.
2. 47. 92.
3. 48. 93.
4. 49. 94.
5. 50. 95.
6. 51. 96.
7. 52. 97.
8. 53. 98.
9. 54.
10. 55.
11. 56.
12. 57.
13. 58.
14. 59.
15. 60. OFFICE USE ONLY
16. 61.
17. 62. TOTAL SCORE
18. 63.
19. 64.
20. 65.
21. 66.
22. 67.
23. 68.
24. 69.
25. 70.
26. 71.
27. 72.
28. 73.
29. 74.
30. 75.
31. 76.
32. 77.
33. 78.
34. 79.
35. 80.
36. 81.
37. 82.
38. 83.
39. 84.
40. 85.
41. 86.
42. 87.
43. 88.
44. 89.
45. 90.

S. Bagchi Classes (School of Chemistry) | Salt Lake | Gariahat | 9830705367