BYJU'S AILET Practice Mock 03 @clatimpstuff
BYJU'S AILET Practice Mock 03 @clatimpstuff
BYJU'S AILET Practice Mock 03 @clatimpstuff
com
Questions
1. Direction: Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow. Certain words are printed in bold to help you locate them while answering
some of these.
A fad diet is exactly what the name implies—it is a diet that grows to popularity due to enthusiasm behind the perceived results and is usually short-lived. Fad
diets are all about eliminating certain food groups to reach a desired goal. Most often, fad diets involve the elimination of dairy, wheat/grains, and carbs
(whatever that includes).
Although the results of fad diets may come quick and be drastic, they are not sustainable. Within a few weeks of starving yourself of key nutrients, you will likely
end up binging on all the unhealthy foods you worked to avoid in the first place.
By partaking in these extreme diets, you are messing up your metabolism. Going from periods of starvation to periods of normal eating (and most often binge
eating), you are confusing the body's natural response to fullness and hunger and ultimately slowing your metabolic rate. And a slower metabolism means it will
be harder to lose weight.
It comes as no surprise that when you eliminate certain food groups, you are eliminating certain nutrients such as carbs and fats. All nutrients play a vital role in
your normal bodily functions. Therefore, when you eliminate them completely from your diet, you are jeopardizing your health and the way in which your body will
properly function.
When you step on the scale after a few days of your fad dieting and you notice the number go down, you have a euphoric feeling! However, that difference is,
most often, just water weight. And although you may lose "actual" pounds in the short term, this will be hard to maintain once you reintroduce normal foods into
your diet again. And with a slower metabolic rate as a result of your dieting, you will likely gain all the weight back (plus some)!
Effects of fad dieting that produce a short-term effect include dehydration, acne, depression, irregular bowel movements, and fatigue. You may notice as you
begin to significantly cut calories, you will feel less motivated to take those flight of stairs, you will hit that 3 PM slump, and you will be less likely to engage in
physical activity. Also, you may notice constipation.
It is best if you steer clear of fad diets. The best way to have sustained weight loss is to make a committed and life-long change in your diet and exercise habits.
Remember, everything in moderation.
Source - https://blog.livehealthymd.com/fad-diets-the-dangerous-side-effects
What does the author mean by “... you have a euphoric feeling!”
A. The author wants to describe the feeling that a person gets when they lose B. The feeling of being excited about starting something new is what the author
weight after dieting. is trying to describe.
C. The author tries to describe the feeling of happiness that comes from clean D. The author wants to describe the feeling of nausea that happens because of
eating. fasting through the given quote.
E. When we diet, we go through fluctuating feelings and the author wants to
describe the high point through the given quote.
2. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
I) When you follow a fad diet you are more likely to gain weight after a certain point of time.
III) Fad diets are controversial but if you stick with it, you will be able to achieve and maintain your target weight in an easy manner.
A. Only II B. Only I
C. Both I and II D. Both II and III
E. Both I and III
3. Which of the following is/ are True with reference to the given passage?
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II) In contrast to fad diets, healthy diets usually focus on whole foods, calories, and portions for managing body weight; combine diet and exercise; contain all
major food.
III) Fad diets offer the promise of instant weight loss with the ability to eat anything and everything.
A. Only I B. Only II
C. Only III D. Both I and II
E. None of these
4. Given below is a possible inference that can be drawn from the facts stated in the passage. You have to examine the inference in the context of the passage and
decide upon its degree of truth or falsity.
‘Weight-loss advice comes in hundreds of disguises.’
A. Definitely true B. Probably true
C. The data are inadequate D. Probably false
E. Definitely false
5. Which of the following best expresses the opposite meaning of the word “reintroduce” as used in the passage?
I) Helpfulness
II) Inhibit
III) Revive
A. Only I B. Both I and II
C. Only II D. Both II and III
E. None of the above
6. Direction: In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five
words/phrases are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately.
In July 1929, in a much-anticipated encounter in El Paso, Texas, Matty Matsuda, the Japanese-born champion welterweight wrestler, faced off against Basanta
Singh, the Indian challenger who (###Q1###) as a fruit farm labourer.
It was a well-contested match, fought in the catch-as-catch-can style created in the 1870s by the British sports coach JG Chambers by combining several
wrestling styles. Newspapers called the (###Q2###) a “colourful exhibition of the grappling art”. Both men sustained “flying falls”, but in the end, Matsuda was
“outweighed and outmatched”. The Indian’s “bear-hug” (###Q3###) his jujitsu.
The contest left Matsuda with serious injuries that led to his hospitalisation in Michigan. He died there three weeks later. A popular wrestler known for his
(###Q4###) – he won over 100 welterweight matches in a row and spoke several languages – Matsuda’s death was widely mourned. As for Singh, it was
(###Q5###) that he was racked with guilt for the rest of his life.
E) by a leader is of no avail
A. ADBCE B. CBDAE
C. BDEAC D. DECAB
E. ABDEC
12. A) the soil and vegetation,
A) including network activity, location data, and browsing and search histories
Last year, the International Baccalaureate had (I)/cancelled its exam and award (II)/ marks on the basis of internal assessment.
A. Only I B. Both I and II
C. Only II D. Both I and III
E. Both II and III
16. Direction: A sentence divided into three parts I, II and III is given. Determine the part(s) which requires correction and mark it as your answer. Companies have
been reaping the (I)/benefits of enterprises over industries (II)/and geographies investing in technology amid the pandemic. (III)
A. Only II B. Both I and II
C. Only I D. Both I and III
E. Both II and III
17. Student activists cannot (I)/divorce them self from the (II)/reality of the society around them. (III)
A. Only I B. Only II
C. Only III D. Both I and III
E. Both II and III
18. Kono did not suggest that the (I)/Olympics would not go ahead, (II)/ he said they can only be held under “certain conditions.” (III)
A. Only I B. Both I and II
C. Only II D. Only III
E. Both II and III
19. Suspension of internet and mobile (I)/ phone services is a common practice (II)/in the country to foretell protests and acts of terrorism. (III)
A. Only I B. Only II
C. Only III D. Both I and III
E. Both II and III
20. Direction: In the following question, a word is given that is followed by three statements. All these three statements carry the given word. Identify the
sentence(s) in which the word fits to make them grammatically correct and meaningful.
Vintage
II. It was only after looking at the situation from his vintage point that she started understanding the problem.
III. The leader did not desert his followers and flee the country.
A. Only I B. Only II
C. Only III D. Both I and II
E. All I, II and III
22. Prey
Marital
A. Conjugal B. Bilious
C. Comely D. Endemic
E. Fastidious
24. Hustle
A. Thwart B. Frustrate
C. Facilitate D. Assist
E. Jostle
25. Rung
A. Concentrate B. Toll
C. Dissipate D. Converge
E. Disperse
26. Reeling
A. Staggering B. Vanishing
C. Squandering D. Splurging
E. Scourging
27. Direction: In the following question, out of the given alternatives, select the idiom/phrase similar in meaning to the given word/phrase. After the accident, the
driver tried to "make a break for it" on foot, but was quickly apprehended by police who gave chase.
A. To hide oneself B. To compensate for loss
C. To try to escape/run off D. To think deeply
E. To accept the mistake
28. After the election, the leader spent a lot of time mending political fences.
A. To repair the damage B. To enter into dispute
C. To improve relations D. To prevent oneself from difficult circumstances
E. To hold up inner conflicts
29. The players added a new wrinkle to victory celebrations by tossing their shirts to the crowd after the game .
A. a novel aspect to a situation B. The main point of disagreement.
C. The reason behind a failure. D. The will to perform a task
E. The conditions built to complete a task.
30. I make sure I always pack heat when I go through this part of town.
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(i) If we lead an active life facing dangers, we will fear death less than those who lead a lazy and peaceful life.
(ii) As long as we are alive we should take risks, be active and cherish our existence, in that way when the time of death comes we will comparatively feel less
emotional pain.
(iii) Death is a certain phenomenon and we should therefore accept it because we can’t change it.
A. Only option (i) is correct B. Only option (ii) is correct
C. Only option (iii) is correct D. Both option (i) and (ii) is correct
E. None is correct
34. Direction: Which of the following phrases (i), (ii), and (iii) given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold letters to make the sentence
grammatically correct? Choose the best option among the five given alternatives that reflect the correct use of phrase in the context of the grammatically correct
sentence. If the sentence is correct as it is, mark (E) i.e., "No correction required" as the answer. Not long after the return of the pope, the amity between the
Vatican and the Tuileries will be again broken.
i. taste sweet
Imagine semi-decayed plant material accumulating for thousands of years under waterlogged conditions. This thick and condensed layer of soil that packs a
large amount of organic carbon is called peat. When this carbon-rich soil is deprived of water and gets exposed to air, it decomposes rapidly and releases all the
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carbon back into the atmosphere, adding to the greenhouse gas emissions responsible for climate change.
So, protecting peatlands becomes a nature-based solution to reduce the effect of or mitigate climate change. This ecosystem also helps in climate change
adaptation by controlling floods, improving water availability by holding and releasing water, purifying water, and providing habitat for a variety of biodiversity.
Draining and clearing peatlands to make them suitable for agriculture and other development activities has been the main threat to the ecosystem. Drained
peatlands are also vulnerable to long-lasting fires, which can multiply emissions and also release toxic haze. For instance, fire in the carbon-rich peatlands of
Indonesia this year reflected double the carbon of Amazon fires.
“Peatlands are like mines. First, you need to know where they are laid. And then you can take that into account in land-use planning. If you treat them wrongly,
which is very easy, you blow up everything,” said Hans Joosten, professor of Peatland Studies at the University of Greifswald in Germany. “Hence, mapping
exercise is important, and it becomes more necessary as land use becomes more intensive.”
Peatlands have been found in 180 countries ___(A)___, and they occur extensively in the northern and tropical zones. But their exact location and status remain
relatively unknown in most countries.
Ritesh Kumar, director at Wetlands International South Asia, said, “In India, peatlands have been recorded in Kerala, Arunachal Pradesh, Himachal Pradesh,
and north Sikkim. Some parts of the Western Ghats have peat too. A lot of our deltas and mangroves have the propensity to develop into peat. But there have
been no systematic efforts to map them.”
Since they weren’t documented earlier, we don’t know what’s lost. And as land conversion for agriculture, grazing, housing and tourism threatens peatlands
across the country, Kumar said that the ecosystem needs a lot more research. “We are trying to accumulate information and evidence and develop a peat map
of India,” he said.
The Greifswald Mire Centre maintains a Global Peatland Database that maps the location, extent, and status of these ecosystems across the world with inputs
from existing information, field research, and other maps and studies. But Joosten claims that despite being one of the reliable resources available, their map
needs more work. “There is no remote sensing technology that can look inside the soil. You really have to dig deep in the mud and get dirty,” remarked Joosten.
Joosten also feels that the neglect is because peatlands comparatively occupy a smaller part of the earth’s surface – 3% – and are usually not visible, tucked in
forests or mangroves. “Also, there’s a lot of negative connotations to the words related to peatlands…swamped, bogged down, mired…so people tend to
undervalue them,” he said.
source: https://scroll.in/article/947089/environmentalists-in-india-are-trying-to-map-peatlands-how-will-this-help-combat-climate-change
What are the suggestions given by Ritesh Kumar regarding peatlands in India?
A. Stop land conversion for agricultural expansion. B. Document the remaining peatlands of India.
C. Promote research about the peatlands of India. D. Both A and C
E. Both B and C
37. Which of the given options can be used to complete the blank labelled (A) in the most appropriate way, contextually and grammatically?
A. yet B. so far
C. until now D. already
E. as of now
38. Which of the following is the major reason why Hans Joosten considers the Global Peatland Database inadequate?
A. Rueful B. Melancholic
C. Critical D. Detached
E. Sympathetic
40. Which of the following states the similarities between peats and mines?
A. They are not properly mapped. B. Both C & D
C. They are hidden in the depths of the earth. D. When drained, they are extremely flammable.
E. They are carbon rich ecosystems.
41. Given below are five statements from the passage. Choose the statement which is grammatically or contextually incorrect.
A. So, protecting peatlands becomes a nature-based solution to reduce the B. This thick and condensed layer of soil that packs a large amount of organic
effect of or mitigate climate change. carbon is called peat.
D. But their exact location and status remain relatively unknown in most
C. Since they weren’t documented earlier, we don’t know what’s lost.
countries.
E. For instance, fire in the carbon-rich peatlands of Indonesia this year reflected
double the carbon of Amazon fires.
42. Direction: In the following question, a word is given, which has been used in the three statements given below it. Identify the statement(s) in which the word fits
contextually to convey a logical meaning. Pinnacle
I. The pinnacle on the western side contains a low new cone with numerous steaming rifts and vents.
II. When Sumit got fired and was unable to find another job, he realized that his pinnacle life was at its worst.
III. This was the pinnacle of my happiness, from which I was a little while dashed to earth.
A. Only I B. Only II
C. Both I and II D. Both I and III
E. Both II and III
43. Direction: In the following question, a word is given, which has been used in the three statements given below it. Identify the statement(s) in which the word fits
contextually to convey a logical meaning. Progressive
1) Instead of science proceeding at the slow speed of time, the only limit on its progressive will be processor speed—and those two speeds hardly can be
compared.
2) The censors, being elected on a general ticket, were always more progressive than the convention, which was chosen on the principle of equal township
representation.
3) He grew more controlling as the days progressed, more progressive and erratic which ended up hurting her in the long run and ruining her self-esteem.
A. Only 1 B. Only 2
C. Both 1 and 2 D. Both 2 and 3
E. All 1, 2 and 3
44. Direction: In the following question, three statements have been given, and a word has been highlighted in each of them which may be the synonym or antonym
of the word given in bold. Identify the statement(s) in which the word fits contextually to convey a logical meaning.
Admiration
I. The politician lavished praise on the globally famed Mumbai community of tiffin-box carriers, at a function to distribute free bicycles.
II. The leader began to clap in appreciation of his ardent follower’s performance.
III. Eighty-five-per cent of university students have faced learning loss in the past year, as per a report by an EdTech firm.
A. Only I B. Only II
C. Both I and II D. Only III
E. All I, II and III
45. Direction: In the given question, a statement with a blank is given. Fill the most suitable idiom/phrase from the given options to make the statement meaningful
and complete.
Column I
Column II
A) Each individual is
C) He used to be
Column II
51. Under what theme the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs has launched the seventh consecutive edition of Swachh Survekshan (SS) 2022?
A. Waste to Wealth B. Kachra Alag Karo
C. People First D. Sanitation First
E. None of the above
52. Consider the following statements regarding the International Labour Organization (ILO)World Employment and Social Outlook-Trends 2022-
i. Davos Agenda 2022 will be held from 17th to 21st January 2022
i. India has successfully handed over the BRICS Chairmanship to Russia from January 2022
ii. The theme for BRICS 2022 is “Foster High-Quality BRICS Partnership Usher in a New Era for Global Development”.
73. Consider the following statements regarding the National Startup Awards 2021-
i. A total of 46 Startups have been recognized as winners of National Startup Awards 2021
ii. Prime Minister Narendra Modi announced that January 15 will be celebrated as National Startup Day
i. The total forest and tree cover of the country is 80.9 million hectares which is 30.62 percent of the geographical area of the country.
ii. Top three states showing increase in forest cover are Telangana (647 sq km) followed by Andhra Pradesh (632 sq km) and Odisha (537 sq km).
Facts – Reena proposes to sell her cycle to Ranjit, who is wearing headphones and listening to loud music. Can it be said that communication of proposal is
complete?
A. Yes, communication is validly made? B. Yes, communication is complete at it is made to Ranjit in his presence.
C. No, it cannot be said that the communication was validly made. D. Both a and b
82. Principle - The communication of a proposal is complete when it comes to the knowledge of the person to whom it is made.
Facts - Anjali proposes, by letter, to sell a house to Bhuvan at a certain price. The communication of the proposal is complete when –
A. The letter is put in course of transmission. B. As soon as Bhuvan receives the letter.
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Principle 2 - The communication of an acceptance is complete as against the acceptor, when it comes to the knowledge of the proposer.
Facts - Reena proposes to sell her cycle to Ranjit and posts the letter to Ranjit containing the proposal for the same. Ranjit receives the letter and wishes to buy
the cycle. He posts the letter signifying his assent. When communication of acceptance is complete as against Reena?
A. When the letter is received by Reena. B. When the letter is posted by Ranjit.
C. When the letter reaches the postal authorities. D. All of the above.
84. Principle 1 - The communication of an acceptance is complete as against the proposer, when it is put in a course of transmission to him, so as to be out of the
power of the acceptor.
Principle 2 - The communication of an acceptance is complete as against the acceptor, when it comes to the knowledge of the proposer.
Facts - Reena proposes to sell her cycle to Ranjit and posts the letter to Ranjit containing the proposal for the same. Ranjit receives the letter and wishes to buy
the cycle. He posts the letter signifying his assent. When communication of acceptance is complete as against Ranjit?
A. When the letter is received by Reena. B. When the letter is posted by Ranjit.
C. When the letter reaches the postal authorities. D. All of the above.
85. Principle - All agreements are contracts if they are made by the free consent of parties competent to contract.
Facts – A contract is made between a minor to sell his pen to an unsound person. Is the contract valid?
A. No, as the minor is not competent to contract. B. No, as an unsound person is not competent to contract.
C. No, as there is no free consent. D. Both a and b
86. Principle 1 - The State shall not discriminate against any citizen on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth or any of them.
Principle 2 - Nothing in this article shall prevent the State from making any special provision for the advancement of any socially and educationally backward
classes of citizens or for the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes.
Facts – A person of an economically weaker group was given preference for admission in educational institution maintained by state. Does the act of state
amounts to discrimination on the basis of caste?
A. No, the act of state does not amount to discrimination. B. Yes, as this amount to discrimination on the ground of caste.
C. No, as this amount to reasonable classification. D. Both a and c
87. Principle 1 - The State shall not discriminate against any citizen on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth or any of them.
Principle 2 - Nothing in this article shall prevent the State from making any special provision for the advancement of any socially and educationally backward
classes of citizens or for the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes.
Facts – No person is allowed to visit the area specifically reserved for scheduled tribes. Raman sued the state for following the policy of discrimination among its
citizens, allowing only scheduled tribes to reside in a place and other citizens were not allowed to move freely or reside there. Decide the liability of state.
B. Yes, as this amounts to discrimination on the ground of caste and place of
A. No, the act of state does not amount to discrimination.
birth.
C. Yes, as this does not amount to reasonable classification. D. Both b and c
88. Principle - No person shall be convicted of any offence except for violation of a law in force at the time of the commission of the act charged as an offence, nor
be subjected to a penalty greater than that which might have been inflicted under the law in force at the time of the commission of the offence.
Facts – An accused was convicted of murder punishable with imprisonment up to 10 years. During the time of trial, the offence of murder was made punishable
with life imprisonment. What punishment may be awarded to the accused?
A. 10 years B. 7 years
C. Both a and b D. Life imprisonment
89. Principle - No person shall be convicted of any offence except for violation of a law in force at the time of the commission of the act charged as an offence, nor
be subjected to a penalty greater than that which might have been inflicted under the law in force at the time of the commission of the offence.
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Facts – Driving above the speed of 100km/hr was made an offence punishable with fine up to Rs.1000 on 10 January 2000. Would Ramesh be liable for the
offence he was driving above the stipulated speed on 8 January 2000?
A. Yes B. No
C. Cannot be answer with above principle. D. None of the above
90. Principle - All laws in force in the territory of India immediately before the commencement of this Constitution, in so far as they are inconsistent with the
provisions of this Part, shall, to the extent of such inconsistency, be void.
Facts – Parliament makes a law curtailing fundamental right in violation of the constitution under section 2 of the act. As per the above principle –
A. Section 2 is void. B. Whole act is void.
C. The act is valid but the section 2 is ultra vires. D. Both a and c
91. Principle 1 - Culpable homicide is not murder if the offender, whilst deprived of the power of self-control by grave and sudden provocation, causes the death of
the person who gave the provocation or causes the death of any other person by mistake or accident.
Principle 2 – Provided the provocation is not sought or voluntarily provoked by the offender as an excuse for killing or doing harm to any person.
Facts – Amit punches Ajit. In consequence, Ajit gave a lathi blow to Amit. Amit was provoked by this act of Ajit, snatched the lathi from Ajit and beat him to death.
Discuss the liability of Amit.
A. Liable for grievous hurt. B. Liable for culpable homicide.
C. Liable for murder. D. Both b and c
92. Principle 1 - Culpable homicide is not murder if the offender, whilst deprived of the power of self-control by grave and sudden provocation, causes the death of
the person who gave the provocation or causes the death of any other person by mistake or accident.
Principle 2 – Provided the provocation is not sought or voluntarily provoked by the offender as an excuse for killing or doing harm to any person.
Facts – Ajit gave a lathi blow to Amit. Amit was provoked by this act of Ajit, snatched the lathi from Ajit and beat him to death. Discuss the liability of Amit.
A. Liable for grievous hurt. B. Liable for culpable homicide.
C. Liable for murder. D. Both b and c
93. Principle 1 - Culpable homicide is not murder if the offender, whilst deprived of the power of self-control by grave and sudden provocation, causes the death of
the person who gave the provocation or causes the death of any other person by mistake or accident.
Principle 2 – Provided the provocation is not given by anything done in obedience to the law, or by a public servant in the lawful exercise of the powers of such
public servant.
Facts - Atul appears as a witness before, a Magistrate. The magistrate says that he does not believe a word of Atul's deposition, and that Atul has perjured
himself. Atul is moved to sudden passion by these words, and kills the magistrate. This is –
A. Murder B. Culpable homicide
C. Culpable homicide not amounting to murder. D. Both b and c
94. Principle 1 - Culpable homicide is not murder if the offender, whilst deprived of the power of self-control by grave and sudden provocation, causes the death of
the person who gave the provocation or causes the death of any other person by mistake or accident.
Principle 2 – Provided the provocation is not given by anything done in obedience to the law, or by a public servant in the lawful exercise of the powers of such
public servant.
Facts - A is lawfully arrested by Z, a bailiff. A is excited to sudden and violent passion by the arrest, and kills Z. This is -
A. Murder B. Culpable homicide
C. Culpable homicide not amounting to murder. D. Both b and c
95. Principle 1 - Culpable homicide is not murder if the offender, whilst deprived of the power of self-control by grave and sudden provocation, causes the death of
the person who gave the provocation or causes the death of any other person by mistake or accident.
Principle 2 – Provided the provocation is not given by anything done in obedience to the law, or by a public servant in the lawful exercise of the powers of such
public servant.
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Facts - A is not lawfully arrested by Z, a bailiff. A is excited to sudden and violent passion by the arrest, and kills Z. This is -
A. Murder B. Culpable homicide
C. Culpable homicide not amounting to murder. D. Both b and c.
96. Principle 1 - Trespass means the wrongful disturbance of possession of land or goods of another person.
Principle 2 - A person who intentionally and without consent enters another person’s property is a trespasser.
Facts – Arjun invites his friend Aman for dinner at his house. They argued at a point and Arjun asks Aman to leave. Aman did not leave. Can Arjun sue Aman for
trespass?
A. Yes, as the invite turned into trespass later on. B. No, as Arjun himself invited Aman.
C. No, as Arjun and Aman were equally at fault. D. b and c
97. Principle 1 - Trespass means the wrongful disturbance of possession of land or goods of another person.
Principle 2 - A person who intentionally and without consent enters another person’s property is a trespasser.
Facts – Arjun invites his friend Aman for dinner at his house. They argued at a point and Arjun sued Aman for trespass, can he do so?
A. Yes, as the invite turned into trespass later on. B. No, as Arjun himself invited Aman.
C. No, as Arjun and Aman were equally at fault. D. b and c
98. Principle 1 - Trespass means the wrongful disturbance of possession of land or goods of another person.
Principle 2 - A person who intentionally and without consent enters another person’s property is a trespasser.
Facts – Can a person sue another for continuous discharge of filthy water in his premises?
A. No, this does not amount to trespass. B. No, as for trespass invasion of body in the premises of another is necessary.
C. Yes, this amounts to trespass. D. Both a and b
99. Principle 1 - Trespass means the wrongful disturbance of possession of land or goods of another person.
Principle 2 - A person who intentionally and without consent enters another person’s property is a trespasser.
Facts – Aditya regularly cleans the path adjacent outside his house. Shilpa with muddy feet walks over the path just after Adiya mobbed the path. Aditya sued
Shipa for trespass. Decide.
A. Aditya cannot sue Shilpa for trespass. B. Aditya can validly sue Shilpa for trespass.
C. Depends on facts of circumstances of each case. D. None of the above
100. Principle - No suit shall be brought in respect of trespass or nuisance, solely because of the aircraft’s flight over any property at a height above ground that is
reasonable in view of wind, weather and all the circumstances of the case, or solely because of the ordinary incidents of such flight.
Facts – A child is playing with a paper plane. The plane flew over the premises of a person. Can such person exercise his right to trespass in this case?
A. Yes B. No
C. Depends on facts of circumstances of each case. D. None of the above
101. Principle 1 - Fraud means active concealment of a fact by one having knowledge or belief of the fact.
Principle 2 - Mere silence as to facts likely to affect the willingness of a person to enter into a contract is not fraud, unless the circumstances of the case are such
that, regard being had to them, it is the duty of the person keeping silence to speak, or unless his silence is, in itself, equivalent to speech.
Facts - Ajay sells, by auction, to Varun, a horse which Ajay knows to be unsound. Ajay says nothing to Varun about the horse’s unsoundness. This is –
A. Fraud B. Not fraud
C. May or may not be fraud D. None of the above
102. Principle 1 - Fraud means active concealment of a fact by one having knowledge or belief of the fact.
Principle 2 - Mere silence as to facts likely to affect the willingness of a person to enter into a contract is not fraud, unless the circumstances of the case are such
that, regard being had to them, it is the duty of the person keeping silence to speak, or unless his silence is, in itself, equivalent to speech.
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Facts - Bhanu says to Anita—“If you do not deny it, I shall assume that the horse is sound.” Anita says nothing. Here, Anita’s silence is –
A. Is not fraud B. Fraud
C. Equivalent to speech D. Both b and c
103. Principle 1 - Fraud means active concealment of a fact by one having knowledge or belief of the fact.
Principle 2 - Mere silence as to facts likely to affect the willingness of a person to enter into a contract is not fraud, unless the circumstances of the case are such
that, regard being had to them, it is the duty of the person keeping silence to speak, or unless his silence is, in itself, equivalent to speech.
Facts - Ajay and Vijay are traders and enter into a contract. Ajay has private information of a change in prices which would affect Vijay’s willingness to proceed
with the contract. Ajay did not tell Vijay. This –
A. Amounts to fraud B. Does not amounts to fraud
C. Ajay is duty bound to tell Vijay. D. Both a and c
104. Principle - A promise made without any intention of performing it is fraud.
Facts – Raju promises to marry Shweta and they stayed together for 2 years. Later, he settles in a town and marries someone else. Does this amounts to fraud?
A. Yes B. No
C. Cannot say D. None of the above
105. Principle - A promise made without any intention of performing it is fraud.
Facts - A agrees to sell a land to B. Later, A denies that the land belongs to brother of A and he cannot sell it. Later, A sold the same land to C.
B. This does not amount to fraud as he did not know that the land belongs to his
A. This amounts to fraud.
brother.
C. Depends on facts and circumstances of each case. D. None of the above
106. Principle - Agreements, the meaning of which is not certain, or capable of being made certain, are void.
Facts - A agrees to sell to B hundred tons of oil. There is nothing whatever to show what kind of oil was intended. The agreement is –
A. Valid B. Invalid
C. Void for uncertainty D. Certain
107. Principle - Agreements, the meaning of which is not certain, or capable of being made certain, are void.
Facts - Arjun agrees to sell to Bimla “all the grain in my granary at Ramnagar”.
A. There is no uncertainty here to make the agreement void. B. The agreement is void for being uncertain.
C. Arjun did not specify which grain, therefore, the agreement is uncertain. D. Both b and c
108. Principle - Agreements, the meaning of which is not certain, or capable of being made certain, are void.
Facts - A agrees to sell to B, his white horse for rupees five hundred or rupees one thousand.
A. The agreement is uncertain. B. The meaning of the agreement is capable of being certain.
C. There is no uncertainty. D. Both a and b
110. Principle - Agreements, the meaning of which is not certain, or capable of being made certain, are void.
Facts - A agrees to sell to B, his white horse for rupees five hundred or rupees one thousand, whatever C says.
A. The agreement is uncertain. B. The meaning of the agreement is capable of being certain.
C. There is no uncertainty. D. Both a and b
111. Principle 1 - A person abets an offence, who abets either the commission of an offence, or the commission of an act which would be an offence, if committed by
a person capable by law of committing an offence with the same intention or knowledge as that of the abettor.
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Principle 2 - To constitute the offence of abetment it is not necessary that the act abetted should be committed, or that the effect requisite to constitute the
offence should be caused.
Principle 2 - To constitute the offence of abetment it is not necessary that the act abetted should be committed, or that the effect requisite to constitute the
offence should be caused.
Facts - Abhay instigates Beena to murder Chetan. Beena mixes poison in the dish of Raman. Raman eats the dish and dies.
A. Here Abhay is not liable, as he never intended to murder Raman. B. Abhay is liable.
C. Beena is liable for murder. D. Both b and c
113. Principle 1 – For abetment it is not necessary that the person abetted should be capable by law of committing an offence, or that he should have the same guilty
intention or knowledge as that of the abettor, or any guilty intention or knowledge.
Facts - A, with a guilty intention, abets a child of 6 years to commit theft. Here –
A. Only A is guilty. B. Only child is guilty.
C. Both A and child are innocent. D. None of the above
114. Principle - For abetment it is not necessary that the person abetted should be capable by law of committing an offence, or that he should have the same guilty
intention or knowledge as that of the abettor, or any guilty intention or knowledge.
Facts - Asha instigates Bipin to burn Zarin’s house. Bipin sets fire to the house and at the same time commits theft of property there.
A. Asha is liable only for abetment to burn house. B. Asha is liable both for burning house and theft.
C. Bipin is liable for burning the house and theft. D. Both a and c
116. Select the option that is related to the third word in the same way as the second word is related to the first word.
A. 12 B. 13
C. 15 D. 14
120. Four letter-clusters have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner and one is different. Select the letter-cluster that is different.
A. QTWZ B. XADG
C. BEHK D. NPSV
121. How many times are the hands of a clocks coincide in 3 days?
A. 64 B. 59
C. 66 D. 48
122. In a certain code language, 'REASON' is coded as '5410129' and 'HEALTHY' is coded as 716231216".How will 'DIVULGE' be coded in that language?
A. 10733494 B. 24134383
C. 13704349 D. 21433438
123. Select the letter-cluster from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.
A. B.
C. D.
125. Direction: A statement is given followed by two arguments. You are expected to read the statement carefully and then check whether the given arguments are
strong or not.
Statement:
Given the fact that the number of COVID-19 cases is rising, the government is expected to halt mass-gathering activities at all costs.
Arguments:
I. It is solely required given the traumatic experience we went through while dealing with the second wave.
II. This would be quite an encouraging step to make sure people remain alert to the danger posed by the pandemic.
A. Only I is strong. B. Only II is strong.
C. Both I and II are strong. D. None of them is strong.
126. Statement:
The government is trying to fix the issue of poor healthcare by introducing a new healthcare policy that facilitates the treatment of poor people over the rich
ones.
Argument:
I. It would be a much-needed exercise given the huge number of poor people who died due to the lack of adequate healthcare.
II. It is required because the rich people get themselves treated anyways. So, it's better to exclude the rich people.
A. B.
Only I is strong. Only II is strong.
C. D.
Both I and II are strong. None of them is strong.
127. Statement:
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A recent report suggests that those who smoke are much more likely to damage their cognitive abilities and hence, one should quit smoking.
Argument:
I. It is true because smoking damages our ability to read brain wave patterns that aid our cognitive abilities.
II. It is not verified by any solid data and besides, everyone is entitled to live the life they want to live.
A. B.
Only I is strong. Only II is strong.
C. D.
Both I and II are strong. None of them is strong.
128. Statement:
Ideally, to remain fit, one should exercise for at least an hour before beginning the day's work.
Argument:
I. Yes. It can be a great way to keep the body in shape while also reenergizing it after a good night's sleep.
II. No. If you will put in extra effort to exercise, you will get tired and go to sleep during work hours.
A. Only I is strong B. Only II is strong.
C. Both I and II are strong. D. None of the above
129. Statement:
One should not procrastinate because when things go wrong, they'll have a lot of things to do at the same time.
Argument:
I. Yes. Procrastination can land one in huge trouble.
II. Yes. Procrastination leads to one being lazy and incompetent.
A.
B. Only II is strong.
Only I is strong
C. Both I and II are strong. D. None of the above.
130. Direction: In the following question, a statement has been given followed by two courses of action. On the basis of information given in the statement, you have
to assume everything in the statement to be true and then decide which of the suggested course of actions is worth pursuing. Statement:
In winters, trains are usually late due to fog. It reduces their speed to two-third of the original speed which is in summers when there is no fog.
Courses of Action:
I. Passengers should check the status of the train before coming to the station from their homes.
II. The drivers should be penalized for driving slow in winter as lots of passengers get late just because of them.
A. Only course of action I follow B. Only course of action II follows
C. Both the course of action follows D. Neither course of action fallows
E. Data inadequate
131. Direction: In each of the questions below a statement followed by two courses of Action. On the basis of information given in the statement, you have to assume
everything in the statement is true then decide which of the suggested course of action is worth pursuing. Statement:
Private schools are making lot of money by selling books copy and dress in school, this unethical practice should be stopped.
Course of Action:
I. Everybody should use government school hence private school business will be affected and they will come on the right track.
II. CBSE board and other school boards should take immediate action against such schools that are involved in such unethical practices.
A. Only course of action I follow B. Only course of action II follows
C. Both the course of action follows D. Neither course of action fallows
E. Data inadequate
132. Direction: In each question below is given a statement followed by three courses of action numbered I, II and III. You have to assume everything in the
statement to be true and on the basis of the information given in the statement, decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follow(s) for pursuing.
Statement:
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Due to the leakage in the main supply water of city X, the water gets contaminated and as a result, many residential people get ill by drinking polluted water.
Course of Action:
I. The water supply should be closed for a week to carry out the repairing work.
II. The government should warn the people to boil the supply water before using it for household purposes.
III. The government should make an arrangement of freshwater tanks in the most affected areas.
A. If only I follows B. If only II follows
C. If only I or III follows D. If only II and III follows
E. All follows
133. Direction: In the following question, a short passage with one of the lines in the passage missing and represented by a blank is given. Select the best options
given, to make the passage logically complete. One uninteresting explanation of these results is that once presented with the candidates’ pictures, the voters find
their influence irresistible and this irresistible, immediate influence inflates the effect of appearance on votes. We should be grateful that ballots in the US, unlike
in Brazil, Belgium, Greece and Ireland, do not include pictures of the candidates _________. Many of the voters in the no-picture ballot condition knew how the
candidates look, and this should have minimized the difference between their choices and the choices of voters in the picture-ballot condition.
A. These nations know the election result can be damaged, and the deserving B. But, for all we know, the effect of appearance might have been
candidate may lose to the fate of appearances. underestimated.
C. Choosing candidates on the basis of look is not a right way to decide the D. The voters should not let the appearance deceive them, and they should look
future of any nation. for the candidate of their choice on the basis of work.
E. None of these
134. Direction: In the following question, a short passage with one of the lines in the passage missing and represented by a blank is given. Select the best options
given, to make the passage logically complete. The next time you are caught drunk driving in a zigzag manner, you may get slapped with criminal charges apart
from being issued a challan and suspension of license. Traffic police are going to launch a drive against drunk driving for a month to reduce road fatalities that
peak during winter. Delhi Police data show that so far there has been a 5.3% dip in road deaths from 1,373 in 2016 to 1,299 this year. Cops have booked
2,08,765 drivers for speeding this year.______
B. Pollution has increased smog and it will be a difficult task for the Delhi Police
A. Alcohol consumption is fatal and it is important people realize it now.
to control accidents now.
D. It has been reported that almost one-third of fatal road accidents occur due to
C. It has to be a responsibility of both the people and the Police.
driving under influence or speeding after consuming liquor.
E. The police have been under a lot of pressure to control the accidents that
take place every year.
135. Direction: The question in the form of inference/conclusions are based on the passages given below. The passage is followed by five inferences. You are
required to examine each inference separately in the context of the passage and decide upon its degree of truth or falsity.
The number of freelancers and consultants is on a steep rise in India. The credit for this goes to wider internet penetration. People prefer to work on their own
terms and conditions and still make more money than what they could make in a 9-5 job. But tax filing is something that scares them a lot here. We are dealing
with the tax implications for freelancers, bloggers, and consultants in India. Most freelancers and consultants ask the question of whether they have to pay
income tax on their income. The answer is yes and in addition to income tax, they are also liable to pay service tax if their gross income is more than 10 lakh
from freelancing as per the rate prescribed by the government. Freelancer is a term that refers to the person who is self-employed not working or committed to a
particular employer or client for the long-term anywhere. Within Indian law, if you are running your own business then you are termed as the sole proprietor and
the same thing applied to the freelancers.
particular employer or client for the long-term anywhere. Within Indian law, if you are running your own business then you are termed as the sole proprietor and
the same thing applied to the freelancers.
Inference: If the income of freelancers is more than 10 lakh then they are liable to pay service tax.
A. Inference is definitely true B. Inference is probably true
C. Data is inadequate D. Inference is probably false
E. Inference is definitely false
137. School authorities have decided to do away with the annual exam for classes 1 to 6 so as to avoid any undue pressure on the students of these classes.
If the above statement is true, then which of the following CANNOT be inferred?
A. School authorities are concerned about students’ well-being B. Exams cause pressure in very young children
C. Students of primary classes are weak and hence cannot cope with the
D. Students undergo pressure during exams at various levels of their education
pressure
138. A proposed ordinance requires the installation in new homes of sprinklers automatically triggered by the presence of a fire. However, a home builder argued that
because more than ninety percent of residential fires are extinguished by a household member, residential sprinklers would only marginally decrease property
damage caused by residential fires.
Which of the following, if true, would most seriously weaken the home builder's argument?
B. Since new homes are only a tiny percentage of available housing in the city,
A. most individuals have no formal training in how to extinguish fires.
the new ordinance would be extremely narrow in scope.
C. The installation of smoke detectors in new residences costs significantly less D. The largest proportion of property damage that results from residential fires is
than the installation of sprinklers. caused by fires that start when no household member is present.
139. During the Second World War, about 375,000 civilians died in the United States and about 408,000 members of the United States armed forces died overseas.
On the basis the those figures, it can be concluded that it was not much more dangerous to be overseas in the armed forces during the Second World War than
it was to stay at home as a civilian.
Which of the following would reveal most clearly the absurdity of the conclusion drawn above?
A. Counting deaths among members of the armed forces who served in the
B. Expressing the difference between the numbers of deaths among civilians
United State in addition to deaths among members of the armed forces serving
and members of the armed forces as a percentage of the total number of deaths
overseas
C. Separating deaths caused by accidents during service in the armed forces D. Comparing death rates per thousand members of each group rather than
from deaths caused by combat injuries comparing total numbers of deaths
140. Direction: The question below, there is a statement followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true.
Then consider the 2 conclusion together and decide which of them follows beyond a reasonable doubt from the information given in the statement.
Statement: The online space has been the staging ground for political projection.
Conclusions:
Assumptions:
I. The measures are all now defined on the basis of unchanging universal, physics constants. The kilogram now hinges on the definition of the Planck Constant,
a constant of nature that relates to how matter releases energy.
II. The CSIR-NPL, which is India’s official reference keeper of units of measurements, on May 20, released a set of recommendations requiring that school
textbooks, engineering-education books, and course curriculum update the definition of the kilogram.
III. An updated kilogram doesn’t mean that weights everywhere will be thrown off balance. For everyday measurements, consumers wanting to calibrate their
instruments — whether it’s for high-precision drug manufacturing or retail weighing machines — will continue doing it the same way.
A. None is implicit B. Only I is implicit
C. Both II and III are implicit D. Both I and II are implicit
E. Only II is implicit
143. Direction: In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. An assumption is something supposed or taken for
granted. You have to consider the following assumption and decide which of the assumption is implicit in the statement.
Statement:
To provide a boost for startups seeking to get listed, capital markets regulator Sebi's board on March 1, approved easing of norms for accreditation of investors
willing to invest in new-age entities. Sebi board approved a framework for the process of accreditation of investors for Innovators Growth Platform, which will be
the name of the stock exchange platform where new-age startups would be listed.
Assumptions:
I. The exchanges and depositories will grant accreditation to these investors for a fixed period of time, after ascertaining their eligibility.
II. The relaxation in the norms came after tepid market interest to the existing platform and demands from various stakeholders to make the norms easier and
the platform more accessible in the wake of expanding activities in the Indian startup space.
A. Only I is implicit B. None is implicit
C. Either I or II is implicit D. Both I and II are implicit
E. Only II is implicit
144. Direction: In each question below is given a statement followed by three assumptions numbered I, II and III. An assumption is something supposed or taken for
granted. You have to consider the following assumption and decide which of the assumption is implicit in the statement. Statement:
Soon, your health-related confusion between maida and whole wheat (atta) food items will be over. Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) has
asked food companies to label atta as 'whole wheat flour and maida as 'refined wheat flour' by April 30.
Assumptions:
I. The order will clear confusion among products that are often labeled as just 'wheat flour' with no distinction between the maida or atta products.
II. The order is aimed at bringing more clarity on the product labeling as companies use these nomenclatures to make health claims about their products like
packaged atta, bread, and biscuits.
III. Currently, packaged food companies use 'wheat flour' as general nomenclature for atta and maida on product labels.
A. Both I and II are implicit B. All are implicit
C. Both II and III are implicit D. None is implicit
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In each question, two statements are numbered I and II. There may be a cause and effect relationship between the two statements. The statements may be the
effect of the same cause or an independent cause. The statements may be independent causes without having any relationship. Read both the statements and
mark your answer:
Inferences:
I. India is facing an acute water crisis and urgent reforms are needed to deal with the situation.
II. Two areas that need urgent measures are the augmentation of watersheds that can store good water, for use in agriculture and to serve habitations, and strict
pollution control enforcement.
A. Only I can be inferred B. Only II can be inferred
C. Both I and II can be inferred D. None of them can be inferred
E. Either Only I or II
150. Direction: A statement is given followed by three inferences numbered I, II, and III. Consider the statement to be true even if it is at variance with commonly
known facts. You have to decide which of the inferences, if any, follow from the given statement.
Statement:
For 30 years Aun Pheap reported on corruption, human rights abuses, elections, and political scandals for every major newspaper in Cambodia, a job he felt he
was born to do.
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Inferences:
I. Aun Pheap was the most well-renowned journalist in Cambodia.
II. Cambodia is a country mired in a lot of evils, like corruption, political scandals, frequent instances of human rights abuses, etc.
III. Because of the scarcity of journalists in Cambodia, Aun Pheap got an opportunity to report for every major newspaper there.
A. Only I follows B. Only II follows
C. Only III follows D. All of them follow
E. None of them follow
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Solutions
1. A
Sol. Reason: The given quote is made by the author in connection to the fact about how someone feels when they lose a bit of weight after following a fad diet.
“When you step on the scale after a few days of your fad dieting and you notice the number go down, you have a euphoric feeling!”
Options B, C and E are not the correct answers as shown by the direct quote from the passage.
Euphoria means a feeling or state of intense excitement and happiness. While nausea mentioned in option D is the feeling of sickness with an inclination to
vomit. So, option D is talking about feeling opposite in meaning to the quoted sentence.
2. B
Sol. Reason:
Refer to the following quote in the fifth paragraph of the passage: “And although you may lose "actual" pounds in the short term, this will be hard to maintain
once you reintroduce normal foods into your diet again. And with a slower metabolic rate as a result of your dieting, you will likely gain all the weight back (plus
some)!” Thus, statement I is a correct inference as it points out the weight gain that occurs due to fad dieting.
Statement II is an incorrect inference in context of the given passage. It talks about celebrity endorsement of fad diets, which is incorrect as the passage does
not mention this.
Statement III is incorrect as the passage states that we may lose weight due to fad diets, but that weight is easily gained back. So, weight lose and maintenance
cannot be done through fad diets as mentioned in statement III.
3. D
Sol. Reason:
Refer to the following quote in the first paragraph of the passage: “A fad diet is exactly what the name implies—it is a diet that grows to popularity due to
enthusiasm behind the perceived results and is usually short-lived.” This proves the statement I to be true.
Refer to the following quote in the first paragraph of the passage: “Most often, fad diets involve the elimination of dairy, wheat/grains, and carbs (whatever that
includes).” Thus, the statement II is also true as it correctly presents the difference between fad and healthy diets.
Statement III is a false statement as in fad diets we need to eliminate certain food groups. Which means that we cannot eat ‘anything and everything’ as stated
in statement III.
4. A
Sol. Reason:
The given passage talks about fad diets. By its plurality it is evident that there are many forms of diets. So, the given inference is definitely true in context of the
given passage.
Reintroduce means bring (something, especially a law or system) into existence or effect again.
‘Inhibit’ means hinder, restrain, or prevent (an action or process). This includes stopping something from being reintroduced.
There are three options that list such a combination -options C, D and E. So, we can negate options A and B.
Part A talks about how the speech lacks something. This is best described by part C which points out two characteristics which the speech can lack. So, A and C
together make the segment – ‘if the speech lacks sincerity and conviction’…
Correct Sentence - All the rhetorical flourish in the speech given by a leader is of no avail if the speech lacks sincerity and conviction.
12. B
Sol. From the given segments it is clear that the sentence talks about the water cycle.
It should start with segment B which states that water evaporates from something. Where it evaporates from is mentioned in part A. It should be followed by part
C which talks about what happens after the water evaporates which is it condenses. So, the sequence we get is BAC.
This sequence is listed only under option B, making it the correct answer.
Correct Sentence - Water evaporates from the soil and vegetation, condenses into clouds, and falls again as rain in a perpetual self-watering cycle.
13. D
Sol. The sentence cannot start with parts C, D or E. So we can rule out options C and D definitely. Hence, we are left with options A, B and E.
Looking at the sentence parts, we can form certain complimentary pairs. Part A is most likely to be followed by part E while the latter is most likely to be followed
by part D. Hence, we get the sequence A – E – D. The only one among the 3 remaining options which gives that sequence is option E.
The full sentence is: “The staff did not break any government restrictions but he said they "failed to appreciate the bigger picture” of the spread of the virus, Mr.
Aspin said, as he apologized to parents for the "error of judgment."
The first 3 parts are same in both the options, the difference between sequencing of the last two parts. Option A suggests E followed by A which appears logical.
Option B suggests A followed by E which appears incoherent. Hence option A is the right solution.
The full solution is: “The department acknowledged that the threats posed by WeChat and TikTok were not identical but said that each collected vast swathes of
data from users, including network activity, location data, and browsing and search histories.
choice.
16. A
Sol. Part II is erroneous here. Instead of ‘over’, you should use ‘across’ here. Across means on the other side of something, or from one side to the other of
something, in this case ‘industries’. It implies the wide span of the implementation of the enterprises. We use over as a preposition and an adverb to refer to
something at a higher position than something else, sometimes involving movement from one side to another.
21. D
Sol. Answer: Option E is the correct answer.
c. a waterless, desolate area of land with little or no vegetation, typically one covered with sand
In statement II, prey needs to be replaced with pray to make the contextually correct.
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23. A
Sol. The meanings of the given words are as follows:
Endemic: (of a disease or condition) regularly found among particular people or in a certain area
Toll: (with reference to a bell) sound or cause to sound with a slow, uniform succession of strokes, as a signal or announcement
27. C
Sol. The idiom Make a Break for It means to try to escape or run off. So, the correct answer is option C.
28. C
Sol. The phrase Mend Fences means to improve relations after a dispute. So, the correct answer is option C.
29. A
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Sol. New Wrinkle refers to a novel aspect to a situation, a new development. So, the correct answer is option A.
30. B
Sol. Pack Heat means to carry a gun. Thus, the correct answer is option B.
31. B
Sol. Grocer is the one who deals in staple foodstuff and usually, household products.
Confectioner is the one who makes and sells sweets and pastries.
The sentence implies that the friendly relations between the Vatican and the Tuileries were broken when the Pope returned.
Also, 'after' in the given sentence means 'when a particular time has passed, or when an event or action has ended'. Therefore, past tense should be used to
make the grammatically correct sentence. Moreover, the subject in the sentence is singular i.e. the amity. Hence, a singular verb should be used to maintain the
subject-verb agreement.
Therefore, the emboldened phrase must be replaced with 'was again broken' to make a grammatically correct sentence. Hence, option D is the correct answer.
35. A
Sol. The emboldened segment is erroneous.
The adjective should be used with a verb when some quality of the subject, rather the action of the verb, is to be expressed.
Also, the subject in the sentence is singular i.e. 'the soup'. Therefore, the verb must also be singular to maintain the subject-verb agreement.
Hence, the underlined segment should be replaced with 'tastes sweet' to make the sentence grammatically correct.
“...Kumar said that the ecosystem needs a lot more research” shows Kumar's suggestion of more research. Thus, option C is also correct. Hence, the correct
answer is E.
37. B
Sol. “Yet” usually refers to an occurrence that may or will happen but hasn't yet, but it's expected to happen. We can place “already” at the end of a sentence for more
emphasis or to show more surprise. This is more common in questions and in informal speech. As of is used to show the time or date from which something
starts.
“Until now” implies that the situation that existed “until now” is about to change. In contrast, “so far” implies that the situation is not about to change, but will likely
continue. The sentence states that “Peatlands have been found in 180 countries…” This process of finding the peatlands has started in the past and will continue
in the future. “So far” is the best phrase for the job. Hence, the correct answer is B.
38. B
Sol. “There is no remote sensing technology that can look inside the soil. You really have to dig deep in the mud and get dirty,” remarked Joosten.
This shows that in order to locate a peatland a lot of effort has to be put in. This can deter people from investing their time and money, resulting in neglect of
peatlands. Hence, the correct answer is B.
Note: While the two other points are valid in the context of the passage, the question asks why Joosten thinks Global Peatland Database, specifically, may be
inadequate.
39. A
Sol. The last paragraph tells us that Joosten feels that peatlands are neglected because they occupy smaller portions of earth. He also expresses his sorrow on
peatlands having “...negative connotations to the words related to peatlands”. If someone is rueful, they feel or express regret or sorrow in a quiet and gentle
way. Hence, the correct answer is A.
40. C
Sol. Both mines and peats are found underground. “First, you need to know where they are laid.” Here, it refers to both the peats and the mines. Since, we don’t
know from the passage whether mines need to be drained, we cannot say option D is true. Hence, the correct answer is C.
41. D
Sol. If a surface reflects light, heat, sound, or an image, it sends the light, etc. back and does not absorb it. In sentence E, there is no surface that is reflecting the
light. The fires are sending out or emitting carbon. It should be “emitted” instead of “reflected”. Hence, the correct answer is E.
42. D
Sol. The meanings of the word “pinnacle” are as follows:
Among these, the meaning mentioned in (b) makes sentence I correct and the one mentioned in (a) makes sentence III correct. In sentence II ‘pinnacle’ has
been incorrectly used as an adjective. Thus, option D is the correct answer.
43. B
Sol. The word ‘progressive’ carries several meanings:
1. (of a person or idea) favouring social reform. (adjective)
2. happening or developing gradually or in stages. (adjective)
3. (of a medical condition) increasing in severity. (adjective)
4. an advocate of social reform. (noun)
Among these, the meaning given in 4, makes statement 2 correct. But its usage in sentence 3 is contextually incorrect. In sentence 1, the noun form 'progress' is
required. Thus, option B is the correct answer.
44. C
Sol. Admiration: a) a feeling of wonder, pleasure, or approval at someone or something.
Praise: the act of expressing approval or admiration; commendation; laudation. Thus, the word acts as a synonym of 'admiration' in sentence I, making it
correct.
Appreciation: a critique or evaluation, especially when favorable. Thus, the word acts as a synonym of 'admiration' in sentence II, making it correct.
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Learning: the act or process of acquiring knowledge or skill. This is contextually correct, but unrelated to 'admiration'.
Option C is the correct answer.
45. B
Sol. Definition of “a bird in the hand is worth two in the bush” means that it is better to hold onto something one has than to risk losing it by trying to get something
better. The correct answer is option B.
46. B
Sol. "A rose by any other name would smell as sweet" is a popular reference to William Shakespeare's play Romeo and Juliet. It means that the name of
something does not affect its character. The correct answer is option B.
47. A
Sol. “A woman needs a man like a fish needs a bicycle” is a feminist slogan, humorously expressing the view that a woman can live her life perfectly well without a
man. The correct answer is option A.
48. B
Sol. The phrase has been taken from William Shakespeare’s play “Twelfth Night”. It means that some men born into great families have pressure of
becoming a great person themselves. The correct answer is option B.
49. B
Sol. Answer: The correct answer is option B.
Reason: B-E is incorrect grammatically. While B-E can be joined by ‘those’, ‘those is a plural pronoun, and needs to relate to plural nouns rather than singular
ones like ‘ice-cream’. Changing ‘ice-creams’ to ‘ice-cream’ will make the sentence correct.
A-D forms a pair since ‘trapped’ provides the verb in the participle form that should follow the auxiliary ‘to be’ that segment A ends in. It also maintains the tense
of the verb ‘was’ from segment A.
C-F forms a pair since Mr. Darcy forms the subject that is aptly being introduced by the conjunction ‘that’, often used as a function word to introduce a noun
clause that is usually the subject or object of a verb (in this case, ‘was’).
50. D
Sol. The correct answer is option D.
A-D is a grammatically incorrect pair, since the addition of ‘each’ before ‘individual’ makes it a singular noun that should take a singular pronoun, ‘his’, and not
the plural pronoun ‘their’.
Part B ends with the subject 'volcanic eruption'. We need a verb next. The part which starts with a verb is part F. The verb is 'led'. The sentence contextually
makes sense as well. Thus, option B-F is a correct pair.
Part C talks about a person. And part E explains what kind of a person the one mentioned in C was.
Thus, option C-E makes a grammatically correct and meaningful sentence.
51. C
Sol. * Shri Hardeep Singh Puri, Minister of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA) launched the seventh consecutive edition of Swachh Survekshan
(SS), the world’s largest urban cleanliness survey conducted by Swachh Bharat Mission-Urban (SBM-U) at New Delhi
* Designed with ‘People First’ as its driving philosophy, Swachh Survekshan 2022 is curated towards capturing the initiatives of cities for the
overall welfare and well-being of frontline sanitation workers.
* With this launch, MoHUA also kicks off the week-long celebrations of ‘Azaadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav’.
* Continuing with its theme of ‘People First’, SBM-U will organize a series of citizen centric activities under the overarching theme of ‘Jan
Bhagidari’.
52. C
Sol. * The International Labour Organisation (ILO) has released the World Employment and Social Outlook-Trends 2022 (WESO Trends).
* This is 21 million more than in 2019 before the novel coronavirus disease (COVID-19) pandemic began.
* It is a United Nations agency whose mandate is to advance social and economic justice through setting international labour standards.
* The program hints that Russia is planning to launch the Soyuz MS-21 spacecraft with astronauts Oleg Artemyev, Denis Matveyev and Sergey
Korsakov on March 18, 2022. The Soyuz MS-22 spacecraft is scheduled to launch in September 21 with astronauts Sergey Prokopyev, Anna
Kikina and Dmitry Petelin.
54. A
Sol. * World Expo 2020 has been organized at Dubai in United Arab Emirates from 1 October 2021 to 31 March 2022.
* Main theme of Dubai Expo 2020: Connecting Minds, Creating the Future
* Expo 2020 is the first to be held in Middle East and North Africa & South Asia region.
55. D
Sol. * India has successfully launched the 41st scientific expedition to Antarctica with the arrival of the first batch of its contingent at the southern
white continent.
* The first batch comprising 23 scientists and support staff reached the Indian Antarctic station, Maitri.
* Four more batches will reach Antarctica by air and chartered ice-class vessel MV Vasiliy Golovnin by mid-January 2022.
* The Indian Antarctic programme, which began in 1981, has completed 40 scientific expeditions and built three permanent research base
stations in Antarctica -- Dakshin Gangotri (1983), Maitri (1988) and Bharati (2012).
* Currently, Maitri and Bharati are fully operational.
* Himadri Station is India’s first permanent Arctic research station. With the accommodation of a total of 8 scientists, Himadri Research Station
was inaugurated on the 1st July 2008. India’s research station in the Arctic is located at Spitsbergen, Svalbard, Norway.
56. C
Sol. ● First SAARC summit took place in 1985.
● The fullform of SAARC is South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation.
● The Secretariat of SAARC is based in Kathmandu, Nepal.
● Its main aim is to promote economic growth, social progress and cultural development.
57. D
Sol. * Defence Research and Development Organization (DRDO) successfully test-fired surface-to-surface ballistic missile Agni-5 from APJ Abdul
Kalam Island in Odisha.
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* Agni-5: It is a nuclear-capable intercontinental ballistic missile (ICBM), which uses a three-stage solid-fueled engine.
* It can strike targets at ranges up to 5,000 km with a very high degree of accuracy
* It is 17-metre long, 2-metre wide and has launch weight of around 50 tonnes and can carry a nuclear warhead of more than one tonne.
58. C
Sol. ● The Ashok Chakra Class-III in 1967 was renamed as Shaurya Chakra.
● It is awarded for valour, courageous action or self-sacrifice.
● It is the peacetime equivalent of the Vir Chakra.
● Ashok Chakra India's highest peacetime military decoration.
59. D
Sol. * The Egyptian city of Sharm El Sheikh will host COP27 in 2022.
* It was announced in the UN climate change conference COP26 in Glasgow.
* The United Arab Emirates (UAE) will host the 2023 edition of the conference.
* The UN Climate Change Conference is the largest global conference of heads of states and governments on climate and environmental
issues.
60. A
Sol. • Prime Minister Narendra Modi delivered ‘State of the World’ special address at the WEF (World Economic Forum)’s Davos Agenda on 17th
January 2022.
• Davos Agenda 2022 will be held from 17th to 21st January 2022.
• It will be the first global platform for key world leaders to share their visions for 2022.
• The event is being convened on the theme of "State of the World."
• It will also be addressed by several Heads of State.
61. D
Sol. * Viswanathan Anand is the first recipient of the The Khel Ratna Award, officially known as the Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award, formerly known as the
Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award in Sports and Games, is the highest sporting honour of India. It is awarded annually by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports.
* Sport shooter Abhinav Bindra is the youngest recipient of the Khel Ratna award. He was awarded with the award in 2001.
62. B
Sol. * Prime Minister Narendra Modi participated in the 16th East Asia Summit via video conference.
* It was hosted by Brunei and saw the participation of leaders from the ASEAN countries and Australia, China, Japan, South Korea, Russia,
US and India.
* This was 7th East Asia Summit attended by Prime Minister Narendra Modi.
* Members of EAS includes 10 ASEAN member states, and India, China, Japan, Korea, Australia, New Zealand, US and Russia.
63. B
Sol.
* Maharashtra became the first state to release its own Wildlife Action plan (2021-30). The new plan, which will be implemented over the next
10 years, recognises concerns about climate change impacts on wildlife, coastal ecosystems, marine biodiversity, flora and fauna.
* The plan will be a guiding document for an action plan for wildlife conservation for the next decade.
* The plan has suggested integrating climate change adaption in wildlife conservation and the plan focuses on 12 areas.
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64. B
Sol. • 'Real' is the currency of Brazil.
• In Brazil, it is known as the "Brazilian real".
• The rand is the official currency of South Africa.
• Ghana's currency name is "Ghanaian Cedi".
• Cambodia's currency name is Cambodian Riel.
65. A
Sol. • India has successfully handed over the BRICS Chairmanship to China from January 2022.
• The theme for BRICS 2022 is “Foster High-Quality BRICS Partnership Usher in a New Era for Global Development”.
• A total of 25 events have been planned, of which India will host a total of five.
66. C
Sol. * Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India, G C Murmu has been appointed as the external auditor of the International Atomic Energy
Agency (IAEA).
* His tenure will be valid for six years from 2022 to 2027.
* He was selected as the next external auditor of the IAEA at General Conference of the IAEA in Vienna.
* IAEA is an international organization that promotes the peaceful use of nuclear energy, and to inhibit its use for any military purpose,
including nuclear weapons.
67. C
Sol. ● Dadabhai Naoroji was the first to discuss the concept of a Poverty line in pre-independent India.
● He was also known as the Grand Old Man and Unofficial Ambassador of India.
● The level of income needed to meet the minimum standard of living is called Poverty Line.
● The persons who are spending below 47 Rs a day in cities and 32 Rs in villages are considered to be poor.
68. A
Sol. * The 3rd edition of the Trilateral Maritime Exercise named SITMEX–21 is being held from 15 to 16 Nov 21 in the Andaman Sea.
* The Navies of the India, Singapore and Thailand will participate in the event.
* Indian Naval Ship (INS) Karmuk is participating in the 3rd edition from India. It is an indigenously built Missile Corvette.
* SITMEX is being conducted annually since 2019 with an aim to enhance mutual inter-operability and imbibing best practices between the
Indian Navy (IN), RSN and RTN.
* The maiden edition of SITMEX was hosted by IN off Port Blair in September 2019.
69. B
Sol. • In a historic first, Russian film director Shipenko and actress Yulia Peresild is back on Earth after wrapping up scenes for the first movie shot
in space.
• It took around 30 hours to record the material while in space.
• This is the first time a mission has been embarked to ISS to shoot a movie in space.
• The film “The Challenge” is based on the life of a woman doctor who goes to space to save a cosmonaut’s life.
70. B
Sol. ● Bogibeel bridge is a combined road cum rail bridge over the Brahmaputra River in the northeastern Indian state of Assam and
Arunachal Pradesh between Dibrugarh district and Pasighat district respectively.
● It is Asia’s 2nd longest rail-cum-road bridge of 125 m in length.
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● The bridge was inaugurated on 25th December 2018 on the occasion of Good Governance Day by PM Narendra Modi.
71. D
Sol. * ‘Vax’ has been selected as the word of the year by Oxford English Dictionary (OED) in 2021.
* It is used as a short form for vaccine and means a substance put into a person’s body to prevent them from getting a disease.
* It was used 72 times as much as it was in 2020
72. D
Sol. ● Gul Makai is the name of Malala Yousafzai’s biopic.
● Malala Yousafzai is a pakistani activist that promotes the right of education for females and children in Swat valley.
● It is released on 31 december 2020.she got nobel peace prize in year 2014.
● The documentary of malala Yousafzai ‘he named me malala’ is shortlisted for oscar in 2015.
● The United Nation launched a petition demanding that every child get education and no descrimination against girls.
73. A
Sol. * Union Minister of Commerce & Industry, Consumer Affairs, Food & Public Distribution and Textiles, Piyush Goyal presented the National
Startup Awards 2021.
* A total of 46 Startups have been recognized as winners of National Startup Awards 2021 along with 1 incubator and 1 accelerator.
* Prime Minister Narendra Modi announced that January 16 will be celebrated as National Startup Day, to take the Startup culture to the far-
flung areas of the country.
* India reached 46th spot in Global Innovation Index from 81st rank.
74. C
Sol. * China successfully launched a new satellite named Shijian-21 on October 24, 2021.
* This satellite was launched from the Xichang Satellite Launch Center in southwest China's Sichuan Province.
* The satellite will be mainly used to test and verify space debris mitigation technologies.
75. D
Sol. • The 6th edition of annual Joint Military Exercise ‘AJEYA WARRIOR’ has been kick-started at Chaubatia, Uttarakhand from 8th October 2021.
• It is a two-week long military exercise, that will culminate on October 20, 2021
• AJEYA WARRIOR: It is a joint military exercise between India and United Kingdom since 2013
• The exercise will further strengthen bilateral defence cooperation between the armies of the two countries and develop interoperability and
sharing of expertise.
76. D
Sol. ● The highest quality coal is Anthracite. In ascending order of carbon content coal is named as peat , lignite,bituminous,anthracite.
● It contains carbon content of between 86% to 98%.
● It is mainly used in power generation. It was formed by burial around 350 million year ago.
● China is the largest producer of anthracite and other producers are Russia,Ukraine,North Korea etc.
● The 33MJ/kg of energy density produced from anthracite.
77. C
Sol. • India has officially joined High Ambition Coalition (HAC) for Nature and People, becoming the first country from BRICS bloc (Brazil, Russia,
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* The total forest and tree cover of the country is 80.9 million hectares which is 24.62 percent of the geographical area of the country. As
compared to the assessment of 2019, there is an increase of 2,261 sq km in the total forest and tree cover of the country. Out of this, the
increase in the forest cover has been observed as 1,540 sq km and that in tree cover is 721 sq km.
* Increase in forest cover has been observed in open forest followed by very dense forest. Top three states showing increase in forest cover
are Andhra Pradesh (647 sq km) followed by Telangana (632 sq km) and Odisha (537 sq km).
* Area-wise Madhya Pradesh has the largest forest cover in the country followed by Arunachal Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Odisha and
Maharashtra. In terms of forest cover as percentage of total geographical area, the top five States are Mizoram (84.53%), Arunachal Pradesh
(79.33%), Meghalaya (76.00%), Manipur (74.34%) and Nagaland (73.90%).
81. C
Sol. The communication of a proposal is complete when it comes to the knowledge of the person to whom it is made. Thus, when Reena proposes to sell her cycle
to Ranjit, who is wearing headphones and listening to loud music it cannot be said that communication of proposal is complete as is very unlikely that Ranjit has
heard the proposal.
82. B
Sol. The communication of a proposal is complete when it comes to the knowledge of the person to whom it is made. Thus, where Anjali proposes, by letter, to sell a
house to Bhuvan at a certain price the communication of the proposal is complete when Bhuvan receives the letter.
83. B
Sol. The communication of an acceptance is complete as against the proposer, when it is put in a course of transmission to him, so as to be out of
the power of the acceptor. Thus, where - Reena proposes to sell her cycle to Ranjit and posts the letter to Ranjit containing the proposal for the
same. Ranjit receives the letter and wishes to buy the cycle. He posts the letter signifying his assent. The communication of acceptance is
complete as against Reena when the letter is posted by Ranjit.
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84. A
Sol. The communication of an acceptance is complete as against the acceptor, when it comes to the knowledge of the proposer. Thus, where Reena proposes to sell
her cycle to Ranjit and posts the letter to Ranjit containing the proposal for the same. Ranjit receives the letter and wishes to buy the cycle. He posts the letter
signifying his assent. The communication of acceptance is complete as against Ranjit when the letter is received by Reena.
85. D
Sol. All agreements are contracts if they are made by the free consent of parties competent to contract. Thus, where a contract is made between a minor and
unsound, both being incompetent to contract, the contract is void.
86. B
Sol. The State can make any special provision for the advancement of any socially and educationally backward classes of citizens or for the
Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes. Thus, where a person of an ‘economically’ weaker group was given preference for admission in
educational institution maintained by state, it is out of the purview of principle 2. (However, now, economically weaker sections can also avail
reservation).
87. A
Sol. The State can make any special provision for the advancement of any socially and educationally backward classes of citizens or for the Scheduled Castes and
the Scheduled Tribes. Thus, where no person was allowed to visit the area specifically reserved for scheduled tribes, it can be said that is for the interest of
scheduled tribes.
88. C
Sol. No person shall be convicted of any offence except for violation of a law in force at the time of the commission of the act charged as an offence, nor be
subjected to a penalty greater than that which might have been inflicted under the law in force at the time of the commission of the offence. Thus, the accused
can be punished for any imprisonment up to 10 years only.
89. B
Sol. No person shall be convicted of any offence except for violation of a law in force at the time of the commission of the act charged as an offence, nor be
subjected to a penalty greater than that which might have been inflicted under the law in force at the time of the commission of the offence. Thus, Ramesh will
not be liable as the above was not an offence when Ramesh committed.
90. C
Sol. The principle clearly states ‘in so far as’. Thus, C will be correct option. Only, section 2 is ultra vires.
91. C
Sol. Culpable homicide is not murder if the offender, whilst deprived of the power of self-control by grave and sudden provocation, causes the death of the person
who gave the provocation or causes the death of any other person by mistake or accident provided the provocation is not sought or voluntarily provoked by the
offender as an excuse for killing or doing harm to any person. Thus, where Amit punches Ajit and in consequence, Ajit gave a lathi blow to Amit. Amit was
provoked by this act of Ajit, snatched the lathi from Ajit and beat him to death, it can be said that provocation was voluntarily sought by Amit.
92. B
Sol. Culpable homicide is not murder if the offender, whilst deprived of the power of self-control by grave and sudden provocation, causes the death of the person
who gave the provocation or causes the death of any other person by mistake or accident provided the provocation is not sought or voluntarily provoked by the
offender as an excuse for killing or doing harm to any person. Thus, where Ajit gave a lathi blow to Amit. Amit was provoked by this act of Ajit, snatched the lathi
from Ajit and beat him to death, it cannot be said that provocation was voluntarily sought by Amit.
93. A
Sol. Culpable homicide is not murder if the offender, whilst deprived of the power of self-control by grave and sudden provocation, causes the death of the person
who gave the provocation or causes the death of any other person by mistake or accident provided the provocation is not given by anything done in obedience to
the law, or by a public servant in the lawful exercise of the powers of such public servant. Thus, where Atul appears as a witness before, a Magistrate and the
magistrate said that he did not believe a word of Atul's deposition, and that Atul has perjured himself. Atul is moved to sudden passion by these words, killed the
magistrate. This is murder as provocation is given by a public servant in the lawful exercise of the powers.
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94. A
Sol. Culpable homicide is not murder if the offender, whilst deprived of the power of self-control by grave and sudden provocation, causes the death of the person
who gave the provocation or causes the death of any other person by mistake or accident provided the provocation is not given by anything done in obedience to
the law, or by a public servant in the lawful exercise of the powers of such public servant. Thus, where A is lawfully arrested by Z, a bailiff and is excited to
sudden and violent passion by the arrest kills Z. This is murder as provocation is given by a public servant in the lawful exercise of the powers.
95. B
Sol. Culpable homicide is not murder if the offender, whilst deprived of the power of self-control by grave and sudden provocation, causes the death of the person
who gave the provocation or causes the death of any other person by mistake or accident provided the provocation is not given by anything done in obedience to
the law, or by a public servant in the lawful exercise of the powers of such public servant. Thus, where A is unlawfully arrested by Z, a bailiff and is excited to
sudden and violent passion by the arrest kills Z. This is culpable homicide as provocation is not given by a public servant in the lawful exercise of the powers.
96. A
Sol. Trespass means the wrongful disturbance of possession of land or goods of another person. Thus, when Arjun asks Aman to leave but, Aman did not leave.
Then, Arjun sue Aman for trespass.
97. B
Sol. A person who invites another cannot, as and when he wants sue his guest for trespass.
98. C
Sol. Trespass means the wrongful disturbance of possession of land or goods of another person. Thus, discharge of water in the property of other amounts to
trespass.
99. C
Sol. Where Aditya regularly cleans the path adjacent outside his house. Shilpa with muddy feet walks over the path just after Adiya mobbed the
path. Aditya cannot sue for trespass as the property is public property and not his personal property and trespass means the wrongful
disturbance of possession of land or goods of another person.
100. B
Sol. No suit shall be brought in respect of trespass or nuisance, solely because of the aircraft’s flight over any property at a height above ground that is reasonable in
view of wind, weather and all the circumstances of the case, or solely because of the ordinary incidents of such flight. Thus, where the child is playing with a
paper plane and the plane flew over the premises of a person. Such person cannot exercise his right to trespass in this case.
101. B
Sol. Mere silence as to facts likely to affect the willingness of a person to enter into a contract is not fraud, unless the circumstances of the case are such that, regard
being had to them, it is the duty of the person keeping silence to speak, or unless his silence is, in itself, equivalent to speech. Here, silence was not equivalent
to speech.
102. D
Sol. silence amounts to fraud when circumstances of the case are such that, regard being had to them, it is the duty of the person keeping silence
to speak, or unless his silence is, in itself, equivalent to speech.
103. B
Sol. Mere silence as to facts likely to affect the willingness of a person to enter into a contract is not fraud. Moreover, it is the duty of the purchaser to know about the
market prices. The seller will always like to sell at a higher price. This does not amount to fraud.
104. B
Sol. It cannot be ascertained that at the very inception Raju did not want to marry Shweta. It was later, when he settled in town, he married
someone else. Thus, the mala fide intention of not performing the contract is not there. Thus, this not fraud.
105. A
Sol. A promise made without any intention of performing it is fraud. Thus, where A first agrees to sell the land to B, and denies affecting the sale saying that it is not
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107. A
Sol. The agreement is certain as Arjun seeks to sell all the grain in his granary.
108. D
Sol. The dealer only deals in mustard oil. Thus, where he agrees to sell 5 tons of oil, there is no uncertainty.
109. A
Sol. The agreement is uncertain for want of consideration. Therefore, the agreement is void.
110. C
Sol. Where A agrees to sell to B, his white horse for rupees five hundred or rupees one thousand, whatever C says, there is no uncertainty in the
contract. Thus, the contract is valid.
111. A
Sol. To constitute the offence of abetment it is not necessary that the act abetted should be committed.
112. D
Sol. To constitute the offence of abetment it is not necessary that the act abetted should be committed or a different act is committed. A person is liable for abetment
in both the cases. Further, Beena mixes poison, thus, she is liable for murder.
113. A
Sol. For abetment it is not necessary that the person abetted should be capable by law of committing an offence, or that he should have the same guilty intention or
knowledge as that of the abettor, or any guilty intention or knowledge. Also, a child below 7 years is not liable for any punishment. Thus, only A is liable.
114. A
Sol. For abetment it is not necessary that the person abetted should be capable by law of committing an offence, or that he should have the same guilty intention or
knowledge as that of the abettor, or any guilty intention or knowledge. Here, a lunatic is not capable by law to commit any offence. Thus, only A is guilty.
115. D
Sol. Asha, though guilty of abetting the burning of the house, is not guilty of abetting the theft for the theft was a distinct act, and not a probable consequence of the
burning.
116. D
Sol. Dermatologists are the doctors who specialize in diagnosing and treating diseases of the skin. Likewise, Neonatologists are doctors who focus on the care of
newborn (infants) babies, sick babies and premature babies.
117. D
Sol. As per the given information the following family tree will be formed:
118. B
Sol.
x(x + 1) = 1260
x2 + x – 1260 = 0
On solving the above equation, we get, x= 35 or -35
We assume that x = 35 as it is given that number is positive.
Here x + y = 106
y = 106 – 35 = 71
Q +3 T +3 W +3 Z
X +3 A +3 D +3 G
B +3 E +3 H +3 K
N +1 P +3 S +3 V
122. D
Sol. The pattern followed is as shown below:
REASON -> NOSAER
Similarly,
DIVULGE -> EGLUVID
123. D
Sol. The pattern is as follows:
127. D
Sol. Here, none of the arguments are strong and hence, option D is the right answer.
I is not strong because our ability to read brain wave patterns is not something that can be found out in common knowledge. It is something that needs to be
definitively proven to make our case and from the context, we can't conclusively prove such statements.
II is not strong because even though it specifies the reason behind rejecting argument I, it also insinuates that we should not stop people smoking, which clearly
is a bad habit and is hugely injurious to health.
128. A
Sol. Here, only I is a strong argument because it provides us with a rational and plausible explanation so as to why one should exercise at the beginning of the day.
On the other hand, II gets way too definitive without being rational behind the logic it puts forth. If one gets too much exercise, it does not necessarily mean that
they will get too tired to complete the daily routine. Hence, option A is the right answer.
129. C
Sol. Procrastination is one habit of delaying things until it reaches a point where one is left to do excessive work in little or no time. So, ideally, it should be avoided at
all costs. And since both the statements are in favor of avoiding procrastination and are also providing a sound reason behind their stance, both of them are
strong arguments. Hence, option B is the right answer.
130. A
Sol. Fog is a natural phenomenon; so one cannot do anything when it comes to nature. By decreasing the speed of trains, the drivers ensure that trains should not be
prone to accidents. The first course of action is advisable to the general public while the second is impractical.
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effectiveness of sprinklers in preventing property damage. But this reasoning is faulty because
of the possibility that most of the property damage results from the minority of fires excluded
from the builder's evidence. That possibility is realized if D is true. Thus, D is the best answer.
Because the builder's argument concerns neither the cost of installing sprinklers not a
evidence the home builder cites suggests that formal training is not needed in order to
extinguish fires. So A is not the correct answer. B supports the builder's view that requiring
smaller.
D exposes this absurdity by pointing out the need to compare death rates of the two groups, which would reveal the higher death rate for the smaller group.
Therefore, D is the best answer. Since the conclusion acknowledges the difference between the number of civilian and armed forces deaths, expressing this
difference as a percentage, as suggested by B, is beside the point. A is inappropriate because it simply adds a third group to the two being compared. Because
cause of death in not at issue, C and E are irrelevant.
140. C
Sol. Online space or internet is ‘staging ground’ which proves the conclusion I. Staging is an outreach technique and this proves conclusion II. Hence, option C is the
correct answer.
141. A
Sol. Democracy means people elect their representatives to rule and govern the nation. So India is a democratic country, I follow. Even though India is the largest
democracy, it is not the largest by population. It is China. So II doesn’t follow.
142. D
Sol.
The correct answer is option D, i.e. Both I and II are implicit.
An assumption is a statement that is used as the premise of a particular agreement but may not be accepted otherwise. In simpler words an
assumption is
From the statement, it is evident that the definition of ‘kilogram’ is set to undergo an update. Until May 20, the kilogram derived its provenance from the weight of
a block of a platinum-iridium alloy housed at the International Bureau of Weights and Measures in France. All other prototypes that served as national reference
standards, including the one at New Delhi’s CSIR-National Physical Laboratory (NPL), were calibrated to it. Now a new method has been devised for calculating
the value of a kilogram and correspondingly updates will be made in textbooks and other stuff.
Assumption (I) can be assumed to be the new method of calculating the value of ‘kilogram’ without proof. It is a suitable assumption in the same direction of the
given context.
Assumption (II) is a perfect assumption based on the information provided in the given context. It perfectly highlights the fact that the CSIR-NPL released a set of
recommendations for updates and correspondingly updates will be done in textbooks and other relevant material regarding the definition of the kilogram.
Assumption (III) can be rejected as it is vague. In the statement it is being said that updates will be done but it talks about the usage of weights on daily basis will
not be altered which cannot be backed up from any information provided in the given context.
Thus, all of the assumptions except (III) are relevant and thus the most appropriate answer choice is option D.
143. D
Sol. The correct answer choice is option D, i.e. Both I and II are implicit.
From the statement, it is evident that Sebi board approved easing of norms for accreditation of investors willing to invest in new-age entities. It approved a
framework for the process of accreditation of investors for Innovators Growth Platform, which will be the name of the stock exchange platform where new-age
startups would be listed.
Assumption (I) can be assumed to be a basis criterion in the framework to boost the startups. It covers the fact that the accreditation will be for a fixed period of
time and will be given on the basis of the eligibility. It is not specific to any particular situation and can be assumed to be a part of the framework approved by
Sebi Board. If something specific like the time period or the eligibility criteria would have been mentioned, then it would have been eliminated. But since, it does
not state anything specific which is not based on the information, it is correct.
Assumption (II) is also understood from the line given in the given context which states that ‘provide a boost for startups seeking to get listed’. From the given
context and the assumption stated, we can infer that easing the regulations was focused to boost the startups in order to get them listed.
144. B
Sol.
The correct answer is option 2, i.e. All are implicit.
From the statement, it is evident that FSSAI has urged food companies to distinguish between atta and maida by differentiating in their nomenclature in order to
provide clarity to the consumers. And further information regarding its components is also mentioned.
Assumption (I) is an appropriate assumption on the basis of given statement. It perfectly captures the sole idea behind the mentioned step by FSSAI.
Assumption (II) is sort of a rephrase of assumption (I) bringing out the core idea of the given statement.
Assumption (III) can be understood as the reason why such step was required. It is also a logical assumption that can be drawn on the basis of the given
information.
Thus, all the assumptions are relevant and the most appropriate answer choice is option 2.
145. D
Sol. India winning its highest medal tally can be attributed to the good performance of its athletes. Sending the largest delegation has nothing to do with the
performance and medal tally However, sending of the largest delegation is an effect of selection of a large number of athletes in the qualification rounds. Hence
both are effects of independent causes
146. B
Sol. The statements given in the assertion and reason are true. But both the statements are talking about two different contexts.
Reason talks about the types of disease caused by the deficiency of vitamins.
Hence, Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
147. A
Sol. R states the reason why sky at evening is reddish. The higher wavelength red light is less scattered by atmosphere particles and reaches our eyes, hence we
see sky as reddish.
148. D
Sol. None of the given inferences can be deduced from what is given in the statement. We simply know that a bus struck four people in the early hours of a Monday.
The reason as to why this happened has not even been hinted at and cannot be concluded. II also incorrect because the statement clearly says the incident
occurred hours after the artist had performed. It did not occur during the performance. III is also incorrect because Bruno Mars was performing in Netherlands
(Dutch concert), but whether he himself belongs to the same country is not something that be inferred from the statement. Hence, none of them can be inferred.
149. C
Sol. Both inferences I and II can be correctly deduced from the given statement. In the statement, we have been told that 70% of the water resources in India are
polluted. From here, we can clearly infer that India is facing an acute water crisis and something must be done soon to deal with this situation. II can also be
inferred as it sounds like a logically reasoned solution for solving the problem mentioned in the given statement. Therefore, option C is the correct answer.
150. D
Sol. None of the inferences follow. The given statement simply mentions that Aun Pheap reported in all the major newspapers of Cambodia from which we cannot
infer that he was the most famous journalist of that country. Similarly, because Aun Pheap reported on issues like scandals, corruption and human rights issue,
that does not make Cambodia a country that is mired in all these evils. Every country would have its own problems of corruption and scandals and there would
be reporters focusing only on those. However, that doesn’t mean the country is full of those evils. Inference III does not follow because the reason why Aun
Pheap reported for every major newspaper in Cambodia is already given in the statement – because he felt he was born to do so and not because there was a
scarcity of reporters. Therefore, option E is the correct answer.