SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO CẦN THƠ ĐỀ THI HỌC KỲ I NĂM HỌC 2017 – 2018

TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN LÝ TỰ TRỌNG Môn: TIẾNG ANH -Lớp 11

Thời gian làm bài: 45 phút
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC
(Đề gồm 03 trang)

I. PHONOLOGY
1. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others.
A.cosy B. enthusiastic C. suffer D. disaster
2. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others.
A. parade B. animal C. natural D. anniversary
3. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the others.
A. represent B. influence C. apricot D. relative
4. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the others.
A. petroleum B. agrarian C. minority D. helicopter
II. GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY
Choose the best answer.
5. I bought ten pens, twelve books, and two rulers _____.
A. in all B. after all C. above all D. at all
6. I felt so embarrassed. I was sure that _____ was looking at me.
A. anyone B. someone C. everyone D. no one
7. If you don’t know the answer, ask _____ else.
A. anyone B. someone C. no one D. everyone
8. I am not as familiar with the metal chopsticks as with the wooden _____.
A. one B. ones C. another D. others
9. Five local teachers of English are invited to _____ the essay contest.
A. criticize B. review C. judge D. analyze
10. The Literature teacher sometimes _____ some interesting poems to us.
A. pronounces B. expresses C. recites D. spells
11. Choose the underlined part (A, B, C or D) that needs correcting.
George wouldn't have met Mary hadn’t he gone to his brother's graduation party.
A B C D

12. Choose the underlined part (A, B, C or D) that needs correcting.

This AO DAI is too long. Have you got a shorter ones? I’d like to wear it on my graduation day.
A B C D
13. Jessie: “I’m going on holiday tomorrow.”
Jim: “_____ ”
A. Congratulations! B. Sorry to hear that. C. Have a nice time! D. Watch out.
14. Jim: “Do you agree that physical exercises can keep our body fit?”
Laura: “You’re right. _____.”
A. Of course not B. There’s no doubt about that
C. That’s very surprising D. I’m not with you there
15. The dog was muzzled, so it didn’t hurt the children.
A. If the dog hadn’t been muzzled, it would have hurt the children.
B. If the dog weren’t muzzled, it wouldn’t hurt the children.
C. If the dog hadn’t muzzled, it wouldn’t have hurt the children.
D. Had the dog been muzzled, it would have hurt the children.
16. Come on time. Otherwise, we will go without you.
A. Come on time, we will go without you.
B. Because of your punctuality, we will go without you.
C. Unless you come on time, we will go without you.
D. Without your coming on time, we will go.
17. I always like to clear my desk clear _____ the end _____ the day.
A. in / of B. at / of C. at / on D. in / on
18. Choose the letter (A, B, C or D) to indicate the word that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined
word.
The transition from school to work does not happen smoothly to everybody.
A. without difficulties B. full of troubles
C. with problems D. plenty of challenges

III. READING COMPREHENSION

A. Read the text and choose the best answer.
Different cultures celebrate the beginning of a new year in different ways, and at different times on the
calendar. In Western countries, people usually celebrate New Year at midnight on January 1st. People
may go to parties, dress in formal clothes – like tuxedos and evening gowns, and drink Champaign at
midnight. During the first minutes of the New Year, people wish and cheer each other happiness for the
year ahead. But some cultures prefer to celebrate the New Year by waking up early to watch the sun rise.
They welcome the New Year with the first light of sunrise. It is also a common Western custom to make a
New Year’s promise, called a resolution. New Year’s resolutions usually include promises to try
something new or change a bad habit in the New Year.
Many cultures also do special things to get rid of bad luck at the beginning of a new year. In Ecuador,
families make a big doll from old clothes filled with old newspapers and firecrackers. At midnight, these
dolls are burned to show the bad things from the past year are gone and the New Year can start afresh.
Other common traditions to keep away bad luck include throwing things into rivers or the ocean, or
saying special things on the first day of the New Year. Other New Year traditions are followed to bring
good luck in. A widespread Spanish tradition for good luck is eating grapes on the New Year’s Day. The
more grapes a person eats, the more good luck the person will have in the year. In France, people eat
pancakes for good luck at New Year. In the U.S., some people eat black-eyed peas for good luck – but to
get good luck for a whole year you have to eat 365 of them.
19. What is the main idea of the reading?
A. The meaning of “Happy New Year”. B. How to welcome good luck.
C. Different New Year traditions. D. What people do on the New Year Eve.
20. The word “gowns” in the first paragraph means ______.
A. woman’s long dresses B. T-shirts C. jackets D. scarfs
21. What is a resolution about?
A. Something you cannot do in the New Year.
B. Something you want to do or change in the New Year.
C. Something you promised to do but was not finished.
D. Something you say to welcome good luck.
22. Which statement is NOT true?
A. Some cultures prefer to celebrate the New Year by watching the sunrise.
B. Tuxedo and evening gowns are formal clothes.
C. Spaniards eat grapes for good luck on the New Year’s Day.
D. Things are thrown into rivers or the ocean to keep away bad luck in France.
23. What is true about eating black-eyed peas at New Year?
A. One pea brings one day of luck.
B. You have to eat 365 peas to be lucky on the New Year’s Day.
C. It is bad luck if you eat more than 365 peas.
D. It is the tradition in Spain and the U.S.
B. Cloze test: Choose the word that best fits the blank space in the following passage.
BEAUTY CONTESTS
A beauty contest, or beauty pageant, is a competition between people, based largely, though not always
entirely, on the beauty (1) ______ their physical appearance. Competitions for men and women are
separate events, and those for women are more common. Also, there are beauty contests for teenagers, (2)
______ are sometimes controversial, especially if they dress in no more than a swimsuit.
Beauty contests for women often have rules regarding the “purity” of the contestants. For example, they
must not be (3) _______, must agree to remain celibate during their “reign”, and must agree to refrain
from other acts that contest organizers regard as “moral degradation.” (4) _______ any of those rules
disqualifies the contestant.
The modern beauty pageant can trace its origin to the Miss America pageant, first held in Atlantic City,
New Jersey, in 1921. The following year, the title was renamed Miss America. Nowadays, the two largest
and most famous international beauty contests include the yearly Miss World competition ((5) ______ in
1951) and Miss Universe (1952).
24. A. of B. in C. from D. for
25. A. who B. whom C. which D. that
26. A. marry B. marriage C. married D. marrying
27. A. Following B. Breaking C. Taking D. Making
28. A. discovered B. found C. got D. founded

IV. WORD FORM

Use the word given in capitals at the end of each sentence to form a word that fits in the gap.
29. There’s a SHORTAGE of food and shelter in the refugee camps. (SHORT)
30. We had VARIOUS problems on our journey, including a flat tyre. (VARY)

V. WRITING
For each of the following sentences, write a new sentence as similar as possible in meaning to the
original sentence, beginning with the word(s) given.
31. If he doesn’t start at once, he will be late.
Unless he starts at once, he will be late.
32. “What would you do if you had 3 days off?” he asked her.
He asked her what she would do if she had 3 days off.
33. The game was cancelled because the weather was bad.
If the weather hadn’t been bad, the game wouldn’t have been cancelled.

34. “If you try once more, you will succeed.” David said to me.
David told me (that) if I tried once more I would succeed.
THE END
 KEYS

1 C
2 A
3 A
4 D
5 A
6 C
7 B
8 B
9 C
10 C
11 B
12 B
13 C
14 B
15 A
16 C
17 B
18 A
19 C
20 A
21 B
22 D
23 A
24 A
25 C
26 C
27 B
28 D

IV. Word Form

1. SHORTAGE
2. VARIOUS
V. Sentence Transformation
1. Unless he starts at once, he will be late.
2. He asked her what she would do if she had 3 days off.
3. If the weather hadn’t been bad, the game wouldn’t have been cancelled.
4. David told me (that) if I tried once more I would succeed.

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO CẦN THƠ KÌ THI HỌC KỲ I NĂM HỌC 2018 – 2019
TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN LÝ TỰ TRỌNG Môn: TIẾNG ANH - Lớp 11
Thời gian làm bài: 45 phút
ĐỀ GỐC

A. PHẦN TRẮC NGHIỆM (28 câu)

PART 1: Pronunciation
1. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others.
A. mutual B. trust C. upset D. couple
2. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others.
A. married B. candle C. happy D. card
3. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the others.
A. medium B. condition C. acquaintance D. unselfish
4. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the others.
A. accidentally B. anniversary C. occasionally D. sympathetically
PART 2: Grammar and Vocabulary
5. Choose the best answer (A, B, C or D).
They had a really good chance of winning the national _____.
A. competitor B. competition C. compete D. competitive
6. Choose the best answer (A, B, C or D).
How many countries will be _____ in the Olympic Games?
A. attending B. taking place C. participating D. entering
7. Choose the letter (A, B, C or D) to indicate the word that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined
part.
He has only one aim in life, which is to become wealthy.
A. purpose B. score C. core D. contest
8. Choose the best answer (A, B, C or D).
We need a(n) _____ and reliable birth control option to decrease population growth.
A. average B. safe C. advisory D. limited
9. Choose the best answer (A, B, C or D).
_____ is a day or time of the year when people have a holiday from work and celebrate some special
event, often a religious one.
A. Celebration B. Festival C. Decoration D. Occasion
10. Choose the best answer (A, B, C or D).
Having a good diet gives me a sense that I am doing ______ positive and that I am in control.
A. something B. anything C. nothing D. ones
11. Choose the best answer (A, B, C or D).
I hate _____ any human being _____ from serious diseases.
A. to see / suffered B. see / suffering C. seeing / suffer D. to be seen / to suffer
12. Choose the best answer (A, B, C or D).
The group leader prevented his members _____ going on.
A. of B. from C. to D. about
13. Choose the best answer (A, B, C or D).
If you ____ my advice, we wouldn’t have lost our way.
A. had taken B. have taken C. took D. take
14. Choose the best answer (A, B, C or D).
“Are you the new manager, Daisy? Congratulations!” said Tom.
A. Tom complimented Daisy on her new job.
B. Tom prevented Daisy from being the new manager.
C. Tom made Daisy work as the new manager.
D. Tom congratulated Daisy on being the new manager.
15. Choose the best answer (A, B, C or D).
Mary and Jane are talking about doing volunteer work.
- Mary: “Have you ever taken part in any volunteer work, Jane?”
- Jane: “____”
A. Yes. Never in my life. B. Yes, but not very often.
C. No. I do it whenever I’ve got a chance. D. Why do I have to do such a thing?
16. Choose the best answer (A, B, C or D).
Tam and his friend, Minh, are talking about a game show on television.
 - Tam: “What do you think of the game show Singing with the Idols on THVL, Minh?”
- Minh: “_____”
A. Well, I don’t like any game shows.
B. OK. It’s great. It’s an opportunity to see my idols.
C. No, I don’t like it.
D. Yes, it’s so interesting with a lot of beautiful melodies.
17. Choose the letter (A, B, C or D) to indicate the underlined part that needs correcting.
People usually go to pagoda on the first day of the New Year so that they to pray for good luck.
A B C D
18. Choose the letter (A, B, C or D) to indicate the underlined part that needs correcting.
If I had recognized you were tired, I wouldn’t ask you to go for a walk.
A B C D
PART 3: Reading
Reading comprehension: Read the text and choose the best answer (from 19 to 23).
Independence Day in the United States is observed annually on the Fourth of July. For most communities
throughout the nation, the traditional celebration includes parades down the main streets, picnics with hot
dogs and lemonade, and, of course, a fireworks display at night. In some towns across the country,
however, special events are planned in honor of the occasion. In Bristol, Rhode Island, fire engine teams
from communities throughout New England compete in a contest to squirt water from their fire hoses.
Flagstaff, Arizona hosts a huge three-day powwow, including a rodeo, for twenty Native American tribes.
The annual Eskimo games with traditional Kayak races are held in Kotzebue, Alaska. Two auto races are
always schedules for the Fourth, including a four-hundred-mile stock car event at the Daytona
International Speedway in Daytona, Florida, and an annual auto race up the fourteen-thousand-foot
precipice at the Pike’s Peak in Colorado.
Several small towns celebrate in other unique ways. Hannibal, Missouri, the hometown of Mark Twain,
invites the children to participate in a fence-painting contest, re-enacting a scene from Twain’s novel
“Tom Sawyer”. Lititz, Pennsylvania congregates in the Lititz Springs Park to light thousands of candles
and arrange them in various shapes and images.
19. With which of the following topics is the passage primarily concerned?
A. Traditional celebrations for the Fourth of July
B. Holidays in the United States
C. The origin of Independence Day
D. Small towns in America
20. How is Independence Day observed in Flagstaff, Arizona?
A. By sponsoring a stock car event. B. By hosting a powwow and rodeo.
C. By squirting water from fire hoses. D. By lighting candles in many different shapes.
21. The author mentions all of the following as ways the Fourth of July is celebrated EXCEPT _____.
A. parades B. races C. fireworks D. dances
22. The word “huge” in the passage can be best replaced by _____.
A. large B. exciting C. amusing D. complicated
23. The word "them" in the last paragraph refers to _____.
A. candles B. towns C. children D. shapes
Cloze test: Choose the word that best fits the blank space in the following passage (from 24 to 28).
The Gravity Games are fast becoming extremely popular with young people who have a (24)____ for a
different form of entertainment. The five-day event, (25)____ was set up in 1998 in the US, features
competitions in extreme sports as well as pop music concerts by famous singers or groups. Over 250
athletes from all over the world take part in seven different competitions, (26)____ skateboarding, biking
and other exciting events. Athletes have to train for a long time to prepare themselves (27)____ the
competitions. The games receive a lot of attention from the media and are broadcast live all over the
world. So, if you want to see (28)____ really special, do yourself a favor and watch this year’s Gravity
Games. For more information about the Games, visit their website on the Internet.
24. A. prefer B. preference C. preferable D. preferring
25. A. which B. that C. who D. it
26. A. include B. to include C. including D. included
27. A. to B. for C. at D. in
28. A. anything B. nothing C. everything D. something
B. PHẦN TỰ LUẬN (06 câu)
PART 4: Word form
Use the word given in capitals at the end of each sentence to form a word that fits in the gap.
29. Country music is growing in popularity. (POPULAR)
30. The United Nations is a(n) international organization. (NATION)
PART 5: Writing
For each of the following sentences, write a new sentence as similar as possible in meaning to the
original sentence, using the words given.
31. Quynh said, “Nam, you shouldn’t drink too much coffee.”
Quynh advised Nam not to drink too much coffee.
32. The examiner read the passage very quickly, so the candidates didn’t understand it.
If the examiner hadn’t read it. 33. He read the instruction, and then he snatched up the fire
extinguisher.
Having the candidates could/would have understood the fire extinguisher. 34. “I’m really sorry for
being late again,” said Tom.
Tom apologized for being late again.
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SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO CẦN THƠ KIỂM TRA HỌC KÌ I NĂM HỌC 2019-2020
TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN LÝ TỰ TRỌNG Môn: TIẾNG ANH Lớp 11
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút
ĐỀ GỐC Đề gồm 4 phần in trên 4 trang.

Điểm
Họ tên và chữ kí giám khảo Mã phách
(Bằng số và bằng chữ)

Note: Please write your answers in the table that follows each part.
I. LISTENING (2 marks)
Part 1: Listen to Hung’s opinions about online friends. Write T if a sentence is TRUE or F if a
sentence is FALSE. You will hear the conversation twice.
1. Hung is talking about the disadvantages of having online friends. (FALSE)
2. Hung can have more knowledge of different cultures and lifestyles because his online friends come
from different places around the world. (TRUE)
3. He can contact his friends whenever he wants as long as they are online. (TRUE)
4. The most important benefit of having online friends is that he can end a relationship slowly. (FALSE)
Your answers
1 2 3 4

Part 2: Listen to Paul and Andrea talking about their family life. Choose the best word (A, B, C or D)
for each space. You will hear the interview twice.
5. Paul’s family is about _____ kilometres from where he is living now.
A. 18 B. 80 C. 180 D. 28
6. Paul usually gets home by _____.
A. bus B. train C. plane D. car
7. Andrea lives in a _____ family.
A. small B. big C. normal D. nuclear
8. Andrea’s brothers are _____.
A. single B. engaged C. married D. remarried
Your answers
5 6 7 8

II. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (1.5 marks)

9. Choose the best answer (A, B, C or D).
The member states will act in accordance _____ the law to set out in various ASEAN instruments.
A. with B. to C. of D. for
10. Choose the option (A, B, C or D) that has the CLOSEST meaning to the underlined phrase.
Young college and university students participate in helping the poor who have suffered badly in wars or
natural disasters.
A. get involved in B. interfere with C. join hands D. come into
11. Choose the option (A, B, C or D) that has the OPPOSITE meaning to the underlined word.
Viet Nam and Laos will closely cooperate to strengthen the solidarity of ASEAN and enhance the vital
role of the group in regional security structure.
A. agreement B. separation C. cooperation D. friendship
12. Choose the best answer (A, B, C or D).
I _____ to help students at a special school twice since I finished grade 10.
A. have volunteered B. had volunteered C. volunteered D. was volunteering
13. Choose the best answer (A, B, C or D).
She did a funny little curtsy which Josh and Silver couldn't help _____ at.
A. laugh B. laughing C. to laugh D. to laughing
14. Choose the best answer (A, B, C or D).
Tom: “Why don’t we visit the Happy Charity Centre this weekend?”
Susan: “_____”
A. Because it is so useful. B. That’s a good idea!
C. I’ll tell you about this centre. D. Until next time.
Your answers
9 10 11 12 13 14

III. READING (2.5 marks)

Part 1: Read the text and choose the best answer (from 15 to 19).
There are about 100 million street children in India who do not attend any schools and spend most of
their time on the streets. In Delhi, the capital city, it is estimated that there are about 175,000 street
children, 10% of whom are runaways. In fact, there are more than 25,000 children who live in and around
railway stations in Delhi. They can be seen searching the rubbish heap for a meal, sleeping between the
tracks, often beaten and sexually abused.
Volunteer work consists of taking informal education classes with the children, playing games with
the children and introducing them to different new activities. Volunteers can teach the children good
habits such as cleanliness, hygiene, and greetings. On some of the days, volunteers can plan a trip with
the children to a museum or zoo in Delhi. Such educational trips are very useful for the children as they
love spending time and playing with the volunteers.
Volunteers work at the various contact points or shelter homes, being run by various organizations,
which serve as day care centers for these street children. They can assist in providing love, care, basic
literacy, recreation and most importantly spend time and shower affection on them.
15. What is the best title for the passage?
A. Street Children Volunteer Programme in Delhi
B. Volunteer Work in Delhi in India
C. Interesting Activities for Street Children in India
D. The Importance of Volunteer Work in India
16. Street children in Delhi _____.
A. spend most of their time in and around railway stations
B. live in very badly physical and mental conditions
C. account for 100 million from all parts of India
D. can search heaps of food for meals
17. Volunteers may do all of the following activities EXCEPT _____.
A. giving informal lessons to children B. playing games with children
C. teaching children good habits D. taking children to evening classes
18. Day care centers for street children offer _____.
A. care, education and recreation
B. time, shower and affection
C. supply of volunteers for various organizations
D. contact points or shelter homes at railway stations
19. The word "They" in the last paragraph refers to _____.
A. Volunteers B. Organizations C. Day care centers D. Street children

Your answers
15 16 17 18 19

Part 2: Choose the word(s) that best fits the blank space in the following passage (from 20 to 24).
Asia's economic, political and cultural importance is growing (20) _____ a never-before seen rate.
Take China, for example: In terms of purchasing power, China is now the largest (21) _____ of the world,
having recently taken over the crown from long-time leader the United States. Understanding the
fundamental structural changes in the global economy and having studied abroad in Asia is a huge asset
on your résumé when you compete for jobs.
(22) _____ the importance of the continent is increasing, many international companies are expanding
to Asia and need employees with experience in Asian markets and culture. To get a glimpse of the action
and business ideas flowing from Asia, visit Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation's (APEC) website.
One of the most important variables behind the miracle of the speed of growth and recovery in the
Asian economies is the quality of education. The competition for top schools and universities starts from
a very early (23) _____. The point of education in Asia is to equip people to become productive members
of their given societies as well as equip the students with the skills and mentality to be (24) _____ to
successfully compete against the masses of other applicants.
20. A. by B. on C. at D. with
21. A. economic B. economy C. economical D. economically
22. A. Although B. Because C. However D. Therefore
23. A. year B. semester C. period D. age
24. A. able B. capable C. disabled D. unable

Your answers
20 21 22 23 24

IV. WRITING (3.0 marks)

Part 1: Use the word given in capitals at the end of each sentence to form a word that fits in the gap.
25. We can help disadvantaged people by _____ clothes and food to them. (DONATION) (donating)
26. Using _____ language can make disabled people feel insecure. (RESPECT) (disrespectful)

Your answers
25. ................................................. 26. ................................................

Part 2: For each of the following sentences, write a new sentence in such a way that it means the same
as the original one, using the words given.
27. Ms. Alyssa started teaching at Ly Tu Trong High School for the gifted three months ago.
Ms. Alyssa has has taught/ been teaching at Ly Tu Trong High School for the gifted for three
months.
28. I think it would be a good idea if we joined the beginners’ class.
I suggest joining the beginners’ class.
Part 3: Paragraph writing
An overseas student is going to stay with your family for three months on a voluntary programme.
Write a letter (120-150 words) to inform him/her of the rules in your family.

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