Som Test Questions Final (06-06-2022) - 1654512636559
Som Test Questions Final (06-06-2022) - 1654512636559
Som Test Questions Final (06-06-2022) - 1654512636559
INSTRUCTIONS
1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD
CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR
MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.
2. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet
in the Box provided alongside. DO NOT write anything
else on the Test Booklet.
3. This, Test Booklet contains 37 items (questions). Each item comprises four responses (answers).
You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that
there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any
case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
4. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions
in the Answer Sheet.
5. All items carry equal marks.
6. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet,
you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your
Admission Certificate.
7. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has
concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take
away with you the Test Booklet.
8. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
9. Penalty for wrong answers:
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong
answer has been given by the candidate, one-third (1/3) of the marks assigned to that question
will be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of
the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question.
(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for
that question.
Note: Calculator is not allowed.
(2)
1. A rigid beam ABC is hinged at A and suspended A = 2600 mm2
at two points B and C as shown in figure by
two bars BD and CE made of Aluminium and
steel respectively. The beam ABC carries a load
of 1000 kg at mid point of BC. The cross- 1000 mm
sectional area of the Aluminium bar BD is 6 E = modulus of elasticity = 200 Gpa
mm2 and that of steel bar CE is 4 mm2. The = coefficient of thermal expansion
–6
load taken by steel bar will be ________ kg. = 9.4 × 10 /°C
(a) 116 kN (b) 125 kN
E A1 7000 kg mm ; Esteel 20000 kg mm
2 2
(c) 134 kN (d) 147 kN
(a) 174 (b) 500 5. An elastomeric bearing pad consisting of two
(c) 663 (d) 1000 steel plates bonded to a chloroprene elastomer
is subjected to a shear force V during a static
D loading test. The pad has dimensions a = 125
mm and b = 240 mm and the elastomer has
R
E
Al. bar
steel bar thickness t = 50 mm. When the force V equals
2m 12 kN, the top plate is found to have displaced
laterally 8.0mm with respect to the bottom
E
1000 kg
A
plate. Determine the shear modulus of elasticity
B C
of chloroprene.
1m 1m
2m
3. A steel specimen is subjected to a tensile force, (c) 2.5 MPa (d) 0.25 MPa
F, of 2000 kN. If Poisson’s ratio, , is 0.29 and 6. The beam AC hinged at A is held in a horizontal
the modulus of elasticity, E, is 193 GPa, the position by a cable attached at end C and
dilatation, e, is most nearly passing over a smooth pulley as shown in figure.
0.25 m The free end of the cable is connected to a
S
x
z
(a) 6.5 × 10–5 (b) 8.8 × 10–5
30°
(c) 8.8 × 10–4 (d) 6.5 × 10–4
A C
4. A prismatic bar at 10°C is constrained in a B
rigid concrete wall at both ends. The bar is
1000 mm long and has a cross-sectional area of 3m 3m
2600 mm2. What is most nearly the axial force (a) 2 (b) 1
in the bar if the temperature is raised to 40° (c) 0.866 (d) 0.5
C?
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(3)
7. Match Group I with Group II. 1 1
(c) (d)
Group I 3 6
(P) The no. of independent elastic constant Common Data Question (11 to 12)
for a linear elastic isotropic and A brass cube 50mm on each edge is compressed in
homogenous material. two perpendicular directions by forces P = 175 kN.
(Q) In torsion, test, brittle material fails at Assuming E = 100 GPa and μ = 0.34.
(R) In tension test, brittle material fails at
11. The change in volume (ΔV) of the cube (only
(S) Independent and distinct elastic magnitude) is ____________ mm3.
constants required to describe the state
(a) 84 (b) 56
of stress at a point in orthotropic
material. (c) 28 (d) 42
12. Total strain energy U stored in the cube is
Group II _____________ Joule.
R
(1) 90° (a) 32.34 (b) 2
(2) 9 (c) 4 (d) 3.234
13. If shear modulus/modulus of rigidity of a metal
E
(3) 2
is 80 GPa, then for the given strain tensor shear
(4) 45° stress in yz plain will be ________ (MPa).
Codes:
P Q R S
T 0.002
Strain = 0.004
0.004
0.003
0.006
0.002
S
(a) 2 4 1 3 0.006 0.002 0.003
(b) 3 1 4 2
(a) 160 (b) 320
(c) 2 1 4 3
A
(c) 640 (d) 480
(d) 3 4 1 2
14. A bar of length L and area A is fixed at one
8. If all the dimensions of a vertically suspended end and confined by partially rigid support in
M
circular bar are doubled, then the maximum another end, having stiffness K as shown in
stress produced in it due to its own weight will the figure.
(a) become half
B
(b) remain unaltered A C
A, E
S
(c) be doubled K
(d) be tripled L
If temperature of bar is increased by T°C, the
IE
1
(a) (b) 1
2
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(4)
18. Resilience is
Common Data Question (15 to 16)
(a) Maximum strain energy
A tappered bar is fixed between two rigid
support A and B and it is subjected to axial (b) Recoverable strain energy
load of P at point C and D as shown in figure. (c) Total potential energy
(d) Shear strain energy
19. Match List-I (Property) with List-II
3A A 3A (Characteristics) and select the correct answer
P P
A L/2 using the codes given below the lists :
C B
List-I
L L
A. Fatigue
15. The magnitude of support reactions at A and B
will be B. Tenacity
R
(c) 3P/5, 3P/5 (d) 3P/7, 3P/7 D. Malleability
E
by 1. Extension in a direction without rupture
P/3 2. Ability to be drawn into wire of thin section
(a)
without rupture
A L C
2P/3
L/2 D L B
T
3. Ultimate strength in tension
4. Decreased resistance of material to repeated
S
(b) 2P/3 P P reverssals of stress
A C D B Codes :
P/3
A
A B C D
(c) 2P/5 2P/5 3P/5
(a) 4 3 2 1
A C D B
M
(b) 3 4 2 1
(d) 3P/7 3P/7
(c) 4 3 1 2
A C D B (d) 3 4 1 2
4P/7
20. The given figure shows a beam cantilevering out
17. Two bars one of material A and the other of
S
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(5)
(d) Bending, torsion and shear
(c) W
24. Match List-I (shear force diagram) with List-
W II (beam with loading) using the following codes
(d) given below.
0.1W
21. A simply-supported beam AB of span 4 m carries
List-I
loads as shown in figure. The corresponding SFD
and BMD for the beam will be as shown in
2t A.
C 2t/m
A B
2m B.
2m
5t + 5t
A C B A + 1t B
R
(a) –
5t (b) 1t C – C.
S.F.D. 5t
S.F.D.
8 t.m 8 t.m
+ +
E
B.M.D. B.M.D. D.
5t 5t
(c)
A
+
S.F.D.
C
– B
6 t.m 5t
(d)
A + 1t
1t C –
S.F.D.
6 t.m
B
5t
T
1.
List-II
S
+
+
B.M.D.
B.M.D.
2.
A
22. The reaction R in the given figure is ___________
kN.
54 kN 27 kN 3.
M
A 60° B
3 C
4 3m 3m 1.5m
R 4.
(a) 10.4 (b) 122.05
Codes :
(c) 20.8 (d) 61.025
S
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(6)
uniform at the maximum bending moment
70 mm
cross-section.
x x 28. For a material which is very strong in
compression and very weak in tension, the ideal
50 mm
shape of the cross-section to resist bending
moment will be
R
1. A flitched beam has a composite section
made of two or more materials joined 50 mm
together in such a manner that they behave
E
as a unit piece and each material bends to 50 mm 75 mm
the same radius of curvature. 200 mm
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(7)
Directions: The following Fiften items consist of 34. Assertion (A) : A horizontal beam hinged
two statements, one labelled the ‘Assertion A’ and at one end and freely supported at the other
the other labelled the Reason R’. You are to examine end will be in static equilibrium under
these two statements carefully and decide if the inclined load applied on it.
Assertion A and the ‘Reason R’ are individually Reason (R) : The hinged end will offer
true and if so, whether the Reason is a correct resistance to be the horizontal component of
explanation of the Assertion. Select your answers the applied force.
to these items using the codes give below and mark
your answer sheet accordingly. 35. Assertion (A) : The angle section and
channel section are not an efficient beam
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the shape.
correct explanation of A
Reason (R) : In I-section higher percentage
(b) Both A and R true but R is not a correct
of material concentration in the flange results
explanation of A
in lesser elastic section modulus for the same
(c) A is true but R is false mass per unit length.
R
(d) A is false but R is true 36. Assertion (A): A beam of circular section is
32. Assertion (A): A material is incompressible stronger in shear compared to one of
if its Poisson’s ratio is 0.25. rectangular section having same cross-section
E
area.
Reason (R) : The Bulk modulus K is related
to Modulus of elasticity E and to Poisson’s Reason (R): For equal cross-sectional areas
33.
ratio as per well known relationship.
Assertion (A): soft rubber is a very ductile
T and shearing force, the maximum intensity
of shear stress in the section of a beam of
circular cross-section is smaller than that for
S
material
the rectangular section.
Reason (R) : soft rubber exhibits very large
37. Assertion (A) : A hollow shaft will transmit
strains
A
a greater torque than a solid shaft of the
same weight and same material.
Reason (R) : The average shear stress in
M
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