GOVERNMENT COLLEGE FOR WOMEN (A), KUMBAKONAM

DEPARTMENT OF COMPUTER SCIENCE – I M.Sc (COMPUTER SCIENCE)

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS - DISTRIBUTED OPERATING SYSTEM

SUB CODE: P21CSC205

UNIT-I
1. In distributed system, each processor has its own ___________
a) local memory b) clock
c) both local memory and clock d) none of the mentioned
Ans: c
2. If one site fails in distributed system then ___________
a) the remaining sites can continue operating b) all the sites will stop working
c) directly connected sites will stop working d) none of the mentioned
Ans: a
3. Network operating system runs on ___________
a) server b) every system in the network
c) both server and every system in the network d) none of the mentioned
Ans: a

4. Which technique is based on compile-time program transformation for accessing remote data
in a distributed-memory parallel system?
a) cache coherence scheme b) computation migration
c) remote procedure call d) message passing
Ans: b

5. Logical extension of computation migration is ___________

a) process migration b) system migration
c) thread migration d) data migration
Ans: a
6. Processes on the remote systems are identified by ___________
a) host ID b) host name and identifier
c) identifier d) process ID
Ans: b
7. Which routing technique is used in a distributed system?
a) fixed routing b) virtual routing
c) dynamic routing d) all of the mentioned
Ans: d
8. In distributed systems, link and site failure is detected by ___________
a) polling b) handshaking
c) token passing d) none of the mentioned
Ans: b
9. The capability of a system to adapt the increased service load is called ___________
a) scalability b) tolerance
c) capacity d) none of the mentioned
Ans: a
10. Internet provides _______ for remote login.
a) telnet b) http
c) ftp d) rpc
Ans: a
11. What is not true about a distributed system?
a) It is a collection of processor b) All processors are synchronized
c) They do not share memory d) None of the mentioned
Ans: b

12. What are the characteristics of processor in distributed system?

a) They vary in size and function b) They are same in size and function
c) They are manufactured with single purpose d) They are real-time devices
Ans: a
13. What are the characteristics of a distributed file system?
a) Its users, servers and storage devices are dispersed
b) Service activity is not carried out across the network
c) They have single centralized data repository
d) There are multiple dependent storage devices
Ans: a
14. What is not a major reason for building distributed systems?
a) Resource sharing b) Computation speedup
c) Reliability d) Simplicity
Ans: d

15. What are the types of distributed operating system?

a) Network Operating system b) Zone based Operating system
c) Level based Operating system d) All of the mentioned
Ans: a
16. What are characteristic of Network Operating Systems?
a) Users are aware of multiplicity of machines b) They are transparent
c) They are simple to use d) All of the mentioned
Ans: a
17. How is access to resources of various machines is done?
a) Remote logging using ssh or telnet b) Zone are configured for automatic access
c) FTP is not used d) All of the mentioned
Ans: a

18. What are the characteristics of Distributed Operating system?

a) Users are aware of multiplicity of machines b) Access is done like local resources
c) Users are aware of multiplicity of machines d) They have multiple zones to access files
Ans: b
19. What are the characteristics of data migration?
a) transfer data by entire file or immediate portion required
b) transfer the computation rather than the data
c) execute an entire process or parts of it at different sites
d) none of the mentioned
Ans: a
20. What are the characteristics of computation migration?
a) transfer data by entire file or immediate portion required
b) transfer the computation rather than the data
c) execute an entire process or parts of it at different sites
d) none of the mentioned
Ans: b
21. What are the characteristics of process migration?
a) transfer data by entire file or immediate portion required
b) transfer the computation rather than the data
c) execute an entire process or parts of it at different sites
d) none of the mentioned
Ans: c
22. What are the parts of network structure?
a) Workstation b) Gateway
c) Laptop d) All of the mentioned
Ans: d
23. What is a valid network topology?
a) Multiaccess bus b) Ring
c) Star d) All of the mentioned
Ans: d
24. What are sites in network topology compared?
a) Basic cost b) Communication cost
c) Reliability d) All of the mentioned
Ans: d
25. Which design features of a communication network are important?
a) Naming and name resolution b) Routing strategies
c) Connection strategies d) All of the mentioned
Ans: d
26. What are the characteristics of Naming and Name resolution?
a) name systems in the network b) address messages with the process-id
c) virtual circuit d) message switching
Ans: b
27. What are routing strategies which is not used in distributed systems?
a) Fixed routing b) Token routing
c) Virtual circuit d) Dynamic routing
Ans: c
28. What are the connection strategies not used in distributed systems?
a) Circuit switching b) Message switching
c) Token switching d) Packet switching
Ans: c
29. How is are collisions avoided in network?
a) Carrier sense with multiple access (CSMA); collision detection (CD)
b) Carrier sense multiple access with collision avoidance
c) Message slots
d) All of the mentioned
Ans: d
30. What is a common problem found in distributed system?
a) Process Synchronization b) Communication synchronization
c) Deadlock problem d) Power failure
Ans: c
31. How many layers does the Internet model ISO consist of?
a) Three b) Five
c) Seven d) Eight
Ans: c
32.Which layer is responsible for The process-to-process delivery?
a) Network b) Transport
c) Application d) Physical
Ans: b
33. Which layer is the layer closest to the transmission medium?
a) Physical b) Data link
c) Network d) Transport
Ans: a
34. Header are ______ when data packet moves from upper to the lower layers?
a) Modified b) Removed
c) Added d) All of the mentioned
Ans: c
35. Which layer lies between the transport layer and data link layer?
a) Physical b) Network
c) Application d) Session
Ans: b
36. Which of the following is an application layer service?
a) Mail service b) File transfer
c) Remote access d) All of the mentioned
Ans: d
37.What are the different ways distributed may suffer?
a) Failure of a link b) Failure of a site
c) Loss of message d) All of the mentioned
Ans: d
38.What are design issues in distributed system structure?
a) Scalability b) Fault-tolerance
c) Clustering d) All of the mentioned
Ans: d
39. In which OSI layer encryption and decryption happens?
a) Application b) Presentation
c) Transport d) Data Link
Ans: b
40. What are the important steps followed when recovery from failure happens?
a) Post repairing integration with main system should happen smoothly and gracefully
b) Upon link failure both parties at end must not be notified
c) Fault recovery system must me adjusted
d) Failures are logged systematically
Ans: a
41. What are the different ways in which clients and servers are dispersed across machines?
a) Servers may not run on dedicated machines
b) Servers and clients can be on same machines
c) Distribution cannot be interposed between a OS and the file system
d) OS cannot be distributed with the file system a part of that distribution
Ans: b

42. What are not the characteristics of a DFS?

a) login transparency and access transparency
b) Files need not contain information about their physical location
c) No Multiplicity of users
d) No Multiplicity if files
Ans: c

43. What are characteristic of a DFS?

a) Fault tolerance b) Scalability
c) Heterogeneity of the system d) Upgradation
Ans: d

44.What are the different ways file accesses take place?

a) sequential access b) direct access
c) indexed sequential access d) all of the mentioned
Ans: d

45. Which is not a major component of a file system?

a) Directory service b) Authorization service
c) Shadow service d) System service
Ans: c
46. What are the different ways mounting of the file system?
a) boot mounting b) auto mounting
c) explicit mounting d) all of the mentioned
Ans: d
47. What is the advantage of caching in remote file access?
a) Reduced network traffic by retaining recently accessed disk blocks
b) Faster network access
c) Copies of data creates backup automatically
d) None of the mentioned
Ans: a
48. What is networked virtual memory?
a) Caching b) Segmentation
c) RAM disk d) None of the mentioned
Ans: a

49. What are the examples of state information?

a) opened files and their clients b) file descriptors and file handles
c) current file position pointers d) all of the mentioned
Ans: d
50.Which is not an example of state information?
a) Mounting information b) Description of HDD space
c) Session keys d) Lock status
Ans: b
51. _____ model consist of multiple work stations coupled with powerful servers with extra
hardware to store the file system s and other software like databases
a)Workstation model b)Workstation -server model
c)Processor-pool model d)Client-server model
Ans:b
52. A data consistency model in which shared data are made consistent when a critical region is
exited.
a)Casual consistency b) Sequential consistency
c)Release consistency d)Strict consistency
Ans:c
53. In distributed file system, when a file’s physical storage location changes
a)file name need to be changed b)file name need not to be changed
c)file’s host name need to be changed d)file’s local name need to be changed
Ans:a
54. The data sequence of information that is time-dependent is called ___________
a)Stream of data b)traditional data
c) transactional data d) spatial data
Ans:a
55. Single coordinator approach has the following disadvantages : i.Simple implementation,
ii.Simple deadlock handling, iii.Bottleneck
a) i b) ii
c) ii and iii d) iii
Ans:d
56. The V-system in distributed computing system is based on ______.
a)Workstation model b)Workstation -server model
c)Processor-pool model d)Client-server model
Ans:b
57. RPC allows a computer program to cause a subroutine to execute in _________
a)Its own address space
b)Another address space
c) Both its own address space and another address space
d) Applications address space
Ans:b
58. What are the advantages of file replication?
a) Improves availability & performance b)Decreases performance
c) Decreases availability d) Increases Cost
Ans:a
59. Distributed OS functions on the ________ principle
a) File Foundation b)Single system image
c) Multi system image d)Networking image
Ans:b
60. Distributed pervasive system is also known as
a) Ubiquitous computing b)User Interface design
c) Graphical User interface d) peer to peer system
Ans:a
 UNIT-II

1. What is a stateless file server?

a) It keeps tracks of states of different objects
b) It maintains internally no state information at all
c) It maintains some information in them
d) None of the mentioned
Ans: b

2. What are the characteristics of the stateless server?

a) Easier to implement
b) They are not fault-tolerant upon client or server failures
c) They store all information file server
d) They are redundant to keep data safe
Ans: a
3. Implementation of a stateless file server must not follow?
a) Idempotency requirement b) Encryption of keys
c) File locking mechanism d) Cache consistency
Ans: b
4. What are the advantages of file replication?
a) Improves availability & performance b) Decreases performance
c) They are consistent d) Improves speed
Ans: a
5. A distributed system contains _____ nodes.
a)zero node b)one node
c)two node d)multiple node
Ans : d
6. All the nodes in distributed system communicate with each other and handle processes in
tandem.
a) True b) False
c) Can be true or false d) Cannot say
Ans : a
7. The nodes in the distributed systems can be arranged in the form of?
a)client/server systems b)peer to peer systems
c)Both A and B d)None of the above
Ans : c
8. In which system, tasks are equally divided between all the nodes?
a) client/server systems b) peer to peer systems
c) user to client system d) All of the above
Ans : b
9. A process is _________________
program in main memory Program in cache memory program in secondary storage
program in execution
Ans :d
10. Storage of firmware is –
a)ROM b)RAM
c)External Cache d) memory
Ans:a
11. The segment of code in which the process may change common variables, update tables,
write into files is known as ____________
a)program b)critical section
c)non – critical section d)synchronizing
Ans:b
12.Lamport’s algorithm is used for __________synchronization
a)Deadlock b)Physical Clock
c)Logical Clock d)Election process
Ans:c
12. In RPC, _________________ handles transmission of messages across the network between
client and the server machine
a)Rpc transmission b)Rpc runtime
c)Rpc communication d)Rpc interface
Ans:b
13. No special machines manage the network of architecture in which resources are known as
a)Peer-to-Peer b)Space based
c)Tightly coupled d) Loosely coupled
Ans:a
14. What is DGC?
a)Distributed Garbage Collection b)Digital Garbage Collection
c)Distributed Garbage Connection d)Digital Garbage Connection
Ans:a
15. RPC allows a computer program to cause a subroutine to execute in _________
a)Its own address space b)Another address space
c)Both its own address space and another address space d)Applications address space
Ans:b
16. What are the advantages of file replication?
a)Improves availability & performance b) Decreases performance
c)Decreases availability d)Increases Cost
Ans:a
17. The difference between logical and physical clocks ?
a)Logical clocks measure the time of day and Physical clocks are used to mark relationships
among events in a distributed system.
b)Both are the same
c)Physical clocks measure the time of day and Logical clocks are used to mark relationships
among events in a distributed system.
d)Physical clock and logical clock do not work in distributed system
Ans:c
18. hides differences in data representation and the way an object can be accessed
a)Location transparency b)Access transparency
c)Migration transparency d)Replication transparency
Ans:b
19. A relative name defines a path from the _________ context to the specified object.
a)Root b)current
c)absolute d)relative
Ans:b
20. IP packet is encapsulated in a
a)data link layer b) physical layer
c) network layer d) transport layer
Ans:a
21. Hide the failure and recovery of a resource is known as which transparency
a)Failure b)Location
c)Migration d)Relocation
Ans:a
22. Which of the following is not Message Ordering Multicast
a)Unordered multicasts b)FIFO-ordered multicasts
c)Causally-ordered multicasts d)LIFO-ordered multicasts
Ans:d
23. Time interval from a request send to its critical region execution completed is called
________.
a)System throughput b)Message complexity
c)Synchronization delay d) Response time
Ans:d
24. Type of cluster computing is
a)Load sharing cluster b)Load holding cluster
c)Load replication cluster d)Load balancing cluster
Ans:d
25. Storing a separate copy of the database at multiple locations is which of the following?
a)Data Replication b)Horizontal Partitioning
c)Vertical Partitioning d)Horizontal and Vertical Partitioning
Ans:a
26. ------determines when it will be necessary to transfer the process from one node to another.
a)Selection policy b)Transfer policy
c) Location policy d) Security policy
Ans:b
27. A server changes from the correct flow of control______.
a)Crash Failure b)Byzantine failure
c)Response Failure d)Timing Failure
Ans:c
28. The process initiated by a method invocation, which may result in further invocations on
methods in other objects is called
a)A creation b)An action
c) A reaction d) An invitation
Ans:b
29. --------is a process that prevents multiple threads or processes from accessing shared
resources at the same time.
a)Critical section b) Deadlock
c) Message passing d)Mutual Exclusion
Ans:d
30. Remote login is a best example of ____.
a)Distributed OS b)Disk OS
c)Network OS d)MAC OS
Ans:c

31. Synchronization tool is?

a)Thread b)Pipe
c)Semaphore d)Socket
Ans:c
32. Utilization rate of resources in an execution model is known to be its –
a)Adaptation b) Efficiency
c)Flexibility d)Dependability
Ans:b
33. Middleware is an application that logically lives (mostly) in the
a)Application layer b)Transport layer
c) IP packet d)Presentation packet
Ans:a
34. Which of the following are the types of Path names?
a)absolute & relative b)local & global
c) global & relative d)relative & local
Ans:a
35. Distributed OS functions on the ________ principle
a)File Foundation b)Single system image
c)Multi system image d)Networking image
Ans:b
36. Distributed pervasive system is also known as
a)Ubiquitous computing b)User Interface design
c) Graphical User interface d) peer to peer system
Ans:a
37. A system can easily add more users and resources to the system without any noticeable loss
of performance is called ______
a)Geographical scalability b)Size scalability
c) Administative scalability d) Financial scalability
Ans:b
38. This is not a Common mode of communication in Distributed system –
a)RPC b)RMI
c)Message passing d)Shared memory
Ans:d
39. What is interprocess communication?
a)Communication within the process b)Communication between two process
c)Communication between two threads of same process d)Communication of process
Ans:b
40. A process can enter into its critical section ____________
a)Anytime
b)When it receives a reply message from its parent process
c)When it receives a reply message from all other processes in the system
d)When it receives a reply message from its child process
Ans:c
41. Process Fail - Stop in process omission faults
a)Can be detected in synchronous system.
b)Can be detected in asynchronous system.
c)Can be detected in synchronous and asynchronous system.
d)Can be detected in standalone system.
Ans:a
42. _______ all related objects moved and left to a server upon the first RPC
a)Call by value b) Call by move
c)Call by visit d) Call by reference
Ans:b
43. Which is NOT the characteristic of a DFS?
a)Reliability b)Scalability
c)Transperency d)Upgradation
Ans:d
44. What are characteristics of processor in distributed system ?
a)They vary in size and function b)They are same in size and function
c)They are manufactured with single purpose d)They are real-time devices
Ans:a
45. What are the characteristics of data migration?
a)transfer data by entire file or immediate portion required
b)transfer the computation rather than the data
c)execute an entire process or parts of it at different sites
d)execute limited portion of data
Ans:a
46. When the process issues an I/O request __________
a)It is placed in an I/O queue b)It is placed in a waiting queue
c)It is placed in the ready queue d)It is placed in the Job queue
Ans:a
47. Process synchronization can be done on which of the following levels
a)hardware b)software
c)both hardware and software d)BIOS
Ans:c
48. The hardware of DS has two types
a)multiprocessor system,multicomputer system
b)multiprocessor system,unicomputer system
c)uniprocessor system,multicomputer system
d)uniprocessor system,unicomputer system
Ans:a
49. Client Initiated Replicas are used
a)to improve load balancing b)to improve resource sharing
c)to improve access time to data d)to improve the performance
Ans:c
50. Which algorithms are used for selecting a process to act as coordinator or sequencer?
I. Centralized algorithm II. Election algorithm III. Ring algorithm IV. Chandy-Misra-Haas
algorithm
a)II and IV b)II, III, IV
c)II and III d)II
Ans: c

51. Select correct option for the message(Mi) transmission case "Mi must be delivered before mj
if Ti < Tj
a)Absolute Ordering b) Consistent Ordering
c)Causal Ordering d)total ordering
Ans:a

52. Which of the following is not Message Ordering Multicast

a)Unordered multicasts b) FIFO-ordered multicasts
c)Causally-ordered multicasts d)LIFO-ordered multicasts
Ans:d

53. The process initiated by a method invocation, which may result in further invocations on
methods in other objects is called
a)A creation b)An action
c) A reaction d) An invitation
Ans:b

54. __ is a process that prevents multiple threads or processes from accessing shared resources at
the same time.
a)Critical section b) Deadlock
c)Message passing d)Mutual Exclusion
Ans:d

55. Process synchronization can be done on which of the following levels

a)Hardware b)software
c) both hardware and software d) BIOS
Ans:c

56. Why is Lamports algorithm said to be fair?

a)Time is determined by logical clocks
b)Time is synchronized
c)Timestamp ordering is deployed
d)A request for Critical Section are executed in the order of their timestamps and time is
determined by logical clocks.
Ans:d

57. What is common problem found in distributed system ?

a)Process Synchronization b)Communication synchronization
c)Deadlock problem d)Power failure
Ans:c

58. Which of the following algorithm is Token Based Algorithm for Mutual Exclusion
a)Lamport Algorithm b)Ricart–Agrawala‘s Algorithm
c)Suzuki-Kasami‘s Broadcast Algorithms d)Maekawa‘s Algorithm
Ans:c

59. A replica set can have only ________ primary.

a)One b) two
c) three d) zero
Ans:b
60. Transient communication with synchronization after the request has been fully processed is
also widely used in
a)IPC b)RPC
c)MPC d)Message Passing
Ans:b
 UNIT-III

1. Which of the following is not a type of symmetric-key cryptography technique?

a)Caesar cipher b)Data Encryption Standard (DES)
c)Diffie Hellman cipher d)Playfair cipher
Ans: c
2) Which of the following is not a principle of data security?
a)Data Confidentiality b)Data Integrity
c)Authentication d)None of the above
Ans: d
3) Which of the following security attacks is not an active attack?
OR Which of the following attacks is a passive attack?
a)Masquerade b)Modification of message
c)Denial of service d)Traffic analysis
Ans: d
4) Which of the following options correctly defines the Brute force attack?
a)Brutally forcing the user to share the useful information like pins and passwords.
b)Trying every possible key to decrypt the message.
c)One entity pretends to be some other entity
d)The message or information is modified before sending it to the receiver.
Ans: b
5) "A key is a string of bits used by a cryptographic algorithm to transform plain text into
ciphertext." Which of the following is capable of becoming a key in a cryptographic algorithm?
a)An integer values b)A square matrix
c)An array of characters (i.e. a string) d)All of the above
Ans: d
6) A mechanism used to encrypt and decrypt data.
a)Cryptography b)Algorithm
c)Data flow d)None of these
Ans: a
7) To encrypt the plaintext, a cryptographic algorithm works in combination with a key...
a)Word, number, or phrase b))Special Symbol
c)Function Keys d)All of these
Ans: a
8) The plaintext encrypts to different cipher text with different keys
a)True b)False
Ans: a
9) Conventional cryptography also known as ... encryption.
a)asymmetric-key b)logical-key
c)symmetric-key d)None of these
Ans: c
10) The Data Encryption Standard (DES) is an example of a ...
a)Conventional cryptosystem b)Asymmetric cryptosystem
c)Caesar's cryptosystem d)All of these
Ans: a
11) Public key cryptography is a ... cryptosystem
a)Symmetric b) Asymmetric
c)Symmetric & Asymmetric both d)None of these
Ans:b
12) Security Goals of Cryptography are
a)Confidentiality b)Authenticity
c) Data integrity d)Non-repudiation
e)All of these
Ans: e
13) A process of studying cryptographic system is known as Cryptanalysis
a)True b)False
Ans: a) True
14) Cipher in cryptography is –
a)Encrypted message
b)Algorithm for performing encryption and decryption
c)Both algorithm for performing encryption and decryption and encrypted message
d)Decrypted message
Ans: b
15) The private key in asymmetric key cryptography is kept by
a)Sender b)Receiver
c)Sender and receiver d)All the connected devices to the network
Ans: b
16) Which one of the following algorithms is not used in asymmetric-key cryptography?
a)DSA algorithm b)Electronic code book algorithm
c)Diffie-Hellman algorithm d)RSA algorithm
Ans: b
17) Which is the cryptographic protocol that is used to protect an HTTP connection?
a)Resource reservation protocol b)SCTP
c)TLS d) ECN
Ans: c
18) A key is a value that works with a cryptographic algorithm to produce a specific cipher text.
a)True b)False
Ans: a
19) A Public key size and conventional cryptography’s secret key size are closely related with
one another.
a)True b)False
Ans: b
20) ElGamal encryption system is an asymmetric key encryption algorithm.
a)Public-key cryptography b)Private-key cryptography
c) Both d)None of these
Ans: a
21. Which of the following are forms of malicious attack?
a) Theft of information b) Modification of data
c) Wiping of information d) All of the mentioned
Ans: d
22. What are the common security threats?
a) File Shredding b) File sharing and permission
c) File corrupting d) File integrity
Ans: b.
23. From the following, which is not a common file permission?
a) Write b) Execute
c) Stop d) Read
Ans: c

24. Which of the following is a good practice?

a) Give full permission for remote transferring
b) Grant read only permission
c) Grant limited permission to specified account
d) Give both read and write permission but not execute
Ans: c

25. What is not a good practice for user administration?

a) Isolating a system after a compromise b) Perform random auditing procedures
c) Granting privileges on a per host basis d) Using telnet and FTP for remote access
Ans: d
26. Which of the following is the least secure method of authentication?
a) Key card b) fingerprint
c) retina pattern d) Password
Ans: d

27. Which of the following is a strong password?

a) 19thAugust88 b) Delhi88
c) P@assw0rd d) !augustdelhi
Ans: c

28. Why is one time password safe?

a) It is easy to generated b) It cannot be shared
c) It is different for every access d) It is a complex encrypted password
Ans: c

29. What does Light Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) doesn’t store?
a) Users b) Address
c) Passwords d) Security Keys
Ans: b

30. What is characteristic of RADIUS system?

a) It is essential for centralized encryption and authentication
b) It works on Network layer to deny access to unauthorized people
c) It provides centralized authentication mechanism via network devices
d) It’s a strong File access system
Ans: c.
31. Which happens first authorization or authentication?
a) Authorization b) Authentication
c) Authorization & Authentication are same d) None of the mentioned
Ans: a

32. What are the characteristics of Authorization?

a) RADIUS and RSA b) 3 way handshaking with syn and fin
c) Multilayered protection for securing resources d) Deals with privileges and rights
Ans: d.

33. What forces the user to change password at first login?

a) Default behavior of OS b) Part of AES encryption practice
c) Devices being accessed forces the user d) Account administrator
Ans: d

34. What is not a best practice for password policy?

a) Deciding maximum age of password b) Restriction on password reuse and history
c) Password encryption d) Having change password every 2 years
Ans: d

35. DoS is abbreviated as _____________________

a) Denial of Service b) Distribution of Server
c) Distribution of Service d) Denial of Server
Ans: a

36. A DoS attack coming from a large number of IP addresses, making it hard to manually filter
or crash the traffic from such sources is known as a _____________
a) GoS attack b) PDoS attack
c) DoS attack d) DDoS attack
Ans: d
37. DDoS stands for _________________
a) Direct Distribution of Server b) Distributed Denial of Service
c) Direct Distribution of Service d) Distributed Denial of Server
Ans: b
38. ___________ is a type of DoS threats to overload a server as it sends a large number of
requests requiring resources for handling & processing.
a) Network Layer DoS b) Physical Layer DoS
c) Transport Layer DoS d) Application Layer DoS
Ans: d
39. A digital signature is a mathematical technique which validates?
a) authenticity b) integrity
c) Non-repudiation d). All of the above
Ans :d
40. _____________ is a process which verifies the identity of a user who wants to access the
system.
a)Authentication b) Non-repudiation
c) Integrity d) None of the above
Ans : a
41. _____________ ensures that the message is real, accurate and safeguards from unauthorized
user modification during the transmission.
a)Authentication b)Non-repudiation
c) Integrity d) None of the above
Ans :c
42. How many algorithms digital signature consists of?
a) 2 b) 3
c) 4 d) 5
Ans : b
43. A _________ produces a signature for the document.
a) Key generation algorithm b) Signature verifying algorithm
c) Signing algorithm d) Authentication
Ans : c
44. Which algorithm algorithm provides the private key and its corresponding public key?
a)Key generation algorithm b)Signature verifying algorithm
c) Signing algorithm d)None of the above
Ans :a
45. Which of the following is not a type of digital signature?
a) Approval Signatures b) Non-Certified Signatures
c) Visible Digital Signature d) Invisible Digital Signature
Ans : b

46. Which signature allows a user to sign a single document digitally?

a) Approval Signatures b) Certified Signatures
c) Visible Digital Signature d) Invisible Digital Signature
Ans : c
47. Which signature contains the name of the document signer and the certificate issuer?
a) Approval Signatures b) Certified Signatures
c)Visible Digital Signature d)Invisible Digital Signature
Ans :b
48. Which signatures include details such as an image of our physical signature, location, date,
and official seal?
a) Approval Signatures b)Certified Signatures
c) Visible Digital Signature d) Invisible Digital Signature
Ans : a
49. Which of the following is considered as the unsolicited commercial email?
a)Virus b)Malware
c)Spam d)All of the above
Ans: c
50. Which of the following usually observe each activity on the internet of the victim, gather all
information in the background, and send it to someone else?
a)Malware b)Spyware
c)Adware d)All of the above
Ans: b
51. There are _________ types of computer virus.
a) 5 b) 7
c) 10 d) 12
Ans: c

52. Which of the following is not a type of virus?

a) Boot sector b) Polymorphic
c) Multipartite d) Trojans
Ans: d

53. A computer ________ is a malicious code which self-replicates by copying itself to other
programs.
a) program b) virus
c) application d) worm
Ans: b
54. Which of them is not an ideal way of spreading the virus?
a) Infected website b) Emails
c) Official Antivirus CDs d) USBs
Ans: c
55. In which year Apple II virus came into existence?
a) 1979 b) 1980
c) 1981 d) 1982
Ans: c

56. The virus hides itself from getting detected by ______ different ways.
a) 2 b) 3
c) 4 d) 5
Ans: b

57. _______________ infects the master boot record and it is challenging and a complex task to
remove this virus.
a) Boot Sector Virus b) Polymorphic
c) Multipartite d) Trojans
Ans: a

58. ________________ gets installed & stays hidden in your computer’s memory. It stays
involved to the specific type of files which it infects.
a) Boot Sector Virus b) Direct Action Virus
c) Polymorphic Virus d) Multipartite Virus
Ans: b
59. Direct Action Virus is also known as ___________
a) Non-resident virus b) Boot Sector Virus
c) Polymorphic Virus d) Multipartite Virus
Ans: a
60. ______________ infects the executables as well as the boot sectors.
a) Non-resident virus b) Boot Sector Virus
c) Polymorphic Virus d) Multipartite Virus
Ans: d
 UNIT-IV

1. What is Unix?
a) Unix is a programming language b) Unix is a software program
c) Unix is an operating system d) Unix is a text editor
Ans: c

2. The Unix shell is both _______ and _______ language.

a) scripting, interpreter b) high level, low level
c) interactive, responsive d) interpreter, executing
Ans: a.

3. In which language UNIX is written?

a) C++ b) C
c) JAVA d) Python
Ans: b

4. Which of the following is the first UNIX editor?

a) vi b) emacs
c) ex d) ed
Ans: d

5. Which of the following is not a feature of Unix?

a) multiuser b) easy to use
c) multitasking d) portability
Ans: b.

6. Which of the following is not true about Unix?

a) UNIX was not written in ‘C’ language
b) Linux is also known as a version of UNIX
c) A user can run multiple programs at the same time; hence UNIX is called a multitasking
environment
d) Many people can use a UNIX based computer at the same time; hence UNIX is called as a
multiuser system
Ans: a.

7. Which editor is used by the Unix system to edit files?

a) word b) notepad++
c) vi d) notepad
Ans: c
8. Which of the following is not a part of all the versions of Unix?
a) System Calls b) Graphical user interface
c) Kernel and Shell d) Commands and utilities
Ans: b

9. Which part of the Unix operating system interacts with the hardware?
a) Application program b) Vi editor
c) Shell d) Kernel
Ans: d
10. Which command is used to display the documentation of commands in Unix?
a) man b) whatis
c) help d) search
Ans: a

11. Which Unix command is used for changing the current directory?
a) pwd b) rm
c) cd d) cp
Ans: c

12. Which command is used for printing the current working directory?
a) dir b) HOME
c) cd d) pwd
Ans: d

13. Which command is used for listing files in a directory?

a) list b) ls
c) wc d) ps
Ans: b

14. Which command is used by the user to change their login password in Unix?
a) cp b) man
c) reset d) passwd
Ans: d

15. Which command is used for displaying the contents of a file in Unix?
a) mkdir b) cat
c) rm d) cp
Ans: b
16. Which command is used to compress files?
a) gzip b) gunzip
c) comm. d) cmp
Ans: a
17. Which command is used for displaying the beginning of a file in Unix?
a) lp b) begin
c) pr d) head
Ans: d
18. Which symbol is used with the tail command to print the file from the selected line?
a) %% b) ^
c) + d) –
Ans: c
19. Which command is used to delete all files in a directory?
a) del * b) rm *
c) mv * d) rmdir *
Ans: b
20. echo command is used for _________
a) displaying diagnostic messages b) displaying date and time
c) displaying errors d) displaying operating system details
Ans: a
21. What is the function of cp command in Unix?
a) delete a given file b) change the directory
c) list all the available files in the current directory d) cp is a command used for copying files
and directories
Ans: d

22. Which command is used for removing/deleting files in Unix?

a) rm b) mv
c) rmdir d) del
Ans: a

23. Which command is used for renaming files in Unix?

a) rename b) move
c) mv d) cp
Ans: c

24. Which command is used for comparing two files?

a) comp b) cmp
c) comm. d) diff
Ans: b

25. Which Unix command is used for counting words, lines, and characters in a file?
a) wc b) man
c) count d) diff
Ans: a
26. In UNIX, which command is used to change the permissions of a file?
a) chown b) chgrp
c) chmod d) ch
Ans: c
.
27. Which symbol is used to change permissions for hidden files in Unix?
a) * b) $
c) & d) .
Ans: d

28. Which command is used for saving and quitting the vi editor simultaneously?
a) ‘:x’ b) :f
c) :q d) :w
Ans: a

29. How can we escape to the UNIX shell without quitting vi editor?
a) using ‘:sh’ command and using ctrl-Z b) using ‘:sh’ command
c) using ctrl-Z d) using ctrl-D
Ans: a

30. For creating and removing directories, which of the following system calls are used?
a) mkdir and rmdir b) rmdir and chown
c) chdir and chown d) mkdir and chdir
Ans: d
31. Which of the following files are known as special files in Unix?
a) /dev/null b) sample.txt
c) /dev/null and /dev/tty d) /dev/tty
Ans: c

32. What is the output of the following Unix command?

$ wc -c *.c
a) size of each .c file b) total size of .c files
c) erroneous d) undefined
Ans: b

33. In Unix, for what purpose bc command is used?

a) for copying files b) as a process table viewer
c) as an editor d) as a calculator
Ans: d

34. Which process is immediately set up by the kernel when we log on to a Unix system?
a) System b) bash
c) shell d) parent
Ans: c.

35. Which command shows some attributes of a process?

a) HOME b) ps
c) $$ d) pid
Ans: b

36. Which of the following system call is used for creating a new process in Unix?
a) new b) wait
c) read d) fork
Ans: d.

37. Which of the following command is used to create a child shell?

a) sh b) env
c) wait d) fork
Ans: a

38. Which Unix command is used for locating files?

a) type b) loc
c) find d) search
Ans: c

39. Which command is used for preparing a file for printing?

a) pr b) print
c) cat d) cd
Ans: a
40. Which command is used for sorting a file on specified fields?
a) pr b) cut
c) tail d) sort
Ans: d
41. Which Unix command is used for locating repeated and non-repeated lines?
a) cut b) paste
c) uniq d) sort
Ans: c

42. Which command is used for translating characters?

a) paste b) tr
c) trans d) sort
Ans: b

43. Which of the following command will be used for searching “director” in emp.lst?
a) grep “director” emp.lst b) grep -director emp.lst
c) grep -v “director” emp.lst d) grep “director”
Ans: a.

44. Which of the following command is used for searching for a pattern in one or more file(s)?
a) paste b) grep
c) cd d) cp
Ans: b.

45. Which of the following commands is known as stream editor?

a) grep b) tr
c) sed d) td
Ans: c.

46. What is a shell script?

a) group of functions b) a file containing a series of commands
c) a file containing special symbols d) group of commands
Ans: b.

47. To run the script, we should make it executable first by using _____
a) chmod +w b) chmod +rwx
c) chmod +x d) chmod +r
Ans: c.

48. Which command is used for acquiring superuser status?

a) su b) pu
c) super d) admn
Ans: a

49. Which command is used to find out the consumption of a specific directory?
a) mem b) dv
c) du d) df
Ans: c.

50. Which filter apart from perl, is the most powerful?

a) awk b) grep
c) cut d) sed
Ans: a
51. For running a Unix command within awk, we’ve to use ____ function.
a) split b) system
c) substr d) length
Ans: b

52. To extract specific columns from a file ____ command is used.

a) cut b) pr
c) head d) tail
Ans: a

53. Which of the following cannot be performed by cat command?

a) appending files b) deleting files
c) creating files d) displaying files
Ans: b

54. What is the default delimiter used by the cut command for cutting fields?
a) underscore b) space
c) tab d) double tab
Ans: c

55. Which of the following is not an internal command used by mailx?

a) d b) N
c) a d) q
Ans: c

56. A file is a container for storing information.

a) Trueb) False
Ans: a
57. In how many broad categories, files are divided into UNIX?
a) 2 b) 4
c) 5 d) 3
Ans: d
58. In UNIX, the file name and file size are stored in the file itself.
a) Trueb) False
Ans: b
59. The most common file type is ___
a) ordinary file b) directory file
c) device file d) ordinary file and directory file
Ans: a
60. What is a directory file?
a) a directory containing data
b) a directory containing details of the files and subdirectories it contains
c) a directory contains files
d) a directory containing data and files
Ans: b
 UNIT-V

1. Each entry of directory file has component(s) namely _____

a) filename b) inode number
c) filename and inode number d) file size
Ans: c

2. Device files are used by the kernel for operating the device.
a) True b) False
Ans: a

3. When we log in, the UNIX places us in a directory, called ______ directory
a) home b) main
c) parent d) current
Ans: a

4. UNIX treats everything as a file.

a) True b) False
Ans: a

5. The root directory is represented by ___

a) \ b) /
c) * d) $
Ans: b.

6. UNIX imposes no rule for framing filename extensions.

a) True b) False
Ans: a

7. _____ and _____ cannot be used in a filename.

a) /, NULL b) $,^
c) ., % d) NULL, $
Ans: a.
8. Filenames in UNIX are not case-sensitive.
a) True b) False
Ans: b
9. We should avoid filenames starting with a – (hyphen).
a) True b) False
Ans: a
10. A file can be recognized as an ordinary file or directory by ____ symbol.
a) $ b) –
c) * d) /
Ans: b

11. How many types of permissions a file has in UNIX?

a) 1 b) 2
c) 3 d) 4
Ans: c.
12. Permissions of a file are represented by which of the following characters?
a) r,w,x b) e,w,x
c) x,w,e d) e,x,w
Ans:a.

13. Which of the following symbol is used to indicate the absence of a permission of a file?
a) $ b) &
c) + d) –
Ans: d

14. When we create a file, we are the owner of a file.

a) True b) False
Ans: a
15. What is group ownership?
a) group of users who can access the file b) group of users who can create the file
c) group of users who can edit the file d) group of users who can delete the file
Ans: a
16. A file has permissions as rwx r– —. A user other than the owner cannot edit the file.
a) True b) False
Ans: a
17. If a file is read protected, we can write to the file.
a) True b) False
Ans: b
18. The write permission for a directory determines that ____________
a) we can write to a directory file b) we can read the directory file
c) we can execute the directory file d) we can add or remove files to it
Ans: d.
19. If the file is write-protected and the directory has to write permission then we cannot delete
the file.
a) True b) False
Ans: b
20. What is execute permission?
a) permission to execute the file b) permission to delete the file
c) permission to rename the file d) permission to search or navigate through the
directory
Ans: d
21. Which of the following is default permission set for ordinary files?
a) rw-rw-rw- b) rwxrwxrwx
c) r–r–r– d) rw-rw-rwx
Ans: a.
22. Which of the following is default permission set for directories?
a) rw-rw-rw- b) rwxrwxrwx
c) r–r–r– d) rw-rw-rwx
Ans: b
23. A file owner does not have a permission to edit the file but the group to which the file owner
belong do have the permission to edit it. Can owner edit the file?
a) Yes b) No
c) Cannot be defined d) Error will be encountered
Ans: b
24. A process is an instance of _______ program.
a) waiting b) executing
c) terminated d) halted
Ans: b

25. A process is said to be ____ when it starts its execution.

a) born b) die
c) waiting d) terminated
Ans: a

26. When the process has completed its execution it is called ______
a) born b) terminated
c) waiting d) exit
Ans: d

27. Programs and process are synonymous.

a) True b) False
Ans: b.

28. Which data structure is used to store information about a process?

a) process control block (pcb) b) array
c) queue d) program control block
Ans: a.

29. Some attributes of every process are maintained by the kernel in memory in a separate
structure called the ______
a) pcb b) task control block
c) process table d) task table
Ans: c

30. Process table and process control block store same attributes of a process.
a) True b) False
Ans: b

31. Each process is identified by a unique integer called ______

a) PID b) PPID
c) TID d) PTID
Ans: a

32. Every process has a parent process.

a) True b) False
Ans: a

33. The parent id of a child is called ______

a) PID b) PPID
c) TID d) PTID
Ans: b
34. Which process is immediately set up by the kernel when we log on to a UNIX system?
a) shell b) parent
c) shell d) bash
Ans: a

35. To know the PID of your current shell, which command will be used?
a) echo $$ b) echo $
c) $SHELL d) $PATH
Ans: a

36. The PID of our login shell doesn’t change.

a) True b) False
Ans: b

37. What is the PID of the first process that is set up when the system is booted?
a) 1 b) 0
c) any d) 2
Ans: b

38. Which of the following command doesn’t create a process?

a) pwd b) fork
c) cd d) pwd and cd
Ans: d

39. Which of the following variable wait within the to enable a process
a) a condition is defined by a condition variable
b) objects Boolean objects can be used by condition variables
c) semaphore must be used
d) all of the mentioned
e) both a and b
Ans:a

40. In which the access takes place when different processes try to access the same data
concurrently and the outcome of the execution depends on the specific order, is called
a) dynamic condition b) race condition
c) essential condition d) critical condition
e) both a and b
Ans: b

41.Synchronization tool is?

a)thread b)pipe
c)semaphore d)socket
Ans:c

42.A semaphore is a shared integer variable that cannot

a)drop below zero b)be more than zero
c)drop below one d)that cannot be more than one
Ans:a
43. An un-interruptible unit is known as ____________
a) single b) atomic
c) static d) none of the mentioned
Ans: b

44. TestAndSet instruction is executed ____________

a) after a particular process b) periodically
c) atomically d) none of the mentioned
Ans: c

45. Semaphore is a/an _______ to solve the critical section problem.

a) hardware for a system b) special program for a system
c) integer variable d) none of the mentioned
Ans: c

46. What are the two atomic operations permissible on semaphores?

a) wait b) stop
c) hold d) none of the mentioned
Ans: a

47. What are Spinlocks?

a) CPU cycles wasting locks over critical sections of programs
b) Locks that avoid time wastage in context switches
c) Locks that work better on multiprocessor systems
d) All of the mentioned
Ans: d

48. What is the main disadvantage of spinlocks?

a) they are not sufficient for many process
b) they require busy waiting
c) they are unreliable sometimes
d) they are too complex for programmers
Ans: b

49. The wait operation of the semaphore basically works on the basic _______ system call.
a) stop() b) block()
c) hold() d) wait()
Ans: b

50. The signal operation of the semaphore basically works on the basic _______ system call.
a) continue() b) wakeup()
c) getup() d) start()
Ans: b
51. If the semaphore value is negative ____________
a) its magnitude is the number of processes waiting on that semaphore
b) it is invalid
c) no operation can be further performed on it until the signal operation is performed on it
d) none of the mentioned
Ans: a
52. The code that changes the value of the semaphore is ____________
a) remainder section code b) non – critical section code
c) critical section code d) none of the mentioned
Ans: c

53. What are the two kinds of semaphores?

a) mutex & counting b) binary & counting
c) counting & decimal d) decimal & binary
Ans: b

54. What is a mutex?

a) is a binary mutex b) must be accessed from only one process
c) can be accessed from multiple processes d) none of the mentioned
Ans: b

55. A binary semaphore is a semaphore with integer values ____________

a) 1 b) -1
c) 0.8 d) 0.5
Ans: a

56. Semaphores are mostly used to implement ____________

a) System calls b) IPC mechanisms
c) System protection d) None of the mentioned
Ans: b

57. Spinlocks are intended to provide __________ only.

a) Mutual Exclusion b) Bounded Waiting
c) Aging d) Progress
Ans: b

58. Which option is used for counting the number of characters in a file only.
a) –l b) -W
c) –c d) -w
Ans: c

59. Which command is used for printing a file?

a) lp b) pr
c) pg d) more
Ans: a

60.UNIX offers a pager named ____ which has replaced the original pager of UNIX called ____
a) more, less b) less, more
c) more, pg d) pg, more
Ans: c