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2016

CLASS-VI / Paper Code - D

PART-I
IQ (MENTAL ABILITY)
This section contains 20 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. Find one letter that will complete the word in front of the circles and begin the word after the circles.
The same letter must fit into both sets of blanks.
CAR ? RUM SEN ? ART
(1) X (2) D (3) S (4) L
2. Choose one word out of a given alternatives, which cannot be formed from the letters of the word
CONSTRUCTION
(1) SUCTION (2) COINS (3) CAUTION (4) NOTION
3. Shyam is facing Railway Station. What he will be facing, if he turns 225° anticlockwise ?
Hotel
Park School

Garden Railway Station


Shyam

Mall Hospital
Temple
(1) Park (2) Mall (3) Temple (4) Garden
4. Find the directions which replaces '?' in the figure ?

E ?
(1) N (2) NE (3) S (4) SE
5. In a certain code language
AVIATOR = 103, FIXTURE = 86, then how DIVERSE is written in that language ?
(1) 102 (2) 107 (3) 105 (4) 106
6. Four friends A, B, C and D live in a same locality. The house of B is in the east of A's house but in
the north of C's house. The house of C is in the west of D's house. D's house is in which direction
of A's house?
(1) South-East (2) North-East (3) East (4) Data in adequate
7. How many letters are there in the word 'CREATIVE' which have as many letters between them in the
word as in the English Alphabets ?
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4

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8. In a certain code 'MONKEY' is written as OMNKYE, how is 'TIGERS' written in that code ?
(1) IGRTES (2) SERTIG (3) GITRES (4) ITGESR
Direction (Q.9 & Q.10): Study the following information to answer the given questions.
(i) Eight friends A, B, C, D, E, F, G & H are seated in a circle facing centre.
(ii) D is between B & G and F is between A & H.
(iii) E is second to the right of A.
9. Which of the following is A's position ?
(1) Left of F (2) Right of F (3) Between E and F (4) Can't be determined
10. Which of the statement are not required to ascertain the position of C ?
(1) (i) above (2) Either (ii) or (iii) above
(3) (iii) above (4) All are required
11. Find the wrong term .
1,2,6,15,31,56,91
(1) 2 (2) 6 (3) 31 (4) 91
12. Complete the following Pattern in the series
a _ _ a _ b _ b_ ab _ _ bb
(1) bbbabba (2) bbbbbbb (3) bababab (4) abbabba
13. Find missing term (?).
J2Z, K4X, I7V, ?, H16R, M22P
(1) L11T (2) L11S (3) L12T (4) L12S
14. Study the figure carefully and answer the given question.

D L H B
F
G

Here, big triangle represent artists, small triangle represents scientists, square represents dancers and
circle represents doctors.
Which letter represents the artists who are doctors and dancers only ?
(1) A (2) D (3) G (4) H
15. Choose the correct mirror image from the alternatives (1), (2), (3) and (4) of the figure (A).

(A)

(1) (2) (3) (4)

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CLASS-VI / Paper Code - D

16. Which of the following is the logical venn diagram of the given pair of words ?
Doctor, Male, Father.

(1) (2) (3) (4)

17. Choose the correct water image from the alternatives (1), (2), (3) & (4)
CALIBRE
(1) (2) (3) (4)
18. Choose the correct water image from the alternatives (1), (2), (3) and (4) of the figure (A).

(A)

(1) (2) (3) (4)

19. Choose the correct mirror image from the alternatives (1), (2), (3) & (4)

(1) (2) (3) (4)

20. Study the following letters and their corresponding digit codes followed by certain conditions of coding
and answer the question given below them by finding out which of the digit combinations given in
(1), (2), (3) and (4) is the coded form of the letter-groups given in the question and mark your answer
accordingly.

Letter P N A J I R E B U K
Digit Code 5 3 9 1 4 6 2 7 0 8
Conditions:
(1) If both the first and the last letters in the group are vowels, both should be coded as $.
(2) If both the first and the last letters in the group are consonants, both should be coded as #.
PRANAJ
(1) 569391 (2) $6939$
(3) #6939# (4) #6939$

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PART-II
SECTION-A : PHYSICS

This section contains 12 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.
21. A science class uses a marble, a softball, and a lamp to represent the moon, Earth, and the sun
respectively, as shown in the model below.

3 1

A solar eclipse would most likely be modelled when the marble is in position
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
22. Which of the following statement best describes how the four planets closest to the Sun are different
from the next four planets in our solar system ?
(1) The four closest planets are denser.
(2) The four closest planets have more moons.
(3) The four closest planets have greater diameters.
(4) The four closest planets take longer to complete one orbit.
23. The playground swing shown below is a type of pendulum.

Choose the option from below which exhibits same type of motion as by the girl in the picture.
(1) A fan rotating at constant speed. (2) The needle end of a sewing machine.
(3) A ball thrown upwards in air. (4) A cyclist moving in a straight line.
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24. The diagram below shows a light bulb, two objects X and Y and a screen.

Y P

X
R
S

On which point P, Q, R or S on the screen does shadow not fall on ?


(1) P (2) Q (3) R (4) S
25. Complete the analogy.
Firefly: Natural source : : ________: Man made source
(1) Star (2) Sun (3) Candle (4) Moon
26. Match the following.
Column A Column B
A. Translucent substance (a) Give out its own light
B. Opaque object (b) Through which light can pass partially
C. Reflection (c) Shadow cast by heavenly bodies
D. Luminous object (d) Bouncing back of light in same medium
E. Eclipse (e) Through which light can not pass
(1) A-a, B-d, C-e, D-b, E-c (2) A-b, B-e, C-d, D-a, E-c
(3) A-b, B-d, C-e, D-a, E-c (4) A-a, B-e, C-d, D-b, E-c
27. Rahul walks around a park every day. How much distance does he cover in 10 rounds ?

A 66 m B

85 m 75 m

D C
102 m

(1) 3280 km (2) 3.280 km


(3) 328 m (4) 32800 m
28. The metal wire is fixed between A and B as shown. When plucked it shows
(1) Translatory motion
(2) Vibratory motion Metal wire
A B
(3) Circular motion
(4) None of the above

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29. Select the correct comparison among the following.

Inner Planets Outer Planets


(1) Saturn, Uranus, Jupiter and Neptune Mercury, Venus, Earth and Mars
(2) Made of gases Made of rocks
(3) Mercury, Venus, Earth and Mars Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus and Neptune
(4) Have no solid surfaces Have solid surfaces

30. Which group has articles belonging to same class of simple machines ?

P Q R S
Fishing rod Crow bar Pulley Inclined plane
Nut cracker See saw Cycle-handle Ladder
Scissor Stapler Car-steering Ramp

(1) P (2) Q (3) R (4) S


31. The diagram below shows the path of a soccer ball as it travels from start to finish. The arrow represents
force acting on the ball.

Which force is represented by the arrow?


(1) Magnetic force (2) Gravitational force
(3) Electric force (4) Frictional force
32. The conveyor belt moves the groceries by transforming electrical energy into

Conveyor Belt

(1) thermal energy (2) light energy


(3) mechanical energy (4) solar energy
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SECTION-B : CHEMISTRY
This section contains 11 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.
33. Which of the following is not a gaseous state of matter ?
(1) Smoke (2) Rain
(3) Water vapour (4) Air
34. The picture shows some natural resources.

Which of the following is the major characteristic of all the above natural resources ?
(1) They are parts of the environment that we need or use to live.
(2) They are parts of the environment that are found underground.
(3) They are parts of the environment that give us energy.
(4) They are parts of the environment that cannot be recycled or reused.
35. Identify the material 'P' from the information given below.

P
Can be recycled
Bio-degradable
Non-toxic and useful

(1) Paper (2) Glass bottle


(3) Metal can (4) Plastic

Water + salt w
36. Mixture u
v Filtration

Indentify u, v and w.
u v w
(1) Liquid - liquid Sand + water Evaporation
(2) Liquid - liquid Acid + water Evaporation
(3) Solid - liquid Water + husk Evaporation
(4) Liquid - liquid Water + vegetable oil Evaporation
37. The spinner in washing machine dries clothes, works on the principle of
(1) Sedimentation (2) Evaporation
(3) Centrifugation (4) Crystallization

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38. Which fabric has dull surface ?


(1) Nylon (2) Silk (3) Jute (4) Rayon
39. Which of the following fibres is used in the production of ropes, canvas, clothes and paper ?
(1) Cotton (2) Coir
(3) Silk (4) Hemp
40. Intermolecular spaces are ________ in gases and ________ in solids.
(1) Smaller, Larger (2) Smaller, Smaller
(3) Larger, Smaller (4) Larger, Larger
41. A sudden violent shaking of the ground, typically causing great destruction, as a result of movements
within the earth's crust or volcanic action is
(1) Drought (2) Earthquake
(3) Famine (4) Tsunami
42. Identify P in the given venn diagram.

Bran
Pebbles
from P from
wheat
sand
flour

(1) Filtration (2) Winnowing


(3) Sieving (4) Threshing
43. Annu took a glass beaker and filled it with clean water. She put a silver coin init and looked the coin
from the top of the beaker. What would be her observation ?
(1) She could not see the coin properly because water is translucent. Beaker
(2) She could see the coin clearly because water is opaque.
Water
(3) She could see the coin clearly because water is transparent.
Coin
(4) She could not see the the coin because the coin is transparent.

SECTION-C : BIOLOGY
This section contains 12 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.
44. In which of these conditions, the potted plant would be able to carry out the process of making food ?

(1) (2) (3) All the leaves (4)


Placed in are smeared Placed near
fully enclosed Dry soil in an open window
the pot with vaseline
wooden cupboard and well watered

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45. Choose the body covering which is not meant for keeping the body warm.
(1) Hair (2) Scales (3) Feathers (4) Fur
46. The food items shown in the figure are rich in nutrient X.
Read the given statements regarding the nutrient X.

(i) When we grow, our body needs X to make new cells.


(ii) X is also needed to replace old and damaged cells.
Identify 'X'.
(1) Fats (2) Proteins (3) Carbohydrates (4) Minerals
47. Which of the following is incorrect regarding the parts labelled as P,Q,R and S ?

(1) R- Protects heart and lungs (2) Q- Protects the spinal cord
(3) P- Encloses the brain (4) S- Longest bone
48. Abhi made the following notes about an animal he was studying
• They have skin covered with hard dry scales and they breathe with their lungs.
• They lay eggs.
Which of the following animals is described in the above notes ?
(1) Fish (2) Frog (3) Snake (4) Snail
49. The given figure shows human digestive system with some parts
labelled as P, Q, R and S. Which of the following
P
labelled parts is correctly matched with its function?
Q
(1) Q - Food is mixed with digestive juices
(2) P - Digestion starts here R
(3) R - Most of the water is absorbed here
S
(4) S - Digestion of food is completed here

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50. The diagram below shows a food web for a community. Which organisms in the diagram are
carnivores?

Foxes Owls
Birds

Rabbits Mice Grasshoppers

Carrots Grasses Grains

(1) Rabbits and birds (2) Carrots and grasses


(3) Grasshoppers and mice (4) Foxes and owls
51. Osteoporosis is mainly the condition of fragile bone that increases the risk of bone breaking; it occurs
due to lack of ___________ in diet.
(1) Iron (2) Iodine (3) Protein (4) Calcium
52. Organisms shown below breakdown the dead parts of animals and plants and release nutrients used
by the plants for growth. They are

Fungi
Bacteria

(1) Scavengers (2) Producers


(3) Parasites (4) Decomposers
53. Which of the following lists of food is obtained from roots of the plant?
(1) Spinach, cabbage, coriander (2) Potato, mango, broccoli
(3) Sugarcane, onion, beetroot (4) Radish, turnip, carrot
54. P feeds on Q, R and S. Q and S only feed on R. R is one of the earth's natural resources. Which is
most probably true of the following ?
(1) P is an omnivore (2) R is a herbivore
(3) S is an omnivore (4) Q is a carnivore

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55. Read the given paragraph.


In the 16th and 17th centuries, sailors who went on long voyage suffered from a disease ‘X’ as they
did not get fresh fruits to eat during the voyage. In the year 1747, a doctor named James Lind dis-
covered that if these sailors were given lemons and oranges, the disease was cured very quickly. This
led to the discovery that X is a deficiency disease caused by the deficiency of Y.
Identify X and Y in the above paragraph and select the correct option.
X Y
(1) Pellagra Vitamin B1
(2) Scurvy Vitamin C
(3) Goitre Iodine
(4) Rickets Fluorine

SECTION-D : MATHEMATICS
This section contains 25 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.

56. The pictograph shows the number of varieties of apples stored at super market. How many Jonathan
apples are there in the market ?

Varieties of Apples in a food store

Red Delicious

Golden Delicious

Red Rome

McIntosh

Jonathan

= 10 apples = 5 apples

(1) 30 (2) 3
(3) 35 (4) 3.5
57. How many millimeters are there in 8.05 km
(1) 80500 (2) 805000
(3) 8050000 (4) 805
58. Katrina has 38 matches. She built a triangle and a square, using all the matches. Each side of the triangle
consists of 6 matches. How many matches are in each side of the square ?
(1) 4 (2) 5
(3) 6 (4) 7

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59. In a school, the number of students in different classes of primary wing are as follows :

If pictograph is drawn by using the symbol representing 6 students, then answer the following

questions

Class I II III IV V
No. of students 39 33 45 60 48

(a) How many circles will represent the students of class IV ?


(b) How many circles will represent the students of class I ?
(c) How many circle will represent total number of students in all classes ?
(1) (a) 10, (b) 6.6, (c) 36.5 (2) (a) 10, (b) 6.5, (c) 37.5
(3) (a) 6, (b) 7, (c) 37 (4) (a) 6, (b) 8, (c) 38.5
60. By how much is a is bigger than b ?

A
b

D
45°
a
275° B C

(1) 50° (2) 45° (3) 5° (4) 10°

61. The pictograph given below shows the number of deliveries made by a florist during a week.

Monday :

Tuesday :

Wednesday :

Thursday :

Friday :

Saturday :

Sunday :

Each represents 3 deliveries


Which two days have a total of 18 deliveries ?
(1) Monday, Tuesday (2) Friday, Wednesday
(3) Thursday, Friday (4) Saturday, Sunday
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62. The average rainfall (In millimeters) in UK, Japan and Australia is shown in the figure. In Autumn
the lowest rainfall is in

UK JAPAN AUSTRALIA
5.3
4.5

3.5
3.4

2.4
2 2 1.8
1.5 1.5
1.2
1

Spring Summer Autumn Winter

(1) UK (2) Japan


(3) Australia (4) none of these
63. In ABC, D is the midpoint of BC and G is the centroid of the triangle. If GD = 2cm, then the
length of AD is
(1) 4 cm (2) 6 cm (3) 2 cm (4) None
64. Two groups consisting of 108 and 156 students participate in sports meet. In how many rooms
can all these students be accommodated at the minimum if all the rooms must have equal number
of students and no two students in a room are from different groups ?
(1) 22 (2) 20 (3) 19 (4) 13
65. Arrange the following integers in ascending order :
–33, 37, –207, 5, 615, –9
(1) 615, 37, 5, –9, –33, –207 (2) –207, –33, –9, 5, 37, 615
(3) –207, –9, –33, 5, 37, 615 (4) –33, –207, –9, 5, 37, 615
66. The sum of three prime numbers is 100. If one of them exceeds another by 36, then one of the numbers
is
(1) 7 (2) 29 (3) 41 (4) 67
67. The absolute value of 25 – (25 + 10) + 25  125 × 25 is
(1) – 5 (2) 3 (3) 15 (4) 5

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68. The bar graph shown in figure shows Mrs Basu’s monthly expenditure. Read the bar graph carefully
and answer the questions:

Scale
2 unit length = Rs 1000

Electricity

Petrol

Rent

Education

0 1000 2000 3000 4000 5000


Expenditure (in `)

Find Mrs Basu’s total monthly expenditure.


(1) 4500 (2) 15000 (3) 5000 (4) 10000
69. Which of the following fractions lies between 2/3 and 5/7 ?
(1) 3/4 (2) 4/5 (3) 5/6 (4) None of these
70. How many times does the digit 5 occur between 1 and 100 ?
(1) 11 (2) 15 (3) 18 (4) 20
71. What is the number in the units place of (763)84 ?
(1) 1 (2) 3 (3) 7 (4) 9

1 3
72. Vimal is m shorter than Ashok. If Vimal is 1 m tall, how tall is Ashok ?
4 8

(1)1.125 m (2) 1.166 m (3) 1.25 m (4) 1.625 m

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73. In a book store the number of books sold in a week is shown in figure. The difference of books sold
on Monday and Friday is

Each represents 7 books


(1) 6 (2) 4 (3) 2 (4) 14
7 5
74. If 47.2506 = 4A + + 2C + + 6E, then the value of 5A + 3B + 6C + D + 3E is
B D
(1) 53.6003 (2) 53.603 (3) 153.6003 (4) 213.0003

75. Find the area of the given figure 1.2 m

(1) 31.64 m2
3m h m
(2) 14.64 m2 7.2
4m
(3) 8.64 m2 4m

(4) 30.64 m2
76. The perimeter of a square and the circumference of a circle are equal. If the radius of the circle is
r and side of the square is S, then the area of the circle in terms of S is _______
4S 2 16S 2
(1) 4S2 (2) 16S2 (3) (4)
 
77. The product of the prime numbers between 1 to15 is
(1) 30030 (2) 450450 (3) 15015 (4) 405405
78. In the diagram, JKL and LMN are straight lines perpendicular 12 cm
K 8 cm
to each other. M is the midpoint of LN. J L
4 cm
4.5 cm
Calculate the area of the shaded region (in cm2 ).
9 cm M

(1) 54 (2) 48 4.5 cm


P N
(3) 36 (4) 32 8 cm
79. What will be the least number which when doubled will be exactly divisible by 12, 18, 21 and 30 ?
(1) 196 (2) 630 (3) 1260 (4) 2520
80. The total cost of 3 tables and 2 chairs is Rs 745. If one table costs Rs 165, then find the price
of a chair.
(1) Rs 120 (2) Rs 125 (3) Rs 160 (4) Rs 80

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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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CLASS-VI / Paper Code - U

PART-I
IQ (MENTAL ABILITY)
This section contains 20 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. Arrange the given words in Alphabetical Order and choose the one that comes first.
(1) Didactic (2) Dictum (3) Dictonary (4) Diastole
2. If we interchange the first letter with sixth, second with seventh and so on, in the word UNIVERSITY
then which letter is seventh from the right.
(1) I (2) N (3) T (4) Y
3. A watch reads 6:25. If the minute hand point towards East, in what direction will the hour hand point?
(1) North (2) South - East (3) North - West (4) North - East
4. Ajay left home and cycled 10 km towards South, then turned right and cycled 5 km and then again
turned right and cycled 10 km. After this he turned left and cycled 10 km. How many kilometres will
he have to cycle to reach his home straight ?
(1) 10 km (2) 15 km (3) 20 km (4) 25 km
5. In a certain code language, RUSTICATE is written as QTTUIDBSD. How would STATISTIC be written
in that code ?
(1) RSBUJTUHB (2) RSBUITUHB (3) RSBUIRSJD (4) TUBUITUMB
6. A, B, C and D are playing cards A and B are partners. D faces towards North. If A faces towards West,
then who faces towards South?
(1) B (2) C (3) D (4) A
7. Find the two words, one from each group, that together make a new meaningful word. The word from
the first group always comes first.

P Q R 1 2 3
BALL IS ASH OR GOT LAND

(1) P1 (2) Q3 (3) R3 (4) P2


8. In a certain code, CONVENTIONAL is written as NOCNEVOITLAN. How is ENTHRONEMENT
written in that code?
(1) TNEROHEMNTNE (2) TNEROHEMNNTE
(3) TNEORHMENTNE (4) NTEROHEMNNTE
Direction for (Q.9 & Q.10) - Ashok has nine tasks — P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W, and X — that he'd
like to do over the months from October to February, and he plans to do two tasks every month except
December. In December, he does only one task. He does S in November and W in February. He does
R in the fourth month after T. He does V and X in the same month. He does U in a month just before
the month he does P. He does V in a month just after the month that he does Q.
9. Which two tasks does Ashok do in October ?
(1) T and U (2) P and U (3) P and R (4) T and S
10. Which task does Ashok do in the month of December ?
(1) V (2) Q (3) R (4) T

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11. Find the wrong term.


8, 27, 125, 343, 1381
(1) 27 (2) 8 (3) 343 (4) 1381
12. What comes next ?

?
(1) (2) (3) (4)

13. Find the missing term (?).


N5V, K7T, ?, E14P, B19N
(1) H9R (2) H10Q (3) H10R (4) I10R
14. Which of the following statements is correct with regard to the given figure?

F
D C
B
A

(1) A and B are in all the three shapes


(2) E, A, B, C are in all the three shapes
(3) F, C, D, B, A are in all the three shapes
(4) Only B is in all the three shapes
15. Choose the correct mirror image from the alternatives (1), (2), (3) and (4) of the figure (A).

(A)

(1) (2) (3) (4)

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16. Study the figure carefully and answer the given question.

6 4 12 8 2
7

Here, big triangle represent artists, small triangle represents scientists, square represents dancers and
circle represents doctors.
Which number represents the artists who are neither scientists nor doctors ?
(1) 1 and 2 (2) 1 and 12 (3) 2 and 7 (4) 12 and 8
17. Choose the correct water image of the given figure.

(1) (2) (3) (4)

18. Choose the correct water image of the given figure.

(1) (2) (3) (4)

19. Choose the correct mirror image of the word.


NONVERBAL
(1) (2) (3) (4)
20. In a certain language 'La Pil Ta' means 'Mango Is Sweet'; 'Na Sa Pil' means 'Mango And Banana' and
'Ba Ta Tic' means 'Boy Is Wise'. In that language 'Sweet' means.
(1) La (2) Pil (3) Sa (4) Ba

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PART-II
SECTION-A : PHYSICS

This section contains 12 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.
21. The diagram given below shows Earth rotating on its own axis.

What is the total number of complete rotations that Earth makes in 2 weeks?
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 7 (4) 14
22. The diagram represents the Moon and its orbit around Earth. The arrow labeled X represents the force
that keeps the Moon in its orbit.

Moon
bit

X
Or

Earth

(Not drawn to scale)

Which force is represented by X ?


(1) gravity (2) electricity (3) friction (4) magnetism
23. Identify the type of motion exhibited by following objects.

(a) Pendulum of a wall clock

(b) A point at rim of blades of windmill

(1) (a)- circular motion, (b)- periodic motion (2) (a)- periodic motion, (b)- circular motion
(3) (a)- circular motion, (b)- circular motion (4) (a)- periodic motion, (b)- periodic motion

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24. A man looked into a plane mirror and saw the clock as shown below. What was the time then ?

(1) 5:20 (2) 6:40 (3) 01:10 (4) 7:35


25. The object shown below is taken out in the sun and rotated. The different shadows formed are observed.
Mark the picture which cannot be the shadow of this object.

(1) (2) (3) (4)

26. Which of the following statements is correct ?


An opaque object
(a) allows light to pass through it.
(b) does not allow light to pass through it.
(c) emits its own light.
(d) reflects light falling on it.
(1) a, c (2) b, c, d (3) b, d (4) a, d
27. 500 mm equals
(1) 0.0005 km (2) 50 cm (3) 0.5 m (4) All of these
28. Which of these best completes the conversion table ?

ConversionTable
1 km = 1,000 ?
1 m = 100 ?

1 km = 1,000 mm 1 km = 1,000 cm 1 km = 1,000 m 1 km = 1,000 m


(1) 1 m = 100 cm (2) 1 m = 100 mm (3) 1 m = 100 mm (4) 1 m = 100 cm

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29. Continents and oceans lie on/in


(1) layer below the crust. (2) innermost layer of earth.
(3) between core and mantle. (4) the crust of earth.
30. The diagram shows water flowing from a tank and rotating a wheel.

tank

blade

wheel

What kind of energy does the water have just before it hits the wheel?
(1) Mechanical energy (2) Solar energy
(3) Electrical energy (4) Wind energy
31. The diagram below represents two people using a board and a log as a simple machine to lift a large
rock.

Rock

Board
Log

Which simple machine is shown above ?


(1) Lever (2) Inclined Plane
(3) Gear (4) Wedge
32. A student plugged a toaster into an electric outlet. He put a piece of bread in the toaster and turned
the toaster on. While the toaster was on, it changed the electrical energy from the outlet into other
forms of energy. Which form of energy toasted the bread?
(1) Chemical (2) Heat
(3) Magnetic (4) Sound

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SECTION-B : CHEMISTRY
This section contains 11 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.
33. A student made the model showing the particles in a solid. To improve the model, the student should

Model of a Solid

Plastic
Beads

Petri
Dish

(1) put the beads in a square container


(2) take out some beads so the particles can move more easily
(3) shake the container gently to show how the particles vibrate
(4) use different-coloured beads to make the particles easier to see
34. Wearing away of topsoil is known as
(1) Air pollution (2) Winnowing
(3) Soil erosion (4) Weathering
35. The image below shows a fisherman throwing his net at sunset.

Which of the following properties of the net are highlighted in the picture ?
(1) It sinks in water.
(2) It does not tear easily.
(3) It does not absorb water.
(4) It allows light to pass through.

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36. Study the given flowchart carefully,

Mixture Filtration Solution Evaporation Solid


(P + Q + R) (P+Q) (P)

Solid
(R)

What could be P, Q and R respectively?


(1) Chalk powder, Water, Salt (2) Salt, Water, Sugar
(3) Sugar, Water, Sawdust (4) Sawdust, Water, Sugar
37. The flow chart of separation of mixture is given below.

Solid-Liquid Mixtures
Containing

Insoluble solids Soluble solids

are separated by in which


[A]

Solids donot decompose Solids may decompose


are separated by are separated by

[B] [C]

Identify [A], [B] & [C] and choose the correct option.
[A] [B] [C]
(1) Sieving Evaporation Crystallisation
(2) Loading Sieving Evaporation
(3) Filtration Evaporation Crystallisation
(4) Filtration Crystallisation Evaporation
38. Study the chart given below showing the manufacture of cotton fabric

2
Hand-picking 1
Cotton bolls Harvested deseeded

7 6
Weaving 4
Clothes Fabric Yarn 3

What should come in the place of the number 4 ?


(1) Fibre (2) Knitting
(3) Spinning (4) Dyeing

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39. Which of the following fibres upon burning smells like burning paper ?
(i) Cotton (ii) Silk (iii) Flax
(iv) Wool (v) Fur (vi) Jute
(1) (i), (iii) & (vi) (2) (ii), (iv) & (v) (3) (i), (ii), (iv) & (vi) (4) (iv) & (v)
40. The volume of water in the pot decreases during this investigation. Water droplets form on the mirror
when positioned over the pot. In this setup, water

Heating Water

Mirror
Water Droplets

Water Glass Pot


Electric Heater

(1) vaporizes and then freezes (2) vaporizes and then condenses
(3) condenses and then vaporizes (4) freezes and then vaporizes
41. Increase in carbon dioxide gas in atmosphere causes
(1) Global warming (2) Heavy rain
(3) Deforestation (4) None of these
42. Match the column I with column II and select the correct option from the codes given below.
Column I Column II
(a) Removal of larger particles from smaller ones (i) Sieving
(b) Separation of cream from milk (ii) Filtration
(c) Separation of a mixture of mud and water (iii) Churning
(d) Separation of grains from stalks (iv) Threshing
(1) (a)- (i), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iii), (d) - (iv) (2) (a)- (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (i)
(3) (a)- (i), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iv) (4) (a)- (iv), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iii), (d) - (i)
43. Nazia divided some substances into two groups as shown below.

Group 1 Group 2
Wool Oil
Cotton Mercury
Paper Iron

How did Nazia group the substances ?


(1) Things that are soft and things that are hard
(2) Things that are natural and things that are not
(3) Things that absorb water and things that do not
(4) Things that are opaque and things that are not opaque

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SECTION-C : BIOLOGY
This section contains 12 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.
44. The diagram below shows a plant.

The arrows in the diagram show the path taken by the


(1) food (2) water (3) sunlight (4) carbon dioxide
45. Which of them is not a mammal ?
(1) Blue whale (2) Asiatic elephant (3) Tortoise (4) Bat
46. Beriberi is a condition caused by the deficiency of a vitamin in our body. A regular intake of which
of these food items will help in preventing it ?
(1) Milk and milk products - rich in vitamin D
(2) Wheat, peas, green vegetables - rich in vitamin B1
(3) Sweet potatoes, carrots, radish - rich in vitamin A
(4) Citrus fruits, tomatoes - rich in vitamin C
47. The respiratory system in human consists of _______ .
(i) Nose (ii) Heart (iii) Lungs (iv) Wind pipe
(1) (i) and (ii) (2) (ii) and (iii) (3) (i) and (iv) (4) (i), (iii) and (iv)
48. • Moist skin
• Lives both on land and in water
• Breathe through gills when young
The animal described above belongs to which of the following group ?
(1) Mammals (2) Fish (3) Amphibians (4)Aves
49. Read the information given below.
P : Supplies materials for building cells
Q : Supplies a lot of energy
R : Supplies high amount of dietary fibers
Which of the following food combinations is correct according to the definitions of P, Q and R ?
P Q R
(1) Fish Lettuce Sunflower oil
(2) Beans Butter Potato
(3) Meat Butter Whole grains
(4) Potato Fish Butter
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50. The chart below shows food sources for several organisms.

Organisms Food Source


Deer plants
Wolves other animals
Musk oxen plants
Bears plants and other animals
Plants make their own food

Which food chain is based on the information in the chart?


(1) Bears  plants  musk oxen (2) Wolves  bears  deer
(3) Deer  musk oxen  plants (4) Plants  deer  wolves
51. The teeth that people use for grinding and crushing their food are labelled in the picture as

1
2 2
3 3

4 4 Upper Jaw

Lower Jaw
4 4

3 3
2 2
1

(1) 1 only (2) 3 only (3) 1 and 2 (4) 3 and 4


52. An energy pyramid is shown below.

Bear

Fox, Owl

Mouse, Deer,
Ladybug

Plant, Grass

Which of the following correctly describes the flow of energy in the pyramid?
(1) The grass and trees get energy from ladybugs.
(2) The owl and fox get energy from mice.
(3) The fox gets energy from bears.
(4) The deer gets energy from owls.

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53. Which of the following is manufactured by your skin when it is exposed to sunlight?

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

54. Which of the following shows the correct flow of gases from one organism to the other ?

Oxygen
Oxygen Oxygen

Carbon dioxide Carbon dioxide Carbon dioxide


P Q R

(1) Only P

(2) Only Q and R

(3) Only P and Q

(4) P, Q and R

55. Bunty eats a lot of ice creams, butter and oily food. Excess intake of fatty food may lead to

(1) Anaemia

(2) Tuberculosis

(3) Goitre

(4) Obesity

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SECTION-D : MATHEMATICS
This section contains 25 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.

56. In a pictograph, if the symbol represents 125 students, then the picture is
equivalent to
(1) 200 students (2) 175 students (3) 225 students (4) 300 students
57. Rob weighed 2 boxes. The combined weight of the boxes is shown on the scale below.
The ratio of the weight of Box A to the weight of Box B is 3:1. Which of the following is closest to the
weight of Box A?

Box A

Box B

(1) 126 oz (2) 42 oz (3) 32 oz (4) 96 oz


58. If a, b, c and d are four positive real numbers such that sum of a, b and c is even and the sum of
b, c and d is odd, then a2 – d2 is necessarily
(1) odd (2) even (3) prime (4) either (1) or (2)
59. The pictograph below shows the number of cars in a school parking lot for four days.

Cars in Parking Lot


Number of Cars
Monday

Tuesday

Wednesday

Thursday

KEY
= 5 cars

How many more cars were in the school parking lot on Monday than on Wednesday. Also find the
cost of cars that were parked on parking lot in four days, if cost of 1 car is Rs.85,000.
(1) 3, Rs.42,5000 (2) 15, Rs.42,5000 (3) 15, Rs.51,00,000 (4) 20, Rs.2,12,500
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60. The triangle ABC and PQR may not be congruent when
(1) AB = PQ, AC = PR , A = P (2) AB = PQ, AC = PR, Altitude AD = Altitude PS
(3) AB = PQ, AC = PR, B = Q (4) A = P, B = Q, Altitude AD = Altitude PS
61. How many weights C can balance the weight B?

C B A B D C A A D D D

(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 5 (4) 6


62. The following pictograph represents the daily production of computers in a factory for different days
of a week:

Monday :

Tuesday :

Wednesday :

Thursday :

Friday :

Saturday :

represents 200 computers

Now answer the following questions:


(a) Find the total number of computers produced in the factory during the week.
(b) On which day minimum number of computers manufactured ?
(c) On which day maximum number of computers manufactured ?
(d) How many less computers were manufactured on Saturday than on Friday ?
(1) (a) 7000 (b) Thursday (c) Saturday (d) 100
(2) (a) 3500 (b) Tuesday (c) Saturday (d) 200
(3) (a) 7000 (b) Saturday (c) Thursday (d) 100
(4) (a) 700 (b) Tuesday (c) Saturday (d) 200

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63. If a bicycle wheel makes four - and - a - half turns, then the number of right angles through which it
turns is
(1) 16 (2) 18
(3) 20 (4) 8
64. In the diagram, PQU is an equilateral triangle, QRVU is a rectangle and RSTU is a rhombus. The
area of rectangle QRVU is 12 cm2 .

P
4 cm
Q U
5 cm
R V T

Find the perimeter, in cm, of the whole diagram.


(1) 17 (2) 21
(3) 26 (4) 30
65. The sum of five consecutive positive integers is always divisible by
(1) 2 (2) 3
(3) 5 (4) 10
66. What is the digit in the ten's place in the product of the first 35 even natural numbers?
(1) 6 (2) 2
(3) 0 (4) 5
67. Madan picks up three different digits from the set {1, 2, 3, 4, 5} and forms a mixed number by placing

the digits in the spaces . The fractional part of the mixed number should be less than 1
2
(for example 4 ). What is the difference between the largest and smallest possible mixed number
3
that can be formed?

7 3
(1) 4 (2) 4
20 10

9 3
(3) 4 (4) 4
20 5
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68. The following bar graph shows the star sign of people in a locality. Observe the bar graph and answer
the following questions

Sagittarius

Scorpio

Libra

Virgo
Star sign Leo

Cancer

Gemini
Taurus

Aries

Pisces

Aquarous

Capricorn

4 8 12 16 20 24 28 32
Number of people

(a) How many people have star sign Virgo ?

(b) How many people have star sign Pisces ?

(c) Which is the most common star sign for the people of the locality ?

(d) Under which star there are equal number of people ?

(1) (a) 16 (b) 8 (c) Aries (d) Libra & virgo

(2) (a) 16 (b) 12 (c) Cancer (d) Virgo & Cancer

(3) (a) 18 (b) 20 (c) Virgo (d) Virgo & Taurus

(4) (a) 18 (b) 10 (c) Leo (d) Pisces & Sagittarius

1
69. How many one thirds need to be added to 3 to make 5?
3

(1) 2 (2) 1 (3) 3 (4) 5

70. What is the difference between the greatest and the smallest four-digit number using four different
digits with the condition that 5 occurs at ten's place.

(1) 8703 (2) 8805 (3) 8705 (4) 8810

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71. Trees grow on only one side of Park Avenue. There are 60 trees in total. Every second tree is a maple,
and every third tree is either a linden or a maple. The remaining trees are birches. How many birches
are there?

(1) 10 (2) 15

(3) 20 (4) 24

72. The table below shows the cost of mailing packages that weigh different amounts.

Cost of Mailing Packages

Package Weight
Cost
(ounces)
Up to 1.00 $1.17
1.01 to 2.00 $1.34
2.01 to 3.00 $1.51
3.01 to 4.00 $1.68
4.01 to 5.00 $1.85

If the cost continues to increase as shown in the table, how much will it cost to mail a package that
weighs exactly 11 ounces?

(1) $2.87 (2) $4.87

(3) $3.04 (4) $5.87

73. The given pictograph shows the number of students in a university who speak the following
five languages : English, Hindi, Tamil, Punjabi, Telugu.

How many students speak Hindi and Telugu ?

English

Hindi

Tamil

Punjabi

Telugu

Scale : One represents 100 students.

(1) 475 (2) 500 (3) 600 (4) 550

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74. From the set {2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9}, how many pairs of co-primes can be formed?
(1) 19 (2) 18
(3) 20 (4) 21

75. In the diagram, PRSU is a rectangle.


U T S

P Q R
Given that PR = 16 cm and RS = 5 cm, find the area of the shaded region (in cm2).

(1) 40 (2) 60

(3) 80 (4) 100

S R

76. 7 cm

P 8 cm T 6 cm Q

PQRS is a rectangle. Find the area of the shaded portion (in cm2).

(1) 70 (2) 78

(3) 80 (4) 89

77. The simplification of 2.002 + 7.9{2.8 – 6.3(3.6 – 1.5) + 15.6} yields

(1) 2.002 (2) 4.2845

(3) 40.843 (4) 42.845

78. A string is used to make a reactangle of length 25 cm and breadth 15 cm. If the same string is bent into
an octagon, find the length of the side of the octagon.

(1) 8 cm (2) 10 cm

(3) 9 cm (4) 11 cm

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79. The greatest number of four digits which is divisible by 15, 25,40 and 75 is

(1) 9000 (2) 9400

(3) 9600 (4) 9800

80. The largest negative integer is

(1) Infinite (2) 0

(3) –999999 (4) –1

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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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SECTION–A : PHYSICS
This section contains 12 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. The picture shows the three main layers of the Earth.

A
B

Where is it the hottest?


(1) Layer A (2) Layer B
(3) Layer C (4) All three layers have the same temperature.
2. Red planet of our solar system is
(1) Mars (2) Saturn (3) Neptune (4) Earth
3. Which of the following is ‘NOT’ a periodic motion?
(1) A swinging pendulum (2) Hands of clock
(3) Rotation of earth (4) A flying kite
4. Study the flowchart carefully and fill in the blanks.

Object

Luminous object (i)


eg eg
Sun, (ii) Wood, steel

(i) (ii)
(1) Bulb Non-luminous object
(2) Non-Luminous object Rubber
(3) Non-Luminous object Tube light
(4) Bulb Luminous object
5. Which of these correctly shows how light acts when it hits a mirror?

(1) (2) (3) (4)

6. Which of the following sets contains only objects that shine as a result of reflected light?
(1) moons, planets, and comets (2) moons, comets, and stars
(3) planets, stars, and comets (4) planets, stars, and moons

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7. A rancher surveyed his property to make sure there were no breaks in his fence. He rode his horse
around his entire property and then ended at home, as shown in the figure below.

end

2.0 km
4.0 km
Start
2.0 km
2.5 km 1.0 km
0.5 km
3.0 km

How much total distance he covered ?


(1) 10 km (2) 12 km (3) 14 km (4) 15 km
8. The distance between Delhi and Mumbai is usually expressed in units of
(1) Decimetre (2) Metre (3) Centimetre (4) Kilometre
9. The chart below describes two different motions of Earth. Identify these two Earth motions.

Description of Earth Motion Name of Earth Motion


Earth moves in a path around the sun, causing one year. (i)
Earth spins around once every 24 hours, causing day and night. (ii)
(1) (i) Rotation (ii) Revolution (2) (i) Revolution (ii) Rotation
(3) (i) Rotation (ii) Rotation (4) (i) Revolution (ii) Revolution
10. Four students push carts filled with sports equipment across the gym. Each student pushes with the
same amount of force. Which cart has the greatest change in speed?

(1) (2) (3) (4)


12 tennis rackets 15 sports balls 18 exercise mats 28 pieces of rope
m = 10 kg m = 15 kg m = 20 kg m = 25 kg

11. Which of these objects is a type of screw?


(1) Flagpole (2) Door stopper (3) Roller skates (4) Jar lid
12. When we push or pull something, we apply
(1) Muscular force (2) Gravitational force
(3) Elastic force (4) Buoyant force

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SECTION–B : CHEMISTRY
This section contains 11 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.
13. If you cool down a liquid, you take energy away from it; the particles will start moving closer each
other and not move much anymore. This process is known as________ and now the susbstance is
said to be in ____ state.
(1) melting, liquid (2) freezing, solid
(3) condensation, liquid (4) evaporation, gas
14. Which of the following modes of transport uses a renewable energy source?

(1) (2)
Airplane

Hot air balloon

(3) (4)
Solar powered car Lorry
15. Glass is a good material to use as a container for some chemicals.Which of these is a chemical property
of glass that makes it well-suited for this use?
(1) It is brittle and easy to shatter. (2) It is solid and unlikely to melt.
(3) It is inert and unlikely to react. (4) It is clear and easy to see through.
16. Shaheen has a mixture of marbles of three different sizes. She and her friends wanted to separate this
mixture using any two of the three sieves shown.

Mixture of marbles

Sieve P Sieve Q Sieve R


Peter choose sieves P and Q.
Sunita choose sieves P and R.
Shaheen choose sieves Q and R.
Who would have been able to separate the marbles into all the three types?
(1) Peter (2) Sunita
(3) Shaheen (4) All three were able to separate all the marbles
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17. Crystallisation technique is better than simple evaporation technique as ________.


(1) Some solids are evaporated with solvent
(2) Some solids decompose or some may get charred on heating to dryness
(3) Some impurities may remain dissolved in the solution even after filtration, which on evaporation
contaminate the solid
(4) Both (2) and (3)
18. What is the name of process which involves twisting of strands of fibres ?
(1) Ginning (2) Weaving (3) Retting (4) Spinning
19. Study the venn diagram and identify 'K'.

Seeds are
covered with
Burns
fibres.
with
smell of
K
burning
paper

L Used
Warm for
climate making ropes

(1) Jute (2) Cotton (3) Hemp (4) All of these


20. Match the entries of column – I with those in column – II.

Column - I Column - II
i. Drying of wet clothes (p) Sublimation
ii. Decrease in the size of naphthalene balls (q) Condensation
iii. Formation of clouds (r) Solidification
iv. Formation of ice from water (s) Evaporation

(1) i – q, ii – s, iii – p, iv – r (2) i – r, ii – s, iii – q, iv – p


(3) i – s, ii – p, iii – q, iv – r (4) i – p, ii – s, iii – q, iv – r
21. The picture below shows an airplane spraying pesticides on crops in a field.

Which type of pollution is this agricultural practice likely to cause?


(1) Only air (2) Both air and soil
(3) Only soil and water (4) None of these
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22. Radhika wants to recover large quantity of salt mixed with sand. She added water and stirred well
but some salt remained undissolved. The undissolved salt remained mixed with the sand and could
not be recovered. Her problem can be solved by
(1) adding a large quantity of water
(2) heating the solution below the boiling point of solvent
(3) cooling the solution
(4) Either (1) or (2)
23. Ellen has a packet of frozen milk. She wants to bring the milk to room temperature as soon as possible.
She uses the following set-up to melt the milk.

Container P in which the


frozen milk is put
Hot water filled in the
outer vessel
Outer vessel

Which of the following materials should container P be made of for the milk to melt the quickest?
(1) Wood (2) Glass (3) Steel (4) Clay

SECTION–C : BIOLOGY
This section contains 12 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.
24. Herbivores are animals which eat only plants. Carnivores are animals which eat only meat. Omnivores
are animals which eat both plants and meat. Herbert observed the following animals

1 2 3
The correct order from 1 to 3 is
(1) Herbivore; Carnivore; Omnivore (2) Omnivore; Carnivore; Herbivore
(3) Carnivore; Herbivore; Omnivore (4) Herbivore; Omnivore; Carnivore
25. The paragraph below gives some facts about a type of turtle. Read the passage carefully and give answer
to the following question.
The turtle eats grass and smaller animals. The colours on its shell allow it to blend in with the
forest floor. The turtle moves slower than its predators, such as foxes. When the turtle senses
danger, it hides inside its hard shell.
Turtle is a
(1) Aggressive animal (2) Shy animal
(3) Dangerous animal (4) Carnivore

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26. As seen in the pie chart bread, cereals and potatoes occupy the maximum portion of a balanced diet.
These food items are a source of

Fat and
sugars
Bread, cereals
and potatoes

Meat, fish
and other
proteins
Fruit and
vegetables

(1) carbohydrates (2) proteins


(3) fats (4) minerals
27. Which of the following teeth helps in tearing the food ?

(1) (2) (3) (4)

Incisor Canine Premolar Molar


28. Read the following four lines of a given poem.

Green plants are busy factories


that keep us alive.
Without them we would have no meat,
No honey from the hive

What does the poem tell us?


(i) Green plants produce food. (ii) Animals are dependent on plants.
(iii) Plants are depended on animals for food. (iv) Animals and people need plants.
Choose the correct combination of answers.
(1) (i), (iii) and (iv) (2) (i) , (ii) and (iv)
(3) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (4) (i) , (ii) and (iii)

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29. Study the venn diagram given below. Each circle in the Venn diagram represents a group of different
sources of food. Objects placed in the area where two or more circles overlap represent the sources
present in the respective circles.

plant
sources sources
P
other than
plants or
Q animals
R
animal
sources

Which option lists the different kinds of food correctly in P, Q and R ?


P Q R
(1) Carrot Wheat Meat
(2) Rice Oil Eggs
(3) Milk Eggs Pulses
(4) Apple Meat Honey
30. Look at the diagram given below. The diagram shows some organisms living together.

Which of the following group of organisms are producers in this diagram?


(1) Blue jay and Woodpecker (2) Beetle and Squirrel
(3) Worm and Beetle (4) Tree and Grass
31. Match the List-I with List-II and choose the correct option.
List-I List-II
A. We should keep the eatables 1. clean our blood.
B. Our kidneys 2. fights against the diseases.
C. Immune system of our body 3. mosquito biting.
D. Malaria is caused by 4. covered.
A B C D
(1) 1 2 3 4
(2) 2 3 1 4
(3) 4 1 2 3
(4) 4 3 2 1

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32. Which of the following is a list of abiotic parts of an environment?


(1) Soil, Leaves, and Flowers (2) Soil, Rocks, and Water
(3) Rocks, Leaves, and Water (4) Water, Rocks, and Tadpoles
33. If left on a table in a room, which of the following four food items is most likely to remain without
getting spoilt for the longest time ?

(1) (2)

Boiled potato Raw rice

(3) (4)

Apple Bread

34. Pick out the correct statement in concern with the pictures in options.

(1) (2)

I am a producer. I am a saprophyte.

(3) (4)

I do not respire. I help in maintaining the balance of oxygen.

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35. Observe the given figure. A is helpful in preventing constipation. Identify A?

(1) Minerals (2) Vitamins (3) Roughage (4) Carbohydrates

SECTION–D : MATHEMATICS
This section contains 25 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.
36. The following pictograph represents the number of pizzas delivered in a day by four delivery boys
of a restaurant.

Aman

Raghav

Suraj

Puneet

= 5 pizzas

Use the information provided in the pictograph to answer the given question
How many pizzas were delivered in all?
(1) 140 (2) 120 (3) 28 (4) 135

4
37. Find the weight of 25 packets of biscuits, if each packet weighs 2 kg.
5
(1) 80 kg (2) 70 kg (3) 90 kg (4) 75 kg
38. (– 144) (+ 16) =
(1) 9 (2) 11 (3) – 9 (4) – 11

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39. Strength of a school is given in below pictograph. Find the total number of students in class 1 to class 3.

Class 1 :

Class 2 :

Class 3 :

Class 4 :

Note : represent 20 students.

(1) 200 (2) 205 (3) 210 (4) 215


40. The minimum number of points of intersection of three lines in a plane is
(1) 1 (2) 0 (3) 3 (4) 4
41. Perimeter of a rectangle is 60 cm. What is the maximum area of such rectangle if we consider all such
rectangles formed with given perimeter?
(1) 175 sq cm (2) 200 sq cm (3) 225 sq cm (4) 250 sq cm
42. Use the pictograph given below to answer how much more snow fell in week 1 than in week 2.

Snowfall In December

Week 1
Week 2
Week 3
Week 4
Key : Each stands for 3 inches

(1) 3 inches (2) 9 inches (3) 6 inches (4) 2 inches


43. In the given figure AB || CD, if m is transversal, then find the value of x.

m
A B
2x + 9

C 3x +11 D

(1) 23 (2) 32 (3) 45 (4) 54


44. Kaushal rolls a wheel along a straight line. The wheel covers distance of 19.8 m and makes 21 rotations.
Find radius of the wheel (in cm).
(1) 9 (2) 11 (3) 12 (4) 15

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45. (– 32) × (– 4) × (– 3) × 0 × (– 6) =
(1) 27,648 (2) 276,480 (3) 0 (4) – 27,648
46. Forty crores four thousand in numeral form is equal to
(1) 404000 (2) 400004000 (3) 4004000 (4) 40004000

1
47. Kangana started an exercise program. During the first week she walked km every day. Every week
2

1
she increased the distance she walked each day by km. Which method can be used to determine
2
the number of kilometer Kangana walked each day during the ninth week of her exercise program?

1 1
(1) Multiply 9 by (2) Add , 9 times
2 2
(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) None of these
48. The graph below shows the number of students in a math club who voted for each of four types of
pizza.

Voting for Pizza

Sausage
Type of Pizza

Mushroom

Pepperoni

Cheese

0 4 8 12 16 20 24
Number of Student votes

Which statement is best supported by the graph ?


(1) The number of students who voted for sausage pizza is 2 times the number of students who voted
for mushroom pizza.
(2) The number of students who voted for sausage pizza is 13 more than the number of students who
voted for cheese pizza.
(3) The number of students who voted for pepperoni pizza is 6 fewer than the number of students
who voted for mushroom pizza.
(4) The number of students who voted for cheese pizza is 1 more than the number of students who
voted for pepperoni pizza.

1 1
49. A man complete of his project in 3 days. How long would he take to complete the whole project?
7 14

1 1
(1) 21 days (2) 22 days (3) 21 days (4) 23 days
2 2

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50. The difference between the place value of 6 in the number 26,28,162 is
(1) 589940 (2) 599940 (3) 0 (4) None of these
51. HCF of two numbers is 4 and their LCM is 84. If one number is 12, find the other number.
(1) 28 (2) 26 (3) 24 (4) 22

144 14.4
52. If , then the value of x is
0.144 x
(1) 0.0144 (2) 1.44 (3) 14.4 (4) 144
53. The pictograph given below shows how many letters were collected from a post box on each of the
days of a certain week.
Monday –
Tuesday –
Wednesday –
Thursday –
Friday –
Saturday –
= 10 letters
On which day were the minimum number of letters collected?
(1) Tuesday (2) Wednesday (3) Friday (4) Saturday
54. Aunt A, Aunt B and Uncle C divided 19.765 kg of wheat flour equally among themselves. Aunt A
used all her wheat flour equally to bake 6 chocolate cakes. How much wheat flour did each cake need?
(1) 1.051 kg (2) 2.023 kg (3) 1.098 kg (4) 2.271 kg
55. In the given figure if AB = 5 cm, AH = 9 cm, MD = 5 cm and DE = 1 cm then find the shaded area
in sq. cm.

(1) 45 (2) 50 (3) 55 (4) 60


56. In the picture, the big triangle is equilateral and has area 9. The lines are parallel to the sides of the
triangle and divide the sides into three equal parts. What is the area of the shaded part.

(1) 1 (2) 4.5 (3) 6 (4) 7

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6 5 15
57. Simplify :
7 9 27

3 9 5 6
(1) (2) (3) (4)
7 16 8 7

58. A worm climbing up a high wall went 12 m on one day but slipped back by 2 m 35 cm in the
evening. How far up had the worm reached in 2 days.
(1) 9m 65 cm (2) 19 m 30 cm (3) 18 m 30 cm (4) None of these
59. Robin has 9 packages of gum. There are 15 pieces in each package. How many pieces of gum does
robin have?
(1) 150 (2) 135 (3) 155 (4) 140
60. What is the value of 7002 (7 + 0 + 0 +2) – 7 × 0 × 0 × 2.
(1) 0 (2) 778 (3) 7002 (4) 1

SECTION–E : MENTAL ABILITY


This section contains 20 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.
61. Some letters are given which are numbered 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7 and 8. Find the combination of numbers
from the options so that the letters arranged accordingly form a meaningful word.
I B P L S O S E
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
(1) 3 ,5 ,1 ,4 ,6 ,7 ,2 ,8 (2) 5, 7 ,1 ,2 , 4 ,8 ,3 ,6
(3) 8 ,4 ,2 ,1 ,7 ,5 ,6 ,3 (4) 3, 6 ,5 ,7 , 1 ,2 ,4 ,8
th
62. Which letter will be 7 to the right of I in English Alphabet series ?
(1) L (2) P (3) Q (4) R
63. A lady runs 12 km towards North. Then 6 km towards South and 8 km towards East. How far is she
from her starting point and in which direction?
(1) North-East – 20 km (2) North-East – 15 km
(3) North-West – 10 km (4) North-East – 10 km
64. Find the direction which replaces ‘?’ in the following figure?
?

East

(1) North (2) North-West (3) West (4) South-West


65. In certain code the word PANIC is written as KZMRX, then the word OPERATION will be written
as,
(1) NKVIZGRNM (2) LKVIZGRLM (3) NKWIZGRLM (4) LKVGZHRLM

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66. A man is facing west. He turns 45° in the clockwise direction and then another 180° in the same direction.
Which direction is he facing now?
(1) South-East (2) North-West (3) West (4) South-West
67. If all the English Alphabets are serially numbered from A to Z, one of the option given below has
a meaningful word hidden in it. Identify the option.
(1) 5, 18, 5, 8, 1, 3, 5 (2) 20, 5, 1, 3, 8, 5 18
(3) 5, 1, 3, 5, 20, 8, 18 (4) 18, 5, 3, 8, 1, 5, 20
68. If Gurukul is called School, School is called Education, Education is called Victory,Victory is called
Success, Success is called Tallentex, Tallentex is called Allen , then which exam are you giving now?
(1) Tallentex (2) Allen
(3) Success (4) Victory
Directions (Q.69 & Q.70) : Six persons A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting in two rows, three in each.
E is second to the left of D, A the neighbour of C, is sitting diagonally opposite to E. C is not at the
end of any row. F is neighbour of D.
69. Who is facing F?
(1) D (2) C (3) A (4) B
70. Which of the following lies in the same row?
(1) BCA (2) ADB (3) EFC (4) DCA
71. Find the missing term in the following series.
_aa _ba_bb_ab_ aab
(1) aaabb (2) babab (3) bbaab (4) aaaaa
72. In the following series, replace the question mark (?) with the suitable option.
15, 30, 60, 120, 240.?
(1) 480 (2) 518 (3) 445 (4) 715
73. What number should come in place of question mark in given series.
1, 2, 5, 12, 27, 58, ?
(1) 119 (2) 120 (3) 121 (4) 122
74. Which of the following diagram indicates the best relation between Universe, Earth, India?

(1) (2) (3) (4)

75. Find the Mirror Image of the figure (X) :

(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)

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76. Which number present in all of the given Figures.

3, 6, 9 15 5, 10, 20
12, 18 25, 30
105
21 35

7, 14, 28,
42

(1) 103 (2) 104 (3) 105 (4) 106


77. Find Water Image of figure (X) :

(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)


78. Choose the correct Water Image of the figure (X) from among the four alternatives (1), (2), (3) and
(4) given along with it.

(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)

79. Which one of the following will be correct Mirror Image of given figure ?

(1) (2) (3) (4)

80. If PWRUO is coded as 81639 and VTQUO as 24739, then how RTVOP can be coded?
(1) 67314 (2) 64298 (3) 59431 (4) 27543

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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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SECTION - A : PHYSICS
This section contains 12 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(a) Planets are celestial bodies that revolve around the sun.
(b) Planets emit light like the sun or the stars.
(1) (a) only (2) (b) only (3) Both (a) and (b) (4) Niether (a) nor (b)
2. What motion causes day and night?
(1) revolution of Earth (2) revolution of the Moon
(3) rotation of Earth (4) rotation of the Moon
3. The diagram below shows a girl in a wheelchair using a ramp to enter a building. The wheels of
wheel chair she is using is a combination of two motions. These two motions are

(1) Rotational motion and translational motion (2) Periodic motion and rotational motion
(3) Translational motion and periodic motion (4) Translational motion and oscillatory motion
4. Two students while sitting across a table looked down on to its top surface. They noticed that they
could see their own and each others image. The table top is likely to be made of
(1) Unpolished wood (2) Red stone
(3) Polished steel (4) Wood top covered with cloth
5. In 1859, Henry Bursill published a book of hand shadows. The picture below shows one of these
hand shadows.

Which property of light makes it possible to produce hand shadows?


(1) Light can be refracted (2) Light is a form of energy
(3) Light travels in straight lines (4) Light can be separated into different colours
6. Which of the following is/are luminous source(s) of light?
(i) candle (ii) torch (iii) mirror
(1) (ii) only (2) (i) and (ii) only
(3) (ii) and (iii) only (4) (i), (ii) and (iii)
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7. The picture shown below illustrates the habitat of a population of animals and its distance from the
nearest water source. How far does an animal have to travel to obtain water?

(1) 6 centimeter (2) 50 meter (3) 12 meter (4) 300 meter


8. The length of the pencil as shown in the figure below is

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13
(in cm)

(1) 8 cm (2) 4 cm (3) 2 cm (4) 5 cm


9. Look at the data table below.

Planet Distance to the Sun (in miles)


Mercury 36,000,000
Venus 67,000,000
Earth 93,000,000
Mars 142,000,000

Which conclusion can you draw from the data given in the table?
(1) There are four planets in the solar system.
(2) Earth is farther from the Sun than Venus.
(3) Mars revolves around the Sun more quickly than Earth
(4) Mars rotates more slowly than Mercury.
10. Two students are pushing a cart, as shown below.

W E

200 N X

What should be the magnitude of force ‘X’ so that the cart moves towards west ?
(1) 50 N (2) 150 N (3) 200 N (4) 350 N

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11. The diagram below shows a fan that uses energy to move the air in a room.

Fan

Which form of energy causes the blades of the fan to turn?


(1) chemical (2) electrical
(3) heat (4) light
12. Which of these has the greatest number of different simple machines?

(1) (2) (3) (4)

SECTION-B : CHEMISTRY
This section contains 11 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.
13. Sarah heats room-temperature water in a microwave to make hot apple cider. The diagram below
illustrates the water particles before they are heated. Which of the following correctly describes the
effect of the microwave’s heat on the particles?

(1) The particles will stop moving.


(2) The particles will remain at the same speed.
(3) The particles will begin to move faster and farther apart.
(4) The particles will begin to slow down and move closer together.
14. Jean wants to cut her grass in a way that will have the least effect on the environment.What should
Jean use to cut her grass?
(1) A lawn mower with an electric engine that she must walk behind and push.
(2) A lawn mower with a gasoline engine that she must walk behind and push.
(3) A lawn mower without an engine that she must walk behind and push.
(4) A lawn mower with a gasoline engine that she can ride.

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15. In the diagram below, some things have been classified according to the materials they are made of.
What do A and B stand for respectively?
Materials

A B

Card board, Measuring cylinder,


Chopsticks Camera lens

(1) Wood, metal (2) Plastic, glass (3) Bamboo, glass (4) Bamboo, plastic
16. Match the column.
Mixture Separation method
a. Sand in water (i) Winnowing
b. Lady finger and Potato (ii) Sieving
c. Peels from roasted ground nut (iii) Sedimentation and decantation
d. Pebbles and sand (iv) Hand-picking
a b c d
(1) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(2) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(3) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
17. Study the venn diagram. Centre point ( ) represents which of the following mixture?

Sieving Magnet

Hand
picking

(1) Iron powder, Olive oil and lady finger


(2) Coconut oil, iron powder, pulses and lady finger
(3) Pulses, rice flour, lady finger and iron fillings
(4) Sugar, water, iron powder, lady finger
18. Select the correct option from the codes given below.
Column I Column II
(a) Plant fibre (i) Rayon
(b) Twisted fibre (ii) Yarn
(c) Semi–synthetic fibre (iii) Jute
(1) a- i ,b-iii, c-ii (2) a-iii, b-ii, c-i
(3) a-ii, b-i, c-iii (4) a-ii, b-iii, c-i

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19. Read the following statements.


(a) Cotton fibres are separated from the seeds by _______.
(b) The _______ of the cotton plant are called cotton bolls.
(c) The process of making yarn from fibres is called _______.
(d) The process of arranging two sets of yarns together to make a fabric is called _______.
Select the option which correctly fills the blanks in any two of the above statements.
(1) (a) Ginning, (b) Stem (2) (b) Spinning, (d) Knitting
(3) (b) Fruits, (d) Weaving (4) (b) Fruits, (d) Spinning
20. Which of the following is 'NOT' exist in gaseous state at room temperature and normal atmospheric
pressure?
(1) Silver (2) Oxygen
(3) Hydrogen (4) Nitrogen
21. Which one of the following is not a fossil fuel?
(1) Natural gas (2) Petroleum (3) Coal (4) Uranium
22. Identify (X).

Formation Drying of
of Butter clothes in
X
washing
from milk machines

(1) Evaporation (2) Sieving


(3) Filtration (4) Churning
23. Abu scratched four different materials P, Q, R and S with an iron nail. He observed that he could
make a scratch only on material S with the iron nail. What could be say about the material of S ?
(1) It is definitely metal.
(2) It is transparent material.
(3) It is either plastic or wood.
(4) It is a softer material than iron.
SECTION-C : BIOLOGY
This section contains 12 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
24. Identify the organism with the help of given characters.
(a) I live in Antarctica.
(b) Stored fat in my body keeps me warm.
(c) I have two flippers.

(1) (2) (3) (4)

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25. The animal shown below has one type of tooth that is well suited to its feeding habits. These teeth
are called

(1) incisors (2) canines (3) premolars (4) molars


26. In which of the following activity, heart rate is maximum ?

(1) (2) (3) (4)

Running Sitting Eating Reading

27. Which of the following vitamin helps in the formation of red blood cells and its deficiency can lead
to anaemia ?
(1) Vitamin B 1 (2) Vitamin C (3) Vitamin B12 (4) Vitamin D
28. Image below shows the life cycle of a grasshopper. The nymph undergoes a phenomenon and
changes into an adult. This phenomenon is known as

(1) camouflage (2) moulting (3) hibernation (4) aestivation


29. When we eat rice and chapati we get a sweet taste after chewing them for some time. What is the
reason behind this ?
(1) This is because rice and chapati are sweet in taste.
(2) This is because rice and chapati are both white in colour.
(3) This is because rice and chapati contain proteins which is converted to sugars with the action of
gastric juices.
(4) This is because rice and chapati contain starch which is converted to sugars with the action of
saliva.

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30. Choose the correct match regarding biotic and abiotic factors.
Biotic factor Abiotic factor
(1) Air Water
(2) Plant Animal
(3) Plant Water
(4) Water Soil
31. The picture below shows the human digestive system. The food after being torn into the mouth,
passes from the food pipe and enters 1. From 1, it enters the intestines where it further gets digested
and ultimately leaves the body as waste. What is 1 ?

(1) Food pipe (2) Mouth


(3) Intestine (4) Stomach
32. In a jungle there exists many different types of animals. Some of these animals eat plants while
some eat meat. All these animals are interdependent on each other. A huge animal-elephant-eats only
plants. Which type of consumer is it ?
(1) Herbivore (2) Carnivore
(3) Second level consumer (4) Third level consumer
33. Zacob is a vegetarian. There is deficiency of calcium in his body. Which one of the following food
items he should take to improve the calcium in his body ?

(1) (2)

Wheat Carrot

(3) (4)

Lemon Milk and milk product

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34. Look at the diagram of a food web shown below.

In this food web, the hawk is the


(1) primary consumer (2) decomposer
(3) scavenger (4) producer
35. Good sources of protein are given below. Which of the following sources is different from the other
sources?

(1) (2) (3) (4)

Pulses Meat Fish Chicken

SECTION-D : MATHEMATICS
This section contains 25 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
36. The following pictograph shows the number of cakes sold by a confectionery shop in five days

Day No. of Cakes sold = 10 Cakes

Monday

Tuesday

Wednesday

Thursday

Friday

How many cakes were sold on Monday?


(1) 30 (2) 35
(3) 40 (4) 45
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37. The perimeter of square whose length of the side is 17 cm is


(1) 62 cm (2) 64 cm (3) 68 cm (4) 80 cm
38. On subtracting –9 from 2, we get
(1) 11 (2) 7 (3) –7 (4) –11
39. Isha bought three kinds of fruit at the store.
• She bought 4 apples.
• She bought 3 times as many oranges as apples.
• She bought 4 more peaches than apples.
Which graph represents the fruits Isha bought?
Shopping for Fruit
Shopping for Fruit
16
12 14
Number Bought

10 12

Number Bought
8 10
6 8
4 6
(1) (2) 4
2
0 2
Apple Orange Peach 0
Fruit Apple Orange Peach
Fruit

Shopping for Fruit Shopping for Fruit


Apple Apple
(3) Orange (4) Orange
Peach Peach
Each Each represent 4 pieces
represent 2 pieces of fruit
of fruit
40. If there are 18 spokes in a bicycle wheel, then the angle between a pair of adjacent spokes is
(1) 30° (2) 24° (3) 20° (4) 36°
41. Rajesh was piling tiles. Each tiles was 8 mm thick and weighted 18 g. Then how many kilograms
did the 6.4 m high pile of tiles weigh?
(1) 18 kg (2) 14.4 kg (3) 18.4 kg (4) 144 kg
42. The numbers of books in the school library are shown in the given pictograph. One figure of a
book represents 10 books.

Name the subject on which least number of books are there in the library. Also find the number of
books ?
(1) English, 60 (2) Maths, 80 (3) English, 6 (4) French, 12
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43. How many minimum points are required to define a unique plane?
(1) any 1 (2) any 2
(3) 3 collinear (4) 3 non collinear
44. The length of the rectangular field is thrice its breadth. If its perimeter is 40m, find area of the field
(in sq m).
(1) 50 (2) 65 (3) 70 (4) 75
45. a, b, c are the 3 consecutive integers such that a + b + c = 822, then c is
(1) 527 (2) 216 (3) 273 (4) 275
46. The difference between the place value and face value of 7 in 658742 is
(1) 0 (2) 42 (3) 735 (4) 693
47. Jai has 2 containers of liquid soap that are of same size. He wants to pour all the liquid soap from

5 3
one container into the other. One container is full. The other container is full. Which statement
8 5
best explains whether all the liquid soap will fit into one container?

5 3 8
(1) All the soap will fit into one container because , which is less than 1.
8 5 13

5 3 8
(2) All the soap will fit into one container because , which is less than 1.
8 5 40
(3) All the soap will not fit into one container because one of the containers is more than half full
and the other is almost half full.
(4) All the soap will not fit into one container because each container is more than half full.
48. Use the graph to answer the following question. How many of these animals can live longer
than 20 years?
How long some animals live
Camel
Cat
Cow
Dog
Elephant
Goat
Horse
0 10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80 90 100
Number of years lived

(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 4 (4) 10

1
49. Reciprocal of 2 is
3

7 7 3 3
(1) (2) (3) (4)
3 3 7 7

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50. Number name for 123,080,603 is


(1) one two three eighty thousand six hundred three.
(2) one hundred twenty three million eight thousand six hundred three.
(3) one hundred twenty three million eighty thousand six hundred three.
(4) one twenty three million eighty thousand six hundred.
51. Mr. Aniket distributed Rs.4950 equally amongst 11 of the children in the society. All the children
added Rs.5 from their pocket money and donated all the money to a charity organization working
for disabled kids. Find how much money was donated to the charity organization.
(1) Rs.4955 (2) Rs.5005
(3) Rs.5750 (4) Rs.6250
52. Simplify : 8.7 – [7.6 – {6.5 – (5.4 – 4.3 2 )}]
(1) 3.5 (2) 4
(3) 4.5 (4) 5
53. The following pictograph shows the number of computers sold by a company during a week.

The scale is used

How many computers were sold on Friday and Monday ?


(1) 24 (2) 54
(3) 30 (4) 126
54. Which list shows the numbers below in order from least to greatest ?

1 46 1 84
–6 , 7.25, , 6 , – 5.58,
2 7 4 9

1 1 46 84 1 46 1 84
(1) –6 , – 5.58, 6 , , 7.25, (2) – 5.58, 6 , , –6 , , 7.25
2 4 7 9 4 7 2 9

1 1 46 84 1 1 46 84
(3) –6 , 6 , – 5.58, , 7.25, (4) – 5.58, – 6 , 6 , , 7.25,
2 4 7 9 2 4 7 9

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55. Find the area of the shaded part.

2m
2m
(1) 7 m2 (2) 28 m2 (3) 14 m2 (4) 32 m2
56. The line segments composing both shapes below are all congruent. The perimeter of the triangle is
36 units in length.

What is the area, in sq. units of square.


(1) 48.5 (2) 144 (3) 72 (4) None of these
57. How many zeros are there at the end of the number 201325 × 201326 × 201317?
(1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 8
58. How many square tiles are required to cover a square floor having its perimeter 48 m, if each tile has
length 2 m?
(1) 30 (2) 34 (3) 36 (4) 49

1
59. 32 3 when simplified gives
5

2 5 1
(1) 10 (2) (3) (4)
5 2 10
60. What should be subtracted from 37 to get – 5 ?
(1) – 32 (2) – 42 (3) 41 (4) 42
SECTION-E : MENTAL ABILITY
This section contains 20 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
61. From the given alternative words, select the word which can be formed using the letters of the given
word : IMMEDIATELY
(1) DIALECT (2) LIMITED
(3) DIAMETER (4) DICTATE
th
62. Which letter will be 4 to the left of ‘O’ in English alphabet series ?
(1) L (2) J (3) K (4) T
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63. Govind starts from his house towards West. After walking a distance of 25 m he turned towards right
and walked 10 m. He then turned left and moving a distance of 10 m, turned to his left again and
walked 40 m. He now turns to the left and walks 5 m. Finally he turns to his left. In which
direction is he walking now?
(1) North (2) South (3) East (4) West
64. Find the direction which replaces ‘?’ in the following figure ?

North

(1) North- East (2) North - West (3) South-East (4) South- West
65. If in a certain code TALLENTEX is coded as UCOPJTAMG, then in the same way , how will you
code the word ABILITY in the same code language?
(1) BDMPNZF (2) RZNPLDB
(3) CDMPNZF (4) BDLPNZF
66. A man is facing South. He turns 135° in the anticlockwise direction and then 180° in the clockwise
direction. Which direction is he facing now ?
(1) North-East (2) North-West
(3) South-East (4) South-West
67. If every alternate letter of English alphabet from B onwards (including B) is written in lower case
(small letters) and the remaining letters are capitalized, then how will the third month of the second
half of the year be written ?
(1) sePTemBeR (2) SEPtemBER (3) SEptEMbEr (4) None of these
68. If Green is called Red, Red is called Yellow, Yellow is called Blue and Blue is called Orange then
what is the colour of clean Sky ?
(1) Yellow (2) Orange (3) Red (4) Green
Direction (Q.69 & Q.70) : Answer the following question based on the given information :
(i) Six children B, D, C, M, J and K are split in two group of three each and are made to stand in two
rows in such a way that a child in one row is exactly facing a child in the other row.
(ii) M is not at the ends of any row and is to the right of J who is facing C, K is to the left of D who is
facing “M”.
69. Which of the following groups of children are in the same row ?
(1) BMD (2) MJK
(3) BDC (4) JMB
70. Who is the immediate left of B.
(1) M (2) D
(3) J (4) Data inadequate
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71. Find the next number in the given sequence:


3, 6, 12, 24, 48, ?
(1) 100 (2) 192 (3) 52 (4) 96
72. Find the missing term ?
4, 16, 36, ?, 100, 144
(1) 64 (2) 72 (3) 84 (4) 81
73. Find the next number in the given sequence:
2, 12, 30, 56, 90, ?
(1) 132 (2) 100 (3) 156 (4) 112
74. Which of the following diagrams correctly represents Elephant , Wolves , Animals ?

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

75. What will be the Mirror Image of figure (X) if the mirror is placed at the left side of the figure (X)?

(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)


76. Study the following Venn Diagram and answer the question given below. Here

12 3 10 no of students who like brownee


7 9 8 no of students who like coldcoffee

11 no of students who like chocolava cake

How many students are there who like Brownee, cold Coffee as well as Chocolava cake?
(1) 3 (2) 8 (3) 9 (4) 10
77. Find Water Image of figure (X) :

(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)

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78. Choose the correct option for Water Image of given figure :
××
××
– –
– –
– –

– – ×× – –
– – ×× – –
– – – –
– – – –
(1) ×× (2) – – ×× (3) – – (4) ××
×× – – ×× – – ××

79. Choose the correct Mirror Image of the figure (X).

(X)
(X) (1)
(1) (2) (3)
(3) (4)
(4)
80. If DREAM is coded as 78026 and CHILD is coded as 53417 then what will be the code of
LEAD ?
(1) 1020 (2) 1027 (3) 1028 (4) 1024

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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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SECTION - A : PHYSICS
This section contains 12 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. Which of the following is not dwarf planet ?
(1) Haumea (2) Makemake (3) Ceres (4) Europa
2. Which of the following planets is called “Red planet” ?
(1) Mars (2) Jupiter (3) Saturn (4) Mercury
3. One metre has 10 equal parts called ________
(1) millimeter (2) centimeter (3) decimeter (4) decameter
4. A class is learning about states of matter. The teacher shows the students how to set up the investigation
shown in the diagram. What kinds of energy are needed in this investigation to change the state of
matter of the candle?

Candle

Wood block

(1) Light, mechanical, and thermal (2) Electrical and thermal


(3) Mechanical, light, and electrical (4) Thermal and mechanical
5. Which among the following statements is wrong?
(1) Light is something that enables us to see things around us.
(2) A luminous object gives out light of its own.
(3) A shadow has the colour of the object.
(4) Electric bulb is an artificial source of light.
6. A material that does not allow any light to pass through it is called
(1) translucent (2) transparent (3) opaque (4) none of these
7. What is the speed of something that moves 400 meters in 4 minutes?
(1) 100 m/s (2) 6 km/h (3) 10 km/h (4) 10 m/min
8. Match the column :

Column-I Column-II
(A ) 7 cm test tube (p) 700 cm rope
(B) 7 m saree (q) 7000 m tent cloth
(C) 7 km distance (r) 70 m m pin

(1) A-p, B-q, C-r (2) A-r, B-p, C-q (3) A-q, B-p, C-r (4) A-q, B-r, C-p

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9. The different group of stars is known as


(1) Comet (2) Constellation (3) Asteroids (4) Celestial bodies
10. A number of forces are acting on the block as shown in figure. What is the value of force X (in N), so
that net force on block is zero?
7N 10N

3N 12N
8N X

3N 20N
(1) 8N (2) 7N (3) 1N (4) 2N
11. If net force acts on a body is zero, it must ?
(1) Get deformed
(2) Move with increasing speed
(3) Either remain at rest or move in a straight line at constant speed
(4) Break
12. ______ energy is used to operate and run computers, machines, fans, etc.
(1) Thermal (2) Electrical (3) Nuclear (4) Solar

SECTION-B : CHEMISTRY
This section contains 11 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.

13. Which one among the following can not flow ?


(1) Juice (2) Air (3) Water (4) Table
14. Petroleum is also called as
(1) White gold (2) Black gold (3) Gold (4) Black silver
15. Which of the following allow light to pass through it ?
(1) Transparent (2) Translucent (3) Both (1) and (2) (4) Opaque
16. The property used in separating a mixture of two solids by winnowing is
(1) difference in colour (2) difference in size
(3) difference in weight (4) attraction by a magnet
17. By the process of filtration, we cannot separate
(1) mixture of sand and water (2) mixture of two liquids
(3) insoluble solid from a liquid (4) mixture of chalk and water
18. Cotton grows best in
(1) black soil and warm climate (2) black soil and cool climate
(3) red soil and warm climate (4) both (1) & (3)
19. The fibres obtained from animals are made up of -
(1) proteins (2) carbohydrates (3) cellulose (4) vitamins
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20. Look at the classification table below. Which of the following sets of headings is correct?
I II III
Oil Iron Wind
Paint Wood Oxygen
I II III
(1) gas liquid solid
(2) liquid gas solid
(3) liquid solid gas
(4) solid gas liquid
21. Which one of the following is not a GREEN HOUSE GAS ?
(1) CO2 (2) O2 (3) CH4 (4) CFC
22. A separating funnel is used to separate the components of a mixture of
(1) iodine and sugar (2) ethanol and water
(3) cooking oil and water (4) ammonium chloride and iron filings
23. Pick out the bad conductor of electricity from the following.
(1) Copper (2) Steel (3) Impure water (4) Air

SECTION-C : BIOLOGY
This section contains 12 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

24. Which of the following animal is a secondary consumer?


(1) Elephant (2) Deer (3) Bacteria (4) Tiger
25. Which of the following is/are animal products?
(i) Leather, (ii) Wool, (iii) Resin, (iv) Gum, (v) Paper, (vi) Horn
(1) (i), (ii) and (v) (2) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(3) (i), (ii) and (vi) (4) (ii) and (iv)
26. Which of the following diseases spread through insects?
(i) Chicken pox, (ii) Malaria, (iii) Sleeping sickness, (iv) Kala azar
(1) (i) and (ii) (2) (i) and (iii) (3) (ii) and (iii) (4) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
27. _____________ is an allergic condition which causes difficulty in breathing.
(1) Cancer (2) Asthma (3) Typhoid (4) Dysentery
28. Which of the following seed/fruits is/are dispersed by animals?

Plant 1 Plant 2 Plant 3


(1) Plant 1 (2) Plant 2
(3) Plant 3 (4) All three plants are dispersed by animals

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29. Read the following two statements and select the correct option.
Statement I: Beri-Beri is a disease which is caused due to deficiency of Vitamin B1.
Statement II: Symptoms of Beri-Beri are pale skin, frequent headache and weak bones.
(1) Both statements I and II are true and statement II is the correct explanation of statement I.
(2) Both statements I and II are true and statement II is not the correct explanation of statement I.
(3) Statement I is true but statement II is false.
(4) Both statements I and II are false.
30. Which part of the earth ecosystem includes trees, grasses and squirrels ?
(1) Hydrosphere (2) Stratosphere (3) Atmosphere (4) Biosphere
31. Name the parts A, B and C in the diagram.

(1) A = rib, B = breast bone, C = shoulder blade.


(2) A = breast bone, B = collar bone, C = vertebra.
(3) A = breast bone, B = collar bone, C = shoulder blade.
(4) A = collar bone, B = vertebra, C = shoulder blade.
32. Disappearance of forests will lead to increase in amount of carbon dioxide in air. It is likely to result
in
(1) Eutrophication (2) Global Warming (3) Reforestation (4) Afforestation
33. Rohan’s father was obese and recently he was diagnosed with heart problem. What could be the
reason for this?
(1) His diet has an excess of roughage and water.
(2) His diet lacks proper amount of vitamins and minerals.
(3) His diet has an excess of fats and carbohydrates.
(4) His diet lacks proper amount of proteins and carbohydrates.
34. Given below is a set of health problems.
I. Lack of sleep
II. High blood pressure
III. Stress
IV. Complete or partial hearing loss
V. Anxiety
Which of the health problems given above are caused by noise pollution?
(1) I, II and III (2) II, III and IV
(3) II, III, IV and V (4) I, II, III, IV and V
35. Which of the following options contain food obtained from stem of the plant ?
(1) Spinach, potato, ginger (2) Ginger, potato, onion
(3) Carrot, onion, garlic (4) Carrot, beet root, turnip
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SECTION-D : MATHEMATICS
This section contains 25 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
36. Students of Class VI in a school were given a task to count the number of articles made of different
materials in the school. The information collected by them is represented as follows:

Material used Articles = 20 articles

Wood
Glass
Metal
Rubber
Plastic

Observe the pictograph and answer the question.


What is the total number of articles counted by the students ?
(1) 120 (2) 140 (3) 180 (4) 160
37. The length and breadth of a rectangular field are 260 m and 130 m respectively, then its area is
2
(in m ) _______.
(1) 338 (2) 33800 (3) 3.8 (4) 3.38
7 ( –2 ) – 2 ( –1)
38. Find the value of .
( –2 )( –5) – 2 ( –1)
(1) 2 (2) –2 (3) –1 (4) 1
39. The pictorial representation shows the distances of town w, x and y from town z.

Team w ¤ ¤ ¤
Team x ¤ ¤
Team y ¤ ¤¤¤¤

One ¤ represent 10 km
Which of the following road maps shows the correct position of towns w, x, y & z.
z y
z · ·
·
30
km

km

km
30
km

20

(1) (2)
km

20
50

· ·
· x w
y 30 km x 20 km w
·
km
30 w · 20
· km z km
km 30
20 x · ·
m · km w x
(3) 50
k z (4) 50
·
· y
y

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40. Which of the following statement is false.


(1) A line segment has two end points. (2) A line has no end points.
(3) A ray has only one end point. (4) None of these
2
41. If the length of a rectangle is two times its breadth and area is 288 cm , then length and breadth are
respectively ________.
(1) 20 cm, 10 cm (2) 12 cm, 24 cm
(3) 24 cm, 12 cm (4) 16 cm, 18 cm
42. Look at the calendar. What best describes the dates that are on Saturdays?
S M T W T F S
1 2 3 4 5 6 7
8 9 10 11 12 13 14
15 16 17 18 19 20 21
22 23 24 25 26 27 28
29 30 31

(1) Multiples of 2 (2) Multiples of 3 (3) Multiples of 4 (4) Multiples of 7


43. The intersection point of altitude is
(1) Circumcentre (2) Centroid (3) Orthocentre (4) Incentre
44. A circle is inscribed in a square as shown. If the radius of the circle is 4 cm, then the perimeter of the
square is _______.
A B
r

D C
(1) 28 cm (2) 24 cm (3) 32 cm (4) 36 cm
45. Every integer below integer '0' has the sign
(1) – (2) + (3) × (4) ¸
46. If the number 7254*98 is divisible by 22, the digit * is
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 6 (4) 0
–7 5
47. What should be subtracted from so as to get
8 12
–15 –31 –33 31
(1) (2) (3) (4)
8 24 24 24
48. How many faces does the figure has ?

(1) 4 (2) 5 (3) 6 (4) 2


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1 1
49. Which fraction is between and
4 5
1 1 9 1
(1) (2) (3) (4)
3 20 40 6
50. The product of place value and face value of ‘2’ in the smallest 4 digit number formed by using the
digit 4, 0, 7, 2 only once.
(1) 400 (2) 4000 (3) 200 (4) 2000
51. In a sum, the dividend is 28087, the divisor is 264 and the remainder 103. What is the quotient?
(1) 102 (2) 104 (3) 106 (4) 108
52. The value of 0.25 ¸ 0.10 × 0.04 + 0.06 is
(1) 0.16 (2) 0.006 (3) 0.106 (4) 0.016
53. In the adjoining figure how many different paths can be travelled from point A to point D by visiting
a point only once in a path ?
A

E B
F
D C
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 5
54. Which of the following is greater than 5000.05 ?
6 8 2 4
(1) 0.00050005 × 10 (2) 0.00005 × 10 (3) 5.5 × 10 (4) 5.00005 × 10
55. Match the column :
Column I Column II
4 cm

(i) m (P) 34 cm
5c

Area = ?

12 cm
2 cm 2
(ii) (Q) 20 cm
3 cm
Perimeter = ?

6 cm
(iii) (R) 16 cm
x
2
Area = 24 cm . Then x = ?

4 cm
3 cm
2 cm
(iv) (S) 4 cm
3 cm
Perimeter = ?

(1) (i) - (P), (ii) - (R), (iii) - (Q), (iv) - (S) (2) (i) - (Q), (ii) - (P), (iii) - (S), (iv) - (R)
(3) (i) - (P), (ii) - (S), (iii) - (P), (iv) - (R) (4) (i) - (Q), (ii) - (P), (iii) - (R), (iv) - (S)
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56. Five identical rectangles fit together as shown. What is the area of one rectangle ?

18 cm

15 cm

2 2 2 2
(1) 30 cm (2) 36 cm (3) 54 cm (4) 270 cm
57. How many days are there in 12,000 hours?
(1) 200 days (2) 365 days (3) 500 days (4) 865 days
58. The price of a train ticket has a direct relation to the length of the journey. If Rs 504 is charged for a

x
journey 4x km long, then what is charged for a journey km long.
2
(1) Rs. 126 (2) Rs. 63 (3) Rs. 252 (4) Rs. 504
59. A person earns Rs. 216 a day. How much money does he earns in the year 2017 ?
(1) Rs. 21600 (2) Rs. 20170 (3) Rs. 78840 (4) Rs. 98740
2
60. What is the positive integral value of x for which (x – 9) is a prime number.
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 5

SECTION-E : MENTAL ABILITY


This section contains 20 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

61. Arrange the given words in the sequence in which they occur in the Dictionary and locate the last
word.
(1) Frankenstein (2) Frankincense
(3) Frankalmoign (4) Frauendienst
62. Arrange the words in order to the sequence in which they occur in dictionary.
(a) Property (b) Priest (c) Project (d) Preamble
(1) b, d, c, a (2) a, b, c, d
(3) d, b, c, a (4) d, c, b, a
63. A man travels 4 km due North, then travels 6 km due East and further travels 4 km due North. How
far he is from the starting point?
(1) 6 km (2) 14 km (3) 8 km (4) 10 km
64. Rohan is facing North-West. He turns 90° in clockwise direction and then 45° in anticlockwise direction.
Which direction is he facing now?
(1) North (2) North East (3) East (4) West
65. In a certain code language, '3a 2b, 7c' means 'truth is eternal', '7c, 9a, 8b, 3a' means 'enmity is not
eternal' and '4d, 2b, 8b' means 'truth does not'. Which of the following means 'enmity' in that language?
(1) 3a (2) 7c (3) 8b (4) 9a
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66. A tourist drives 10 Km towards East and turns to the right hand and drives 3 Km. Then, he drives
towards West (turning to his right) 3 Km. He, then turns to his left and drives 2 Km. Finally he turns
to his right and travels 7 Km. How far is he from his starting point and in which direction would he
be?
(1) 10 Km, East (2) 9 Km, North
(3) 8 Km, West (4) 5 Km, South
67. Study the following arrangement of numbers, letters and symbols carefully and answer the question
given below.
R@29TVAY5©#J1P8Q$E3 H%6W4 I8UZ
Which of the following is the fifth to the right of the nineteenth element from the right end?
(1) P (2) V (3) W (4) Q
68. In a certain code ABCD is written as ZYXW, then the word DANCE will be coded as :
(1) WZMXV (2) MXZWV
(3) VMZXM (4) ZMWXV
Direction : (69 & 70)
(i) Q is to the immediate right of T.
(ii) S is exactly between P and T.
(iii)Q is exactly between T and R.
69. Who among P, Q, R, S, T is in the exactly middle while standing in a line?
(1) P (2) Q (3) R (4) T
70. Who are sitting on extreme ends?
(1) P, Q (2) P, R (3) R, S (4) P, T
71. In the question given below which one from the four answer figures should come at the right of the
problem figure to complete the series logically.
Question Figure

Answer Figure

(1) (2) (3) (4)

72. Find the missing term :


2, 8, 18, 32, 50, ?
(1) 64 (2) 72 (3) 70 (4) 68

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73. Find the missing term in the given series :


3, 128, 6, 64, 9, ?, 12, 16, 15, 8
(1) 32 (2) 12 (3) 108 (4) 72
74. Select from the four alternative diagrams, the one that best illustrates the relationship among the three
classes : Truck, Ship, Goods

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

75. Choose the alternative which is closely resembles the mirror image of the given figure

(1) (2) (3) (4)

76. Identify the diagram that best represents the relationship among classes given below.
Sportsmen, Cricketers, Batsman

(1) (2) (3) (4)

77. Find the water image of the following figure (X).

(X)

(1) (2) (3) (4)

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78. Find the water image of the following figure (X).

(X)

(1) (2) (3) (4)

79. Choose the alternative which is closely resembles the mirror image of the given figure.

(1) (2) (3) (4)

80. If RADIO is written as PYBGM, then how would OQDKNG be written in that code?
(1) MOBIEL (2) MOBLIE (3) MOIBLE (4) MOBILE

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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

12/12
ANSWER KEY : 08-10-2017 CLASS – VI CODE : D
Q.No. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 4 1 3 2 3 3 2 2 2 3 3 2 4 2 3
Q.No. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 3 2 1 1 3 2 3 4 4 3 4 2 4 3 4
Q.No. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. 3 2 3 4 2 4 2 3 2 4 3 4 3 3 1
Q.No. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. 3 2 2 3 2 3 1 3 4 2 3 3 2 3 3
Q.No. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75
Ans. 4 3 4 1 4 4 4 1 4 2 1 2 1 3 3
Q.No. 76 77 78 79 80
Ans. 3 4 3 4 4
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SECTION - A : PHYSICS
This section contains 12 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. The student is using a model to answer a question. Which question could the model best answer?
(1) How many moons does Jupiter have?

(2) What causes day and night?

(3) Does Earth have any moons?

(4) Does Earth revolve around the Sun?


2. Which is the order from smallest to largest?
(1) Universe, Galaxy, Star, Planet (2) Planet, Star, Galaxy, Universe
(3) Star, Universe, Planet, Galaxy (4) Galaxy, Planet, Universe, Star
3. Which of the following object(s) can be used to measure the length of the following curved object?

(1) Ruler and watch (2) Ruler and thread


(3) Watch and thread (4) Only ruler
4. Which of the following objects is non-luminous?
(1) Sun (2) Star (3) Chair (4) Bulb
5. Which of the following diagrams best represents how light travels from a flashlight to a piece of paper
that is 40 cm away?

Flashlight Flashlight
(1) (2)

Piece of paper Piece of paper

Flashlight Flashlight
(3) (4)

Piece of paper Piece of paper


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6. The image produced by a pin-hole camera is always


(1) inverted, coloured (2) inverted, black & white
(3) erect, coloured (4) erect, black & white
7. Which of the following option shows the correct order of length in decreasing magnitude?
(1) 1 kilometre, 1 decimetre, 1 metre, 1 decametre
(2) 1 kilometre, 1 decametre, 1 metre, 1 decimetre
(3) 1 decametre, 1 metre, 1 decimetre, 1 kilometre
(4) 1 decimetre, 1 metre, 1 decametre, 1 kilometre
8. The motion of the ball shown in the picture below is
(1) circular motion

(2) rotatory motion

(3) curvilinear motion

(4) oscillatory motion


9. When the North Pole is tilted toward the Sun, it is
(1) summer in the Northern Hemisphere (2) winter in the Northern Hemisphere
(3) daytime in the Northern Hemisphere (4) daytime in the Southern Hemisphere
10. Choose the incorrect option.
(1) Car tyre & Road - Friction force
(2) Iron & Magnet - Magnetic force
(3) Falling apple and the Earth - Gravitational force
(4) Ships & Water - spring force
11. A force is a push or a pull.

1. 2.

3. 4. 5.

Which of the following pictures show a pulling force?


(1) 1;4 (2) 1;2;5
(3) 2 and 5 only (4) 2;3;5

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12. Rohit rubbed his ruler quickly against the edge of a piece of wood. The wood and the ruler became
warm. The heat that was produced is caused by
(1) combustion
(2) electricity
(3) sunlight
(4) friction
SECTION-B : CHEMISTRY
This section contains 11 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.
13. Which of the following statements is/are correct ?
(1) Intermolecular forces of attraction in solids are maximum.
(2) Intermolecular forces of attraction in gases are minimum.
(3) Intermolecular spaces in solids are minimum.
(4) All of the above.
14. Increasing levels of carbon dioxide are causing global warming. Man contributes to the increasing
levels by ........... .
(1) cutting down trees (2) setting up more factories and industries
(3) playing more vehicles on the road (4) all of the above
15. What material should be used to make the lid opener?

Lid opener

(1) Rubber (2) Metal (3) Fabric (4) Plastic


16. The mixture of sand, salt and water can be separated by
(1) sublimation (2) filtration
(3) evaporation (4) filtration followed by Evaporation
17. Cooking oil can be converted into vegetable ghee by the process of
(1) oxidation (2) hydrogenation
(3) distillation (4) crystallisation
18. Which of the following should come in the empty box given below?

Cotton fibres ® ? ® yarns or threads

(1) Spindle (2) Retting (3) Ginning (4) Handloom

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19. Which of the following statement is not true ?


(1) Jute is the outer covering of coconut. (2) Fabric is made from yarn.
(3) Polyester is a synthetic fibre. (4) Silk fibre is obtained from silk worms.
20. Out of the following, which is the densest state of matter ?
(1) Solid (2) Liquid (3) Gas (4) Plasma
21. Paper can be recycled. Which of the following things can be made after recycling paper?
(1) Brown paper (2) Cardboard (3) Plastic (4) Both (1) and (2)
22. In sedimentation process, the clear liquid above the settled heavier component is called
(1) Solvent (2) Solution (3) Supernatant liquid (4) Sediment
23. Sugar dissolves in water to form sugar solution. Name the solvent.
(1) Sugar (2) Water
(3) Both sugar and water (4) None of these
SECTION-C : BIOLOGY
This section contains 12 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
24. A bird has just hatched from an egg. Which of the following stages most likely comes next in the life
cycle of the bird?
(1) Birth (2) Death (3) Growth (4) Reproduction
25. The picture given shows a lemur. Lemurs are mammals that live high up in
the trees of tropical forests. Lemurs eat fruit and insects. Which of the
following adaptations most likely help lemurs to live in tropical trees?
(1) Lemurs have soft, grey fur that keeps them warm in cool weather.
(2) Lemurs have strong, long tails that can be curled around branches.
(3) Lemurs have small, black eyes that allow them to see well at night.
(4) Lemurs have sharp, razor-like teeth that can be used to tear apart food.
26. Select the incorrect option.
(1) Scurvy : Vitamin C : Amla (2) Rickets : Vitamin D : Citrus fruits
(3) Goitre : Iodine : Iodized salt (4) Anaemia : Iron : Spinach
27. Use the picture below to answer the given question.

Heart

What does the heart do for the body?


(1) It takes oxygen from the environment. (2) It turns food into energy.
(3) It removes waste from the blood. (4) It moves blood through the body.
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28. Which of the following are summer vegetables ?


a. Pea, b. Wheat, c. Radish, d. Okra, e. Gourd
(1) a and b
(2) a, b and c
(3) a, b and d
(4) d and e
29. If we eat too much food with lots of energy each day, the excess food may be stored as fat and we
will gain mass. Look at the table below and then decide which two foods you should eat in small
amounts?

Type of food Energy (in kJ) per 100g


lettuce 20 kJ
chips 1022kJ
yoghurt 96kJ
pasta 752kJ
grilled chicken breast 670 J

(1) Lettuce and grilled chicken breast


(2) Pasta and yoghurt
(3) Chips and pasta
(4) Chips and yoghurt
30. The food web below is made up of organisms that live in a forest.

Foxes Mice
Owls

Rabbits Grasses and


seeds

Which change would most likely occur if all the producers in this ecosystem were removed?
(1) The mice would become the new producers.
(2) All the animals would either die or move away.
(3) The number of mice would increase.
(4) All the animal populations would increase.

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31. Our body need food to function normally. We need carbohydrates which are broken down into sugars
and provide a ready source of energy. We use this energy to work, run and play. Proteins in our food
are used to make us grow and to replace old and damaged tissues (groups of cells) in our bodies. The
following pie graph shows the percentage of each nutrient which is required by the average adult.

water

fats

carbohydrates

proteins

Select the answer which DOES NOT apply to the pie graph given above.
An adult should consume (eat and drink) .....
(1) twice the percentage of proteins as compared to fats.
(2) half of the percentage of proteins as compared to fats.
(3) three times the percentage of carbohydrates as compared to fats.
(4) three times the percentage of proteins as compared to water.
32. What information is given by following figure?

(1) The figure gives information that how the animals live together in a same environment.
(2) The figure gives information that they all are terrestrial animals.
(3) The figure gives the information that all living things are ultimately converted into non-living things.
(4) The figure gives the information that how the living organisms are dependent on one another for their
food.
33. Mira’s uncle fall ill and she went to see him. There she came to know that he is suffering from a heart
disease. Mira concluded that her uncle might be taking diet rich in
(1) carbohydrates (2) proteins (3) fats (4) vitamins
34. What is a decomposer?
(1) A living thing that breaks down dead organisms
(2) A living thing that makes its own food
(3) An animal that eats live plants
(4) An animal that hunts other animals

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35. This small child with thin physique and protruded ribs is suffering from lack of energy in his diet. This
disease is called

(1) Dehydration (2) Marasmus (3) Kwashiorkor (4) Scurvy


SECTION-D : MATHEMATICS
This section contains 25 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
36. The pictograph shows the number of new chairs in five classes.

Class 6A =

Class 6B =

Class 6C =

Class 6D =

Class 6E =

represents 6 chairs.

Which two classes have a total of 48 new chairs.


(1) 6A and 6B (2) 6D and 6E (3) 6B and 6C (4) 6A and 6E

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37. The students of class 4 are celebrating chirstmas in their school today. Four students were asked to
get juice. Marie got 1300 ml of grape juice, Sally got 2580 ml of orange juice, Mickey got 1450 ml
of apple juice and Vicky got 620 ml of mango juice. How many litres of juice did they bring ?
(1) 5.95 l (2) 5.9 l
(3) 5 l (4) 5.85 l
38. The values of the following expressions except one are equal. Which one is different ?
(1) (8 + 8 – 8) ÷ 8
(2) 8 + (8 ÷ 8) – 8
(3) 8 ÷ (8 + 8 – 8)
(4) 8 – (8 ÷ 8) + 8
39. The graph below represents the number of English textbooks each costing Rs.80, sold by a shopkeeper
during a week. See the graph and answer the question below :

50
45
40
35
30
25
20
15
10
5
0
Monday Tuesday Wednesday Thursday Friday Saturday

How much more money did the shopkeeper earn on Saturday than Friday ?
(1) Rs. 800 (2) Rs.7500
(3) Rs. 400 (4) None
40. The point of concurrence of the medians of a triangle is called ____________.
(1) centroid (2) centre
(3) orthocentre (4) mid point
41. 795000 grams equal how many quintals?
(1) 750 quintals (2) 800 quintals
(3) 7.95 quintals (4) 8.95 quintals
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42. The incomplete bar graph shows the number of cookies sold by Raghu in 5 days.

450
400
350
300
300

200 150

100

Wed Thu Fri Sat Sun


The total number of cookies sold was 2000. How many cookies were sold on Sunday?
(1) 750 (2) 850 (3) 800 (4) 950
43. Which of following statement is true ?
(1) Every square is a rectangle (2) Every rectangle is a square
(3) Every parallelogram is a rectangle (4) Every parallelogram is a rhombus
44. From each of the two given numbers, half the smaller number is subtracted. Of the resulting numbers
the larger one is three times the smaller. What is the ratio of the larger to smaller numbers ?
(1) 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 2 (3) 3 : 1 (4) 1 : 3
45. Greatest integer between –10 & –15 is ?
(1) –10 (2) –11 (3) –15 (4) –14
46. A satellite orbits Earth every 7200 seconds. How many times does the satellite orbit Earth in 1 day ?
(1) 120 (2) 12 (3) 3600 (4) 2

47. A car is moving at an average speed of 3 1 km/h. How much distance will it cover in 5 1 hours ?
9 7

(1) 15 km (2) 14 km (3) 13 km (4) 16 km


48. In the given pictograph, which mode carries the maximum number of students ?

(1) Bus (2) Car (3) Cycle (4) On foot

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–3
49. =
5 –15

(1) 9 (2) –9 (3) 0 (4) 1


50. In Roman numeral system, the symbol ‘XCV’ represents the number ______.
(1) 85 (2) 95 (3) 105 (4) 500

1
51. What is value of 1
1+
1
1+
2

3 5 8 5
(1) (2) (3) (4)
5 3 5 8

52. If 2459 × 1108 = 2724572 then value of 24.59 × 0.1108 is


(1) 272.4572 (2) 2724.572
(3) 0.2724572 (4) 2.724572
53. There are 1000 children who were asked about their hobbies. The children who told about their
hobby, has been shown below. But some children didn’t reply.

Hobbies No. of Children


Dancing
Singing
Playing
Travelling
Adventuring
One represent
25 children

Which of the following is the correct pictorial representation for the children who did not reply ?

(1) (2) (3) (4)

42.53 ×1.001 ×10.51


54. is same as
104.3 × 519.32 × 2.67

4253 ×1001 ×1051 425.3 ×100.1 ×1051


(1) (2)
1043 × 51932 × 267 1043 × 5193.2 × 2.67

4.253 ×10.01 ×105.1 42.53 ×10.01 ×1.051


(3) (4)
104.3 × 5193.2 × 2.67 1.043 × 51932 × 0.267

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55. Find the perimeter of figure ABCDE.

D 4 C

4
5
E
5

A 8 B

(1) 30 (2) 26 (3) 50 (4) 40


56. The area of a rectangle is 80 sq. cm. the length of the rectangle is 16 cm. then the breadth (in cm)
(1) 5 (2) 10 (3) 15 (4) 20
57. If all the factors of 729 are arranged in descending order, then the third factor is
(1) 243 (2) 81 (3) 27 (4) –27
58. A box contains 5 strips having 12 capsules of 500 gm medicine in each capsule. Find the total weight
in gms of medicine in 32 such boxes ?
(1) 960000 gm (2) 272000 gm (3) 905600 gm (4) 38400 gm

50 ×14 +1450
59. = 2150 ¸ ?
5

(1) 50.5 (2) 5 (3) 50.05 (4) 45.9


60. For how many integers does the multiplicative inverse of the number is same as the number itself but
their additive inverse is not same as the number ?
(1) 1 (2) 0 (3) 2 (4) can not be determined
SECTION-E : MENTAL ABILITY
This section contains 20 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

61. In the following question arrange the given words in the sequence in which they occur in the dictionary
and then choose the correct sequence.
(a) Ingredient (b) Involvement
(c) Independent (d) Inmigration
(1) c, a, d, b (2) a, d, c, d
(3) b, c, d, a (4) d, b, a, c
62. Which letter will be the mid way between the 14th letter from left end and 19th letter from the right end
of the following alphabets?
ABCDEFGHIJKLMNOPQRSTUVWXYZ
(1) I (2) K
(3) M (4) G

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63. Mr. Om is going to watch a movie in the following picture path followed by him is given. From the
options given below select the appropriate combination of direction so that Mr. Om reached the theater
easily.

Mr. Om
Movie
Theater

(1) ESENEES (2) SENESEE


(3) ESENESE (4) NESESE
64. A person started walking towards North. He walked 10 m and then took a left turn and walked a distance
of 15 m. Then he took a right turn and walked a distance of 10 m again, Which direction is he facing
now?
(1) South (2) West
(3) East (4) North
65. In a certain code language “RHYTHM” is coded as MHTYHR. How would “ECASTASY” will be coded?
(1) SACEYSAT (2) CESAATYS
(3) YSATASEC (4) YSATSACE
66. A watch shows 4 : 15. If the minute hand points West, then in which direction will the hour hand
point?
(1) North-West (2) South
(3) South-East (4) East
67. If the first and second letters in the word “HISTORICAL” were interchanged, also the third and fourth
letters, the fifth and the sixth letters and so on, which of the following would be the eighth letter from
the left ?
(1) A (2) I (3) C (4) T
68. If 'MEAT' is written as 'TEAM', then 'BALE' is written as
(1) ELAB (2) EABL
(3) EBLA (4) EALB
Directions (Q. No 69 & 70):- Read the following information carefully and answer the questions that follow.
(i) Six flats on a floor in two rows facing North and South are allotted to P, Q, R, S, T and U.
(ii) Q gets a North facing flat and is not next to S.
(iii) S and U get diagonally opposite flats.
(iv) R next to U, gets a South facing flat and T gets a North facing flat.

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69. Whose flat is between Q and S?


(1) T (2) U (3) R (4) P
70. The flats of which of the other pair than SU, is diagonally opposite to each other?
(1) PT (2) QP (3) QR (4) TS
71. Find the missing numbers in the following series :
12, 15, 18, 21, ?
(1) 24 (2) 23 (3) 22 (4) 25
72. Find the missing numbers in the following series :
5, 5, 10, 30, 120, 600, ?
(1) 3600 (2) 3000 (3) 4200 (4) 4800
73. Find the missing term ?
672, 336, 344, 172, 180, ?, 98
(1) 188 (2) 100 (3) 90 (4) 120
74. Select the correct figure which correctly depicts the relationship between the given words:
Brinjal, Meat, Vegetables

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

75. Choose the correct mirror image.

(1) (2) (3) (4)

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76. Select the correct figure which correctly depicts the relationship between the given words:
Singer, Writer, Actor

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

77. Select the correct water image:

(X)

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

78. Find the water image of the following figures.

(1) (2) (3) (4)

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79. Choose the correct mirror image from given alternatives :

(X)

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

80. Answer the following question according to the given table :

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
T G A L O S D H J N F C R U Y I Z E

“REGRET” is coded as 1318213181. How would “REJOICE” will be coded.


(1) 131895171115 (2) 131895161218
(3) 149185151117 (4) 131811591512

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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

16/16
ANSWER KEY : 15-10-2017 CLASS – VI CODE : U
Q.No. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 2 2 2 3 2 1 2 2 1 4 4 4 4 4 2
Q.No. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 4 2 1 1 1 4 3 2 3 2 2 4 4 3 2
Q.No. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. 2 4 3 1 2 2 1 4 1 1 3 1 1 1 2
Q.No. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. 2 4 1 1 2 1 4 4 3 2 1 2 1 2 3
Q.No. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75
Ans. 1 2 3 4 4 1 2 4 1 2 1 1 3 4 2
Q.No. 76 77 78 79 80
Ans. 2 1 1 3 2
A Specially Designed Initiative TALLENTEX 2018 : (10, September 2017)
to Encourage Young Talent by

TALLENTEX

2018
ALLEN'S Talent Encouragement Exam

th
CLASS - 6 (VI)
Duration: 2 Hrs. | Maximum Marks : 320

T 6 6
Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.
Things NOT ALLOWED in EXAM HALL : Blank Paper, clipboard, log table, slide rule, calculator, camera, mobile and
any electronic or electrical gadget. If you are carrying any of these, then keep them at a place specified by invigilator at
your own responsibility.

INSTRUCTIONS
1. This Booklet is your Question Paper. DO NOT break seal of Booklet until the invigilator instructs to do so.
2. Fill your TALLENTEX Roll No. & Answer Sheet No. in the space provided on the cover page.
3. Carefully fill your PAPER CODE and present CLASS in space provided (Serial No. 6 & 12) of optical response sheet.
4. Please make sure that paper you received is of your class only.
5. Please make sure that the Paper Code Printed on the Test Booklet Cover Page and Inner Pages are the same. In
case of discrepancy, the candidate should immediately report the matter to the Invigilator for replacement of
Test Booklet.
6. The Answer Sheet is provided to you separately which is a machine readable Optical Response Sheet (ORS). You have
to mark your answers in the ORS by darkening bubble, as per your answer choice, by using black or blue ball point pen.
7. After breaking the Question Paper seal, check there are 12 pages in the booklet. This Question Paper contains
80 MCQs with 4 choices (Subjects: Physics: 12, Chemistry: 11, Biology: 12, Maths: 25 & Mental ability: 20).
8. Answer once marked by pen cannot be cancelled.
9. Each correct answer carries 4 marks. (There is no negative marking)
10. If you are found involved in cheating or disturbing others, then your ORS will be cancelled.
11. Do not put any stain on ORS and hand it over back properly to the invigilator.
12. You can take along the question paper after the test is over.
facebook.com/tallentex twitter.com/TALLENTEX www.tallentex.com
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SECTION - A : PHYSICS
This section contains 12 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. Planets with their properties are listed in following table. Identify the planet listed with incorrect
property.

Mercury smallest and hottest planet

Venus brightest planet and spins east to west


Uranus coldest and third biggest planet

Jupiter biggest planet and has storms

(1) Mercury (2) Venus (3) Uranus (4) Jupiter


2. The diagram below shows Earth revolving around the Sun. Letters A and B show two locations in
Earth’s orbit around the Sun. It takes Earth one year to revolve around the Sun. How long will it take
for Earth to travel from point A to point B?

B A
Sun Earth

(Not drawn to scale)

(1) 1 month (2) 3 months (3) 6 months (4) 9 months


3. You are provided with three scales A, B and C as shown in figure to measure length of 10 cm.

Which scale can be used for the correct measurement of length?


(1) A only (2) B only (3) C only (4) All of these

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4. Why a non-luminous object is visible to us?


(1) It gives off visible light.
(2) The light reflected by this object enters our eye.
(3) It absorb all light falling on it.
(4) It gives off ultraviolet rays.
5. If the angle of incidence for a given light ray is 60°, then find the value of x.

60°
x
\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\

(1) 60° (2) 30° (3) 45° (4) 120°


6. The shape of a shadow depends on which of the following?
(1) Shape of the opaque object (2) The colour of the screen
(3) The colour of the object (4) All of these
7. Teena and Mickey take two different path to go to their school as shown below. Who travelled through
the shorter route?

10m
Teena's
2m
Path 5m
3m
Home 5m School

Mickey's 10m
Path
2m
7m
Home 10m
3m School
(1) Teena (2) Mickey
(3) Both travelled equal distance (4) Data incomplete
8. One kilogram is equal to :
(1) 100g (2) 1000g (3) 10 g (4) 10000 g
9. Which one is the fifth planet from the Sun?
(1) Saturn (2) Jupiter (3) Uranus (4) Neptune
10. While playing football, the ball is passed from player to player at different speeds. It is possible due to
(1) Air (2) The ground (3) Gravitational pull (4) Force
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11. The S.I. unit of force is


(1) kg (2) Newton (3) Pound (4) Dyne
12. Hydroelectric power makes electricity by using the energy from falling _______.
(1) Wind (2) Water (3) Sound waves (4) Sun radiations

SECTION-B : CHEMISTRY
This section contains 11 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.
13. Which element has neither definite shape nor definite volume ?
(1) Sodium (2) Hydrogen (3) Mercury (4) Lithium
14. Maximum carbon containing coal is
(1) Peat (2) Lignite (3) Bituminous (4) Anthracite
15. Which of the following is insoluble in water ?
(1) Table Salt (2) Washing powder (3) Chalk powder (4) Baking powder
16. Match the column
Column I Column II
(I) Removal of larger particles from smaller ones (p) Sieving
(II) Separation of cream from milk (q) Filtration
(III) Separation of a mixture of mud and water (r) Churning
(IV) The process of making mud particles heavy (s) Loading
(1) I ® (p); II ® (q); III ® (r); IV ® (s) (2) I ® (s); II ® (r); III ® (q); IV ® (p)
(3) I ® (p); II ® (r); III ® (q); IV ® (s) (4) I ® (s); II ® (q); III ® (r); IV ® (p)
17. Sedimentation and decantation are useful to separate :
(1) miscible liquids.
(2) soluble solid from liquid.
(3) insoluble solid from liquid where the solid is lighter than the liquid.
(4) insoluble solid from a liquid where the solid is heavier than the liquid.
18. Identify Y in the given venn diagram.

Made
Natural from
Fibre Y
plants

(1) Silk (2) Nylon


(3) Polyester (4) Cotton
19. Cotton is preferred to be worn in a hot and humid place like India. This is because cotton fibres:
(1) are strong and light. (2) have pores between them.
(3) do not have pores between them. (4) are obtained from plants.

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20. The melting point of ice is ___.


(1) 0°C (2) 5°C
(3) 4°C (4) 100ºC
21. Oxygen is returned to the atmosphere mainly by
(1) burning of fossil fuels (2) respiration
(3) fungi (4) photosynthesis
22. Which method is used to obtain pure liquid from a solution?
(1) Distillation (2) Sedimentation & decantation
(3) Filtration (4) Loading
23. Gases which are soluble in water.
(1) Oxygen, Methane, Carbon monoxide
(2) Oxygen, Carbon dioxide
(3) Oxygen, Carbon dioxide, Nitrogen
(4) Methane, Oxygen, Nitrogen

SECTION-C : BIOLOGY
This section contains 12 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
24. At which stages P, Q, R, S and T do the germination, fertilization and seed dispersal takes place?

Germination Fertilization Seed dispersal


(1) P S T
(2) P R Q
(3) R P Q
(4) S T P
25. Which of the following plant seed has two cotyledons?
(1) Rice (2) Wheat
(3) Maize (4) Pear
26. Which is the waste material produced in human body for excretion ?
(1) Urea (2) Glucose
(3) CO2 (4) Both (1) and (3)

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27. I pump red liquid throughout my life, I started working before you were born. Who am I?

(1) (2) (3) (4)

28. The four bean seeds in the diagram below were planted on different days. Each seed was planted in
the same kind of soil and pot. The seeds were given the same amounts of sunlight and water each day.
The diagram shows all four pots on the same day. The pots are labelled A, B, C, and D.

A B C D

Based on the growth and development of the four bean seeds, which one most likely was planted
before the other three?
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
29. The food item is rich in the nutrient X. Deficiency of which leads to a disease Y. Symptom of that
disease are (i) Extreme weight loss (ii) Protruding ribs (iii) Lack of energy etc.
Choose the correct option from the statements.
(1) X is carbohydrate and Y is Kwashiorkor (2) X is protein and Y is Kwashiorkor
(3) Deficiency of X causes PEM (4) Both (1) and (3) are correct
30. Which one of the following statement is incorrect?
(1) Bacteria and fungi help plants to return minerals to the soil.
(2) Plants rely on animals to help them scatter their seeds
(3) Plants depend upon animals for food and shelter.
(4) Animals need plants as a source of food.
31. DPT is a triple vaccine which provide protection against.
(1) Tuberculosis, Polio and Diabetes (2) Diphtheria, Polio and Typhoid
(3) Diphtheria, Whooping cough and Tetanus (4) Diphtheria, Polio and Tetanus
32. The Chipko Movement which took place in the early 1970s in Uttar Pradesh was started by tribal
people for
(1) Reducing greenhouse effect (2) Reducing air pollution
(3) Reducing global warming (4) Protecting trees

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33. Which of the following plant has edible flowers?


(1) Cabbage (2) Spinach (3) Gram (4) Broccoli
34. Sound becomes a hazardous noise pollution if its level exceeds
(1) 30 dB (2) 80 dB (3) 120 dB (4) 150 dB
35. Study the “food pyramid” below and then find the answer that is a correct description of each group
labelled, W, X, Y, Z.

W X Y Z
(1) Protein Fats and oils Vitamins Carbohydrates
(2) Carbohydrates Vitamins Proteins Fats and oils
(3) Fats and oils Proteins Carbohydrates Vitamins
(4) Vitamins Carbohydrates Fats and oils Proteins

SECTION-D : MATHEMATICS
This section contains 25 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
36. If one symbol # represents 150 trees, then the number of trees represented by ##### are _________.
(1) 600 (2) 700 (3) 750 (4) 500
2
37. Which is equivalent to 1 m ?
2 2 2 2
(1) 10 cm (2) 100 cm (3) 1000 cm (4) 10000 cm
38. The sum of two integers is 48. If one of the integers is –24, determine the other.
(1) 24 (2) –24 (3) 72 (4) –72
39. Sampath gathered information for one activity in his class and he discovered there are some children
who do some things with right hand and others with left. He recorded the information as given below

No. of children
Right H 30
Left H 7
Mixed 3
How many of Sampath’s classmate are right handed and mixed?
(1) 30 (2) 3 (3) 33 (4) 10
40. The centre of the circle always lies in the interior of the
(1) Minor segment (2) Semi circle (3) Major segment (4) Minor arc

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41. Twelve cubes measuring 3cm by 3cm by 3cm fit perfectly into the rectangular prism shown below

3 cm

m
3c
3 cm
3
What is the volume of the rectangular prism in cm ?
3 3 3 3
(1) 36 cm (2) 162 cm (3) 288 cm (4) 324 cm
42. Study the diagram carefully and identify the students who play football and cricket but not kabbadi.

Kabbadi
R
P Q
S T U

Football V
Cricket

(1) Q (2) V (3) T (4) S


43. In the adjoining rangoli design the distance between any two adjacent dots is 1 unit. In the diagram,
we find the DABC is equilateral. The number of smallest equilateral triangle thus formed by joining
the dots suitably is
·

· · · ·
A · ·
· · ·
B
· ·C · ·
·
· · · · ·
· · · ·

(1) 24 (2) 28 (3) 15 (4) 30


44. The price of a commodity P increases by 40 paise every year, while the price of commodity Q increases
by 15 paise every year. If in 2001, the price of commodity P was Rs.4.20 and that of Q was
Rs. 6.30. In which year commodity P will cost 40 paise more than commodity Q ?
(1) 2008 (2) 2009 (3) 2010 (4) 2011
45. Number of whole numbers lying between –5 & 5 are ?
(1) 10 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 5
46. Find the greatest number of four digits exactly divisible by 8, 12, 15 and 20.
(1) 8860 (2) 8888 (3) 9999 (4) 9960

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47. Which of the following fraction is smallest :


7 9 3 4
(1) (2) (3) (4)
9 11 8 7
48. Total number of illiterate children :

Small Towns Number of illiterate children

Melrose

Marengo

Midway

Parral

Rushville

(1) 20 (2) 22 (3) 21 (4) 30

1 4
49. If there are n fractions between and then value of n is
2 3

(1) 6 (2) 5 (3) 50 (4) Infinite


50. Which number is a common multiple of 4 and 11.
(1) 176 (2) 136 (3) 154 (4) 22
0
51. What is value of (2 × 10 × 9 ¸ 5)
(1) 4.5 (2) 1 (3) 0 (4) 36
52. Find the place value of 7 in 363.713.

7 7 7
(1) (2) (3) 7 (4)
100 1000 10

53. In the below pictograph, number of wolfs are _____ of number of bears.

(1) 5 times (2) 6 times (3) 4 times (4) 3 times


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54. Shilpa drove 44.802 kms to visit her grandmother. When she reached her grandmother's house she
noticed the car had used up 3.93 litres of petrol. How many kilometres did she travel per litre of
petrol?
(1) 10.2 km (2) 11.4 km (3) 12.2 km (4) 14.2 km
55. A marble tile measures 25 cm by 20 cm. How many tiles would be required to cover a wall of size 4m
by 3m ?
(1) 200 (2) 220 (3) 240 (4) 260
56. Find the perimeter of square whose area is equal to area of rectangle with dimensions 9 cm and 4 cm.

(1) 36 cm (2) 26 cm (3) 144 cm (4) 24 cm

1 1 1
57. x× = × . Then x =
10 40 50

1 1
(1) 20 (2) (3) 200 (4)
20 200

3 5
58. A student multiplied a number by instead of . What is the percentage error in the calculation ?
5 3
(1) 34% (2) 44% (3) 54% (4) 64%
59. How many zeroes are there at the end of the number 32 × 625 ?
(1) 5 (2) 4 (3) 1 (4) 6
60. A goalkeeper is 68cm tall and the goal is 0.76m high. What is the difference between the height of the
goal and the height of the goalkeeper ?
(1) 8 mm (2) 80 mm (3) 80 cm (4) 0.8 cm
SECTION-E : MENTAL ABILITY
This section contains 20 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
61. In KALEIDOSCOPE, which one word cannot be made from its letters?
(1) SCALE (2) PADLOCK (3) PACKET (4) DIESEL
62. Arrange the given words in the alphabetical order and tick the one that comes last.
(1) Acclimage (2) Accordal
(3) Abrasive (4) Accontiuate
63. City D is to the West of city M. City R is to the South of city D. If city K is to the East of city R, then
in which direction is city K located with respect to city D.
(1) North (2) East
(3) North East (4) South East
64. A man walks 5 km toward south and then turns to the right. After walking 3 km he turns to the left and
walks 5 km. Now in which direction is he from the starting place?
(1) West (2) South (3) North-East (4) South-West

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65. If 'FLARE' is coded as 22, 9, 26, 15, 21 then how would 'BREIF' be coded in the same language ?
(1) 21, 9, 22, 25, 18 (2) 5, 37, 11, 19, 13
(3) 13, 19, 11, 37, 5 (4) 21, 18, 22, 9, 25
66. A man is facing towards south-west direction then he takes 180° turn clockwise, after that turn 90°
anticlockwise and at last 180° turn clockwise. Now in which direction is he facing ?
(1) North-West (2) South-East (3) East (4) South-West
67. ABCDEFGHIJKLMNOPQRSTUVWXYZ.
Which letter in this alphabet series is the eighth letter to the right of the letter which is tenth letter to the
left of the last letter of the alphabet from the right end?
(1) W (2) X (3) I (4) H
68. If E = 8 and SAFE = 43, then PINK = ?
(1) 41 (2) 40 (3) 62 (4) 65
69. Six people are sitting in a circle facing centre. Umesh is between Rajesh and Ravi, Mahesh is between
Sanjay and Ganesh. Sanjay is immediate left of Rajesh.
Who is sitting just opposite to Umesh?
(1) Mahesh (2) Ganesh
(3) Ravi (4) Rajesh
70. In a college party, 5 girls are sitting in a row. P is to the left M and to the right of O. R is sitting to the
right of N but to the left of O. Who is sitting in the middle?
(1) O (2) R (3) P (4) M
71. Complete the following Alphabet Series.
C, F, I, ?, O, R
(1) J (2) K (3) L (4) M
72. Find the wrong term of the series :
2, 6, 10, 20, 30, 42, 56
(1) 6 (2) 10 (3) 20 (4) 30
73. Find the Wrong Term in the following number series.
6, 10, 27, 105, 515, 3084
(1) 10 (2) 27 (3) 105 (4) 515
74. Which figure will best represent the relationship amongst the three classes Parrots, Birds, Cats.?

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

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75. In the following question, choose the correct mirror image of the figure (A) from amongst the four
alternatives (1), (2), (3) and (4) given along with it.

(1) (2) (3) (4)

76. Which of the following Venn- diagram correctly illustrates the relationship among the classes :
Tennis fans, Cricket players, Students

(1) (2) (3) (4)

77. Choose the correct water image:


12
9 3

(1) (2) (3) (4)

78. Find the mirror image of the figure given in the question figure out of the figures given in the answer
choices, when the mirror is placed horizontally (at the top or bottom of the question figure) on the line
AB.
Queation Figure Answer Figure

13
A B (1) (2) (3) (4)

79. Find the correct mirror image :


QUALITY
(1) (2) (3) (4)
80. “ORIGINAL” is coded as 2786835@ and “DESIGN” is coded as 419863. The what will be the code
for “INDIA?
(1) @8726 (2) 83485 (3) 94867 (4) 2@374

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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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SECTION - A : PHYSICS
This section contains 12 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. What is the full form of LPG ?
(1) Liquefied Petroleum gas (2) Liquefied Petroleum gasoline
(3) Liquid Petrol gasoline (4) Liquefied petrol gasoline
2. Arrange the following lengths in their increasing magnitude.
1 centimetre
1 metre
1 millimetre
1 kilometre
(1) 1 millimetre, 1 centimetre, 1 metre, 1 kilometre
(2) 1 kilometre, 1 metre, 1 centimetre, 1 millimetre
(3) 1 metre, 1 millimetre, 1 centimetre, 1 kilometre
(4) 1 millimetre, 1 centimetre, 1 kilometre, 1 metre
3. The planet whose length of the days and tilt of axis are almost identical to those of the earth is
(1) Uranus (2) Neptune
(3) Saturn (4) Mars
4. Choose the option under incorrect heading
Luminous Objects Non-Luminous Objects
(1) Sun Table
(2) Glow worm Books
(3) Candle flame Wooden board
(4) Moon Lighted bulb
5. When Earth’s shadow block the Moon, it is called a(n)
(1) solar eclipse (2) lunar eclipse
(3) axis (4) phase
6. Which of the following is the renewable source of energy?
(1) Water (2) Biomass
(3) Petrol (4) Both (1) & (2)
7. The reflection of different intensities of light falling on moon from the sun due to its revolution around
the earth is
(1) Ursa major (2) Phases
(3) Comets (4) None of these
8. Propagation of light in a straight line is known as
(1) Regular propagation (2) Irregular propagation
(3) Rectilinear propagation (4) All of these
9. To & fro motion of an object is known as
(1) Oscillatory motion (2) Periodic motion
(3) Rectilinear motion (4) Circular motion
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10. The diagram below shows a periscope. Mary is using it to look over a wall.
mirror

mirror

Which option correctly shows the path the light ray would take through the periscope?

(1) (2) (3) (4)

11. A wooden block is pushed across the rough surface. This makes the bottom of the block feel warm
because

Block
Rough
surface

(1) light energy changes to heat energy (2) mechanical energy changes to heat energy
(3) chemical energy changes to heat energy (4) nuclear energy changes to heat energy
12. An insect moves as shown in the diagram. Which of the following can be used to determine the
distance covered by that insect?
D

A B
(1) A 15 cm scale and a meter scale (2) A meter scale
(3) Hand span and a meter scale (4) Thread and a meter scale
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SECTION-B : CHEMISTRY
This section contains 11 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.
13. Look at three groups of objects as shown
A B C
Rubber ball Iron nail Sugar
Foot ball Metal coin Glucose
Glass marble Metal spoon Salt
Which category do A, B and C represents respectively?
(1) Solid, floats in water, soluble in water (2) Solid, sinks in water, soluble in water
(3) Solid, sinks in water, insoluble in water (4) Solid, miscible in water, soluble in water
14. While doing an activity in class, the teacher asked Ankita to hand over a material which will float on
water. Which among the following material will Ankita pick and give her teacher?
(1) Mirror (2) Metal coin (3) Wood cork (4) Metal dish
15. The process followed to separate grains from the stalks is called_____.
(1) Evaporation (2) Threshing (3) Sieving (4) Hand picking
16. Which state is most compressible?
(1) Solid (2) Liquid (3) Gas (4) All of these
17. Read the following table carefully.
Types of mixture Example Method of separation
(i) A heterogeneous solid- liquid mixture Muddy water Sedimentation and decantation
(ii) (a) Bran and flour (b)
(iii) A heterogeneous liquid mixture (c) Using a separating funnel
(iv) (d) (e) Sublimation
(1) (a) a heterogeneous solid mixture, (b) sieving,
(c) oil and water,
(d) a heterogeneous solid mixture containing one sublimating constituent,
(e) camphor and sand
(2) (a) a homogeneous solid mixture, (b) filtration,
(c) vinegar and water, (d) a homogeneous liquid mixture,
(e) oil and water
(3) (a) a homogeneous liquid mixture, (b) sedimentation,
(c) kerosene and water, (d) a homogeneous solid mixture,
(e) camphor and sand
(4) (a) a heterogeneous solid mixture, (b) sieving,
(c) oil and water,
(d) a homogeneous liquid mixture containing one sublimating constituent,
(e) naphthalene and sand

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18. Natural resource which has definite cycle is
(1) Non-conventional (2) Inexhaustible
(3) Exhaustible (4) Renewable
19. Fill in the blanks from the options given below.
(i) fibre (ii) spring (iii) rotting (iv) silver (v) ginning
(vi) rainy (vii) fabric (viii) yarn (ix) spinning (x) knitting
(I) Separation of fibres from jute stem is called______.
(II) ______is formed when fibres are pulled and twisted.
(III) Thread like filament of vegetable tissue is called a______.
(IV) In______season, jute (putson) is cultivated.
Codes
(I) (II) (III) (IV)
(1) (v) (viii) (i) (ii)
(2) (iii) (viii) (i) (vi)
(3) (x) (iv) (vii) (vi)
(4) (ix) (viii) (vii) (ii)
20. Which gaseous layer protects us from UV radiations ?
(1) Oxygen (2) Nitrogen (3) Ozone (4) Methane
21. Which one has maximum intermolecular spaces ?
(1) Solid (2) Liquid (3) Gas (4) All of these
22. Suggest a separation technique to separate newspaper pieces and cardboard pieces.
(1) Threshing (2) Sieving (3) Magnetic separation (4) Winnowing
23. Match the terms given in Column-I with the statements given in Column-II.

Column-I Column-II
(A) Weaving (i) A single yarn used to make a fabric
(B) Knitting (ii) Combing of cotton fibres to remove seeds
(C) Spinning (iii) Yarns are made from these thin strands
(D) Ginning (iv) These are spun from fibres and then used to make fabrics
(E) Fibre (v) Process of arranging two sets of yarns together to make a fabric
(F) Yarn (vi) Process of making yarn from fibres

(1) (A) - (i); (B) - (ii); (C) - (iii); (D) - (iv); (E) - (v); (F) - (vi)
(2) (A) - (vi); (B) - (v); (C) - (iv); (D) - (iii); (E) - (ii); (F) - (i)
(3) (A) - (v); (B) - (i); (C) - (vi); (D) - (ii); (E) - (iii); (F) - (iv)
(4) (A) - (i); (B) - (iv); (C) - (ii); (D) - (v); (E) - (iii); (F) - (vi)

SECTION-C : BIOLOGY
This section contains 12 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
24. The area to which a species is biologically adapted to live is known as
(1) Population (2) Habitat
(3) Succession (4) Community

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25. Which of the following best describes how plants use the energy they receive from sunlight?
(1) They change water into heat. (2) They produce their own food.
(3) They make minerals for their roots. (4) They break down nutrients into rocks.
26. Which among the following disease spread through contaminated food and water ?
(1) Malaria (2) Cholera (3) Dengue (4) Filariasis
27. Read the list of the birds given below and answer the question. :
Crow, Pigeon, Sparrow, Duck, Peacock, Cuckoo, Woodpecker, Myna
Which of the above given birds lay its eggs in the other bird’s nest?
(1) Crow, Pigeon (2) Sparrow, Duck, Myna
(3) Woodpecker, Duck (4) Cuckoo
28. Which is the odd one ? (on basis of function)
(1) Smooth muscle (2) Cardiac muscle
(3) Involuntary muscles (4) Skeletal muscle
29. The edible parts of Banana plant are
(1) Flowers (2) Fruits (3) Stem (4) All the above
30. Bile from liver is secreted into
(1) Small intestine (2) Stomach
(3) Large intestine (4) Rectum
31. Which of the following is not a type of carbohydrate?
(1) Sugar (2) Lipid (3) Starch (4) Cellulose
32. What part of animal's body makes bones move from one position to other?
(1) Blood vessel (2) Liver cells (3) Heart (4) Muscles
33. Which of the following can be degraded by nature?

(1) (2) (3) (4) (1) and (2) both

34. ........... is immediate source of energy.


(1) Sucrose (2) Fructose (3) Glucose (4) Galactose
35. Which of the following is the living part of an ecosystem ?
(1) Water (2) Soil (3) Producers (4) Air

SECTION-D : MATHEMATICS
This section contains 25 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
36. Number of lines that can be drawn from two distinct points on a plane
(1) Two (2) One
(3) Zero (4) Infinite

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37. The following pictograph shows the number of scooters sold by a company during a week.

Scale used = 6 scooters sold

Day No. of scooters sold


Mon
Tue
Wed
Thu
Fri
Sat
Study the pictograph carefully and answer the questions given below :
How many scooters were sold on Monday ?
(1) 24 (2) 30 (3) 36 (4) 42
38. 13,338 litre of oil was poured into 9 cans equally. Then the quantity of oil in each can is ____.
(1) 1842 litres (2) 1482 litres (3) 1824 litres (4) 1284 litres
39. Grasshopper wants to climb a staircase with many steps. It can make only two kinds of jumps : three
steps up or four steps down. Beginning at the ground level, at least how many jumps will it have to
make in order to take a rest on the 22nd step?

3rd step

2nd step

1st step

Ground

(1) 7 (2) 9 (3) 10 (4) 12


40. Here is a pictograph showing the number of different animals in a zoo

What type of animals are minimum in number?


(1) Zebra (2) Tiger (3) Wolf (4) Bear
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41. What could be the values on empty Jars?

2000
0.3 dal ml

70 dl II

I 0.6 dal

(1) I = 2l, II = 4000 ml (2) I = 200 ml, II = 4l


(3) I = 2l, II = 40 ml (4) I = 20l, II = 40 dal
42. Look at the pictograph and answer the following question :
The number of books in the school library are shown in the given pictograph. One figure of a book
represents 10 books.

Find the difference between the number of French books and English books.
(1) 60 (2) 50 (3) 36 (4) 24
43. Which of the following is not an example of ray?

(1) (2)

B A
(3) (4)

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1 3
44. Vineet is m shorter than Ashwin. If Vineet is 1 m tall, how tall is Ashwin?
4 8
1 1 1 5
(1) 1 m (2) 1 m (3) 1 m (4) 1 m
8 6 4 8
45. The pictograph shows the number of cupcakes sold at a bakery over four days.

Number of Cupcakes Sold

Tuesday

Wednesday

Thursday

Friday

= 10 cupcakes

How many more cupcakes were sold on Thursday than were sold on Wednesday?
(1) 5 cupcakes (2) 10 cupcakes (3) 15 cupcakes (4) 20 cupcakes
46. 2 less than –3 is
(1) –1 (2) 1 (3) –5 (4) 5
47. Which of the following is not equivalent fraction?

(1) (2) (3) (4)

48. What is the value of (121 ÷ 37) × (148 ÷ 11)


(1) 44 (2) 45 (3) 110 (4) 0
49. What is the smallest 5 digit number using 0 and 4 only?
(1) 40000 (2) 44000 (3) 44400 (4) 44440
50. The perimeter of an equilateral triangle with side measuring 5.8 cm is
(1) 16.4 cm (2) 17.4 cm (3) 18.4 cm (4) 19.4 cm
3 6
51. By what number should 2 be multiplied to get 1 ?
5 7

5 5 1 1
(1) 1 (2) (3) 1 (4)
7 7 7 7
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52. Seema has a basket full of fruits of different variety. Read the pictograph given below and answer the
following question.
Strawberries

Mangoes

Apples
Pear

Bananas

How many fruits are there in the basket?


(1) 38 (2) 36 (3) 40 (4) 43
53. Which decimal represents the shaded part?

(1) 0.20 (2) 0.25 (3) 0.50 (4) 0.75


54. The shaded part in the figure below is covered with cement. If it cost Rs. 84 to cement an area of
3 cm2, find the total cost of cementing.
32 cm

Area = 25 cm
485 cm2

(1) Rs. 8820 (2) Rs. 8125 (3) Rs. 8610 (4) Rs. 8804
55. Every 2 days, a scientist spends 1.25 hours observing dolphins and 3.5 hours observing sea lions.
At this rate, how many total hours will the scientist spend observing dolphins and sea lions in 6 days?

(1) 28.5 hours (2) 14.25 hours (3) 9.5 hours (4) 23.5 hours
56. Estimate the following product by rounding off each number to the nearest hundred :
479 × 513 = ?
(1) 250000 (2) 2500000 (3) 100000 (4) 200000
57. An aeroplane uses 500 L of fuel in 10 minutes. How much fuel is needed for one month of January if
the aeroplane flies for 2 hours in a day?
(1) 180000 L (2) 186000 L (3) 6000 L (4) None of these
58. Difference of the smallest 7 digit number and the greatest 5 digit number.
(1) 910000 (2) 900001 (3) 90001 (4) 900000
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59. On subtracting –13 from –8, we get
(1) –21 (2) 21 (3) 5 (4) –5
60. How many Rs 20 will make Rs 1000?
(1) 5 (2) 50 (3) 500 (4) 100

SECTION-E : MENTAL ABILITY


This section contains 20 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
61. Which of the following options is correct order of given words according to English dictionary?
a. Live b. Litter c. Little d. Literary
(1) dcab (2) dbca (3) cdba (4) cbda
62. Abhishek walks 20 metres towards south then turns left and walks 40 metres. He again turns left and
walks 20 metres. Again he turns right and walk 20 metres. How far is he from his original position?
(1) 30 metre (2) 50 metres (3) 60 metres (4) 40 metres
63. Which letter will be in the middle between 10 letter from left and 18 letter from the left in the
th th

English Alphabet ?
(1) L (2) M (3) N (4) O
64. Choose the venn diagram which best illustrates the three given classes in the following question.
Nose, Hand, Body

(1) (2) (3) (4)


65. If FATHER is coded as HCVJGT then what is the code of SHIP?
(1) UKJR (2) TIJQ (3) UJKR (4) THKR
66. Kunal is facing North-West. He turns 90º in the clockwise direction, then again turns 270º in
anticlockwise direction, which direction is he facing now ?
(1) West (2) South-East (3) South (4) None of these
67. If the letters of the word ‘TALLENTEX’ are arranged from right to left in alphabetical order , then which
letter will be fourth from starting.
(1) E (2) N (3) T (4) A
68. If BRINJAL is written as LAJNIRB in a code language then what is code of LADYFINGER in same
language ?
(1) RNEGIFYDAL (2) RINEGIFYDAL (3) REGNIFYDAL (4) RGENIFYDAL
69. M, N, O, P, Q, R and S are sitting together in a row facing south direction. R is second from left and
immediate left of M. Q is fifth to the right of P. S is at extreme end and right of M. O is in middle and
Q is between S and N. Who is sitting to the immediate right of M?
(1) O (2) R (3) N (4) P
70. 15 people entered a theatre before Sujit, 7 people entered the theatre between Sujit and Suraj and 20
people entered the theatre after Suraj. How many people are there in the theatre?
(1) 28 (2) 36 (3) 44 (4) 40
71. If code of the word “CUSTOMER” is “DVTUPNFS”, then find code of the word “HISTORIC”
(1) IJTUPSJD (2) IKSUPSID (3) IJUTPSJD (4) IJTUSPDJ
72. Find the missing term in the pattern below
2, 4, 6, 8, ?, 12
(1) 10 (2) 11 (3) 12 (4) 13
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73. In the following question, choose the correct mirror image from the answer figures (1), (2), (3) and (4).

(1) (2) (3) (4)


74. Choose the correct alternative that will continue the same pattern in the given series.
1, 1, 4, 8, 9, 27, 16, ?
(1) 32 (2) 64 (3) 81 (4) 256
75. In the following diagram rectangle represents female, Triangle represents educated circle represents
rural and square represents private employees.

8 18 17

32 6 7

19 5
31 15
16
Which one of the following represents the educated female but not rural ?
(1) 19 (2) 31 (3) 17 (4) 32
76. Find the water image of the object given in the question Figure denoted by (A) out of the Figures
given in the answer figures (1), (2), (3) and (4).

(A)
(A) (a)
(1) (b)
(2) (c)
(3) (d)
(4)
77. A, B, C and D are playing cards. A and B are partners. D faces towards South. If A faces towards East,
then who faces towards North :
(1) B (2) C (3) D (4) Data inadequate
78. Choose the alternative which is closely resembles the water-image of the given combination.

(1) (2) (3) (4)


79. Which term will come in the following series?
4, 9, 25, 49, 121, 169,_______
(1) 196 (2) 225 (3) 256 (4) 289
80. Choose the alternative which is closely resembles the mirror image of the given combination.

(1) (2) (3) (4)

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SECTION - A : PHYSICS
This section contains 12 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. Battery is a device which converts
(1) Electric energy into Light energy (2) Chemical energy into Heat energy

(3) Chemical energy into Electric energy (4) Electrical energy into Heat energy

2. A scooterist covers a distance of 3 km in 5 minutes. He travels with a speed of


(1) 100 m/s (2) 36 m/hr (3) 1000 m/s (4) 600 m/min
3. Which planet is well known for most of its ring in our solar system?
(1) Earth (2) Mars (3) Neptune (4) Saturn
4. A torch is shone on the four sticks of the same length as shown below.

B D

Ground

Which stick is likely to form the SHORTEST shadow on the ground?


(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
5. Which of the following is correct with respect to ‘Great Bear’ ?
(1) Planet (2) Galaxy (3) Star (4) Constellation
6. The diagram shows students playing a tug-of-war game. If each student is pulling with the same force,
toward which dot will the flag move?

A B

C D

(1) dot A (2) dot B (3) dot C (4) dot D

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7. Which diagram shows the position of Earth when it is summer in Southern hemisphere?

(1) Sun (2) Sun

Earth Earth

(3) Sun (4) Sun

Earth Earth

8. Which picture best shows light being reflected?

(1) (2) (3) (4)

9. Which of the following is false?


(1) The motion of a swing is rectilinear as well as circular.
(2) A guitar string shows vibratory motion.

(3) Pendulum of a clock shows oscillatory motion.

(4) The blades of a ceiling fan shows rotatory motion.

10. What causes a stop sign to appear red?

(1) It absorbs red light. (2) It reflects red light.

(3) It transmits red light. (4) It reflects all colors except red.

11. What is the force that stops us from slipping when we walk ?

(1) Gravity (2) Friction (3) Air resistance (4) Up thrust

12. Which of the following is a standard unit of measurement?

(1) mutthi (2) meter (3) fathom (4) cubit


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SECTION-B : CHEMISTRY
This section contains 11 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.
13. Which one of the following is miscible in water ?
(1) Coconut oil (2) Kerosene oil (3) Petrol (4) Alcohol
14. Find the odd one out from the following
(1) Sugar (2) Salt (3) Sand (4) Milk
15. The method used to separate substances differing in colour, size and shape from a solid mixture is
called ______.
(1) Magnetic separation (2) Decantation (3) Hand picking (4) Threshing
16. Which state of matter has fixed shape and volume ?
(1) Solid (2) Liquid (3) Gas (4) All of these
17. Ms Naina, a science teacher divided the class into four groups and each group was given different
mixtures
Group I : Sand and iron filings
Group II : Oil and water
Group III : Salt and sand
Group IV : Wheat and husk
Which of the following methods should each group use to separate the components of mixtures given
to them ?

Group I Group II Group III Group IV

(1) Magnetic Separating Filtration Winnowing


separation funnel followed by
evaporation
(2) Sieving Filtration Winnowing Sieving

(3) Winnowing Decantation Sieving Filtration

(4) Magnetic Filtration Sieving Winnowing


separation

18. “Sapna collected some fallen dry leaves from her garden and mixed those with soil in a pot. After
some days she took out the soil from that pot but couldn’t found those leaves which she mixed with
soil.” What happened to those leaves according to you?
(1) Those dry leaves decomposed to form rocks.
(2) Those dry leaves decomposed to form humus.
(3) Those dry leaves decomposed and vanished in air.
(4) Those dry leaves decomposed in water.
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19. The following is an answer given by Raju to a question asked by his teacher “ Cotton, wool, silk and
jute are classified as natural fibres whereas nylon and polyester are classified as synthetic fibres.” Can
you tell what appropriate question the teacher has asked to Raju?
(1) Define natural and synthetic fibres.
(2) Classify cotton, wool, silk, jute, nylon and polyester on the basis of origin.
(3) Give some examples of natural fibres.
(4) Give some examples of synthetic fibres.
20. Petrol is refined from the crude oil obtained from oil wells. Besides petrol, crude oil can also give
________.
(1) LPG (2) Kerosene (3) Wax (4) All of these
21. Match the following

Column-I Column-II
(A) Liquid ® Solid (i) Melting
(B) Vapour ® Liquid (ii) Evaporation
(C) Solid ® Liquid (iii) Freezing
(D) Liquid ® Vapour (iv) Condensation

(1) (A) - (iii); (B) - (iv); (C) - (i); (D) - (ii)


(2) (A) - (ii); (B) - (i); (C) - (iii); (D) - (iv)
(3) (A) - (iv); (B) - (i); (C) - (ii); (D) - (iii)
(4) (A) - (i); (B) - (ii); (C) - (iii); (D) - (iv)
22. Match the column-I with column-II and find the correct option -

Column-I Column-II
(i) Removing fine insoluble (a) Evaporation
particles in a liquid.
(ii) Separation of bran from flour (b) Hand-picking
(iii) Obtaining soluble salt from its (c) Filtration
solution
(iv) Plucking rotten grapes from a (d) Sieving
bunch
(1) (i)-(c); (ii)-(d); (iii)-(b); (iv)-(a) (2) (i)-(b); (ii)-(a); (iii)-(d); (iv)-(c)
(3) (i)-(c); (ii)-(d); (iii)-(a); (iv)-(b) (4) (i)-(d); (ii)-(c); (iii)-(a); (iv)-(b)
23. Statement-I : Knitted fabrics are more stretchable.
Statement-II : Knitting is interlooping of one or more sets of yarns.
(1) Both statements are true, statement-II explains the statement-I.
(2) Both statements are true, statement-II does not explains the statement-I.
(3) Statement-I is wrong.
(4) Statement-II is wrong.

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SECTION-C : BIOLOGY
This section contains 12 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

24. Read the information about the food web below then answer the question.
9

6 7 8

3 4 5

1 2

Each number represents an organism in the food web.

Which of the following organisms can transform light energy into chemical energy?

(1) Organism 1 (2) Organism 4

(3) Organism 7 (4) Organism 9

25. Which is not an example of an animal’s behavioural adaptation?


(1) Bird calls (2) Migration
(3) Acting dead (4) Claws

26.

This organ is a part of __________


(1) Respiratory system (2) Nervous system
(3) Excretory system (4) Circulatory system
27. Which two processes occur during the life spans of all animals?

(1) Hibernation and migration

(2) Growth and development

(3) Changing color and shedding fur

(4) Building nests and communication

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28. The respiratory system of the human body is represented in the diagram below. What is the function
of the bronchi, lungs, and alveoli?

nasal cavity
mouth
trachea
alveoli

bronchi

lungs

(1) They move blood to the cells of the body.


(2) They store gases that may be used by the cells.
(3) They bring oxygen to the blood and remove carbon dioxide.
(4) They use oxygen to release energy stored in foods produced by plants.
29. Read the given statements.
(i) Ingestion in Hydra occurs with the help of pseudopodia.
(ii) Bile juice is secreted by gall bladder and stored in liver.
(iii) In humans , digestion of starch starts in the buccal cavity.
(iv) The outer covering of teeth is called enamel and is the hardest substance in human body.
(v) Omasum is the largest chamber of ruminant stomach where food is stored.
Which of the above statements are incorrect ?
(1) ( i) ,(ii) ,(v) (2) (iii) & (iv) (3) (ii) , (iii) , (iv) (4) (i) , (ii) , (iii)
30. The framework within our body is known as

(1) Brain (2) Bones (3) Muscles (4) Skeleton

31. Deficiency of protein and energy may cause


(1) Diabetes (2) Marasmus (3) Jaundice (4) Both (1) & (2)
32. What kind of skin do reptiles have?
(1) Covered with fur (2) Silky
(3) Wet with mucus (4) Dry and Scaly
33. Identify A in given food chain.
Grass ® Grasshopper ® A ® Snake ® Eagle
(1) Plant (2) Frog (3) Bacteria (4) Tiger

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34. Which of the following food chains represents the wetland ecosystem?
Organisms in a wetland
Organism Food
insect scraps
spider insect
fish spider
bird fish
badger fish
mouse scraps
(1) Mouse ® insect ® spider ® badger ® bird
(2) Mouse ® insect ® spider ® bird ® fish ® badger
(3) Insect ® mouse ® spider ® bird ® fish ® badger
(4) Scraps ® insect ® spider ® fish ® badger

35. Human activities lead to


(1) Air pollution (2) Water pollution (3) Land pollution (4) All of these

SECTION-D : MATHEMATICS
This section contains 25 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

36. The number of triangles in the figure :

(1) 10 (2) 12 (3) 13 (4) 14

37. Read the pictograph given below and answer the question.

Oranges

Apples

Pears

Strawberries

Pomegranates

Which kind of fruit is maximum in number?


(1) Oranges (2)Apples (3) Pears (4) Strawberries

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2
38. Express 7 hours in minutes
3
(1) 320 mins (2) 523 mins

(3) 460 mins (4) 425 mins

39. ( -27) ´ ( -16 ) + ( -27) ´ ( -14) = ?

(1) –810 (2) 810 (3) –54 (4) 54

40. The numbers of books in the school library are shown in the given pictograph.

key : One figure of a book represents 10 books.

Write in increasing order, the number of books on different subjects.

(1) English,math,social studies, science, french

(2) English, math, social studies,french, science

(3) English, social studies,math, science, french

(4) Math,English, social studies, science, french

41. The given table shows the postage rate at a post office. Study it carefully and answer the following
questions.

Postage Rates
First 80 g Every additional 50 g or part there of
Local mail 50 paise 10 paise
Foreign mail 90 paise 20 paise

How much amount is needed to send a local mail of mass 470 g ?

(1) 70 paise (2) 85 paise (3) 90 paise (4) 130 paise

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42. The third grade students at Wilson Elementary School go on an apple picking field trip. When they
return, they create a pictograph showing the number of apples each class picked.

Key : = 10

Ms. Miller's Class:

Mrs. Pena's Class

Mr. Smith's Class:

Mrs. Quill's Class: ?


The third grade students pick a total of 250 apples. How many apple symbols should go next to Mrs.
Quill's class?
(1) 95 (2) 9 (3) 16 (4) 25
43. If there are 36 spokes in a bicycle wheel, then the angle between a pair of adjacent spokes is:
(1) 15o (2) 12o (3) 10o (4) 18o
44. Priya measures a sunflower plant at the end of every week. At the end of week 1, the plant is 4 cm tall.
1
It grow cm each week for 7 more weeks. How tall is Priya’s plant at the end of week 7.
3

(1) 60 mm (2) 7 cm (3) 0.06 dm (4) 6000 m


45. The figure shows the number of books sold by a leading bookstore in 4 different months. Study the
graph and answer the following question.

January February March April


Each stands for 2 books

How many book were sold in four month altogether?


(1) 68 (2) 72 (3) 34 (4) 94
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46. The sum of two integers is –4. If one of them is 6, what is the other integer ?
(1) –10 (2) 10 (3) 2 (4) –2

47. Which tile must be added to the picture so that the light grey area is as large as the white area?

(1) (2) (3) (4)

48. Eve brings twelve candies, Alice nine candies and Iren does not bring any candy. They put all the
candies together on a table and divide them equally among themselves. How many candies does each
of the girl get?
(1) 3 (2) 7 (3) 8 (4) 12

49. How many numbers between 20 and 30 have this property that it is divisible by the digit in the unit
position?
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 5

50. The perimeter of an equilateral triangle of side 20 m 30 cm.


(1) 80 m (2) 70.4 m (3) 60.9 m (4) 120.2 m

51. If 4/5 is equivalent to x/125 then the value of x?


(1) 100 (2) 200 (3) 300 (4) 400

52. If represents 15 people, find the value of ?


(1) 15 (2) 45 (3) 30 (4) 20

53. What should be added to 97.097 to get 112?


(1) 14.903 (2) 14 (3) 15.76 (4) none of these

54. How many envelopes of size 40 cm × 30 cm be made from a rectangular sheet of paper measuring
16 m × 9 m :
(1) 800 (2) 1600 (3) 600 (4) 1200

55. Which is true ?


(1) 1.3749 < 1.0399 (2) 1.7908 < 1.879 (3) 1.526 < 1.2605 (4) 1.463 < 1.3902

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3 2
56. Divide 1 by
8 4

3 1 1
(1) 2 (2) 1 (3) 3 (4) 4
4 3 2
57. If cost of 1 pencil is Rs 5.2, find the cost of 21 pencils ?
(1) Rs 108 (2) Rs 110 (3) Rs 109.20 (4) Rs 107.50
58. Savitri had Rs. 15, 50,000 with her; she bought 25 television sets each of Rs. 52,000 what is the
money left with her after the purchase?
(1) Rs 3,00,000 (2) Rs 3,50,000 (3) Rs 2,50,000 (4) Rs 2,00,000
59. Simplity : 8 × (–13) + 8 × 9 :
(1) 8 (2) –30 (3) –32 (4) 24
60. If 12 litres of milk costs Rs 120, then what is the cost of 5 litres of milk ?
(1) Rs 15 (2) Rs 25 (3) Rs 50 (4) None of these

SECTION-E : MENTAL ABILITY


This section contains 20 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

61. Which of the following words comes last among given options in English dictionary ?
(1) Meritorious (2) Ment (3) Merry (4) Mermaid
62. A man is facing South. He turns 135° in the anticlockwise direction and then 180° in the clockswise
direction. Which direction is he facing now?
(1) North (2) East (3) South-West (4) South
63. Which letter is 10th to the right of 8th letter from left in English alphabet ?
(1) I (2) B (3) R (4) S
64. In the following diagram rectangle represents female, Triangle represents educator, circle represents
rural and square represents private employees.

8 18 17

32 6 7

19 5
31 15
16

Which one of the following represents a male, who is rural as well as private employees ?
(1) 7 (2) 8 (3) 18 (4) 31

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65. If TOMB is written as MBOT in some code language then how will GOAL be written ?
(1) ALOG (2) ALOE (3) LAOG (4) EALO
66. A person starts moving towards East and walked 8 km and then turn left and covered 6 km. How far
is he from starting point?

(1) 14 km (2) 10 km (3) 12 km (4) 18 km

67. If the English Alphabet are divided into two equal halves from A to M and N to Z. Which letter in the
later half would be corresponding to the letter F ?

(1) B (2) S (3) X (4) P

68. In a certain code language, if ‘Blue’ is called ‘Black’, ‘Black’ is called ‘Purple’, ‘Purple’ is called ‘Red’
and ‘Red’ is called ‘Pink’. then what is colour of “Brinjal”?

(1) Red (2) Blue (3) Pink (4) Black

69. Study the given information carefully and answer the questions.

Eight friends P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are sitting aroud a circular table and facing the centre. P is
fourth to the right of W and second to the left of U. R is not neigbhour of U and Q. S is third to the right
of R. W is not the neighbour of V.

Who is third to the right of V ?

(1) U (2) W (3) T (4) S

70. 15 people entered a theatre before Sujit, 7 people entered the theatre between Sujit and Suraj and 20
people entered the theatre after Suraj. If Suraj entered the theatre before Sujit then how many people
are there in the theatre?

(1) 28 (2) 36 (3) 44 (4) 40

71. If 1 is replaced by M, 5 by S, 9 by N, 6 by J, 4 by B, 7 by W and 2 by L, then the number 6971425


is codified as -

(1) JMWMBLS (2) JNWMBLS

(3) SLBMWNJ (4) None of these

72. Which number will come in place of “?”

2, 16, 36, 62, 94, ?

(1) 132 (2) 120 (3) 126 (4) 164

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73. Find the mirror image of the following figure (X)

(X)

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

74. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following letter serise.

EGK, JLP, OQU, TYZ, ?

(1) YDE (2) XED

(3) EXD (4) None of these

75. Study the diagram and answer the given question.

Males
2
13 1
8 7 9 Educated people
4
14 3 Urban people
11 6 5 10
12

How many females are there who are educated?

(1) 43 (2) 13

(3) 25 (4) 14

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76. In the following question, choose the correct water-image of the Fig. (X) from amongst the four
alternatives (1), (2), (3) and (4) given along with it.

(1) (2) (3) (4)

77. B is in the East of A which is in the North of C. If K is the South of C, then in which direction of B, is
K?

(1) North-East (2) South-West

(3) South-East (4) South

78. In the given question, you are given a combination of letters followed by four alternatives (1), (2), (3)
and (4). Choose the alternative which most closely resembles the water-image of the given combination.

Mwx56p7ST

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

79. In the given question, select a figure amongst Answer figures. Which will continue the same series as
established by the problem figures.

Problem figure

Answer figure

1 2 3 4

80. Find the mirror image of BRAIN3128

(1) (2)

(3) (4)
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SECTION-A : PHYSICS
This section contains 12 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. ____________ is the ability to do work.
(1) energy (2) simple machine (3) complex machine (4) force
2. Choose appropriate names of types of motion.
Types of motion

Rectilinear motion Rotational motion Oscillatory motion

X Y Z

X Y Z
(1) Motion of car Motion of top Motion of earth around the sun
(2) Motion of a bee Motion of guitar string Motion of wheels of cycle
(3) Motion of piston of a syringe Motion of earth on its axis Motion of a pendulum
(4) Motion of train Motion of ballet dancer Motion of bicycle on road

3. What is a meteorite?
(1) A bright streak of light that passes through Earth’s atmosphere.
(2) Large clouds of gas and dust in space that is the beginning or ending of a star.
(3) A piece of meteor that lands on Earth after passing through the atmosphere.
(4) A group of stars that appear to make a pattern.
4. The picture shows a paint brush that is lying on a shelf in front of a mirror. Which option correctly
shows the reflection of the paint brush by the mirror?

(1) (2) (3) (4)

5. The largest planet in our solar system is


(1) Jupiter (2) Earth (3) Venus (4) Mercury

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6. Which form of energy does the flowing water possess ?
(1) Chemical energy (2) Nuclear energy (3) Electrical energy (4) Kinetic energy
7. Why does the moon appear to be larger than the stars?
(1) The size of Moon is bigger than the stars (2) The Moon is brighter than the stars
(3) The Moon is closer to Earth than the stars (4) The Moon is the largest of all stars
8. Objects that emit light on their own are called _________ .
(1) Transparent object (2) Luminous object
(3) Non-Luminous object (4) Opaque object
9. A section of a roller coaster track is shown below.

2 4

3
5 6

Choose the correct statement.


(1) The roller coaster exhibits only oscillatory motion
(2) The roller coaster exhibits only curvilinear motion
(3) The roller coaster exhibits oscillatory, curvilinear, periodic motion
(4) The roller coaster exhibits oscillatory and curvilinear motion but not periodic motion
10. Which of the following is a hot source of light?
(1) Firefly (2) Tube light (3) Sun (4) None of these
11. In an electric bell, when circuit is completed, the hammer strikes the gong. Which of the following
force is responsible for the movement of hammer ?
(1) Gravitational force (2) Electrostatic force
(3) Magnetic force (4) Frictional force
12. A girl uses a worn out ruler to measure the length of a table in her room. She placed the ruler such that
the mark 3.0 cm coincides with one end and the other end coincides with the mark 33.5 cm. The
length of the table is __________ cm.
(1) 33.5 cm (2) 36.5 cm (3) 33.8 cm (4) 30.5 cm

SECTION-B : CHEMISTRY
This section contains 11 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.
13. Which of the following is an example of immiscible liquids?
(1) Petrol and Coconut oil (2) Kerosene and Coconut oil
(3) Water and Alcohol (4) Water and Kerosene
14. Which one of the following dissolves in water?
(1) Sugar (2) Plastics (3) Oil (4) Wood
15. Air is a_____.
(1) Pure substance (2) Mixture (3) Compound (4) All are correct
16. Which state has maximum interparticle space?
(1) Solid (2) Liquid (3) Gas (4) Both (2) and (3)
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17. Study the flow chart and identify the process P, Q, R and S involved in separation of mixture.

Husk + Salt + Sand + Iron nails

P Husk

Salt + Sand + Iron nails

Q Iron nails

Salt + Sand (Add water)

R Sand

Salt + Water

Salt

P Q R S
(1) Evaporation Filtration Winnowing Magnetic separation
(2) Winnowing Magnetic separation Filtration Evaporation
(3) Filtration Winnowing Evaporation Magnetic separation
(4) Winnowing Evaporation Magnetic separation Filtration
18. Which top soil is best for growing plants?
(1) Sandy soil (2) Clayey soil (3) Loamy soil (4) None of these
19. Read the following statements carefully.
(a) The cotton fibres are collected by hand from ripe cotton bolls.
(b) Cotton yarns/threads are weaved to make cotton fabric.
(c) Cotton plants are grown in black soil in a warm climate.
(d) The cotton fibres are separated from the seeds by combing them.
(e) Cotton plant bears fruits about the size of lemon full of seeds surrounded by cotton fibres.
(f) Separated fibres are twisted together to make yarn.
Which of the following will be the correct arrangement of above process?
(1) a, c, e, b, d, f (2) c, e, a, d, f, b (3) b, f, d, a, e, c (4) a, b, c, d, e, f
20. Which of the following is not correct about diamond?

Diamond

(1) It is a mineral. (2) It is used in jewellery making.


(3) It is hardest material, thus used to cut glass. (4) It is an igneous rock derived from lava.
21. Find the odd one from the following -
(1) Almirah (2) Table (3) Chair (4) Air

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22. Select an incorrect reason for separating components of a mixture.
(1) To separate two or more different but useful components.
(2) To remove undesirable and useless components.
(3) To remove pure or harmless components.
(4) To obtain pure sample of a substance.
23. Linseed oil is obtained by
(1) Jute (2) Flax (3) Cotton (4) Coir

SECTION-C : BIOLOGY
This section contains 12 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
24. Which of the below are examples of fossil fuels?
(1) Soil, rocks and sand (2) Coal, petroleum and natural gas
(3) Plants, animals and birds (4) Soil, oil and animals
25. Plants are called producers because they
(1) make their own food (2) have stems (3) can’t walk (4) make nectar
26. Spinal cord remains protected inside
(1) Skull (2) Vertebral column (3) Femur (4) Ribs
27. The outer hard covering of seed is called
(1) Cotyledon (2) Seed coat (3) Plumule (4) Radicle
28. Refer to the given flow chart and select the option that correctly identifies P, Q, R and S.

Spreads Communi-
Yes Yes
R by cable Starts
mosquito disease

No No
S
Caused No
by nutrient P
deficiency

Yes
Q

P Q R S
(1) Beriberi Anaemia Rickets Malaria
(2) Cholera Dengue Scurvy Polio
(3) Typhoid Anaemia Malaria Chikungunya
(4) Asthma Scurvy Dengue Cholera
29. Study the given food relationship and select the correct option which satisfies the same relationship.
Honey : Carbohydrate : Sugarcane
(1) Spinach : Iron : Liver (2) Maize : Protein : Fish
(3) Fish oil : Vitamin A : Carrot (4) Groundnut : Fat : Milk
30. Which human body systems are directly involved in reflex actions, such as knee jerk, blinking, and
jumping when startled?
(1) Circulatory and respiratory (2) Digestive and excretory
(3) Nervous and muscular (4) Reproductive and skeletal
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31. Which of the following organism possesses parasitic mode of nutrition ?
(1) Mushroom (2) Plasmodium (3) Paramoecium (4) Euglena
32. The animals which suckle their young ones are called _____.
(1) Mammals (2) Insects (3) Reptiles (4) Cocoons
33. The complex network of interconnected food chains is called
(1) Trophic level (2) Food web (3) Ecological pyramid (4) Ecological chain
34. Read the following statements about diseases :
(i) They are caused by germs.
(ii) They are caused due to lack of nutrients in our diet.
(iii) They can be passed on to another person through contact.
(iv) They can be prevented by taking a balanced diet.
Which pair of statements best describe a deficiency disease?
(1) (i) and (ii) (2) (ii) and (iii) (3) (ii) and (iv) (4) (i) and (iii)
35. _________ is an omnivorous animal.
(1) Lion (2) Hawk (3) Snake (4) Man

SECTION-D : MATHEMATICS
This section contains 25 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
36. Which of the following is not pictured in the diagram?

A B D

(1) Ray BD (2) Line AD (3) Angle B (4) Line segment CD


37. The pictograph given below shows how many persons travelled from Delhi to Mumbai by train in
this month

Key: represents 600 people, answer the following question :

January

March

May

July

September

December

How many people are travelling in the month of December?


(1) 5000 (2) 4800 (3) 4200 (4) 6000
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38. Ravi weighed 2 boxes. The combined weight of the boxes shown on the scale below.

0
144 16
128 32

112 48
96 kg 64
80

Box A
Box B

weight of box A 3
The is . Which of the following is closest to box B.
weight of box B 1
(1) 126 kg (2) 42 kg (3) 32 kg (4) 16 kg
39. The sum of two integers is –80. If one of the integers is –90, then find the other.
(1) 20 (2) 10 (3) –10 (4) –20
40. In the given pictograph, different modes of transportation and number of students of a school travelling
by those are shown.
See the pictograph and answer the following question.
One shape of a student represents 10 students.

Which mode carries the maximum number of students?


(1) Bus (2) Car (3) Cycle (4) On foot
41. Convert the sum of 2 km + 1.5 m + 3.28 cm into mm.
(1) 2,001,532.8 mm (2) 2,001,283.5 mm (3) 215,328 mm (4) 201,532.8 mm
42. The table shows the quantity of different type of flowers in the Botanical garden. Ted asked the gardener
and found out, that there were 35 azaleas, 50 irises and 85 roses in the garden. What is the number
of lilies growing in the garden?

azaleas

irises

roses

lilies

(1) 95 (2) 100 (3) 105 (4) 110


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43. How many chords, radii are in following diagram?

X Y
P O Q
A B
R S
C D

Z
(1) 5, 2 (2) 6, 5 (3) 7, 5 (4) None of these
44. A shopkeeper mixed 3.6 kg of hazelnuts with 0.75 kg of raisins. He packed the mixture equally into
5 boxes. What is the mass of each box?
(1) 14.25 kg (2) 4.35 kg (3) 0.87 kg (4) 0.72 kg
45. Seema has a basket full of fruits of different variety read the pictograph given below and answer the
following question.
Strawberries

mangoes

Apples

Pear

bananas

How many apples and bananas are there in the basket?


(1) 17 (2) 16 (3) 30 (4) none
46. The temperature of a town is –12°C at night. During the day, the temperature increases by 20°C what
is the temperature of the town during daytime.
(1) 32°C (2) 6°C (3) 13°C (4) 8°C
47. What is the sum of the shaded parts?

11 11 11 7
(1) (2) (3) (4)
9 7 18 18
48. Find the product of smallest 2 digit number and largest 3 digit number.
(1) 990 (2) 9990 (3) 900 (4) 1000
49. You are a contestant on the hit TV show, Kaun Banega crorepati and you have already won fifty
lakhs. If you get the next question right, you win the grand prize of one crore rupees, but if you get it
wrong, you take home six lakh forty thousand rupees. What is the cost of getting the next question
wrong compared with getting it right?
(1) 93 lakh 60 thousand rupees (2) 43 lakh 60 thousand rupees
(3) 50 lakhs rupees (4) None of these
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50. Length of a rectangle is 60 cms, its area is 600 cm2. Find its breadth?
(1) 10 cm (2) 2.3 cm (3) 100 cm (4) 4.2 cms

1 3
51. Find perimeter of a rectangular field whose length and breadth are 16 m and 12 m respectively.
2 4

(1) 38 1 m (2) 58
1 m (3) 50
1 m (4) 49
1 m
2 2 2 2
52. If denotes 5 eggs, find the value of .
(1) 10 (2) 15 (3) 20 (4) 5

(2.3 ´ 2) + (1.7 ´ 3) + 0.58


53. =?
(10 ´ 0.5) + (2.25 ´ 3) - 9.75

(1) 5.14 (2) 4.98 (3) 4.63 (4) 5.28


54. Rohit’s family is planning to build a concrete basket ball court in their backyard. How many square
metre will be left in the backyard for grass?
BACKYARD PLAN
(1) 60 sq. m
Concrete basket ball court
SCALE
(2) 35 sq. m 6m =1 sq. m

(3) 31 sq. m
11 m
(4) 24 sq. m

55. The simplification of 3.003 + 10[9.2 + (3.45 – 2.35) + 10.45]


(1) 104.903 (2) 207.98 (3) 118.53 (4) 210.503
56. 527 ¸ 31 = ?
(1) 16 (2) 17 (3) 27 (4) 37
57. The positive number x, y and z satisfy x × y = 14, y × z = 10 and z × x = 35. What is the value of
x + y + z?
(1) 10 (2) 12 (3) 14 (4) 18
58. Convert 700 km 540 m 54 cm into cm, as a numeral in the Indian system it is,
(1) 7,00,54,054 cm (2) 8,40,54,054 cm
(3) 7,05,54,054 cm (4) 7,05,40,054 cm
59. The additive inverse of –6 is

1 1
(1) (2) - (3) 6 (4) 5
6 6

60. The sides of a triangle are in the ratio 3 : 2 : 5 and its perimeter is 30 cm. The length of largest side is
(1) 20 cm (2) 15 cm
(3) 10 cm (4) 12 cm
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SECTION-E : MENTAL ABILITY
This section contains 20 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
61. Which of the word will come at the third position, if we arrange alphabetically as in a dictionary?
(1) Table (2) Task (3) Target (4) Taste
62. A station directress drives a car for 15 Km to the West from the radio station. Then she turns left and
goes for 10 Km. Now in which direction is she going?
(1) South (2) South-West
(3) West (4) North-East
63. Study the following arrangement of the English alphabets and answer the given question below.
XLQYANDZORKTFUIWMSH
Which letter is 5 to the right of 8th letter from left?
th

(1) Q (2) F (3) T (4) U


64. This question is based on the following diagram. Answer the question given below

C (Chemistry)

P (Physics) a b d
c
f e

g M (Maths)

Which letter represents the number of students who study all three subjects ?
(1) a (2) e (3) c (4) f
65. If Z = 52 and ACT = 48 then what is BAT equal to ?
(1) 23 (2) 46 (3) 69 (4) 92
66. A person is facing east. He turns 90° in clock-wise direction and then 135° in the anti-clockwise direction.
In which direction is he facing now?
(1) North-West (2) North-East (3) South (4) South-East
67. How many pairs of letters are there in the word ‘TERMINATE’ each of which has as many letters
between them as in the English Alphabet?
(1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) More than three
68. If FRACTION is CARFNOIT and NEARER is AENRER. What is the code for SYSTEM ?
(1) SYSMET (2) SMSEYT
(3) SSMETY (4) None of these
69. Six persons A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting in a circle. Facing one another front to front. A is sitting in
front of B. B is sitting to the right of E and left of C. A is to the left of F and right of D.
Who is sitting opposite to C ?
(1) A (2) B (3) D (4) F
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70. Five persons are standing in a line, the Doctor is standing to the right of the student. the engineer is
to the left of the shopkeeper, at one end is standing a lecturer and at the other end is standing a
shopkeeper. The student is standing between the lecturer and the Doctor.
From left who is standing at the 4th place?
(1) Doctor (2) Shopkeeper (3) Engineer (4) Student
71. If code for the word “PEN” is ‘6’ and for BLACK is ‘10’. Find the code of ‘FRIENDS’?
(1) 13 (2) 14 (3) 15 (4) 16
72. Find the missing term in the given series
107, 97, 82, 62, ?
(1) 52 (2) 42 (3) 47 (4) 37
73. Choose the alternative which most closely resembles the mirror image of the given combination

(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)


74. Find the missing term in the given series.
JWT, LTX, NQB, PNF, ?
(1) SLJ (2) SJK (3) RKJ (4) RLJ
75. Study the diagram and answer the given question.

Males
2
13 1
8 7 9 Educated people
4
14 3 Urban people
11 6 5 10
12

How many males are there who belong to urban area but are not educated?
(1) 14 (2) 4 (3) 1 (4) 9
76. Find the water image of the figure (X).

(X)

(1) (2) (3) (4)

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77. A person is moving 10 m towards north and then he turns 15 m towards right, again he turns 20 m
towards right and lastly he turns 40 m towards left. In which direction is he from starting point?
(1) South (2) South-East (3) East (4) North-West
78. Find the water image of the given word.
International
(1) (2) (3) (4) None of these
79. Choose the correct alternative to complete the series.
a_bbc_aab_cca_bbcc
(1) bacb (2) acba (3) abba (4) caba
80. Find mirror image of following figure.

(X)

(1) (2) (3) (4)

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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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