Part 1

1. 8. 15. 22.
2. 9. 16. 23.
3. 10. 17. 24.
4. 11. 18. 25.
5. 12. 19.
6. 13. 20.
7. 14. 21.

Part 2
1. 8. 15. 22. 29.
2. 9. 16. 23. 30.
3. 10. 17. 24.
4. 11. 18. 25.
5. 12. 19. 26.
6. 13. 20. 27.
7. 14. 21. 28.

Part 3
1. 8. 15. 22. 29.
2. 9. 16. 23. 30.
3. 10. 17. 24. 31.
4. 11. 18. 25. 32.
5. 12. 19. 26. 33.
6. 13. 20. 27. 34.
7. 14. 21. 28. 35.

Part 4
1. 8. 15.
2. 9.
3. 10.
4. 11.
5. 12.
6. 13.
7. 14.

Part 5
1. 8. 15. 22.
2. 9. 16. 23.
3. 10. 17. 24.
4. 11. 18. 25.
5. 12. 19.
6. 13. 20.
7. 14. 21.
Part 6
1. 8. 15.
2. 9. 16.
3. 10. 17.
4. 11. 18.
5. 12. 19.
6. 13. 20.
7. 14.

Part 7
1. 8. 15. 22.
2. 9. 16. 23.
3. 10. 17. 24.
4. 11. 18. 25.
5. 12. 19.
6. 13. 20.
7. 14. 21.

Part 8
1. 8. 15. 22.
2. 9. 16. 23.
3. 10. 17. 24.
4. 11. 18. 25.
5. 12. 19.
6. 13. 20.
7. 14. 21.

Part 9
1. 8. 15.
2. 9. 16.
3. 10.
4. 11.
5. 12.
6. 13.
7. 14.
 Chapter 16

Practice Exam 1

T his sample test features nine subtests, just like the actual ASVAB. As you may have
guessed, the sample tests in this book are paper-based tests. (Yes, we’re the masters of
the obvious.) When you take the actual ASVAB, it may be a paper-based or a computer-
based exam. The computer version follows the same format as the paper version. (Check
out the computer-based test in greater detail in Chapter 3.) The only real differences are
that on the computer-based test, you can’t skip a question and go back to it, and you can’t
change an answer after you enter it into the computer.

To get the most out of this sample test, take it like you’d take the real ASVAB under the same
conditions:

1. Allow yourself about three hours to take the entire exam, and take the whole thing
at one time.
2. Find a quiet place where you won’t be interrupted.
3. Bring a timer that you can set for various lengths of time, some scratch paper, and a
pencil.
4. At the start of each subtest, set your timer for the specified period of time.
Don’t go on to the next section until the timer has gone off, and don’t go back to a pre-
vious section. If you finish early, check your work for that section only.
5. Use the answer sheet that’s provided.
6. Don’t take a break during any subtest.
You can take a short one- or two-minute break between subtests if you need it.

After you complete the entire sample test, check your answers against the answer key in
Chapter 17. Remember that the test is scored by comparing your raw score to the scores of
other people, which produces a scaled score. So just because you missed a total of 20 ques-
tions doesn’t mean that your score is 80 (that would be too simple). Turn to Chapter 1 to find
out how the ASVAB is scored.

Your primary goal with this sample test is to determine your strengths and weaknesses. If
you only miss one question on the Word Knowledge subtest but you miss 15 on Arithmetic
Reasoning, you know where to spend your study time. If you’re not going to pursue a career
that requires a score on a particular subtest or the type of knowledge a subtest covers, don’t
worry about your score. (See the Appendix for more information on the subtests various
careers require good scores on.) Go ahead and take the sample test like it’s the actual ASVAB,
but don’t worry about your score.
190 Part V: Practice ASVAB Exams

Part 1
General Science

Time: 11 minutes; 25 Questions

Directions
This section tests your knowledge of general science principles usually covered in high-school
classes. Pick the best answer for each question and then mark the space on your answer sheet that
corresponds to the question number and the letter indicating your choice.

1. A series of cell divisions that results in the 6. The largest moon in the solar system is:
formation of an embryo is called: (A) Ganymede
(A) mitosis (B) Titan
(B) meiosis (C) Io
(C) osmosis (D) Charon
(D) cleavage
7. The spinal cord is part of the:
2. An animal that eats only plants is called (A) circulatory system
a(n):
(B) nervous system
(A) omnivore
(C) respiratory system
(B) herbivore
(D) digestive system
(C) carnivore
(D) voracious 8. Joints that hold bones firmly together are
called:
3. The process by which energy is provided at (A) hinge joints
the cellular level is called:
(B) ball and socket joints
(A) respiration
(C) fixed joints
(B) recreation
(D) pivot joints
(C) oxidation
(D) metabolism 9. The top or broadest level of the classifica-
tion system for living organisms is called:
4. All of the following are domains except: (A) class
(A) Regelia (B) phylum
(B) Eukarya (C) kingdom
(C) Bacteria (D) genus
(D) Archaea
10. If there are two full moons in a single
5. Light waves travel at a rate of about: month, the second full moon is called:
(A) 186,000 miles per hour (A) new moon
(B) 186,000 miles per minute (B) full moon
(C) 18,600 miles per hour (C) blue moon
(D) 186,000 miles per second (D) secondary moon

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 Chapter 16: Practice Exam 1 191
11. The brainstem connects the brain to the: 18. Electrons are particles that are:
(A) heart (A) positively charged
(B) lungs (B) neutral
(C) neck (C) able to move freely
(D) spinal cord (D) negatively charged

12. Red blood cells: 19. The chamber of the heart that pumps blood
(A) produce antibodies to the lungs is called the:

(B) fight infections (A) right ventricle

(C) carry oxygen and carbon dioxide (B) left ventricle

(D) are few in number (C) right atrium

(D) left atrium
13. Protein can be found in all of the following
foods EXCEPT: 20. The atomic number of an atom is deter-
(A) eggs mined by:

(B) meat (A) the size of its nucleus

(C) peas (B) the number of protons

(D) apples (C) the number of electrons

(D) its location in the periodic table
14. Which inorganic substance is present in the
greatest quantity inside animal cells? 21. The smallest part of an element that still
(A) protein acts like an element is:

(B) oxygen (A) the nucleus

(C) sodium chloride (B) a compound

(D) water (C) the element itself

(D) the atom
15. Cell protoplasm is made up mostly of:
(A) water 22. How many planets in the solar system have
rings?
(B) oxygen
(A) one
(C) sugar
(B) two
(D) protein
(C) three
16. A meter consists of: (D) four
(A) 10 centimeters
23. The temperature at which a solid becomes
(B) 100 millimeters a liquid is its:
(C) 100 centimeters (A) melting point
(D) 10 millimeters (B) boiling point
17. It’s impossible for the sun to turn into a (C) freezing point
black hole because: (D) concentration point
(A) it’s too large
(B) it’s too small
(C) it’s a yellow star
(D) it has planets

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192 Part V: Practice ASVAB Exams

24. The surface of the earth is called the: 25. Not counting the sun, the closest star to the
(A) mantle Earth is:

(B) core (A) Rigel

(C) shawl (B) Proxima Centauri

(D) crust (C) Antares

(D) Betel

STOP DO NOT TURN THE PAGE UNTIL TOLD TO DO SO.

 Chapter 16: Practice Exam 1 193
Part 2
Arithmetic Reasoning

Time: 36 minutes; 30 questions

Directions
This test contains questions about arithmetic. Each question is followed by four possible answers.
Decide which answer is correct and then mark the space on your answer sheet that has the same
number and letter as your choice. Use scratch paper for any figuring you wish to do.

1. If a car is towed 12 miles to the repair shop, 5. A waitress earns an average tip of 12% of the
and the tow charge is $3.50 per mile, how cost of the food she serves. If she serves $375
much did the tow cost? worth of food in one evening, how much
(A) $12.00 money in tips will she earn on average?

(B) $3.50 (A) $37

(C) $42.00 (B) $45

(D) $100.00 (C) $42

(D) $420
2. The sum of two numbers is 70. One number
is 8 more than the other. What’s the smaller 6. How many square feet of carpeting are
number? needed to carpet a 12-foot x 12-foot room?
(A) 31 (A) 24
(B) 33 (B) 120
(C) 35 (C) 48
(D) 36 (D) 144

3. A sales manager buys antacid in bottles by 7. Carpet stain protector costs $0.65 per square
the gross. If he goes through 3 bottles of yard to apply. How much will it cost to apply
antacid every day, how long will the gross the protectant to a 16-foot x 18-foot carpet?
last? (A) $187.20
(A) 144 days (B) $62.40
(B) 3 days (C) $20.80
(C) 20 days (D) $96.00
(D) 48 days
8. A printing plant that produces baseball
4. Jenny’s test grades are 93, 89, 96, and 98. If cards has a monthly overhead of $6,000. It
she wishes to raise her average to 95, what costs 18 cents to print each card, and the
does she need to score on her next test? cards sell for 30 cents each. How many
(A) 100 cards must the printing plant sell each
month in order to make a profit?
(B) 99
(A) 30,000
(C) 97
(B) 40,000
(D) 95
(C) 50,000
(D) 60,000

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194 Part V: Practice ASVAB Exams

9. Joe received an hourly wage of $8.15. His 13. A security guard walks the equivalent of six
boss gave him a 7% raise. How much does city blocks when he makes a circuit around
Joe make per hour now? the building. If he walks at a pace of eight
(A) $0.57 city blocks every 30 minutes, how long will
it take him to complete a circuit around the
(B) $8.90 building, assuming he doesn’t run into any
(C) $8.72 thieves?
(D) $13.85 (A) 20.00 minutes
(B) 3.75 minutes
10. Alice leaves her house, driving east at 45
miles per hour (mph). Thirty minutes later, (C) 22.50 minutes
her husband Dave notices she forgot her (D) 24.00 minutes
cell phone and sets off after her. How fast
must Dave travel in order to catch up with 14. The population of Grand Island, Nebraska,
Alice 3 hours after he leaves? grew by 600,000 people between 1995 and
(A) 49 mph 2005, one-fifth more than the town council
predicted. The town council originally pre-
(B) 50.5 mph dicted the city’s population would grow by:
(C) 52.5 mph (A) 400,000
(D) 54 mph (B) 500,000
11. A baker made 20 pies. A Boy Scout troop (C) 300,000
buys one-fourth of his pies, a preschool (D) 200,000
teacher buys one-third of his pies, and a
caterer buys one-sixth of his pies. How 15. Joan is taking an admissions examination. If
many pies does the baker have left? she has to get at least 40 of the 60 questions
(A) 3⁄4 right to pass, what percent of the questions
does she need to answer correctly?
(B) 15
(A) 30%
(C) 12
(B) 40%
(D) 5
(C) 661⁄3%
12. Miriam bought five cases of motor oil on (D) 662⁄3%
sale. A case of motor oil normally costs
$24.00, but she was able to purchase the oil 16. A teacher deposited $3,000 in a retirement
for $22.50 a case. How much money did fund. If she didn’t add any more money to
Miriam save on her entire purchase? the fund, which earns an annual interest
(A) $7.50 rate of 6%, how much money would she
have in 1 year?
(B) $1.50
(A) $180
(C) $8.00
(B) $3,006
(D) $22.50
(C) $3,180
(D) $6,000

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 Chapter 16: Practice Exam 1 195
17. The high-school track measures one quar- 22. Darla spent $120.37 on groceries in January,
ter of a mile around. How many laps would $108.45 in February, and $114.86 in March.
you have to run in order to run three and a What was the average monthly cost of
half miles? Darla’s groceries?
(A) 12 (A) $343.68
(B) 14 (B) $110.45
(C) 16 (C) $114.86
(D) 18 (D) $114.56

18. Karl is driving in Austria, where the speed 23. Keith is driving from Reno to Kansas City to
limit is posted in kilometers per hour. The meet his girlfriend. The distance between
car’s speedometer shows that he’s traveling the two cities is 1,650 miles. If Keith can
at a rate of 75 kilometers per hour. Karl average 50 miles per hour, how many hours
knows that a kilometer is about 5⁄8 of a mile. will it take him to complete his trip?
Approximately how many miles per hour is (A) 8 hours
Karl traveling?
(B) 30 hours
(A) 47
(C) 33 hours
(B) 120
(D) 82 hours
(C) 50
(D) 53 24. Michael needs 55 gallons of paint to paint
an apartment building. He would like to
19. A carpenter earns $12.30 an hour for a purchase the paint for the least amount of
40-hour week. His overtime pay is 11⁄2 times money possible. Which of the following
his base pay. If he puts in a 46-hour week, should he buy?
how much is his weekly pay? (A) two 25-gallon buckets at $550 each
(A) $602.70 (B) eleven 5-gallon buckets at $108 each
(B) $492.00 (C) six 10-gallon buckets at $215 each
(C) $565.80 (D) fifty-five 1-gallon buckets at $23 each
(D) $110.70
25. As a member of FEMA, you’re required to
20. An office building has 30 employees and set up a contingency plan to supply meals to
allows 42 square feet of work space per residents of a town devastated by a tornado.
employee. If five more employees are hired, A breakfast ration weighs 12 ounces and the
how much less work space will each lunch and dinner rations weigh 18 ounces
employee have? each. Assuming a food truck can carry 3
(A) 6 square feet tons and that each resident will receive 3
meals per day, how many residents can you
(B) 7 square feet feed from one truck during a 10-day period?
(C) 7.5 square feet (A) 150 residents
(D) 8 square feet (B) 200 residents
21. Stan bought a monster truck for $2,000 down (C) 250 residents
and payments of $450 a month for five years. (D) 300 residents
What’s the total cost of the monster truck?
(A) $4,250
(B) $29,000
(C) $27,000
(D) $34,400

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196 Part V: Practice ASVAB Exams

26. A train headed south for Wichita left the 28. Kiya had a coupon for 10% off one frozen
station at the same time a train headed turkey breast. The turkey breasts cost $8.50
north for Des Moines left the same station. each, and Kiya bought two. How much did
The train headed for Wichita traveled at 55 she pay?
miles per hour. The train headed for Des (A) $16.15
Moines traveled at 70 miles per hour. How
many miles apart were the trains at the end (B) $17.00
of 3 hours? (C) $15.30
(A) 210 miles (D) $7.65
(B) 165 miles
29. A recruiter travels 1,100 miles during a 40-
(C) 125 miles hour workweek. If she spends 2⁄5 of her time
(D) 375 miles traveling, how many hours does she spend
traveling?
27. A carpenter needs to cut four sections, (A) 22
each 3-feet 8-inches long, from a piece of
molding. If the board is only sold by the (B) 51⁄2
foot, what’s the shortest length of board (C) 16
she can buy?
(D) 8
(A) 15 feet
(B) 14 feet 30. Your car uses gasoline at the rate of 21
miles per gallon. If gasoline costs $2.82 per
(C) 16 feet gallon, and you drive for 7 hours at a speed
(D) 12 feet of 48 miles per hour, how much will you pay
for gasoline for the trip?
(A) $38.18
(B) $45.12
(C) $47.73
(D) 59.27

STOP DO NOT TURN THE PAGE UNTIL TOLD TO DO SO.

DO NOT RETURN TO A PREVIOUS TEST.
 Chapter 16: Practice Exam 1 197
Part 3
Word Knowledge

Time: 11 minutes; 35 questions

Directions
This test is about the meanings of words. Each question has an underlined word. You may be asked
to decide which one of the four words in the choices most nearly means the same thing as the under-
lined word or which one of the four words means the opposite. If the underlined word is used in a
sentence, decide which of the four choices most nearly means the same thing as the underlined
word, as used in the context of the sentence. Mark the corresponding space on your answer sheet.

1. The gold was kept in a secure vault. 6. The students were scheduled to observe a
(A) locked plenary session of Congress.

(B) safe (A) scheduled

(C) unknown (B) example

(D) thick (C) special

(D) full
2. Assimilate most nearly means:
(A) absorb 7. He tried to goad his audience.

(B) react (A) insult

(C) pretend (B) incite

(D) lie (C) please

(D) bore
3. Theorize most nearly means:
(A) know 8. He ran headlong into the fight.

(B) speculate (A) headfirst

(C) study (B) reluctantly

(D) travel (C) happily

(D) recklessly
4. Symmetrical most nearly means:
(A) uplifted 9. Flagrant most nearly means:

(B) congruent (A) quiet

(C) handsome (B) amazing

(D) positive (C) delayed

(D) glaring
5. The exchange student was proficient in
French, German, and English. 10. The word most opposite in meaning to
(A) poor stimulate is:

(B) knowledgeable (A) support

(C) adept (B) arrest

(D) exacting (C) travel

(D) dislike

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198 Part V: Practice ASVAB Exams

11. Legacy most nearly means: 18. Superfluous most nearly means:
(A) history (A) superior
(B) bequest (B) unnecessary
(C) story (C) helpful
(D) will (D) expensive

12. The actions of the CEO were unconscionable. 19. The word most opposite in meaning to
(A) clever hypocrisy is:

(B) illegal (A) honesty

(C) excessive (B) happy

(D) automatic (C) angry

(D) threatening
13. The sergeant gave his reasoned opinion.
(A) irate 20. The report indicated a significant
hemorrhage of corporate earnings.
(B) logical
(A) gain
(C) impressive
(B) payout
(D) uninformed
(C) trade
14. Laudable most nearly means: (D) loss
(A) loud
21. The army soldiers were ordered to
(B) fluid immediate garrison duty.
(C) commendable (A) field
(D) transparent (B) combat
15. The brass was burnished. (C) latrine
(A) yellow (D) fort
(B) old 22. Fiscal most nearly means:
(C) expensive (A) year
(D) polished (B) financial
16. The commodity was sold. (C) calendar
(A) product (D) three months
(B) stock 23. Domicile most nearly means:
(C) idea (A) office
(D) table (B) domestic
17. Her motives were oblique. (C) home

(A) pure (D) vacation

(B) emotional 24. Abate most nearly means:

(C) obscure (A) recover
(D) amusing (B) aid
(C) foreclose
(D) end

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 Chapter 16: Practice Exam 1 199
25. To commission most nearly means: 31. Contravene most nearly means:
(A) to give (A) invade
(B) to rescind (B) obstruct
(C) to earn (C) argue
(D) to authorize (D) reverse

26. He gave a succinct account of the events. 32. Chasm most nearly means:
(A) passionate (A) hole
(B) lengthy (B) sky
(C) uncensored (C) mountain
(D) concise (D) valley

27. The vote resulted in the demise of the pro- 33. Fundamental most nearly means:
posed new law. (A) radical
(A) passage (B) religious
(B) death (C) basic
(C) postponement (D) excessive
(D) abatement
34. Susceptible most nearly means:
28. The politician exuded charisma. (A) travel
(A) odors (B) resistant
(B) falseness (C) limited
(C) charm (D) gullible
(D) generosity
35. To emit most nearly means:
29. Burrow most nearly means: (A) to give off
(A) deepen (B) to smell
(B) hide (C) to contain
(C) nestle (D) to admit
(D) jump

30. That custom still prevails.

(A) angers
(B) persists
(C) surprises
(D) excites

STOP DO NOT TURN THE PAGE UNTIL TOLD TO DO SO.

DO NOT RETURN TO A PREVIOUS TEST.
200 Part V: Practice ASVAB Exams

Part 4
Paragraph Comprehension

Time: 13 minutes; 15 questions

Directions
This test contains items that measure your ability to understand what you read. This section includes
one or more paragraphs of reading material followed by incomplete statements or questions. Read
the paragraph and select the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. Mark
your choice on your answer sheet, using the correct letter with each question number.

1. An important stage of personal time man- 2. The U.S. Congress consists of 100 senators
agement is to take control of appointments. and 435 representatives. Two senators are
Determined by external obligation, appoint- elected from each state. The number of
ments constitute interaction with other representatives from each state is based
people and an agreed-on interface between on population, although each state has at
your activities and those of others. Start least one representative. Senators serve
with a simple appointment diary. List all six-year terms and representatives serve
appointments including regular and recur- two-year terms.
ring ones. Now, be ruthless and eliminate According to this passage:
the unnecessary. There may be committees
where you can’t productively contribute or (A) There are an equal number of senators
where a subordinate may be able to partici- and representatives.
pate. Eliminate the waste of your time. (B) The number of representatives from
Effectively managing your appointments each state is decided by a lottery.
allows you to: (C) It’s possible for a state to have no
(A) spend more time with your subordinates representatives.
(B) delegate responsibility to subordinates (D) Senators and representatives have
different term lengths.
(C) make more efficient use of your time
(D) attend only the most important meetings

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 Chapter 16: Practice Exam 1 201
3. Indo-European languages consist of those 5. The success or failure of a conference lies
languages spoken by most of Europe and in largely with its leader. A leader’s zest and
those parts of the world that Europeans enthusiasm must be real, apparent, and
have colonized since the 16th century contagious. The leader is responsible for
(such as the United States). Indo-European getting the ball rolling and making the atten-
languages are also spoken in India, Iran, dees feel as if the meeting is theirs and its
parts of western Afghanistan, and in some success depends on their participation. A
areas of Asia. good, thorough introduction helps establish
The author of this passage would agree that: the right climate.

(A) Indo-European languages are spoken in A good title to this paragraph would be:
areas all over the world. (A) Lead by Example
(B) Indo-European languages include all (B) The Importance of Proper
the languages spoken in the world. Introductions
(C) Only Europeans speak Indo-European (C) Leading a Successful Conference
languages. (D) Conference Participation Basics
(D) Indo-European language speakers can
easily understand one another. 6. Cloud seeding is accomplished by dropping
particles of dry ice (solid carbon dioxide)
4. In privatization, the government relies on from a plane onto super-cooled clouds. This
the private sector to provide a service. process encourages condensation of water
However, the government divests itself of droplets in the clouds, which usually, but
the entire process, including all assets. With not always, results in rain or snow.
privatized functions, the government may From this passage, it’s reasonable to
specify quality, quantity, and timeliness assume that:
requirements, but it has no control over the
operations of the activity. Also, the govern- (A) Cloud seeding could be used to end a
ment may not be the only customer. drought.
Whoever the government chooses to pro- (B) Cloud seeding is prohibitively expensive.
vide the services would likely provide the
same services to others. (C) Cloud seeding is rarely used.

This paragraph best supports the state- (D) Cloud seeding can be accomplished by
ment that: using regular ice.

(A) The government must closely super-

vise privatized functions.
(B) Privatized functions consist of a mix-
ture of government employees, military
personnel, and private contractors.
(C) Privatized functions are those institu-
tions that provide services only to a
government agency.
(D) Privatized functions provide essential
services to the government.

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202 Part V: Practice ASVAB Exams

7. To write or not to write — that is the ques- 9. I returned from the City about three o’clock
tion. If assigned a writing task, there’s no on that May afternoon pretty well disgusted
option. However, if someone is looking for a with life. I had been three months in the
specific answer, find out if they need a short Old Country and was fed up with it. If
answer or a detailed one. Can the require- people had told me a year ago that I
ment be met with a telephone call, e-mail, would’ve been feeling like that I should’ve
or short note, or is something more neces- laughed at them; but there was the fact.
sary? A former CEO of a major corporation The weather made me liverish, the talk of the
once commented that he had looked at ordinary Englishman made me sick, I couldn’t
13,000 pieces of paper in a 5-day period. get enough exercise, and the amusements of
Think how much easier and more economi- London seemed as flat as soda water that
cal it would be if people would use the tele- had been standing in the sun.
phone, send an e-mail, or write a short note. The author is speaking of his travels in:
The main point of this passage is: (A) Spain
(A) Written records are important as they (B) Great Britain
provide detailed documentation.
(C) Germany
(B) More business people should invest
time and energy improving their writing (D) Scotland
skills.
10. Surveys show that the average child under
(C) Writing may not be the best way to the age of 18 watches four hours of televi-
communicate information. sion per day. Although some of the pro-
(D) It’s pointless for business people to gramming may be educational, most isn’t.
spend time improving their writing Spending this much time watching televi-
skills. sion interferes with a child’s ability to
pursue other interests, such as reading,
8. The transistor, a small, solid-state device participating in sports, and playing with
that can amplify sound, was invented in friends.
1947. At first, it was too expensive and too The author of this passage would agree
difficult to produce to be used in cheap, that:
mass-market products. By 1954, though,
these cost and production problems had (A) Television viewing should be restricted.
been overcome, and the first transistor (B) Parents who let their children watch
radio was put on the market. this much television are neglectful.
According to this passage: (C) Reading, participating in sports, play-
(A) There was no market for transistors ing with friends, and watching televi-
before 1954. sion should all be given equal time.
(B) When transistors could be produced (D) Adults over 18 can watch as much tele-
cheaply and easily, the transistor radio vision as they want.
was put on the market.
(C) Transistors were invented in 1947 by
order of the Department of Defense.
(D) Transistors are still expensive to
produce.

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 Chapter 16: Practice Exam 1 203
Questions 11 and 12 are based on the follow- Questions 13 through 15 are based on the fol-
ing passage. lowing passage.

High-school and college graduates attempting to Due process, the guarantee of fairness in the admin-
find jobs should participate in mock job inter- istration of justice, is part of the 5th Amendment to
views. These mock interviews help students pre- the U.S. Constitution. The 14th Amendment further
pare for the types of questions they’ll be asked, requires states to abide by due process. After this
make them more comfortable with common inter- amendment was enacted, the U.S. Supreme Court
view formats, and help them critique their per- struck down many state laws that infringed on
formance before facing a real interviewer. the civil rights guaranteed to citizens in the Bill of
Because they’re such a valuable aid, schools Rights.
should organize mock job interviews for all of
their graduating students. 13. According to the above passage, due
process:
11. The above passage states that mock job (A) is an outdated concept
interviews:
(B) guarantees fairness in the justice
(A) frighten students system
(B) should be offered to the best students (C) never became part of the U.S.
(C) help prepare students for real job Constitution
interviews (D) is the process by which winning lottery
(D) should be organized by students tickets are selected

12. From the above passage, it is reasonable to 14. According to the above passage, it’s reason-
assume that: able to assume that the 5th Amendment:
(A) Mock interviews can increase a stu- (A) is about taxes
dent’s confidence when he or she goes (B) guarantees due process in all criminal
into a real job interview. and civil cases
(B) Mock interviews are expensive to (C) guarantees due process in federal law
organize.
(D) should never have become part of the
(C) Few students are interested in mock Bill of Rights
interviews.
(D) Students don’t need job interview 15. The author of the above passage would
preparation. agree that:
(A) Without the passage of the 14th
Amendment, many laws restricting civil
rights would still exist in various states.
(B) The Supreme Court overstepped its
jurisdiction when it struck down laws
infringing on citizens’ civil rights.
(C) The Supreme Court had every right to
strike down state laws before the pas-
sage of the 14th Amendment.
(D) The 14th Amendment was opposed by
all states.

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204 Part V: Practice ASVAB Exams

Part 5
Mathematics Knowledge

Time: 24 minutes; 25 questions

Directions
This section tests your ability to solve general mathematical problems. Select the correct answer
from the choices given, and then mark the corresponding space on your answer sheet. Use scratch
paper to do any figuring.

1. If x = 8, what’s the value of y in the equation 6. (12 yards + 14 feet) ÷ 5 =

y = (x2 ÷ 4) – 2? (A) 12 feet
(A) 14 (B) 51⁄5 feet
(B) 16 (C) 10 feet
(C) 18 (D) 21⁄2 yards
(D) 20
7. x3 × x4 =
2. The cube of 5 is: (A) x12
(A) 125 (B) 2x7
(B) 25 (C) 2x12
(C) 15 (D) x7
(D) 50
8. (x + 4)(x + 2) =
3. 2.5 × 33 = (A) x2 + 6x + 6
(A) 22.5 (B) x2 + 8x + 8
(B) 75.0 (C) x2 + 8x + 6
(C) 67.5 (D) x2 + 6x + 8
(D) 675.0
9. 1.5 × 103 =
4. The fourth root of 16 is: (A) 45
(A) 4 (B) 150
(B) 1 (C) 1,500
(C) 3 (D) 15
(D) 2
10. Which of the following is a prime number?
5. What’s the equation of a line that passes (A) 27
through points (0, -1) and (2, 3)?
(B) 11
(A) y = 2x – 1
(C) 8
(B) y = 2x + 1
(D) 4
(C) x = 2y – 1
(D) x = 2y + 1

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 Chapter 16: Practice Exam 1 205
11. What’s the mode of the following series of 18. Which of the following fractions is the
numbers? 4 4 8 8 8 10 10 12 12 largest?
(A) 9 (A) 2⁄5
(B) 8 (B) 3⁄8
(C) 11 (C) 7⁄10
(D) 10 (D) 13⁄16

12. If a = 4, then a3 ÷ a = 19. If 2 + x ≥ 4, what is the value of x ≥ ?

(A) 4 (A) 6
(B) 12 (B) 2
(C) 64 (C) 4
(D) 16 (D) 1⁄2

13. Solve for the factorial of 5 (5!): 20. If a circle has a radius of 12 feet, what’s its
(A) 25 circumference most nearly?

(B) 125 (A) 24 feet

(C) 120 (B) 72 feet

(D) 15 (C) 75 feet

(D) 36 feet
14. (900 × 2) ÷ 6 =
(A) 30 21. An aquarium measures 16-inches long x
8-inches deep x 18-inches high. What’s its
(B) 300 volume?
(C) 150 (A) 2,304 cubic inches
(D) 3,000 (B) 128 cubic inches
15. If x = 2, then x × x =
x (C) 42 cubic inches
(A) 8 (D) 288 cubic inches
(B) 2xx
(C) 4
(D) 6 3

A C
16. If (5 + 1)(6 ÷ 3)(8 – 5) = (3 + 3)x, then x =
(A) 12
(B) 3 1 2

(C) 4 B

(D) 6 22. Triangle ABC (shown above) is a(n):

(A) right triangle
17. √49 × √64 =
(B) obtuse triangle
(A) 56
(C) equilateral triangle
(B) 15
(D) isosceles triangle
(C) 42
(D) 3,136

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206 Part V: Practice ASVAB Exams

23. The sum of the measures of the angles of a 25. Convert 24% to a fraction.
trapezoid is: (A) 6⁄25
(A) 360 degrees (B) 1⁄25
(B) 540 degrees (C) 6⁄24
(C) 180 degrees (D) 1⁄24
(D) 720 degrees

A 2
1
B

24. In the Angle AB (shown above), Angles 1

and 2 are:
(A) supplementary
(B) complimentary
(C) both obtuse
(D) both right angles

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 Chapter 16: Practice Exam 1 207
Part 6
Electronics Information

Time: 9 minutes; 20 questions

Directions
This test contains questions to challenge your knowledge of electrical, radio, and electronics infor-
mation. Select the correct response from the choices given and then mark the corresponding space
on your answer sheet.

1. Ohm’s law states: 6. When current flows through a wire, the

(A) Voltage = Current × Resistance following influences are present:

(B) Amperes = Current × Resistance (A) amperes and ohms only

(C) Voltage = Resistance ÷ Amperes (B) voltage, watts, and ohms only

(D) Ohms = Voltage ÷ Current (C) voltage and amperes only

(D) voltage, ohms, and amperes
2. An electromagnetic-induction device usually
has which of the following materials in its 7. Millihenries are related to:
core? (A) capacitors
(A) brass (B) inductors
(B) silver (C) relays
(C) aluminum (D) transformers
(D) iron
8. Radar can operate at frequencies as high as:
3. How many diodes should you expect to find (A) 100,000 Hz
in a bridge rectifier?
(B) 100,000 kHz
(A) 0
(C) 100,000 MHz
(B) 4
(D) 500,000 MHz
(C) 8
(D) 10 9. Radio waves travel:
(A) at the speed of light
4. Another name for cycles per second is:
(B) at the speed of sound
(A) watts
(C) faster than the speed of light
(B) voltage
(D) faster than the speed of sound but
(C) hertz slower than the speed of light
(D) amperes
10. Changing alternating current to direct
5. Newer cell phones contain a removable current is called:
memory card, which is often called a: (A) capacitance
(A) SIM card (B) impedance
(B) DIM chip (C) rectification
(C) PIN card (D) induction
(D) Pin chip

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208 Part V: Practice ASVAB Exams

11. Insulated fittings can be used to splice 16. A number-12 wire, compared to a number-6
wires, thus eliminating the need for: wire:
(A) cleaning the wires (A) is longer
(B) removing the plastic coating from the (B) is shorter
wires (C) is smaller in diameter
(C) twisting the wires together (D) is larger in diameter
(D) soldering the wires together
17. A fuse with a higher-than-required rating
used in an electrical circuit:
(A) improves safety
(B) increases maintenance
12. The symbol shown above stands for: (C) may not work properly
(A) battery (D) is less expensive
(B) transformer
18. Neutral wire is always:
(C) capacitor
(A) whitish or natural
(D) resistor
(B) black
13. How many wires do serial cables used on (C) green
computers have?
(D) blue
(A) 3
(B) 9 19. To measure electrical power, you would use
a(n):
(C) 15
(A) ammeter
(D) 25
(B) ohmmeter
14. To produce greater storage of electrons and (C) voltmeter
more capacitance, capacitors should:
(D) wattmeter
(A) be connected in parallel
(B) be connected in series 20. If you operate an incandescent light bulb at
less than its rated voltage:
(C) have more voltage applied to them
(A) The bulb will burn brighter and last
(D) be eliminated longer.
15. A light bulb is 60 watts. Operated at 120 (B) The bulb will burn dimmer and last
volts, how much current does it draw? longer.
(A) 0.5 ampere (C) The bulb will burn brighter but won’t
last as long.
(B) 5.0 amperes
(D) The bulb will burn dimmer but won’t
(C) 50.0 amperes last as long.
(D) 7,200 amperes

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 Chapter 16: Practice Exam 1 209
Part 7
Auto & Shop Information

Time: 11 minutes; 25 questions

Directions
This test is about automobiles, shop practices, and the use of tools. Pick the best answer for each
question and then mark the corresponding space on your answer sheet.

1. Overheating the engine can cause all of the 5. Connecting rods connect the piston to the:
following problems EXCEPT: (A) flywheel
(A) burned engine bearings (B) fuel pump
(B) enlarged pistons (C) crankshaft
(C) melted engine parts (D) battery
(D) improved fuel efficiency
6. In an overhead valve system (OHV), what
2. If an alternator overcharges the battery, a mechanism opens and closes the valves?
likely explanation is: (A) rocker arms
(A) The governor has malfunctioned. (B) camshaft
(B) The voltage regulator isn’t working (C) valve rotator
properly.
(D) electrical energy from the alternator
(C) The ignition coil has overheated.
(D) The battery-acid solution is low. 7. If a car’s ignition system, lights, and radio
don’t work, the part that’s probably
3. A primary advantage of the electronic igni- malfunctioned is the:
tion system over conventional ignition sys- (A) cylinder block
tems is:
(B) water pump
(A) The electronic ignition system is less
expensive to repair. (C) carburetor
(B) The electronic ignition system provides (D) battery
a higher voltage.
8. A gauge shows the complete loss of oil pres-
(C) The electronic ignition system allows sure while driving. The best action is to:
for use of a lower octane fuel.
(A) Stop by the gas station when conven-
(D) All of the above ient to top off the oil.
4. The primary purpose of piston rings is to: (B) Pull over immediately and investigate
the problem.
(A) seal the combustion chamber and
allow the pistons to move freely (C) Drive directly to a repair garage.
(B) connect the piston to the crankshaft (D) Assume everything is fine and continue
driving as usual.
(C) allow fuel to enter the piston cylinder
(D) provide lubrication to the piston
cylinder

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210 Part V: Practice ASVAB Exams

9. A two-cycle engine will normally be 14. The safest way to make a hole in sheet
found on: metal is to:
(A) small cars (A) burn it with a soldering iron
(B) large diesel trucks (B) cut it using snips
(C) trucks, vans, and some cars (C) punch it using a metal punch
(D) snowmobiles, chainsaws, and some (D) get someone else to do it
motorcycles
15. Rebar is used to:
10. The difference between a single-acting and (A) measure the depth of concrete
an opposed piston engine is:
(B) reinforce concrete
(A) Single-acting piston engines wear
longer. (C) stir concrete
(B) Opposed piston engines have cylinders (D) smooth concrete
set in a V-shape.
16. Nail sets are used to:
(C) Single-acting piston engines have one
piston per cylinder and opposed piston (A) protect your fingers from the hammer
engines have two. (B) set nails below the surface of wood
(D) Single-acting piston engines are used (C) complete projects requiring sets of
with carburetors and opposed piston nails
engines are used with fuel injectors.
(D) mark the position where the nail
11. A car equipped with limited-slip differential: should go

(A) can be readily put into all-wheel (four- 17. A ripsaw cuts:
wheel) drive
(A) against the grain of the wood
(B) won’t lock up when the brakes are
(B) with the grain of the wood
applied steadily
(C) most materials, including metal
(C) transfers the most driving force to
the wheel with the greatest amount of (D) only plastic
traction
18. Sledges can be used to drive:
(D) is rated for off-road driving
(A) nails
12. Pouring cold water on an overheated (B) screws
engine:
(C) staples
(A) reduces damage caused by overheating
(D) bolts and chisels
(B) makes no difference
(C) should only be done by a qualified 19. To check for horizontal trueness, the best
mechanic tool to use is a:
(D) could cause the engine block to crack (A) steel tape rule
(B) plumb bob
13. Soft brake-pedal movement can be
caused by: (C) level
(A) air in the hydraulic brake system (D) sliding T-bevel
(B) malfunctioning brake shoes 20. A bucking bar is used to:
(C) loss of brake fluid (A) pull nails
(D) worn rotors (B) pry wood apart
(C) drive rivets
(D) drive screws

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 Chapter 16: Practice Exam 1 211
21. Washers that have teeth all around the cir-
cumference to prevent them from slipping
are called:
(A) shakeproof washers
(B) jaw washers 24. The tool above is used to:
(C) flat washers (A) finish concrete
(D) split-lock washers (B) spread joint compound
(C) smooth wallpaper
(D) dress wood

25. The chisel used to cut metal is:

(A)

(B)

22. The tool above measures:

(C)
(A) an inside curve
(B) an outside curve
(C) the depth of a hole
(D)
(D) the thickness of wire

23. The object above is a type of:

(A) nut
(B) washer
(C) screw
(D) bolt

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212 Part V: Practice ASVAB Exams

Part 8
Mechanical Comprehension

Time: 19 minutes; 25 questions

Directions
This test is about mechanical principles. Many of the questions use drawings to illustrate specific
principles. Choose the correct answer and mark the corresponding space on the answer sheet.

10" 7"
1. An induction clutch works by:
(A) magnetism 2"
(B) pneumatics 5"
No. 1
(C) hydraulics
6"
(D) friction No. 2

2. If a first class lever with a resistance arm

measuring 2 feet and an effort arm measur-
ing 8 feet are being used, what’s the 8" 9"
mechanical advantage?
(A) 2 3"

(B) 4 No. 3 No. 4

(C) 6
3. The bottoms of four boxes are shown
(D) 1 above. The boxes all have the same volume.
If postal regulations state that the sides of a
box must meet a minimum height, which
box is most likely to be too short to go
through the mail?
(A) No. 4
(B) No. 2
(C) No. 1
(D) No. 3

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 Chapter 16: Practice Exam 1 213
Cat B

2
Cat A

7. In the figure above, if Gear 1 has 25 teeth and

4. Looking at the figure above, when Cat B Gear 2 has 15 teeth, how many revolutions
lands on the seesaw, Cat A will: does Gear 2 make for every 10 revolutions
(A) remain stationary Gear 1 makes?
(B) hit the ground hard (A) about 162⁄3
(C) rise in the air quickly (B) 12
(D) enter the stratosphere (C) about 1⁄3 more
(D) about 20
5. Air weighs about 15 psi. What’s the amount
of pressure (force) exerted on the top of 8. A cubic foot of water weighs about
your head, given a surface area of 24 62.5 pounds. If an aquarium is 18 feet long,
inches? 10 feet deep, and 12 feet wide, what’s the
(A) 360 pounds approximate pounds-per-square-inch pres-
sure (psi) on the bottom of the tank?
(B) 625 pounds
(A) 2 psi
(C) 5⁄8 pound
(B) 4 psi
(D) 180 pounds
(C) 5 psi
6. The force produced when a boxer’s hand (D) 7 psi
hits a heavy bag and “bounces” off it is
called: 9. Springs used in machines are usually
(A) static electricity made of:
(B) magnetism (A) plastic
(C) recoil (B) bronze
(D) gravity (C) nylon fiber
(D) steel

10. A clutch is a type of:

(A) universal joint
(B) coupling
(C) gear differential
(D) cam follower

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214 Part V: Practice ASVAB Exams

Cam A

Contact point
Upper
Block

Lever arm B

11. When Cam A completes one revolution, the

lever will touch the contact point:
(A) once Lower
Block
(B) never
(C) four times
(D) twice
LOAD
12. A single block-and-fall is called a:
(A) fixed pulley 14. The mechanical advantage of the block-and-
(B) gun tackle tackle arrangement shown above is:
(C) runner (A) 2
(D) sheave (B) 4
(C) 6
(D) 1
Cat

fulcrum

13. In the figure above, if the fulcrum support-

ing the lever is moved closer to the cat, the
A
cat will be: B
(A) easier to lift and will move higher
(B) harder to lift but will move higher
(C) easier to lift but will not move as high
15. In the figure above, if the cogs move up the
(D) harder to lift and will not move as high track at the same rate of speed, Cog A will:
(A) reach the top at the same time as Cog B
(B) reach the top after Cog B
(C) reach the top before Cog B
(D) have greater difficulty staying on track

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 Chapter 16: Practice Exam 1 215
16. If a house key, a wooden spoon, a plastic
1 4
hanger, and a wool jacket are all the same
temperature, which one feels the coldest?
(A) key
(B) spoon
2
(C) hanger
(D) jacket
3
5
Water
Supply
Valve 3

19. If Gear 1 moves in a clockwise direction,

which other gears also turn clockwise?
Valve 1 (A) 3 and 5
Drainage
(B) 3, 4, and 5
Valve 2 Valve 5
Valve 4 (C) 2 and 5
17. In the figure above, assume the valves are (D) 3 and 4
all closed. To fill the tank, but to prevent it
from filling entirely, which valves should
be open?

30
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1, 2, and 3 only

20
(C) 1, 2, and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3, and 5 only
10
L

A C
R

L R
20. The pressure gauge in the figure above
shows a reading of:
B
(A) 15.0
18. If Gear A is turned to the left:
(B) 19.5
(A) Gear B turns to the right and Gear C
(C) 21.0
turns to the left.
(D) 23.0
(B) Gear B turns to the left and Gear C
turns to the left.
(C) Gear B turns to the right and Gear C
turns to the right.
(D) Gear B turns to the left and Gear C
turns to the right.

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216 Part V: Practice ASVAB Exams

21. A way to determine the amount of power B C

A D
being used is to:
(A) Multiply the amount of work done by
the time it takes.
(B) Multiply the distance covered by the
time it takes to move a load. 24. In the figure above, at what point was the
(C) Divide the amount of work done by ball traveling most slowly?
550 pounds per second. (A) A
(D) Divide the amount of work done by the (B) B
amount of time it takes.
(C) C
22. A wood tool, a silver tool, and a steel tool (D) D
are placed in boiling water for cleaning.
Which tool gets the hottest?
(A) steel A
(B) wood
Brace
(C) silver
(D) All three are equally hot.

Brace

Brace

50 pounds

25. In the figure above, which angle is braced

most solidly?
(A) A
23. A runner is being used in the figure shown. (B) B
The cat lover lifting the 50-pound crate
(with cat) is using how much effort (disre- (C) C
gard friction, wind resistance, and the (D) All are braced equally solidly.
weight of the pulley and the rope)?
(A) 50-pound effort
(B) 100-pound effort
(C) 25-pound effort
(D) 10-pound effort

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 Chapter 16: Practice Exam 1 217
Part 9
Assembling Objects

Time: 15 minutes; 16 questions

Directions
The Assembling Objects subtest consists of questions that measure your ability to mentally picture
items in three dimensions. Each question is comprised of five separate drawings. The problem is
presented in the first drawing and the remaining four drawings are possible solutions. Determine
which of the choices best solves the problem shown in the first picture and then mark the corre-
sponding choice on your answer sheet.

1. 6.
A A

B
B

A B C D A B C D

2. 7.
A A

A B C D A B C D

3. 8.
A A

A B C D A B C D

4. 9.
A

B B

A B C D A B C D

5. 10.
A A

A B C D A B C D

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218 Part V: Practice ASVAB Exams

11. 14.
A A

B
B

A B C D A B C D

12. 15.
A
A

B B

A B C D A B C D

13. 16.
A A

B B

A B C D A B C D

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