2021 MSCE

1. a. Figure 1 is a diagram of a measuring instrument with an error and has a scale

ranging from 0 kg to 7kg

(i) Name the instrument. (1 mark)

 Top pan balance
(ii) Identify the type of error demonstrated in Figure 1. (1 mark)
 Zero error
(iii) Explain how the error in question 1a (ii) could be minimized. (2 marks)
 Resetting the instrument to zero before setting up the experiment.

b. Convert 2 500𝝁𝒎 to 𝒎. (3 marks)

2500𝜇𝑚 × 1𝑚
1000 000𝜇𝑚 = 1𝑚 ⟺∴ 2500𝜇𝑚 = = 0.0025𝑚
1000 000𝜇𝑚
2. a. Define ‘absolute temperature’ (1 mark)
 This is temperature measured using kelvin scale in respect to absolute
zero
b. Figure 2 is a diagram showing a balloon fitted to a bottle before heating.

(i) What would happen to the volume of the balloon after heating?
 The volume of the balloon will increase
(ii) Explain your answer in 2b (i)

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 Increase in temperature will increase the pressure inside the bottle. This will
make the balloon to get inflated.
3. a. State the difference between angular velocity and linear velocity. (2 marks)
 Angular velocity is the rate of change of angular displacement while linear
velocity is the product of radius and angular frequency.
b. Calculate the linear velocity of a ball whose radius is 15cm and is rotating at a
frequency of 20Hz. (5 marks)
 𝑣 = 𝑟𝑤
22
 but 𝑤 = 2𝜋𝑓 = 2 × × 20𝐻𝑧 = 125.714286rad/s
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 𝑣 = 0.15𝑚 × 125.714286𝑟𝑎𝑑/𝑠 = 18.8571429𝑚/𝑠
4. a. Explain why two identical bulbs in series would have higher electrical resistance
than in parallel circuit. (4 marks)
 When resistors are in series there is a length effect thus there would be more
collisions between electrons and metal ions hence higher resistance while in
parallel there is thickness effect hence in series electrical resistance is higher
than in parallel setup.
b. Figure 3 shows a circuit diagram of a light operated switch.

(i) Name device labelled A. (1 mark)

 Transistor
(ii) Give any two uses of the device labelled B. (2 marks)
 It acts as a switch
 It changes alternating current to direct current(rectification).
5. a. Define internal resistance of the cell.
 The opposition to the flow of current that a cell offers inside itself.
Figure 4 is a diagram of a circuit with an ideal ammeter which leads 0.2A when the
switch is closed.

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 b. Determine the internal resistance. (4 marks)
𝑉 1.5𝑉
𝑟= = = 7.5Ω
𝐼 0.2𝐴
c. State any two factors that affect the magnitude and direction of induced
electromotive force
 Amount of current passing through the circuit
 Number of turns of the coil
 The strength of the bar magnets
6. a. Define the term ‘oscillation’. (1 mark).
 The repeated to and fro, up and down movement of an object from its rest
position
b. Figure 5 is a diagram showing some waves

(i) identify the waves labelled K and L. (2 marks)

 T = Transverse
 K = Longiturdinal waves
(ii) Explain any two differences between waves K and L. (4 marks)
 Wave K produces crests and troughs while wave L produces rare
factions and compressions.
 In wave K the direction of particles is perpendicular to the direction of
the wave while wave L the direction of particles is the same with the
wave travelling.

7. a. Mention any two characteristics of waves. (2 marks).

 Amplitude
 Wave length
 Displacement

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  Period
 Frequency
b. Figure 6 is a displacement – time graph drawn after the oscillation of a pendulum.

(i) identify:
1. the amplitude of the oscillation. (1 mark)
 30cm
2. the period of the oscillation. (1 mark)
 8 seconds
(ii) Calculate the frequency of the oscillation as shown in the graph. (3 marks)
𝑁𝑢𝑚𝑏𝑒𝑟 𝑜𝑓 𝑐𝑜𝑚𝑝𝑙𝑒𝑡𝑒 𝑐𝑦𝑐𝑙𝑒𝑠 2.5𝑐𝑦𝑐𝑙𝑒𝑠
𝑓𝑟𝑒𝑞𝑢𝑒𝑛𝑐𝑦 = = = 0.125𝐻𝑧
𝑇𝑖𝑚𝑒 𝑡𝑎𝑘𝑒𝑛 20𝑠𝑒𝑐𝑜𝑛𝑑𝑠
8. a. List any three uses of radioactivity. (3 marks)
 To trace leakages in water pipes
 To trace water uptake in plants
 Treatment of turmours and cancer cells e.g. using gamma rays
 Determining age of fossils
 Sterilization of medical equipment
b. The Table below shows the coefficients of sliding friction of surfaces A, B and C
with an equal pressing force of 50N.
Reaction (N) Coefficient friction (𝝁)
Surfaces A and B 50 0.74
Surfaces B and C 50 0.94
(i) identify the pair of surfaces on which the friction is high. (1 mark)
 Surfaces B and C
(ii) calculate the sliding friction for surfaces A and B. (3 marks)
𝐹 = 𝜇 × 𝑁 = 50 × 0.74 = 37𝑁
9. a. Define ‘acceleration’. (1 mark)
b. Figure 7 is a velocity – time graph showing the motion of a car in 6 seconds
through points A, B, C and D.

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 (i) Identify any two points during which the car was at rest. (2 marks)
 A
 D
(ii) On which part of the graph was the car moving with uniform velocity? (1
mark)
 B and C
(iii) Calculate the distance travelled by the car in the first 2 seconds. (3 marks).
1 1
𝑑 = 𝑏 × ℎ = × 2𝑠 × 7𝑚/𝑠 = 7𝑚
2 2
10. a. State the principle of moments for a body at equilibrium. (1 mark)
 When a body is at equilibrium the sum of clockwise moments is equal to the
sum of anticlockwise moments.
b. A crane lifts 9,940N when an effort of 116N is applied. If the efficiency of the
crane is 75%, find
(i) mechanical advantage. (2 marks)
𝐿𝑜𝑎𝑑 9940𝑁
𝑀𝐴 = = = 86.7
𝐸𝑓𝑓𝑜𝑟𝑡 116𝑁
(ii) velocity ratio. (2 marks)
𝑚𝑒𝑐ℎ𝑎𝑛𝑖𝑐𝑎𝑙 𝑎𝑑𝑣𝑎𝑛𝑡𝑎𝑔𝑒 86.7
𝐸𝑓𝑓𝑖𝑐𝑖𝑒𝑛𝑐𝑦 = × 100% ⟺ 75% = × 100%
𝑣𝑒𝑙𝑜𝑐𝑖𝑡𝑦 𝑟𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑜 𝑉. 𝑅
86.7 × 100%
⟺ 𝑉. 𝑅 = = 115.6
75%
SECTION B (30 marks)
11. a. Explain how photographic plates are used to detect the radioactive emissions. (3
marks)
 Photographic plates have negative and positive plates. Alpha and beta particles
produce tracks during deflections. Alpha particles deflect towards a negative

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 plate and a visible track towards the plate is shown. Beta particles deflect
towards the positive plate and a visible track is shown towards the plate.
b. With the aid of a diagram, describe how a clinical thermometer works. (7marks)

When the clinical thermometer bulb is put into contact with the body (usually under the
armpit) the heat from the body makes the mercury in the bulb to expand. The mercury
forces itself through the constriction. When maximum temperature has been
recorded/reached the thermometer is removed and the mercury in the bulb contracts
and breaks the thread on the constriction. The reading is then taken from where the
mercury stops after expanding beyond the constriction.

12. a. With the aid of a well diagram, describe the problem of long sight in the human
eye. (5 marks)

A long sight is the situation whereby the eye fails to focus a close object clearly because
the eye ball is too short for the rays from a close object. In this situation, the light rays
converge at a point just beyond the retina.
b. With the aid of a ray diagram, describe the nature of an image formed by a convex
lens of focal length 10cm, with the object 10cm high placed at 6cm from the lens.
(Use a scale of 1cm: 5 units). (5 marks)

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13. a. Explain how the principle of circular motion is applied in drying wet clothes in a
drying machine. (5 marks)
 In the machine the wet clothes are rotated in a cylindrical drum which has a lot
of perforations. As the speed of the drum increases the adhesive forces of the
water in the clothes weaken up and the water escapes from the clothes and
flies off through the perforations.
b. Explain in terms of band theory why insulators are bad conductors of electricity
even if their temperature is increased. (5 marks)
 From valence band to conduction band there is a greater forbidden gap. Even
if temperature can be raised the electrons cannot jump from valence band to
conduction band to conduct electricity hence they become bad conductors and
do not have delocalised/free electrons that can move in their structure.

2020 MSCE

1. a. Define the term ‘absolute zero’ (1 mark)

 The lowest Possible temperature at which molecular motion stops
a. Convert 45Kelvins to degrees Celsius
 𝜃 = (T – 273)℃ = (45 – 273) ℃ = −228 ℃
b. Figure 1 is a diagram illustrating three students A, B and C taking a reading from
a measuring cylinder.

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 (i) Which student is likely to get a correct reading from the cylinder?
 Student B
(ii) Name the type of error which students that get wrong readings are likely to
make
 Parallax error
(iii) Calculate the relative error if student C gets a reading of 3.1 cm3.
𝐴𝑏𝑠𝑜𝑙𝑢𝑡𝑒 𝑒𝑟𝑟𝑜𝑟
 Relative error = × 100%
𝐴𝑐𝑡𝑢𝑎𝑙 𝑣𝑎𝑙𝑢𝑒
0.1
=
× 100%
3.0
= 3%
2. a. Figure 2 shows a hazard symbol indicated on some materials found in Physics
laboratory?

(i) Give the meaning of the symbol (1 mark)

 Risk of electric shock
(ii) State any two ways of handling a material with the symbol in figure 2
(2 marks)
 Hands must be dry when working with electricity
 Avoid opening live circuits under all circumstances
 Switch off the electric circuit before plugging any electrical device
b. Describe how atmospheric pressure is applied when using a drinking straw.

 Sucking through the straw reduces the air pressure inside the straw.
Atmospheric pressure forces the liquid into the mouth through the straw
3. Figure 3 shows circuit with some electronic devices in use

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 a. Name the devices labelled M and N (2 marks)
 M is Light dependent resistor
 N is a bulb
b. Explain how part P operates as a light operated switch in the circuit during bright
light.
 In daylight, light shines on the LDR, its resistance decreases and more current
flows in the base of the transistor. This current is enough to switch the
transistor on and the bulb lights up. In darkness, the resistance of the LDR
increases and less current flows to the base of the transistor. This current is not
enough to switch on the transistor. The bulb does not light up.
c. Name the logic gate which is also called the inverter
 NOT gate
4. a. Give any two types of nuclear radiations
 Beta decay
 alpha decay
 gamma emission
b. Explain how radioactivity is used in archaeology.

 Carbon 14 is used to estimate when a certain fossil could have been existing.
If an artefact has more carbon, the younger it was but when carbon is less it
means the artefact is old.
c. Calculate the velocity of with which a ball hits the ground when released from a
roof 9m high from the ground. Hint: use g = 10m/s2
 g = 10m/s2, s = 9m, u = 0m/s, v =?
 𝑣 2 = 𝑢2 + 2𝑎𝑠 = (0m/s)2 +2(10m/s2) (9m)
 𝑣 2 = 180𝑚/𝑠
 13.4m/s
5. a. Table 1 shows atomic numbers and numbers of neutrons of different atoms W, X,
Y and Z which are not their real chemical symbols.
Atom W X Y Z
Atomic number 6 7 6 8
Number of neutrons 6 7 8 8

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 (i) Identify two atoms that are isotopes
 W and Y
(ii) Explain the answer to 5 a (i)
 Because both W and Y have the same atomic number 6 but W has 6
neutrons and Y has 8 neutrons.
(iii) Express atom Y in its nuclear notation (1 mark)
𝟏𝟒
 𝟔𝐘
b. Give any two factors which affect melting point of a substance.
 Pressure
 Impurities
6. a. Define ‘density’
 The ratio of mass to volume of a substance
b. Explain how an increase in temperature affects the density of a substance
(3marks)
 Increasing temperature to a substance weakens intermolecular force further
hence distance between particles increases. This increases volume of a
substance but mass remains the same hence density decreases
c. Calculate altitude at which pure water will boil at 94 ℃
 100℃ boiling point of pure water is equivalent to 780mm above sea level
94℃×780𝑚𝑚
 94℃ = = 733.2mm
100℃
7. a. Give one difference between scalar and vector quantities (1 mark)
 A scalar quantity has magnitude only while a vector quantity has both
magnitude and direction
b. Figure 4 is a record of a complete motion of a trolley joined to a ticker-tape with
dots showing the position of the trolley at regular intervals of time.

Describe the motion of the trolley from start to finish (A to D)

 From A to B the trolley is moving at low velocity because dots are close to
each other. From B to C the trolley is moving at higher velocity because dots
are far away from each other. From C to D the trolley is moving at low
velocity since dots are close to each other.
c. Explain how a seat belt in a vehicle reduces injury to the driver. (3 marks)
 A seat belt reduces the impact of collision between the driver and the
windscreen. They stretch and so make contact time longer. The force with
which the passenger and the windscreen collide is made smaller.
8. a. State energy – work theory (1 mark)
 It states that net work done by net force on the rigid body is equal to the
change in kinetic energy of the body.
b. Give any three properties of electromagnetic waves (3 marks)

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  They are transverse in nature
 They transfer energy from one place to another
 They can travel through a vacuum
 They can be emitted or absorbed by matter
 They undergo reflection, refraction, diffraction and show interference
c. Describe how shrink fitting method could be applied to make tight fits. (3 marks)
 An axle is too big to enter into the hallow tube. The hallow tube is heated
to expand and the axle is dipped into nitrogen liquid to become sizable
enough. The axle is hammered into the hallow space while the hallow tube
is still hot. On cooling, the hallow part contracts and makes a grip tight
with the axle.
9. a. Give two effects of balanced forces on objects (2 marks)
 They make a body to be at equilibrium
 They cause no motion of a body
b. Give any two differences between mass and weight. (2 marks)
 Mass is measured in kilograms while weight is measured in Newtons
 Mass is amount of matter in a substance while weight is the pull of gravity
c. Outline the energy changes that take place in a burning stick of matches
(3 marks)
 𝐾𝑖𝑛𝑒𝑡𝑖𝑐 𝑒𝑛𝑒𝑟𝑔𝑦 → ℎ𝑒𝑎𝑡 𝑒𝑛𝑒𝑟𝑔𝑦 → 𝑙𝑖𝑔ℎ𝑡 𝑒𝑛𝑒𝑟𝑔𝑦
10. Figure 5 is a graph of displacement against time of an object.

a. Describe the motion of the object from:

(i) A to B
 Increasing velocity
(ii) B to C
 Decreasing velocity
(iii) C to D
 The body is at rest
b. Calculate the average speed of the object from A to C
Distance
Speed =
Time

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 10𝐾𝑚
= 2ℎ𝑟𝑠
= 5km/hr
c. Explain how Newton’s law of motion is used when one is walking
 When walking, the feet push backwards on the ground. The ground pushes
forward against your foot with an equal and opposite force of reaction.
11. a. Describe how a falling object in air reaches terminal speed
 When an object has just been released the pull of gravity becomes greater
than air resistance. As speed increases, air resistance increases and the pull
of gravity decreases. A body reaches terminal velocity when air resistance
equals the pull of gravity.
b. Using a truth table, describe how on OR gate works
Inputs Outputs
A B L
0 0 0
0 1 1
1 0 1
1 1 1
 When both inputs A and B are closed the lamp will not give light. When
switch A is closed while switch B is open the lamp will give light. When
switch A is closed and switch B is open the lamp will give light. When
both switches are closed, the lamp will give light.
12. a. With the aid of a well labelled diagram, explain why a diode does not conduct
electricity when reverse biased.

 When the positive and negative terminals of the battery are connected in
forward biased with the diode, current flows hence the bulb will give light.
When the diode is reverse biased, no current flows hence the bulb will not
give light.
b. Describe how a thermometer can be graduated into degrees Celsius (℃) scale
 Liquid in glass thermometer was made basing on melting point and boiling
point. It was made in such a way that minimum temperature detected by
thermometer is lower fixed point and maximum temperature reached is
upper fixed point. The difference between the two is the temperature of a
body.
13. a. With the aid a well labelled diagram, describe the refraction of water as they travel
from shallow to deep region.

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  A water wave travelling from shallow water to deeper water experiences
high resistance in shallow water and experiences low resistance in deep
waters. As a water wave is travelling from shallow region to deeper region
the speed of a wave increases. A water wave has shorter wave length in
shallow water and lager wave length in deep waters.
b. With the aid of a diagram, describe an experiment that could be done to show that
sound requires a medium to travel through.

 When the switch was closed while there were some gases inside the bell was
heard ringing. When the air was pumped out and the switch closed, the sound
gradually dies down and eventually the sound is not heard at all. When the air
is allowed to return to the jar, the sound is heard again. This shows that sound
requires a medium
2019 MSCE Written on 26 June
1. (a) State any two methods of studying Physics (2 marks)
 Questioning
 Observation

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  Experimentation
(b) Explain one application of Physics in medicine (2 marks)
 Gamma rays are used to treat cancer cells in human beings
 Cobalt – 60 is used to treat turmours in human beings
 Gamma rays and X – rays are used to sterilise laboratory equipments
(c) Explain how the speed of a moving object can be measured using tape measure
and stop watch. (3 marks)
 Measure distance to be covered by a moving object using a tape measure.
 Measure time taken by a moving body using a stop watch.
 Calculate speed of a moving body by dividing distance with time taken
2. a. Figure 1 is a graph of voltage against current for two conductors A and B. Use it to
answer the questions that follow.

(i) Which conductor obeys Ohm's law?

 B
(ii) Calculate the resistance of the conductor A. (2 marks)
𝑉 0.75 − 0.5 0.25
𝑅= = = = 0.625Ω
𝐼 1 − 0.6 0.4
b. Explain any two factors that determine the amount of heat produced when current
flows through a conductor. (4 marks)
 Amount of current passing through the conductor. As amount of current
passing through the conductor increases the resistance to that flow increases
hence more heat gets produced
 Duration in which current is passing through the conductor. If current has
taken a longer time passing through the circuit more heat gets produced.
 Type of conductor in which current is passing through. Conductors which
offers a greater opposition to current flow produces a lot of heat i.e. nichrome
wires than wires which offers less resistance i.e. copper wires.
3. a. Figure 2 is a diagram showing symbols for electric components. Use it to answer
the questions that follow.

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 (i) Identify components labelled W and X
 Capacitor
 Solenoid
(ii) What is the function of the component labelled Y?
 It gives light once there is supply of electric current.

b. Give any one characteristic of a digital signal

 Analogue circuits produce a continuous varying signal
 Digital signals are transmitted as a series of pulses.
 Digital signal has high quality because it does not lose power and it is not spoilt
by noise.
c. Explain how temperature affects resistance of a wire. (3 marks)
 An increase in temperature makes moving electrons to collide with stationary
positive ions at higher rate hence increasing electrical resistance of the wire.
4. a. State any two effects of force.
 It changes the shape of the body
 It brings about turning effect
 It changes direction of the body
 Makes a body either to start moving or stop moving.
b. A machine with a velocity ratio of 5 requires 5000J of energy to lift a load of 800N
through a vertical distance of 5m. Calculate;
(i) the efficiency of the machine.
𝑤𝑜𝑟𝑘 𝑑𝑜𝑛𝑒 𝑏𝑦 𝑙𝑜𝑎𝑑 800𝑁 × 5𝑚
𝐸𝑓𝑓𝑒𝑐𝑖𝑒𝑛𝑐𝑦 = × 100% = × 100%
𝑤𝑜𝑟𝑘 𝑑𝑜𝑛𝑒 𝑏𝑦 𝑒𝑓𝑓𝑜𝑟𝑡 5000𝐽
4000𝐽
= × 100% = 80%
5000𝐽
(ii) mechanical advantage of the machine.
𝑀. 𝐴 𝑀. 𝐴 80% × 5
𝐸𝑓𝑓𝑖𝑐𝑖𝑒𝑛𝑐𝑦 = × 100% ⟺ 80% = × 100% ⟺ 𝑀. 𝐴 = =4
𝑉. 𝑅 5 100%
5. Figure 3 is a diagram showing a device which switches on and off electricity automatically
in an electric appliance. Use it to answer the questions that follow. to heat circuit.

15
 a. Name the device
 Electrical thermostat
b. Explain how the device works. (4 marks)
 When the appliance has been connected to electricity, heat is produced which heat
the two metal bars at the same time i.e. brass and invar. Brass has greater
expansion rate than invar hence brass will bend making a gap between the
contacts. This breaks the circuit and current stops flowing in the circuit and brass
will get cooled faster than invar hence will turn to its original contact. This
completes the circuit again and the process repeats.
c. Mention any two electrical appliances which use the device.
 Dry electric iron
 Electric cooker
6. a. Figure 4 is a circuit diagram with three identical bulbs of resistance of 10 each.

Calculate: -
(i) the electric current passing through B1.
𝑉 1.5𝑉
𝐼= = = 1.5𝐴
𝑅 1Ω
(ii) the total resistance in the circuit.
𝑅𝑠 = 1Ω + 1Ω = 2Ω
1 1 1 1+2 3 2
= + = = ∴ 𝑅𝑝 = Ω
𝑅𝑝 2Ω 1Ω 2Ω 2Ω 3
b. With the aid of a diagram, describe the arrangement of dipoles in a fully magnetized steel bar.

In a fully magnetised steel bar, the dipoles are aligned in the same direction which also they
have greater interaction of these molecular magnets. This makes resultant magnetism to be
greater hence full magnetism.
7. a. Give any two properties of lenses
 they converge rays of light
 they diverge rays of light
 they refract light to form an image
b. An object l cm high is placed 20 cm in front of a convex lens with a focal length of 10 cm.
Using a ray diagram, find the image distance.

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 The image distance is 20cm.
8. a. Figure 5 is a diagram showing a traditional musical instrument which consists of wooden bars of
different lengths. Use it to answer the questions that follow.

(i) Name the instrument

 Barton pendulum
(ii) How does the instrument produce sound?
 When one gourd vibrates, it induces vibration on another gourd hence
sound is produced
(iii) Why are wooden bars made of different lengths?
 So that each gourd should produce sound of its own natural frequency
(iv) What is the purpose of putting the gourds under the wooden bar?
 For easy interaction of the gourds to produce sound of the same natural
frequency.
b. Figure 6 is a graph of amplitude against frequency for an oscillating system.

(i) At what point is the system in resonance?

 Q
(ii) Give a reason for the answer in 8b (i).
 Because there is maximum amplitude of amplitude of vibration.
(iii) Why is resonance dangerous to a vibrating system?
 Resonance can cause breaking in swinging bridges when people are
marching on it since the bridge vibrates violently making the bridge
collapsing

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9. a. The following equation shows decay of sodium (Na) into magnesium and other nuclear radiations;
24 24
11𝑁𝑎 ⟶ 12𝑀𝑔 + 𝑋 + 𝑦 − 𝑟𝑎𝑑𝑖𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛
(i) Name the particle X.
 Beta particle
(ii) State any one property of X radiation. (1 mark)
 It has higher penetration ability
 It has lower ionisation power
 It does not carry any charge

b. Explain how nuclear radiations can be used to trace brain tumors. (2 marks)
 Iodine 131 is injected into the blood vessels and GM tubes point at the part to be
diagnosed. If radiation decreases, it will indicate that there is turmor in the system.
c. Figure 7 is a diagram showing a set-up of an experiment investigating the fluid
resistance to motion of objects. The ball bearings were released into the liquids at
the same time. Use it to answer the questions that follow.

(i) Which ball bearing reached the bottom of the cylinder first?
 Ball bearing
(ii) Mention any two variables that were kept constant in the experiment.
 Volume of the liquids
 Size and mass of the ball bearings
 Time in which the ball bearings were released in the liquids
10. a. Define "centre of gravity'
 a point where there is higher concentration of mass on a body
 the point through which the earth’s gravitational force acts on the object.
b. State any two ways of increasing mechanical advantage of an inclined
plane.
 Reducing the length of the inclined plane
 Using rollers in moving the lord on the inclined plane
c. Figure 8 is a diagram showing two spheres connected by a straight rod of length 10
cm and suspended in the air at the centre of gravity G.

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 Calculate the position of the centre of gravity G from the 40kg mass. (4 marks)
𝐹1 × 𝑑 = 𝐹2 × 𝑑 ⟺ (10𝑘𝑔 × 10𝑁/𝑘𝑔) × 2𝑥 = (40𝑘𝑔 × 10𝑁/𝑘𝑔) × 𝑥
100𝑁 × 2𝑥 = 400𝑁 × 𝑥 ⟺ 2𝑥 = 𝑥
∴ 𝐺 𝑖𝑠 𝑝𝑜𝑠𝑖𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛𝑒𝑑 𝑎𝑡 3.3𝑐𝑚 𝑓𝑟𝑜𝑚 40𝑘𝑔
SECTION B
11. a. Explain how a terminal speed is reached by an object falling through a liquid. (4
marks)
 When an object has been released into the fluid, the force of gravity (weight)
becomes greater than frictional force and upthrust (W > U + Fr). As it falls
through the liquid weight starts to decrease and frictional force increases
but upthrust remains constant. When weight equals frictional force and
upthrust, an object reaches terminal speed (W = U + Fr).
b. Explain how the action of flotation and sinking is achieved in submarine ships. (6
marks)
 Submarine ships have ballast tanks which compress air. The compressing of air
displaces water backwards hence upthrust towards submarines ship. This reduces
the density of the ship than that of water hence it floats. When the ballast tanks
admit water the density of the ship becomes greater than that of water hence it
sinks
12. a. Figure 9 is a graph showing the behaviour of water when heated.

Describe the behaviour of water according to the graph. (5 marks)

 As the temperature of water increases from 00C to 40C the level of water in the tube
falls showing that water contracts on heating from 00C to 40C. After 40C the level of
water in the tube rises showing that the volume of water increases on heating. At 40C

19
 water has the minimum volume. This shows that water does not expand uniformly with
an increase in temperature.
b. Explain the effect on magnetism when a magnet is heated to red hot and suddenly
cooled down.
 When a magnet is heated red hot, the alignment of dipoles of a magnet gets
disturbed since the dipoles align themselves in different directions. This makes
the resultant magnetism to be less than before hence a magnet gets demagnetised.
13. a. Explain how a liquid in a glass thermometer works to determine temperature of a
substance.
 When the liquid in glass thermometer has come in contact with the body to be
measured, the heat reaches the walled bulb hence thermometric substance inside
expands following the capillary tube to attain the temperature of the surrounding.
This gives the temperature of the surrounding. When temperature decreases the
thermometric substance contracts and gives the temperature of the surrounding.
b. Describe an experiment that could be carried out in order to show that liquid pressure
increases with depth.
a. Take a bottle and make holes of the same depth interval. Label the holes A, B, C and
D from bottom to top respectively.
b. Seal the made holes with cello tape
c. Pour in water in the bottle until it is full. Remove the cello tape and observe
horizontal distance covered by the jets of water as water comes out
Observation
From hole A water is covering a larger distance as it comes out while hole D water is
covering shorter distance.
Conclusion
As depth of the liquid increases liquid pressure also increases.
1 FORCES AND MOTION
2019 Karonga Diocese Mock – 1b paper II
With the aid of a well labelled diagram, describe an experiment that you could use to
determine acceleration due to gravity using a simple pendulum

a. set up the experiment as shown above

b. pull the bob to one side and release it so that it swings
c. start the stop watch and record time taken for 20 oscillations
d. repeat the experiment with other length i.e. 80cm,60cm,40cm,20cm
e. calculate the value of periodic time T and T2
f. plot a graph of T2 against length

20
 g. determine the gradient (slope)
h. calculate the value of g using g = 4Ԉ2/gradient
1. Force (vector)
2012-7.
a. Give two properties of vector quantities. (2marks)
 They have length of the line which represents the magnitude of the vector
 They have an arrow which shows the direction of the vector.
b. Mention one method of adding vectors acting at an angle to each other. (1mark)
 By scale diagram
2010-3.
a. Mention any two examples of a scalar quantity. (2 marks)
 Any two from the following: mass, speed, distance, power, time, frequency, density
b. Describe how vectors are represented on paper. (2 marks)
 Vectors are represented by arrowed lines. The length of the line indicates the
magnitude, and the direction of the arrow indicates the direction of the quantity
2009-6.
a. Define “resultant vector”. (1mark)
 A resultant vector is a single vector which is equivalent to the combined effect of
two or more component vectors acting at the same point.
b. Why is “speed” a scalar quantity while “velocity” a vector quantity? (2marks)
 Speed has magnitude only while velocity has both magnitude and direction

Two forces of magnitude 240 N and 420 N are being used to pull a boat at an angle of 60°
each other. Find the resultant force by using a scale diagram. (Use a scale of 1 cm to
represent 100 N)
(7marks)

2007-5.
c. Figure 4 shows a resultant of two forces.

(i) Complete the diagram to show the vertical and horizontal components. (2marks)

21
(ii) Calculate the magnitude of the horizontal component. (4marks)
 From the resultant force, it shows that 1cm represents 2N. Horizontal length=5cm
 ∴ Horizontal force = 5 × 2 = 10N

2005-4.
a. Forces of 40N and 50N are acting at right angles. Draw a scale diagram to find the
resultant force. (Use a scale of 1cm to represent 10N). (5marks)

2. Velocity & acceleration

2012-7.
d. A car decelerates at a rate of 3m/s2 for 5 seconds. If the initial speed is 20m/s, calculate the
final speed. (3 marks)
 20m/s3m/s2 5s = 5m/s
2011-1.
c. Figure1 is a velocity-time graph showing a journey made by a cyclist.

22
Calculate the acceleration from P to Q. (3 marks)

2008-6.
d. An object of mass 200 kg accelerates uniformly from rest to a velocity of 20m/s in 4 seconds.
Calculate:
(i) acceleration of the object. (2 marks)

(ii) force required to produce the acceleration in 6.d.(i). (2 marks)

2007-5.
b. Figure 3 shows a speed-time graph of a car in motion.

23
(i) Describe the motion of the car from point A to D. (3marks)
 From A to B there was uniform acceleration.
 From B to C there was uniform deceleration (retardation) of 1.25m/s2.
 From C to D there was zero acceleration (constant speed) of 50 m/s

(ii) Calculate the distance covered when the car moves from point A to B. (3marks)
Distance covered=Area under the graph

2006-6.
a. Define “acceleration”. (1 mark)
 The rate of change of velocity.
b. the speed of a runner dropped from 80m/s to 60m/s in 4 seconds.
(i) Calculate the average deceleration of the runner. (4 marks)

(ii) If the runner maintained the deceleration in 6.b.(i) after how long did the speed
reach zero? (2 marks)

t = 16s

2004-8.
a. Describe an experiment that could be done to determine the average speed of an athlete.
(13 marks)
 Measure the distance to be covered by an athlete using a tape measure
 Blow the whistle so that the athlete should start running while starting the
stop watch.
 Let the athlete run three rounds of the distance measured
 Blow the whistle when the athlete completed all three rounds and stop the
watch
 Read and record time taken for the athlete to cover three rounds of the
measured distance
 Calculate the average speed of the athlete by dividing the triple of distance
measured with time taken

b. State two sources of error in 8a. (2 marks)

 error for measuring distance
 Poor timing when controlling the stop watch
2003-1.

24
b. Figure2 is a distance-time graph for a cyclist. Use it to answer the questions that follow.

(i) What is the total distance travelled by the cyclist? (1mark)

 60Km
(ii) How long did it take the cyclist to cover the distance? (1mark)
 5hours
(iii) Describe the motion of the cyclist from 2:00 pm to 4:30pm (3marks)
 Velocity from A to B is 10 km/h, from B to C is 0 km/h, from C to D is 15 km/h.
(iv) Calculate the average speed of the cyclist during the first 2hours of the journey (3marks)

(v) State whether distance is a vector or scalar quantity．Give a reason for your answer
(2marks)
 It is a scalar quantity because it has no direction
3. Newton’s law
2012-7.
a. State Newton’s third law of motion. (1mark)
 For every force of action acting on a body, there is an equal and opposite force of
reaction by the body.
2011-1.
a. What is meant by “free fall” of an object? (2 marks)
 Free fall occurs when an object falls with uniform acceleration under the force of
gravity if air resistance is negligible
b. State two forces that act on an object falling in the air. (2 marks)
 Air resistance (friction force) and Force of gravity.
2010-3.
b. Figure 3 is a diagram showing a person rowing a boat on a lake.

(i) Explain how rowing causes the boat to move. (3 marks)

25
  By rowing, the person exerts force on water backwards. Then the force from water
reacts on the oar forward, which accelerates the boat
(ii) Which Newton’s law of motion is demonstrated in the diagram?
(1 marks)
 Newton’s third law
(iii) Mention any two forces acting on the boat. (2 marks)
 Resistance due to water
 Reaction of water through the oar
2008-6.
a. State any two factors that affect the terminal velocity of a free falling object in air.
(2 marks)
 Air resistance
 Weight of the object
b. Figure 6 is a diagram showing an object falling at terminal velocity. F1
and F2 are forces acting on the object

(i) Name the forces F1 and F2. (1 mark each)

 F1: air resistance
 F2: weight or gravitational force
(ii) What would be the relationship between the magnitude of F1 and F2 at terminal velocity?
(1 mark)
 F1 is the same as F2.
c. State Newton’s second law of motion. (1 mark)
 It states that the rate of change of momentum of an object is directly proportional to
the force acting on the object.
2006-8.
A metal ball is released on the surface of lubricating oil in a tall glass tube. Explain the
change in velocity of the ball as it falls through the oil to the bottom of the tube. (8 marks)
 At the start the weight (W) of the ball makes it fall vertically downwards under
gravity and is greater than the upward viscous force opposing its motion. As the ball
speeds up, the upward force (fluid friction) increases and eventually equals weight
W of the ball. The forces acting on the ball then balance and it moves with constant
speed (terminal speed); the ball reaches the bottom of the tube with this constant
speed.

2005-8.

26
Figure 3 is a diagram of a set up used in an experiment that was carried out to investigate how
a feather and metal ball would fall in a vacuum.

(i) Name the resultant force acting on the ball. (1mark)

 gravitational force
(ii) State the direction of the resultant force in b(i)(2marks)
 downwards
(iii) If the feather and the metal ball where allowed to fall at the same time. Draw in the diagram
to show the positions of both the feather and metal ball before they reach the bottom of the
tube. (1mark)

(iv) Explain your answer to b(iii) above. (2marks)

 Because the falling motion does not depend on mass of the object in case of the
condition which has no air

1. Electrostatics
2010-6.
a. Mention any two appliances that use the principle of electrostatics. (2 marks)
 Photocopying machines
 Capacitors

2008-4.
Figure 4 is a diagram showing a charged rod brought close to metal can standing on an
insulator.

27
 (i) Complete the diagram by indicating the induced charges on the can.
(2 marks)

(ii) Why was the can on an insulator?

 Without an insulator, the charge flows away to ground.

2. Electrical resistance
2021– 14 a. Explain why two identical bulbs in series would have higher electrical
resistance than in parallel circuit. (4 marks)
 When resistors are in series there is a length effect thus there would be more
collisions between electrons and metal ions hence higher resistance while in
parallel there is thickness effect hence in series electrical resistance is higher
than in parallel setup.
b. Figure 3 shows a circuit diagram of a light operated switch.

(iii) Name device labelled A. (1 mark)

 Transistor
(iv) Give any two uses of the device labelled B. (2 marks)

28
  It acts as a switch
 It changes alternating current to direct current(rectification).
2021– 15 a. Define internal resistance of the cell.
 The opposition to the flow of current that a cell offers inside itself.
Figure 4 is a diagram of a circuit with an ideal ammeter which leads 0.2A when the
switch is closed.

b. Determine the internal resistance. (4 marks)

𝑉 1.5𝑉
𝑟= = = 7.5Ω
𝐼 0.2𝐴

2011-2.
b. Explain the difference in total resistance between similar resistors connected in series and
parallel. (4 marks)
 When resistors are in series, the combined resistance is the sum of the individual
resistance and is greater than any individual resistance. In case of connecting resistors
in parallel, the combined resistance is the sum of the reciprocal of all resistances, and
is thus less than the resistance of the smallest individual resistor.
2009-4.
a. What do the following electrical symbols stand for? (1mark)

(i) electrolytic capacitor

(ii) rheostat (or variable resistor)
b. In a circuit, a 6resistor and a 3resistor is connected in parallel and an
8resistor is connected in series with them.
(i) Draw a circuit diagram using the given information. (2marks)

29
 (ii) Calculate the total resistance in the circuit. (5 marks)
1 1 1 1+2 3 1
= + = = =
𝑅𝑝 6 3 6 6 2
𝑅𝑃 = 2Ω
𝑅𝑠 = 2 + 8 = 10Ω
c. Figure 5 is a diagram of an electric circuit for a house.

(i) What type of circuit is shown in the diagram? (1mark)

 Parallel circuit
(ii) Give two reasons why this type of circuit is preferred for wiring houses. (2marks)
 Voltage across each component can be equal.
 Each component is controlled by its own switch
(iii) Explain the importance of including the device labelled X in the circuit in Figure 5.
(3marks)
 Device X is a fuse. The fuse can avoid that overload current. If a fault occurs
and too much current flows, the fuse wire melts before anything else is damaged
or starts a fire.
(iv) Give any one appliance where device X is used. (1mark)
 cooker, kettle, iron, oven
2007-2.
c. Figure 2 is a diagram of an electric circuit.

(i) If S1 is closed and S2 is open, calculate the reading of the ammeter

and voltmeter.
Ammeter: (3marks)

30
  V = 12V, R = 6Ω + 4Ω = 10Ω

Voltmeter. (3marks)
I = 1.2A, R = 4Ω
V = 1.2A× 4Ω = 4.8V
(ii) What will be the effect on the voltmeter if both switches are
closed? (1mark)
 The voltmeter will read the same, i.e. 4.8V.
(iii) Give a reason for the answer to 4.c.(ii) (1mark)
 This is because the voltage in parallel circuit (components) is the same
2006-4.
a. Figure 3 is a circuit diagram

(i) Name the components labelled X and Y. (1mark each)

 X: Battery
 Y: fuse
(ii) Calculate the total resistance in the circuit. (5 marks)
 In series R=10Ω+20Ω=30Ω
 In parallel:
 ∴Total resistance in the circuit is 15Ω
(iii)Calculate the current in the 30Ω resistor. (2 marks)
 V=IR = 0.4A×15Ω = 6V


(iv) Work out the voltage across the 10 Ω resistor. (2 marks)

V=RI=0.2A×10Ω=2V
2005-8.
b. Describe an experiment that could be done to find out if electrical resistance of a wire
varies directly proportional to its length (11marks)
Materials needed: Different lengths of a wire, connecting wires, 2 cells, crocodile clips,
ammeter, meter ruler, and voltmeter.

31
a. Set the apparatus as shown in the diagram above.
b. Complete the circuit by connecting a 20 cm nichrome wire across the gap AB.
c. Read and record ammeter and voltmeter readings
d. Calculate electrical resistance by dividing voltmeter reading with ammeter reading.
e. Repeat steps b, c and d with 40cm, 60cm, 80cm and 100cm.
f. Draw a graph of electrical resistance against length of a wire and calculate the
gradient/slope of the graph. Deduce the relationship between electrical resistance and
length of the wire.

2004-4.
a. Explain why a voltmeter is connected in parallel while an ammeter is connected in series.
(4 marks)
 Because voltmeter is for measuring a pressure of electricity flow which needs to
measure two different points. Whereas ammeter is measuring an amount of electricity
flow which needs to measure only one point. Therefore, voltmeter is connected in
parallel while ammeter is connected in series.
b. Figure 2 is a diagram of a resistor.

What is the resistance of the resistor? (3 marks)

 155%
2004-4.
e.(i) Are the headlamps of a motor car connected in series or in parallel? (1 mark)
 Parallel
(ii) Give a reason for the answer to 4.e(i). (1 mark)
 Same voltage with a buttery can provide to two or more headlamps.
3. Power and cost of electricity
2012-2.
c. Figure 2 is a diagram of an electric circuit.

32
 (i) What is the function of the part labelled Z? (2marks)
 it prevents the high current flows in electrical circuit
(ii) State any two advantages of the circuit in Figure 2. (2marks)
 same voltage can be applied both bulbs
 each bulb can be controlled by its own switch
(iii)Which bulb would use more current if both switches were closed? (1mark)
 200W bulb
(iv) Give a reason for the answer in 2.c.(iii). (1 mark)
 Because 200W bulb consumes larger electrical energy than 100W bulb when same
voltage is applied
d. Calculate the power dissipated in an electric heater in which 4A of current flows when
connected to a 230V supply. (3 marks)
 Electrical power = voltage × current.
 So, Electrical power = 230V×2A = 460W
2010-6.
c. Define “electrical power”. (1 mark)
 Electric power is the rate of energy consumption in an electrical circuit.
d. An electric bulb is marked 240V, 60W.
(i) What is the meaning of “240V, 60W”? (2 marks)
 “240V” indicates voltage for use and “60W” indicates electrical energy
(ii) Calculate the heat dissipated by the bulb, in joules, if it operates for 8 minutes. (3 marks)
 8 minutes = 480 seconds.
 Electrical energy [J] = Electrical power [W]× time[s]

= 60[W] ×480[s]
= 28,800 [J]
2007-4.
a. A current of 2A flows through an electric heater connected to a voltage supply of 240V.
Calculate the:
(i) resistance of the element (2 marks)
 I=2A, V=240V

(ii) power displaced by the heater (2 marks)
 P=IV=2A×240V=480W
(iii) Cost of running the heater for 3 hours if the cost of electrical energy is K5 per kWh.
(4marks)

33
 
2006-4.
b.
(i) Define “Kilowatt hour” (2 marks)
 It is the electrical energy used by a 1 kW appliance in 1 hour.
(ii) The power rating of a television is 150W. How much power in Kilowatt hours will
it use if it is on for 109 hours? (3 marks)

(iii) If the cost of power is K5.00 per kilowatt hour, that will be the cost of running the
television in 4.d.(ii) for 10 hours per day for 2 days. (4 marks)
 t=10 hrs
 ∴Electrical energy=0.15kW×20hrs=3kWh
 ∴Cost=K5.00×3=K15.00

2005-8.
a. 6kW of power is fed to a transmission cable of resistance 3 ohms. Calculate the power
wasted in the cable if power is transmitted at 300V. (4marks)
 P = 6 kW = 6000W, R = 3Ω, V = 300V.
 Electrical current passing through the cable is: I = P/V = 6000W/300V = 20 A Power
wasted in the cable is: P = I2R = 202×3 = 1200W
2003-1.
a. Figure 1 is a diagram of an electric circuit.

(i) What kind of energy is produced in the 12Ω resist as electric current flows though it?
(1 mark)
 Heat energy
(ii) Calculate the amount of energy produced in the resistor if electric current flows. (3 marks)
 V=IR, V = 12Ω ×1.5 = 18V
 Electrical power P is :P=VI, P = 18×1.5 = 27W
1. Magnetism
2019 Karonga Diocese Mock – 2a
Using a well labelled diagram, explain how a magnet can be made by a single stroke
method

34
Materials needed: a steel needle, a bar magnet
Procedure
 Place the steel needle on the bench
 Stroke the steel needle with the south pole of the bar magnet along the whole length
of the steel needle.
 Once at the end, lift the magnet well away from the steel needle i.e make a wide
sweep
Repeat the process several times
 Test the polarity of the steel needle by the repulsion method
Conclusion
B becomes S-pole and end A becoming a N-pole since the end of the magnetic
material last touched by the magnet acquires a polarity opposite to the one touching it.
2012-8.
e. Explain how a piece of steel could be magnetized by single touch stroking method.
(2 marks)
 The domains inside of steel are rearranged toward same direction of stroking.
Therefore, it can be magnetized.
2011-2.
c. Give any one method of demagnetizing a permanent magnet. (1 mark)
 Heating it strongly (red hot)
 Leaving a magnet in the solenoid while the current is reduced to zero.
2003-7.
a. Briefly explain how a piece of iron can be magnetized by stroking. (5 marks)
 This method involves moving one bar magnet repeatedly, in the same direction above
an object to be magnetized.
 The polarity of the yet to be produced magnet would be in a way that the end will
have a pole opposite to the pole near it.
2. Electromagnetic Induction
2012-2.
a. State two ways of inducing electromotive force(emf). (2 marks)
 using electromagnetic induction
 using a cell connecting complete circuit
b. Mention any one application of an electromagnet. (1 mark)
 electric motor
 dynamo
 ammeter
2011-2.

35
 d. Figure 2 is a diagram showing an experiment on electromagnetism in which a current
carrying wire passed through the centre of a card on which iron fillings were sprinkled.

(i) Draw an arrow in the compass to show the direction of field lines. (1 mark)

Field lines shown by iron fillings

Card

Straight wire

Current direction

(ii) What would happen to the direction of the compass needle if the direction of current was
reversed? (1 mark)
 The compass needle points in the opposite direction.
(iii) Give a reason for the answer in 2.d.(ii). (1 mark)
 When the direction of current reverses, the direction of the field reverses too.
Therefore, the compass needle also reverses.
2010-6.
b. Figure 4 is a diagram of an electric circuit.

(i) Name the part labelled X. (1 mark)

 Solenoid
(ii) What would happen if the part labelled X is brought close to iron fillings? (1 mark)

36
  Iron fillings would be attracted to the iron bar.
(iii) Give a reason for the answer in 6.b.(ii). (2 marks)
 The iron bar gets magnetized due to the electric current.
(iv) What is the role of the iron bar in the circuit? (1 mark)
 It increases the strength of the magnetic field
e. A step down transformer has 1200 turns in the primary coil and 50 turns in the secondary
coil. Calculate the voltage in the secondary coil if the voltage in the primary coil is 240V.
(3 marks)

240 × 50
= 10V
1200 × V
2008-4.
a. Figure 2 is a diagram of a transformer

(i) Name the type of transformer shown in the diagram. (1 mark)

 Step down transformer
(ii) Give a reason for the answer to 4.a.(i). (1 mark)
 It is because the number of turns in the output coil is less than the number of turns
in the input coil
(iii) Calculate the output voltage of the transformer. (3 marks)
𝑁𝑆 𝑉𝑆 50 𝑇𝑢𝑟𝑛𝑠 𝑉𝑠 230 × 50
= = = = = 11.5𝑉
𝑁𝑃 𝑉𝑃 1000 𝑡𝑢𝑟𝑛𝑠 230𝑉 1000 × 𝑉𝑆
2007-4.
b.
(i) give one advantage of alternating current over direct current. (1mark)
 It can be transmitted over long distances.
 It can be easily stepped up or down.
 Line losses are minimized for a given wattage delivery and wire diameter.

(ii) state any two causes of energy loss in a transformer. (2marks)

 Heat energy lost due to resistance in the wire windings
 Eddy’s currents
 Flux leakage
(iii) How can each cause of energy loss mentioned in 4.b.(ii) be reduced? (2marks)
 Resistance in the windings can be reduced by using thicker copper wires which have
low resistance. Coolants can also be used to cool down the transformer.

37
  Eddy’s currents can be reduced by using laminated iron core, i.e. iron is layered to
increase resistance.
 Flux leakage can be reduced by good designing of the transformer. This is achieved
by winding primary on top of the secondary and having a ‘closed’ iron core.

2005-1.
d. Figure 2 is a diagram of a compass needle placed under a connecting wire.

(i) Draw arrows on the diagram to show, when the switch is closed. The direction of movement
of:
(1) The compass needles.
(2) The current (2 marks)
(2) electrical current

Compass needle of S

(1) Compass needle of N

(ii) What effect would the following changes have on the movement of the compass needle?
(1) reversing the cell. (1 mark)
 The direction of compass needle will be reversed
(2) Increasing the number of cells. (2 marks)
 There is no movement
d. Mention two devices which use electromagnets. (2 marks)
 Speaker / electrical bell

2004-4.
c.
(i) Explain the difference between an electric motor and an electric generator. (2 marks)
 Electric motor changes electrical energy to kinetic energy (rotating effect) while an
electric generator changes kinetic energy to electrical
(ii) State any two factors which affect the amount voltage produced by a generator.
(2 marks)
 strength of magnet

38
  number of turns of coil
2003-7.
b.
(i) Describe how a step up transformer works. (6 marks)
 A step-up transformer has greater number of turns on the secondary coil than that
of primary coil. When current is applied to the primary coil, it produces magnetic
field magnetic field which is cut by the secondary coil. Then the secondary coil
induces secondary current and voltage. The ratio of number of turns on primary and
secondary coil is equal to the ratio of primary voltage and secondary voltage,
respectively.
(ii) Explain two ways in which energy losses in a transformer are minimized. (4 marks)
 Using oil in a transformer to cool it down.
 Using thick irons covers to have high resistance.
 Use of properly designed transformers
 Using the core that is made from thin layers of soft iron glued together with an
insulating material between the strips
 Use soft iron core because it is easy ta magnetise

Electronics
2011-2.
a. Give two types of semiconductors. (2 marks)
 Intrinsic semiconductors
 Extrinsic semiconductors
2011-8.
a. In terms of the band theory, explain why resistance of a semiconductor decreases when
temperature increases. (4 marks)
 A semiconductor conducts better when some heat energy is supplied to it (or its
temperature is increased) because in so doing the electrons are promoted (excited)
from the valence band to the conduction band. This decreases the resistance of a
semiconductor, and electrons easily flow in the material.
2008-4.
b.
(i) What are “semiconductors”? (1 mark)
 These are materials which conducts electricity partially.
(ii) Explain how raising the temperature of semiconductors affects their electrical conductivity.
(2 marks)
 As the temperature rises, the electrical conductivity increases
c. Figure 3 is a diagram of a transistor.

39
 (i) Name the parts marked X and Y. (1 mark each)
 X: base
 Y: collector
(ii) Give any two uses of transistors. (2 marks)
 Controlling current as an electronic switch.
 Amplifying current in a circuit
(i) Why are “diodes” sometimes referred to as “rectifiers”? (2 marks)
 Diodes change alternating current to direct current
(ii) Draw a circuit diagram consisting of a cell, a bulb and a diode such that the diode is
forward biased. (8 marks)

2004-4.
d.
(i) What is a “semiconductor”? (1 mark)
 It is a material that allow current to pass through under certain conditions.
(ii) Draw a circuit diagram in which a bulb, a cell and a diode are connected in series such
that the diode is forward biased. (2 marks)

(iii) What is meant by the term “doping” in relation to a semi-conductor? (2 marks)

 Doping improves conductivity of a semiconductor.
(iv) State two functions of transistors. (2 marks)
 Transistors can amplify current
 can control current as an electronic switch
OSCILLATION AND WAVES
2012-4.

40
a. Define “oscillation”.
 Oscillation is regular movement between one position and another position.
2010-6.
h. (i) State any two factors which affect frequency of an oscillating pendulum. (2 marks)
 The length of the string
 Acceleration due to gravity
(ii) Mention two characteristics of an oscillating system. (2 marks)
 The vibrating material moves to and fro about a fixed position
 The sum of its kinetic, potential and strain energy is constant.
 They have amplitude, periodic time, frequency, displacement
2008-2.
b. Figure 1 is a diagram showing a mass hanging on a spring. If the mass is pulled to point
A and released, it vibrates between points A and C through the rest position, B.

(i) Calculate the initial amplitude of the vibration. (2 marks)

 20𝑐𝑚⁄ = 10𝑐𝑚
2
(ii) At which point does the vibrating mass have the highest kinetic energy? (1 mark)
 B
(iii) Describe how potential energy and kinetic energy change as the mass is vibrating from A
to C. (4 marks)
 At point A, the mass has potential energy only. From point A to B, potential energy
decreases and kinetic energy increases. At point B, the mass has kinetic energy
only. From point B to C, kinetic energy decreases and potential energy increases.
At point C, the mass has potential energy only
(iv) Give two reasons why the mass would eventually stop vibrating. (2 marks)
 A part of kinetic energy changes to heat energy.
 A part of kinetic energy changes to sound energy.
 All energy is changed to heat as a result of overcoming air resistance.
2004-5.
a. Define the term “oscillation” in relation to a swinging pendulum. (2 marks)
 Oscillation is regular movement of a swinging pendulum from one side to another
side.

41
b. Figure 3 is a diagram of a simple pendulum. The mass vibrates between points A and C
through B.

(i) What happens to the speed of the mass as it moves from positions?
A to B? (1 mark)
 Increases
B to C? (1 mark)
 Decreases
(ii) What is the speed of the mass at C? (1 mark)
 The speed at C is zero
(iii) What happens to the frequency and amplitude of oscillation of a pendulum as time
increases? (2 marks)
 Frequency remains constant while amplitude decreases.
(iv) State the energy changes of the mass as it changes from A to C. (2 marks)
 The energy changes from potential energy to kinetic energy as the mass moves from
A to B. The energy changes from kinetic energy to potential energy as the mass
moves from B to C.
(v) What happens to the frequency of vibration of a pendulum when the length of the string is
changed? (2 marks)
 As the length of the string decreases, frequency increases.
2. Waves
2012-4.
b.
(i) What type of wave is produced by a vibrating string? (1mark)
 transverse wave
(ii) Calculate the frequency of a wave with a wavelength of 2m and speed of 6m/s.
(3 marks)
 frequency = speed÷ wavelength So, frequency = 6m/s÷2m = 3s-1
c. State the difference between “interference” and “diffraction” of waves. (2marks)
 Interference occurs when the waves travel in the same region resulting in
either reinforcement or cancelling of each other while diffraction occurs when
straight wave hit an obstacle with a gap, the waves become curved on the
other side and spread beyond the edges of the gap.
2012-8.
a. With the aid of a diagram, explain how destructive interference in water waves occurs.
(4marks)

42
 cancelling of wave

 Destructive interference occurs when identical waves meet out of phase resulting in
cancelling of each other and stopping of all movements
b. Explain why waves refract when travelling from one medium to another. (2 marks)
 Because speed of wave is different between different mediums.
2011-7.
a, State the difference between a ‘transverse’’ and a “longitudinal" wave. (2 marks)
 A transverse wave is that the direction of the disturbance (vibrating particles) is at
right angles to the direction of travel of the wave while longitudinal wave is that the
particles of the transmitting medium vibrate to and fro along the same line as that of
wave motion.

2011-8.
b. With the aid of labelled diagrams, explain the difference between waves passing through
narrow and wide gaps. (6 marks)
 When waves pass through a narrow gap, they spread out more, i.e. more diffraction
as demonstrated in the first diagram.
obstacle

direction of wave
gap

wave front
When waves pass through a wide gap, there is less diffraction (spread out less) as shown in
the second diagram.

43
 obstacle

direction of wave
gap

wave front

2010-8.
a. Explain how constructive interference occurs in waves. (3 marks)
 When two or more waves meet in phase, the resultant wave has greater amplitude.
This interference is called constructive interference.
2009-2
b. Figure 3 is a diagram of a wave with a frequency of 2 Hz.

(i) Name the type of wave shown in figure 3. (1mark)

 Transverse wave
(ii) Give any two properties of the wave. (2marks)
 refraction, reflection, diffraction, interference
(iii) What is the wavelength of the wave? (1mark)
 2m
(iv) Calculate the speed of the wave. (2 marks)
wave speed = wavelength × frequency
= 2 m × 2 Hz
= 4 m/s

2007-2.
a. Give two factors that affect the frequency of a vibrating spring. (2marks)
 Mass on the spring
 Material of the spring
b. Figure 1 is a diagram of a wave.

(i) Name the part labelled A. (1mark)

44
  Crest
(ii) Calculate the frequency of the wave. (2marks)

(iii) Calculate the velocity of the wave if its wavelength is 50m. (2marks)
 Velocity = frequency ×wavelength = 0.5Hz × 50m = 25 m/s.
2006-6.
c. Figure 4 is a diagram showing waves n a rope xy.

(i) Calculate the wave length of this wave. (3marks)



 0.4m
(ii) If the rope xy is swung up and down 20 times in 2 seconds, calculate the average speed
of the wave. (4marks)


d. figure 5 is a diagram showing water wave approaching two slits, S1 and S2 in an obstacle.

(i) Complete the diagram to show waves emerging on the other side of the obstacle.
(3marks)

45
(ii) State two properties of waves that are demonstrated in the completed diagram.
(2marks)
 Diffraction
 interference
(iii) What would happen to the waves emerging on the other side of the obstacle if the widths
of S1 and S2 were increased? (1mark)
 Diffraction will be insignificant, i.e. not much diffraction will take place.
2006-7.
b. Explain with the help of diagrams, the difference between constructive interference and
destructive interference. (10 marks)

 At the point where a crest from one source arrives at the same time as crest from
another source, a bigger crest is formed and the waves are said to be in phase.
When the waves are in phase, it means there is constructive interference. This also
happens when two troughs collide.

 At the point where a crest and a trough arrive together, the waves are exactly out of
phase and they cancel out (if their amplitudes are equal). When the waves are out
of phase there is destructive interference.
2005-6.
Figure 6 is a diagram shooing crests of straight ripples on water surface produced in a
ripple tank by a wave generator.

46
a. What kind of waves is represented by the crests? (1 mark)
 transverse wave
b. What is the wavelength of the ripples if there are 5 complete waves in a distance of 60 cm?
(2marks)
60𝑐𝑚
 wave length = = 12 cm = 0.12 m
5

c. What is the frequency of the ripples if four crests pass through point A in one second?
(1mark)
 frequency = 4 / 1 second = 4 Hz
d. Calculate the speed of the waves. (3marks)
 Speed = frequency × wave length
 4 Hz ×0.12m = 0.48 m/s
e. What would happen to the wave length if the waves moved from deep water to shallow
water?
 The wave length would decrease
f. Explain the answer to (e). (5 marks)
 When waves enter the shallower water, then speed of wave would decrease but
frequency of wave doesn’t change. So, wave length would decrease
g. describe “constructive interference” in water waves. (2marks)
 constructive interference is produced where crest and crest meet at same region. It
makes the crests bigger.
h. what is the difference between “longitudinal” and “transverse” waves? (2marks)
 In a transverse wave, the objects move up and down about fixed position at right
angle to the direction of movement of the wave. While in a longitudinal wave, the
objects move in the direction of the wave.
i. what type of waves are radio waves? (1mark)
 transverse wave
2003-1.
c.
(i) What is the difference between a transverse wave and a longitudinal wave? (4marks)
 Transverse waves can travel through a vacuum while longitudinal waves cannot.
 Transverse waves produce crests and though while longitudinal waves create
compression and rare faction.
 Oscillations of transverse waves are at right angle in the direction of the waves
while that of longitudinal waves are in line with direction of the waves
(ii) Give any two characteristics of a wave. (2marks)
 Amplitude, wave length, frequency, velocity, (write any two of these)

LIGHT
1. General property (eclipse)
2012-36.
Explain how a shadow of an object is formed. (2 marks)

47
  The shadows are formed as a result of light travelling in straight line. Light falling on
the subject is either absorbed or sent back, hence a shadow is formed on the side
where light fails to come out.
2012-37.
Explain the difference between “umbra” and “penumbra” (4 marks)
 Umbra is an area of total darkness while penumbra is an area of partial darkness
2009-37.
Figure 9 is a diagram showing an opaque material placed between a source of light, PQ and
a screen, RT

a. Complete the diagram by drawing two rays from P and two rays from Q to show how the
shadow of the opaque material will be formed on the screen. (2 marks)
b. On the diagram completed in 37.1, label the regions of: (3 marks)
(i) total darkness and
(ii) partial darkness
2003-36.
a. Give any two examples where reflection of light is used in everyday life. (2 marks)
 Car mirrors
 Periscopes
b. Figure 12 shows dark regions A and B formed when an opaque object blocks the path of
light.

Name the dark regions labelled A and B. (2 marks)

 A: penumbra, B: umbra
2. Reflection
2007-31.
Figure 5 is a diagram of an optical device.

48
a. Name the device. (1 mark)
 Periscope
b. Complete the diagram to show rays of light coming out of the device. (2 marks)

c. State two uses of the device. (2 marks)

 To enable people to see around or over obstacles
 To see below water from above surface
2005-38.
b. Give two instruments that use reflection of light. (2 marks)
 Periscopes, Convex mirrors, Concave mirrors, Car mirrors, Cameras
3. Refraction (dispersion)
2011-36.
Figure 9 is a diagram showing a light ray moving from glass to substance Y.

a. Which medium is denser between “glass” and “Y”? (1 mark)

 Y
b. Give a reason for the answer in 36.a. (3 mark)
 Because the angle of refracted light ray is larger than the angle of incident light ray.
2006-33.
Figure 7 shows a ray light travelling from air into a glass prism.

49
a. Complete the diagram by drawing the ray of light emerging from the prism at point Z into
the air. (1 mark)

b. Explain the reasoning for completing the diagram in the way done in 33.a. (2 marks)
 When light travels across a border at a right angle, it does not refract.
2005-38.
a. Figure 11 is a diagram showing a light ray striking a glass block.

Complete the diagram to show the path the light takes to get out of the glass block. (2marks)

1. General property (eclipse)

50
2004-42.
a. Give one example for each of the following luminous sources of light: (2 marks)
(i) point source: A small bulb, a star in the long distance, the small fire of a match
(ii) extended source: the sun, a big torch
b. Explain how the following eclipses are produced:
(i) Solar eclipse: (3 marks)
 A solar eclipse occurs when the moon lies between the sun and the earth. The moon
prevents the sunlight from reaching the earth totally or partially. The shadow of the
moon is casted on the earth.
(ii) Lunar eclipse: (3 marks)
 A lunar eclipse occurs when the earth lies between the sun and the moon. The earth
prevents the sunlight from reaching the moon totally or partially. The shadow of the
earth is casted on the moon
c. Mention any things that happen to light when it strikes a surface. (2 marks)
 Reflection, Refraction, dispersion
2. Reflection
2006-43.
a. State any three properties of an image formed by a plane mirror. (3 marks)
 It is upright
 Image size is same as object size
 It is virtual
3. Refraction (dispersion)
2010-42.
a. With the help of a labelled diagram, describe how white light can be split into various
colours using a prism. (5 marks)

 When white light is passing through a prism (medium of high density) from air
(medium of low density), it bends away from the normal line. White light splits into
seven colours i.e. Red, orange, yellow, green, blue, indigo and violet in the process
called dispersion. When leaving the prism white light bends towards the normal line.
2006-43.
b. With the aid of a diagram, explain why apparent depth of a coin placed at the bottom of a
basin filled with water appears to be higher than the actual depth. (7 marks)

51
The light from the coin is refracted at the surface of water and comes to our eyes. Since light
apparently comes straightforward to our eyes, we think as if the coin were at the point A
which is higher than where the coin actually is.
2003-42.
A student set up an experiment to demonstrate the dispersion of white light.
a. Draw a labelled diagram of the set-up of apparatus the student may have used. (4 marks)

b. What name is given to the band of colours produced when white light is dispersed? (1
mark)
 Spectrum
2015 – 42 e
Describe the nature of image formed when object is placed in front of a converging lens at
distance between the lens and focal point
 The image is upright, magnified and virtual
2015- 43
With the aid of a diagram, explain how a periscope works

52
Incident rays from the object are directed to M1. The mirror reflects the incident rays
perpendicularly to M2 which is downwards. The reflected rays from M2 are reflected to the
observer’s eye and the image of the object is casted opposite the observer eye. The image will
look as if it is behind M2. The observer will see whatever is happening on top and
surrounding his building.
2011-7.
b. Explain how the focal length of a convex lens can be determined using a distant object. (3
marks)
 Sunlight rays arrive in parallel beams. Using the window as an object, one can
form a sharp, inverted image on a sheet of white card or white wall (acting as
screen) by adjusting the convex lens between sunlight through window and the
screen is the focal length.

c. State any two differences between a “camera” and a “human eye”. (2 marks)
 The focal length of the human eye lens changes while that of the
camera is fixed.
 The human eye has a fixed image distance while the camera has
an image distance that changes.

2010-6.
g.
(i) State any three differences between a real image and a virtual image. (3 marks)
 A real image is the image projected through a lens, while a virtual image is not
projected and observed through a lens
 A real image is upside down, while a virtual image is upright.
 A real image cannot be observed using concave lenses, while a virtual image can.
(ii) An object 6 cm long is placed 30 cm in front of a converging lens of focal length 10
cm. Use the lens formula to calculate;
(1) image distance (4 marks)


 where f = 10cm, u=30cm, hence the image distance v = 15cm

53
 (2) magnification of the object (2 marks)

 1⁄2
2010-7.
a. Explain how an image is formed by a convex lens. (4 marks)
 Light rays from an object are bent towards the principal axis when passing through
the convex lens. They converge at a certain point, where the image is produced.

2009-2
a. Figure 2 shows part of a ray diagram.

(i) Complete the ray diagram to show the position of the image. (3 marks)

(ii) Calculate the magnification of the image. (4marks)

 The length of the object, h1: 2cm the
 length of the image, h2: 2cm
ℎ 2𝑐𝑚
 magnification, m is 𝑚 = ℎ2 = 2𝑐𝑚 = 1
1

2009-2.
c. Figure 4 is diagram of a slide projector.

54
(i) State the function of each of the following:
Concave mirror: (1mark)
 It reflects back the light rays that are directed away from Light source so that the slide
can get the brighter lights.

Condenser lens: (1mark)

 It can converge and condense as much light as possible onto the slide, so as to
illuminate it very well.

(ii) Describe the nature of the image formed on the screen. (3marks)
 Real, inverted and magnified
2008-2.
a
(i) Define “focal length” of a convex lens. (2 marks)
 Focal length is the distance between the optical centre and the principal focus.
(ii) State any two ways of determining the focal length of a convex lens. (2 marks)
 Focussing image from distant object
 Graphical method

(iii) An object 10 cm high is placed 25 cm from the centre of a convex lens of focal length
10 cm. Draw a ray diagram to show the position of the image formed. (Scale: 1 cm to
represent 5 cm) (6 marks)

2007-2.
c. (i) State any three similarities between a camera and a human eye. (3 marks)
 An eye uses a light sensitive retina as its screen and a camera uses a light sensitive
film

55
  An eye has a converging lens (convex) and a camera has a converging lens too.
 The iris controls light entering the eye and the shutter/diaphragm controls light
entering a camera.
 Both use light in their operations.
 Inside surface area of an eye is black (dark) just the same as in the camera.
(ii) What is the function of an aperture in a camera? (1 mark)

 It is a hole in the diaphragm that lets in light

d.
An object placed 15 cm away from a convex lens of focal length 10 cm.
(i) Using the lens formula, calculate the image distance. (4 marks)
𝑂𝑏𝑗𝑒𝑐𝑡 𝑑𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒(𝑢) = 15𝑐𝑚, 𝑓𝑜𝑐𝑎𝑙 𝑙𝑒𝑛𝑔𝑡ℎ (𝑓) = 10𝑐𝑚


(ii) Calculate the magnification of the image. (2 marks)

(iii) What is the nature of the image produced? (3marks)

 Magnified, real and inverted (upside down)

2004-5.
c.
An object 2 cm high is placed 7.5 cm in front of a converging lens of focal length 5 cm.
(i) Calculate the image distance. (4 marks)
Lens formula is

where f is focal length, u is object distance and v is image distance.

𝑣 = 15𝑐𝑚

56
(ii) Describe the image formed. (3 marks)
 Magnified, inverted and real
(iii) Calculate the magnification of the image. (2 marks)
𝐼𝑚𝑎𝑔𝑒 𝑑𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒 15𝑐𝑚
𝑀𝑎𝑔𝑛𝑖𝑓𝑖𝑐𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛 = = =2
𝑜𝑏𝑗𝑒𝑐𝑡 𝑑𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒 7.5𝑐𝑚

NUCLEAR PHYSICS
2012-6.
d.
(i) Name two types of radioactivity. (2 marks)
 Natural radioactivity
 Artificial radioactivity
(ii) Define “half- life” of a radioactive element. (1mark)
 Time taken for a radioactive substance to be reduced to half
(iii) Mention any three properties of an alpha particle. (3 marks)
 They are positively charged
 They have higher ionisation ability
 They least penetration power
 They deflect towards a negative plate
 They are heavier than other particles
2012-8.
d. Explain any two uses of nuclear radiation. (4 marks)
 They are used to date artefacts i.e. carbon- 14
 They are used to kill cancer cells
 They are used to trace water uptake in plants
2011-7.
d.
(i) Define “nuclear fission”. (1 mark)
 Nuclear fission is a process in which a highly unstable nucleus splits (disintegrates)
into two or more nuclei.
(ii) Write down two symbols representing isotopes of hydrogen. (2 marks)
 11𝐻 and 21𝐻
e. Explain why a charged leaf electroscope is not suitable for detecting beta radiation. (2
marks)
 It is not suitable for detecting beta radiation because beta particles cause insufficient
ionisation of the air. For a charged leaf electroscope to work better, the nuclear
radiations should cause the air around the cap to be fully ionised.
f. Thorium decays by alpha emission to radium .
(i) What do the numbers 228 and 88 represent in ?
 ‘228’: the mass number, ‘88’: the atomic number or proton number
(ii) Write the nuclear equation for the decay of thorium . (3 marks)
232 228 232 228
90𝑇ℎ → 88𝑅𝑎 + 42𝛼 or 90𝑇ℎ → 88𝑅𝑎 + 42𝐻𝑒

57
2010-5.
a.
(i) Name two particles found in the nucleus of an atom. (2 marks)
 Protons
 Neutrons
(ii) State two characteristics of a radioactive substance. (2 marks)
 They undergo radioactive decay
 They have an unstable ratio of protons to neutrons
(iii) State any two uses of nuclear radiation. (2 marks)
 They are used to generate electricity
 They are used to give dates to artefacts
b. Table 1 shows the activity of a radioactive element with time.
Activity (Disintegrations per 40 30 20 10
second)
Time (days) 0 4 8 16
(i) Plot a graph of activity against time. (5 marks)

45
40
35
30
25
20
15
10
5
0
0 5 10 15 20
Time (days)

(ii) Use the graph to find the time taken for the activity to drop from 30 to 15 disintegrations
per second. (2 marks)
 8 days (The half-life is 8 days)
c. Name the particles emitted when radium decay to radon . (2 marks)
 An alpha-particle

2009-3.
a. Define “radioactivity". (2marks)
 Spontaneous disintegration of unstable nucleus to release particles or rays
b. Name three types of radiation. (3 marks)
 Alpha decay

58
  Beta decay
 Gamma emission
c. Mention any two instruments that are used to detect radiation. (2 marks)
 photographic plates
 scintillation counter
 spark counter
 cloud chamber
d. (i) How do chemical properties of the isotopes of uranium, and compare? (1mark)
 They have the same chemical properties.
(ii) Give a reason for the answer to 3.d.(i). (2 marks)
 It is because their electrons are arranged in exactly the same way.
e. Mention any one natural source of radiation. (1 mark)
 uranium ore
 radium ore
 thorium ore
f. A radioactive source has a half-life of 30 minutes. Calculate the fraction left after 2 hours. (4
marks)
1
 after 30 minutes the fraction left is 2
1
 after 1 hour the fraction left is 4
1
 after 1 hour and 30 minutes the fraction left is 8
1
 after 2 hours the fraction left is 16

2008-3,
a. Define “nuclear fusion”. (2 marks)
 Nuclear fusion is the collision and joining together of two light nuclei to form a
heavier, more stable nucleus.
b. The equation below shows the fusion of heavy hydrogen
→
(i) Name the products:
(1 mark)
 Helium
(1 mark)
 Neutron
(ii) Identify the type of radioactive decay. (1 mark)
 Beta decay
c. Uranium, , decays in a series of stages as follows:
Stage 1;
Stage 2;
(i) Which particles are emitted at each stage?
Stage 1; (1 mark)

59
  alpha particles
Stage 2: (1 mark)
 beta particles
(ii) Apart from the particles mentioned in 3.c.(i), what else is emitted at each stage? (1 mark)
 Gamma rays
d. State any three safety precautions that must be followed when handling radioactive
substances. (3 marks)
 We never hold it near the eyes.
 They must be kept in the boxes when not in use.
 Handle with long tongs and transported in thick lead containers
d. When a source of radiation is placed in front of a Geiger-Muller counter, the initial
count rate is 128.
After 16 minutes, the count rate is 8. Calculate the half-life of the source. (6 marks)
1 𝑡
 𝑁 = 𝑁0 (2)𝑇
1 1 16
 = (2) 𝑇
16
1 1 16
 (2)4 = (2) 𝑇
16
 4= 𝑇
 4𝑇 = 16
 T=4
Half-life = 4 minutes
2007-8.
Describe the following radioactive processes: alpha decay, beta decay and gamma
emission. In the description include atomic numbers, penetration power, ionizing ability
and behaviour in magnetic and electric fields.
Alpha decay: (5marks
 Each alpha particle has 2 protons (atomic number is 2) and 2 neutrons and it is
identical to Helium -4 nucleus with a charge of +2. Alpha particles have strong
ionising effect, that is to say, alpha particles have a better ability to remove electrons
from shells of other atoms. Alpha particles are not very penetrating; they are easily
stopped by thick sheet of paper or by skin, or a few centimetres of air.

Beta decay: (5marks)

 The beta particle is an electron and it has a relative charge of -1 since they are smaller
than alpha particles. Beta particles have weak ionising effect. Beta particles are more
penetrating than alpha particles, but can be stopped by a few millimetres of
aluminium or any other metals.

Beta particles are deflected by magnetic and electric fields (to the positive
side/charge). The beta particles have higher speed than alpha particles, i.e. an average
speed of light.

Gamma emission: (4marks)

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  When a gamma radiation occurs, high energy electromagnetic waves are emitted from
the atomic nucleus. Gamma rays have a very weak ionising effect, that is, gamma rays
have a very little ability to remove electrons from their paths in the atoms. Gamma
rays are very penetrating; never completely blocked or stopped, though lead and
concrete can reduce the intensity of penetrating. Gamma rays are not deflected by
magnetic or electric fields since they have no charge.

2006-3.
a. Define “nuclear fission”. (2marks)
 This is a process in which a nucleus split into two or more nucleus split into two or
more nuclei due to the penetration of a particle making a nucleus highly unstable.
b. Name two particles found in the nucleus of an atom. (2marks)
 Protons
 Neutrons
c. Two radioactive samples showed the following characteristics.
Sample Effect of gold leaf electroscope Effect of cardboard on sample
A No effect Sample passes through
B Discharged Sample blocked
(i) Identify particles emitted by samples A and B. (1mark each)

 A: Gamma rays / B: Alpha particles

(ii) Why does the particle emitted by sample B get blocked by the card board?
(2marks)
 It is relatively bigger and heavier than the other particles
d. Figure 1 is a diagram showing radiation passing through an electric field.

(i) Name the particles taking paths X, Y and Z. (1mark each)

 X is alpha particle, Z is beta particle and Y is gamma ray

(ii) Explain why particle Z will deflect towards the positive plate. (3marks)

 Z is a beta particle and it is negatively charged, i.e. an electron; As a result, it is

attracted to the plate that has an opposite charge, i.e. positive plate.
2005-4.
c.

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(i) the half-life of a radioactive substance is 3 hours. What mass of the substance would
remain after 12 hours if the initial mass was 20g? (4marks)
1 𝑡 1 12ℎ𝑜𝑢𝑟𝑠 1 4 1
 𝑁 = 𝑁0 (2)𝑇 = 20(2) 3ℎ𝑜𝑢𝑟𝑠 = 20 (2) = 20 (16) = 1.25𝑔
(ii) Why is it important to use radioisotopes with a short half-life as tracers in Agriculture?
(2 marks)
 The short life-time radioisotopes decay into stable substance rapidly in the plants.
As a result, use of short life-time radioisotope can only affect minimum damage for
plant cells
(iii) Explain why fission is a useful process in industry. (3marks)
 Useful in the production of nuclear energy.
2004-6.
a. State any two safety precautions to be taken when handling radioactive substances.
(2 marks)
 Wear protectors
 Use forceps
 Enclose the waste in steel containers which are taken buried in concrete
bunkers
b. Describe the “alpha particles” and “beta particles” (6 marks)
 They consist two protons and two neutrons. It is the nucleus of a helium atom: 42𝐻𝑒.
 Beta particles are electrons that move at very high speed.

c. Explain why gamma radiation is used in sterilization of medical equipment. (3

marks)
 Because gamma rays cuts DNA and kills cells of bacteria and virus.
c.
(i) The Radon-222 (Rn) isotope is formed from the alpha decay of radium-226 (Ra).
Write a nuclear equation to show this change. (Atomic number of Ra is 88). (3 marks)

(ii) Figure 4 is a diagram showing radiation passing through ax; electric field. Draw and label
in the diagram the paths taken by the alpha-particles and the beta-particles. (2marks)

(iii) Explain Why the behaviour of particles is as shown in 6c(ii). (4marks)

(iv) Alpha particles are positively charged so they are attracted

towards the negative charged object. Beta particles are
negatively charged so they are attracted towards the positive

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 charged object. Beta particles are deflected more than alpha
particles because beta particles have no mass.
2003-2.
a. What are isotopes? (2marks)
 Atoms of the same element with the same atomic number but different mass number
due to different number of neutrons
b. Chlorine has two isotopes and .
(i) Give the number of neutrons in the nucleus of (1mark)
 18 neutrons
(ii) Given that the two isotopes are present in ordinary chlorine in the ratio of three atoms of
to one atom of , Calculate the average atomic mass of chlorine. (4marks)
3×35 1×37 142
 + = = 35.5
4 4 4
d. How would the chemical properties of the two isotopes compare? Give a reason for
your answer (2marks)
 Chemical properties are the same because the numbers of protons which is
determinant of chemical properties are the same
d.
(i) What is radioactivity? (2marks)
 It is a random spontaneous disintegration of certain atomic nucleus with the emission
of three different types of radiation such as alpha, beta and gamma rays.
(ii) When the nucleus of radium emits an alpha particle, it decays to radon according to the
equation:

(1) Besides radon，what other particle is produced when radium decays? (1mark)
 Helium
(2) How does the mass of the decaying atom compare with the masses of the Products?
(1mark)
 The sum of the masses of products is the same to the mass of reactants.
(3) Name the alpha particle in this equation? (1mark)
 Helium
e. Explain how gamma rays are emitted. (4marks)
 Gamma rays can be emitted by decaying of heavy atoms such as cobalt.
f. Give one use of gamma rays. (1mark)
 Treatment for cancer (killing cancer cells)
g. Give one way of detecting radioactive particles. (1mark)
 electroscope, cloud chamber

PROPERTIES OF MATTER

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4. Kinetic theory
2012-1.
a. State the kinetic theory of matter. (2marks)
 It states that matter is made of up discrete particles that are always in continuous
motion
2012-8.
c. In terms of the kinetic theory of matter, explain why ice melts when put in the sun.
(3marks)
 Because water molecules in ice receive kinetic energy from sun light. It overcomes
intermolecular forces holding water molecules. This increases distance between water
molecules. As a result, ice melt into water.

2010-8.
b. Explain using kinetic theory of matter, why clothes dry faster on a sunny day than on a
cloudy day. (4 marks)
 On a sunny day, clothes get more heat energy through radiation, so water molecules
on the surface gain kinetic energy enough to overcome intermolecular forces. This
makes water molecules to escape the surface of the clothes hence they get dry.
2008-8.
a. Explain why candle wax melts when it is heated. (3 marks)
 When it is heated, thermal motion of particles gets more active and overcome
intermolecular forces. Then particles can move easier than before hence they start
sliding over one another.
2003-4
c. In terms of kinetic theory of matter explain why increase in temperature causes candle wax
to melt (3 marks)
 When heat is applied the molecules of candle wax gain kinetic energy. The kinetic
energy can cut the intermolecular force and it leads the change of state from solid to
liquid.
2. Gas laws
2012-1.
b. Figure 1 is a diagram of an apparatus used to measure the pressure exerted by a gas.

Calculate the pressure exerted by the gas if the atmospheric pressure is 756 mmHg. (4marks)
 The height difference is 2.5 cm = 250 mm.

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 The gas pressure equals the sum of atmospheric pressure and pressure of the mercury
column for height difference.
So, the gas pressure is 765 + 250 = 1015 mm Hg.

2011-6.
a. State any two factors that affect gas pressure. (2 marks)
 Temperature
 volume
 Number of gas particles
2010-1.
b.
(i) Define “absolute zero”. (1 mark)
 Absolute zero is the lowest possible temperature theoretically achievable, at which
molecules have the minimum energy and pressure. It is equivalent to −273℃.
(ii) A gas occupies a volume of 200 cm3 at 273K. Calculate the temperature of the gas, in
Kelvins, if its volume increases to 300cm3 at constant pressure. (3 marks)

200 × 𝑇 = 300 × 273 = 409.5𝐾

2009-6.
d.
(i) Define “gas pressure”. (1mark)
 Gas pressure is perpendicular force exerted by molecules of the gas striking the sides
of a container
(ii) Give any three uses of gas pressure.
 drinking with a straw
 pumping
 breathing system
 operation of a syringe
(iii) Why does as pressure in a closed container increase when the temperature of the gas is
increased? (4marks)
 When the temperature of the gas is increased, the average speed of its molecules
increases. In this case, the volume of the container does not change. Therefore, its
pressure increases due to more frequent and more violent collisions of the molecules
with the walls
e, Table 2 shows results of an experiment that was done to demonstrate a gas law.
Table 2
Pressure (Pa) 0.9 1.1 1.3 1.5
Temperature (℃) 0 50 100 150
(i) Plot a graph of pressure against temperature. (3marks)

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 (ii) Use the graph to find pressure of the gas when temperature was 120℃ (1mark)
 1.4 Pa
2007-6.
d.
(i) Define the term “absolute temperature” (1mark)
 It is a temperature measured with respect to absolute zero on the Kelvin scale.
(ii) Convert 546 K to degrees Celsius. (3marks)
 𝜃 = (𝐾 − 273)℃ = (546 − 273)℃ = 273℃
2006-3.
e. At atmospheric pressure a mercury barometer reads 0.76m. If one atmosphere equals to
10100Pa. calculate the density of mercury. (3marks)
 ℎ = 0.76𝑚, 𝑝 = 10100𝑃𝑎
𝑃 10100𝑃𝑎
 𝑑 = ℎ𝑔 = 0.76𝑚×10𝑚/𝑠2 = 13289.47𝑘𝑔/𝑚3 = 13.28947𝑔/𝑐𝑚3 = 13.29𝑔/𝑐𝑚3
2005-1.
c.
The volume of air in a container is 6 cm3 and has a pressure of 4 atmospheres(atm) when the
temperature is 27 Co. Calculate its pressure when the volume is reduced to 3cm3 and its
temperature raised to 177 Co. (4marks)
V1=6cm3, P1=4atm, T1=27+273=300K
V2=3cm3, P2=? atm, T2 =177+273=450K
Using,

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2004-2.
a. Table 3 shows results in an experiment to verify a gas law.
Table 3
Volume (cm ) 3 10 12 14 16 18
Pressure (kPa) 200 169 144 127 114
(i) Plot a suitable graph to show the relationship between pressure and volume.

20 0

1 50

10 0

50

0 5 10 15 20
Volume (cm3)

(ii) What relationship is being demonstrated by this graph? (1 mark)

 As volume increases, pressure decreases
(iii) Which variables would be kept constant in this investigation? (2 marks)
 Temperature
 Mass
2003-4.
a.
(i) Explain the term “absolute temperature (2marks)
 It is a temperature measured with respect to absolute zero on the Kelvin scale.
(ii) Convert 25 degrees Celsius to Kelvin (2marks)
 T= (𝜃 + 273)𝐾 = (25 + 273)𝐾 = 298𝐾
b. Figure 3 shows a gas in a glass tube fitted with a piston

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 (i) What will happen to the volume and pressure of the gas when the piston is pressed down
the glass tube?
Volume: (1mark)
 Volume decreases
Pressure: (1mark)
 Pressure increases
(ii) Explain your answer to 4b(i) (4marks)
 Volume of gas decreases by the force pressing down the gas. The relationship
between gas volume and pressure is inversely proportional as constant temperature.
Therefore, volume decreases then pressure increases.
3. Liquid pressure
2011-6.
b. Explain why walls of a dam are built thicker at the bottom. (3 marks)
 To withstand greater pressure created at the bottom of the dam since pressure
increases with depth
c. A rectangular container whose base area is 9 cm2 is filled with 27 g of water. Calculate the
pressure exerted by the water at the bottom of the container in N/cm2. (Acceleration due to
gravity = 10 m/s2). (4 marks)


 Base area = 9𝑐𝑚2


2010-1.
a.
(i) Why are liquids used in hydraulic machines? (3 marks)
 Since a pressure in a confined liquid is transferred equally, hydraulic machines can
increase a small force to a bigger force
 They do not corrode parts of the machine
 They are not compressible
(ii) Give any two examples of hydraulic machines. (2 marks)
 Car brakes; Car jack
2008-8.
b. With the aid of a well labelled diagram, describe how a manometer works to measure gas
pressure. (12 marks)

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 A manometer consists of the u-tube glass which contains mercury and a scale.
Before supplying gas, the height A and B are at the same level.
Then you supply gas which you want to measure its pressure.
The supplied gas pushes down the surface of mercury A, and pushes up the surface B.
The difference between A and B is called height difference.

This difference equals to excess pressure in mm of mercury, so you can measure the gas
pressure by the following calculation:
gas pressure = atmospheric pressure + excess pressure in mm of mercury

2007-6.
a. Give any two properties of liquid pressure. (2marks)
 Pressure in a liquid increase with depth.
 Pressure at one level(depth) acts equally in all direction.
 Pressure depends on the density of a liquid.

b. Figure 5 is a diagram of a bottle containing water.

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Calculate the pressure of water at the bottom of the bottle. (density of water = 1 g/cm3)
(5marks)
 Pressure = dhg, g = 10m/s2, d = 1g/cm3 = 1000kg/m3,

 ∴Pressure= (1000×0.2× 10)
Pa=2000Pa
c. Mention any two devices which make use of liquid pressure. (2marks)
 Hydraulic brakes
 Syringes
 Hydraulic lift truck
 Water supply system
2006-3.
f. Figure 2 is a diagram showing a hydraulic system being used to raise a load. A force of
50N is applied on piston A.

(i) Calculate the pressure piston A exerts on the liquid. (2 marks)

 Force=50 N, Area =20cm2=0.002m2

(ii) How much pressure does the liquid exert on piston B? (1mark)
 25000N⁄m2 (The pressure exerted on piston A acts on a second piston B of a larger
area.)
2006-8.
b. Derive a formula to show that the pressure of a liquid depends on its density and depth.
(7marks)

This means pressure of a liquid depends only on depth(h) and density(d) since g(acceleration
of free fall) is constant, i.e. 10m/s2

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2004-2.
b.
(i) A pressure of 50 000 Pa is exerted by a column of water at the base of a container.
Calculate the height of the water column. (Density of Water = 1 000 kg/m3; g = 10 ms-2).
(3 marks)
 5000Pa = 5000N/m . 2

 Pressure = density×height×g
 Height = Pressure÷(density× g)


 Height is 5 m.

(ii) Explain why the base of a dam is thicker at the bottom than the top. (2 marks)
 Because there is more water pressure at the bottom than the top.
(iii) Two identical gas jars were filled with liquid mercury (density 13.6 g/cm3) and water
respectively. Explain the difference in pressure exerted at the base of the jars by the two
substances. (2 marks)
 Bottom of the gas jar with liquid mercury receives more pressure than that of the jar
with water in.
c. Figure 1 is a diagram of an instrument used to measure gas pressure.

(i) Name the instrument. (1 mark)

 Manometer
(ii) Read the pressure difference in mm Hg. (1 mark)
 25 mmHg
(iii) Whit is the pressure of the gas supply if the atmospheric pressure is 755 mm Hg and the
pressure difference is 30 mm Hg? (2 marks)
 gas pressure = 755 mmHg + 30 mmHg = 785 mmHg.
2003-4.
b.
(iii) A container with a cross sectional area of 3cm2 is filled with 9cm3 of water．

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Calculate the pressure at the bottom of the container. (Density of water is 1g/cm3)
(5marks)
3 3
The mass of 9cm is 9g since density of water is 1g/cm .
9g is equivalent of 0.09N.
3cm2 is equivalent of 0.0003m2.
Therefore, pressure at the bottom of the container is

0.09N/0.0003m2 = 300N/m2
(iv) Give any two uses of liquid pressure in everyday life. (2marks)
 Car brake / jack

4. Thermal expansion of solid

2010-8.
e. Describe how expansion and contraction of metals is used in shrink fitting. (3 marks)
 When a rim is heated, it expands and exceeds another metal which is slightly
larger than the rim at low temperature. Then the rim can easily be put onto the
other metal. After the rim is cooled, it contracts and fits the other metal very
tightly

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