1. A client with myasthenia gravis reports the occurrence of difficulty chewing.

The physician
prescribes pyridostigmine bromide (Mestinon) to increase muscle strength for this activity.
The nurse instructs the client to take the medication at what time, in relation to meals?

a. after dinner daily when most fatigued

b. before breakfast daily
c. as soon as arising in the morning
d. thirty minutes before each meal

Pyridostigmine is a cholinergic medication used to increase muscle strength for the client with
myasthenia gravis. For the client who has difficulty chewing, the medication should be
administered 30 minutes before meals to enhance the client’s ability to eat.

2. A client is advised to take senna (Senokot) for the treatment of constipation asks the nurse
how this medication works. The nurse responds knowing that it:

a. accumulates water in the stool and increases peristalsis

b. stimulates the vagus nerve
c. coats the bowel wall
d. adds fiber and bulk to the stool

Senna works by changing the transport of water and electrolytes in the large intestine, which
causes the accumulation of water in the mass of stool and increased peristalsis.

3. A client is receiving heparin sodium by continuous intravenous infusion. The nurse monitors
the client for which adverse effect of this therapy?

a. decreased blood pressure

b. increased pulse rate
c. ecchymoses
d. tinnitus

Heparin sodium is an anticoagulant. The client who receives heparin sodium is at risk for
bleeding. The nurse monitors for signs of bleeding, which includes bleeding from the gums,
ecchymoses on the skin, cloudy or pink-tinged urine, tarry stools, and body fluids that test
positive for occult blood.

4. A client is being treated for acute congestive heart failure (CHF) and the client’s vital signs
are as follows: BP 85/50 mm Hg; pulse, 96 bpm; respirations, 26 cpm. The physician prescribes
digoxin (Lanoxin). To evaluate a therapeutic effectiveness of this medication, the nurse would
expect which of the following changes in the client’s vital signs?
a. BP 85/50 mm Hg, pulse 60 bpm, respirations 26 cpm
b. BP 98/60 mm Hg, pulse 80 bpm, respirations 24 cpm
c. BP 130/70 mm Hg, pulse 104 bpm, respirations 20 cpm
d. BP 110/40 mm Hg, 110 bpm, respirations 20 cpm

The main function of digoxin is inotropic. It produces increased myocardial contractility that is
associated with an increased cardiac output. This causes a rise in the BP in a client with CHF.
Digoxin also has a negative chronotropic effect (decreases heart rate) and will therefore cause a
slowing of the heart rate. As cardiac output improves, there should be an improvement in
respirations as well.

5. Diazepam (Valium) is prescribed for a client with anxiety. The nurse instructs the client to
expect which side effect?

a. incoordination
b. cough
c. tinnitus
d. hypertension

Valium, a benzodiazepine, can cause motor incoordination and ataxia and safety precautions
should be instituted for clients taking this medication.

6. A client receives oxytocin (Pitocin) to induce labor. During the administration of the
oxytocin, it is most important for the nurse to monitor:

a. urinary output
b. fetal heart rate
c. central venous pressure
d. maternal blood glucose

Pitocin produces uterine contractions. Uterine contractions can cause fetal anoxia. The nurse
monitors the fetal heart rate and notifies the physician of any significant changes.

7. A clinic nurse is performing assessment on a client who is being seen in the clinic for the
first time. When asking about the client’s medication history, the client tells the nurse that he
takes nateglinide (Starlix). The nurse then questions the client about the presence of which
disorder that is treated with this medication?

a. hypothyroidism
b. insomnia
c. type 2 diabetes mellitus
d. renal failure
Nateglinide (Starlix) is an antidiabetic medication used to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus in clients
whose disease cannot be adequately controlled with diet and exercise. It stimulates the release
of insulin from beta cells of the pancreas by depolarizing beta cells, leading to an opening of
calcium channels. Resulting calcium influx induces insulin secretion.

8. A client who is taking rifampin (Rifadin) as part of the medication regimen for the treatment
of tuberculosis calls the clinic nurse and reports that her urine is a red-orange color. The nurse
tells the client to:

a. come to the clinic to provide a urine sample

b. stop the medication until further instructions are given by the physician
c. take the medication dose with an antacid to prevent this adverse effect
d. expect a red-orange color in urine, feces, sweat, sputum, and tears as a harmless side effect

Rifampin (Rifadin) is an antitubercular medication used in conjunction with at least one other
antitubercular agent for initial treatment or retreatment of tuberculosis. Urine, feces, sputum,
sweat, and tears may become red-orange in color. The client should also be told that soft
contact lenses may become permanently stained as a result of this harmless side effect. There is
no useful reason for the client to provide a urine sample. The client is not told to stop a
medication. Antacids are not usually taken with a medication because of interactive effects.

9. A nurse is caring for a client with a tracheostomy that has been diagnosed with a
respiratory infection. The client is receiving vancomycin hydrochloride (Vancocin) 500 mg
intravenously every 12 hours. Which of the following would indicate to the nurse that the
client is experiencing an adverse effect of the medication?

a. decreased hearing acuity

b. photophobia
c. hypotension
d. bradycardia

Vancomycin hydrochloride (Vancocin) is an antibiotic. Adverse and toxic effects include

nephrotoxicity characterized by a change in the amount or frequency of urination, anorexia,
nausea, vomiting, and increased thirst; ototoxicity characterized by hearing loss due to damage
to the auditory branch of the eight cranial nerve; and red-neck syndrome from too rapid
injection of the medication characterized by chills, fever, fast heartbeat,
nausea, vomiting, itching, rash and redness on the face, neck, arms, and back. When this
medication is administered to a client, nursing responsibilities include monitoring renal function
laboratory results, intake and output, and hearing acuity.

10. A nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of metastatic breast carcinoma who is
receiving tamoxifen citrate (Nolvadex) 10 mg orally twice daily. Which of the following would
indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing a side effect related to the medication?

a. hypetension
b. diarrhea
c. nose bleeds
d. vaginal bleeding

Tamoxifen citrate is an antineoplastic medication that competes with estradiol for binding to
estrogen in tissues containing high concentration of receptors such as the breasts, uterus, and
vagina. Frequent side effects include hot flashes, nausea, vomiting, vaginal bleeding or
discharge, pruritus, and skin rash. Adverse or toxic effects include retinopathy, corneal opacity,
and decreased visual acuity.

11. A client has just been given a prescription for diphenoxylate with atropine (Lomotil). The
nurse teaches the client which of the following about the use of this medication?

a. drooling may occur while taking this medication

b. irritability may occur while taking this medication
c. this medication contains a habit-forming ingredient
d. take the medication with a laxative of choice

Diphenoxylate with atropine (Lomotil) is an antidiarrheal. The client should not exceed the
recommended dose of this medication because it may be habit-forming. Since this medication is
an antidiarrheal, it should not be taken with a laxative. Side effects of the medication include dry
mouth and drowsiness.

12. A nurse is gathering data from client about the client’s medication history and notes that
the client is taking tolterodine tartrate (Detrol LA). The nurse determines that the client is
taking the medication to treat which disorder?

a. glaucoma
b. renal insufficiency
c. pyloric stenosis
d. urinary frequency and urgency

Tolterodine tartrate is an antispasmodic used to treat overactive bladder and symptoms of

urinary frequency, urgency, or urge incontinence. It is contraindicated in urinary retention and
uncontrolled narrow-angle glaucoma. It is used with caution in renal function impairment,
bladder outflow obstruction, and gastrointestinal obstructive disease such as pyloric stenosis.

13. A client has an order to receive psyllium (Metamucil) daily. The nurse administers this
medication with:

a. a multivitamin and mineral supplement

b. a dose of an antacid
c. applesauce
d. eight ounces of liquid

Metamucil is a bulk-forming laxative. It should be taken with a full glass of water or juice, and
followed by another glass of liquid. This will help prevent impaction of the medication in the
stomach or small intestine. The other options are incorrect.

14. A nurse is teaching a client taking cyclosporine (Sandimmune) after renal transplant about
medication information. The nurse tells the client to be especially alert for:

a. signs of infection
b. hypotension
c. weight loss
d. hair loss

Cyclosporine is an immunosuppressant medication used to prevent transplant rejection. The

client should be especially alert for signs and symptoms of infection while taking this
medication, and report them to the physician if experienced. The client is also taught about
other side effects of the medication, including hypertension, increased facial hair, tremors,
gingival hyperplasia, and gastrointestinal complaints.

15. A nurse reinforces dietary instruction for the client receiving spironolactone (Aldactone).
Which food would the nurse instruct the client to avoid while taking this medication?

a. crackers
b. shrimp
c. apricots
d. popcorn

Aldactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic and the client needs to avoid foods high in potassium,
such as whole grain cereals, legumes, meat, bananas, apricots, orange juice, potatoes, and
raisins. Option c provides the highest source of potassium and should be avoided.

16. Oral lactulose (Chronulac) is prescribed for the client with a hepatic disorder and the nurse
provides instructions to the client regarding this medication. Which statement by the client
indicates a need for further instructions?

a. "I need to take the medication with water’"

b. "I need to increase fluid intake while taking the medication"
c. "I need to increase fiber in the diet"
d. "I need to notify the physician of naussea occur"

Lactulose retains ammonia in the colon, promotes increased peristalsis and bowel evacuation,
expelling ammonia from the colon. It should be taken with water or juice to aid in softening the
stool. An increased fluid intake and a high-fiber diet will promote defecation. If nausea occurs,
the client should be instructed to drink cola, eat unsalted crackers, or dry toast. It is not
necessary to notify the physician.

17. A home care nurse provides instructions to a client taking digoxin (Lanoxin) 0.25 mg daily.
Which statement by the client indcates a need for further instructions?

a. "I will take my prescribed antacid if I become nauseated"

b. "It is important to have my blood drawn when prescribed"
c. "I will check my pulse before I take my medication"
d. "I will carry a medication identification card with me"

Digoxin is an antidysrhythmic. The most common early manifestations of toxicity are

gastrointestinal (GI) disturbances such as anorexia, nausea, and vomiting. If these
manifestations occur, the physician needs to be notified. Digoxin blood levels need to be
obtained as prescribed to monitor for therapeutic plasma levels (0.5 to 2.0 ng/mL). The client is
instructed to take the pulse, hold the medication if the pulse is below 60 beats per minute, and
notify the physician. The client is instructed to wear or carry an ID bracelet or card.

18. A client with anxiety disorder is taking buspirone (BuSpar) and tells the nurse that it is
difficult to swallow the tablets. The nurse tells the client to:

a. dissolve the tablet in a cup of coffee

b. crush the tablet before taking it
c. call the physician for a change in medication
d. mix the tablet uncrushed in custard

Buspirone (BuSpar) may be administered without regard to meals and the tablets may be
crushed. It is premature to advise the client to call the physician for a change in medication
without first trying alternative interventions. Mixing the tablet uncrushed in custard will not
ensure ease in
swallowing. Dissolving the tablet in a cup of coffee is not the best instruction to provide to the
client because this measure may not ensure that the client will receive the entire dose.

19. A nurse is caring for a child with CHF provides instructions to the parents regarding the
administration of digoxin (Lanoxin). Which statement by the mother indicates a need for
further instructions?

a. "If my child vomits after I give the medication, I will not repeat the dose"
b. "I will check my child’s pulse before giving the medication"
c. "I will check the dose of the medication with my husband before I give the medication"
d. "I will mix the medication with food"

The medication should not be mixed with food or formula because this method would not
ensure that the child receives the entire dose of medication. Options a, b, and c are correct.
Additionally, if a dose is missed and is not identified until 4 or more hours later, that dose is not
administered. If more than one consecutive dose is missed, the physician needs to be notified.

20. A nurse provides instructions to a client who will begin an oral contraceptives. Which
statement by the client indicates the need for further instructions?

a. "I will take one pill daily at the same time every day"
b. "I will not need to use an additional birth control method once I start these pills"
c. "If I miss a pill I need to take it as soon as I remember"
d. "If I miss two pills I will take them both as soon as I remember and I will take two pills the next
day also"

The client needs to be instructed to use a second birth control method during the first pill cycle.
Options a, b, and c are correct. Additionally, the client needs to be instructed that if she misses
three pills, she will need to discontinue use for that cycle and use another birth control method.

21. A nurse provides instructions to a client taking clorazepate (Tranxene) for management of
an anxiety disorder. The nurse tells the client that:

a. drowsiness is a side effect that usually disappears with continued therapy

b. if dizziness occurs, call the physician
c. smoking increases the effectiveness of the medication
d. if gastrointestinal disturbances occur, discontinue the medication

Drowsiness occurs as a side effect and usually disappears with continued therapy. The client
should be instructed that if dizziness occurs to change positions slowly from lying to sitting,
before standing. Smoking reduces medication effectiveness. Gastrointestinal disturbances can
occur as an occasional side effect and the medication can be given with food if this occurs.

22. A client with Parkinson’s disease has begun therapy with levodopa (L-dopa). The nurse
determines that the client understands the action of the medication if the client verbalizes
that results may not be apparent for:
a. 24 hours
b. Two to three days
c. One week
d. Two to three weeks

Signs and symptoms of Parkinson’s disease usually begin to resolve within 2 to 3 weeks of
starting therapy, although in some clients marked improvement may not be seen for up to 6
months. Clients need to understand this concept to aid in compliance with medication therapy.

23. A nurse in a physician’s office is reviewing the results of a client’s phenytoin (Dilantin) level
drawn that morning. The nurse determines that the client has a therapeutic drug level if the
client’s result was:

a. 3 mcg/ml
b. 8 mcg/ml
c. 15 mcg/ml
d. 24mcg/ml

The therapeutic range for serum phenytoin levels is 10 to 20 mcg/mL in clients with normal
serum albumin levels and renal function. A level below this range indicates that the client is not
receiving sufficient medication, and is at risk for seizure activity. In this case, the medication
dose should be adjusted upward. A level above this range indicates that the client is entering
the toxic range and is at risk for toxic side effects of the medication. In this case, the dose should
be adjusted downward.

24. A nurse is caring for a client with a genitourinary tract infection receiving amoxicillin
(Augmentin) 500 mg every 8 hours. Which of the following would indicate to the nurse that
the client is experiencing an adverse effect related to the medication?

a. hypertension
b. nausea
c. headache
d. watery diarrhea

Amoxicillin is a penicillin. Adverse effects include superinfection, such as potentially fatal

antibiotic-associated colitis, that results from altered bacterial balance. Symptoms include
abdominal cramps, severe watery diarrhea, and fever. Frequent side effects of the medication
include gastrointestinal disturbances (mild diarrhea, nausea, vomiting), headache, and oral or
vaginal candidiasis.

25. A nurse is caring for a client with glaucoma who receives a daily dose of acetazolamide
(Diamox). Which of the following would indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing an
adverse effect of the medication?

a. constipation
b. difficulty swallowing
c. dark-colored urine and stools
d. irritability

Acetazolamide (Diamox) is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor. Nephrotoxicity and hepatotoxicity

can occur and is manifested by dark-colored urine and stools, pain in the lower back, jaundice,
dysuria, crystalluria, and renal colic and calculi. Bone marrow depression may also occur.

26. A nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of meningitis who is receiving amphotericin B
(Fungizone) intravenously. Which of the following would indicate to the nurse that the client
is experiencing an adverse effect related to the medication?

a. nausea
b. decreased urinary output
c. muscle weakness
d. confusion

Amphotericin B is an antifungal medication. Adverse effects include nephrotoxicity evidenced by

a decrease in urinary output and the nurse needs to monitor fluid balance and renal function
tests for potential signs of this adverse effect. Cardiovascular toxicity, evidenced by hypotension
and ventricular fibrillation, can occur but is rare. Anaphylactic reactions are also rare. Vision and
hearing alterations, seizures, hepatic failure and coagulation defects may also occur.

27. A nurse has formulated a nursing diagnosis of Disturbed Body Image for a client who is
taking spironolactone (Aldactone). The nurse based this diagnosis on assessment of which side
effect of the medication?

a. edema
b. weight gain
c. excitability
d. decreased libido

Spironolactone (Aldactone) is a potassium-sparing diuretic. The nurse should be alert to the fact
that the client taking spironolactone may experience body image changes due to threatened
sexual identity. These body image changes are related to decreased libido, gynecomastia in
males, and hirsutism in females. Since the medication is a diuretic, edema and weight gain
should not occur. Excitability is not associated with the use of this medication; rather,
drowsiness may occur.
28. A nurse is caring for the client with a history of mild heart failure who is receiving
diltiazem hydrochloride (Cardizem) for hypertension. The nurse would assess the client for:

a. bradycardia
b. wheezing
c. peripheral edema and weight gain
d. apical pulse rate lower than baseline

Calcium channel blocking agents, such as diltiazem hydrochloride (Cardizem), are used
cautiously in clients with conditions that could be worsened by the medication. These conditions
include aortic stenosis, bradycardia, heart failure, acute myocardial infarction, and hypotension.
The nurse would assess for signs and symptoms that indicate worsening of these underlying
disorders. In this question, the nurse assesses for signs and symptoms indicating heart failure.

29. The wound of a client with an extensive burn injury is being treated with the application of
silver sulfadiazine (Silvadene). Which symptom would indicate to the nurse that the client is
experiencing a side effect related to systemic absorption?

a. pain at the wound site

b. burning and itching at the wound site
c. a localized rash
d. photosensitivity

Silver sulfadiazine (Silvadene) is a cream used for extensive burn wounds. Significant systemic
absorption may occur if applied to extensive burns. Side effects of the medication include pain,
burning, itching and a localized rash. Systemic side effects include anorexia, nausea, vomiting,
headache, diarrhea, dizziness, photosensitivity, and joint pain.

30. A nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis who is receiving
sulindac (Clinoril) 150 mg po twice daily. Which finding would indicate to the nurse that the
client is experiencing a side effect related to the medication?

a. diarrhea
b. photophobia
c. fever
d. tingling in the extremities

Sulindac (Clinoril) is a nonsteroidal antiinflammatory medication (NSAID). Frequent side effects

include gastrointestinal (GI) disturbances including constipation or diarrhea, indigestion, and
nausea. Dermatitis, a rash, dizziness, and a headache are also frequent side effects.

31. The nurse notes that the client is receiving filgrastim (Neupogen). The nurse checks which
of the following to determine medication effectiveness?

a. neutrophil count
b. platelet count
c. blood urea nitrogen
d. creatinine level

Filgrastim is a biologic modifier that stimulates production, maturation, and activation of

neutrophils. Therefore the nurse would monitor the client’s neutrophil count. The platelet count
measures the amount of platelets; a decreased level places the client at risk for bleeding. The
blood urea nitrogen and creatinine level measures renal function.

32. A nurse is monitoring a client who is taking fluphenazine decanoate (Prolixin) for signs of
leucopenia. Which finding indicates a sign of this blood dyscrasia?

a. blurred vision
b. constipation
c. sore throat
d. dry mouth

Blood dyscrasias can occur as an adverse effect of fluphenazine decanoate. Leukopenia is

indicative of a low white blood cell count and places the client at risk for infection. The nurse
would monitor the client for signs of infection such as a sore mouth, gums, or throat. Blurred
vision, dry mouth, and constipation are occasional side effects of the medication but are not
indicative of leukopenia.

33. A nurse is administering amphotericin B (Fungizone) to a client intravenously to treat a

fungal infection. The nurse monitors the result of which electrolyte study during therapy with
this medication?

a. sodium
b. potassium
c. calcium
d. chloride

Life-threatening hypokalemia can occur with the administration of amphotericin B. Therefore,

the nurse monitors the results of serum potassium levels, which should be prescribed at least
biweekly during therapy. Magnesium levels should also be monitored.

34. A clinic nurse asks a client with diabetes mellitus being seen in the clinic for the first time
to list the medications that she is taking. Which combination of medications taken by the
client should the nurse report to the physician?
a. Acetohexamide (Dymelor) and trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim)
b. Chlorpropamide (Diabenase) and amitriptyline (Elavil)
c. Glyburide (DiaBeta) and Lanoxin (Digoxin)
d. Tolbutamide (Orinase) and amoxicillin (Amoxil)

Sulfonylureas are hypoglycemic agents that lower the blood glucose. Acetohexamide (Dymelor),
chlorpropamide (Diabinese), glyburide (DiaBeta), and tolbutamide (Orinase) are sulfonylureas. If
a sulfonylureas is administered with a sulfonamide (option a), increased glycemic effects can
occur.

35. A nurse is caring for a client receiving streptogramin (Synercid) by intravenous intermittent
infusion for the treatment of a bone infection develops diarrhea. Which nursing action would
the nurse implement?

a. administer an antidiarrheal agent

b. notify the physician
c. discontinue the medication
d. monitor the client’s temperature

Synercid is an antimicrobial agent. One adverse effect of the medication is superinfection,

including antibiotic-associated colitis, which may result from bacterial imbalance. If the client
develops diarrhea, the medication should be withheld, and the physician is notified. The nurse
would not discontinue the medication. The nurse would not administer an antidiarrheal unless
specifically prescribed by the physician.

36. A client has been taking fosinopril (Monopril) for 2 months. The nurse determines that the
client is having the intended effects of therapy if the nurse notes which of the following?

a. lowered BP
b. lowered pulse rate
c. increased WBC
d. increased monocyte count

Monopril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor that lowers blood pressure. It can
cause tachycardia as a side effect of therapy, making option b incorrect. Other side effects of the
medication are neutropenia and agranulocytopenia, making options c and d incorrect.

37. A client is taking labetalol (Normodyne). The nurse monitors the client for which frequent
side effect of the medication?

a. tachycardia
b. impotence
c. increased energy level
d. night blindness

Impotence is a common side effect of labetalol and may be distressing to the client. Other side
effects of this medication are bradycardia, weakness, and fatigue. Night blindness is unrelated to
this medication, although this medication can cause blurred vision and dry eyes.

38. An older client has been using cascara sagrada on a long-term basis. The nurse determines
that which laboratory result is a result of the side effects of this medication?

a. sodium 135 mEq/L

b. sodium 145 mEq/L
c. potassium 3.1 mEq/L
d. potassium 5.0 mEq/L

Hypokalemia can result from long-term use of casanthrol (cascara sagrada), which is a laxative.
The medication stimulates peristalsis and alters fluid and electrolyte transport, thus helping fluid
to accumulate in the colon. The normal range for potassium is 3.5 to 5.1 mEq/L. The normal
range for sodium is 135 to 145 mEq/L.

39. A client has an order to begin short-term therapy with enoxaparin (Lovenox). The nurse
explains to the client that this medication is being ordered to:

a. dissolve urinary calculi

b. reduce the risk of deep vein thrombosis
c. relieve migraine headaches
d. stop progression of multiple sclerosis

Enoxaparin is an anticoagulant that is administered to prevent deep vein thrombosis and

thromboembolism in selected clients at risk. It is not used to treat urinary calculi, migraine
headaches, or multiple sclerosis.

40. Quinidine gluconate (Dura Quin) is prescribed for a client. The nurse reviews the client’s
medical record, knowing that which of the following is a contraindication in the use of this
medication?

a. complete atrioventricular (AV) block

b. muscle weakness
c. asthma
d. infection
Quinidine gluconate is an antidysrhythmic medication used as prophylactic therapy to maintain
normal sinus rhythm after conversion of atrial fibrillation and/or atrial flutter. It is
contraindicated in complete AV block, intraventricular conduction defects, abnormal impulses
and rhythms caused by escape mechanisms, and in myasthenia gravis. It is used with caution in
clients with preexisting asthma, muscle weakness, infection with fever, and hepatic or renal
insufficiency.

41. A client has been taking benzonatate (Tessalon) as ordered. The nurse tells the client that
this medication should do which of the following?

a. take away nausea and vomiting

b. calm the persistent cough
c. decrease anxiety level
d. increase comfort level

Benzonatate is a locally acting antitussive. Its effectiveness is measured by the degree to which
it decreases the intensity and frequency of cough, without eliminating the cough reflex.

42. Auranofin (Ridaura) is prescribed for a client with rheumatoid arthritis, and the nurse
monitors the client for signs of an adverse effect related to the medication. Which of the
following indicates an adverse effect?

a. nausea
b. diarrhea
c. anorexia
d. proteinuria

Auranofin (Ridaura) is a gold preparation that is used as an antirheumatic. Gold toxicity is an

adverse effect and is evidenced by decreased hemoglobin, leukopenia, reduced granulocyte
counts, proteinuria, hematuria, stomatitis,
glomerulonephritis, nephrotic syndrome, or cholestatic jaundice. Anorexia, nausea, and diarrhea
are frequent side effects of the medication.

43. A nurse is providing instructions to a client regarding quinapril hydrochloride (Accupril).

The nurse tells the client:

a. to take the medication with food only

b. to rise slowly from a lying to a sitting position
c. to discontinue the medication if nausea occurs
d. that a therapeutic effect will be noted immediately

Accupril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor. It is used in the treatment of

hypertension. The client should be instructed to rise slowly from a lying to sitting position and to
permit the legs to dangle from the bed momentarily before standing to reduce the hypotensive
effect. The medication does not need to be taken with meals. It may be given without regard to
food. If nausea occurs, the client should be instructed to take a noncola carbonated beverage
and salted crackers or dry toast. A full therapeutic effect may be noted in 1 to 2 weeks.

44. A female client tells the clinic nurse that her skin is very dry and irritated. Which product
would the nurse suggest that the client apply to the dry skin?

a. glycerin emollient
b. aspercreame
c. myoflex
d. acetic acid solution

Glycerin is an emollient that is used for dry, cracked, and irritated skin. Aspercreame and
Myoflex are used to treat muscular aches. Acetic acid solution is used for irrigating, cleansing,
and packing wounds infected by Pseudomonas aeruginosa.

45. A client with advanced cirrhosis of the liver is not tolerating protein well, as eveidenced by
abnormal laboratory values. The nurse anticipates that which of the following medications
will be prescribed for the client?

a. lactulose (Chronulac)
b. ethacrynic acid (Edecrin)
c. folic acid (Folvite)