Sladyk Section 1 Domain-Style Study

Sladyk Section 1 Domain-Style Study
Study online at https://quizlet.com/_bmj6bb

1. The C6 client you are working with complains of dizziness and
nausea and seems to be losing consciousness as you bring him
D. When a patient with a SCI complains of dizziness, nausea,
to standing in the standing table. Your best course of action is:
and is losing consciousness while standing in a standing box, the
a. Wait, the symptoms should pass as tolerance increases
patient is experiencing postural hypotension. Recline him imme-
b. Bring him down to the wheelchair again
diately and get medical assistance if symptoms persist.
c. Call for his nurse
d. Bring him down to the wheelchair, then immediately recline him
2. A performance skill for a client in a low back pain program would
be:
a. Muscle strength
B. Work tolerance is a performance skill.
b. Work tolerance
c. Cognitive functioning
d. Lifting tolerance
3. Choose the item that does not describe normal developmental
expectations for an 8-year-old:
a. Project level play is preferred
A. Project level play is for children under 7 years old
b. Deductive reasoning is possible
c. Playing dress up is a favored activity
d. Has the ability to perceive and organize information
4. To be reimbursed under Medicare Part B, outpatient OT ser-
vices must do all of the ff. except:
a. Meet conditions set forth in coverage guidelines D. The occupational therapist does not have to be hospital affiliat-
b. Services must be furnished under a written plan ed, however, A,B and C are required for Medicare reimbursement
c. A physician must certify need for treatment
d. The OT must be hospital affiliated
5. Inflammation of the common extensor of the origin of the
forearm extensor musculature may result in:
a. Gamekeeper's thumb C. Inflammation of the forearm extensor musculature (ECRB,
b. Golfer's elbow ECRL, EDC) may result in tennis elbow.
c. Tennis elbow
d. Pitcher's shoulder
6. An OT using the psychoanalytic FOR suggests kneading dough B. Sublimation is the healthy and acceptable rechanneling of
to make bread as an activity for a nonverbal and angry patient. the libidinal and aggressive drives into constructive activity. This
The OT is basing her activity choice on which of the ff. concepts? defense was identified by Anna Freud and remains a basic com-
a. Acting out ponent to occupational therapy activity. Acting out as often neg-
b. Sublimation ative and externalizes an unresolved conflict. Identification is a
c. Identification term that incorporates the characteristics of another onto oneself.
d. Regression Regression is going backward to an earlier stage of development
7. Uniform Terminology delineates and defines OT direct services.
Which is not true of Uniform Terminology?
a. It provides a fee structure, flexible for use in different programs
A. Uniform Terminology does not provide any information about
b. It is used by AOTA in many official documents
fees.
c. It provides a base of consistent terminology
d. It is updated periodically in accordance with current theory and
practice
8. Entry-level OTAs are allowed to perform occupational therapy
if supervised by:
D. An entry level OTA is defined as an OTA with less than 1 year
a. A nursing director
of experience. The OTA's work must be supervised by an OT for
b. A physician
the first year
c. Another OTA who has experience
d. An OT
9. Degenerative disorders commonly associated with depression,
dementia, and psychosis include all of the following except:
D. Connective tissue disease is not associated with depression,
a. Parkinson's disease
dementia, or psychosis, while Parkinson's, Huntington's, and Wil-
b. Huntington's disease
son's disease are associated with them
c. Wilson's disease
d. Connective tissue disease
10. What ligament limits vertebral column extension?
a. Posterior longitudinal ligament
1/7
D. The anterior longitudinal ligament limits extension to protect the
b. Ligamentum flavum
vertebral column from excess extension. The posterior longitudi-
c. Supraspinatus
nal ligament protects the spine in flexion. Ligamentum flavum is
d. Anterior longitudinal ligament
too small and supraspinatus is a muscle.
11. In a 6-month-old child, symptoms such as abnormal muscle
tone, delayed or exaggerated reflexes, postural abnormalities,
and delayed motor development are signs of:
D. Abnormal tone, delayed or exaggerated reflexes and abnormal
a. Nothing to worry about, some 6-month-old children are like that
motor development are all signs of CP.
b. Autism
c. Mental retardation
d. Cerebral palsy
12. Emotional fight in an emergency situation is dominated by
which nervous system?
a. Peripheral nervous system B. Emotional flight is dominated by the sympathetic nervous sys-
b. Sympathetic nervous system tem.
c. Parasympathetic nervous system
d. Central nervous system
13. Direct occupational therapy services include:
a. The OT as consultant
b. A focus on wellness and prevention C. Direct services means the OT is providing face-to-face treat-
c. A hands-on, face-to-face relationship between the client and ment services.
the therapist
d. The OT as fieldwork supervisor
14. A patient who experiences abrupt changes and swings in
emotional tone despite what is occurring in his or her external A. Labile describes abrupt and rapid emotional changes. An-
environment is best described as: hedonia is the loss of interest and withdrawal from pleasurable
a. Labile activities. Inappropriate affect refers to a mismatch between an
b. Anhedonic emotion and the idea, thought, or speech expressed. Euphoria is
c. Inappropriate the intense feeling of grandeur or happiness.
d. Euphoric
15. All of the following are clinical symptoms of spasticity except:
a. A stretch reflex
b. Clonus C. Atrophy is not a symptoms of spasticity.
c. Atrophy
d. Hyperactive tendon tap
16. A self-employed OT does contract work in several nursing
homes. Who is responsible for malpractice and liability insurance?
a. Each nursing home covers the OT while he or she is working
at the facility D. An self-employed OT must carry individual coverage.
b. AOTA covers the OT
c. The state department of nursing home licensure covers the OT
d. Each OT must carry individual coverage
17. Documentation of OT services to a patient should include all
of the following except:
a. The patient's response to treatment C. Treatment documentation should not include the patient's hill
b. The treatment techniques used balance.
c. The patient's bill balance
d. A plan for future treatment
18. Your client is a 70-year-old male who lived alone just prior to B. The patient will need a dressing stick, sock aid, long-handled
having a total hip replacement. In order to manage his self-care, shoe horn, bath sponge, and reacher for some time after dis-
the best equipment he will need is: charge to achieve independence. A tea cart is not essential, as
a. A ten cart with wheels for the kitchen the patient could slide items on the counter. A tub seat is optional
b. Dressing stick, sock aid, long-handled shoe horn, bath sponge, but only if the patient is not safe in the tub. The commode should
and reacher not be necessary, as most patients at discharge no longer need
c. Tub seat adjusted to his tub at home one: however, a bedside urinal would be adequate if needed or a
d. Commode for bedside raised toilet seat could be attached to the home toilet.
19. A quadriplegic patient at the C5 level would have little or no
wrist and finger function. The goal of OT would be to enhance
wrist extension and tenodesis grasp. How can this best be done?
2/7
a. Range finger flexion with wrist flexed
b. Range finger extension with wrist extended
c. Range finger flexion with wrist fully extended, finger extension C. Tenodesis action is enhanced by shortening the flexor tendons.
with wrist fully flexed.
d. Makes no difference
20. Licensure for OTs is granted by:
a. AOTA
C. Licensure is a state responsibility; registration and certification
b. NBCOT
are NBCOT.
c. A state agency
d. Both NBCOT and a state agency
21. Many health care program use management by objective
(MBO) plans for the administration of their programs. An MBO
plan includes:
.B. Overall objective, derived goals, and key participate are unique
a. A problem-oriented medical record
to MBO plans.
b. Overall objective, derived goals, key participants
c. Subjective, objective, assessment, plan
d. Indicators, monitors, quality improvement
C. Systematic desensitization is an effective treatment for persons
22. Which of the following behavioral techniques would be most
with anxiety disorders. A behavioral technique that uses relaxation
appropriate to use with a patient who has agoraphobia?
with an anxiety producing stimulus will diminish the anxiety re-
a. Habilitation
sponse. Habilitation refers to enabling the person to learn a skill he
b. Extinction
or she has never learned. Extinction is a behavioral approach used
c. Systematic desensitization
to discourage a behavior by ignoring it and reinforcing acceptable
d. Token economy
ones. Token economy is a reward for a desired behavior.
23. The Brunnstrom approach to the treatment of hemiplegia
incorporates the use of synergy action. The components of the
flexor synergy, for the shoulder include:
a. Scapular adduction, depression, shoulder adduction, and in-
ternal rotation B. Components of the flexor synergy include scapular adduction,
b. Scapular adduction, elevation, shoulder abduction, and exter- elevation, shoulder abduction, and external rotation.
nal rotation
c. Scapular abduction, protraction, shoulder adduction, and inter-
nal rotation
d. Scapular abduction, retraction, and shoulder abduction
24. The components for the flexor synergy of the elbow and
forearm include:
a. Elbow extension and forearm supination B. Components of the flexor synergy include elbow flexion and
b. Elbow flexion and forearm supination forearm supination.
c. Elbow extension and forearm neutral
d. Elbow extension and forearm pronation
25. Outpatient OT services are covered under Medicare Part B
when:
a. No OT is available at a local hospital B. Outpatient services are covered as part of an office visit to a
b. It's part of an office visit to a physician physician.
c. Not related to a specific condition
d. Part A is used up
26. A 60-year-old female client with a history of multiple sclerosis
is managed at home with specific adaptations to facilitate function.
The patient's family has provided significant care in the area of
self-care. You are treating the patient in home care and have no-
A. Family abuse toward people with disabilities is a significant
ticed she is more withdrawn and recently complained of difficulty
problem that is often under-reported. Supportive questions may
swallowing. What is the best intervention?
clarify this situation and encourage the patient to share her con-
a. Supportive questioning and explore respite care
cerns. Dysphagia can be the result of attempted strangulation.
b. Mention your concern to the family
c. Keep a good log of the patient's responses in therapy
d. Attribute mood changes and minor problems to the nature of
the chronic disease
27. The term that describes principles of OT practice for individual
patients, including guidelines for determining function/dysfunc-
3/7
tion, motivation, and the change process, is C. These are defining aspects of frame of reference. A paradigm
called: is a guiding premise and theory that leads to the organization of
a. Paradigm knowledge, such as the OT profession. A model is a profession's
b. Model philosophical assumption, ethics, foundation, and domain of con-
c. Frame of reference cern. Therapeutic use of self is the manner in which the therapist
d. Therapeutic use of self views himself or herself and the impact on one's clients.
C. The cerebellum plays a role in the excitation of gamma motor
28. A lesion in the cerebellum may cause which type of tone? neurons, which innervate intrafusal fibers within muscles. Damage
a. Rigidity to the cerebellum causes a decrease in the excitation of gamma
b. Hypertonia motor neurons, which in turn, leads to a decrease in the sensi-
c. Hypotonia tivity of the muscle spindles. A decrease in muscle tone strength.
d. Spasticity Hypertonia is an increase in tone. Both rigidity and spasticity are
examples of hypertonia.
29. Which piece of adaptive equipment is most appropriate for a
patient with a total knee replacement?
a. Long-handled shoe horn A. A person with a total knee replacement must learn to bend the
b. Reacher knee to increase range of motion.
c. Sock aid
d. None of the above
30. Spinal nerves are formed by joining dorsal and ventral roots.
They are composed of a mixture of motor, sensory and autonomic .D. The ventral root carries motor information from the motor
fibers. The ventral root carries which type of information? cortex out to the muscles. Efferent projections are motor in nature
a. Sensory/afferent and carry output from a neural structure. Afferent projection are
b. Sensory/efferent sensory in nature and carry input to a neural structure such as a
c. Motor/afferent sensory receptor to the somatosensory lobe
d. Motor/efferent
31. Spinal nerves are formed by joining dorsal and ventral roots.
They are composed of a mixture of motor, sensory and autonomic
fibers. The ventral root carries which type of information? A. According to Patricia Parmelee, associate director of research
a. Sensory/afferent at the Philadelphia Geriatric Center, depression is closely linked
b. Sensory/efferent with physical illness, and disability when it causes functional loss.
c. Motor/afferent
d. Motor/efferent
32. :As more OTs work in cardiac rehab, including outpatient
or community settings, the understanding of certain concepts is
key to good care delivery. For example, the term MET is used
in exercise, physiology. One MET is equal to 3.5 ml O2/kg. This
describes the energy required for the average person at rest, such
as sitting quietly. B. Three times the oxygen used at rest is consumed in self-care
activities. Climbing stairs is 5 METs and walking fast is 7 METs.
32. On average, self-care activities are at what MET level?
a. 1
b. 3
c. 5
d. 7
33. : As more OTs work in cardiac rehab, including outpatient
as sitting quietly.
A. Fever is usually an indicator of infection.
33. Signs of activity-induced cardiovascular dysfunction include
all of the following except:
a. Fever
b. Dyspnea
c. Altered mental status
d. Fatigue
4/7
as sitting quietly.
C. The patient must be free of chest pain and should stop exer-
34. A cardiac patient in phase 1 in rehabilitation can begin exer-
cising at the first sign of pain.
cise when this occurs:
a. Generally, 4 days after admission to the hospital
b. Depression lifts
c. Free of chest pain
d. Decrease in anxiety
describes the energy required for the average person at rest, such A. Education begins at phase 1 and includes vocational, family,
as sitting quietly. and sexual issues. Phase 2 continues education and MET level 5
activities. At this level the occupational therapist begins to discuss
35. At what point in cardiac rehab does education on diet, stress, the return to work and a possible job site evaluation. Phase 3 and
medication, and exercise begin? outpatient usually coincide.
a. Phase 1
b. Phase 2
c. Phase 3
d. At discharge
as sitting quietly.
D. Anxiety and stress are issues of first priority for most patients.
Learning to decrease these symptoms is the priority.
36. The OT in a cardiac rehabilitation program would consider
which goal most valuable in the education phase of the patient?
a. Vocational modification
b. Energy conservation
c. Sexual counseling
d. Relaxation techniques
B. The static/tonic reflex is initiated by a slow stretch of a muscle.
37. Which reflex is responsible for maintaining normal muscle tone This causes stimulation of motor units in the muscle to create
or resistance to movement? resistance. The phasic/dynamic stretch reflexes is elicited by rapid
a. Phasic/dynamic reflex muscle strength and opposes sudden changes in muscle strength.
b. Static/tonic stretch reflex The inverse stretch reflex causes a muscle to relax once the
c. Inverse stretch reflex maximum tension is reached. The withdrawal/flexor reflex is a
d. Withdrawal/flexor reflex response generally initiated by pain or tissue damage. Flexion or
withdrawal of the affected body part then occurs.
38. According to the National Institute of Mental Health, which of
the following statements about suicide is false? D. Discussion of feelings regarding suicide with empathy and
a. More men than women die by suicide, a ratio of 4:1 respect can greatly reduce the distress of a suicidal person and
b. Suicide by firearms is the most common method for both men decrease one's sense of isolation. Focusing exclusively about how
and women to commit suicide without considering emotional distress can lead
c. The highest suicides rates are for persons over 65 years of age to "copycat" suicides. A, B, and C are all true.
d. Inquiring about suicidal thoughts will implant ideas in people
C. During Bailey's investigation in 1990 regarding reasons for
39. Health care professionals who experience emotional exhaus-
OT attrition, 29% of occupational therapists reported "burnout"
tion, diminished positive feelings toward others, and reduced per-
as their main reason for leaving. This is a type of job stress
sonal's accomplishment may be experiencing what syndrome?
arising from the social interaction between helper and recipient.
a. Clinical depression
Clinical depression is diagnosed with the presence of at least five
b. Dysthymia
symptoms including sadness, empty mood, anhedonia, change in
c. Burnout
sleep and/or appetite, and feelings of worthlessness. Dysthymia
d. Stress reaction
is a mild chronic depression lasting 2 or more years. A reaction
5/7
is a response to a stimulus, while a syndrome is a group of
signs/symptoms that characterize a disease process.
D. MSDS are required to protect those exposed to workplace ma-
40. The OT clinic must have available MSDS (material safety data
terials. The MSDS provide information in case of an emergency,
sheets) on all of the ff. except:
such as a child eating a piece of Theraputty. MSDS are not re-
a. White out
quired for personal items stored in handbags or lockers; however,
b. Theraputty
safety is always first and an occupational therapist should not use
c. Soaps
personal items in clinical use without first addressing all safety
d. Personal items
issues.
41. Often OTAs and OTs work together on the treatment of a
particular client. Which is the best way to document supervision
of the treatment and OTA by the OT?
a. The OT cosigns the treatment notes in the medical record
B. Cosigning notes is not evidence of supervision. The OT should
b. The OT keeps a supervision log book when discussing treat-
maintain a separate log book whenever the OTA and OT meet to
ment with the OTA
review cases.
c. No special documentation is needed because billing is the
same for OTAs and OTs
d. A third party, such as the OT supervisor, documents and col-
laboration
42. Scapulohumeral rhythm must be taken into account when
ranging a shoulder. What is the ratio of scapulohumeral rhythm? A. In order to provide optimal ROM at the shoulder joint, the
a. 1:2 scapula:humerus scapula must move 1 degree for every 2 degrees of humeral
b. 2:1 scapula:humerus movement. If this does not occur, damage may result. The head of
c. 1:4 scapula:humerus the humerus, would not have sufficient space to move in the joint.
d. 4:1 scapula:humerus
43. What pediatric diagnosis is characterized by loss of hand skills
developed and abnormal hand movements such as hand wringing
and hand washing?
D. Rhett's syndrome is marked by loss of hand skills already
a. Childhood disintegrative disorder
acquired in normal development.
b. Childhood schizophrenia
c. Autism
d. Rett syndrome
44. What are signs of SI dysfunction?
a. Oversensitivity to sound, movement, touch, or visual input
D. All are signs including inability to calm self, clumsiness, poor
b. Impulsive, lack of self-control distraction
academic achievement, and delay in speech and language skills.
c. Poor self-concept, social problems
d. All of the above
45. Which is false concerning NDT theory?
a. Abnormal muscle tone affects muscles but not feeding, speech,
or perception
b. The central nervous system is damaged, resulting in abnormal A. According to the NDT Association, abnormal muscle tone and
movements movement affects all function including walking, speech, respira-
c. Change in motor patterns results from the individual feeling tion, feeding, perception, and self-care.
more normal movements
d. An interdisciplinary effort achieves the optimal gains for the
individual
46. All of the ff. techniques are available to the OT using a cognitive
behavioral approach except:
A. Free association is a psychoanalytic technique used by analy-
a. Free association
sis with years of extensive training. All the other cognitive methods
b. Graded task assignments
are modalities used in OT
c. Bibliotherapy
d. Role modeling
47. An activity group in which the client learns group interaction
skills through sequential, stage-specific skills is called:
A. Developmental groups were first identified by Anne Mosey and
a. Developmental group
include parallel, project, egocentric-cooperative, cooperative and
b. Task-oriented group
mature levels.
c. Evaluation group
d. Instrumental group
6/7
48. In general, which type of muscle structure provides the great-
A. A muscle fiber can shorten up to one-half its total length.
est ROM?
Fusiform or strap muscles are generally longer than other types of
a. Fusiform/strap
muscle and allow the greatest ROM. Spiral and pennate muscle
b. Spiral
fibers are generally shorter and more numerous, and therefore
c. Multipennate
provide greater strength.
d. Unipennate
C. Directive leadership means the therapist takes a more active
49. According to Yalom, which type of leadership style is most
role in the group. The leader provides structure, keeps the group
useful in the acute inpatient therapy group?
focused, supports members, and ensures efficient use of group
a. Advisory
time. Acute inpatient group members are usually in crisis and
b. Facilitative
do not have time to reach a mature level. Advisory leadership is
c. Directive
effective with highly mature groups. Democratic leadership is a
d. Democratic
term with facilitative leadership.
50. The OT has been asked to evaluate a feeding program for
a 65-year-old woman with hemiplegia. The patient spilled food B. Motor apraxia includes the awkward use of tools and poor
because of the inability to adjust her movement when getting food control of mouth or oral motor control. Ideational apraxis is the
to the mouth. The most likely neurobehavioral impairment is: misuse of a tool. Unilateral neglect means the patient does not
a. Ideational apraxia attend to or use her affected arm. Preservation means the patient
b. Motor apraxia is unable to stop movements and may continue to put food in her
c. Unilateral body neglect mouth, resulting in over-stuffing.
d. Preservation
7/7

Sladyk Section 1 Domain-Style Study

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

Sladyk Section 1 Domain-Style Study

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Title

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

Sladyk Section 1 Domain-Style Study

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

Sladyk Section 1 Domain-Style Study

Study online at https://quizlet.com/_bmj6bb

You might also like