CONSTITUTION OF INDIA

Preamble and Features of the Indian Constitution

1. The term "Secular" was added to the Preamble by which Constitutional Amendment?
A) 24th Amendment
B) 42nd Amendment
C) 44th Amendment
D) 52nd Amendment
Answer: B) 42nd Amendment
2. Which of the following words were NOT originally part of the Preamble of the Indian
Constitution?
A) Sovereign
B) Secular
C) Democratic
D) Republic
Answer: B) Secular
3. What is the nature of the Indian Constitution?
A) Rigid
B) Flexible
C) Partly Rigid and Partly Flexible
D) None of the above
Answer: C) Partly Rigid and Partly Flexible
4. The idea of the Preamble of the Indian Constitution was borrowed from the
Constitution of:
A) USA
B) UK
C) Ireland
D) Australia
Answer: A) USA
5. "Liberty, Equality, and Fraternity" in the Preamble were inspired by the Constitution
of which country?
A) USA
B) UK
C) France
D) Germany
Answer: C) France
6. How many times has the Preamble been amended?
A) One
B) Two
C) Three
D) Never
Answer: A) One
7. The word “Republic” in the Preamble indicates:
A) Monarchical Head
B) Elected Head of the State
C) Communist State
 D) Religious State
Answer: B) Elected Head of the State
8. Which of the following is NOT a basic feature of the Indian Constitution?
A) Secularism
B) Federalism
C) Presidential System
D) Parliamentary System
Answer: C) Presidential System
9. Who described the Indian Constitution as "a bag of borrowings"?
A) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
B) B.N. Rau
C) Granville Austin
D) Ivor Jennings
Answer: D) Ivor Jennings
10. The term “Fraternity” in the Preamble refers to:
A) Brotherhood
B) Separation of Powers
C) Judicial Independence
D) Distribution of Wealth
Answer: A) Brotherhood

Citizenship

11. The provisions related to citizenship are found in which part of the Indian
Constitution?
A) Part I
B) Part II
C) Part III
D) Part IV
Answer: B) Part II
12. Citizenship by naturalization is provided under:
A) Article 5
B) Article 6
C) Article 10
D) Citizenship Act, 1955
Answer: D) Citizenship Act, 1955
13. A person voluntarily acquiring citizenship of another country loses Indian citizenship
under which Article?
A) Article 8
B) Article 9
C) Article 10
D) Article 11
Answer: B) Article 9
14. Which of the following is not a condition for acquiring Indian citizenship?
A) Citizenship by descent
B) Citizenship by birth
C) Citizenship by acquisition of property
D) Citizenship by naturalization
Answer: C) Citizenship by acquisition of property
15. Overseas Citizenship of India is granted under which Act?
A) Constitution of India
B) Citizenship Act, 1955
C) Representation of People Act, 1950
D) None of the above
Answer: B) Citizenship Act, 1955
16. Which of the following Articles does NOT deal with citizenship?
A) Article 5
B) Article 6
C) Article 8
D) Article 12
Answer: D) Article 12
17. Citizenship provisions under the Constitution of India can be regulated by which
authority?
A) Parliament
B) President
C) Supreme Court
D) Council of Ministers
Answer: A) Parliament
18. Which of the following categories of persons are not considered citizens of India
under the Citizenship Act, 1955?
A) Persons born in India
B) Persons of Indian origin residing in other countries
C) Naturalized persons
D) Persons who illegally entered India
Answer: D) Persons who illegally entered India
19. Who is referred to as a "Citizen of India" under the Indian Constitution?
A) Every person born in India
B) Every person domiciled in India and meeting conditions set by law
C) Every person residing in India for more than 10 years
D) Every person born after independence
Answer: B) Every person domiciled in India and meeting conditions set by law
20. Which Article empowers the Parliament to make laws regarding citizenship?
A) Article 5
B) Article 9
C) Article 10
D) Article 11
Answer: D) Article 11

21. Fundamental Rights in India are enshrined in:

A) Part I
B) Part II
C) Part III
D) Part IV
Answer: C) Part III
22. The "Right to Equality" is guaranteed under which Article?
A) Article 14
B) Article 16
C) Article 17
 D) Article 19
Answer: A) Article 14
23. Which Article abolishes untouchability?
A) Article 15
B) Article 16
C) Article 17
D) Article 18
Answer: C) Article 17
24. Which of the following is NOT a Fundamental Right?
A) Right to Freedom of Religion
B) Right to Constitutional Remedies
C) Right to Property
D) Right against Exploitation
Answer: C) Right to Property
25. The Right to Property was removed from the list of Fundamental Rights by:
A) 24th Amendment
B) 42nd Amendment
C) 44th Amendment
D) 52nd Amendment
Answer: C) 44th Amendment
26. Article 21 of the Indian Constitution guarantees:
A) Right to Equality
B) Right to Life and Personal Liberty
C) Right to Freedom of Speech
D) Right to Education
Answer: B) Right to Life and Personal Liberty
27. Which of the following is true about the Right to Education?
A) It is guaranteed under Article 19
B) It is available only to children below 18 years
C) It is guaranteed under Article 21A
D) It is not a Fundamental Right
Answer: C) It is guaranteed under Article 21A
28. The term "Right to Constitutional Remedies" is enshrined in:
A) Article 19
B) Article 21
C) Article 32
D) Article 39
Answer: C) Article 32
29. Article 19 of the Indian Constitution guarantees:
A) Right to Equality
B) Right to Freedom of Religion
C) Right to Freedom
D) Right against Exploitation
Answer: C) Right to Freedom
30. The power to issue writs is vested in:
A) Parliament
B) Supreme Court
C) President
D) Prime Minister
Answer: B) Supreme Court
31. Directive Principles of State Policy are enshrined in which part of the Constitution?
A) Part III
B) Part IV
C) Part V
D) Part VI
Answer: B) Part IV
32. Directive Principles aim at:
A) Ensuring individual liberty
B) Establishing social and economic democracy
C) Safeguarding the sovereignty of India
D) All of the above
Answer: B) Establishing social and economic democracy
33. Directive Principles are:
A) Justiciable in court
B) Non-justiciable in court
C) Enforceable through writ petitions
D) Enforceable by the President
Answer: B) Non-justiciable in court
34. The idea of Directive Principles was borrowed from the Constitution of:
A) USA
B) Ireland
C) UK
D) France
Answer: B) Ireland
35. Which of the following Articles deals with the promotion of international peace and
security?
A) Article 41
B) Article 43
C) Article 44
D) Article 51
Answer: D) Article 51
36. The principle of "Equal pay for equal work" for both men and women is guaranteed
under:
A) Article 39(d)
B) Article 40
C) Article 41
D) Article 42
Answer: A) Article 39(d)
37. Uniform Civil Code is a Directive Principle enshrined in:
A) Article 42
B) Article 43
C) Article 44
D) Article 45
Answer: C) Article 44
38. The aim of Article 40 is:
A) Promotion of cottage industries
B) Organization of village panchayats
C) Separation of judiciary from the executive
D) Ensuring early childhood care
Answer: B) Organization of village panchayats
39. Which Article of the Directive Principles talks about securing a living wage?
A) Article 38
B) Article 39
C) Article 41
D) Article 43
Answer: D) Article 43
40. Which of the following is NOT a Directive Principle?
A) Promotion of educational and economic interests of weaker sections
B) Separation of judiciary from the executive
C) Abolition of untouchability
D) Provision for just and humane conditions of work
Answer: C) Abolition of untouchability

41. Fundamental Duties were added to the Constitution by:

A) 42nd Amendment
B) 44th Amendment
C) 52nd Amendment
D) 74th Amendment
Answer: A) 42nd Amendment
42. Fundamental Duties are enshrined in which part of the Indian Constitution?
A) Part III
B) Part IV
C) Part IVA
D) Part V
Answer: C) Part IVA
43. Fundamental Duties apply to:
A) Citizens only
B) Non-citizens
C) Government servants only
D) Citizens and non-citizens
Answer: A) Citizens only
44. How many Fundamental Duties are there in the Indian Constitution?
A) 8
B) 10
C) 11
D) 12
Answer: C) 11
45. Which of the following is a Fundamental Duty of every citizen of India?
A) Promotion of brotherhood and harmony
B) Right to vote
C) Right to education
D) Right to constitutional remedies
Answer: A) Promotion of brotherhood and harmony
46. Which Article mentions the Fundamental Duties?
A) Article 39
B) Article 51A
C) Article 44
D) Article 32
Answer: B) Article 51A
47. The duty to protect and improve the natural environment is a part of:
A) Fundamental Rights
B) Directive Principles
C) Fundamental Duties
D) Preamble
Answer: C) Fundamental Duties
48. The Fundamental Duties were borrowed from the Constitution of:
A) USA
B) USSR
C) UK
D) France
Answer: B) USSR
49. Which of the following is not a Fundamental Duty?
A) To uphold the sovereignty of India
B) To protect public property
C) To safeguard the freedom of the press
D) To develop the scientific temper
Answer: C) To safeguard the freedom of the press
50. The Fundamental Duty to "strive towards excellence in all spheres" is mentioned
under:
A) Article 51A (g)
B) Article 51A (h)
C) Article 51A (i)
D) Article 51A (j)
Answer: D) Article 51A (j)

51. The Constitution of India provides for how many types of territories?
A) Two
B) Three
C) Four
D) Five
Answer: B) Three
52. Article 1 of the Indian Constitution describes India as:
A) Federation of States
B) Union of States
C) Republic of States
D) Unitary State
Answer: B) Union of States
53. The power to reorganize the boundaries of states in India lies with:
A) The President
B) The Prime Minister
C) The Parliament
D) The Supreme Court
Answer: C) The Parliament
54. Which schedule of the Indian Constitution lists the states and union territories?
A) First Schedule
B) Second Schedule
C) Third Schedule
D) Fourth Schedule
Answer: A) First Schedule
55. Which of the following Union Territories has its own Legislative Assembly?
A) Lakshadweep
B) Chandigarh
C) Delhi
D) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
Answer: C) Delhi
56. The special status accorded to Jammu and Kashmir was provided under which
Article?
A) Article 352
B) Article 370
C) Article 356
D) Article 368
Answer: B) Article 370
57. The reorganization of states in India on linguistic basis occurred in which year?
A) 1947
B) 1956
C) 1962
D) 1971
Answer: B) 1956
58. Which of the following states was not created after 2000?
A) Chhattisgarh
B) Uttarakhand
C) Telangana
D) Jharkhand
Answer: C) Telangana
59. The 36th Amendment to the Constitution of India made which territory a state?
A) Goa
B) Sikkim
C) Puducherry
D) Arunachal Pradesh
Answer: B) Sikkim
60. Which Article empowers the President to make recommendations for the creation of a
new state?
A) Article 2
B) Article 3
C) Article 4
D) Article 5
Answer: B) Article 3

61. The President of India is elected by:

A) Direct election
B) Elected members of Parliament
C) Electoral College
D) People of India
Answer: C) Electoral College
62. The term of the President of India is:
A) 4 years
B) 5 years
C) 6 years
 D) 7 years
Answer: B) 5 years
63. The President of India can be removed from office by:
A) The Prime Minister
B) Impeachment by Parliament
C) The Supreme Court
D) The Chief Justice of India
Answer: B) Impeachment by Parliament
64. Which Article deals with the election of the President of India?
A) Article 52
B) Article 54
C) Article 56
D) Article 61
Answer: B) Article 54
65. Who is responsible for appointing the Prime Minister of India?
A) Parliament
B) President
C) Supreme Court
D) Chief Justice of India
Answer: B) President
66. Who is the supreme commander of the defense forces in India?
A) Prime Minister
B) President
C) Defense Minister
D) Chief of Army Staff
Answer: B) President
67. The advice tendered by the Council of Ministers to the President:
A) Is binding
B) Can be rejected
C) Is not binding
D) Can be ignored
Answer: A) Is binding
68. The President can issue an ordinance under which Article?
A) Article 123
B) Article 124
C) Article 126
D) Article 130
Answer: A) Article 123
69. The power to pardon, commute or reduce sentences by the President is vested under:
A) Article 70
B) Article 72
C) Article 73
D) Article 75
Answer: B) Article 72
70. The President declares an emergency under which Article of the Constitution?
A) Article 352
B) Article 356
C) Article 360
D) Article 368
Answer: A) Article 352
71. The Parliament of India consists of:
A) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
B) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, and President
C) Lok Sabha and President
D) Rajya Sabha and President
Answer: B) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, and President
72. The maximum strength of the Lok Sabha is:
A) 552
B) 545
C) 500
D) 250
Answer: A) 552
73. How many members can be nominated to the Rajya Sabha by the President?
A) 10
B) 12
C) 15
D) 20
Answer: B) 12
74. The power to introduce a money bill in Parliament lies with:
A) Rajya Sabha
B) Lok Sabha
C) President
D) Finance Minister
Answer: B) Lok Sabha
75. Which Article deals with the procedure of passing bills in Parliament?
A) Article 105
B) Article 107
C) Article 110
D) Article 112
Answer: B) Article 107
76. The Rajya Sabha is a:
A) Permanent body
B) Temporary body
C) Elected for five years
D) Elected for six years
Answer: A) Permanent body
77. Which of the following special powers is vested in the Rajya Sabha?
A) Creation of new states
B) Impeachment of the President
C) Initiating a money bill
D) Empowering the Parliament to legislate on a state subject
Answer: D) Empowering the Parliament to legislate on a state subject
78. A joint session of both Houses of Parliament is presided over by:
A  A) President
B) Vice President
C) Speaker of Lok Sabha
D) Chief Justice of India
Answer: C) Speaker of Lok Sabha
79.  The quorum required to conduct the proceedings of Parliament is:
A) 1/4th of total members
 B) 1/3rd of total members
C) 1/10th of total members
D) 1/5th of total members
Answer: C) 1/10th of total members
80.  A money bill can be introduced in the Lok Sabha with the prior consent of:
A) Prime Minister
B) President
C) Finance Minister
D) Speaker of Lok Sabha
Answer: B) President

81. The Supreme Court of India was established in which year?

A) 1947
B) 1949
C) 1950
D) 1952
Answer: C) 1950
82. The minimum number of judges required for hearing constitutional cases in the
Supreme Court is:
A) 3
B) 5
C) 7
D) 9
Answer: B) 5
83. Which Article of the Constitution provides for the establishment of the Supreme
Court?
A) Article 124
B) Article 125
C) Article 126
D) Article 127
Answer: A) Article 124
84. The judges of the Supreme Court retire at the age of:
A) 60
B) 62
C) 65
D) 70
Answer: C) 65
85. A judge of the Supreme Court can be removed by:
A) The President alone
B) A resolution passed by Parliament
C) The Chief Justice of India
D) The Prime Minister
Answer: B) A resolution passed by Parliament
86. The Chief Justice of India is appointed by:
A) The Prime Minister
B) The President
C) The Parliament
D) The Law Minister
Answer: B) The President
87. The power of judicial review is vested in the:
A) Parliament
B) Supreme Court
C) President
D) Prime Minister
Answer: B) Supreme Court
88. Which Article guarantees the independence of the judiciary?
A) Article 50
B) Article 52
C) Article 54
D) Article 61
Answer: A) Article 50
89. Public Interest Litigation (PIL) is filed in the:
A) Parliament
B) High Court and Supreme Court
C) District Court
D) Lok Sabha
Answer: B) High Court and Supreme Court
90. The power to issue writs for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights is vested in:
A) High Courts
B) Parliament
C) Supreme Court
D) Both A and C
Answer: D) Both A and C

91. The Constitution of India was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on:
A) August 15, 1947
B) January 26, 1950
C) November 26, 1949
D) December 31, 1947
Answer: C) November 26, 1949
92. The "Doctrine of Basic Structure" was propounded in which case?
A) A.K. Gopalan case
B) Golaknath case
C) Kesavananda Bharati case
D) Maneka Gandhi case
Answer: C) Kesavananda Bharati case
93. The term "Cabinet" is mentioned in which Article of the Constitution?
A) Article 74
B) Article 75
C) Article 77
D) Article 78
Answer: A) Article 74
94. The Election Commission of India is mentioned in which Article?
A) Article 315
B) Article 324
C) Article 326
D) Article 330
Answer: B) Article 324
95. Which Amendment Act introduced the Panchayati Raj system in India?
A) 42nd Amendment
B) 44th Amendment
C) 73rd Amendment
D) 86th Amendment
Answer: C) 73rd Amendment
96. The Ninth Schedule was introduced by which Constitutional Amendment?
A) First Amendment
B) Fourth Amendment
C) Eighth Amendment
D) Tenth Amendment
Answer: A) First Amendment
97. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the Concurrent List?
A) Only the State can legislate
B) Only the Centre can legislate
C) Both Centre and State can legislate
D) Neither Centre nor State can legislate
Answer: C) Both Centre and State can legislate
98. Who is regarded as the "Guardian of the Constitution"?
A) President of India
B) Parliament
C) Supreme Court
D) Prime Minister
Answer: C) Supreme Court
99. The Constitution (One Hundred and First Amendment) Act, 2016 relates to:
A) Goods and Services Tax (GST)
B) National Judicial Appointments Commission
C) Land Acquisition
D) Right to Education
Answer: A) Goods and Services Tax (GST)
100. The concept of "Public Interest Litigation" originated in:
A) USA
B) UK
C) India
D) Canada
Answer: A) USA
 IPC and BNS

1. The Indian Penal Code (IPC) came into force in:

A) 1860
B) 1862
C) 1872
D) 1858
Answer: B) 1862
2. Which section of the IPC defines murder?
A) Section 299
B) Section 300
C) Section 302
D) Section 304
Answer: B) Section 300
3. The punishment for murder under IPC is covered in:
A) Section 300
B) Section 302
C) Section 304
D) Section 306
Answer: B) Section 302
4. Section 304B of IPC deals with:
A) Murder
B) Dowry death
C) Culpable homicide
D) Attempt to murder
Answer: B) Dowry death
5. Which section of IPC deals with "culpable homicide not amounting to murder"?
A) Section 299
B) Section 302
C) Section 304
D) Section 305
Answer: C) Section 304
6. Causing death by negligence is addressed under which section?
A) Section 302
B) Section 304A
C) Section 306
D) Section 308
Answer: B) Section 304A
7. What is the punishment for dowry death under IPC?
A) 3 years
B) 5 years
C) 7 years
D) Minimum 7 years and may extend to life imprisonment
Answer: D) Minimum 7 years and may extend to life imprisonment
8. Section 375 of IPC defines:
A) Kidnapping
B) Theft
 C) Extortion
D) Rape
Answer: D) Rape
9. Punishment for rape is prescribed in:
A) Section 375
B) Section 376
C) Section 377
D) Section 378
Answer: B) Section 376
10. Unnatural offenses are defined under:
A) Section 375
B) Section 376
C) Section 377
D) Section 378
Answer: C) Section 377
11. Section 378 of IPC deals with:
A) Rape
B) Theft
C) Robbery
D) Extortion
Answer: B) Theft
12. Section 390 of IPC defines:
A) Robbery
B) Extortion
C) Theft
D) Dacoity
Answer: A) Robbery
13. Dacoity is defined under which section?
A) Section 391
B) Section 392
C) Section 393
D) Section 394
Answer: A) Section 391
14. Grievous hurt is defined under:
A) Section 320
B) Section 319
C) Section 324
D) Section 325
Answer: A) Section 320
15. The offense of criminal conspiracy is dealt with under:
A) Section 120A
B) Section 120B
C) Section 121
D) Section 123
Answer: A) Section 120A
16. Section 124A of IPC deals with:
A) Sedition
B) Rioting
C) Defamation
 D) Kidnapping
Answer: A) Sedition
17. The minimum age for criminal responsibility under IPC is:
A) 7 years
B) 8 years
C) 10 years
D) 12 years
Answer: A) 7 years
18. Criminal intimidation is defined under:
A) Section 503
B) Section 504
C) Section 505
D) Section 506
Answer: A) Section 503
19. Which section of IPC deals with the offense of "cheating"?
A) Section 418
B) Section 419
C) Section 420
D) Section 421
Answer: C) Section 420
20. Abetment of suicide is defined under:
A) Section 305
B) Section 306
C) Section 307
D) Section 308
Answer: B) Section 306
21. Section 141 of IPC deals with:
A) Rioting
B) Defamation
C) Unlawful assembly
D) Theft
Answer: C) Unlawful assembly
22. Which section deals with "attempt to murder"?
A) Section 306
B) Section 307
C) Section 308
D) Section 309
Answer: B) Section 307
23. What is the punishment for "attempt to commit suicide" under IPC?
A) Section 306
B) Section 307
C) Section 308
D) Section 309
Answer: D) Section 309
24. What is the punishment for defamation under IPC?
A) Section 499
B) Section 500
C) Section 501
D) Section 502
Answer: B) Section 500
25. The term "public servant" is defined under which section?
A) Section 19
B) Section 21
C) Section 23
D) Section 25
Answer: B) Section 21

26. Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS) 2023 is aimed to replace:

A) Indian Penal Code, 1860
B) Code of Civil Procedure
C) Evidence Act, 1872
D) Negotiable Instruments Act
Answer: A) Indian Penal Code, 1860
27. The BNS 2023 was introduced to Parliament in:
A) July 2023
B) August 2023
C) September 2023
D) October 2023
Answer: B) August 2023
28. One of the primary aims of the BNS 2023 is to:
A) Retain colonial laws
B) Remove colonial remnants in the legal system
C) Increase punishments across all offenses
D) Merge civil and criminal law
Answer: B) Remove colonial remnants in the legal system
29. Under BNS 2023, the act of sedition has been:
A) Retained
B) Modified
C) Repealed
D) Expanded
Answer: C) Repealed
30. BNS 2023 aims to address:
A) Civil disputes
B) Criminal law reforms
C) International treaties
D) Labor laws
Answer: B) Criminal law reforms
31. Under BNS 2023, the crime of sedition is replaced by a new provision addressing:
A) Terrorism
B) Acts against the sovereignty of India
C) Religious violence
D) Defamation
Answer: B) Acts against the sovereignty of India
32. The punishment for heinous crimes in BNS 2023 can be:
A) Community service
B) 3 years imprisonment
C) 7 years imprisonment
D) Life imprisonment or death
Answer: D) Life imprisonment or death
33. Which crime has been redefined under BNS 2023?
A) Kidnapping
B) Theft
C) Sedition
D) Grievous hurt
Answer: C) Sedition
34. One of the significant changes in BNS 2023 regarding sexual offenses is:
A) Reduction in punishment
B) Gender neutrality of the law
C) Exemption from prosecution
D) Focus only on physical harm
Answer: B) Gender neutrality of the law
35. BNS 2023 emphasizes the protection of:
A) Sovereignty of India
B) Public property
C) Women's rights
D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above
36. In BNS 2023, the punishment for rape remains:
A) Same as IPC
B) Reduced
C) Increased
D) Depends on circumstances
Answer: A) Same as IPC
37. Which of the following penalties is introduced for minor offenses in BNS 2023?
A) Death penalty
B) Community service
C) Fines only
D) Life imprisonment
Answer: B) Community service
38.  What is the maximum imprisonment for theft under IPC and BNS?
A) 3 years
B) 7 years
C) 10 years
D) Life imprisonment
Answer: B) 7 years
39.  The new BNS 2023 emphasizes protection of:
A) Public order
B) Fundamental rights
C) Social harmony
D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above
40.  Under IPC, kidnapping from lawful guardianship is defined under:
A) Section 360
B) Section 361
C) Section 362
D) Section 363
Answer: B) Section 361
41.  The offense of dacoity is defined under:
A) Section 390
 B) Section 391
C) Section 392
D) Section 393
Answer: B) Section 391
42.  The punishment for rioting under IPC is provided in:
A) Section 146
B) Section 148
C) Section 149
D) Section 151
Answer: B) Section 148
43.  Section 498A of IPC deals with:
A) Domestic violence
B) Cruelty by husband or relatives
C) Dowry death
D) Child marriage
Answer: B) Cruelty by husband or relatives
44.  Wrongful restraint is dealt with under:
A) Section 339
B) Section 340
C) Section 341
D) Section 342
Answer: C) Section 341

46. The term "dishonestly" is defined in IPC under:

A) Section 23
B) Section 24
C) Section 25
D) Section 26
Answer: B) Section 24
47. What is the section for "Assault or criminal force to woman with intent to outrage her
modesty"?
A) Section 354
B) Section 375
C) Section 376
D) Section 377
Answer: A) Section 354
48. Which section of IPC deals with the punishment for cheating?
A) Section 418
B) Section 419
C) Section 420
D) Section 421
Answer: C) Section 420
49. The right to private defense is covered under which section?
A) Section 96
B) Section 97
C) Section 98
D) Section 99
Answer: A) Section 96
50. Which section defines the criminal breach of trust?
A) Section 405
 B) Section 406
C) Section 407
D) Section 408
Answer: A) Section 405
51. Under IPC, defamation is defined in:
A) Section 499
B) Section 500
C) Section 501
D) Section 502
Answer: A) Section 499
52. In which section is bigamy defined under IPC?
A) Section 493
B) Section 494
C) Section 495
D) Section 496
Answer: B) Section 494
53. Which section defines the offense of causing hurt by dangerous weapons or means?
A) Section 319
B) Section 320
C) Section 324
D) Section 326
Answer: D) Section 326
54. Section 34 of IPC deals with:
A) Criminal conspiracy
B) Common intention
C) Joint liability
D) Criminal breach of trust
Answer: B) Common intention
55. The offense of criminal trespass is defined under:
A) Section 441
B) Section 442
C) Section 443
D) Section 444
Answer: A) Section 441
56. The minimum punishment for committing dacoity under IPC is:
A) 5 years
B) 7 years
C) 10 years
D) Life imprisonment
Answer: B) 7 years
57. Which section of IPC deals with abduction?
A) Section 362
B) Section 363
C) Section 364
D) Section 365
Answer: A) Section 362
58. Which section of IPC addresses voluntarily causing grievous hurt?
A) Section 319
B) Section 320
C) Section 322
 D) Section 325
Answer: D) Section 325
59. Punishment for robbery under IPC is prescribed in:
A) Section 392
B) Section 393
C) Section 394
D) Section 395
Answer: A) Section 392
60. Section 304B of IPC refers to:
A) Kidnapping
B) Dowry death
C) Murder
D) Robbery
Answer: B) Dowry death
61. Voluntarily causing hurt to extort property is covered under:
A) Section 323
B) Section 324
C) Section 329
D) Section 331
Answer: C) Section 329
62. Section 299 defines:
A) Murder
B) Culpable homicide
C) Grievous hurt
D) Hurt
Answer: B) Culpable homicide
63. Section 145 of IPC deals with:
A) Unlawful assembly
B) Rioting
C) Affray
D) Promoting enmity between groups
Answer: C) Affray
64. Section 511 of IPC covers:
A) Attempt to commit offenses
B) Criminal conspiracy
C) Criminal intimidation
D) Public nuisance
Answer: A) Attempt to commit offenses
65. The term "Forgery" is defined in IPC under:
A) Section 461
B) Section 463
C) Section 465
D) Section 468
Answer: B) Section 463
66. Section 171 of IPC relates to:
A) Offenses against the state
B) Offenses related to elections
C) Offenses against public justice
D) Offenses against women
Answer: B) Offenses related to elections
 67. Wrongful restraint is dealt with under which section of IPC?
A) Section 341
B) Section 342
C) Section 343
D) Section 344
Answer: A) Section 341
68. Section 154 of IPC deals with:
A) Public nuisance
B) Rioting
C) Giving false evidence
D) Harboring offender
Answer: D) Harboring offender
69. Which section of IPC deals with adultery?
A) Section 494
B) Section 497
C) Section 498
D) Section 498A
Answer: B) Section 497
70. The offense of causing death by negligence is defined under:
A) Section 299
B) Section 304A
C) Section 304B
D) Section 305
Answer: B) Section 304A

Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS) 2023

71. Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita aims to replace the colonial law of:
A) Indian Penal Code, 1860
B) Code of Criminal Procedure
C) Indian Evidence Act
D) All of the above
Answer: A) Indian Penal Code, 1860
72. The objective of the BNS 2023 is to:
A) Modernize criminal law
B) Strengthen civil rights
C) Promote international trade
D) Enforce colonial legal standards
Answer: A) Modernize criminal law
73. The offense of sedition in the Indian Penal Code has been:
A) Retained
B) Repealed
C) Modified
D) Strengthened
Answer: B) Repealed
74. BNS 2023 introduces new provisions for:
A) Cyber crimes
B) International offenses
 C) Public disorder
D) Religious disputes
Answer: A) Cyber crimes
75. The punishment for heinous crimes under BNS 2023 can be:
A) 5 years
B) 10 years
C) Life imprisonment or death
D) Community service
Answer: C) Life imprisonment or death
76. The BNS 2023 introduces a new concept of:
A) Sedition
B) Terrorism offenses
C) Community punishment
D) Sexual offenses
Answer: C) Community punishment
77. Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita emphasizes protection of:
A) Sovereignty of India
B) Women’s rights
C) Public order
D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above
78. Which offense in BNS 2023 replaces the sedition law?
A) Acts against the sovereignty of India
B) Cyber offenses
C) Religious enmity
D) Contempt of court
Answer: A) Acts against the sovereignty of India
79. The aim of BNS 2023 is to ensure:
A) Decolonization of criminal law
B) Stricter penal codes
C) Global legal alignment
D) Reduction in punishments
Answer: A) Decolonization of criminal law
80. Under BNS 2023, community service as punishment can be applied for:
A) Minor offenses
B) Heinous crimes
C) Property offenses
D) None of the above
Answer: A) Minor offenses

Mixed Questions (IPC & BNS)

81. Which section of IPC deals with unlawful assembly?

A) Section 141
B) Section 142
C) Section 143
D) Section 144
Answer: A) Section 141
82. Robbery is defined under:
A) Section 390 of IPC
B) Section 391 of BNS
C) Section 392 of IPC
D) Section 393 of IPC
Answer: A) Section 390 of IPC

1. What is the minimum age of criminal responsibility under the Indian Penal Code
(IPC)?
o A) 7 years
o B) 8 years
o C) 10 years
o D) 12 years
Answer: A
2. Which section of the IPC deals with ‘culpable homicide not amounting to
murder’?
o A) Section 299
o B) Section 300
o C) Section 302
o D) Section 304
Answer: A
3. Which section defines 'offense' under IPC?
o A) Section 40
o B) Section 39
o C) Section 41
o D) Section 42
Answer: A
4. In the IPC, what is the maximum punishment for an attempt to murder under
Section 307?
o A) 5 years
o B) 7 years
o C) 10 years
o D) Life imprisonment
Answer: D
5. Which section of the IPC deals with the right of private defense?
o A) Sections 96 to 106
o B) Sections 100 to 105
o C) Sections 120 to 130
o D) Sections 150 to 160
Answer: A
6. The term 'Public Servant' is defined under which section of IPC?
o A) Section 21
o B) Section 22
o C) Section 23
o D) Section 24
Answer: A
7. Under IPC, which section relates to the punishment for kidnapping?
o A) Section 362
 o B) Section 363
o C) Section 364
o D) Section 365
Answer: B
8. Which section of IPC deals with dowry death?
o A) Section 304A
o B) Section 304B
o C) Section 305
o D) Section 306
Answer: B
9. Which section of IPC deals with ‘criminal breach of trust’?
o A) Section 405
o B) Section 406
o C) Section 407
o D) Section 408
Answer: A
10. What is the punishment for theft under IPC?

 A) Section 379
 B) Section 380
 C) Section 381
 D) Section 382
Answer: A

11. Which section of IPC deals with defamation?

 A) Section 499
 B) Section 500
 C) Section 501
 D) Section 502
Answer: A

12. Under the IPC, which section punishes assault or criminal force to deter a public
servant from discharge of duty?

 A) Section 353
 B) Section 354
 C) Section 355
 D) Section 356
Answer: A

13. What does Section 375 of IPC deal with?

 A) Murder
 B) Rape
 C) Theft
 D) Kidnapping
Answer: B
 14. Which section of the IPC addresses the offense of cruelty by husband or relatives
of husband?

 A) Section 498A
 B) Section 497
 C) Section 495
 D) Section 496
Answer: A

15. What is the punishment for attempting to commit offenses punishable with
imprisonment for life under IPC?

 A) Section 307
 B) Section 308
 C) Section 309
 D) Section 311
Answer: A

 What is the age of criminal responsibility in the BNS?

 A) 7 years
 B) 12 years
 C) 16 years
 D) 18 years
Answer: B

 The BNS proposes to rename the offense of ‘Rape’ to which of the following?

 A) Violation of Dignity
 B) Sexual Assault
 C) Assault on Womanhood
 D) Sexual Offense
Answer: B

 Under the BNS, which section replaces the IPC’s Section 375 dealing with sexual
offenses?

 A) Section 69
 B) Section 69A
 C) Section 75
 D) Section 82
Answer: A

 Which of the following is a major change introduced in BNS regarding theft?

 A) Increase in maximum punishment

 B) Provision for fines in addition to imprisonment
 C) Reduction of punishment for first-time offenders
 D) Introduction of community service as punishment
Answer: B
 What section of the BNS focuses on ‘terrorism-related offenses’?

 A) Section 110
 B) Section 101
 C) Section 120
 D) Section 150
Answer: C

 The concept of ‘sedition’ under IPC has been removed in the BNS. Which section of
the BNS replaces it?

 A) Section 150
 B) Section 124A
 C) Section 155
 D) Section 107
Answer: A

 In BNS, the offense of defamation is categorized under which section?

 A) Section 500
 B) Section 51
 C) Section 58
 D) Section 65
Answer: C

 Which of the following best describes the goal of the BNS?

 A) Strict punishment for all crimes

 B) Modernization of the criminal justice system
 C) Focusing on rehabilitation of criminals
 D) Incorporating traditional Indian values
Answer: B

 Under BNS, is there any new provision for the protection of children?

 A) No new provisions
 B) Yes, stronger laws against child sexual abuse
 C) Yes, provisions for child labor
 D) Yes, provisions for child trafficking
Answer: B

 Which section in the BNS deals with crimes related to corruption?

 A) Section 200
 B) Section 201
 C) Section 202
 D) Section 203
Answer: D
 Which landmark case led to the decriminalization of Section 377 of IPC
(Homosexuality)?
 o A) Keshavananda Bharati Case
o B) Navtej Singh Johar vs. Union of India
o C) Maneka Gandhi vs. Union of India
o D) Vishakha vs. State of Rajasthan
Answer: B
 The concept of ‘Right to Privacy’ was declared as a fundamental right in which
case?
o A) Puttaswamy vs. Union of India
o B) Minerva Mills Case
o C) Golaknath Case
o D) ADM Jabalpur Case
Answer: A
 Which section of the IPC deals with abetment of an offense?
o A) Section 107
o B) Section 108
o C) Section 120
o D) Section 121
Answer: A
 Which section of IPC deals with insanity as a defense?
o A) Section 82
o B) Section 83
o C) Section 84
o D) Section 85
Answer: C

1. Which section of IPC deals with the offense of dacoity?

o A) Section 391
o B) Section 392
o C) Section 394
o D) Section 395
Answer: A
2. What is the maximum punishment for an offense of dacoity as per IPC?
o A) 5 years
o B) 7 years
o C) Life imprisonment
o D) Death
Answer: C
3. Which section of IPC defines criminal misappropriation of property?
o A) Section 403
o B) Section 405
o C) Section 406
o D) Section 407
Answer: A
4. Which section of IPC deals with 'house-trespass'?
o A) Section 447
o B) Section 448
o C) Section 449
 o D) Section 450
Answer: B
5. Which section of IPC provides punishment for 'cheating'?
o A) Section 417
o B) Section 418
o C) Section 419
o D) Section 420
Answer: D
6. Which section of IPC deals with 'unlawful assembly'?
o A) Section 141
o B) Section 146
o C) Section 150
o D) Section 159
Answer: A
7. Which section of IPC punishes ‘criminal conspiracy’?
o A) Section 120
o B) Section 120A
o C) Section 120B
o D) Section 122
Answer: C
8. Which section of IPC deals with punishment for forgery?
o A) Section 465
o B) Section 468
o C) Section 469
o D) Section 471
Answer: A
9. Which section of IPC punishes ‘criminal intimidation’?
o A) Section 503
o B) Section 504
o C) Section 505
o D) Section 506
Answer: D
10. Which section of IPC deals with ‘death caused by negligence’?
 A) Section 304A
 B) Section 302
 C) Section 304B
 D) Section 306
Answer: A
11. Which section of IPC defines kidnapping?
 A) Section 359
 B) Section 360
 C) Section 361
 D) Section 362
Answer: A
12. Which section of IPC deals with abetment of suicide?
 A) Section 306
 B) Section 307
 C) Section 308
 D) Section 309
Answer: A
13. Which of the following is an offense under Section 498A of IPC?
 A) Adultery
 B) Cruelty by husband or relatives of husband
 C) Bigamy
 D) Desertion
Answer: B
14. Which section of IPC deals with the offense of 'bigamy'?
 A) Section 494
 B) Section 495
 C) Section 496
 D) Section 497
Answer: A
15. What is the punishment for the offense of 'attempt to commit culpable homicide'
under Section 308 IPC?
 A) Life imprisonment
 B) Imprisonment up to 7 years
 C) Imprisonment up to 10 years
 D) Fine
Answer: B
 Which of the following is a major reform introduced in the Bharatiya Nyaya
Sanhita (BNS) concerning sedition laws?
o A) Retaining sedition with stricter punishment
o B) Removal of sedition
o C) Sedition to be tried by military courts
o D) Sedition now requires state sanction to prosecute
Answer: B
 What is the maximum punishment for serious sexual offenses under the new
BNS?
o A) Life imprisonment
o B) 20 years imprisonment
o C) Death penalty
o D) 15 years imprisonment
Answer: C
 Which section of BNS introduces changes regarding the definition and
punishment for dowry-related offenses?
o A) Section 480
o B) Section 482
o C) Section 485
o D) Section 490
Answer: B
 What significant change has been introduced in the BNS regarding the treatment
of juveniles?
o A) Reduction in age of criminal responsibility
 o B) Stricter punishment for juvenile offenders
o C) Introduction of rehabilitation as a key focus
o D) Abolition of juvenile courts
Answer: C
 Which section in BNS deals with offenses related to cybercrimes?
o A) Section 90
o B) Section 91
o C) Section 92
o D) Section 93
Answer: C
 Under the BNS, which of the following is considered a heinous crime?
o A) Theft
o B) Terrorism-related offenses
o C) Forgery
o D) Defamation
Answer: B
 Which section of BNS deals with corruption and bribery?
o A) Section 120
o B) Section 121
o C) Section 122
o D) Section 123
Answer: D
 Under BNS, who has the authority to initiate action for public nuisance?
o A) Affected individual
o B) Local government authority
o C) Police officer
o D) Any member of the public
Answer: B
 What major change does the BNS bring in relation to offenses against women?
o A) Stricter definitions of sexual harassment
o B) Increased punishment for crimes against women
o C) Abolition of special courts for women-related crimes
o D) Both A and B
Answer: D
 Which section of the BNS deals with acts intended to outrage religious feelings?
o A) Section 150
o B) Section 153
o C) Section 295
o D) Section 298
Answer: C
 What is the maximum punishment for offenses related to human trafficking
under the BNS?
o A) 10 years imprisonment
o B) 14 years imprisonment
o C) Life imprisonment
o D) Death penalty
Answer: C
 Under the BNS, which section introduces changes to deal with offenses related to
mob lynching?
 o A) Section 113
o B) Section 115
o C) Section 118
o D) Section 120
Answer: A
 Which section of BNS deals with unlawful assembly?
o A) Section 141
o B) Section 142
o C) Section 145
o D) Section 146
Answer: B
 Which section of BNS deals with punishment for the offense of assault on a
public servant?
o A) Section 500
o B) Section 501
o C) Section 502
o D) Section 503
Answer: D
 Which section in the BNS deals with crimes related to drug trafficking?
o A) Section 220
o B) Section 221
o C) Section 223
o D) Section 225
Answer: A

1. What is the minimum age of criminal responsibility under the Indian Penal Code
(IPC)?

 Answer: A) 7 years
 Explanation: According to Section 82 of the IPC, a child below 7 years of age is
exempt from criminal liability. The law presumes that a child under this age lacks the
mental capacity to understand the nature of their actions. This is known as the
doctrine of doli incapax.

2. Which section of the IPC deals with ‘culpable homicide not amounting to murder’?

 Answer: A) Section 299

 Explanation: Section 299 defines culpable homicide, which refers to causing death
with the intention of causing such bodily harm as is likely to cause death, but without
the specific intention to kill (as opposed to murder under Section 300). This is a
broader category and encompasses various degrees of criminal liability for causing
death.

3. What is the punishment for dowry death under Section 304B of IPC?

 Answer: B) Section 304B

 Explanation: Section 304B provides for the punishment of dowry death. If the death
of a woman occurs within 7 years of her marriage due to burns, bodily injury, or
unnatural circumstances and it is proven that she was subjected to cruelty or
 harassment in connection with dowry, it is termed dowry death. The punishment is
imprisonment for a minimum of 7 years, which may extend to life imprisonment.

4. What is the right of private defense under IPC?

 Answer: A) Sections 96 to 106

 Explanation: The IPC under Sections 96 to 106 gives individuals the right to private
defense. This means that a person has the legal right to defend themselves, others, or
their property against certain types of unlawful aggression. The extent of the right is,
however, subject to the proportionality of the threat posed.

5. Which section of IPC deals with defamation?

 Answer: A) Section 499

 Explanation: Defamation is defined under Section 499 as making or publishing any
imputation concerning a person, with the intention of harming or knowing that it will
harm the reputation of such person. Section 500 provides the punishment for
defamation, which is simple imprisonment for up to 2 years or fine, or both.

The BNS proposes to rename the offense of ‘Rape’ to which of the following?

 Answer: B) Sexual Assault

 Explanation: The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS) aims to modernize India's
criminal laws, and one such change is the reclassification of rape as sexual assault,
to ensure a broader scope of crimes related to sexual offenses against both genders.
This change reflects the aim to make the laws gender-neutral and more inclusive.

2. What significant change has been introduced in the BNS regarding sedition laws?

 Answer: B) Removal of sedition

 Explanation: One of the most significant reforms in the BNS is the proposed
removal of sedition. Under the existing IPC, Section 124A criminalizes sedition,
which has been used to prosecute individuals for acts considered as bringing
disaffection towards the government. The BNS seeks to replace it with provisions that
focus more on acts that incite violence against the state.

3. Under the BNS, what is the maximum punishment for serious sexual offenses?

 Answer: C) Death penalty

 Explanation: The BNS introduces more stringent punishments for serious sexual
offenses, including provisions for capital punishment (death penalty) in cases of
aggravated sexual assault. This reflects a more stringent approach toward crimes that
involve severe physical or emotional harm.

4. Under the BNS, which section deals with offenses related to terrorism?

 Answer: C) Section 120

 Explanation: Section 120 of the BNS introduces comprehensive provisions for
terrorism-related offenses. These are considered heinous crimes and attract severe
 penalties, including life imprisonment or even the death penalty, depending on the
severity of the offense. It focuses on crimes that threaten national security.

5. What new provision does the BNS introduce for child protection?

 Answer: B) Stronger laws against child sexual abuse

 Explanation: The BNS strengthens laws concerning child sexual abuse and aims at
providing faster trials and harsher punishments for offenders involved in sexual
exploitation or trafficking of minors. This aligns with India’s international obligations
under the Protection of Children from Sexual Offenses (POCSO) Act.

Culpable Homicide vs. Murder

 Culpable Homicide (Section 299) refers to causing death with the intention of
causing death or such bodily injury likely to cause death. However, it is not murder if
the act was done without the intent to cause death under specific circumstances.
 Murder (Section 300), on the other hand, is a more serious form of culpable
homicide, where the intention to cause death or cause bodily harm likely to result in
death is clear and premeditated.

2. Sedition under IPC vs. Changes in BNS

 Sedition under Section 124A of the IPC criminalizes any act that brings hatred or
disaffection towards the government. However, the provision has been criticized for
being misused.
 The BNS seeks to remove sedition and instead focuses on crimes like incitement of
violence against the government or the state, narrowing the scope of the offense to
more tangible threats to public order or security.

3. Criminal Conspiracy (Section 120A and 120B of IPC)

 Criminal conspiracy is an agreement between two or more persons to commit an

illegal act or a legal act through illegal means. The offense of criminal conspiracy is
punishable even if the act agreed upon is not actually committed (under Section
120B).

4. Difference Between Theft and Robbery (Section 378 and 392 IPC)

 Theft (Section 378) refers to taking someone's movable property without their
consent with dishonest intent.
 Robbery (Section 392) involves theft but includes the use or threat of force, making it
a more aggravated form of theft.

Culpable Homicide vs. Murder

 Culpable Homicide (Section 299 IPC):

o Culpable homicide refers to an act that causes death but without the severity or
intent that qualifies it as murder.
 o Illustration: If ‘A’ causes death by striking ‘B’ with a stick in an argument,
but there was no intention to kill, it can be classified as culpable homicide,
depending on other factors.
o Key factors in Section 299:
 Intention to cause death.
 Knowledge that the act is likely to cause death.
o Example: If a person sets a building on fire knowing people are inside and
they die, it could be culpable homicide.
 Murder (Section 300 IPC):
o Murder is a graver form of culpable homicide, where the intention to kill or
cause death is clear and often premeditated.
o Illustration: If ‘A’ shoots ‘B’ with the intention to kill, it is considered
murder.
o Key factors in Section 300:
 Clear intention to cause death or bodily harm likely to result in death.
 Specific circumstances like grave provocation or acting in self-defense
can reduce murder to culpable homicide.

2. Criminal Conspiracy (Section 120A and 120B of IPC)

 Criminal conspiracy occurs when two or more persons agree to commit an illegal act
or a legal act through illegal means. Even if the criminal act is not completed, the
conspiracy itself is punishable.
o Section 120A: Defines the offense of criminal conspiracy.
o Section 120B: Punishes individuals involved in the conspiracy.

Illustration: If ‘A’ and ‘B’ plan to rob a bank but are caught before they can carry
out the robbery, they can still be prosecuted for criminal conspiracy.

3. Difference Between Theft, Extortion, Robbery, and Dacoity (Sections 378, 383, 392,
395 of IPC)

 Theft (Section 378 IPC):

o Theft occurs when someone dishonestly takes another person’s movable
property without consent. The element of force is absent in theft.
o Example: Stealing a wallet from someone’s bag without their knowledge.
 Extortion (Section 383 IPC):
o Extortion is when someone intentionally puts another person in fear of injury
to induce them to deliver property.
o Example: Threatening to reveal someone's private information unless they
hand over money.
 Robbery (Section 392 IPC):
o Robbery is aggravated theft or extortion involving force or the threat of force.
o Example: Mugging someone and taking their belongings by force.
 Dacoity (Section 395 IPC):
o Dacoity is robbery committed by five or more people. It is treated as a more
severe crime due to the involvement of multiple people.
o Example: A gang of armed individuals robbing a bank.

edition under IPC vs. Reforms in BNS

  Sedition (Section 124A of IPC):
o Under Section 124A, sedition is any action or speech that incites disaffection
against the government. This section has been controversial due to its misuse.
o Punishment: Can range from imprisonment for 3 years to life imprisonment.
 Reform in BNS:
o The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS) proposes to remove sedition and
replace it with provisions focused on actions that directly incite violence
against the state or endanger public order. This change is aimed at preventing
misuse and narrowing the focus to violent or seditious actions.

5. Offenses Against Women (Section 498A, 376 IPC and BNS reforms)

 Cruelty to Women (Section 498A IPC):

o Section 498A addresses cruelty by a husband or his relatives toward a
woman, including mental or physical harm, harassment, or coercion for
dowry.
o Punishment: Imprisonment up to 3 years and fine.
o Example: A wife is subjected to mental and physical abuse by her in-laws due
to demands for dowry.
 Rape (Section 376 IPC):
o Section 376 defines the crime of rape and provides for stringent punishment,
especially for aggravated forms of the crime (such as custodial rape, gang
rape, etc.).
o Punishment: Can range from 7 years to life imprisonment or the death penalty
in the most severe cases.
 BNS Reforms:
o The BNS broadens the definition of sexual offenses and renames rape as
sexual assault to cover a wider range of offenses. It also introduces gender-
neutral provisions and increases penalties for aggravated offenses, including
the death penalty for serious crimes.

6. Defamation (Sections 499 and 500 IPC)

 Defamation (Section 499 IPC):

o Defamation occurs when a person makes or publishes any statement or
imputation about another person, intending to harm their reputation.
o Punishment: Section 500 provides for simple imprisonment up to 2 years,
fine, or both.
o Example: Making false allegations in public about someone’s character with
the intent to harm their reputation.

7. Cyber Crimes and Offenses under BNS

 Cyber Crimes are rapidly growing offenses related to misuse of digital technology,
hacking, identity theft, cyberstalking, etc. The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS)
incorporates modern provisions to address these offenses.

Key BNS Reforms:

 o Stronger penalties for cybercrimes, including those related to digital fraud,
unauthorized access, and misuse of personal information.
o Illustration: Under BNS, hacking into someone’s private data or committing
online fraud will be punishable with more severe penalties.

8. Right to Private Defense (Sections 96 to 106 IPC)

 Right to Private Defense gives individuals the legal right to defend themselves,
others, or their property against unlawful aggression.

Illustration: If someone is attacked, they have the right to use reasonable force to
defend themselves. However, the force used should be proportional to the threat.