MD PART I PULMONOLOGY

01. In a chest X-ray bullae (April 2000/01)

a. Is defined as a lesion >5cm in diameter
b. Ring of calcification around it
c. Trabeculae pattern is seen
d. Is usually a fluid filled cavity
e. Is always associated with emphysema

02. Pulmonary hypertension (April 2000/02)

a. PDA
b. Tetralogy of Fallots'
c. Recurrent thromboembolism
d. Living at high altitude
e. Fenthiramine therapy

03. Characteristic features of primary pulmonary hypertension (April 2000/03)

a. Common in males
b. Clubbing is a feature
c. Prostacycline prolongs survival
d. Associated with Raynoud's
e. Young female 25-30 years

04. Exercise induced asthma (April 2000/07)

a. Attacks are precipitated immediately after stopping
b. Can be minimized by inhaling warm and humidified air
c. It cannot be induced by prolong hyperventilation
d. Severity of the attack depends on the FEV1 during exercise
e. After stopping the exercise there is a refractory period after which further exercise will not worsen the asthma

05. TB in Sri Lanka (April 2000/38)

a. New cases are seen among patients below 30 years
b. Apical cavitation is diagnostic
c. Negative mantoux test excludes acute infection
d. Rifampicin is excluded in the trial of anti TB therapy
e.

06. Rifampicin (April 2000/39)

a. Causes orange discolouration of body secretion
b. Penetrates macrophages
c. Increases the hepatotoxicity of INAH
d. Used in the prophylactic treatment of menningococcal carriers
e. Can be used for the treatment of coagulase positive staphylococcus

07. Hanta viral disease (April 2000/29)

a. Stimulate leptospirosis clinically
b. Caused by bunya virus
c. Zoonosis
d. Endemic in areas where pig breeding is common

MD Part I Dr. Sudheera Fernando

e. Causes haemorrhagic fever with renal syndrome
08. True or false regarding Mycoplasma pneumonia (October 2000/05)
a. Incubation period is 5-10 days
b. Sputum contains organisms even before the symptoms appear
c. Is a recognized cause of cryoglobulinaemia
d. Wide spreads crackles in the lungs
e. Chest X- ray is usually normal

09. True or false regarding respiratory function tests (October 2000/15)

a. Airway resistant is mainly due to small airways
b. PEFR and FEV1 measures mainly large airway resistance
c. Progressive increase in the lung compliance proportionately increases FRC
d. Flow volume loops are useful in assessing small airway resistance
e.

10. True or false regarding sarcoidosis (October 2000/16)

a. Arthropathy is commoner with when there is erythema nodosum and bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy
b. Lupus pernio is seen in chronic form
c. Bone cysts and soft tissue hypertrophy is seen in the chronic form
d. Erythema nodosum can be seen in the forearms
e.

11. True or false regarding pleural cytology (October 2000/17)

a. Mesothilial cells are found in large numbers in the pulmonary infarction
b. Neutrophils are found in large numbers in multiple pleural metastasis
c. Lymphocytes can be seen late in bacterial infection
d. Multi nucleated giant cells are seen in rheumatoid arthritis
e. Lupus erythematous cells are diagnostic of SLE

12. Massive pulmonary embolism is characterized by (October 2000/18)

a. S waves in lead I, II and aVL
b. Dyspnoea and haemoptysis
c. Syncope
d. Increased JVP
e. Pleuritic chest pain

13. True or false regarding open lung biopsy (October 2000/20)

a. Axillary approach is recommended
b. Is done under local anaesthesia
c. Should have a good specimen for biopsy
d. Has a poor yield when compared to transbronchial approach
e. Should be taken only from affected sites

14. True or false regarding TB arthritis (October 2000/22)

a. Joint damage can be seen early in X-ray
b. Usually has high tuberculin positivity
c. Usually accompanied by pulmonary TB
d. Joint aspirations is necessary for diagnosis
e. Intracellular anti TB therapy is necessary

MD Part I Dr. Sudheera Fernando

15. True or false regarding ARDS (October 2000/25)
a. Increased protein content is seen in oedema fluid in lungs
b. Early steroid treatment prevent ARDS in sepsis
c. Recognized to cause long term sequale leading to pulmonary fibrosis
d. Hypercapnea is seen early
e. Multi-organ failures is associated with poor prognosis

16. Long term oxygen therapy (October 2001/02)

a. Indicated when PaO2 is less than 55mmHg
b. Improves survival
c. Improves right heart function in pulmonary hypertension
d. Prevent progression of disease
e. Improves exercise capacity

17. Associated with acute respiratory failure (October 2001/20)

a. Methyl alcohol
b. Organophosphate
c. Yellow oleander
d. Paracetamol
e. Dilantium sodium

18. Tropical pulmonary eosinophilia (April 2001/25)

a. Miliary mottling in chest X-ray
b. If left untreated can lead to lung fibrosis
c. Microfilariae positive
d. Responds to DEC
e.

19. Regarding mantoux test (April 2001/42)

a. Not useful in history of BCG vaccination
b. More than 2mm of induration is positive
c. Excludes the diagnosis of TB if negative
d. If positive with contact history, but without features of organ involvement isoniazid prophylaxis is given
e.

20. Upper lobe lung involvement is a feature in (April 2001/44)

a. TB
b. Histoplasmosis
c. Fibrosing alveolitis
d. Ankylosing spondylitis
e.

21. Chronic obstructive airway disease (April 2001/50)

a. Papilloedema
b. Unregulated oxygen treatment increases hypoxia
c. Respiratory acidosis is an indication for ventilation
d.
e.

22. Causes of central cyanosis are (April 2001/53)

MD Part I Dr. Sudheera Fernando

a. SVC obstruction
b. Methaemoglobinaemia
c. Polycythaemia
d. Hypothermia
e. Anaemia

23. Regarding pulmonary embolism (October 2002/05)

a. Presents with dyspnoea and hypoxia in blood gases suggest pulmonary embolism
b. V/Q scan has a high specificity
c. Absent D – dimers exclude the diagnosis
d. Spiral CT is helpful in confirming the diagnosis
e. Normal chest X-ray exclude the diagnosis

24. Predominantly upper lobe involvement in chest X-ray is seen in (October 2002/06)
a. Sarcoidosis with fibrosis
b. Extrinsic allergic alveolitis
c. Silicosis
d. Asbestosis
e. Fibrosing alveolitis

25. Regarding asbestosis (October 2002/07)

a. Two to three years exposure causes asbestosis
b. Asbestos bodies can be detected in sputum
c. Presence of clubbing is a bad prognostic sign
d. Mesothelioma is a complication
e. Causes predominantly upper lobe fibrosis

26. Followings are true regarding viral pneumonia (October 2002/09)

a. Respiratory syncitial virus is the commonest organism
b. Influenza virus is the commonest organism in adult
c. HIV can cause pulmonary calcification
d. Amantadine is helpful in the treatment of influenza pneumonia
e. Hanta virus is a recognized cause

27. Followings are true regarding treatment of community acquired pneumonia (October 2002/55)
a. Caused by streptococcus pneumonia is best treated with penicillin in combination with beta lactamase
inhibitor
b. Treatment with vancomycin is effective for streptococcus pneumonia
c. Clindamycin cannot be used for anaerobic infections
d. Ciprofloxacin is ineffective against Pseudomonas aeruginosa
e. Azithromycin is effective for leoginella pneumonia

28. Regarding nosocomial pneumonia (April 2002/29)

a. Gram negative enterobacteria are most commonly involved
b. Staph. aureus is important pathogen
c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is common in ITU patients
d. Treatment with erythromycin and cefuroxime is adequate in the management
e. Organisms colonized in the upper respiratory tract is a common cause

29. Coal workers pneumoconosis (April 2002/31)

a. Simple coal workers pneumoconosis is often asymptomatic

MD Part I Dr. Sudheera Fernando

b. Predispose to cancer
c. Can cause caplans syndrome in patients with rheumatoid arthritis
d. Progression will stop after cessation of exposure
e. Can lead to chronic bronchitis even with the simple pneumoconosis

30. Lung cancer (April 2002/32)

a. Squamous cell carcinoma is the commonest
b. Is the most common carcinoma of the developed world
c. Small cell carcinoma spread to local lymph nodes
d. Adenocarcinoma rapidly metastasize than squamous cell carcinoma
e. Cryptogenic fibrosing alveolitis is a predisposing condition

31. The honey comb lung is recognized in (April 2002/33)

a. Neurofibromatosis
b. Tuberous sclerosis
c. Cryptogenic fibrosing alveolitis
d. Hereditary haemorrhagic telengectasia
e. Goodpasture's syndrome

32. Regarding pleural fluid examination (April 2002/44)

a. Glucose is reduced in rheumatoid arthritis
b. Presence of amylase is diagnostic of pancreatitis
c. LE cells is found in patients with SLE
d. Increased levels of complements are found in SLE
e. Increased CRP is pathognomonic of SLE

33. Low glucose in pleural effusion (October 2003/29)

a. Renal failure
b. Rheumatoid arthritis
c. Tuberculosis
d. Empyema
e. Malignancy

34. True/false regarding beta agonists in asthma (October 2003/41)

a. Reduces secretions
b. Prevents mediator release from cells
c. Cause hypokalaemia by K+ entry in to skeletal muscles
d. Tolerance can develop
e. No effects on mast cell degranulation

35. Unilateral diaphragmatic elevation is seen in (October 2003/53)

a. Pulmonary embolus
b. Pleurisy
c. Lymphangitis carcinomata
d. SLE
e. Dorsal scoliosis

36. True/false regarding pulmonary blood flow (October 2003/60)

a. More towards base on erect position
b. V/Q is highest at the base
c. Blood is diverted from hypoxic areas

MD Part I Dr. Sudheera Fernando

d. Increased in supine position
e.

37. True/false regarding exercise induced asthma (October 2004/10)

a. Typically occurs soon after starting exercise
b. Can not be precipitated by voluntary hyperventilation
c. There is refractory period following an attack during which further bronchospasms do not occur
d. Inhaling warm humidified air during exercise results in reduced drop in FEV1
e. Severity is related to severity of exercise

38. Predominantly upper lobe fibrosis is seen in (October 2004/ 22)

a. Chronic (fibrotic) sarcoidosis
b. Silicosis
c. Extrinsic allergic alveolitis
d. Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
e. Asbestosis

39. True/false regarding eosinophilic pneumonia (October 2004/37)

a. Associated with peripheral blood eosinophilia
b. Known to cause by bronchopulmonary candida
c. Fleeting shadows seen in chest X-ray
d. Can be caused by sulphasalazine
e.

40. Which of the followings are true/false regarding bronchial carcinoma (October 2004/49)
a. HPOA is reversed after excision of tumour
b. Hypochloraemic alkalosis is caused by small cell carcinoma
c. LEMS is not affected by surgical excision of tumour
d.
e.

41. Nosocomial pneumonia (October 2005/24)

a. Commonly caused by gram negative enterobacteria
b. Staphylococcus aureus is a common pathogen
c. Pseudomonas is a common cause in ITU setup
d. Cefuroxime and erythromycin is a good enough combination
e. Commonly caused by colonization of upper respiratory tract mucosa

42. Calcification seen in the chest X-ray caused by the following pneumonia (October 2005/26)
a. Mycoplasma
b. Legionella
c. Varicella zoster
d. Histoplasma capsulatum
e. Rickettsia

43. Regarding lung function tests (October 2005/27)

a. In a normal subjects 70-80% is expired in one second
b. Total lung capacity can be measured by spirometry directly
c. Vital capacity cannot be measured by spirometry directly
d. In restrictive lung disease FEV1/FVC ratio is increased
e. PEFR is not dependent on respiratory effort

MD Part I Dr. Sudheera Fernando

44. Hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy (October 2005/50)
a. Is seen in 50% of patients with bronchial adenoma
b. Cystic fibrosis
c. Contraindicated for lung surgery
d. Associated with joint effusion
e. Causes periosteal reaction

45. Malignant pleural effusion (October 2005/51)

a. Lymphocyte count is high
b. Mainly due to lymphatic obstruction
c. pH < 7.3 indicates poor prognosis
d. Increased salivary amylase is found in adenocarcinoma
e. Cytology is more sensitive than pleural biopsy in diagnosing the aetiology

46. Regarding respiratory physiology (October 2006/01)

a. Alveolar oxygen concentration is equal to the atmospheric oxygen concentration
b. After expiration lung volume is 3000ml
c. Normal individual tidal volume is 400ml
d. Dead space volume is not included in tidal volume
e. In expiration first removed air is from dead space

47. Which of the followings are associated with acute respiratory failure (October 2006/32)
a. Methyl alcohol
b. Organophosphate poisoning
c. Kaneru poisoning
d. Paracetamol poisoning
e. Dilantium sodium toxicity

48. Features of long lasting COPD (October 2006/38)

a. Increase AP diameter than lateral diameter
b. Obtuse costophrenic angle
c. Coin sign
d. Pectus excavatum
e. Clubbing is a recognized feature

49. Features of life threatening asthma (October 2006/39)

a. Cyanosis
b. PEFR <50% of predicted
c. Bradycardia
d. Confusion
e. Silent chest

50. Regarding transfer coefficient (October 2006/41)

a. Markedly decrease in intrapulmonary haemorrhage
b. Correlate well with blood haemoglobin
c. Increase in right to left shunt
d. Is halved in pneumonectomy
e. Reduced in anaemia due to chronic renal failure

51. Predominantly upper lobe lesion of the lung involvement is seen in (October 2006/11)
a. Histiocytosis

MD Part I Dr. Sudheera Fernando

b. Silicosis
c. Ankylosing spondylosis
d. Tuberculosis
e. Rheumatoid arthritis

52. Bronchiectasis is associated with (October 2006/16)

a. Asbestosis
b. Nail dystrophy
c. Rheumatoid arthritis
d. Inflammatory bowel disease
e. Allergic pulmonary aspergillosis

53. Anticholinergic in COPD (October 2006/51)

a. Should not combine with beta agonist
b. Has short half life than beta agonist
c. Only inhalation form is available
d. Acts on muscarinic receptors on lung
e. Atropine like side effects are common

54. Following changes are seen in apneac spell of obstructive sleep apnoea (October 2006/54)
a. Increased systolic blood pressure
b. Increased pulmonary artery pressure
c. Increased pulse rate
d. Decreased PaO2 less than 59mmHg
e.

55. Lung volumes (October 2006/58)

a. Emphysema causes increased total lung volume
b. Restrictive lung disease reduces all the lung volume
c. Residual lung volume is measured by helium dilutional method
d. With increasing age FRC will reduce
e.

56. Leukotrine receptor antagonist (October 2007/08)

a. It is best given in inhalation
b. It gives additive effect with steroid inhalation
c. It acts within 4 hours
d. It gives prevention for exercise induced asthma
e. It reduces allergic atophic rhinitis

57. Diffuse lung shadow seen in (October 2007/12)

a. Sarcoidosis
b. Macleod syndrome
c. Pneumoconosis
d. Amiodarone
e. Small cell carcinoma of bronchi

58. Pulmonary involvement seen in followings (October 2007/15)

a. Schistosoma japonicum
b. Necator americanus
c. Strongyloides stercoralis

MD Part I Dr. Sudheera Fernando

d. Ascaris lumbricoides
e. Ancylostoma braziliense

59. Lung (October 2007/23)

a. FEV1/VC helps to assess the progression of BA
b. Low PaCO2 indicates mild asthma
c. FEV1/VC >80% is seen in pulmonary fibrosis
d. Pulmonary arterioles increase pulmonary vascular resistance
e. Pulmonary capillaries are surrounded by alveoli

60. Pulmonary circulation (October 2007/30)

a. It is continuation of systemic circulation
b. It is 1/5 of blood circulation
c. Alveolar gas contents differ in every expiration
d. Alveolar gas exchange differs with posture
e. Dead space is not participate in normal breathing

61. Pulmonary manifestations of SLE (October 2007/34)

a. Pulmonary fibrosis
b. Recurrent atelectasis
c. Pleurisy
d. Reversible airway obstruction
e. Can be complicated with malignancy

62. Regarding carcinoma of the lung (October 2007/42)

a. 90% of patients with squamous cell carcinoma have distant metastasis at the time of presentation
b. Alveolar cell carcinoma is multifocal in origin
c. Small cell carcinoma has the highest tumour doubling time
d. Squamous cell carcinoma commonly occurs proximally
e. Can have normal chest X-ray at presentation

63. True/false regarding pulmonary circulation (October 2007/02)

a. Arterioles provide resistance to pulmonary blood flow.
b. Vasodilation occurs when there is a hypoxia
c. CO2 diffuses more easily than O2
d. It parallel with systemic circulation
e. Capillaries are surrounded by alveoli

64. True/False (October 2007/03)

a. Anatomical dead space denotes areas where gas exchange does not take place
b. Pulmonary ventilation varies with posture
c. Alveolar gas composition varies with each breath at rest
d. FEV1/VC is >80% in fibrosis
e.

65. Diffuse pulmonary shadowing in chest X-ray can be seen in (October 2007/16)
a. Sarcoidosis
b. Broncho-alveolar carcinoma
c. Pneumoconiosis
d. Mcleoid disease
e.

MD Part I Dr. Sudheera Fernando

66. Regarding tuberculin test (October 2007/17)
a. Positivity in an exposed patient without evidence of organ involvement warrants INAH prophylaxis
b. Contraindicated in HIV positive patient
c. Positivity denotes induration > 2mm
d. It is not helpful in previously immunized patients
e. Can be negative in miliary TB

67. Leukotrine receptor antagonist treatment in asthma (October 2007/26)

a. Effects are additive to steroids
b. Effective in exercise induced asthma
c. Better administered through inhalation
d. Should be discontinued if not effective in 2 weeks
e. Also effective in rhinitis

68. Bronchogenic carcinoma (October 2007/42)

a. 90% of small cell CA has distant metastasis at presentation
b. Chest X-ray can be normal in proximal lesions
c. Broncho alveolar CA is multicenteric in origin
d. Squamous cell CA commonly occur proximally
e. Small cell CA has highest tumour doubling time

69. Pulmonary changes in SLE (October 2007/44)

a. Increase incidence of carcinoma
b. Recurrent atelectasis
c. Obstructive lung defect
d.
e.

70. Which of the following drug cause pulmonary infiltrates with eosinophilia (March 2008/36)
a. Nitrofurantoin
b. Sulphonamides
c. Amiodarone
d. Penicillin
e. Methotrexate

71. CO2 retention is seen in (March 2008/39)

a. ARDS
b. COPD
c. Pneumonia
d. Myasthenia gravis
e. Pulmonary oedema

72. Primary pulmonary hypertension (March 2008/40)

a. Seen more in males than females
b. Clubbing is a recognized feature
c. Epoprostenol improves survival
d.
e.

73. Ciliary function defects are seen in association with (March 2008/41)
a. Infertility

MD Part I Dr. Sudheera Fernando

b. Emphysema
c. Sjogren's syndrome
d. Cystic fibrosis
e. Meineire's disease

74. Features associated with haemoptysis, which points to an aetiology are (March 2008/42)
a. Loud first heart sound
b. Small muscle wasting of hand
c. Finger clubbing
d. Haematuria
e. Haemoptysis during menstruation

75. Regarding ARDS (March 2008/50)

a. Hypercapnia is an early feature
b. Pulmonary fibrosis is a known complication
c. Prognosis depends on the underlying cause
d. Has chest X-ray more similar to heart failure
e. Seen in leptospirosis

76. In tropical pulmonary eosinophilia (March 2008/51)

a. Pulmonary fibrosis is a recognized sequale
b. Good responds to diethylcarbamazine
c. Most have X-ray miliary shadow
d. Microfilaria are abundant in the blood
e. Occurs when humoral immunity is up regulated

77. Regarding asbestosis (March 2008/53)

a. Clubbing indicates a poor prognosis
b. Mainly seen in the lower lobes of the lung
c. Asbestos bodies are seen in the sputum
d. Occurs after two to three years of exposure
e. Mesothelioma is a complication

78. Increase unilateral translucency of chest X-ray (October 2009/22)

a. Pulmonary embolism
b. Congenital
c. Raised hemidiaphragm
d. Inspiration
e. Central airway obstruction

79. Aetiology of bronchiectasis can be detected (October 2009/27)

a. Massive haemoptysis
b. Clubbing
c. Dextrocardia
d. Small intestinal obstruction
e. Positive Mantoux

80. Lung cavities are seen in (October 2009/28)

a. Klebsiella infection
b. ARDS
c. Actinomycosis

MD Part I Dr. Sudheera Fernando

d. SLE
e. Massive pulmonary fibrosis

81. Mycoplasma pneumonia (October 2009/51)

a. Occurs in epidemics
b. Occurs in elderly
c. Typical lobar consolidation can occur
d. GBS can occur
e. Nosocomial infection

82. Honeycomb lung is seen in (March 2009/12)

a. Goodpasture's syndrome
b. Neurofibromatosis
c. Tuberous sclerosis
d. Cryptogenic fibrosing alveolitis
e. Idiopathic pulmonary haemosiderosis

83. Regarding bronchial asthma and its treatment (March 2009/18)

a. PEFR is maximum in the morning
b. Long acting beta 2 agonists are used for the treatment of acute asthma
c. Residual volume increases commonly
d. High flow oxygen can be used
e. ACE inhibitors are safe to use

84. Spirometry is used to measure (March 2009/19)

a. DLCO
b. Physiological dead space
c. Functional residual capacity
d. Tidal volume
e. Forced vital capacity

85. Beta 2 agonists (March 2009/20)

a. Have anti inflammatory effect in bronchial asthma
b. Cant antagonize the effect of beta blockers
c. Tolerance develops with chronic use
d. Effects seen within 10 minutes after inhalation
e.

86. Non respiratory functions of lung (March 2009/49)

a. Inactivation of serotonin
b. Synthesis of prostaglandins
c. Conversion of angiotensin I to II
d. Secretion of noradrenaline
e. Storage of histamine

87. Obstructive sleep apnoea (March 2009/53)

a. Common in middle aged men
b. Commonest sleep disorder
c. Due to spasm of proximal airway muscle
d. CPAP is beneficial
e.

MD Part I Dr. Sudheera Fernando

88. Non metastastatic manifestations of lung carcinoma (March 2010/01)
a. Small carcinoma causes hypochloraemic alkalosis
b. HPOA disappears with resection of tumour
c. LEM isn't resolved with treatment
d. Thrombophlebitis migrans is a recognized feature
e.

89. Sarcoidosis (March 2010/03)

a. Arthropathy is associated with hilar lymphadenopathy
b. Erythema nodosum is seen in forearm
c. Lupus perino is seen in chronic disease
d. Bony cysts in hands seen in chronic form
e. Associated with HLA B27

90. Eosinophilic pleural effusion (March 2010/05)

a. Pneumothorax
b. TB
c. Pulmonary infarction
d. Churg-Strauss syndrome
e. Post MI syndrome

91. Long term oxygen therapy in COPD (March 2010/10)

a. Proven benefit in COPD
b. Indicated when PaO2 <55 mmHg
c. Doesn't alleviate progression of pulmonary hypertension
d. Short term oxygen therapy improves neuropsychiatric symptoms in COPD
e. Improves RV function

92. Exercise induced asthma (March 2010/43)

a. Occurs shortly after beginning of exercise
b. Not reproducible with hyperventilation
c. Related to peak ventilation achieved during exercise
d. Prevented by inhaling humidified cold air during exercise
e. Has a refractory period in which further exercise doesn't induce asthma

93. Pulmonary eosinophilia is associated with (March 2010/52)

a. Peripheral blood eosinophilia
b. Fleeting lung shadow
c. Sulphazalazine
d. Bronchopulmonary candidiasis
e. Asthma is the commonest mode of presentation of pulmonary eosinophilia caused by drugs

94. Diffuse alveolar haemorrhage is seen in (October 2010/01)

a. Wegeners granulomatosis
b. Nitrofurontoin therapy
c. Goodpastures syndrome
d. Disseminated intravascular coagulation
e. Mitral stenosis

95. Bronchopulmonary aspergillosis (October 2010/02)

a. Infection common in lower lobe than upper lobe

MD Part I Dr. Sudheera Fernando

b. Causes cavitation
c. Leads to fatal pulmonary hypertension
d. Produces lung carcinoma
e.

96. Βeta 2 agonist (October 2010/03)

a. Decreases mucus secretion
b. No effect on mast cell function
c. Increases cAMP
d. Long term use can leads to tolerance to side effects
e. Hypokalaemia is due to entry of potassium into skeletal muscle cells

97. Lung abscess (October 2010/06)

a. Predominantly caused by Gram negative organisms
b. Commonly due to hematogenous spread
c. In apical segment of the upper lobe raises the suspicion of cavitating malignancy
d. Thin wall suggest tuberculosis
e.

98. COPD (October 2010/07)

a. Papilloedema is recognized
b. Clubbing is an associated feature
c. Respiratory acidosis indicate the need for assisted ventilation
d. Leukotriene antagonists are very effective in the management
e. Oxygen therapy can worsen hypoxia

99. DLCO increased in (October 2010/27)

a. Pulmonary thromboembolism
b. Pulmonary hemorrhage
c. Vigorous isotonic exercise
d. Living in altitude of 3000 meters
e. Interstitial fibrosis

100. Regarding gas transport (October 2010/28)

a. Oxygen binding tightens the globinchains in the Hb
b. Bohr effect is due to increased CO2
c. When the P50 increases the O2-Hb curve shift to right
d. Deoxygenated Hb has more buffering action than oxyHb
e.

101. Regarding CO2 transport (October 2010/33)

a. Dissolved CO2 is mainly from the production of CO2
b. Main buffer in the interstitial fluid is bicarbonate
c. Increased renal excretion of HCO3 in hypoventilation
d. Increased acid secretion in respiratory alkalemia
e. Main mode of transport is as carbamino compounds

102. Histology of Respiratory epithelium (October 2011/15)

a. Upper respiratory tract epithelium has cilia
b. Bronchioles are made of predominantly smooth muscles
c. Macrophages are seen on alveolar epithelium

MD Part I Dr. Sudheera Fernando

d. APUD cells are found scattered among lower respiratory tract epithelium
e. Visceral pleura has lymphatics

103. Obstructive sleep apnoea (October 2011/22)

a. More common in central obesity than neck obesity
b. Is diagnosed if there is simultaneous cessation of nasal passage, abdominal movement and thoracic movement
in ....
c. CPAP reduce day time somnolence
d. Known to cause pulmonary hypertension
e. Can be treated effectively with methylphenidate

104. Regarding the pulmonary circulation (October 2011/33)

a. Pulmonary blood flow at rest is 3 l/min
b. Normal pulmonary artery pressure is 15 mmHg
c. With exercise pulmonary artery pressure rises to 30 mmHg
d. With exercise blood flow can rise to 30 l/min
e. In erect posture blood supply to apex is less than to base

105. T/F regarding the respiratory tract (October2012/12)

a. Upper respiratory tract has cilia
b. APUD cells are scattered in the lower respiratory tract
c. Bronchioles have a good smooth muscle layer
d. Macrophages are in the lining of the alveoli
e. Visceral pleura contains lymphatics

106. WOTF are results of β2 stimulation (October 2012/13)

a. Increase in heart rate
b. Increase in contractility of the heart
c. Peripheral vasoconstriction
d. Internal urethral sphincter contraction
e. Bladder muscle contraction

107. T/F regarding bronchial asthma (October 2012/15)

a. PEFR charts are good to detect occupational exposure
b. Exercise tests are used in children
c. CXR is not helpful in the diagnosis of asthma
d. Metacholin provocation test used when FEV1 < 1.5l
e. Reversibility of airway obstruction with steroids suggests an alternative diagnosis

108. T/F regarding Legionella pneumonia (October 2012/17)

a. A lobar involvement is seen in CXR
b. Increase CK levels
c. Hyper-natraemia
d. Coombs positive haemolytic anaemia
e. Transaminase levels are elevated

109. T/F regarding obstructive sleep apnoea (October 2012/28)

a. Methylphenidate is used for treatment
b. Cor-pulomonale is a known complication
c. CPAP reduces day time somnolence
d. Occurs more with abdominal than neck obesity

MD Part I Dr. Sudheera Fernando

e. Diagnosed if simultaneous cessation of nasal air passage, abdominal movements and chest movements occur
in polysomnography

110. WOTF are steroid responsive lung diseases (October 2012/42)

a. Cryptogenic organizing pneumonia
b. Rheumatoid interstitial lung disease
c. Sarcoidosis
d. Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
e. Non-specific interstitial pneumonia

111. T/F regarding the pathogenesis of pulmonary hypertension (October 2012/46)

a. There is a deficiency in NO production
b. There is an endothelial cell dysfunction
c. Vascular scarring occurs
d. There is smooth muscle cell proliferation
e. Endothelin levels are increased

112. Side effects of anti-tuberculosis treatment (October 2012/47)

a. Commonly occurs in 1st 2 months of treatment
b. Jaundice is an indication to stop treatment
c. Common in young people than elderly
d. When re-starting should start with one drug at a time
e. Rifampicin induced toxicity is prevented by giving pyridoxine

113. WOTF causes pulmonary interstitial shadows with eosinophilia (October 2012/55)
a. Sulphonamide treatment
b. Allergic broncho-pulmonary aspergillosis
c. Loffler’s syndrome
d. Langerhan cell histiyocytosis
e. Tropical pulmonary eosinophilia

114. Regarding Interstitial lung fibrosis (October 2013/09)

a. Primary pathology is granuloma formation in the lower lobes
b. ARDS is a cause
c. Honey-combing seen in HRCT
d. Usual interstitial fibrosis is the commonest cause
e. Stopping smoking doesn’t retard the progression of langerhan cell histiocytosis

115. Drugs which cause eosinophilic pneumonia (October 2013/10)

a. Nitrofurantoin
b. Penicillin
c. Aspirin
d. Amiadarone
e. Amitryptilline

116. Side effects of ipratropium bromide (October 2013/11)

a. Diarrhea
b. Urinary retention
c. Sweating
d. Paradoxical bronchial constriction
e. Bradycardia

MD Part I Dr. Sudheera Fernando

 117. Drugs and side effects of TB (October 2013/12)
a. Ethambutol- first SE is loss of visual acuity
b. Streptomycin- vestibular toxicity
c. When hypersensitive reaction occurs all drugs are started at same time
d. Peripheral neuropathy is more in slow acetylators
e. Ethambutol causes histamine reaction

118. Sarcoidosis (October 2013/13)

a. Polyarthritis is commonly associated with hilar lymphadenopathy
b. Erythema nodosum is seen in forearm
c. Lupus pernio is seen in chronic disease
d. Associated with HLA B 12
e. Bony cysts are seen in chronic form

119. Exercise induced asthma (October 2013/14)

a. More with swimming than jogging.
b. Change in mast cell osmolality is a known cause
c. Seen immediately after exercise
d. Beta 2 agonists has no value
e. Due to long acting mediator release

120. Lung abscess (October 2013/15)

a. Predominantly caused by anaerobes
b. Most commonly due to heamatogenous spread
c. Apical segment raise the suspicion of malignancy
d. Thin wall suggest TB
e. Tricuspid valve endocarditis is a cause.

121. Spirometry is used to measure (October 2013/16)

a. Functional residual volume
b. Vital capacity
c. TLC
d. Dead space
e. Diffusion capacity

122. ABG of a patient presenting with severe tachypnoea (October 2014/24)

pH 7.4
pO2 8kPa (11- 14)
pCO2 3 kPa (4 – 5.7)
HCO3- 20 (22 – 24)

Which of the following are possible causes

a. Diabetic ketoacidosis
b. Pulmonary embolism
c. Pulmonary oedema
d. GBS
e. Renal failure

123. Arterial hypoxemia due to V/Q mismatch is caused by (October 2014/25)

a. Pulmonary oedema

MD Part I Dr. Sudheera Fernando

b. GBS
c. Asthma
d. Lobar pneumonia
e. ARDS early stage

124. True or false regarding acute mountain sickness (October 2014/26)

a. Causes severe headache
b. Respiratory acidosis is seen
c. Cheyne stoke breathing is recognized
d. Can be prevented be Acetozolamide
e. Starts at a height of 1000m

125. Type I respiratory failure causes (October 2014/54)

a. Extrathoracic obstruction
b. GBS
c. Pneumonia
d. ARDS
e.

126. Regarding allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis (October 2014/57)

a. Can be caused by candida albicans
b. Upper lobe tuberculous cavity is seen
c. Distal bronchiectasis is seen
d. IgE levels are disproportionately higher than blood eosonophills
e.

MD Part I Dr. Sudheera Fernando