ĐỀ SỐ 41-47

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ĐỀ THI THỬ TỐT NGHIỆP THPT NĂM 2021

ĐỀ SỐ 41
Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. prints B. skills C. tombs D. trends
Question 2: A. spoon B. tool C. blood D. noon
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in
the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. nervous B. polite C. verbal D. body
Question 4: A. romantic B. attractive C. emission D. attitude
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5: Your mom would be very sad if she ______ about your failure in the exam.
A. hears B. heard C. will hear D. would hear
Question 6: John has been working as a journalist since he ______ from university in 2000.
A. graduate B. graduated C. will be graduate D. had graduated
Question 7: At first she was trained to be ______ scriptwriter, but later she worked as a secretary.
A. a B. an C. the D. Ø (no article)
Question 8: Your father is going to work tomorrow, ______?
A. isn’t he B. was he C. doesn’t he D. did he
Question 9: Would you kindly inform me who is responsible ______ the travel arrangements?
A. on B. to C. in D. for
Question 10: I will call and tell you something interesting ______.
A. before I came home after work B. after I had come home after work
C. while I was coming home after work D. when I come home after work
Question 11: None of the people ______ could come.
A. was invited to the party B. were invited to the party
C. who invited to the party D. invited to the party
Question 12: ______ his father’s being there, I said nothing about his bad mark of the test.
A. Because of B. although C. because D. despite
Question 13: Children who are isolated and lonely seem to have poor language and ______.
A. communicate B. communication C. communicative D. communicator
Question 14: He committed the crime under the ______ of drugs.
A. connection B. touch C. influence D. impact
Question 15: If you are a young, inexperienced driver, it is worth ______ comprehensive insurance.
A. have B. to have C. had D. having
Question 16: A ______ is an official document that you receive when you have completed a course of study
or training.
A. vocation B. subject C. certificate D. grade
Question 17: Peter is a ______ boy. He usually plays tricks on the others.
A. caring B. helpful C. generous D. mischievous
Question 18: My responsibility is to wash dishes and ______ the garbage.
A. take off B. take out C. take care of D. take over
Question 19: The residents are fighting tooth and ______ to stop the new development.
A. nail B. hair C. mouth D. tongue
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the un-
derlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: The charming old buildings and cottages are a throwback to the colonial past.
A. cunning B. exciting C. interesting D. fascinating
Question 21: The 1960s building boom in Zürich completely changed the rural landscape.
A. thoroughly B. quickly C. easily D. highly
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: Overpopulation in big cities has severely affected the air and water quality.
A. seriously B. insignificantly C. largely D. commonly
Question 23: I'm sure it won't rain, but I'll take an umbrella just to be on the safe side.
A. careful B. easy C. careless D. difficult
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the
following exchanges.
Question 24: Daisy wants to invite her classmate, Joe, to her birthday party.
- Daisy: “Listen, I am having a birthday party next Friday. Do you want to come?”
- Joe: “______ What time does it start?”
A. Sure, I’d love to. B. Sorry. I’m busy then.
C. I can’t agree with you. D. I like a party.
Question 25: Tom and Linda are talking about jobs they would like to choose.
- Tom: “I think working as a doctor is a challenging job.”
- Linda: “______”
A. It’s a good idea. B. Not at all.
C. I’m sorry, but I agree with you. D. That’s exactly what I think.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
The 1918 influenza pandemic was the most severe pandemic in recent history. It was caused by an
H1N1 virus with genes of avian origin. (26) ______ there is not universal consensus regarding where the
virus originated, it (27) ______ worldwide during 1918-1919. In the United States, it was first identified in
military personnel in spring 1918.
It is estimated that about 500 million people or one-third of the world’s population became infected
with this virus. The (28) ______ of deaths was estimated to be at least 50 million worldwide with about
675,000 occurring in the United States. Mortality was high in people younger than 5 years old, 20-40 years
old, and 65 years and older. The high mortality in healthy people, including those in the 20-40-year age
group, was a unique (29) ______ of this pandemic.
While the 1918 H1N1 virus has been synthesized and evaluated, the properties that made it so
devastating are not well understood. With no vaccine to protect against influenza infection and no antibiotics
to treat secondary bacterial infections that can be associated with influenza infections, control efforts
worldwide were limited to non-pharmaceutical interventions such as isolation, quarantine, good personal
hygiene, use of disinfectants, and limitations of public gatherings, (30) ______ were applied unevenly.
(Source: https://www.cdc.gov/)
Question 26: A. Because of B. Although C. In spite of D. Because
Question 27: A. engage B. attack C. adopt D. spread
Question 28: A. number B. speed C. progress D. quality
Question 29: A. project B. evidence C. figure D. feature
Question 30: A. when B. where C. which D. that
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
The coronavirus is usually transmitted by droplets, such as those produced when coughing and sneezing,
and by direct or indirect contact with secretions infected by the virus. The virus may also shed in blood, urine and
faeces, and, therefore, there is potential for transmission through contact with a wide range of bodily fluids.
Certainly, person-to-person spread has been confirmed in community and healthcare settings across Asia and into
Europe. There is also a possibility that asymptomatic carriers may be able to infect people. Public Health England
(PHE) has classified the COVID-19 infection as an airborne, high consequence infectious disease (HCID) in the
UK.
The application of infection prevention and control (IPC) principles are already widely used by healthcare
professionals within hospital and community settings to both prevent the spread of infections and to control
outbreaks when they do occur. The WHO has issued interim guidance regarding IPC when COVID-19 is
suspected. This advice is echoed by guidance issued by PHE.
PHE suggests the coronavirus may pose complications, such as illness pneumonia or severe acute
respiratory infection. They also suggest that patients with long-term conditions or are immunocompromised are at
risk of these complications. It is important that as first-line staff, midwives are also familiar with the recommended
IPC principles and measures, and ensure they have the appropriate personal protective equipment (PPE) when
caring for a patient with suspected COVID-19.
Question 31: Which could be the best title for the passage?
A. Problems Related to the Coronavirus
B. Epidemic Situation in England by coronavirus
C. Advice for Those Who Infected with Coronavirus
D. Coronavirus Transmission and Prevention
Question 32: According to the passage, the coronavirus can be found in all of the following except ______.
A. blood B. clothes C. urine D. faeces
Question 33: The word “interim” in paragraph 2 mostly means ______.
A. temporary B. everlasting C. permanent D. effective
Question 34: Which of the following is TRUE about those with long-term conditions as stated in the
passage?
A. They can work in the WHO.
B. They are employees of Public Health England.
C. They are at risk of illness pneumonia or severe acute respiratory infection.
D. They can work as first-line staff like midwives.
Question 35: The word “They” in the last paragraph refers to ______.
A. IPC B. WHO C. PHE D. COVID-19
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
A surgical mask is a loose-fitting, disposable device that creates a physical barrier between the mouth
and nose of the wearer and potential contaminants in the immediate environment. Surgical masks are
regulated under 21 CFR 878.4040. Surgical masks are not to be shared and may be labelled as surgical,
isolation, dental, or medical procedure masks. They may come with or without a face shield. These are often
referred to as face masks, although not all face masks are regulated as surgical masks.
Surgical masks are made in different thicknesses and with different ability to protect you from contact
with liquids. These properties may also affect how easily you can breathe through the face mask and how
well the surgical mask protects you.
If worn properly, a surgical mask is meant to help block large-particle droplets, splashes, sprays, or
splatter that may contain germs (viruses and bacteria), keeping it from reaching your mouth and nose.
Surgical masks may also help reduce exposure of your saliva and respiratory secretions to others.
While a surgical mask may be effective in blocking splashes and large-particle droplets, a face mask, by
design, does not filter or block very small particles in the air that may be transmitted by coughs, sneezes, or
certain medical procedures. Surgical masks also do not provide complete protection from germs and other
contaminants because of the loose fit between the surface of the face mask and your face.
Surgical masks are not intended to be used more than once. If your mask is damaged or soiled, or if
breathing through the mask becomes difficult, you should remove the face mask, discard it safely, and replace
it with a new one. To safely discard your mask, place it in a plastic bag and put it in the trash. Wash your
hands after handling the used mask.
(Source: https://www.fda.gov/)
Question 36: Which is the most suitable title for the passage?
A. How to Make Surgical Face Masks B. Uses of Surgical Face Masks
C. Surgical Face Masks in the Past D. Surgical Face Masks
Question 37: According to paragraph 1, what could 21 CFR 878.4040 most likely be?
A. standard to follow B. design of masks
C. mask serial number D. mask model number
Question 38: The word “They” in paragraph 1 refers to ______.
A. Physical barrier B. Contaminants C. Surgical masks D. Face shields
Question 39: The word "contain" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. reflect B. carry C. require D. protect
Question 40: Which statement is TRUE, according to the passage?
A. All surgical masks have the same thickness and protecting ability.
B. Exposure to saliva and respiratory secretions may be reduced with surgical masks.
C. Surgical masks can block splashes and droplets including very small particles.
D. You have to replace your mask with a new one only when it is damaged.
Question 41: The word “transmitted” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. transferred B. introduced
C. produced D. committed
Question 42: According to the passage, which is the best way to discard your mask after use?
A. Remove the face mask as soon as possible
B. Place the mask in a plastic bag that is as small as possible
C. Put the mask in the trash immediately after removing it
D. Wash hands after placing the mask in a plastic bag and putting it in the trash
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.
Question 43: The assumption that drinking and smoking has bad effects on our health have been proved.
A. The B. drinking C. on D. have
Question 44: He takes proper angles to the ball, not wasting any steps, and delivering a powerful blow when
he gets there.
A. proper B. not wasting C. delivering D. when
Question 45: The new government has decided to set all political prisoners freely.
A. The B. has C. all D. freely
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 46: French is more difficult to learn than English.
A. French is not as difficult to learn as English.
B. English is not as difficult to learn as French.
C. English is more difficult to learn than French.
D. French is as difficult to learn as English.
Question 47: “I met many old friends yesterday?” Tom said.
A. Tom said that I would meet many old friends yesterday.
B. Tom said that he met many old friends the day before.
C. Tom said that he had met many old friends the day before.
D. Tom said that I had met many old friends yesterday.
Question 48: It is necessary for you to finish this work today.
A. You can’t finish this work today. B. You mustn’t finish this work today.
C. You may finish this work today. D. You need finish this work today.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: You can use my computer. Make sure you don’t install new programs.
A. You can use my computer unless you don’t install new programs.
B. You can’t use my computer if you don’t install new programs.
C. You can’t use my computer in case you don’t install new programs.
D. You can use my computer provided you don’t install new programs.
Question 50: We arrived at airport. We realized our passports were still at home.
A. Not until we arrived at the airport did we realize that our passports were still at home.
B. We arrived at the airport and realized that our passports are still at home.
C. Not until had we arrived at the airport, we realized our passports were still at home.
D. It was until we arrived at the airport that we realize our passports were still at home.
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ĐỀ THI THỬ TỐT NGHIỆP THPT NĂM 2021
ĐỀ SỐ 42
Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. swears B. dates C. strives D. funds
Question 2: A. meat B. heat C. pleasure D. neat
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in
the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. offer B. reduce C. persuade D. apply
Question 4: A. endanger B. departure C. determine D. furniture
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5: Many Vietnamese people ______ their lives for the revolutionary cause of the nation.
A. sacrifice B. sacrificed C. sacrificial D. sacrificially
Question 6: He said he had not discussed the matter with her. ______, he had not even contacted her.
A. Furthermore B. Nevertheless C. However D. Whether
Question 7: You have a ticket to the match tomorrow, ______?
A. haven’t you B. have you C. don’t you D. do you
Question 8: My father has worked as a journalist ______.
A. because he has graduated from the university B. since he graduated from the university
C. as he had graduated from the university D. for he graduated from the university
Question 9: The International Red Cross helps to ensure respect for the human being, and to prevent and
relieve human ______.
A. protection B. enjoyment C. wealth D. sufferings
Question 10: If I ______ you, I would think twice about that decision.
A. would be B. will be C. is D. were
Question 11: I ______ my former teacher for over 10 years.
A. didn’t see B. don’t see C. won’t see D. haven’t seen
Question 12: Some researchers have just ______ a survey of young people's points of view on contractual
marriage.
A. sent B. directed C. managed D. conducted
Question 13: Bob has a bad lung cancer and his doctor has advised him to ______ smoking.
A. get on B. give up C. get in D. give away
Question 14: It is worthwhile ______ those old bits of string because they could be of some use later.
A. to keep B. kept C. keeping D. to have kept
Question 15: The director retired early ______ ill-health.
A. on behalf of B. in front of C. on account of D. ahead of
Question 16: There's been an accident - dial 999 and ask for ______ ambulance.
A. a B. an C. the D. Ø (no article)
Question 17: The little girl ______ with my son in the living room is my brother’s daughter.
A. was played B. playing C. was playing D. to play
Question 18: Mothers love cuddling and admiring their ______ babies, and it’s a lasting desire!
A. newborn B. new-fashioned C. new-built D. new-look
Question 19: Quit beating around the ______ and say what’s on your mind.
A. debt B. bush C. cell D. truth
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the un-
derlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: Her style of dress accentuated her extreme slenderness.
A. betrayed B. emphasized C. revealed D. disfigured
Question 21: Shopping on the internet can be safe if you follow a few simple rules.
A. uncomplicated B. unimportant C. unlucky D. unsociable
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: She decided to remain celibate and devote her life to helping the homeless and orphans.
A. divorced B. separated C. single D. married
Question 23: Driver are advised to get enough petrol because filling stations are few and far between on the
highway.
A. unlikely to happen B. difficult to access
C. easy to find D. impossible to reach
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the
following exchanges.
Question 24: - “Would you like some more chicken?” - “______ I’m full”.
A. Yes, please. B. No, thanks. C. Yes, I would. D. No, I wouldn’t.
Question 25: - “Do you think they will fail in the examination?” - “No, ______”
A. I hope they will. B. I don’t think so. C. I don’t hope. D. I don’t think.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
Those who work at home may find that the solitude can be a double-edged sword. It is, of course, easier
to (26) ______ when you're in your own home with no co-workers coming by your desk to chat at random
times. But while this solitude can feel blissful at times, when we have no mandate for social interaction during
the workday—when we don't automatically run across people outside of those we live with—we can become
lonely before we realize it.
Social media can feel like a lifeline to others, but this type of (27) ______ can sometimes feel isolating
as well, as these interactions can feel less personal than face-to-face encounters and conversations. (28)
______ we may not need to resort to painting a face on a volleyball and talking to it, the feelings of isolation
can sneak up and we can feel (29) ______ alone than we expect. And given the research on loneliness, this
doesn't always feel good. Social isolation was a factor mentioned in the UN study (30) ______ was related to
increased stress of home-based workers.
(Adapted from https://www.verywellmind.com/)
Question 26: A. relax B. focus C. protect D. continue
Question 27: A. introduction B. marketing C. community D. interaction
Question 28: A. While B. Unless C. Because D. Despite
Question 29: A. few B. less C. a few D. more
Question 30: A. where B. whom C. that D. who
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
Culture is the lens with which we evaluate everything around us; we evaluate what is proper or
improper, normal or abnormal, through our culture. If we are immersed in a culture that is unlike our own, we
may experience culture shock and become disoriented when we come into contact with a fundamentally
different culture. People naturally use their own culture as the standard to judge other cultures; however,
passing judgment could reach a level where people begin to discriminate against others whose “ways of
being” are different than their own—essentially, we tend to fear that which we do not understand.
Cultural diversity is important because our country, workplaces, and schools increasingly consist of various
cultural, racial, and ethnic groups. We can learn from one another, but first we must have a level of understanding
about each other in order to facilitate collaboration and cooperation. Learning about other cultures helps us
understand different perspectives within the world in which we live and helps dispel negative stereotypes and
personal biases about different groups.
In addition, cultural diversity helps us recognize and respect “ways of being” that are not necessarily
our own, so that as we interact with others, we can build bridges to trust, respect, and understanding across
cultures. Furthermore, this diversity makes our country a more interesting place to live, as people from
diverse cultures contribute language skills, new ways of thinking, new knowledge, and different experiences.
(Adapted from https://www.purdueglobal.edu/)
Question 31: Which could be the best title for the passage?
A. What is the function of culture? B. How do people use own culture?
C. Why is cultural diversity a “good thing”? D. How can we learn from one another?
Question 32: The word “their” in paragraph 1 refers to ______.
A. levels B. people C. others D. ways of being
Question 33: Which of the following is TRUE about the main reason for discrimination?
A. Valuating everything is the main reason for discrimination.
B. Immersing in a culture is the main reason for discrimination.
C. Contacting with a different culture may cause discrimination.
D. Making judgment may cause discrimination.
Question 34: The word “dispel” in paragraph 2 mostly means ______.
A. eliminate B. contain C. realize D. discuss
Question 35: According to the passage, before we can learn from people from other cultures, we need to
______.
A. understand one another B. facilitate collaboration
C. have different perspectives D. form personal biases
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
The authors noted that while other forms of pollution are decreasing, noise pollution has been
increasing. This conclusion is reinforced by the fact that there has been an increase in the number of people
who have been complaining about excessive noise in the WHO region. Populations that are exposed to high
noise levels can be afflicted by other symptoms such as: stress reactions, sleep-stage changes, and clinical
symptoms like hypertension and cardiovascular diseases. All these impacts can contribute to premature
mortality. It is important to note that these adverse health problems impact all age groups including children
and adolescents. In fact, it has been reported that children who live and or study in an area afflicted with noise
pollution tend to suffer from stress, impairments in memory and attention as well as difficulty reading.
“In Western Europe, the guidelines say, traffic noise results in an annual loss of at least one million
healthy years”. Traffic noise is currently ranked second among environmental threats to public health.
The danger of noise pollution is more present to us when we are asleep. Because the human ear is so
sensitive, it never rests, it is always working, picking up and transmitting sounds for our brains to interpret.
This always on working process is where the danger lies, though you may be sleeping, sounds are still being
picked up and processed. The most common side effects of this phenomenon are sleep disturbance and
tiredness, impaired memory, judgment, and psychomotor skills. The other more serious outcomes of this can
be the triggering of the body’s acute stress response, which raises blood pressure and heart rate as the body
and brain go into a state of hyperarousal. According to the European Environment Agency, at least 10,000
cases of premature deaths from noise exposure occur each year, although incomplete data mean this number
is significantly underestimated.
(Adapted from https://www.encida.dk/)
Question 36: Which is the most suitable title for the passage?
A. Noise in the WHO region B. Increase in noise, Increase in risk
C. Health problems and Age groups D. Side effects of tiredness
Question 37: The word “afflicted” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. assumed B. illustrated C. described D. affected
Question 38: The word “premature” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. early B. quick C. late D. slow
Question 39: According to paragraph 2, what is the reason for the annual loss of at least one million healthy
years in Western Europe?
A. guidelines B. public health
C. environmental threats D. traffic noise
Question 40: Which statement is TRUE, according to the passage?
A. Many forms of pollution, except for noise pollution, are decreasing.
B. Adverse health problems impact children and adolescents only.
C. The danger of noise pollution is less serious when we are asleep.
D. At least 100,000 cases of premature deaths from noise exposure occur each year.
Question 41: The word “This” in paragraph 3 refers to ______.
A. side effect B. sound C. human ear D. the danger
Question 42: According to the passage, what is the reason for the body’s acute stress response?
A. Sleep disturbance B. Excessive noise exposure during sleping
C. Impaired memory D. Psychomotor skills
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.
Question 43: My mother get up early to prepare breakfast for the whole family every day.
A. get up B. to prepare C. for D. whole
Question 44: He needs a hobby to keep him busy, make him happy, and stopping him from getting into
mischief.
A. needs B. busy C. stopping D. into
Question 45: Species become extinct or endangerment for a number of reasons, but the primary cause is the
destruction of habitat by human activities.
A. endangerment B. reasons C. destruction D. by human activities
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 46: Her mother cooks much better than her.
A. She was much better at cooking than her mother. B. She can’t cook as good as her mother.
C. Her mother is a better cook than her. D. Her mother is a better cooker than her.
Question 47: “I saw the president on TV yesterday,” John said.
A. John said that he had seen the president on TV the day before.
B. John said that he would see the president on TV yesterday.
C. John said that I had seen the president on TV the day before.
D. John said that I saw the president on TV yesterday.
Question 48: Perhaps we will be late for school today.
A. We may not get to the school on time today. B. We needn’t get to school on time today.
C. We must get to school on time today. D. We should get to school on time today.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: This type of paper is not good. Its dark colour downgrades it.
A. This type of paper will be good if it’s so dark.
B. Provided it were not so dark, this type of paper would be good.
C. But for its dark colour, this type of paper wouldn’t be good.
D. Unless it were not so dark, this type of paper wouldn’t be good.
Question 50: They arrived at the market. The announcement then started.
A. No sooner had they arrived at the market than the announcement started.
B. Having arrived at the market, the announcement then started.
C. Hardly had they arrived at the market than the announcement started.
D. Only after the announcement started did they arrive at the market.
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ĐỀ THI THỬ TỐT NGHIỆP THPT NĂM 2021
ĐỀ SỐ 43
Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. treats B. trams C. lands D. veils
Question 2: A. slide B. knit C. tide D. hide
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in
the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. inform B. attract C. prevent D. cancel
Question 4: A. external B. extinction C. authorize D. commercial
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5: I will lend them some money if they ______ me.
A. ask B. will ask C. asked D. had asked
Question 6: The boys broke a window when they ______ football.
A. played B. are playing C. had played D. were playing
Question 7: Would you mind not ______ on the bus?
A. smokes B. to smoke C. smoke D. smoking
Question 8: The supermarket had closed ______.
A. before Sandra came to buy some sugar B. when Sandra was coming buy some sugar
C. as soon as Sandra will come to buy some sugar D. so that Sandra came to buy some sugar
Question 9: You should pay more attention ______ what your teacher explains.
A. at B. to C. about D. with
Question 10: My parents hope to travel around ______ world next summer.
A. a B. an C. the D. Ø (no article)
Question 11: Mr. Nam and his wife never go to work late, ______?
A. does he B. do they C. doesn’t he D. don’t they
Question 12: ______ it rained heavily, we couldn't go to school.
A. Because of B. Because C. Although D. However
Question 13: Faraday made many ______ in the field of physics and chemistry.
A. discover B. discoveries C. discovered D. discovering
Question 14: With a good ______ of both Vietnamese and English, Miss Loan was assigned the task of oral
interpretation for the visiting American delegation.
A. command B. knowledge C. insight D. proficiency
Question 15: They ______ the proposal and decided to give it their approval.
A. talked over B. look out C. take over D. send out
Question 16: In Vietnam, each academic year starts in September and is ______ into two terms.
A. shared B. consisted C. divided D. educated
Question 17: I couldn't help ______ at his jokes.
A. talking B. laughing C. making D. staying
Question 18: You're always ______ excuses for not helping me with chores.
A. making B. warning C. sending D. building
Question 19: I come from a city ______ in the southern part of the country.
A. is locating B. locating C. is located D. located
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the un-
derlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: The most important thing is to keep yourself occupied.
A. busy B. comfortable C. free D. relaxed
Question 21: It is our case that he was reckless and negligent in the way he drove.
A. inharmonious B. ingenious C. intangible D. incautious
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: With the final examinations coming very soon his anxiety was rising to almost unbearable
limits.
A. joy B. confidence C. boredom D. apprehension
Question 23: The captain ordered the soldiers to gather on the double even though they were sleeping.
A. willingly B. immediately C. slowly D. intensively
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the
following exchanges.
Question 24: - Customer: “Can I try this jumper on?” - Salesgirl: “______”
A. No, the shop is closed in half an hour. B. Sorry, only cash is accepted here.
C. Yes, it costs one hundred and fifty dollars. D. Sure, the changing rooms are over there.
Question 25: - Tim: “What are you going to do for the vacation?” - Tom: “______”
A. That sounds great.
B. How about you? What will you do?
C. I’m not sure, but I might go camping for a few days.
D. I will take some tests.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
The United States of America, due to its immense size and diverse heritage, has one of the most
complex cultural identities in the world. Millions of immigrants from all over the globe have journeyed to
America (26) ______ the Europeans discovered and colonised the land back in the 17th and 18th centuries.
The blending of cultural (27) ______ and ethnicities in America led to the country becoming known as a
“melting pot.” As the third largest country in both area and population, America’s size has enabled the
formation of subcultures within the country. These subcultures are often geographical as a result of settlement
(28) ______ by non-natives as well as regional weather and landscape differences. While there are countless
ways to divide the U.S. into regions, here we have referenced the four regions that are West, Midwest, North
East and South. People from (29) ______ region may have different lifestyles, cultural values, business
practices and dialects. While there are qualities and values (30) ______ most Americans commonly share, it is
important not to generalise or assume that all Americans think or act the same way.
(Adapted from https://www.londonschool.com/)
Question 26: A. because B. as C. for D. since
Question 27: A. backgrounds B. reference C. expression D. importance
Question 28: A. chapter B. revenue C. patterns D. unions
Question 29: A. each B. other C. all D. another
Question 30: A. when B. that C. why D. who
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
Most Americans have at least some daily interaction with people who do not share their race or
ethnicity, but relatively small shares say they have a lot of interaction. This is particularly the case for whites
interacting with racial or ethnic minorities and nonwhites interacting with minority groups other than their
own.
About a quarter of white adults say they interact with blacks and Hispanics a lot in their day-to-day life.
Among blacks, 26% say they have a lot of interaction with people who are Hispanic, while one-in-five
Hispanics say they have frequent interaction with people who are black. About one in-ten whites, blacks and
Hispanics say they interact with Asians a lot in their daily life.
A majority of Asians say they have frequent daily interaction with whites, more than the share of blacks
and Hispanics who say the same. About one-in-four Asians say they have a lot of interaction with people who
are Hispanic and 15% say the same about people who are black.
Asians are less likely than whites, blacks and Hispanics to say they have a lot of interaction with people
in their own group. The extent to which Americans interact with various racial or ethnic groups reflects, at
least in part, the shares of each group in the population.
(Adapted from https://www.pewsocialtrends.org/)
Question 31: Which could be the best title for the passage?
A. Americans’ everyday interaction
B. Interaction between people from other racial and ethnic groups
C. Hispanics’ frequent interaction
D. What does Asians’ interaction reflect?
Question 32: The word “their” in paragraph 1 refers to ______.
A. whites B. ethnic minorities C. nonwhites D. minority groups
Question 33: According to the passage, the percentage of white adults saying they interact with blacks and
Hispanics a lot in their everyday life is ______.
A. 50% B. 26% C. 20% D. 25%
Question 34: The word “frequent” in paragraph 2 mostly means ______.
A. regular B. reliable C. angry D. sincere
Question 35: Which of the following is TRUE about Hispanics’ daily interaction?
A. They have the same daily interaction with Asians and blacks.
B. They have no interaction with blacks.
C. They have the same daily interaction with whites and blacks.
D. They have no interaction with Asians.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
There are several ways to measure how often men and women appear in news photos. One way is to
think about all the photos together as making up one big crowd of people and estimating what share are
women versus men. Women made up 33% of all the 53,067 individuals identified in news post images, while
men made up the other 67%.
Another way to look at the data is to examine the mix of people who appear in each image. Across the
22,342 posts with photos containing identifiable human faces, more than half of them exclusively showed
men, while less than a quarter showed exclusively women. The remaining images show at least one man and
one woman.
All 17 news outlets included in the study showed more men than women in news images on Facebook
during the study period. The share of individuals who were identified as women by the model ranges from
25% to 46%, by outlet.
While these findings are striking, there is no perfect benchmark or “true ratio” for how often men and
women should be portrayed in news images on social media. Yes, the U.S. population is divided nearly in
half, male versus female. But, for example, all the representational coverage of professional football teams
would return results overwhelmingly dominated by male faces. Coverage of the U.S. Senate – currently 25%
female – might do the same. In addition, the analysis did not address whether the content of the news stories
that accompanied the images was more focused on men or women.
The analysis also reveals other ways that men are more prominent in news images on Facebook. In
photos that showed two or more people, men tend to outnumber women. And men’s faces take up more space
when shown, with the average male face being 10% larger than the average female face across all photos with
people.
(Adapted from https://www.pewresearch.org/)
Question 36: Which is the most suitable title for the passage?
A. Big Crowd of People and the Share of Women and Men
B. Men and Women in News Images by Outlet
C. Men Appear Twice as Often as Women in News Photos on Facebook
D. The analysis of news images on Facebook
Question 37: According to paragraph 2, how many of the 22,342 posts with photos containing identifiable
human faces showed only women?
A. 25% B. 33% C. 75% D. 46%
Question 38: The word “exclusively” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. perfectly B. uniquely C. honestly D. naturally
Question 39: The word “striking” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. impressive B. impartial C. creative D. inactive
Question 40: Which statement is TRUE, according to the passage?
A. Women accounted for 67% of all the 53,067 individuals identified in news post images.
B. More than half of the 22,342 posts with photos show at least one man and one woman.
C. Currently 25% of the U.S. Senate are female.
D. Women’s faces take up more space when shown.
Question 41: The word “that” in paragraph 4 refers to ______.
A. the analysis B. the content C. the images D. the news stories
Question 42: According to the passage, what may be the reason why men are more prominent in news
images?
A. Women are whiter than men. B. Men’s face was bigger than women’s.
C. Women didn’t like taking photos. D. Men didn’t make up.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.
Question 43: The assumption that smoking has bad effects on our health have been proved.
A. smoking B. bad effects C. on D. have been proved
Question 44: Collecting stamps, watching football, and walk every afternoon are my favourite activities.
A. Collecting B. football C. walk D. are
Question 45: Chocolate is prepared by a complexity process of cleaning, blending and roasting cocoa beans,
which must be ground and mixed with sugar.
A. complexity B. blending C. must be D. mixed
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 46: In population, Los Angeles is not as big as New York.
A. Los Angeles is more densely populated than New York.
B. New York is not as crowded as Los Angeles.
C. New York is bigger than Los Angeles in population.
D. New York is bigger than Los Angeles.
Question 47: “I will not sit up until I feel better,” the man said.
A. The man said that he hadn’t sit up until I feel better.
B. The man said that I would not sit up until he felt better.
C. The man said that I didn’t sit up until I feel better.
D. The man said that he would not sit up until he felt better.
Question 48: If I were you, I would invest more on this project.
A. You mustn’t invest more on this project.
B. You should invest more on this project.
C. You cannot invest more on this project.
D. You may invest more on this project.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: You can use my mobile. Make sure you don’t change the setting.
A. You can’t use my mobile unless you don’t change the setting.
B. You can use my mobile if you don’t change the setting.
C. You can’t use my mobile in case you don’t change the setting.
D. You can use my mobile provided you change the setting.
Question 50: I didn’t recognize my uncle. I did after he raised his voice only.
A. Not until I recognized my uncle did he raise his voice.
B. My uncle raised his voice as soon as I recognized him.
C. Only after my uncle raised his voice did I recognize him.
D. No sooner had I recognized my uncle than he raised his voice.
--------------------HẾT--------------------
ĐỀ THI THỬ TỐT NGHIỆP THPT NĂM 2021
ĐỀ SỐ 44
Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. planes B. fuels C. crimes D. dumps
Question 2: A. slow B. town C. how D. powder
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in
the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. garbage B. household C. allow D. follow
Question 4: A. confidence B. computer C. indicate D. maximum
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5: She'll have less time to study if she ______ a part-time job.
A. takes B. took C. take D. had taken
Question 6: Scientists developed the Internet when they ______ for a way to create a national computer
communication network.
A. are looking B. will walk C. has been walking D. were looking
Question 7: They need to spend more time ______ customer relations.
A. improving B. to improve C. improve D. improved
Question 8: The man ______ to the hospital after the accident has recovered quickly.
A. sending B. having sent C. sent D. was sent
Question 9: Internet and social networks help us easily interact ______ people all over the world.
A. out B. to C. for D. with
Question 10: She will send me the design of my new house ______.
A. after she had finished it B. while she was finishing it
C. as soon as she has finished it D. before she finished it
Question 11: They haven’t finished their homework, ______?
A. do they B. haven’t they C. don’t they D. have they
Question 12: They certainly knew that their task was difficult ______ two previous attempts had failed.
A. because B. although C. in spite of D. because of
Question 13: It was such a ______ victory that even Smith’s fans couldn’t believe it.
A. surprised B. surprising C. surprise D. surprisingly
Question 14: ______ are that stock price will go up in the coming months.
A. Chances B. Opportunities C. Possibilities D. Conditions
Question 15: I really enjoy being with my father. He has got a really good ______ of humour.
A. sense B. way C. mood D. feeling
Question 16: The biggest fear is that humans might ______ control over robots.
A. gain B. keep C. lose D. take
Question 17: The Japanese market ______ 35 per cent of the company's revenue.
A. let in B. care for C. take in D. accounts for
Question 18: The customer said she'd like this coat if it was ______ nicer colour.
A. a B. an C. the D. Ø (no article)
Question 19: The talks were meant to break down ______ between the two groups.
A. gates B. walls C. barriers D. fences
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the un-
derlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: By the end of the storm, the hikers had depleted even their emergency stores.
A. lost B. greatly dropped C. destroyed D. used almost all of
Question 21: Her parents are growing increasingly concerned by her erratic behaviour.
A. answerable B. angelic C. anxious D. ancestral
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: This product is hazardous to the eyes and should be kept out of reach of children.
A. dangerous B. useful C. safe D. interesting
Question 23: After their long-standing conflict had been resolved, the two families decided to bury the
hatchet.
A. become enemies B. become friends C. give up weapons D. reach an agreement
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the
following exchanges.
Question 24: - May: "From my point of view, all family members should share the chores equally." - Tam:
“______”
A. It's a breathtaking view. B. You lied to me.
C. But you're right. D. There's no doubt about it.
Question 25: - Nam: “Would you like something to drink?” - Hoa: “______”
A. Could I have some water? B. For sure.
C. I didn’t. D. That’s right.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
A large majority of Americans believe that social media companies favor some news organizations over
others. About eight-in-ten U.S. adults say social media sites treat some news organizations differently than
others, about five times the share saying all news organizations are treated the same.
Social media companies do have established policies (26) ______ it comes to publishers, including
prioritizing certain news sources, banning or limiting others that produce lower-quality content, and using
their monetization policies to discourage particular behaviors.
Among those U.S. adults (27) ______ say social media companies treat some news organizations
differently than others, there is broad agreement that they (28) ______ three types: those that produce
attention-grabbing articles, those with a high number of social media followers and those whose coverage has
a certain political stance.
While large social media companies have announced (29) ______ to favor high-quality news publishers
in an effort to improve the news on their sites, (30) ______ who say some news organizations are treated
differently believe social media companies favor organizations that are well-established, have high reporting
standards or have politically neutral coverage.
(Adapted from https://www.journalism.org/)
Question 26: A. despite B. when C. during D. since
Question 27: A. who B. why C. whom D. when
Question 28: A. appear B. obtain C. accept D. favor
Question 29: A. intentions B. conclusions C. initiatives D. signatures
Question 30: A. fewer B. most C. more D. a lot of
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
Just as you designate and separate your physical workspace, you should be clear about when you’re
working and when you’re not. You’ll get your best work done and be most ready to transition back to the
office if you stick with your regular hours. Plus, if your role is collaborative, being on the same schedule as
your coworkers makes everything much easier.
“The biggest difference between working from home and working in the office is that you are in charge
of your environment and have to treat yourself like an employee,” Yurovsky says. This means holding
yourself accountable, but also recognizing when enough is enough, just as a good manager might. “If you
feel yourself extending your work hours because you are not doing anything in the evening...tell yourself it’s
time to put work away, recharge, and start tomorrow with a fresh mind. The work will be there in the
morning.”
If you live with other people, this separation is even more critical. Communicate with the people whom
you live with to establish boundaries so you can cut down on distractions during the workday—and then
disconnect and give the people you care about your full attention. Having a separate time and space to work
will allow you to be more present in your home life.
(Adapted from https://www.themuse.com/)
Question 31: Which could be the best title for the passage?
A. Get Your Best Work Done B. Co-workers Makes Everything Easier
C. Put off Your Work until Tomorrow Morning D. Keep Clearly Defined Working Hours
Question 32: The word “accountable” in paragraph 2 mostly means ______.
A. colourful B. responsible C. proficient D. exclusive
Question 33: According to the passage, if you work on the same schedule as your co-workers, your work
may be ______.
A. easier B. more regular C. readier D. more collaborative
Question 34: Which of the following is TRUE about advice for those who work from home at night?
A. People should try to work more as they are free at night.
B. People should continue working, they are at home.
C. People should take a rest and come back tomorrow.
D. People should finish thier work now or it will not be there tomorrow.
Question 35: The word “whom” in paragraph 3 refers to ______.
A. separation B. boundaries C. people D. attention
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
Today, Snyder is seeing the fruits of the collaboration. In a recent issue of the Journal of Comparative
Psychology (Vol. 117, No. 3), the research group published the first study of giant panda cub-rearing and
separation. The study is the first step in examining the impact of a common breeding practice in China:
separating captive cubs before they are six months old so that the mothers will be able to reproduce again
sooner. Cubs in the wild stay with their mothers for 1.5 to 2.5 years.
Snyder and her co-authors, including Maple and psychologist Mollie Bloomsmith, PhD, theorize that
separating cubs from their mothers too early may harm their social development, and could underlie why so
many captive pandas fail to breed. Captive males often show little sexual interest in females or are too
aggressive.
The research team has also conducted urinary and behavioral analyses of female giant pandas during
the breeding season, which is generally in the spring, and is examining the behavior of giant panda mothers.
Graduate student Megan Wilson, who also has worked in Chengdu, is investigating sequences of play-
fighting for her dissertation. And former graduate student and Chengdu researcher Loraine Tarou, PhD,
examined giant panda cognition.
Tarou, now an assistant professor at Grand Valley State University in Michigan, is the first to examine
how captive pandas forage for food and learn to adapt to changes in their environment. She compared her
findings with the cognition of the spectacled bear and found that while both use spatial memory to find food,
the spectacled bears used visual cues the pandas did not pick up on.
The finding indicates that giant pandas' reliance on spatial memory alone may cause them to have
difficulty when their food sources are abruptly changed or moved--a big problem for an animal that consumes
nearly 30 pounds of bamboo a day.
While such basic research may not have immediate application, says Tarou, it is contributing to
scientists' growing knowledge of the species.
(Adapted from https://www.apa.org/)
Question 36: Which is the most suitable title for the passage?
A. Learning about pandas B. Understanding breeding practice of pandas
C. Snyder and her co-authors’ theory D. How captive pandas forage for food
Question 37: The word “underlie” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. obtain B. generate C. explain D. develop
Question 38: According to paragraph 3, what analyses has been done on female giant pandas during the
breeding season?
A. spatial memory analyses B. environment interaction analyses
C. food analyses D. urinary and behavioral analyses

Question 39: The word “conducted” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.


A. look for B. carry out C. get on D. set off
Question 40: Which statement is TRUE, according to the passage?
A. Captive panda cubs in China are often separated from mothers before they are six months.
B. Separating cubs from their mothers early may be beneficial to their social development.
C. Megan Wilson and Loraine Tarou examined panda breeding season.
D. A panda consumes nearly 300 pounds of bamboo a day.
Question 41: The word “them” in paragraph 5 refers to ______.
A. difficulties B. memories C. food sources D. giant pandas
Question 42: According to the passage, why is it difficult for giant pandas to forage for food?
A. They use visual cues only.
B. There are so many changes in their environment.
C. They depend too much on spatial memory.
D. They often pick up on unimportant information.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.
Question 43: Life is not easy for those who is without jobs.
A. Life B. easy for C. who is D. without jobs
Question 44: She took the bag, locked the door, and leaving the house after answering the phone.
A. took B. the C. leaving D. after
Question 45: Despite of the increase in air fares, most people still prefer to travel by plane.
A. Despite of B. in air fares C. most people D. to travel
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 46: The living room isn’t as big as the kitchen.
A. The living room is bigger than the kitchen.
B. The kitchen is smaller than the living room.
C. The kitchen is bigger than the living room.
D. The kitchen is not bigger than the living room.
Question 47: “I will play football with my friends after school,” Kevin said.
A. Kevin said I played football with his friends after school.
B. Kevin said that he would play football with his friends after school.
C. Kevin said that he had played football with my friends after school.
D. Kevin said I would play football with my friends after school.
Question 48: It isn’t necessary for you to write the essay now.
A. You don’t have to write the essay now. B. You should write the essay now.
C. You mustn’t write the essay now. D. You need write the essay now.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: You don’t understand the lesson. You keep talking in the class.
A. Unless you keep talking in the class, you won't understand the lesson.
B. Provided you kept talking in the class, you would understand the lesson.
C. As long as you kept talking in the class, you would understand the lesson.
D. If you keep talking in the class, you won't understand the lesson.
Question 50: My daughter couldn’t speak a word. She could do that when she was three.
A. Not until my daughter was three, she could speak a word.
B. It was before my daughter was three that she could speak a word.
C. Not until my daughter was three could she speak a word.
D. My daughter couldn’t speak a word even after she was three.
--------------------HẾT--------------------

ĐỀ THI THỬ TỐT NGHIỆP THPT NĂM 2021


ĐỀ SỐ 45
Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. hares B. rounds C. casts D. drains
Question 2: A. pear B. gear C. fear D. spear
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in
the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. police B. office C. advise D. suppose
Question 4: A. authentic B. decision C. official D. referee
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5: He ______ the race if he followed his brother's example and trained harder.
A. will win B. wins C. would win D. won
Question 6: When we met John last year, he ______ from Harvard already.
A. graduated B. has graduated C. had graduated D. will have graduated
Question 7: You knew his name and his address, ______?
A. haven’t you B. didn’t you C. wasn’t you D. aren’t you
Question 8: I have the greatest respect for his ideas ______ I don't agree with them.
A. although B. because of C. because D. in spite of
Question 9: When she died, she gave ______ all her money to a charity for cats.
A. set out B. put away C. give out D. give away
Question 10: Someone must have taken my phone. I clearly remember ______ it by the window and now it is
not there.
A. to have left B. having been left C. to leave D. leaving
Question 11: Little Women, ______ in 1868, is my favorite book.
A. is a novel publised B. a novel published
C. a novel was published D. was a novel published
Question 12: Most of my friends admire Milan as she can play ______ piano so beautifully.
A. a B. an C. the D. Ø (no article)
Question 13: She sent me a ______ letter thanking me for my invitation.
A. polite B. politeness C. politely D. impoliteness
Question 14: If we lose the case, we may be ______ for the costs of the whole trial.
A. compatible B. liable C. available D. accessible
Question 15: His grandfather suddenly slipped and fell ______.
A. since he has gone downstairs B. as he went downstairs
C. because he was going downstairs D. when he was going downstairs
Question 16: It is not easy to ______ our beauty when we get older and older.
A. maintain B. develop C. gain D. collect
Question 17: Management have granted a ten percent pay rise in ______ to union pressure.
A. signal B. response C. answer D. reply
Question 18: It tastes so ______ of the lemon that the other flavours were lost.
A. hardly B. forcefully C. fully D. strongly
Question 19: The former tennis star’s comeback trail ______ the buffers yesterday when she lost in straight
sets.
A. hit B. beat C. knit D. touch
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the un-
derlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: English, Maths and Literature are core subjects, which are compulsory in the national
examination.
A. minor B. main C. nonessential D. unimportant
Question 21: The article can be used to stimulate discussion among students.
A. discourage B. encourage C. decrease D. increase
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: She was brought up in a well-off family. She can’t understand the problems we are facing.
A. wealthy B. fine C. kind D. poor
Question 23: Sorry, I can’t come to your party. I am snowed under with work at the moment.
A. busy with B. relaxed about C. free from D. interested in
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the
following exchanges.
Question 24: Two friends Jane and Thomas are talking about their final term test.
- Jane: “I’ve been half ready for the final term test.” - Thomas: “_______”
A. Thank you so much. B. You are welcome!
C. Then, I’d call it a day. D. Incredible! I haven’t even started.
Question 25: James and Kate are in a café.
- James: “______”
- Kate: “Thank you. Could I have a cup of coffee?”
A. Will you buy tea or coffee on the way home? B. Do you want something to eat right now?
C. Would you like something to drink? D. Are you tired after a long journey?
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
On April 17, the government launched a taskforce designed to "rapidly develop a coronavirus vaccine",
as well as scale up manufacturing so it can be quickly produced and delivered in (26) ______ quantities.
It will be led by Sir Patrick Vallance and Professor Jonathan van Tam, the deputy chief medical officer,
and members will include AstraZeneca and the Wellcome Trust.
The government has initially (27) ______ £14m to plough into 21 coronavirus research projects – (28)
______ the work by the scientists at the University of Oxford and Imperial College London. Today’s
announcement of a further £44.5 million for the Oxford and Imperial trials increases this funding further still.
In America, the US government had committed to a $1 billion (£800m) Covid-19 vaccine deal with
Titan Johnson & Johnson, co-financing research through the Biomedical Advanced Research and
Development Authority (Barda).
Human trials on the vaccine have already started in the US - breaking records for the speed with (29)
______ such trials can get off the ground. Healthy volunteers in America are being given the new-generation
“genetic hack” (30) ______ it bypassed standard animal testing as part of a highly-accelerated process.
(Adapted from https://www.telegraph.co.uk/)
Question 26: A. fresh B. sturdy C. mass D. well
Question 27: A. investigated B. remarked C. recommended D. earmarked
Question 28: A. towards B. such as C. through D. likewise
Question 29: A. which B. who C. where D. when
Question 30: A. although B. after C. in spite of D. as
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
In 2007, at a heavily hyped press event in San Francisco, Apple co-founder Steve Jobs stood on stage
and unveiled a revolutionary product that not only broke the mould but also set an entirely new paradigm for
computer-based phones. The look, interface and core functionality of nearly every smartphone to come along
since is, in some form or another, derived from the original iPhone’s innovative touchscreen-centric design.
Among some of the ground-breaking features was an expansive and responsive display from which to
check email, stream video, play audio, and browse the internet with a mobile browser that loaded full
websites, much like what is experienced on personal computers. Apple’s unique iOS operating system
allowed for a wide range of intuitive gesture-based commands and eventually, a rapidly growing warehouse
of downloadable third-party applications.
Most importantly, the iPhone reoriented people’s relationship with smartphones. Up to then, they were
generally geared toward businesspeople and enthusiasts who saw them as an invaluable tool for staying
organized, corresponding over email, and boosting their productivity. Apple’s version took it to a whole other
level as a full-blown multimedia powerhouse, enabling users to play games, watch movies, chat, share
content, and stay connected to all the possibilities that we are all still constantly rediscovering.
(Adapted from https://www.thoughtco.com/)
Question 31: Which could be the best title for the passage?
A. Apple co-founder Steve Jobs B. press event in San Francisco
C. Apple’s unique iOS operating system D. Apple’s iPhone

Question 32: The word “paradigm” in paragraph 1 mostly means ______.


A. media B. pattern C. role D. area
Question 33: According to the passage, the new iPhone does not have ______.
A. new look B. interface C. excellent sound D. core functionality
Question 34: The word “that” in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. mobile browser B. internet C. email D. audio
Question 35: Which of the following is TRUE about the iPhone as stated in the passage?
A. It reoriented people’s relationship with smartphones.
B. It’s the best choice for many organizers.
C. Its producers were located all over the world.
D. It’s used popularly by games in the US.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
Obesity is associated with a shorter lifespan and with an increased risk of many chronic diseases. The
good news is that just being somewhat overweight does not reduce your longevity, and for those over the age of
65, it is actually better to be on the high side of normal than the low side.
A 2018 study (part of the Framingham heart study) looked at body mass index and mortality over a period
of 24 years. For those who were obese, people that had a body mass index of 30 to 35 had a 27% increase in
mortality, and those who had a body mass index of 35 to 40 had a 93% increase.
What weight is ideal? Among those who were overweight but not obese (had a body mass index
between 25 and 30), mortality was only increased among those who also smoked. People with a body mass
index on the high side of normal (e.g. 24) had the lowest mortality.
There isn't any real magic when it comes to maintaining (or getting to) a normal body mass index.
Eating a healthy diet, not too much and avoiding empty calorie, and exercising daily, even if it's fun activities
such as gardening, are the true "secret."
In the past, eating breakfast was stressed as necessary for optimal health. Research is now changing that
thought, and intermittent fasting (going for 13 or more hours each day without eating) may have some benefits.
Though the concept and research to back it up are young, intermittent fasting may help with weight loss and
appears to have benefits in cancer risk reduction as well.
If you are struggling, talk with your doctor. But keep in mind that fad diets do not work, and your
greatest chance of success lies in adopting long-term healthy eating patterns and engaging in regular physical
activity for life.
(Adapted from https://www.verywellhealth.com/)
Question 36: Which is the most suitable title for the passage?
A. Knowledge of Obesity B. Body Mass Index and Mortality
C. Is your breakfast really important? D. Maintaining a Healthy Body Weight
Question 37: The word “that” in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. people B. obese C. mortality D. study
Question 38: According to paragraph 2, what is the increase in mortality for those who have a body mass
index of 30 to 35?
A. 27% B. 30% C. 40% D. 93%
Question 39: The word “maintaining” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. complaining B. distributing C. preserving D. involving
Question 40: According to the passage, what does the new research tell about our breakfasts?
A. They are unnecessary. B. Breakfasts give more stress.
C. Intermittent fasting may do us good. D. We should go out without eating breakfasts.
Question 41: The word “optimal” in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. glamorous B. superlative C. motivated D. envious
Question 42: Which statement is TRUE, according to the passage?
A. Being somewhat overweight does reduce your longevity.
B. Among those who were overweight, smoking increases mortality.
C. Eating a healthy diet does not mean avoiding empty calorie.
D. Greatest chance of success is fad diets.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.
Question 43: If nobody have bought that car from the dealer, you should return and make another offer.
A. have bought B. the dealer C. should return D. make
Question 44: My father used to smoke very much, drink regularly, and coming home late at night.
A. used to B. drink C. coming D. late
Question 45: Experiments show that, for a bird, doing a bird nest is as instinctive as feeding.
A. Experiments B. doing C. as instinctive as D. feeding
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 46: I have never met anyone who is more intelligent than Mr. Ba.
A. Mr. Ba is the most intelligent man I have ever met.
B. The more I meet Mr. Ba, the more intelligent he seems to be.
C. Mr. Ba is the most intelligent man in the world.
D. Nobody in the world is as intelligent as Mr. Ba.
Question 47: “I have asked my parents for advice,” Tim said.
A. Tim said that I asked my parents for advice.
B. Tim said that he had asked his parents for advice.
C. Tim said that he would ask his parents for advice.
D. Tim said that I had asked my parents for advice.
Question 48: Perhaps the boy will stay at school late today.
A. The boy can stay at school late today. B. The boy should stay at school late today.
C. The boy may stay at school late today. D. The boy must stay at school late today.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: You can use the TV. Make sure you don’t watch violent videos.
A. You can’t use the TV if you don’t watch violent videos.
B. You can’t use the TV in case you don’t watch violent videos.
C. You can use the TV provided you don’t watch violent videos.
D. You can use the TV unless you don’t watch violent videos.
Question 50: They left the concert hall. The fire alarm went off right afterwards.
A. They left the concert hall just as the fire alarm went off.
B. The fire alarm had gone off before they left the concert hall.
C. They were leaving the concert hall when the fire alarm went off.
D. No sooner had they left the concert hall than the fire alarm went off.
--------------------HẾT--------------------

ĐỀ THI THỬ TỐT NGHIỆP THPT NĂM 2021


ĐỀ SỐ 46
Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. souls B. wears C. rights D. deans
Question 2: A. none B. home C. come D. month
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in
the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. perform B. invent C. attempt D. motion
Question 4: A. volunteer B. lawmaker C. citadel D. dietary
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5: You will get a good seat if you ______ first.
A. come B. came C. would come D. will come
Question 6: I saw a terrible accident while I ______ on the beach.
A. am walking B. walked C. was walking D. were walking
Question 7: The boy insisted on ______ a break after lunch.
A. having B. to have C. had D. have
Question 8: You couldn't help me with my homework, ______?
A. could you B. couldn't you C. will you D. won’t you
th
Question 9: Columbus discovered America ______ the 15 century.
A. on B. at C. in D. to
Question 10: ______ sand covers only about 20 percent of Earth's deserts.
A. a B. an C. the D. Ø (no article)
Question 11: They had sold out all the tickets ______.
A. because we have arrived at the theater B. when we arrived at the theater
C. in case we had arrived at the theater D. until we were arriving at the theater
Question 12: We didn’t go anywhere yesterday ______ the rain.
A. in spite of B. though C. because D. because of
Question 13: One recent ______ in medicine is the development of laser in treating cancer.
A. achieving B. achievement C. achievable D. achieved
Question 14: There has been a ______ in Germany and a village was completely destroyed.
A. flood B. shower C. drizzle D. smog
Question 15: He found it impossible to bear the ______ of a nomadic life.
A. amenities B. sourness C. harshness D. happiness
Question 16: Liam had no difficulty in ______ into use the ideal plans her friends had prepared for her.
A. lending B. taking C. putting D. heading
Question 17: The man ______ to the policeman has just returned home from Paris.
A. talking B. is talking C. talked D. is talked
Question 18: She ______ and nursed her mother for many years up to the time of her death.
A. take after B. start over C. looked after D. go over
Question 19: If you want to hit him where it ______, tell him he's looking a bit fat.
A. picks B. hurts C. walks D. touches
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the un-
derlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: Students from that university have conducted a survey to find out the most effective study
habit.
A. organized B. delayed C. encouraged D. proposed
Question 21: There is concern about several confidential documents which have gone missing.
A. attentive B. secretive C. diplomatic D. healthy
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: The government is not prepared to tolerate this situation any longer.
A. disallow B. discourage C. discount D. distinguish
Question 23: Fruit and vegetables grew in abundance on the island. The islanders even exported the surplus.
A. large quantity B. small quantity C. excess D. sufficiency
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the
following exchanges.
Question 24: Mary and her friend, Encobeill, are in a coffee shop.
- Mary: “Would you like Matcha ice-cream or Caramen?” - Encobeill: “______”
A. Thanks, that’s fine. B. Yes, I’d love too.
C. It doesn’t matter. D. Neither is fine. They are good.
Question 25: Hana and Jenifer are talking about a book they have just read.
- Hana: “The book is really interesting and educational.” - Jenifer: “______”
A. That’s nice of you to say so. B. I’d love it.
C. Don’t mention it. D. I couldn’t agree more.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
Wind is a clean source of renewable energy that produces no air or water pollution. And since the wind
is free, operational costs are nearly zero (26) ______ a turbine is erected. Mass production and technology
advances are making turbines cheaper, and (27) ______ governments offer tax incentives to spur wind-energy
development.
Drawbacks include complaints from (28) ______ that wind turbines are ugly and noisy. The slowly
rotating blades can also kill birds and bats, but not nearly as many as cars, power lines, and high-rise
buildings do. The wind is also variable: If it's not blowing, there's no electricity generated.
Nevertheless, the wind energy industry is (29) ______ . Thanks to global efforts to combat climate
change, such as the Paris Agreement, renewable energy is seeing a boom in growth, in (30) ______ wind
energy has led the way. From 2000 to 2015, cumulative wind capacity around the world increased from
17,000 megawatts to more than 430,000 megawatts. In 2015, China also surpassed the EU in the number of
installed wind turbines and continues to lead installation efforts.
(Adapted from https://www.nationalgeographic.com/)
Question 26: A. so that B. though C. therefore D. once
Question 27: A. many B. little C. much D. a little
Question 28: A. foreigners B. masters C. locals D. levels
Question 29: A. worrying B. booming C. informing D. relating
Question 30: A. who B. when C. why D. which
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
Market research analysts help companies figure out what to sell, who will buy their products and
services, and how to promote them. They design surveys that are used to help discover potential customers'
preferences. These marketing professionals then train and supervise interviewers who conduct these surveys
online, by telephone, or through interviews with individuals or focus groups.
In addition to taking surveys, market research analysts are responsible for keeping track of client
industry trends and general marketing trends, as well as forecasting these markets to provide companies with
proposals and information of the products, services, promotions and all relevant data to help management in
their marketing decisions.
There are now new tools that analysts can use, such as geofencing, which uses GPS or similar
technology to build a virtual fence around a business and offer targeted advertisements to a customer’s phone
as he or she walks through a store. Eye-tracking, which monitors how your eye travels around a website, is
another technology market research analysts use.
The process of collecting and analysing data is logical and quantifiable; figuring out why target
audiences might be attracted to a particular product is not. This is why some of the most successful market
analysts seem to understand human emotions and psychology as much as they understand logic.
(Adapted from https://www.careerexplorer.com/)
Question 31: Which could be the best title for the passage?
A. How to Buy Products and Services
B. What are Market Research Analysts Responsible for?
C. New Tools for Analysts to Use
D. What does a Market Research Analyst do?
Question 32: The word “who” in paragraph 1 refers to ______.
A. professionals B. interviewers C. individuals D. focus groups
Question 33: Which of the following is NOT true about market research analysts’ task as stated in the
passage?
A. They purchase opponents’ relevant products.
B. They take many surveys to get information.
C. They keep track of general marketing trends.
D. They forecast the markets to help management make decision.
Question 34: According to the passage, analysts can use new tools like geofencing to ______.
A. make new technology similar to GPS B. build a virtual fence around a business
C. offer cheap advertisements to customers D. observe customer’s phones
Question 35: The word “particular” in paragraph 4 mostly means ______.
A. energetic B. sensitive C. specific D. decisive
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
In 1928 the decision was made to stop constructing the statue of Christ of the Redeemer and to review
the project on a more solid basis. It must be said that in the meantime the sketch of the project had spread
widely, which was not abnormal in the country of football. If one adds the technical difficulties in making
such a statue one comes to the conclusion that it is necessary to see everything again and make a different
statue.
Da Silva Costa then went to Europe to meet the artists who had managed to make such statues. He
surrounded himself with different people: the artist Carlos Oswald resumed the general form: Christ would be
himself the cross, his outstretched arms signifying the redemption of mankind at the crucifixion. Such a statue
required considerable effort, so traditional materials such as cast iron or copper could not be used. It was a
new material that was chosen, something innovative: concrete. But nobody really knew how to dose it, how to
use it. Silva Costa asked Albert Caquot, a French engineer, to take on the role of the designer of internal
architecture. It is he who will make the concrete part, as well as all the calculations that go with it.
Da Silva Costa asked Antoine Bourdelle, who had worked with Rodin and who was one of those
approached to make a model a 4m high ladder from Oswald's drawings. But it did not end with him, and
finally it was the French sculptor Paul Landowski, of Polish origin, who was chosen as responsible for the
construction of the monument. He asked Gheorghe Leonida, a Romanian sculptor, to take care of the face of
Christ, a delicate operation, but otherwise the spots were simple: Silva Costa was the designer of the statue,
Carlos Oswald the draftsman, Paul Landowski the sculptor, aided by Gheorghe Leonida. But there was still a
problem to be solved: We still did not know how to make a concrete architecture so imposing, so there was a
link in the chain.
(Adapted from https://www.wonders-of-the-world.net/)
Question 36: Which is the most suitable title for the passage?
A. Brazil – the country of football B. Project redesign of Christ the Redeemer
C. Considerable effort to make the statue D. French sculptor Paul Landowski
Question 37: According to the passage, why did it seem necessary to see everything again and make a
different statue?
A. The project had technical difficulties. B. No one knew the sketch of the project.
C. It’s not suitable in the country of football. D. The project brought about no conclusion.
Question 38: The word “dose” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. manage B. replace C. qualify D. make
Question 39: Which statement is TRUE, according to the passage?
A. The construction of the statue of Christ of the Redeemer was stopped due to lack of finances.
B. The artist Carlos Oswald assumed Christ would be himself with his outstretched arms.
C. Silva Costa took on the role of the designer of internal architecture.
D. Antoine Bourdelle was chosen as responsible for the construction of the monument.
Question 40: The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. concrete part B. calculations C. new material D. cast iron or copper
Question 41: According to paragraph 3, who helped Paul Landowski with the sculpture?
A. Rodin B. Silva Costa C. Carlos Oswald D. Gheorghe Leonida
Question 42: The word “imposing” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. harmonious B. dangerous C. impressive D. glamorous
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.
Question 43: Each of the members of the group were made to write a report every week.
A. the members B. were C. to write D. every week
Question 44: Learning English gives us happiness, improves ourselves, and increasing mental flexibility.
A. Learning B. happiness C. improves D. increasing
Question 45: Many young people lack skills, good education, and financial to settle in the urban areas where
many jobs are found.
A. lack skills B. financial C. urban areas D. are found
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 46: More petrol is consumed nowadays than ten years ago.
A. Not so much petrol was consumed ten years ago as nowadays.
B. Petrol consumption is going down nowadays.
C. We had more petrol ten years ago than we do nowadays.
D. We should consume as much petrol as possible.
Question 47: “I attend the meeting with the management every week,” Tom said.
A. Tom said that he would attend the meeting with the management every week.
B. Tom said that I had attended the meeting with the management every week.
C. Tom said that I attended the meeting with the management every week.
D. Tom said that he attended the meeting with the management every week.
Question 48: It isn't necessary for you to go to the meeting today.
A. You won’t go to the meeting today. B. You should go the meeting today
C. You don’t have to go to the meeting today. D. You must go to the meeting today.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: His friends encouraged him. He did well in the competition.
A. If his friends had encouraged him, he couldn’t have done so well in the competition.
B. No matter how much his friends encouraged him, he couldn’t do well in the competition.
C. Such were his friends’ encouragement that he couldn’t do well in the competition.
D. Had it not been for his friends’ encouragement, he couldn’t have done so well in the competition.
Question 50: I tasted the soup. I then realized that I had seasoned it with too much salt.
A. It was not until I tasted the soup did I realize that I had seasoned it with too much salt.
B. As soon as I realized that I had seasoned it with too much salt, I tasted it.
C. Only after tasting the soup did I realize that I had seasoned it with too much salt.
D. Hardly had I seasoned the soup with too much salt when I tasted it.
--------------------HẾT--------------------
ĐỀ THI THỬ TỐT NGHIỆP THPT NĂM 2021
ĐỀ SỐ 47
Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. roasts B. solves C. trains D. cures
Question 2: A. stays B. says C. plays D. lays
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in
the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. social B. culture C. walking D. attract
Question 4: A. secondary B. national C. admission D. physical
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5: Do you know exactly ______ number of Siberian tigers in China?
A. a B. an C. the D. Ø (no article)
Question 6: Your son and you have been to Europe, ______?
A. have you B. do you C. haven’t you D. didn’t you
Question 7: If ______ measures are not taken immediately, there will be more teenagers smoking in the near
future.
A. necessary B. necessity C. necessarily D. unnecessarily
Question 8: A century ago, there was hardly an educated woman ______ this part of the world.
A. with B. on C. at D. in
Question 9: We used to live in ______ families with support from others but our relationships have changed.
A. extended B. expanded C. excepted D. excluded
Question 10: In most countries, photocopying books without the publisher’s permission is clearly a
copyright ______.
A. interference B. interpretation C. infringement D. infliction
Question 11: They are always ______ of what their children do.
A. support B. supporting C. supportive D. supportively
Question 12: Who will be in charge of the department when Sophie ______?
A. left B. leaves C. will leave D. would leave
Question 13: She was highly creative and talented. ______, success remained elusive for her.
A. Though B. However C. Because D. Thefore
Question 14: The diagrams ______ by young Faraday were sent to Davy in 1982.
A. making B. were making C. made D. were made
Question 15: If our teacher were here now, he ______ us with this difficult exercise.
A. would help B. will help C. helps D. has helped

Question 16: ______, he has continued to work on his thesis.


A. Although all these problems B. Even though there are problems
C. Despite of all these problems D. In spite of there are problems
Question 17: I'm not used to ______ an automatic car - I keep trying to change gear!
A. to drive B. driven C. driving D. drive
Question 18: Many organizations have been ______ drawing up the report on environmental campaigns.
A. involved in B. confined in C. enquired about D. concerned about
Question 19: You need your ______ examined if you're willing to spend that much on a pair of jeans.
A. brain B. mind C. head D. stomach
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the un-
derlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: Around 150 B.C. the Greek astronomer Hipparchus developed a system to classify stars
according to brightness.
A. record B. shine C. categorize D. diversify
Question 21: Before the advent of the railways, communications were slow and difficult.
A. import B. disappearance C. introduction D. arrival
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: Unless the two signatures are identical, the bank won’t honour the check.
A. genuine B. different C. fake D. similar
Question 23: She’s a bit down in the dumps because she’s got to take her exam again.
A. sad B. embarrassed C. confident D. happy
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the
following exchanges.
Question 24: - A: “Would you like me to send this package for you?” - B: “______”
A. That would be nice. Any problems? B. Yes, please, if you don’t mind.
C. I’m sorry, but here you are. D. No, thanks. I’m really busy.
Question 25: - Roger: “Wow! You look terrific in that new dress!” - Tina: “______”
A. Oh, what a pity! B. I’m afraid so!
C. Thank you. I’m glad you think so. D. Why dare you say so?
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
Christ the Redeemer is an Art Deco statue of Jesus Christ in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil, created by Polish-
French sculptor Paul Landowski and built by the Brazilian engineer Heitor da Silva Costa, in collaboration
with the French engineer Albert Caquot. The face was created by the Romanian (26) ______ Gheorghe
Leonida. The statue is 30 metres tall, not including its 8-metre pedestal, and its arms stretch 28 metres wide.
By (27) ______ , it is approximately two-thirds the height of the Statue of Liberty’s height from base to torch.
The statue weighs 635 metric tons (625 long, 700 short tons), and is (28) ______ at the peak of the 700-
metre Corcovado mountain in the Tijuca Forest National Park overlooking the city of Rio. A symbol of
Christianity across the world, the statue has also become a cultural icon of both Rio de Janeiro and Brazil, and
is listed as (29) ______ of the New Seven Wonders of the World. The statue, (30) ______ was constructed
between 1922 and 1931, is made of reinforced concrete and soapstone.
(Adapted from https://world.new7wonders.com/)
Question 26: A. artist B. guitarist C. stylist D. scientist
Question 27: A. package B. comparison C. pleasure D. occasion
Question 28: A. connected B. scratched C. located D. pointed
Question 29: A. other B. each C. another D. one
Question 30: A. why B. which C. who D. that
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
The first book fair was held in Frankfurt not many years after the first book came off of Gutenberg's
printing press in Mainz, just spitting distance away. For centuries, the city of Frankfurt has been a centre of
banking and commerce in Europe and references to the Frankfurter Messe date back to 1150. According to
some sources, book trade fairs have been held in Frankfurt since 1478 and have long been of international
importance. In his book, The History of the Frankfurt Book Fair, author Peter Weidhaas (a former director of
the fair, from 1975 - 2000), writes that King Henry VIII sent Sir Thomas Bodley as his personal emissary to
the Frankfurt Book Fair to purchase books for the new library at Oxford University.
But the book publishing trade in Frankfurt began to be hampered by the Catholic Counter-Reformation
religious movement when censorship was "...institutionalized in the form of the Index of Forbidden Books
and volumes of literature were now deemed inappropriate for public consumption." By the mid-seventeenth
century, Frankfurter Messe's pre-eminence as the centre of the book publishing trade had faded as the
Protestant-dominated city of Leipzig rose to be the centre of the book industry.
Frankfurt renewed its illustrious book fair history in September of 1949 when 205 German exhibitors
held the first post-World War II book fair. Since then, the Frankfurt Book Fair has grown to the huge
international publishing event it is today.
(Adapted from https://www.thebalancecareers.com/)
Question 31: Which could be the best title for the passage?
A. The History of the Frankfurt Book Fair B. Gutenberg's printing press in Mainz
C. Author Peter Weidhaas D. Emissary Thomas Bodley
Question 32: The word “spitting” in paragraph 1 mostly means ______.
A. very far B. very clean C. very near D. very dirty
Question 33: According to the passage, book trade fairs have been held in Frankfurt since ______.
A. 1150 B. 1949 C. 1975 D. 1478
Question 34: Which of the following is TRUE about the reason for the loss of Frankfurter Messe's pre-
eminence?
A. Book trade in Frankfurt didn’t develop.
B. Some books and volumes of literature were forbidden.
C. There was no censorship on books.
D. Book publishing was institutionalized.
Question 35: The word “its” in paragraph 3 refers to ______.
A. book fair B. Frankfurt C. history D. German exhibitor
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
That first year, Sydney made a really special effort to make Earth Hour a success. The famous Coca-
Cola sign at Kings Cross was switched off for the first time since 1973. Coke even had someone sitting in the
sign to make sure it went off properly. Many buildings also took Earth Hour as an opportunity to
permanently change their lighting system so most lights are switched off at night.
Around the city, all sorts of groups and people became involved. One group did yoga by candlelight,
Miss Vanessa did a drag show by torchlight; there was even a wedding by candlelight. 20,000 to 30,000
people were expected to take part. But in the end, 2.2 million people participated, or 56 percent of the Sydney
population. The following year, 58 percent took part.
"One of the reasons Earth Hour has been so successful is because anyone can take part and it’s self-
policing. We want it to be about hope not despair, and for the initiative to have a street party rather than a
street protest feel," explains Andy.
Andy says the broad global support for the event has created a "visual mandate for governments to lead
in the area of climate change. As individuals, we can only do so much; to really cut emissions, we need
government policy."
"The beauty of Earth Hour is that it is really the first time the entire world has been able to vote on how
they feel about climate change; anyone from kids upward can vote with their light switch on Earth Hour day. It
really shows the community wants action on climate change," he says.
In 2008, only the second year in Earth Hour’s history, 50 to 100 million people around the world
switched off their lights for one hour, the biggest voluntary power down in history. More than 370 cities,
towns and municipalities took part in more than 35 countries across seven continents, including Antarctica,
across more than 18 different time zones.
(Adapted from https://www.ipra.org/)
Question 36: Which is the most suitable title for the passage?
A. A huge success of Earth Hour B. Coca-Cola sign at Kings Cross
C. The reasons for Earth Hour D. Earth Hour’s history
Question 37: The word “opportunity” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. message B. failure C. quality D. chance
Question 38: According to paragraph 2, how many people took part in the first event of Earth Hour?
A. 2.2 million B. 20.000 C. 56 million D. 30.000
Question 39: The word “self-policing” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. self-detected B. self-aware C. self-assured D. self-selected

Question 40: The word “their” in paragraph 5 refers to ______.


A. emissions B. anyone C. kids D. actions
Question 41: Which statement is TRUE, according to the passage?
A. Coca-Cola sign at Kings Cross has never been switched off since 1973.
B. There was even a wedding by torchlight.
C. With Earth Hour, we do not need government policy.
D. The first Earth Hour event was held in 2007.
Question 42: According to the passage, how many countries took part in the second event of Earth Hour?
A. 18 B. 35 C. 50 D. 100
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.
Question 43: My close friends spends most of their free time helping the homeless people in the community.
A. close friends B. spends C. most of D. helping
Question 44: Watching football, learning English, and play with children make him happy every day.
A. learning B. play C. make D. every day
Question 45: A public spending programme is out of the question in the current economical climate.
A. spending programme B. out of C. the question D. economical
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 46: Needless to say, Mike is cleverer than other students in the class.
A. Needless to say, Mike is not so clever as other students in the class.
B. Needless to say, other students in the class are clever than Mike.
C. Needless to say, other students in the class is as clever as Mike.
D. Needless to say, Mike is the cleverest student in the class.
Question 47: “I will wait here until you come back,” Long said.
A. Long said that I would wait here until he came back
B. Long said that he would wait there until I came back.
C. Long said that he waited here until I came back.
D. Long said that I had waited there until he came back.
Question 48: Her daughter is able to play the piano very well.
A. Her daughter can play the piano very well.
B. Her daughter needn’t play the piano very well.
C. Her daughter must play the piano very well.
D. Her daughter couldn’t play the piano very well.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: You can go out with friends. Make sure you come home by 10 p.m.
A. You can’t go out with friends if you come home by 10 p.m.
B. You can go out with friends in case you don’t come home by 10 p.m.
C. You can go out with friends provided you don’t come home by 10 p.m.
D. You can’t go out with friends unless you come home by 10 p.m.
Question 50: He is very intelligent. He can solve all the problems in no time.
A. So intelligent a student is he that he can solve all the problems in no time.
B. An intelligent student is he that he can solve all the problems in no time.
C. So intelligent is he that he can solve all the problems in no time.
D. He is very intelligent that he can solve all the problems in no time.
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