1200 MCQs With Explanatory Notes For Polity Disha

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MCQs With Explanatory Notes

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MCQs With Explanatory Notes
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EBD_9432
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Contents
1. Constitutional Provisions 1 - 43
2. Constitutional Bodies 44 - 53
3. Union Government 54 - 94
4. State & Union Territory Government 95 - 105
5. Local Government 106 - 115
6. Statutory Bodies: Lok Pal/ Lokayukta, NDC, NITI Ayog & NHRC 116 - 119
7. Elections : Electoral System & Its Reform 120 - 122
8. Political Parties & Pressure Groups/Civil Society 123 - 125
9. World Polity/Miscellaneous 126-136

EBD_9432
Indian Polity
1 Constitutional Provisions
Making of Constitution: Its Development &
Constituent Assembly Ans. (d) The proposal for framing of the constitution of India by an
elected constituent assembly was made by British cabinet delegation.
1. What was the duration in the making of Indian
Constitution? 7. Who of the following has stated that ‘The Constitution has
(a) 1 Year 10 Months and 12 Days not been set in a right mould of Federalism’?
(b) 2 Years 10 Months and 5 Days (a) D.D. Basu (b) K.M. Munshi
(c) 2 Years 11 Months and 18 Days (c) B.R. Ambedkar (d) A.K. Iyer
(d) 3 Years 6 Months and 7 Days Ans. (d) A. K. Aiyer was the member of constituent assembly of
India from Madras state.
Ans. (c) The Indian Constitution is the world’s longest
Constitution. At the time of commencement, the Constitution 8. Who of the following moved the ‘Objective Resolution’ in
had 395 articles in 22 parts and 8 schedules. It consists of
the Constituent Assembly?
almost 80,000 words and took 2 years 11 months and 18 days
to make. (a) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar (b) P. J.L Nehru
2. Which of the following gave the idea of Constituent (c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (d) Dr. C.D. Deshmukh
Assembly for India? Ans. (b) J. L. Nehru moved the ‘Objective Resolution’ in the
(a) Simon Commission constituent assembly.
(b) Rajaji Formula 9. The number of members included in the Constitution
(c) Cabinet Mission Plan Drafting Committee was:
(d) Wavell Plan (a) Seven (b) Nine
Ans. (c) Cabinet Mission Plan gave the idea of Constituent Assembly (c) Eleven (d) Thirteen
for India. In 1946, British Prime Minister Clement Attlee formulated Ans. (a) The number of members included in the Constitution
a Cabinet Mission to India. Drafting Committee was seven.
‘Rajaji’ formula was formulated by C. Rajagopalchari to solve the
political dead-lock between All India Muslim League and Indian- 10. Draft of Indian Constitution was prepared by–
National Congress. Wavell plan (1945) was talks between these two (a) Sir B. N. Rao, “Advisor to the Constituent Assembly
political parties. (b) Sir Alladi Krishnaswamy Iyer Chairman Constitution
Draft Committee
3. The Constitution of India was enacted on 26 November (c) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, Union Law Minister
1949 by the (d) Jawahar Lal Nehru, Prime Minister
(a) Constituent Assembly (b) Parliament of India
Ans. (a)
(c) President of India (d) British Parliament
Ans. (c) Constitution of India enacted on 26th November 1949 by 11. Consider the following statements regarding the
President of India and came into force on 26th January 1950. composition of the Constituent Assembly:
1. The representatives were to be elected from the four
4. When did the Indian Constituent Assembly meet for the constituents – Hindu, Muslim, Sikh and Christian.
first time? 2. The chairman of the Union Constitution Committee
(a) 26 Jan, 1950 (b) 15Aug, 1947
was Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel.
(c) 9 Dec, 1946 (d) 19 Nov, 1949
3. The total strength of the Constituent Assembly was 389.
Ans. (c) The first meeting of the constituent assembly was held on 4. The Drafting Committee under the chairmanship of
9 Dec 1946. Dr. B. R. Ambedkar consisted of eight members.
5. The Constitution of India was completed by which of the Which of these is/are correct?
following dates : (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 4
(a) Jan 26, 1950 (b) Nov 26, 1949 (c) 3 only (d) 1 only
(c) Feb 11, 1948 (d) None of above Ans. (c) Seats allocated to each British province were to be decided
Ans. (b) Nov 26, 1949 constitution was completed. among the three principal communities Muslim, Sikhs and general (all
6. The proposal for framing of the Constitution of India by except Muslims and Sikhs), in proportion to their population.
an elected Constituent Assembly was made by The chairman of the Union constitution committee was
(a) Simon Commissions Jawaharlal Nehru.
(b) Government of India Act, 1935 The total strength of constituent Assembly was to be 389.
(c) Cripps Mission Drafting Committee was consisted of seven members.
(d) British cabinet Delegation
EBD_9432
C-2 INDIAN POLITY
12. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer Ans. (d) The formation of the Constituent Assembly includes the
using the codes given below: following facts-
List-I List-II (i) On the basis of the provincial election of 1946, the members of
(Constituent Assembly (Chairman) the Constituent Assembly.
Committee) (ii) Opinions were invited from the public to evolve a sense of mass
A. Steering 1. Sardar Vallabhbai Patel participation.
Committee 16. The Constituent Assembly of India convened to prepare the
B. Fundamental Rights 2. Dr. Rajendra Prasad Constitution of India appointed a sub-committee headed by
Sub-Committee Gopinath Bordoloi. [NDA 2013-I]
C. Union Constitution 3. J.B. Kripalani Which of the following recommendations was/were made
Committee by the committee?
D. Provincial Constitution 4. Jawaharlal Nehru 1. Fifth Schedule for the North-East Frontier (Asom)
Committee Tribal and Excluded Areas.
2. Constitution of District Councils in all autonomous
Codes:
districts of Asom.
A B C D 3. Sixth Schedule for the North-East Frontier (Asom)
(a) 2 3 4 1 Tribal and Excluded Areas.
(b) 1 4 3 2 4. Demarcation of territories in North-East India.
(c) 2 4 3 1 Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(d) 1 3 4 2 (a) Only 1 (b) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (a) Steering Committee – Rajendra Prasad (c) 2 and 3 (d) Only 4
Fundamental Rights Sub-Committee – J.B. Kripalani Ans. (d) Sub-committee headed by Gopinath Bordoloi was appointed
Union Constitution Committee – Jawahar lal Nehru. by the constituent Assembly of India to recommend the future pattern
Provincial Constitution Committee – Sardar Vallabhbai Patel of administration of the North Eastern Frontiers Areas.
13. Consider the following statements: 17. Match the following [NDA 2014-I]
1. Dr. Sachchidanand Sinha was elected as the List I List II
Provisional President of the Constituent Assembly. (Person) (Role in making of the
2. H.C. Mukherjee was elected as the Vice-President of Constitution of India)
the Constituent Assembly. A.
Rajendra Prasad 1. Member Drafting
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only Committee
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 B. T T Krishanamachari 2. Chairman Constituent
Ans. (c) Dr. Sachchidanand Sinha – Provisional president of the Assembly
Constituent assembly. C. H C Mukherjee 3. Chairman Drafting
H.C Mukharjee- Vice President of the Constituent Assembly. Committee
D. B R Ambedkar 4. Vice Chairman
14. Consider the following statements about the judicial Constituent Assembly
system introduced by the British in India: Codes:
1. It judicially unified India. A B C D A B C D
2. The British established a new system of law through (a) 2 1 4 3 (b) 2 4 1 3
the process of enactment and relevant interpretation (c) 3 4 1 2 (d) 3 1 4 2
of customary laws.
Ans. (a) The Constitution of India was drafted by the constituent
3. In general the British tended to avoid the customary
assembly and it was set up under the cabinet Mission plan on 16
laws of India.
May 1946. Dr. Rajendra Prasad then became the President of the
Which of the Statements given above are correct?
Constituent Assembly. Tiruvellore Thattai Krishnamachari was a
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
member of drafting committee. Harendra Coomar Mookerjee was the
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Vice-president of the Constituent Assembly of India for drafting the
Ans. (a) In general the British observed customary laws of India. Constitution of India. Bhimrao Ambedkar was appointed Chairman
15. Which of the following statements about the formation of of the Constitution Drafting Committee.
the Constituent Assembly is / are correct? 18. ‘The Draft Constitution as framed only provides a
(CDS 2015-II) machinery for the government of the country. It is not a
1. The members of the Constituent Assembly were chosen contrivance to install any particular party in power as has
on the basis of the provincial elections of 1946. been done in some countries. Who should be in power is
2. The Constituent Assembly did not include left to be determined by the people, as it must be, if the
representatives of the Princely States. system is to satisfy the test of democracy’. [2014-I]
3. The discussions within the Constituent Assembly were The above passage from Constituent Assembly debates is
not influenced by opinions expressed by the public. attributed to
4. In order to create a sense of collective participation, (a) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
submissions were solicited from the public. (b) Dr B R Ambedkar
Select the correct answer using the code given below. (c) Maulana Abdul Kalam Azad
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 (d) Acharya J B Kriplani
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4
CONSTITUTIONAL PROVISIONS C-3
Ans. (b) On 29 August 1947, the Drafting Committee was appointed Codes :
with Dr B. R. Ambedkar as the Chairman along with six other (a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct
members assisted by a constitutional advisor. These members were explanation of (A)
Pandit Govind Ballabh Pant, K M Munshi, Alladi Krishnaswamy Iyer, (b) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct
N Gopala swami Ayengar, B L Mitter and Md. Saadullah. A Draft explanation of (A)
Constitution was prepared by the committee and submitted to the (c) (A) is true, but (R) is false
Assembly on 4 November 1947.This is Ambedkar’s second argument (d) (A) is false, but (R) is true
rested on the legitimacy of the democratic system. Ans. (b)
19. Who among the following was not a member of the Drafting 24. The idea of preamble has been borrowed in Indian
Committee of the Constitution of India? Constitution from the Constitution of [UP-PCS 2015]
[NDA/NA 2014-II] (a) Italy (b) Canada
(a) B. R. Ambedkar (b) K. M. Munshi (c) France (d) U. S. A.
(c) Krishnaswamy Iyer (d) M. K Gandhi Ans. (d) The idea of preamble to the Indian constitution is borrowed
Ans. (d) The Drafting Committee for framing the constitution from constitution of United States of America.
was appointed on 29th August 1947.The committee comprised of a 25. The Parliamentary form of Government was first introduce
chairman and six other members. The committee members were:- Dr in which country ? [UP-PCS-2018]
B. R. Ambedkar(Chairman), K M Munshi, Alladi Krishnaswamy Iyer, (a) Great Britain (UK) (b) Belgium
N Gopalaswami Ayengar, B L Mitter, Md. Saadullah and D P Khaitan. (c) France (d) Switzerland
20. Consider the following statements about the Preamble of Ans. (c) The parliamentary form of government was first introduced
the Constitution and state which of them are correct with in France. The President of France was among the different styles of
the help of given codes : [UP-PCS 2009] President, Semi-President and Parliamentary systems
1. The objective resolution proposed by Pt. Nehru
ultimately became the Preamble. 26. Which of the following statements relating to the
2. It is not justiciable in nature. Government of In dia Act, 1858 is/are correct?
3. It cannot be amended. [CDS II - 2018
4. It cannot override the specific provisions of the 1. The British Crown sovereignty over India East India
Constitution. Company. assumed from the
Codes: 2. The British Parliamen t en a cted the first statute for
(a) Only 1 and 2 (b) Only 1, 2 and 4 the governance of India under the direct rule of the
(c) Only 1, 2 and 3 (d) Only 2, 3 and 4 British.
3. This Act was dominated by the principle of absolute
Ans. (b) In Keshvanand Bharti V. State of Kerala is was laid down
imperial control without any popular participation in
by the Supreme Court that the Preamble of the Indian Constitution is
the administration of the country.
amended only those parts of the preamble which contain basic features
could not be amended. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) I and 2 only (b) 2 only
21. The Preamble of the Indian constitution adopted on 26th (c) I , 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3 only
November 1949 did not include the terms :
[UP-PCS 2009] Ans. (a) Government of India Act 1858 provided that India was to be
1. Socialist 2. Secular governed directly and in the name of the crown. The office of secretary
3. Integrity 4. Republic of state was vested with complete authority and control over Indian
Select the correct answer from the codes given below : administration, thus he was now the political head of the India.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4 27. Which of the following statements relating to the Indian
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 3 and 4 Councils Act, 1861 is / are correcr~ [CDS II 2018]
Ans. (a) Three word socialist secular and integrity in the preamble 1. The Act introduced a grain of popular element by
of Indian constitution were added by 42nd amendment Act of 1976. non-official members Governor-General’s Council.
22. Who among the following were the members of the drafting 2. The members were nominated and their functions
committee of the Constitution? [UP-PCS 2014] were confined exclusively to consideration of
(a) Vallabhbhai Patel legislative proposals placed before it by the
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru Governor-General.
(c) Alladi Krishnaswami Aiyar 3. The Governor-General did not have effective
(d) Sardar Patel legislative power.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Ans. (c) The members of the Drafting committee were Dr B R
Ambedkar (Chairman), Krishnaswamy Aiyar, Dr K M Munshi, N (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
Gopalaswamy Aiyanger, Syed Mohammad Saadullah, B L Mitter and D P (c) I , 2 and 3 (d) 1 only
Khaitan. Later in place of Mitter and Khaitan new members, N Madhava Ans. (a) The executive council of Governor General was added a fifth
Rau and T T Krishnamachari joined the committee as members. finance member. For legislative purpose, a provision was made for an
23. Assertion (A) : The Constitution of India has become the addition of 6 to 12 members to the central executive. At least half of
longest one. [UP-PCS 2015] the additional members were to be non-officials. Governor –General
Reason (R) : The Chapter on Fundamental Rights has been had the power of making rules and regulations for the conduct of
borrowed from the model of American Constitution. business of executive council.
Choose the correct answer using the code given below :
EBD_9432
C-4 INDIAN POLITY
28. Which among the following statements about the power to 3. India has borrowed the concept of Fundamental Rights
change the basic structure of the Constitution of India is/ from the Constitution of
are correct? [CDS I 2019] (a) UK (b) USA
1 It falls outside the scope of the amending powers of (c) Russia (d) Ireland
the Parliament. Ans. (b) The concept of fundamental rights is borrowed from USA.
2 It can be excercised by the people through Directive Principles of state policy, method of election of the President,
representatives in a Constituent Assembly. nomination of members in the Rajya Sabha by the President are taken
3 It falls within the consitituent powers of the Parliament. from Irish Constitution.
Select the correct answer using the code below.
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 4. The phrase equality before law used in Article 14 of Indian
(c) 1 only (d) 2 and 3 Constitution has been borrowed from the Constitution of
(a) Britain (b) USA
Ans. (c) If the Supreme Court finds any law made by the Parliament (c) France (d) Canada
inconsistent with the constitution, it has the power to declare that law to
be invalid. Thus, to preserve the ideals and philosophy of the original Ans. (a) The phrase equality before law of Indian Constitution has
constitution, the Supreme Court has laid down the basic structure been borrowed from Britain. The term Republic and the idea of liberty,
doctrine. According to the doctrine, the Parliament cannot destroy or equality and fraternity in the preamble was borrowed from constitution
alter the basic structure of the doctrine. of France.
29. The Parliament in India is composed of 5. The source of the basic structure theory of the Constitution
[UGC December 2009] of India is
(a) the Constitution (b) opinion of jurists
(a) Lok Sabha & Rajya Sabha (c) indicial interpretation (d) parliamentary statutes
(b) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha & Vice President
Ans. (b) Any articles can be amended under Article 368 which means
(c) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha & President the amendment challenged on the grounds of fact. The Supreme Court
(d) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha with their Secretariats recognized interpretation is the basic structure of constitution.
Ans. (c) It is a bicameral legislature composed of the President of 6. Which of the following is not a feature of the Indian
India and the two houses: the Rajya Sabha (Council of States) and the Constitution ?
Lok Sabha (House of the People). (a) Written constitution (b) Federalism
30. On which of the following dates, Constituent Assembly of (c) Sovereignty of Parliament (d) Judicial Review
India adopted the National Flag? [UPPSC Prelims 2020] Ans. (c) Sovereignty of Parliament is not a feature of Indian
(a) 22 January, 1950 (b) 24 January, 1950 constitution. Judicial review refers to the power of the judiciary
(c) 22 July, 1947 (d) 22 July, 1948 to interpret the constitution and law or order of the legislature and
executive void.
Ans. (c) The National Flag of India was adopted in its present
form during the meeting of Constituent Assembly held on the 22 7. Indian Constitution is :
July 1947, a few days before India’s independence from the British (a) Federal (b) Unitary
on 15 August 1947. The three colours are Saffron, White, and Green. (c) Quasi-federal (d) Presidential
The saffron colour of the flag symbolises courage and sacrifice. Ans. (a) Quasi federal refers to a govt. formed similar to union
The white colour represents honesty, peace, and purity. and the of states under a central govt. rather than the individual govt. of the
green colour represents faith and chivalry. separate state.
8. Which one of the following is not a part of the ‘basic
Basic Features of Constitution & Sources structure’ of the Indian Constitution ?
1. In the Constitution of India, the term ‘federal’ appears in (a) Rule of law
(b) Secularism
(a) The Preamble (b) Part III of the Constitution
(c) Republican form of government
(c) Article 368 (d) None of the above
(d) Parliamentary form of government
Ans. (d) In the Constitution of India, the term ‘federal’ appears in
Ans. (c) Republican form of government is not a part of the ‘basic
the part I of the Constitution. The ‘Preamble’ is the brief’ introduction
structure’ of Indian constitution. India is a Democratic-republic
of the ‘Constitution’. It states about ‘the People of India’ having
country. Parliamentary form of government means Prime Minister is
solemnly into Sovereignity, democracy, justice, liberty, equality etc.
the head of the council of ministers.
Part III constitution deals with ‘Fundamental rights (article 12 – 35).
Article 368 is for provision of amendments in constitution. 9. Indian Constitution is
(a) Rigid
2. Indian federal structure is inspired by which model of the (b) Flexible
countries given below? (c) Neither rigid nor flexible
(a) USA (b) Canada (d) Partly rigid and partly flexible
(c) Switzerland (d) Russia
Ans. (c) Indian constitution is neither rigid nor flexible.
Ans. (b) Federal structure of government in Indian constitution is
taken from ‘Canadian constitution’. Charter of fundamental rights, 10. The idea of concurrent list in the Indian Constitution has
power of Judicial review and independence of Judiciary, written been borrowed from
constitution and preamble are taken from USA. Fundamental duties (a) USA (b) Switzerland
and five year planning are taken from Russia. (c) Australia (d) U.S.S.R.
Ans. (c) The ides of concurrent list, provision regarding trade, Ans. (c) Emergency Provision-Germany
commerce and intercourse, languages of preamble have been borrowed Fundamental Rights-U.S.A
from Australia. Parliamentary System-U.K
11. The idea of the Directive Principles of state policy in the Directive principles of State Policy-Ireland
Indian Constitution has been taken from the Constitution of 16. Consider the following statements:
(a) Ireland (b) Canada The salient features of the Indian Constitution provide for:
(c) South Africa (d) Australia
1. Single citizenship for the whole of India.
Ans. (a) DPSP in Indian constitution has been taken from Ireland. 2. Strictly federal form of government.
12. The federal system of India was inspired by the 3. Unique blend of rigidity and flexibility.
Constitution of the following? Of the above statements:
(a) Canada (b) United Kingdom (a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (b) 1 and 2 are correct
(c) U.S.A. (d) Ireland (c) 2 and 3 are correct (d) 1 and 3 are correct
Ans. (a) Federal system - Canada Ans. (d) The constitution of India establishes a federal system of
Government. It contains all the usual features of the Federation.
13. Which of the following statements about the Constitution
of India is/are correct? 17. Which of the following are considered as parts of the basic
1. Popular sovereignty and adult franchise are the basic structure of the Indian Constitution ? [NDA - 2017]
features of the Constitution. 1. Republication and democratic form of Government
2. The Constitution, in so far as the division of powers 2. Secular character of the Constitution
between the Centre and the States is concerned, is 3. Division between Fundamental Rights and Directive
rigid. Principles of State Policy
3. The Constitution recognises the interdependence of civil 4. Federal character of the Constitution
and economic rights. Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
4. The Constitution mentions direct control by the (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
people such as referendum, initiative and recall. (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4
Select the correct answer from the codes given below: Ans. (d)
(a) Only 1 (b) 1, 2 and 4
18. Which of the following features of the Indian Government
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3
system are the essential features of the parliamentary
Ans. (d) The constitution doesn’t mention direct control by the people Government system? [CDS-2017]
such as referendum, initiative and recall. 1. Presence of nominal and real executives
14. Consider the following statements: 2. Membership of the ministers in the legislature
The Indian Constitution is: 3. Separation of powers between the Union and State
1. an unwritten constitution. government
2. a written constitution. 4. Independent judiciary system
3. largely based on the Government of India Act, 1935. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
4. a gift of British Parliament. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
Of these statements: (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(a) 2 and 4 are correct (b) 2 and 3 are correct Ans. (a) Separation of powers between the Union and state
(c) 1 and 4 are correct (d) 1 and 3 are correct government or federal system may exist under the presidential
Ans. (b) Indian Constitution is the lengthiest of all the written government system also as it is found in the United states of America.
constitution of the world. It is largely based on Government of India The doctrine of “separation of powers” envisages the concept of
Act 1935. division of powers. In India, the fountain-head of power is the
Constitution.
15. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer
using the codes given below: 19. Which of following federal principles are not found in
List-I List-II Indian federation ?
(Provisions in the (Source) 1. Bifurcation of the judiciary between the Federal and
Constitution of India) State Governments
A. Emergency Provisions 1. Ireland 2. Equality of representation of the states in the upper
B. Fundamental Rights 2. The United Kingdom house of the Federal Legislature
3. The Union cannot be destroyed by any state seceding
C. Parliamentary System 3. The United States of
from the Union at its will
America 4. Federal Government can redraw the map of the
D. Directive Principles 4. Germany Indian Union by forming new States
of State Policy Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Codes : (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
A B C D (c) 1 and 2 (d) 3 and 4
(a) 4 1 2 3 Ans. (c) Features of Federal Government :-
(b) 2 3 4 1 • Dual Government (National Government and Regional
(c) 4 3 2 1 Government)
(d) 2 1 4 3 • Written Constitution
EBD_9432
C-6 INDIAN POLITY
• Division of powers between national and regional government C. Emergency Power of Constitution of South
• Supremacy of the Constitution the President Africa
• Rigid Constitution D. The Union-State Irish Constitution
• Independent Judiciary Relations
• Bicameral Legislature
Codes :
20. Consider the following statements and select the correct A B C D
answer from the codes given below : (a) 1 2 4 3
Assertion(A) : K.C. Wheare calls Indian Constitution a (b) 3 4 1 2
quasi-federal Constitution. (c) 1 4 2 3
Reason (R) : There are three lists (Union, State and (d) 3 7 4 2
Concurrent) in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution
Ans. (b) Constitution of India is unique in itself. Many features of
of India dividing powers between the Centre and the state
our constitution are borrowed from various sources around the world.
and giving residuary powers to the central government.
Codes : 1. Amendment of the constitution - Constitution of South Africa
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct 2. Directive Principles- Irish Constitution
explanation of A 3. Emergency Powers of the President- Constitution of the Germany
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the 4. The Union State Relations- Constitution of Canada
correct explanation of A 24. Which of the following features is/are contrary to the norms
(c) A is true but R is false of a federal polity? [NDA 2011-I]
(d) A is false but R is true
1. Common All India Service
Ans. (a) A federal system has a written constitution, the presence of 2. Single integrated judiciary
the constitutional division of power amongst different federal units and Select the correct answer using the codes given below
an independent judiciary. Quasi federalism implies a system having (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
a federal government with a unitary spirit. India and Canada have (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
quasi-federalism.
Ans. (d) India is a Quasi-Federal country because the Constitution of
21. Consider the following statements in regard to ‘equality India is federal in nature but unitary in spirit. It has common features of a
before law’ introduced by the British in India. federation such as written Constitution, supremacy of Constitution, rigidity
1. There were similar courts for Indians and Europeans. of Constitution, two governments, division of powers, bicameralism as
2. Justice now became costlier than before. well as unitary features like single Constitution, integrated judiciary and
3. The government officials often favoured the rich. All-India Services etc.
Which of the statements given above are correct? 25. Which among the following features of a federal system is
(a) 1and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only not found in the Indian Political System ? [NDA 2015-I]
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (a) Dual citizenship
Ans. (b) There were separate courts and even laws for Indians and (b) Distribution of powers between the Federal and the
Europeans. In Criminal cases the Europeans could be tried only by State Governments
European judges. (c) Supremacy of the Constitution
22. Which of the following is/are not central tenet(s) of the (d) Authority of the Courts to interpret the Constitution
Constitution of India? (CDS 2015-II) Ans. (a) Dual Citizenship is not found in the Indian political system. The
1. Prohibits discrimination on grounds of religion Indian Constitution does not allow dual citizenship. Automatic loss of Indian
2. Gives official status to certain religions citizenship covered in Section 9(1) of the Citizenship act 1955, provides
3. Provides freedom to profess any religion that any citizen of India who by naturalisation or registration acquires the
4. Ensures equality of all citizens within religious citizenship of another country shall cease to be a citizen of India. Indian
Government has started OCI (Overseas citizen of India) Scheme in 2005.
communities
According to the scheme if you are already a Person of Indian origin (POI)
and have taken up citizenship abroad, you can take up benefits of OCI scheme,
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 3 and 4 only which gives you the same travel and residence privileges like other Indians
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 2 only but you are not allowed to vote and take up jobs in Government sector.
Ans. (c) There is no provison in the Constitution of India to give
official status to a particular religion, to provide freedom to profess 26. Consider the following statements about the Constitution
any religion and to ensure equality of all citizens within religious of India: [NDA/NA 2016-II]
communities. 1. A Member of Parliament enjoys freedom of speech in
the Parliament as a Parliamentary privilege protected
23. Match the following [NDA 2009-I] by the Constitution of India .
List I List II 2. The Constitution has vested the power to armed the
Constitution in the Parliament
(Provision of the (Source)
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
Constitution of India) (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
A. Amendment of the Constitution of Germany (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Constitution Ans. (c)
B. Directive Principles Constitution of South
27. Which among the following is not a basic feature of the (a) Written Constitution
Constitution of India ? [NDA/NA 2015-I] (b) No State religion
(a) Fundamental rights (c) Devolution of power to local Government institutions
(b) Independence of judiciary (d) Elected President and directly or indirectly elected
(c) Federalism Parliament
(d) The unquestioned right of the Parliament to amend any
part of the Constitution Ans. (d) Democracy is a system of government that allows the
citizens to cast vote and elect a government of their choice. Democracy
Ans. (d) The unquestioned right of the Parliament to amend any part in India gives its citizens the right to vote irrespective of their caste,
of the Constitution is not a basic feature of the Constitution of India. colour, creed, religion and gender.
28. Which one among the following is not a characteristic of a 34. Consider the following statement. Which is not the feature
federal system? [NDA/NA 2014-I] of Indian democracy. [NTSE]
(a) There are two distinct levels of government I. India has largest number of voters in the World.
(b) The responsibilities and powers of each level of II. In India, the Election Commission is not an independent
government are clearly defined in a written Constitution body.
(c) There is no separation of powers between the legislative III. In India, the losing parties refuse to accept the electoral
and executive branches of government verdict.
(d) A Supreme Court is entrusted with the responsibility of IV. In India, everyone has the voting right above the age
interpreting these provisions and arbitrating in matters of 21.
of dispute (a) I, II and III (b) II, III and IV
Ans. (c) One of the features of the federal system is the distribution (c) I, II and IV (d) I, II, III and IV
of power between the federal government and the government of the
states.Some powers are given to the federal government and some Ans. (d)
other remaining powers are given to the government of states. The 35. India is a [NTSE]
federal government is powerful over the matter of national (or) general A. Socialist B. Secular
importance. Both federal and state governments functioning strictly
C. Sovereign D. Democratic Republic
within the sphere demarcated for them.
Identify the correct sequence as mention in the Preamble
29. Which part of the Indian Constitution has been described of the Indian Constitution
as the ‘Soul’ of the constitution? [UP-PCS 2008] (a) C, A, B, D (b) B, C, A, D
(a) Fundamental rights (c) C, A, D, B (d) A, B, C, D
(b) Directive Principles of State Policy Ans. (a)
(c) The Preamble
(d) Right to Constitutional Remedies 36. Right to the enjoyment of pollution free water as
interpreted by the Supreme Court in Subhas Kumar Vs.
Ans. (d) Article 32 of the Indian constitution is called as the pillar State of Bihar (1991) falls under [NTSE]
of constitution. About this part of the constitution Dr. Ambedaker has
(a) Right to Equality
said that it was the soul of Indian Constitution.
(b) Right to Liberty
30. ‘Right to Equality’ finds a place in the Constitution under (c) Right against Exploitation
[UP-PCS 2009] (d) Right to Life and Personal liberty
1. Art. 13 2. Art. 14
Ans. (d) Right to life and personal liberty is Article 21 of Fundamental
3. Art. 15 4. Art. 16
rights. Without this right, for an individual to enjoy other fundamental
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
rights become meaningless.
Codes:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3 37. Economic presence of the government in social realm is
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) All the four found under [NTSE]
Ans. (c) Provisions relating right to equality are contained in Article (a) Fundamental Rights
14, 15, 16 and 17 of the Indian Constitution. (b) Fundamental Duties
(c) Directive Principles of State Policy
31. India has adopted a federation of .............. type. (d) Policy for determining citizenship
(a) USA (b) Canadian
Ans. (c) The principles have been inspired by the Directive Principles
(c) Australian (d) Switzerland
given in the Constitution of Ireland and also by the principles
Ans. (b) India has adopted a federation of Canadian type. of Gandhism; and relate to social justice, economic welfare,foreign
32. After how many days of absence from Parliament without policy, and legal and administrative matters.
permission can a M.P. be disqualified ? [UP-PCS-2018] 38. India has [NTSE]
(a) 30 days (b) 60 days (a) basic democracy (b) controlled democracy
(c) 90 days (d) 120 days (c) guided democracy (d) liberal democracy
Ans. (b) The Constitution provides for disqualification of a Member Ans. (d) Liberal democracy is a form of government in which
of Parliament (MP) if he/she is absent continuously for 60 days from representative democracy operates under the principles of liberalism.
the Lok Sabha or the Rajya Sabha without permission. It is characterized by fair and free elections between multiple distinct
political parties, a separation of powers into different branches of
33. Which one of the following statements reflects the republic government, the rule of law, and the protection of human rights and
character of Indian democracy ? [UGC December 2010] civil liberties for all persons. India has liberal democracy.
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C-8 INDIAN POLITY
39. Which of the following is not a feature of Indian 2. The Constitution of India provides for ‘judicial review’
federalism? [NTSE] to safeguard the ‘citizens’ liberties and to preserve the
(a) The Constitution creates a strong Centre. ideals on which the constitution is based.
(b) The Constitution provides for a single judiciary. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(c) The Constitution provides for a common All India (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
Services. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) The Constitution provides equal representation to the Ans. (b)
States in the Upper House of the Parliament. • Constitution of India does not define the term ‘basic structure’.
Ans. (d) Federalism is a system of government in which the power It is a judicial tool that was invented by the Supreme Court
is divided between central authority and various constituent units of of India in the Keshavananda Bharti vs State of Kerala (1973)
the country. landmark judgment.
• Even though, the Supreme Court invented the concept of Basic
40. Which of the following statements about the federal system Structure in the aforementioned judgment, it did not define the
in India are true? [NTSE] same. However, it is only in the later judgments that the court
I. The Constitution of India provides for a three-fold has added various elements to the list of the basic structure of
distribution of legislative powers between the Union the Constitution. So, 1st statement is incorrect.
and the State Government. • Article 13 of the Indian Constitution deals with the ‘CONCEPT’
II. Both the Union and the State Governments can of Judicial Review however, it does not explicitly mentions the
legislate on residuary subjects. term judicial review. But assuming that question is asking in
III. The Parliament cannot on its own change the power- general sense, the answer should be (b) Only 2nd statement
sharing arrangement between the Union and the State correct.
Governments. 43. Which among the following statements about the power to
IV. the High Courts have no role in resolving disputes change the basic structure of the Constitution of India is/
about the division of powers between the Union and are correct? [CDS 2019-I]
the State Governments. 1. It falls outside the scope of the amending powers of
(a) I and III (b) II, III and IV the Parliament.
(c) I, III and IV (d) I, II and IV 2. It can be excercised by the people through
Ans. (c) I, III and IV representatives in a Constituent Assembly.
I. The constitution of India provides for a three-fold distribution of 3. It falls within the consitituent powers of the Parliament.
legislative powers between the union and the state Government. Select the correct answer using the code below.
These governments act within a well defined sphere, co-ordinate (a) 1 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
and at the same time act independently.
(c) 1 only (d) 2 and 3
III. The Parliament cannot on its can change the power sharing
arrangement between the union and the state government. All Ans. (c) If the Supreme Court finds any law made by the Parliament
the states in the Indian union do not have the identical powers. inconsistent with the constitution, it has the power to declare that
The parliament cannot change the fundamental structure of law to be invalid. Thus, to preserve the ideals and philosophy of the
constitution. Any change in it has to first passed by the houses of original constitution, the Supreme Court has laid down the basic
Parliament with two- third majority and then by the legislatures structure doctrine. According to the doctrine, the Parliament cannot
by half of the total states. destroy or alter the basic structure of the doctrine.
IV. The high-courts have no role in resolving disputes about the division 44. What is meant by ‘Rule of Law’? [BPSC 2020]
of powers between the Union and the State Governments. Both
(a) One act for all and one judiciary for all
Union as well as state government can make laws on the different
subjects. If their laws conflicts with each other then the law made (b) One act for all and one State for all
by the Union government will be applied or prevailed. (c) One State for all and one judiciary for all
(d) All acts for one and one judiciary for all
41. Which of the following Fundamental Rights includes the (e) None of the above/More than one of the above
Right to Education? [NTSE]
Ans. (a) Rule of law is a principle under which all persons,
(a) Right to Equality
institutions, and entities are accountable to laws that are: Publicly
(b) Right to Freedom promulgated, independently adjudicated and equally enforced. The
(c) Cultural and Educational Rights Constitution of India intended for India to be a country governed by
(d) Right to Constitutional Remedies the rule of law. It provides that the constitution shall be the supreme
Ans. (b) Right to education is a part of Right to freedom (Article power in the land and the legislative and the executive derive their
21A). Right to education inserted in constitution through 86th authority from the constitution.
amendment act. According to this fundamental right for children in the 45. Given below are two sentences, one is labelled as Assertion
age group of 6-14 years “The state shall provide free and compulsory
(A) and the other as Reason (R) :[UPPSC Prelims 2020]
education to all children of the age of six to fourteen years in such
manner as the state may, by law determine.” Assertion (A) : The nature of Indian Political System
embodies the elements of ‘continuity and change’.
42. Consider the following statements: [IAS Prelims 2020] Reason (R) : The Indian Political System contains the
1. The Constitution of India defines its ‘basic structure’ elements of the following political system such as the
in terms of federalism, secularism, fundamental rights modern style, the traditional style and saint style.
and democracy.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below. Ans. (c) Part XII of the Indian Constitution deals with centre-state
Codes : financial relations. Part XV deals with Election Commission of India.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct In part XIV services under the union and the states, Public Service
explanation of (A) Commissions are mentioned. Part X includes article 244 – 244A and
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct is about administration of scheduled areas and tribal areas.
explanation of (A) 4. Which article of the Indian Constitution provides for the
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false financial provisions?
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true (a) Article 352 (b) Article 356
Ans. (a) Indian Political System shows the elements as continuity (c) Article 360 (d) Article 361
and changes as we following our constitution that is seven decades old Ans. (c) Article 360 of the Indian Constitution provides for provision
but we are amending it as per need. We are opting new technologies for the financial emergency. The provision of national emergency is
yet following our nonviolence and tolerant model of living like our mentioned under article 352. National emergency can be declared
forefathers. on the external aggression or armed rebellion in any part of country.
46. The Supreme Court of India enunciated the doctrine of Article 356 refers to imposition of ‘President’s rule’, also called
“Basic Structure of the Constitution” in constitutional emergency. Article 361 is for Protection of President
and Governors and Rajpramukhs.
[UPPSC Prelims 2020]
(a) The Golaknath Case in 1967 5. Which of the following schedules deals with the division
(b) The Keshavanand Bharti Case in 1973 of powers between union and states?
(c) The Shankari Prasad Case in 1951 (a) fourth schedule (b) sixth schedule
(d) The Sajjan Singh Case in 1965 (c) seventh schedule (d) ninth schedule
Ans. (b) In Kesavananda Bharti Case, Justice Hans raj Khanna said Ans. (c) The seventh schedule of the Constitution deals with the
that the basic feature of the constitution of India cannot be changed division of powers between union and states. Article 246—The union
through amendments by Parliament of India. Key features mean the (central government), state, and concurrent lists of responsibilities.
Fundamental Rights of citizens granted by the constitution. 6th schedule deals with provisions for administration of tribal area
in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh. 4th
Parts, Articles, Chapters & Schedules schedule is about allocation of seats in Rajya Sabha.
6. Under which article the president of India can be removed
1. Which article of the Indian Constitution provides for by the process of impeachment?
uniform civil code for the citizens? (a) Article 79 (b) Article 76
(a) Article 42 (b) Article 44 (c) Article 57 (d) Article 61
(c) Article 46 (d) Article 48
Ans. (d) Under Article 61 of the Constitution, the President of India
Ans. (b) (Article 44 of the Indian Constitution provides for uniform can be impeached for the violation of the Constitution, which is solely
civil code for the citizens). A uniform civil code administers the same to be decided by the Parliament. Article 57 is about eligibility for
set of secular civil laws to govern all people irrespective of their re-election. Article 76 deals with Attorney General of India. Article
religion, caste and tribe. Uniform civil code is the proposal to replace 79-122 deals with Parliament. Article 79 mentioned about ‘constitution
the personal laws of each major religious community in India. of Parliament’.
46th amendment, amending articles 269, 286, 366 to agate judicial 7. Under which of the constitutional provision, the Supreme
pronouncements on scope and applicability on sales Tax. 48 th Court of India extends advice to the president of India?
amendment amending article 356 of president rule. It permits (a) Article 141 (b) Article 142
President’s rule up to two years in the state of Punjab.
2. Which article of the Constitution of India deals with the Ans. (c) Under article 143 of the constitutional provision, the
‘Right to Constitutional Remedies’? Supreme Court of India extends advice to the President of India. The
(a) Article 19 (b) Article 14 article is about Power of President to consult Supreme Court.
(c) Article 21 (d) Article 32 Article 141 and 142 given so much power to the supreme court of
Ans. (d) (Article 32 of the Constitution of India deals with the ‘Right India. The law declared by the supreme court shall be binding on
to Constitutional Remedies’. Remedies for enforcement of rights all courts within the territory of India. Article 144 deals with civil
conferred by this Part). and judicial authorities to act in the territory of India in aid of the
The constitution of India provides the right of freedom in article 19 Supreme court.
– 22. Article 19 guarantees the ‘Freedom of speech’ and ‘expression’ 8. Under which article the parliament of India can legislate
as one of its six freedoms. Article 21 A states that the state shall on any subject in the state list in national interest?
provide free and compulsory education to all children of age 6 – 14 (a) Article 229 (b) Article 230
years. Article 14 provides ‘right to Equality’. Equality before law, (c) Article 247 (d) Article 249
abolition of untouchability ‘prohibition of discrimination on ground’
of religion, caste, sector, place of birth are the major aspects of Ans. (d) Under the Article 249, the Parliament of India can legislate
Article 14. on any subject in the state list in national interest. The Council of States
has declared by resolution supported by not less than two thirds of the
3. Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with centre- members present and voting that it is necessary in national interest that
state financial relations? Parliament should make laws with respect to any matter enumerated
(a) Part XV (b) Part XIV in the State List specified in the resolution.
(c) Part XII (d) Part X
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C-10 INDIAN POLITY
Article 229 is for officers and servants and expenses of High Courts. sessions of the state legislature, proporgation and dissolution. Article
Article 230 deals with extension of jurisdiction of High Courts to 197 is about restriction on powers of legislative council as to Bills
union territories. Article 247 gives power to the Parliament to provide other than money Bills.
establishment of certain additional courts. 15. The idea of organization of panchayats as a duty of state is
9. Under which article the Parliament of India may constitute mentioned in which part of Indian Constitution?
Administrative Tribunal ? (a) Chaper I (b) Chapter II
(a) 323 A (b) 323B (c) Chapter III (d) Chapter IV
(c) 324 (d) 325 Ans. (d) The duty of state is mentioned in chapter IV. In part I, union
Ans. (a) Article 323 A specifies Administrative Tribunal like providing and its territories are mentioned. Part II is about citizenship and Part
separate administrative tribunal for union and states,jurisdiction power, III is for fundamental rights.
repeal or amend any order made by the President under clause. Article 16. Which article of the constitution allows the centre to form
323 B is about tribunals for other matters like tribunals of any disputes, new states ?
complaints with respect to matters in which legislature has power to (a) Article 3 (b) Article 4
make laws. Article 324 deals with superintendence, direction and (c) Article 5 (d) Article 6
control of election to be vested in Election Commission. Article 325 Ans. (a) Article 3 of the Constitution allows the centre to form new
stated, no person to be ineligible for inclusion in electoral roll on states and is regarding formation of new States and alteration of areas,
grounds of religion, race, caste or sex. boundaries or names of existing States. Uniting two or more States or
10. Which of the following articles deals with the impeachment parts of States or uniting any territory to a part of any State; Article 4
process against the president of India? deals with laws made under article 2 and 3 to provide amendment of
(a) Article 58 (b) Article 59 the first and fourth schedule. Rights of citizenship of certain persons
(c) Article 60 (d) Article 61 who have migrated to India from Pakistan is mentioned in Article 6.
Ans. (d) Article 61 deals with procedure for impeachment of the 17. The provision of the sixth schedule shall not apply in
President. It can be initiated by either house of the parliament and these which one of the following states?
charges should be signed by one-fourth members of the house and a (a) Meghalaya (b) Tripura
14 days notice should be given to the President. Article 58 is about (c) Mizoram (d) Goa
qualifications for election as President. Article 58 deals with conditions Ans. (d) In 6th schedule provision for administration of tribal areas in
of President’s office and article 60 is about oath or affirmation by the Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, Mizoram & Arunachal Pradesh is given.
President. 18. How many subjects are kept under the jurisdiction of
11. Which Article of Indian Constitution is related with the panchayats in the eleven schedule of the Constitution?
Protection of the interests of the minorities? (a) 27 (b) 28
(a) Article 17 (b) Article 29 (c) 29 (d) 30
(c) Article 30 (d) Article 31 Ans. (c) There are 29 subjects kept under the jurisdiction of
Ans. (b) Article 30 is about right of minorities to establish and Panchayats in the XI schedule of the constitution.
administer educational institutions. In article 31 compulsory 19. Which article of Indian Constitution deals with amendment
acquisition of property is mentioned. procedure ?
12. Which schedule of Indian Constitution is related to (a) Article 268 (b) Article 352
Panchayti Raj ? (c) Article 356 (d) Article 368
(a) II Schedule (b) VIII Schedule Ans. (d) Article 368 of the Indian Constitution deals with amendment
(c) X Schedule (d) XI Schedule procedure. Article 368 has been amended by the 24 th and 42nd
Ans. (d) The XI schedule of the constitution deals with Panchayati Amendments in 1971 and 1976 respectively.
Raj. IInd schedule deals with salary of President, Chief justice, Article 268 deals with duties levied by Union but collected and
Governors & CAG of India. appropriated by the states. Article 352 is about proclamation of
emergency. Article 356 provisions in case of failure of constitutional
13. Which of the following schedules of Indian Constitution is machinery in states.
related with the allotment of seats in Rajya Sabha ?
(a) Third Schedule (b) Fourth Schedule 20. In which part of the Indian Constitution, legislative
(c) Fifth Schedule (d) Sixth Schedule relation between centre and state is given?
(a) X (b) XI
Ans. (b) 4th Schedule of constitution is related to allotment of seats (c) XII (d) XIII
in Rajya Sabha. Democratic-republic form of government is the basic
Ans. (b) In part XI relations between the union and the states is
structure of the constitution.
mentioned. Part XIII deals with Trade and commerce within the territory
14. The provision for Constitution of Legislatures in states is of India. Part XII is about Finance, property, contracts and suits.
enshrined in which article of the Indian Constitution ? 21. The Indian Constitution is divided into
(a) Article 168 (b) Article 174 (a) 16 chapters (b) 22 chapters
(c) Article 197 (d) Article 153 (c) 24 chapters (d) 25 chapters
Ans. (a) The provision for Constitution of Legislatures in states is Ans. (b) Divided into 22 chapters, 395 articles and 11 schedules.
enshrined in Article 168 of the Indian Constitution.
(1) The States of Bihar, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Karnataka 22. Which article provides that any law passed in violation of
and Uttar Pradesh, have two houses and in other States, one House. fundamental rights is void to the extent of such violation
Article 153 is related to Governors of states. Article 174 deals with (a) Article 12 (b) Article 14
Ans. (c) Article 13 provides that any law passed in violation of Ans. (a) Original jurisdiction of Supreme Court is mentioned in
fundamental rights is void to the extent of such violation. The State Article 131 of the Indian Constitution. The Supreme Court shall, to the
shall not make any law which takes away or abridges the rights exclusion of any other court, have original jurisdiction in any dispute.
conferred by this part and any law made in contravention of this clause Article 132 deals for appellate jurisdiction of Supreme court in appeals
shall, to the extent of the contravention, be void. from High Court in certain cases.
Article 12 is about definition of Fundamental rights. 29. Which article of the Indian Constitution empowers
23. Article 249 of the Indian Constitution is associated with parliament to legislate on a subject of the state list ?
the functions of (a) Article 115 (b) Article 116
(a) The concurrent list (c) Article 226 (d) Article 249
(b) The state list Ans. (d) Article 249 empowers the power of Parliament to legislate
(c) The president with respect to a matter in the state list in the national interest. Article
(d) The union list 226 gives power of high courts to issue certain writs. Article 116 deals
Ans. (b) Article 249 of the Indian Constitution is associated with with votes on account, votes of credit and exceptional grants.
the functions of the state list. If the Council of States has declared by 30. Which of the following articles of Indian Constitution
resolution supported by not less than two thirds of the members present
empowers the president to appoint Comptroller and
and voting that it is necessary or expedient in national interest that
Auditor General of India ?
Parliament should make laws with respect to any matter enumerated
(a) Article 147 (b) Article 148
in the State List specified in the resolution.
Concurrent list of 52 items is mentioned in 7th schedule in article 246.
Ans. (b) Article 148 deals with Comptroller and Auditor-General of
24. Which of the following articles of Indian Constitution
India’s appointment. Article 149 deals with duties and powers of the
enunciates fundamental duties? [CDS-2017]
CAG. Article 151 deals with audit reports of CAG.
(a) Article 35 (b) Article 51(A)
(c) Article 32 (d) Article 14 31. Article 30 of the Indian Constitution deals with the
[NDA-2017]
Ans. (b) Article 51A enlisted fundamental duties. Article 32 deals
(a) Freedom of consciences
with remedies for enforcement of fundamental rights. Article 35
(b) Right to propagate religion
provides legislation to give effect to the fundamental rights.
(c) Right of minorities to establish and manage
25. The term ‘state’ has been defined in which of the following educational institution
articles of Indian Constitution ? (d) Cultural and educational rights of the majority community
(a) Article 1 (b) Article 8 Ans. (c) Under article 30 right of minorities to establish and manage
(c) Article 10 (d) Article 12 educational institution is mentioned.
Ans. (b) ‘State’ word is mentioned in Article 8. In article 1 ‘union and
32. Which article of Indian Constitution declares Devnagri
state’ is mentioned. Article 12 deals with definition of fundamental rights.
Hindi as an official language of India?
26. Under which article of Indian Constitution, a High Court (a) Article 343 (b) Article 348
can issue writs to protect the fundamental rights? (c) Article 154 (d) Article 156
(a) Article 15 (b) Article 32 Ans. (a) Article 343 declares Devnagri Hindi as an official language
(c) Article 35 (d) Article 226 of India. Article 348 is about language used in the Supreme Court and
Ans. (d) Under Article 226 of Indian Constitution a High Court can High Courts. Article 154 deals with executive power of state. Article
issue writs to protect the fundamental rights. Notwithstanding anything 156 declares term of office of Governor.
in Article 32 every High Court shall have powers, throughout the 33. Money bill has been defined in
territories in relation to which it exercises jurisdiction. (a) Article 110 (b) Article 111
Article 35 deals with legislation to give effect to the provisions of (c) Article 112 (d) Artcle 113
this part.
Ans. (a) Article 110 - definition of money bills
27. Which of the following articles of Indian Constitution Article 111 - Assent to Bills
empowers the Governor to issue ordinances during recess Article 112 - Annual financial statement
of the state legislature?
Article 113 - Procedure in Parliament with respect to estimates
(c) Article 213 (d) Article 214 34. Which article of the Constitution laid down that state shall
take steps to organize village panchayats?
Ans. (c) Article 213 of Indian Constitution empowers the governor
to issue ordinances during recess of the state legislature. Concerning
power of Governor to promulgate Ordinances during recess of
Legislature. Ans. (d) Article 40 - Organization of village Panchayats
Article 210 is for language to be used in the legislation. Article 211 Article 73 - Extent of executive power of union
deals with restriction on discussion in the legislature. Article 214 Article 36 - definition of DPSP
deals with high court of states. Article 24 - Prohibition of employment of children in factories.
28. Original jurisdiction of Supreme Court is mentioned in 35. Under which article of Indian Constitution, President of
which of the following articles of Indian Constitution? India enjoys powers to withhold his asset on any Bill?
(a) Article 131 (b) Article 132 (a) Article 63 (b) Article 108
(c) Article 143 (d) Article 148 (c) Article 109 (d) Article 111
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C-12 INDIAN POLITY
Ans. (d) Article 111 - assents on any Bill. Ans. (d) Article 169 deals with abolition or creation of Legislative
Article 108 - Joint sitting of both houses in certain cases. councils in states. Article 269 deals with taxes levied and collected
Article 109 - Special procedure in respect of money bill. by the Union but assigned to state.
36. Under which article of the Indian Constitution the 43. Which of the Constitution provisions lays down that taxes can
adjudication of disputes relativity to water of inter-state neither be carried nor collected without the authority of law?
rivers-valleys is done ? (a) Article 265 (b) Article 266
(a) Article 260 (b) Article 261 (c) Article 300 (d) Article 368
(c) Article 262 (d) Article 262 Ans. (a) Article 265 of the constitutional provisions lays down that
Ans. (c) Under Article 262 of the Indian Constitution the adjudication taxes can neither be levied nor collected without the authority of law.
of disputes relating to water of inter-state rivers or river valleys is done. Taxes are not to be imposed by authority of law.
Article 260 - Jurisdiction of the Union in relation to territories outside Article 266 deals with taxes not to be imposed by authority of law.
India. Article 261 deals with public acts, records and judicial proceedings. Suits and proceedings of property, assets, rights, liabilities mentioned
in article 300.
37. Which part of the Constitution envisages a three tier
system of panchayats ? [CDS-2016] 44. The fundamental duties are mentioned in the following
(a) Part IV (b) Part X part of the Constitution of India
(c) Part XI (d) Part XII (a) Part III (b) Part IV
(c) Part IV A (d) Part VI
Ans. (a) Three tier system panchayats enlisted in part IV of the
constitution. Ans. (c) part IV-A fundamental duties
part IV - Derective Principles of state policy.
38. Which one of the following articles of the Indian
part III - Fundamental rights
Constitution provides for All India Services ?
(a) Article 310 (b) Article 311 part VI - The states
(c) Article 312 (d) Article 314 45. The forms of oaths or affirmations for which of the
Ans. (c) Article 312 of the Indian Constitution provides for All following officials are mentioned in the third schedule of
India Services. The services known at the commencement of this the Indian constitution?
Constitution as the Indian Administrative Service and the Indian Police 1. The Comptroller and Auditor General
Service shall be deemed to be services created by Parliament under 2. The Chief Election Commissioner
this article. 3. The Chief Justice of a High Court
Article 310 – Tenure of office of persons serving the union or a state 4. The Attorney General
Article 314 – Provision for protection of existing officers of certain Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
services. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1 and 3 only
Article 311 – Dismissal, removal or reduction in rank of persons
employed in civil capacities under the union or a state. Ans. (d) The forms of oaths or affirmations, in the third schedule of
the Indian constitution, are mentioned for the given officials. Third
39. Which article of the Indian Constitution empowers the
Schedule–(Articles 75(4), 99, 124(6), 148(2), 164(3), 188 and 219).
president to consult the Supreme Court?
(a) Article 129 (b) Article 132 46. If a new state of the Indian Union is to be created, which one of
(c) Article 143 (d) Article 32 the following schedules of the constitution must be amended?
(a) First (b) Second
Ans. (c) Article 143 provides power of President to consult Supreme
Court. Article 129 refers Supreme Court to be a court of record.
(c) Third (d) Fifth
Ans. (a) The states and UTs of India are specified in the first schedule.
40. Which of the following articles of the Constitution vests
So to form a new state and alteration of area requires the amendment
the executive power of the Union in the President?
of first schedule of the constitution. First Schedule (Articles 1 and 4)
lists the states and territories of India, lists any changes to their borders
(c) Article 53 (c) Article 54 and the laws used to make that change.
Ans. (c) Article 53 - executive power of the union.
47. Which of the following statements correctly describes the
Article 52 - The president of India fourth schedule of the Constitution of India?
Article 54 - Election of president. (a) It lists the distribution of powers between the Union
41. The Constitution of India provides for an Election and the States.
Commission under Article (b) It contains the language listed in the constitution.
(a) 321 (b) 322 (c) It contains the provisions regarding the administration
(c) 323 (d) 324 of tribal areas.
(d) It allocates seats in the council of states.
Ans. (d) Constitution of India provides for an election commission
under article 324. Article 321 empowers power to extend functions Ans. (d) The fourth schedule of the constitution is about allocation
of Public service commission. Under article 322 expenses of public of seats in the council of states. Fourth Schedule (Articles 4(1) and
service commission mentioned. 80(2)) details the allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha (the upper
house of Parliament) per State or Union Territory.
42. Procedure for creation of Legislative Council in states has
been described in which article of the Constitution? 48. The ninth schedule to the Indian Constitution was added by?
(a) Article 368 (b) Article 69 (a) First amendment (b) Eighth amendment
(c) Article 269 (d) Article 169 (c) Ninth amendment (d) Forty second amendment
Ans. (a) First amendment made in 1951, inserted two new articles, (c) 4 1 2 3
31A and 31B and the 9th schedule to give protection from challenge (d) 2 3 4 1
to land reforms. It formed the subject-matter of dilatory litigation, as Ans. (b) Finance, property Contracts and Suits are mentioned in part
a result of which the implementation of these important measures, XII. The union territory in Part V, The executive of states in part IV
affecting large numbers of people, had been held up. Accordingly, a and Relation of states in part XI of the constitution.
new article 31A was introduced with retrospective effect to uphold
52. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
such measures. Further, another new article 31B was introduced to
(a) Languages : Eighth Schedule
validate 13 enactments relating to zamindari abolition.
(b) The forms of oaths or : Second Schedule
49. Which of the following list 1 with list II and select the affirmations
correct answer using the codes given below the list: (c) Allocation of seats in : Fourth Schedule
List I List II the Council of States
(Article of the (Content) (d) Provisions as to : Tenth Schedule
Constitution) disqualification on
A. Article 54 1. Election of the president of the ground of defection
India Ans. (b) Forms of Oaths and Affirmations are the subject of Third
B. Article 75 2. Appointment of the P.M. and Schedule. Salary of President, Governors, Chief Judges, Judges of
council of ministers High Court and Supreme Court, Comptroller and Auditor General are
C. Article 155 3. Appointment of the gover- the subject of Second Schedule.
nor of state
D. Article 164 4.
Appointment of the C.M. 53. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer
and council of Ministers of using the codes given below:
a state List-I List-II
5. Composition of Legislative (Schedule of the (Content)
Assemblies Constitution of India)
Codes: A. Ninth Schedule 1. Provisions regarding
A B C D Panchayati Raj
(a) 1 2 3 4 Institutions
(b) 1 2 4 5 B. Tenth Schedule 2. Provisions regarding
(c) 2 1 3 5 land reforms legislations
(d) 2 1 4 3 C. Eleventh Schedule 3. Provisions regarding
administration
Ans. (a) Article 54- Election of the president.
of tribal areas
Article 155- Appointment of the PM and council of ministers. D. Sixth Schedule 4. Provisions regarding the
Article 164- Appointment of the CM and council of Ministers distribution of powers
of a state. between the Centre and
50. In the Indian Constitution, the right to equality is granted States
by following Articles. They are: 5. Provisions regarding the
(a) Article 16 to Article 20 disqualification on
(b) Article 15 to Article 19 ground of defection
(c) Article 14 to Article 18 Codes :
(d) Article 13 to Article 17 A B C D
(a) 3 1 4 2
Ans. (c) Article 14- Equality before Law
(b) 2 5 1 3
Article 15- Prohibition of Discrimination (c) 3 5 1 2
Article 16- Equality of Opportunity (d) 2 1 4 3
Article 17- Abolition of untouchability
Ans. (b) Ninth Schedule- Added by Ist amendment in 1951. Contains
Article 18- Abolition of titles. acts & orders related to land tenure, land tax, railways, industries.
51. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer {Right of property not a fundamental right now}
using the codes given below: [NDA-2017] Tenth Schedule- Added by 52nd amendment in 1985. Contains
List-I List-II provisions of disqualification of grounds of defection
(Subject) (Part of the Constitution Eleventh Schedule- By 73rd amendment in 1992 Contains provisions
of India) of Panchayati Raj
A. Finance, Property, 1. Part V Twelfth Schedule- By 74th amendment in 1992 Contains provisions
Contracts and Suits of Municipal Corporation.
B. The Union Judiciary 2. Part XII
C. The Executive of States 3. Part XI 54. Consider the following statements related to Article 368 of
D. Relations between the 4. Part VI the Constitution:
Union and the States 1. A Constitutional Amendment Bill can be passed at
Codes : a joint session of Parliament in case of deadlock
A B C D between the two Houses.
(a) 4 3 2 1 2. It is obligatory for the President of India to give his
(b) 2 1 4 3 assent to a Constitutional Amendment Bill passed
under Article 368.
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C-14 INDIAN POLITY
3. To amend 7th Schedule of the Constitution, ratification 58. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by
of more than half of the State legislature is essential. using the codes given below:
4. A proposal to amend the Constitution can only be List-I List-II
introduced in the House of the People. (Article) (Subject)
Which of these are correct ? A. Article 50 1. Impeachment of the President
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 B. Article 143 2. Separation between judiciary and
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3 executive
Ans. (c) C. Article 61 3. Functions of Public Service
55. Sixth Schedule to the Constitution of India makes special Commissions
administrative provisions in regard to the tribal areas in : D. Article 320 4. Advisory Jurisdiction of the
(a) Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram Supreme Court
(b) Meghalaya, Assam, Nagaland and Manipur Codes :
(c) Tripura, Manipur, Mizoram and Meghalaya A B C D
(d) Arunanchal Pradesh, Nagaland, Assam and Tripura (a) 2 4 1 3
Ans. (a) (b) 3 1 4 2
(c) 2 1 4 3
56. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by (d) 3 4 1 2
using the codes given below: Ans. (a) Article 50 – Separation between judiciary and executive.
List-I List-II Article-143 – Advisory Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court.
(Provisions) (Articles)
Article 51 – Impeachment of the President.
A. Prohibition of discrimination 1. Article 22
Article- 320 – Function of Public Service Commission.
on grounds of religion, race,
caste, sex, place of birth 59. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by
B. Prohibition of employment 2. Article 15 using the codes given below:
of children in factories List-I List-II
C. Protection against arrest and 3. Article 24 (Matter) (Article)
detention in certain cases A. Right to Equality 1. Article 14
D. Abolition of untouchability 4. Article 17 B. Right to Freedom 2. Article 25
Codes :
A B C D C. Right to Freedom of 3. Article 32
(a) 1 4 2 3 Religion
(b) 2 3 1 4 D. Right to Constitutional 4. Article 19
(c) 2 4 1 3 Remedies
(d) 1 3 2 4 5. Article 13
Ans. (b) Prohibition of discrimination – Article-15 Codes :
Prohibition of employment of children in factories –Article-24 A B C D
Protection against arrest and detention in certain cases- Article 22 (a) 1 3 2 4
Abolition of untouchability- Article-17 (b) 2 4 5 3
(c) 1 4 2 3
57. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by (d) 2 3 5 4
using the codes given below:
Ans. (c) Right to equality – Article-14
List-I List-II
Right to Freedom- Article-19
(Article) (Matter Dealt With)
Right to freedom of Religion- Article 25
A. Article 39-A 1. Living wage for workers
Right to constitutional Remedies – Article 32
B. Article 43 2. Uniform civil code
C. Article 44 3. Separation of judiciary 60. Consider the following statements :
1. The Eleventh Schedule was inserted in the
D. Article 50 4. Free Legal aid Constitution of India by the Constitution (Seventy
Codes : Third Amendment) Act, 1992.
A B C D 2. The Eleventh Schedule of the Constitution of India
(a) 1 4 2 3 corresponds to Article 243-W of the Constitution of India.
(b) 4 1 3 2 Which of the statements given above is / are correct ?
(c) 4 1 2 3 (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(d) 1 4 3 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (c) Article 39-A Free legal Aid Ans. (a)
Article- 43- Living wage of workers.
61. The idea of organization of Panchayats as a duty of state is
Article- 44 – Uniform Civil Code. mentioned in which part of the Indian Constitution?
Article- 50- Separation of Judiciary. [CDS-2017]
Articles mentioned above are the part of Directive principles of (a) Chapter I (b) Chapter II
the state policy. (c) Chapter III (d) Chapter IV
Ans. (d) Panchayats as a duty of state is mentioned in chapter IV of Ans. (a) The recognized languages in the 8th Schedule of the
the constitution. constitution - Assamese, Bengali, Bodo, Dogri, Gujarati, Hindi,
62. The entry “Public health and Sanitation” is included in the Kannada, Kashmiri, Konkani, Maithili, Malayalam, Manipuri,
Marathi, Nepalli, Oriya, Punjabi, Sanskrit, Santhali, Sindhi, Tamil,
Constitution of India in
Telugu & Urdu.
(a) Union List (b) State List
(c) Concurrent List (d) None of these 67. Which one of the following Articles Schedules in the
Ans. (b) The entry “public health and sanitation” is included in the Constitution of India deals with Autonomous District
state list of the constitution of India. Councils? [CDS 2016-I]
The legislative section is divided into three lists - Union list, State list 1. The ideal of a common civil code is set forth in Article
and Concurrent list. (a) Eighth Schedule (b) Article 370
63. Which of the following are correctly matched? (c) Sixth Schedule (d) Article 250
1. Article 164 - Appointment of Chief Minister in the Ans. (c) The sixth schedule to the constitution of India deals with
State Legislature Autonomous District Councils (ADCs).
2. Article 222- Transfer of High Court Judges
68. Which of the following is/are not central feature(s) of Article
3. Article 11- Power of the Parliament to make laws with
regard to citizenship 343 of the Constitution of India?
(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2 [CDS 2015-II}
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3 1. Hindi in Devanagari Script shall be the national
language of the Union.
Ans. (d) All the three 1, 2, 3 correctly matched.
2. The official language of the Union shall be Hindi in
64. Which of the following is incorrect regarding schedule VI Devanagari Script.
of our Constitution? 3. English language shall continue to be used for official
(a) The areas are administered as Autonomous districts
purposes within States.
over which the executive authority of the states extends
(b) The Government has the power to create new 4. If two or more States agree, Hindi language should be
autonomous districts the official language of communication between the
(c) The autonomous districts are provided with elected States.
bodies known as district councils Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(d) It deals with the administration of the tribal areas of (a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 2 and 4 only
Arunachal Pradesh, Manipur and Nagaland (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 2 only
Ans. (d) Schedule VI of our Constitution does not deal with the Ans. (a) Article 343 of the constitution of India states that:
administration of the tribal areas of Arunachal Pradesh, Manipur and
• Hindi in Devanagari script shall be the national language
Nagaland. There is the provision for administration of Tribal Area in
of the Union.
Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, Mizoram & Arunachal Pradesh in VI
• English language shall continue to be used for official
schedule of Indian Constitution.
purpose within states.
65. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by • If two or more than two states agree, Hindi language
using code given below: should be the official language of communication
List - I List - II between the states.
(Article of Constitution) (Provision)
A. 215 1. Transfer of one Judge from 69. Which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution
one High Court to another of India includes the disqualification of a Legislator on
B. 222 2. Powers of superintendence grounds of defection? [NDA 2007-II]
over all courts by the High (a) 8th Schedule (b) 7th Schedule
Court (c) 6th Schedule (d) 10th Schedule
C. 226 3. Power of High Court to
Ans. (d) The 10th Schedule to the Indian Constitution is known as
issue certain writs.
Anti-Defection Law. It was inserted by the 52nd Amendment Act 1985
D. 227 4. High Court to be to the Constitution. It sets the provisions for disqualification of elected
court of Record members on the grounds of defection to another political party.
Codes:
A B C D 70. Which schedule of the Constitution of India contains the
(a) 4 1 3 2 three lists that divide powers between the Union and the
(b) 2 1 3 4 states? [NDA 2008-I]
(c) 1 4 3 2 (a) Fifth (b) Sixth
(d) 4 2 3 1 (c) Seventh (d) Eigth
Ans. (a) Ans. (c) 7th Schedule gives allocation of powers and functions
66. Which one of the following language is not recognized in between Union & States. It contains 3 lists:
the Eighth Sehedule to the Constitution of India Union List (97 Subjects)
[CDS 2016-I] States List (66 subjects)
(a) English (b) Sanskrit Concurrent List(52 subjects)
(c) Urdu (d) Nepali
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C-16 INDIAN POLITY
71. Match the following [NDA 2008-I] 75. Which of the following statement(s) is/are not correct for
List-I List-II the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India ?
(Schedule in the (Subject) [NDA 2015-I]
Constitution of India) 1. It was inserted by the first amendment in 1951.
(A) Tenth Schedule 1. Languages 2. It includes those laws which are beyond the purview
(B) Eighth Schedule 2. Provisions as to of judicial review.
disqualification on the 3. It was inserted by the 42nd Amendment.
grounds of defection 4. The laws in the Ninth Schedule are primarily those
(C) First Schedule 3. Validation of certain which pertain to the matters of national security.
Acts and Regulations Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(D) Ninth Schedule 4. The States (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
Codes: (c) 3 and 4 (d) 3 only
A B C D Ans. (c) The Ninth Schedule was added by the 1st Amendment 1951
(a) 4 3 2 1 to protect the laws included in it from judicial scrutiny on the ground
(b) 2 1 4 3
of violation of fundamental rights.However in 2007 Supreme Court
(c) 4 1 2 3
ruled that the laws included in it after 24 April 1973 are now open to
(d) 2 3 4 1
judicial review.
Ans. (b) Schedule X was added by 52nd amendment in 1985. It
contains provisions of disqualification on the grounds of defection. 76. Which of the following is not true of Article 32 of the Indian
Constitution ? [NDA 2015-I]
72. Consider the following statements [NDA 2008-II] (a) It gives the Supreme Court and the High Courts
1. Article 46 of the Constitution of India provides for free the power to issue writs for the enforcement of
legal aid to Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes. Fundamental Rights.
2. Article 14 of the Constitution of India provides for (b) It is included in Part III of the Indian Constitution and
equality before law. is therefore itself a Fundamental Right.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (c) Dr. Ambedkar called it the ‘very soul of the Indian
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 Constitution’.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) An aggrieved person has no right to complain under
Ans. (b) Article 46 deals with Promotion of educational and economic Article 32 where a Fundamental Right has not been
interests of the weaker sections of the people, and in particular, of violated.
the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes and shall protect them Ans. (d) Under Article 226, a High Court can issue these writs not only
from social injustice and all forms of exploitation. It does not provide for the purpose of enforcement of the fundamental rights but also for the
free legal aid to them. According to Article 14, “the State shall not redress of any other injury or illegality, owing to contravention of the
deny to any person equality before the law or equal protection of the ordinary law.
laws within the territory of India”.
77. The Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution contains
73. According to Article 164(1) of the Constitution of India, provisions for the administration of Tribal areas. Which of
in three States there shall be a Minister in charge of tribal the following States is not covered under this Schedule ?
welfare who may in addition be in charge of the welfare of [NDA 2015-I]
the Scheduled Castes and Backward Classes. Which one (a) Assam (b) Manipur
of the following States is not covered by the Article? (c) Meghalaya (d) Tripura
[NDA 2009-I]
(a) Jharkhand (b) Punjab Ans. (b) Tribal areas generally mean areas having preponderance
(c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Odisha of tribal population. However, the Constitution of India refers tribal
areas within the States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura & Mizoram, as
Ans. (b) According to Article 164(1) in the State of Bihar, Madhya those areas specified in Parts I, II, IIA & III of the table appended to
Pradesh and Orissa, there shall be a Minister in charge of tribal welfare paragraph 20 of the Sixth Schedule.
who may in addition be in charge of the welfare of the Scheduled
Castes and backward classes or any other work. Punjab is not covered 78. Which one of the following pairs of the Schedule in the
by the Article. Constitution of India and its Content is not correctly
matched? [NDA/NA 2016-I]
74. Which of the following statements is/are correct? Schedule Content
Under the provisions of Article 200 of the Constitution of (a) Eighth Schedule : Languages
India the Governor of a state may [NDA 2012-I] (b) Second Schedule : The forms of oaths and
1. Withhold his assent to a Bill passed by the state affirmations
legislature. (c) Fourth Schedule : Allocation of seats in the
2. Reserve the Bill passed by the state legislature for Council of States
consideration of the President. (d) Tenth Schedule : Provisions as to
3. Return the Bill, other than a money Bill, for disquialification on the
reconsideration of the legislature. ground of defection
Select the correct answer using the codes given below Ans. (b)
(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 (d) All of the above 79. The two provisions of the Constitution of India that most
clearly express the power of Judicial review are:
Ans. (d) All of the above statements are correct. [NDA/NA 2015-II]
(a) Article 21 and Article 446 List-I List-II

(b) Article 32 and Article 226 A. Article 14 1. Amendment
(c) Article 44 and Article 152 procedure
(d) Article 17 and Article 143 B. Article 36 2. Council of Ministers
Ans. (b) Legislature, executive and judiciary under the Constitution C. Article 74 3. Right to Equality
are to exercise powers with checks and balances, but not in water-tight D. Article 368 4. Directive Principles
rigid mould. In India, on the basis of Articles 32 and 136, the Supreme Codes :
Court can exercise the power of judicial review. A B C D
(a) 2 1 4 3
80. The Fourth Schedule to the Constitution of India deals with: (b) 4 1 3 2
[NDA/NA 2015-II] (c) 1 2 3 4
(a) provisions related to the administration of tribal areas. (d) 3 4 2 1
(b) allocation of seats in the Council of States.
(c) the Union List, The State List and the Concurrent List. Ans. (d) The correct matching will be as following :
(d) recognized languages of the Union of India. List – I List – II
A. Article 14 3. Right to Equality
Ans. (b) The Fourth Schedule (Articles 4(1) and 80(2)) of the Indian B. Article 36 4. Directive Principles
Constitution deals with the allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha (the C. Article 74 2. Council of Ministers
upper house of Parliament) per State or Union Territory. D. Article 368 1. Amendment procedure
81. The Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India contains 86. Under which one of the following Articles of the Indian
[NDA/NA 2015-I] Constitution, the Legislative Assembly is allowed to
(a) provisions regarding the administration of tribal areas resolve for the creation of the Legislative Council?
(b) the Union List, the State List and the Concurrent List [UP-PCS 2010]
(c) a list of recognized languages (a) 168 (b) 169
(d) provisions about the disqualification of Members of (c) 170 (d) 171
Legislatures on grounds of defection
Ans. (b)
Ans. (b) The Seventh Schedule is given under Article 246 and
includesThe union (central government) state, and concurrent lists of 87. Under which one of the following articles of Indian
responsibilities. Constitution, provision of creation or abolition of
Legislative Councils in States are made? [UP-PCS 2013]
82. Article 368 of the Constitution of India deals with (a) Article 168 (b) Article 169
[NDA/NA 2015-I] (c) Article 170 (d) Article 171
(a) the powers of the Parliament of India to amend the
Constitution Ans. (b) Article 169 deals with the provision of creation or abolition
(b) financial emergency of Legislative Councils in states.
(c) reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled 88. Provision for appointment of National Commission for
Tribes in the Lok Sabha SC’s and ST’s has been made in the Constitution under
(d) Official Language of the Union of India article [UP-PCS 2013]
Ans. (a) The Article 368 deals with power of Parliament to amend (a) 338 and 338 A (b) 337
the Constitution and its procedure. (c) 334 (d) 339
83. Under which Article of Indian Constitution, President of Ans. (a) Artilce 338 deals with National Commission for Scheduled
India enjoys power to withhold his assent on any Bill? Castes. National Commission for Scheduled Tribes is related with
Article 338A.
[UP-PCS 2008]
(a) Article 63 (b) Article 108 89. Provision for the representation of Anglo - Indian
(c) Article 109 (d) Article 111 Community in the Lok sabha has been made in the
Ans. (d) According to Article 111 when a bill is passed by both the Constitution under the article [UP-PCS 2013]
House of Parliament it will be presented to the President for his assent. (a) 331 (b) 221
now the President will decide whether to given his assent to the bill or (c) 121 (d) 139
withhold his assent. Ans. (a) Representation of the Anglo-Indian community in the Lok
Sabha or Lower House of parliament is mentioned in the Article 331
84. Which one of the following pairs about the subject and
of the Indian Constitution.
the respective list under the Constitution of India is not
correctly matched? [UP-PCS 2009] 90. Which part of our Constitution envisages a three tier
Subject List system of Panchayat? [UP-PCS 2013]
(a) Forests – Concurrent List (a) Part IX (b) Part X
(b) Stock Exchange – Concurrent List (c) Part XI (d) Part XII
(c) Post Office – Union List Ans. (a) Part IX of the constitution under article 243-C deals with
Saving Bank Composition of Panchayats
(d) Public Health – State List
91. Which one of the following articles directs state
Ans. (b) Share Market relates to Union list. Government of organize Village Panchayats?
85. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer [UP-PCS 2014]
using the code given below the lists : [UP-PCS 2010] (a) Article 32 (b) Article 40
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C-18 INDIAN POLITY
Ans. (b) Article 40 of the Indian constitution deals with organisation 97. Article 40 of the Constitution of India advises the State to
of village panchayats by state government.
work for [UP-PCS 2015]
(a) Uniform Civil Code
92. The financial relations between the Union Government (b) Organisation of Village Panchayats
and States have been discussed under. [UP-PCS 2014] (c) Constitution of Municipalities
(a) Article 168 to 171 (b) Article 268 to 281 (d) Living wages for workers
(c) Article 278 to 291 (d) Article 289 to 295
Ans. (b) Article 40 of the Indian constitution deals with organisation
Ans. (b) The financial relations between Union Government and State of village panchayats.
Government or more specifically distribution of revenues between the
Union and the States have been discussed under Articles 268 to 281 98. The appointment of a Governor in a state is made as per
of the Indian Constitution. the provision in the Constitution under article.
[UP-PCS 2015]
93. Which one of the following Articles of Indian Constitution (a) 153 (b) 154
vests in the President of India the power to issue (c) 155 (d) 156
ordinances? [UP-PCS 2015]
Ans. (c) Appointment of the Governor of Indian state is described
under Article 155 of the Indian constitution.
(c) Article 123 (d) Article 124 (2)
Ans. (c) President can issue ordinance when one of the houses of 99. Which of the following Articles cannot be suspended
the Parliament is not in session. The Article 123 deals with Power of during the national emergency? [UP-PCS 2015]
President to promulgate Ordinances during recess of Parliament. (a) Articles 14 and 15 (b) Articles 19 and 20
(c) Articles 21 and 22 (d) Articles 20 and 21
94. Match List –I with List _ II and select the correct answer
using the codes given below the lists : [UP-PCS 2015] Ans. (d) Article 20 and 21 cannot be suspended during national
emergency.
List – I List – II
(Provision) (Article number the 100. Under Article 72 of the Constitution of India, President
Constitution) has the power to grant :
A. Equality before Laws 1. Article 42 I. Pardons II. Reprieves
B. Right of Work 2. Article 45 III. Respites IV. Remission
C. Just and Humane V. Commutation
conditions of of work 3. Article 14
The correct code is –
D. Free and compulsory 4. Article 41
education for children (a) I and V are correct
Codes : (b) I, II, III and IV are correct
A B C D (c) II, III, IV and V are correct
(a) 1 2 3 4 (d) All are correct
(b) 3 4 1 2 Ans. (d) Article 72 says that the President shall have the power to
(c) 2 1 4 3 grant Pardons, Reprieves, Respites or Remissions of Punishment or
(d) 4 3 1 2 to Suspend, Remit or Commute the sentence of any person convicted
Ans. (b) of any offence.
95. Eleventh schedule of the Constitution of India is related? 101. Which Article of Indian Constitution defines a money Bill?
UP-PCS 2015] (a) Article 110 (b) Article 150
(a) Panchayati Raj (b) Muncipality (c) Article 280 (d) Article 285
(c) Centre Sate relations (d) None of the above Ans. (a) A money bill is defined by Article 110 of the constitution.
Ans. (a) The Eleventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution is related 102. According to the Supreme Court of India, the foundation
to Powers, authority and responsibilities of Panchayats. of ‘composite culture’, as mentioned in clause (f) of
96. Assertion (A) : Under Article 368, the Parliament can Article 51 A, is : [UGC 2016]
amend any part of the Constitution. [UP-PCS 2015] (a) the diverse culture of India
Reason (R) : The Parliament is the Supreme Legislative (b) the Sanskrit language and literature
body elected by the people of India. (c) the secular fabric of India
Choose the correct answer using the codes given below : (d) the values evolved during the freedom movement
Codes : Ans. (b) According to Supreme Court of India, the Foundation of
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct ‘Composite Culture’, as mentioned in clause (f) of Article 51 A is the
explanation of (A) Sanskrit Language and literature.
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the
103. Which of the following is / are listed among the Directive
correct explanation of (A)
Principles in Part-IV of the Constitution of Indian?
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false
[BPSC 2017]
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true
I. Equal Pay for Equal Work
Ans. (a) Article 368 of the Constitution deals with the powers of II. Uniform Civil Code
Parliament to amend the Constitution and its procedure. The Parliament III. Small family norm
of India is the supreme legislative body of the Republic of India. The IV. Education through mother tongue at primary level
Indian Parliament consists of the President, Lok Sabha (the Lower (a) I, II and III (b) I and II
House), and the Rajya Sabha (Upper House). (c) II and III (d) I, II and IV
Ans. (b) Small family norm and Education through mother tongue at (a) Article 13 (II) and 14
primary level are not listed among the Directive Principles in Part-IV (b) Article 14 and 15
of the Indian Constitution. (c) Article 15 (IV) and 16 (IV)
(d) Article 17 and 18
104. The Supreme Court has held that hoisting the National
flag atop the private buildings is a fundamental right of Ans. (c) Under Article 15 (IV) and 16 (IV), the provision of
every citizen under – [BPSC 2017] reservation for OBC is made in the constitution.
(a) Article 14 of the Constitution 109. Which one of the following Articles provides reservation
(b) Article 19(1) (a) of the Constitution of seats for the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in
(c) Article 21 of the Constitution the Panchayats? [UK-PSC 2016]
(d) Article 25 of the Constitution (a) Article 243 (D) (b) Article 243 (C)
Ans. (b) The Supreme Court has held that hoisting the National flag (c) Article 243 (B) (d) Article 243 (A)
atop the Private buildings is a fundamental right of every citizen under Ans. (a) Article 243 (D) provides reservation of seats for the
Article 19 (1) (a) of the constitution. scheduled castes and scheduled Tribes in the panchayats.
105. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer 110. Which of the following Article of Indian Constitution
from the codes given below – mentions the ‘Doctrine of Pleasure’?
List-I List – II [Chhatisgarh-PSC 2016]
(Articles of the Constitution) (Institutions) (a) Article 200 (b) Article 301
(A) Article 280 1. Administrative (c) Article 310 (d) Article 311
Tribunals Ans. (c) The doctrine of Pleasure is embodied in India in Article 310.
(B) Article 324 2. Election Commission 111. In which Article, the provision of reservation of Scheduled
of India Caste and Scheduled Tribes to Panchayat has been given ?
(C) Article 323 3. Finance Commission [Chhatisgarh-PSC 2016]
at Union level (a) 243 A (b) 243 B
(D) Article 315 4. Union Public Service (c) 243 C (d) 243 D
Commission Ans. (d) Under Article 243 D, the provision of reservation of
Codes : Scheduled caste and Scheduled Tribes to panchayat has been given.
(A) (B) (C) (D) 112. The term District Judge is mentioned in which of the
(a) 1 2 3 4 following Article of Constitution?
(b) 3 2 1 4 [Chhatisgarh-PSC 2016]
(c) 2 3 4 1 (a) Article 230 (b) Article 231
(d) 2 4 3 1 (c) Article 232 (d) Article 233
Ans. (a) Ans. (d) In Article 233, the term District Judge has been mentioned
List - I List - II in the Indian Constitution.
(Articles of the (Institution) 113. Censorship of the press is –
Constitution) (a) Prohibited by the Constitution
(A) Article 280 Administrative Tribunals (b) Judged by test of reasonableness
(B) Article 324 Election Commission of India (c) Restriction on freedom of the press mentioned in Article 19
(C) Article 323 Finance Commission at Union Level (d) Specified in Article 31 of the Indian Constitution
(D) Article 315 Union Public Service commission Ans. (b) Censorship of the press is Judged by test of reasonableness.
106. Which of the following is not correctly matched under the 114. Consider the following statements : [IAS Prelim - 2018]
Constitution of India? [UP-RO 2016] 1. The Parliament of India can place a particular law in
(a) The panchayats — Part IX the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of Indi(a)
(b) The Municipalities — Part IX – A 2. The validity of a law placed in the Ninth Schedule
(c) The Cooperative Societies — Part IX – B cannot be examined by any court and no judgement
(d) Tribunals — Part – X can be made on it.
Ans. (d) The tribunal are described in the Part XIV A of the Indian (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
Constitution from article 323 A to 323 B. Part X deals with the (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
scheduled and tribal areas from article 244 to article 244 A.
Ans. (a) First statement is correct. the 1st Amendment to the
107. According to which Article of Constitution of India, the constitution (1951) had inserted new Articles 31A and 31B and the
Chief Minister is appointed by the Governor of A State? Ninth Schedule, thus securing the constitutional validity of zamindari
[UK-PSC 2016] abolition laws by, among other things, specifying that they could not
(a) Article 163 (b) Article 164 be challenged on the grounds that they violated the Fundamental
(c) Article 165 (d) Article 166 Rights. Subsequent governments have added other progressive laws
in the same, to give them immunity from litigation. Government add
Ans. (b) Under Article 164 of Constitution of India, the chief minister
the acts in the 9th schedule, ‘via parliament’ so first statement is right.
is appointed by the governor of a state. • In I.R. Coelho case(2007), the Supreme Court ruled that there
108. The provisions of reservation for OBC is made in the could not be any blanketimmunity from judicial review of laws
Constitution under which Articles? [UK-PSC 2016] included in the Ninth Schedule. So statement: 2 is WRONG
EBD_9432
C-20 INDIAN POLITY
115. In which Article of the Constitution of India was the Ans. (a) Parliament can amend the official language of India by the
provision for reservation of scheduled castes in the Lok simple majority of its members. The process of amendment in the Indian
Sabha made? [BPSC - 2018] Constitution is described in Article 368 of Part XX of the Constitution.
(a) Article 330 (b) Article 331 According to this article Parliament can amend the Constitution.
122. Which one of the following Amendments to the
(e) None of the above/More than one of the above Constitution of India has prescribed that the Council of
Ans. (a) In the Indian Constitution, seats have been reserved in the Ministers shall not exceed 15 percent of total number
Lok Sabha for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in Article -330. of members of the House of the People or Legislative
116. Under which one of the following Articles is the formation Assembly in the States? [2018-1]
of Finance Commission laid down? [BPSC- 2018] (a) 91st Amendment (b) 87th Amendment
(a) Article 280 (b) Article 269 (c) 97th Amendment (d) 90th Amendment
(c) Article 268 (d) Article 265 Ans. (a) Amendments to the Constitution of India has prescribed that
(e) None of the above/More than one of the above the Council of Ministers shall not exceed 15 percent of total number of
members of the House of the People or Legislative Assembly in the States.
Ans. (a) The Finance Commission is a constitutional body which
was created by the President of India in 1950 under Article 280 of 123. Under which one of the following Amendment Acts was
the Constitution of India. It is appointed for five years. It is formed Sikkim admitted into the Union of India? [2018-1]
to define financial relations between the central government and the (a) 35th (b) 36th
state governments.
(c) 37th (d) 38th
117. Which one of the following is not correctly matched? Ans. (b) Sikkim became a state of India via the Thirty-sixth
Article of the India Constitution Related State Amendment Act, 1975 on 26th April, 1975. The Sikkim State day is
[MPPSC - 2018] observed on 16th May of every year because this was the day when
(a) 371 A : Nagaland (b) 371 B : Assam the first Chief Minister of Sikkim assumed office.
(c) 371 C : Meghalaya (d) 371 D : Andhra Pradesh 124. Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of
Ans. (c) Article 371C has special provisions regarding the state of India deals with the special provision with respect to the
Manipur. State of Assam? [CDS II 2018]
118. Under which one of the following Sections of the (a) Article 371A (b) Article 371 B
Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955 has protection of (c) Article 371C (d) Article 371D
action taken in good faith been provided ? Ans. (b) Article 371B in The Constitution Of India 1949 provides special
(a) Section 16 A (b) Section 15 A provision with respect to the State of Assam Notwithstanding anything
(c) Section 16 B (d) Section 14 A in this Constitution, the President may, by order made with respect to the
State of Assam, provide for the constitution and functions of a committee
Ans. (d) Under Section 14 A, protection of the action taken in good
of the Legislative Assembly of the State consisting of members of that
faith in a section under the protection of the Civil Rights Act, 1955
Assembly elected from the tribal areas specified in Part I of the table
has been provided.
appended to paragraph 20 of the Sixth Schedule and such number of other
119. Under which of the following Sections of the Protection members of that Assembly as may be specified in the order and for the
of Civil Rights Act, 1955 has offences by companies been modifications to be made in the rules of procedure of that Assembly for
provided ? the constitution and proper functioning of such committee.
(a) Section 10 (b) Section 12 125. Provisions of which one of the following Articles of the
(c) Section 14 (d) Section 16 Constitution of India apply to the State of Jammu and
Ans. (c) under sectina 14 of the sections of the protection of civil Kashmir? [CDS II 2018]
rights act 1955 has offences by companies been provided. (a) Article 238 (b) Article 370
120. The Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955 extends to (c) Article 371 (d) Article 371G
(a) whole of India Ans. (b), Article 370 of the Indian constitution is an article that gives
(b) whole of India except the State of Jammu and autonomous status to the state of Jammu and Kashmir. The article is
Kashmir drafted in Part XXI of the Constitution: Temporary, Transitional and
Special Provisions.
(c) Union Territories
(d) only the State of Jammu and Kashmir 126. Which one of the following Schedules to the Constitution
of India provides for setting up of Autonomous District
Ans. (a) The protection of civil rights act 1955 extends to Whole of
Councils? [CDS II 2018]
India. The Act extends to the whole of India and provides punishment
for the practice of untouchability. (a) Third Schedule (b) Fourth Schedule
(e) Fifth Schedule (d) Sixth Schedule
121. Parliament can Amend the provision on official language
of India under the Constitution by [UP-PCS-2018 Ans. (d) Sixth Schedule, the four states viz. Assam, Meghalaya,
Tripura and Mizoram contain the Tribal Areas which are technically
(a) a simple majority of its members different from the Scheduled Areas. Though these areas fall within
(b) 2/3rd majority the executive authority of the state, provision has been made for the
(c) 3/4th majority creation of the District Councils and regional councils for the exercise
(d) support of 1/3 of its members of the certain legislative and judicial powers.
127. Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution Ans. (b) Article 280 in The Constitution Of India 1949 – Finance
of India lays down that no citizen can be denied the use Commission at Union level
of wells, tanks and bathing Ghats maintained out of State Article 324 – Superintendence, direction and control of elections to
funds? [CDS I 2019] be vested in an Election Commission
(a) Article 14 (b) Article 15 Article 323 – Administrative Tribunals
(c) Article 16 (d) Article 17 Article 315 – Union Public Service Commission
Ans. (b) Article 15 states Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of
131. According to Article 120 of the Constitution of India, the
religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth. No citizen shall, on grounds
business in Parliament shall be transacted in
only of religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth or any of them, be
[UGC December 2009]
subject to any disability, liability, restriction or condition with regard
(a) English only
to- (a) access to shops, public restaurants, hotels and places of public
(b) Hindi only
entertainment; or (b) the use of wells, tanks, bathing ghats, roads and
(c) English and Hindi both
places of public resort maintained wholly or partly out of State funds
(d) All the languages included in Eighth Schedule of the
or dedicated to the use of the general public.
Constitution
128. Which one of the following is not correct about the Ans. (c) Article 120: Language to be used in Parliament - (1) Notwithstanding
Panchayats as laid down in Part IX of the Constitution of anything in part XVII, but subject to the provisions of article 348, business in
India? [CDS I 2019] Parliament shall be transacted in Hindi or in English.
(a) The Chairperson of a Panchayat needs to be directly
elected by people in order to exercise the right to vote 132. Which part of the Constitution of India is known as “Code
in the Panchayat meetings. of Administrators”? [UGC June 2009]
(b) The State Legislature has the right to decide whether (a) Part I (b) Part II
or not offices of the Chairpersons in the Panchayats (c) Part III (d) Part IV
are reserved for SCs, STs or women. Ans. (d) The Directive Principles are contained in Part IV (Article
(c) Unless dissolved earlier, every Panchayat continues 36-51) of the Constitution of India, are not enforceable by any court,
for a period of five years. but the principles laid down therein are considered irrefutable in the
(d) The State Legislature may by law make provisions governance of the country. They relate to social justice, economic
for audit of accounts of the Panchayats. welfare, foreign policy, and legal and administrative matters.
Ans. (c) Inflation in the country continued to moderate during 2017- 133. Which article of the constitution provides safeguards to
18. Consumer Price Index(CPI) based headline inflation averaged 3.3 Naga Customary and their social practices against any act
per cent during the period which is the lowest in the last six financial of Parliament ? [UGC June 2009]
years. This has been stated in the Economic Survey 2017-18. There (a) Article 371 A (b) Article 371 B
was a significant reduction in food inflation too. (c) Article 371 C (d) Article 263
129. Which of the following rights was considered the Ans. (a) The parliament of India passed the (Thirteen Amendment)
“Heart and Soul” of the Indian Constitution by Dr. B.R. Act, 1962, and inserted Article 371 (A) on the eve of the creation of
Ambedkar? [UGC June 2012] the new state of Nagaland. The Amendment was necessitated to fulfill
(a) Freedom of Speech the aspiration of the people of the then Naga Hills — Tuensang Area
(b) Right to Equality and to facilitate the creation of the 16th State of Indian Union.
(c) Right to Freedom of Religion 134. Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of
(d) Right to Constitutional Remedies India safeguards the rights of Minorities to establish and
run educational institutions of their own liking?
Ans. (d) Article 32 of the Indian Constitution was described the [UGC December 2006]
Right to Constitutional Remedies as the heart and soul of the Indian (a) Article 19 (b) Article 29
Constitution by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar. (c) Article 30 (d) Article 31
130. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer Ans. (c) Article 30 is classified under Part III of the Indian
from the codes given below : [UGC June 2010] Constitution that elucidates all the Fundamental Rights guaranteed to
List – I (Articles of List – II the citizens of India irrespective of their religion, caste and sex. Article
the Constitution) (Institutions) 30 upholds the right of the minorities “to establish and administer
A. Article 280 (i) Administrative Tribunals educational institutions.”
B. Article 324 (ii) Election Commission of 135. According to the passage, the Election Commission is
India an independent constitutional authority. This is under
C. Article 323 (iii) Finance Commission at Article No. [UGC June 2006]
Union level (a) 324 (b) 356
D. Article 315 (iv) Union Public Service (c) 246 (d) 161
Commission Ans. (a) 324
Codes :
136. The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed from
A B C D his office under Article : [UGC June 2006]
(a) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(a) 125 (b) 352
(b) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(c) 226 (d) 324
(c) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(d) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i) Ans. (d) 324
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C-22 INDIAN POLITY
137. Under which schedule of the Constitution of India can 141. Which provision of the Constitution of India provides that
the transfer of tribal land to private parties for mining be the President shall not be answerable to any Court in India
declared null and void? [IAS Prelims 2019] for the exercise of powers of his office ? [CDS 2019-II]
(a) Third Schedule (b) Fifth Schedule (a) Article 53 (b) Article 74
(c) Ninth Schedule (d) Twelfth Schedule (c) Article 361 (d) Article 363
Ans. (b) Fifth Schedule of the Constitution deals with the Ans. (c) Article 361 of the co situation of India extends protection to
administration and control of scheduled areas. The Governor can make the president from legal liability. He enjoys personal immunity legal
regulations to prohibit or restrict the transfer of land by or among liability for his official acts. During his term of office, he is immune
members of the scheduled tribes. So, (b) is the right answer. from any criminal proceedings.
138. In India, separation of judiciary from the executive is 142. Which of the following is correct about the heading of the
enjoined by [IAS Prelims 2020] Article 162 of the Constitution of India?
(a) The Preamble of the Constitution [UPPSC Prelims 2019]
(b) A Directive Principle of state policy (a) Executive Power of State
(c) The Seventh schedule (b) Conditions of Governor’s Office
(d) The conventional practice (c) Term of the Office of Governor
Ans. (b) Article 36 to Article 51 of our Constitution deal with (d) Extension of Executive Power of State
Directive Principles of the State Policy. Within that Article 50 deals Ans. (d) Article 162 in The Constitution of India is written as:
prescribes Separation of judiciary from executive. “Extent of executive power of State Subject to the provisions of this
139. Which of the following statements relating to the Fifth Constitution”. In general, he executive power of a State shall extend
Schedule of the Constitution of India is not correct ? to the matters with respect to which the Legislature of the State has
[CDS 2019-II] power to make laws.
(a) It relates to the special provision for administration 143. Which of the following is NOT correctly matched?
of certain areas in the States other than Assam, [UPPSC Prelims 2019]
Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram. (a) Public Health and Sanitation State List
(b) Tribal advisory councils are to be constituted to give (b) Census Union List
advice under the Fifth Schedule. (c) Allocation of seats in the Second
(c) The Governor is not authorized to make regulations Council of States Schedule
to prohibit or restrict the transfer of land by, or among (d) Anti-Defection Tenth Schedule
members of the Scheduled Tribes.
(d) The Governors of the States in which there are Ans. (c) First schedule: contains the list of states and union
scheduled areas have to submit reports to the President territories and their territories
regarding the administration of such areas. Second schedule: contains provisions of salary to constitutional posts
Third Schedule: contains the Forms of Oaths or Affirmations.
Ans. (c) The Fifth Schedule of the Constitution deals with the Fourth Schedule: contains provisions as to the allocation of seats in
administration and control of Scheduled Areas as well as of Scheduled the Council of States.
Tribes residing in any State other than the States of Assam, Meghalaya, Fifth Schedule: contains provisions as to the Administration and
Tripura and Mizoram. Control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes.
In the Article 244(1) of the Constitution, expression Scheduled Sixth Schedule: contains provisions as to the Administration of Tribal
Areas means such areas as the President may by order declare to be Areas in the States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.
Scheduled Areas. Seventh Schedule: contains the Union list, State list and the concurrent
The President may at any time by order direct that the whole or any list.
specified part of a Scheduled Area shall cease to be a Scheduled Area Eighth Schedule: contains the list of 28 recognized languages.
or a part of such an area; increase the area of any Scheduled Area in Ninth Schedule: contains provisions as to validation of certain Acts
a State after consultation with the Governor of that State; alter, but and Regulations.
only by way of rectification of boundaries, any Scheduled Area; on Tenth Schedule: contains provisions as to disqualification on ground
any alteration of the boundaries of a State on the admission into the of defection.
Union or the establishment of a new State, declare any territory not Eleventh Schedule: contains the powers, authority and responsibilities
previously included in any State to be, or to form part of, a Scheduled of Panchayats.
Area; rescind, in relation to any State of States, any order or orders Twelfth Schedule: contains the powers, authority and responsibilities
made under these provisions and in consultation with the Governor of Municipalities.
of the State concerned, make fresh orders redefining the areas which
are to be Scheduled Areas. 144. Which one of the following is NOT correctly matched?
140. Article 371A of the Constitution of India provides special
(a) Fundamental Duties - Part IV A
privileges to [CDS 2019-II]
(b) The States - Part VI
(a) Nagaland (b) Mizoram
(c) Attorney General of India - Part XIII
(c) Sikkim (d) Manipur
(d) Services under the - Part XIV
Ans. (a) 371A. Special provision with respect to the State of Union and States
Nagaland.—(1) Notwithstanding anything in this Constitution,—
Ans. (d) Fundamental Duties – Part IVA of the Constitution
No Act of Parliament in respect of— (i) religious or social practices of
The States – Part VI
the Nagas, (ii) Naga customary law and procedure, (iii) administration
Attorney General of India – Part XIII
of civil and criminal justice involving decisions according to Naga
Services under the Union and States – Part IV
customary law, (iv) ownership and transfer of land and its resources.
145. Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer Ans. (d) Preamble is the philosophical foundation of the Indian
using the codes given below the lists: constitution.
4. Which one of the following liberties is not embodied in
List - I List - II
the Preamble to the Constitution of India?
(Article) (Provision)
(a) Liberty of thought (b) Liberty of expression
Removal of Deputy (c) Liberty of belief (d) Economic liberty
A. Article 61 1.
Chairman of Rajya Sabha Ans. (d) Economic liberty is not embodied in the Preamble to the
B. Article 67(b) 2. Impeachment of President constitution of India.
C. Article 94 3. Removal of Vice-President 5. Which one of the following words was not included in the
D. Article 90 4. Removal of Speaker Preamble of the Indian Constitution in 1975 ?
Codes : (a) Fraternity (b) Sovereign
A B C D A B C D (c) Equality (d) Integrity
(a) 2 4 3 1 (b) 3 2 4 1 Ans. (d) ‘Integrity’ word was not included in the preamble.
(c) 2 3 4 1 (d) 4 1 3 2
6. Consider the following statements in regard to the
Ans. (c) Article 61 of the Indian Constitution gives the procedure for preamble of the Constitution of India;
the impeachment of the President of India. Article 67(B) says about
1. It provides equality of opportunity to its all citizens.
the Removal of the Vice-President. A Vice-President may, by writing
under his hand addressed to the President, resign his office. Article 2. It provides liberty of faith to its all citizens.
94 of the Indian Constitution says about the Removal of the Speaker. 3. It is given by the citizen of India to themselves.
Article 90 deals with the process of removal of Deputy Chairman of Which of the statements given above are correct?
Rajya Sabha. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
146. According to Article 79 of the Constitution of India, which (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
of the following is/are described as a part of Parliament of Ans. (d) According to the preamble of the constitution for India it
India? [NDA 2020] is given by the people of India to themselves but the rights to justice,
1. The House of the People liberty and equality are provided to its citizens.
2. The Council of States 7. Which of the following words were added to the Indian
3. The President of India
Constitution by the 42nd Amendment in 1976?
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. SOCIALIST
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
2. REPUBLIC
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
3. SECULAR
Ans. (d) Article 79 of the Constitution of India deals with composition 4. FRATERNITY
of Parliament of India. The president of India, and both the lower 5. UNITY & INTEGRITY
house and the upper house that is Lok sabha (House of the People) (a) 1, 3 and 5 (b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
and Rajya sabha (council of states) constitute the Parliament. (c) 2, 4 and 5 (d) 2, 4 and 5
Ans. (a) The words ‘SOCIALIST’, ‘SECULAR’ and ‘UNITY’ &
The Preamble
‘INTEGRITY’ were added by the 42nd Amendment in 1976.
1. The mention of the word ‘justice’ in the Preamble to the
Constitution of India expresses 8. Among the following ideals and philosophy, identify those
(a) social, political and religious justice enshrined in the Preamble to the Constitution of India:
(b) social, economic and cultural justice 1. Sovereign democratic republic
(c) social, economic and political justice 2. Socialism and secularism
(d) economic and political justice 3. Capitalism and free trade
Ans. (c) The mention of the world ‘justice’ in the Preamble to the Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Constitution of India expresses social, economic and political justice. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
Preamble has been amended only once so far during the emergency (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 3 only
in India, 1976. Ans. (a)
2. Which term is not used in the Preamble of the Indian 9. The preamble to the Indian Constitution serves the
Constitution ? following purpose.
(a) Republic (b) Integrity 1. The Preamble indicates the source from which the
(c) Federal (d) Socialist
Constitution desires its power.
Ans. (c) The term Federal is not used in the Preamble of the Indian 2. It also states the objects which the Constitution seeks
Constitution. to establish and promote.
3. The philosophical foundation of the Indian constitution is The correct answer is
(a) Directive principle of state policy (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(b) Fundamental rights (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Federal structure Ans. (c)
(d) Preamble
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C-24 INDIAN POLITY
10. Consider the following statements related to secularism in 13. Which one among the following statements is not
India: correct? [NDA 2012-I]
1. It entails strict separation of religion from politics. The word ‘socialist’ in the Preamble of the Constitution of
2. It bans parties with religious affiliations from India read with
contesting elections. (a) Article 39 (d), would enable the court to uphold the
3. It grants religious liberty to all communities. constitutionality of nationalisation laws
4. It accepts community personal laws. (b) Article 14, would enable the court to strike down
Which of the statements given above are correct? a-statute which failed to achieve the socialist goal to
(a) 3 and 4 (b) 1 and 2 the fullest extent
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (c) Article 25, would enable the court to ensure freedom
guaranteed under that Article
Ans. (c) Following are the features of Indian secularism: (d) Article 23, would enable the court to reduce inequality
1. The state should not have any religion of its own. in income and status
2. All the religions shall be equally protected by the state.
Ans. (d) Traffic in human beings and beggars and other similar
3. Free exercise of right to freedom of religion. forms of forced labour are prohibited and any contravention of this
4. State shall not discriminate against any particular religion. It provision shall be an offence punishable in accordance with law . The
means that the state shall not prefer, favour or disfavour any terms ‘Socialist’ was added by the 42nd Amendment and assert that
particular religion viz-a-viz others. the government must adopt socialistic policies to ensure decent life
5. Religious tolerance. for all Indian citizens. Thus, the word Socialist in the preamble of
11. The following are enshrined in the Preamble to the the Constitution of India read with Article23.
Constitution of India: [CDS-2017] 14. The Preamble is useful in constitutional interpretation
1. Equality of status and opportunity. because it [NDA 2012-II]
2. Liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship. (a) uses value loaded words
3. Justice – social, economic and political. (b) contains the real objective and philosophy of the
4. Fraternity assuring the dignity of the individual. constitution makers
5. Unity and integrity of the Nation. (c) is a source of power and limitation
Which one of the following is the correct order in which (d) gives and exhaustive list of basic features of the
they appear in the Preamble? Constitution
(a) 5, 1, 2, 4, 3 (b) 3, 2, 1, 4, 5 Ans. (b) The preamble is useful in constitutional interpretation
(c) 3, 1, 2, 5, 4 (d) 1, 2, 4, 3, 5 because it contains the real objective and philosophy of the constitution
Ans. (b) The Preamble reads: makers.
• We, the People of India having solemnly resolved to 15. Among the following ideals and philosophy, identify those
constitute India into a Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, enshrined in the Preamble to the Constitution of India.
Democratic, Republic and to secure to all its citizens; [NDA 2013-II]
• Justice, social, economic, political; 1. Sovereign democratic republic.
• Liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship; 2. Socialism and secularism.
• Equality of status and opportunity; and to promote 3. Capitalism and free trade.
among them all; Select the correct answer using the codes given below
• Fraternity, assuring the dignity of the individual and the (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
unity and integrity of the nation ; (c) 1,2 and 3 (d) 2 and 3
12. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer Ans. (a) According to the preamble of Indian Constitution, India is a
using the codes given below: Sovereign, Socialist, Secular and Democratic republic. Capitalism and
List-I List-II free trade is not enshrined in the preamble of the Indian constitution.
(Terms Mentioned) (Implications)
in Preamble) 16. Which one of the following objectives is not embodied in
A. Republic 1. Head of the State is not a the Preamble to the Constitution of India?
hereditary monarch (a) Liberty of thought (b) Economic liberty
B. Secular 2. State does not recognise (c) Liberty of expression (d) Liberty of belief
any religion as a state
religion Ans. (b) Read the preamble given in any school textbook: “We, the
C. Democratic 3. Government gets its people of India,....LIBERTY of thought, expression, belief, faith and
authority from the will worship…”So, “B” is the answer.
of the people
17. The mind of the makers of the Constitution of India is
D. Sovereign 4. State is free to conduct
its own internal and reflected in which of the following?
external affairs. (a) The Preamble
Codes : (b) The Fundamental Rights
A B C D (c) The Directive Principles of State Policy
(a) 1 2 3 4 (d) The Fundamental Duties
(b) 1 3 2 4
(c) 2 3 1 4 Ans. (a) Sir Alladi Krishnaswami Iyer, a member of the Constituent
(d) 3 2 1 4 Assembly, had said ‘The Preamble to our Constitution expresses what
we had thought or dreamt so long.” So “A” is the answer.
Ans. (a)
18. How many types of justice, liberty, equality and fraternity 22. Which of the following terms were added to the Preamble
in that order has been mentioned in the preamble of of the Constitution of India by the Constitution Amendment,
constitution of India? 1976? [CDS 2020-II]
(a) 3,5,2, 1 (b) 1,3,5,2 1. Socialist 2. Secular
(c) 2,5,3,1 (d) 5,2,1,3 3. Integrity 4. Fraternity
Ans. (a) Select the correct answer using the code given below.
19. Which of the following statements best reflects the (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3
‘socialist’ feature of the Preamble to the Constitution of (c) 2 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4
India? ----------NTSE Ans. (b)
(a) There are no unreasonable restrictions on how the
citizens express their thoughts Union & Its Territories
(b) The traditional social inequalities have to be abolished
(c) Government should regulate the ownership of land 1. In the Constitution of India the term ‘federal’ :
and industry to reduce socio-economic inequalities (a) Figures in the preamble
(d) No one should treat a fellow citizen as inferior (b) Figures in the part-III
(c) Figures in the Article 368
Ans. (c) Only option c reflects socialist feature. (d) Does not figure anywhere
Government should regulate the ownership of land and industry to
Ans. (d) ‘Federal’ word is not mentioned in the constitution.
reduce socio-economic inequalities. According to the Preamble of Indian
constitution the rules and regulations has been made to lake the land and 2. Consider the following statements with reference to the
industries under the government authorities to remove the socio-economic linguistic reorganisation of states in independent India:
difference or inequalities. Provision has been made to fulfill the basic 1. The separate state of Andhra for the Telugu people
necessities of all and equal pay provision for equal work. came into existence in 1953.
2. Jawaharlal Nehru was particularly in favour of the
20. Which of the following statements relating to the historic movement for linguistic reorganisation of states that came
Objectives Resolution, which was adopted by the in the wake of the success of the Andhra movement.
Constituent Assembly, is/are correct? Which one of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. The Objectives Resolution inspired the shaping of (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
the Constitution through all its subsequent stages. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. It was not just a resolution, but a declaration, a firm
Ans. (a) another linguistic Provinces committee consisted of
resolve and a pledge.
Jawahar Lal Nehru, Sardar Vallahbhai Patel and Pattabhi Sitaramayya,
3. It provided the underlying philosophy of our submitted its report in April 1949 and formally rejected language as
Constitution. the basis for reorganization of states.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 only 3. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 3 only using the codes given below:
List-I List-II
Ans. (c) Objectives Resolution (the resolution that defined the aims of
(State) (Full Statehoold
the Assembly) was moved by Nehru in 1946. This resolution enshrined Granted In)
the aspirations and values behind the Constitution making. his made the A. Goa 1. 1966
moral commitment to establish a government that will fulfil the many B. Haryana 2. 1972
promises that the nationalist movement held before the people of India. C. Meghalaya 3. 1976
21. The Preamble to the Constitution of India is D. Sikkim 4. 1987
[IAS Prelims 2020] Codes :
(a) A part of the Constitution but has no legal effect A B C D
(b) Not a part of the Constitution and has no legal effect (a) 3 1 2 4
either (b) 4 2 1 3
(c) 3 2 1 4
(c) A part of the Constitution and has the same legal effect
(d) 4 1 2 3
as any other part
(d) A part of the Constitution but has no legal effect Ans. (d) These are the new states and Union territories created after
independently of other parts 1956.
Ans. (d) A.K. Gopalan vs State of Madras (1950): Supreme Court 4. The Constitution of India divided the states of India in
ruled that Preamble is not enforceable in a court of law. categories A, B, C and D in the year 1950.
• Berubari Vs Union (1960): Supreme Court ruled that In this context which of the following statements is correct ?
Preamble is not a part of the Indian Constitution however, it [NDA 2012-I]
helps in interpretation of the clauses of the Constitution. (a) The Chief Commissioner was the executive head of
• Keshavananda Bharti vs State of Kerala (1973) : Supreme category A states. The Rajpramukh was the executive
Court ruled that the Preamble is a part of the Indian Constitution. head of category B states. The Governor was the
• The combined effect of the 3 judgments has been that even executive head of categories C and D states
though the Preamble is a part of the Constitution, but it is (b) The Rajpramukh was the executive head of category
not enforceable in a court of law. However, the Preamble A states. The Chief Commissioner was the executive
helps in ascertaining the vision of the Constitution and hence, head of categories B and C states. The Governor was
independently, it is non-justiciable. the executive head of the category D states
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C-26 INDIAN POLITY
(c) The Governor was the executive head of category A 5. Which of the following statements with regard to citizenship
states. The Rajpramukh was the executive head of provisions of the Constitution of India is/ are correct?
category B states. The Chief Commissioner was the (CDS 2015-II)
executive head of categories C and D states 1. No person shall be a citizen of India by virtue of Article
(d) The Governor was the executive head of category A 5, or be deemed to be a citizen of India by virtue of
states. The Chief Commissioner was the executive Article 6 or Article 8, if he /she has voluntarily acquired
head of category B states. The Rajpramukh was the the citizenship of any foreign State.
executive head of categories C and D states 2. The Parliament has power to make any provision with
Ans. (c) The constitution of 1950 distinguished between three main respect to the acquisition and termination of citizenship
types of states: and all other matters relating to citizenship.
The Part A states were ruled by an elected governor and state Select the correct answer using the code given below.
legislature. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
The Part B states were governed by a rajpramukh. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
The Part C states were governed by a chief commissioner appointed Ans. (c) Generally citizenship is terminated due to possession of
by the President of India. citizenship of any foreign state. The parliament has power about
The Part D states were administered by a lieutenant governor appointed acquisition and termination of citizenship of a person.
by the central government.
6. In which part of the Constitution, details of citizenship are
Citizenship mentioned? [NDA 2008-I]
(a) I (b) II
1. Which one of the following is not a feature of the Indian (c) III (d) IV
Constitution ?
Ans. (b) Details of Citizenship are mentioned in part ll(Article 5-11)
(a) Federal Government
of the constitution.
(b) Independence of Judiciary
(c) Parliamentary Government 7. Consider the following statements [NDA 2009-II]
(d) Dual Citizenship 1. A person who was born on January, 26th, 1951 in
Ans. (d) The idea of single citizenship is borrowed from British Rangoon, whose father was a citizen of India by birth
constitution. at the time of his birth is deemed to be an Indian citizen
by descent.
2. Under the Citizenship Act, 1955, by which of the following 2. A person who was born on July, 1st 1988 in Itanagar,
ways can a person become a citizen of India? whose mother is a citizen of India at the time of his
1. By birth 2. By descent birth but the father was not, is deemed to be a citizen
3. By registration 4. By nationalisation of India by birth.
5. By incorporation of territory Which of the statements given above is/are corrcet?
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 5 (d) 3, 4 and 5 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (a) A person born in India on or after 26th January 1950 but
Ans. (c) Under the citizenship Act 1955, a person cannot be a citizen
before 1st July 1987 is a citizen of India by birth irrespective of the
of India by Nationalisation.
nationality of his parents, considered citizen of India by birth if either of
3. In which of the following years, the Citizenship Act, 1955 his parents is a citizen of India at the time of his birth. The citizenship
has been amended? of India is mentioned in Articles 5 to 11 (Part II).
1. 1986 2. 1992
3. 2003 3. 2005 8. Under which of the following conditions can citizenship be
Select the correct answer using the codes given below: provided in India? [NDA 2010-I]
(a) 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 4 1. One should be born in India.
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3 2. Either of whose parents was born in India
3. Who has been a resident of India for not less than five years.
Ans. (c) The citizenship act 1955 has been amended in 1986, 1992,
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
2003 and 2005.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
4. According to the Citizenship Act, 1955, by which of the (c) 2 and 3 (d) None of these
following ways can a person lose citizenship of India? Ans. (a) Under article 5 of the Indian Constitution Citizenship at the
1. By Renunciation 2. By Termination commencement of the Constitution every person who has his domicile
3. By Deprivation in the territory of India and
Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a) who was born in the territory of India; or
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(b) either of whose parents was born in the territory of India; or
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3 (c) who has been ordinarily resident in the territory of India for not
Ans. (c) Loss of Citizenship: - Renunciation: It is a voluntary act by less than five years preceding such commencement, shall be a
which a person, after requiring the citizenship of another country, gives citizen of India.
up his Indian citizenship. Termination Takes place by operation of law
when an Indian citizen voluntarily acquires the citizenship of another 9. The citizenship means [NDA 2014-I]
country. He automatically ceases to be an Indian citizen. Deprivation 1. full civil and political rights of the citizens.
It is a compulsory termination of the citizenship of India obtained by 2. the right of suffrage for election to the House of the
registration or Naturalisation, by the Government of India, on charges People (of the Union) and the Legislative Assembly
of using fraudulent means to acquire citizenship. of every state.
3. the right to become a Member of the Parliament and Fundamental Rights

Member of Legislative Assemblies.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below 1. According to the Constitution of India, the right to equality
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 does not include
(c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these (a) equality before law
Ans. (d) All statements are true. Citizenship is covered in Part II of (b) absolute equality
the Indian constitution (Articles 5-11). (c) equality of opportunity
(d) abolition of untouchability
10. Which one of the following features of citizenship in India Ans. (b) According to the Constitution of India, the right to equality
is correct? [UP-PCS 2015] does not include absolute equality.
(a) Dual citizenship of the State and Nation
‘Right to Equality’ is the ‘Fundamental Rights’ mentioned in article
(b) Single citizenship of a State
14 to article 18. The following rights are:
(c) Single citizenship of whole of India
(d) Dual citizenship of India and another Country Equality before law
Prohibition of discrimination on basis of religion, race, caste, sex or
Ans. (c) place of birth.
11. In which Part of the Constitution of India we find the Equal opportunity in employment.
provisions relating to citizenship? Abolition of untouchability and abolition of titles.
(a) Part I (b) Part II
(c) Part VII (d) Part IX 2. According to the Constitution of India, which one of the
following rights cannot be taken away during emergency?
Ans. (b) Part II of the Constitution of India (Articles 5-11) deals (a) Right to speak (b) Right to freedom of movement
with the Citizenship of India. Citizenship constitutes the indispensable (c) Right to life (d) Right to organize
foundational principle of democratic polity.
Ans. (c) According to the Constitution of India right to life (Article
12. Which of the following are the ways of acquiring Indian - 21) can’t be taken away during emergency.
citizenship ? [UGC September 2013] Article 19 - Freedom of press, freedom of speech.
1. Birth 2. Descent Article 21 - Right to life.
3. Naturalisation 4. Incorporation of territory
Select the correct answer from the code given below : 3. In which year fundamental duties were included in the
Indian Constitution?
Codes : (a) 1974 (b) 1975
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 4 (c) 1976 (d) 1977
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (c) In 42nd amendment, 1976 fundamental duties were added
Ans. (d) Following are the ways of acquiring Indian citizenship: on the basis of Swaran Singh Committee report. In 1974 32nd , 33rd
• Citizenship by Birth and 34th amendments were introduced. In year 1975 35th to 39th
• Citizenship by Descent amendments were introduced.
• Citizenship by Registration
• Citizenship by Naturalisation 4. What is the main difference between Fundamental Rights
• Citizenship by incorporation of Territory and the Directive Principles of state policy?
• Amendment in the Citizenship Act (a) Constitutional Protection (b) Political Protection
(c) Judicial Protection (d) Moral Protection
13. The Citizenship (Amendment) Act falls under which one
Ans. (c) Fundamental rights are enforceable rights which means on
of the following Parts of the Constitution of India?
violation of these rights you can move to court of law but directive
[CDS 2020-II] principles are not enforceable which means on violation of these you
(a) Part I (b) Part II can’t move to court law.
(c) Part IV (d) Part VI
5. Which one of the following rights has been described by
Ans. (b) Dr. Ambedkar as ‘The heart and soul of the Constitution’?
14. When was the Citizenship (Amendment) Act passed? (a) Right of Equality
[BPSC 2020] (b) Right to freedom
(a) 11th December, 2018 (b) 11th December, 2019 (c) Right to property
(d) Right to Constitutional Remedies
(c) 11th October, 2019 (d) 11th October, 2020
(e) None of the above/More than one of the above Ans. (d) Article 32 provides the right of constitutional remedies
which means that a person has right to move to Supreme Court and
Ans. (b) The Rajya Sabha on December 11, 2019 passed the High Court for getting his fundamental rights protected so it is called
Citizenship (Amendment) Act with as many as 125 MPs voting in
“soul of the constitution and very heart of it”. 44th amendment act
favour of it and 99 against it. On December 9, 2019, the CAB Bill
1978 under article 300A provides right of property as legal right.
was tabled and passed in the Lok Sabha’s Winter Session. President
Ram Nath Kovind signed it on December 12, 2019. 6. Fundamental Duties enshrined in the Indian Constitution
The Citizenship (Amendment) Bill, 2019 seeks to fast-track do not have any
citizenship for persecuted minority groups in Pakistan, Bangladesh (a) Legal sanction (b) Political sanction
and Afghanistan. The six minority groups that have been specifically (c) Social Sanction (d) Moral sanction
identified are Hindus, Jains, Sikhs, Buddhists, Christians and Parsis.
The Bill aims to change the definition of illegal migrants. However, the Ans. (a) Fundamental duties enshrined in the Indian Constitution do
Act doesn’t have a provision for Muslim sects like Shias and Ahmedis not have any legal sanction. The Fundamental Duties of citizens were
who also face persecution in Pakistan. added to the Constitution by the 42nd Amendment in 1976.
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C-28 INDIAN POLITY
It is politicaly approved, socially adopted having moral intentions 14. Which of the following statements in regard to the
towards nation. There is no provision of legal sanction which abide fundamental rights, mentioned in the Constitution of India
to follow fundamental duties. are correct?
1. They are the part of the basic structure of the
7. Which one of the following is not related to the fundamental constitution.
rights of the Indian Constitution? 2. They are permanent in nature and can’t be abolished.
(a) Freedom of association 3. They can be suspended partially or completely.
(b) Freedom of movement Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(c) Freedom of assembly (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(d) Freedom to be elected as a member of parliament (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (d) Freedom to be elected as a member of Parliament is not Ans. (c) The fundamental rights mentioned in the constitution of
related to fundamental rights, it is a political right. Freedom of India are not permanent in nature and they can be abolished by the
association is the right to join or leave or the right of the group to take parliament as the Right to property was abolished. The Forty-Fourth
collective action to pursue peruse the interests of members. Amendment of 1978 deleted the right to property from the list of
8. Which one of the following fundamental rights was fundamental rights. A new provision, Article 300-A, was added to the
described by Dr. Ambedkar as the heart and soul of the constitution which provided that “no person shall be deprived of his
Constitution ? [CDS-2017] property save by authority of law”. Thus if a legislature makes a law
(a) Right to freedom against exploitation depriving a person of his property, there would be no obligation on
(b) Right to freedom of religion the part of the State to pay anything as compensation. The aggrieved
(c) Right to equality person shall have no right to move to the court under Article 32.
(d) Right to constitutional remedies
15. A British citizen staying in India can’t claim right to:
Ans. (d)
(a) Freedom of trade and profession
9. According to the Indian Constitution, which one (b) Equality before the law
is not included in the fundamental right to equality? (c) Protection of life and personal liberty
(a) Equality before law (b) Social equality (d) Freedom of religion
(c) Equality of opportunity (d) Economic equality Ans. (a) The rights of equality before the law, protection of life and
Ans. (d) Economic equality is not mentioned in fundamental rights. personal liberty and freedom of religion are available to both citizens
and non-citizens of India.
10. Which of the following is not a fundamental duty under
the Indian constitution ? 16. Consider the following statements:
(a) To protect monuments of national importance 1. The writ of mandamus is available not only against
(b) To develop scientific temper judicial authorities but also against administrative
(c) To uphold the unity and integrity of the nation authorities.
(d) None of these 2. The writ of prohibition is issued only against judicial
Ans. (a) Protection of monuments of national importance is not a or quasi-judicial authorities.
fundamental duty. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
11. Which of the following fundamental rights has been given (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
to Indian citizen only
(a) Equality before law (b) Freedom of speech Ans. (c) Mandamu for “we order,” a writ (more modernly called a
(c) Life and personal liberty (d) Freedom of religion “writ of mandate”) which orders a public agency or governmental body
to perform an act required by law when it has neglected or refused to
Ans. (b) Freedom of speech under fundamental rights has been given do so.
to Indian citizen only.
A writ of prohibition is a writ directing a subordinate to stop doing
12. Which of the following is not guaranteed by the Constitution? something the law prohibits.
(a) Freedom of assembly (b) Freedom of residence
(c) Freedom of strike (d) Freedom of association 17. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer
using the codes given below: [CDS-2016]
Ans. (c) Freedom of strike is not guaranteed by the constitution List-I List-II
among six fundamental rights. (Writs) (Ground)
13. Consider the following statements in regard to the A. Habeas Corpus 1. Non-performance
fundamental right for the protection of a person in respect to of public duties
conviction for offences, guaranteed in the Indian constitution B. Mandamus 2. Unlawful detention
1. The government can’t enact any criminal or civil law C. Quo-Warranto 3. Correctional directions to
with the retrospective effect
subordinate courts
2. A person, accused of any offence can’t be compelled
to be a witness against himself D. Certiorari 4. Unlawful occupation of
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? public office
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only Codes :
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 A B C D
Ans. (b) According to the Article 20 of the Indian constitution, though
(a) 3 4 1 2
the Govt. can’t enact any criminal law with the retrospective effect
(b) 2 1 4 3
but it doesn’t prohibit the Govt. to impose any civil or tax law with
(c) 3 1 4 2
the similar effect. (d) 2 4 1 3
Ans. (b) The Writ Jurisdiction of Supreme Court can be invoked 1. Abolition of untouchability
under Article 32 of the Constitution for the violation of fundamental 2. Abolition of titles
rights guaranteed under Part – III of the Constitution. 3. Freedom as to payment of taxes for promotion of any
particular religion
18. Which of the following statements are true with regard to 4. Protection of interests of minorities
the Fundamental Rights of the minorities in educational Select the correct answer by using the codes given below:
matters? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2, 3 and 4
1. The minority has only the right to administer the (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
educational institutions. Ans. (d) Abolition of Untouchability –Article 17
2. The minority has the right to establish and administer
Abolition of titles- Article 18
educational institutions.
3. The right is absolute and not subject to any restriction. Freedom as to payment of taxes for promotion of any particular
religion -Article 27
4. Reasonable restrictions may be imposed to promote
efficiency and prevent maladministration. Protection of interests of minorities.— Article 29
Select the correct answer using the codes given below: 22. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 4 using the codes given below:
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 3 List-I List-II
Ans. (b) (Writ) (Purpose)
A. Writ of mandamus 1. Prohibition of an action
19. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer B. Writ of injunction 2. Direction to the
using the codes given below: official for the
List-I List-II performance of a duty
(Provisions) (Contained In) C. Writ of certiorari 3. Trial of the right to a
A. Liberty of thought 1. Right to freedom title or elective office
and expression D. Writ of quo-warranto 4. Transferring of a case
B. Freedom of speech 2. Cultural and educational from lower court to a
and expression rights court of higher jurisdiction
C. Making special 3. Preamble Codes :
provision for women A B C D
and children (a) 2 1 4 3
D. Protection of interest 4. Protection of (b) 1 2 3 4
of minorities life and liberty (c) 3 4 2 1
5. Right to equality (d) 4 3 1 2
Codes :
Ans. (a)
A B C D
(a) 3 1 5 2 23. The Supreme Court has increased the ambit of the Right to
(b) 2 5 4 1 Life (Article 21) to include which of the following?
(c) 3 5 4 2 1. Right to life includes the Right to live with dignity
(d) 2 4 5 1 2. Right to life includes the Right to livelihood
Ans. (a) 3. Right to life includes the Right to receive minimum
wages
20. Consider the following statements and select the correct 4. Right to life includes the Right to guaranteed
answer from the codes given below : employment for 100 days in a year
Assertion (A): Preventive Detention is included in the Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
chapter on Fundamental Rights in the Constitution of India. (a) Only 4 (b) 1 and 2
Reason (R): The Constitution has vested the legislative (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
power with regard to preventive detention in the Parliament
Ans. (b)
only and the State Legislatures have no authority in this
regard. 24. Consider the following statements and select the correct
Codes: answer from the codes given below :
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct Assertion (A): Speaking on Article 32 in the Constituent
explanation of A Assembly, Dr. Ambedkar described the article as the very
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the soul of the Constitution.
correct explanation of A Reason (R): Article 32 provides effective remedies
(c) A is true but R is false against violation of fundamental rights.
(d) A is false but R is true Codes:
Ans. (c) Preventive detention, the practice of incarcerating accused (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct
individuals before trial on the assumption that their release would explanation of A
not be in the best interest of society—specifically, that they would be (b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the
likely to commit additional crimes if they were released. correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
21. Which of the following are mentioned under separate (d) A is false but R is true
Articles in Part III of the Consitution of India pertaining to
Fundamental Rights? Ans. (a)
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C-30 INDIAN POLITY
25. Consider the following statements and select the correct Ans. (b) The writ Mandamus literally means ‘we command’.
answer from the codes given below: [CDS-2017] Mandamus is a judicial remedy in the form of an order from a superior
Assertion (A): Education is the fundamental right of court, to any government subordinate court, corporation, or public
every child between the age of 6 and 14 years. authority—to do (or forbear from doing) some specific act which that
Reason (R): The 84th Constitutional Amendment Act body is obliged under law to do (or refrain from doing)—and which
provided for right to education. is in the nature of public duty.
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct 31. Which of the following statements with regard to preventive
explanation of A detention in India is / are correct? (CDS 2016-I)
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the 1. The detenue has no rights other than those mentioned
correct explanation of A in clauses (4) and (5) of Article 22 of Constitution of
(c) A is true but R is false India
(d) A is false but R is true 2. The detenue has a right to challenge the detention
order on the ground that he was already in jail when
Ans. (c) The Constitution (Eighty-sixth Amendment) Act, 2002 the detention order was passed
inserted Article 21-A in the Constitution of India to provide free and
3. The detenue can claim bail on the ground that he has
compulsory education of all children in the age group of six to fourteen
been in prison beyond twenty- four hours without an
years as a Fundamental Right in such a manner as the State may, by law,
determine. The Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education
order of the magistrate
(RTE) Act, 2009, which represents the consequential legislation
envisaged under Article 21-A, means that every child has a right to (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
full time elementary education of satisfactory and equitable quality in (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
a formal school which satisfies certain essential norms and standards. Ans. (b) Article 22 of constitution of India -
26. For which of the following can special provisions be made No law will authorise the detention of a person for a period more
under Article 15 of the Constitution of India? three months until-
• An advisory board suggest it.
1. Women and children
• When a person is detained under order of a court
2. Scheduled Tribes
3. Economically backward classes 32. As per the Constitution of india, the Writ of Prohibition
4. Socially backward classes relates to an order: (CDS 2016-I)
Select the correct answer using the codes given below: 1. issued against judicial and quasi judicial authority
(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 1 and 3 2. to prohibit an inferior Court from proceeding in a
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 particular case where it has no jurisdiction to try
Ans. (a) 3. to restrain a person from holding a public office to
when he is not entitled
27. Consider the following statements: Select the correct answer using the code given below :
1. Quo-warranto is a very powerful instrument for (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
safeguarding against the usurpation of public offices. (c) 1 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
2. A High Court can issue a mandamus to compel a
Ans. (a) A Writ of prohibition is issued primarily to prevent an
court or judicial tribunal to exercise its jurisdiction
inferior court from exceeding its jurisdiction, or acting contrary to
when it has refused to exercise it.
the rule of natural justice. The writ lies only against a body exercising
Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
public functions of a judicial or quasi-judicial character.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 33. The Constitution of India guarantees freedom of thought
Ans. (c) and expression to all its citizens subject to
(CDS 2015-II)
28. Freedom of the press in India is 1. Implementation of Directive Principles
(a) available to the people under the law of the Parliament 2. Fundamental Duties
(b) specifically provided in the Constitution 3. Right to Equality
(c) implied in the right of freedom of expression Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) l and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(d) available to the people of India under executive order
(c) 1 only (d) l, 2 and 3
Ans. (c) Freedom of the press in India is implied in the right of
Ans. (c) The Part IV of the Constitution of India provides the
Freedom of Expression.
Directive Principle of State Policy. This policy has the following
29. Right to Information in India is a categories- social justice, economic welfare, foreign policy, legal and
(a) Fundamental Right administrative matters.
(b) Legal Right
34. The protection against arrest and detention under Article
(c) Both Fundamental and Legal Rights
22 of the Constitution of India is not available to
(d) Neither Fundamental nor Legal Right
(CDS 2015-II)
Ans. (a) Right to information in India is now a fundamental right. 1. an enemy alien
30. Which of the following writs literally means ‘we command’? 2. a person detained under a preventive detention law
(a) Habeas Corpus (b) Mandamus 3. a foreigner
(c) Prohibition (d) Quo-Warranto 4. an overseas citizen of India
Select the correct answer using the code given below. Ans. (d) Article 26 of the Indian Constitution states freedom to manage
(a) l and 2 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 religious affairs subject to public order, morality and health, every religious
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 3 and 4 only denomination or any section thereof shall have the right-
Ans. (a) Article 22 of the Constitution of India states that no (a) to establish and maintain institutions for religious and charitable
protection against arrest and detention is available to enemy of foreign purposes;
state or a person detained under preventive detention law. (b) to manage its own affairs in matters of religion;
(c) to own and acquire movable and immovable property; and
35. Freedom of conscience under the Constitution of India is (d) to administer such property in accordance with law
subject to (CDS 2015-II)
1. public order, morality and health 39. Which of the following would be construed as a reasonable
2. a law providing for social welfare and reform restriction of the right to freedom’? [NDA 2009-II]
3. opening Hindu religious institutions of a public (a) When the state disallows a candidate from securing
character to all Hindus votes in the name of religion
4. defamation or incitement to an offence (b) When the state disallows citizens from forming a club
Select the correct answer using the code given below. out of State funds that denies access to women
(a) 1,2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3 only (c) When the Government of Nagaland disallows temporary
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) l and 2 only residents to buy immovable property in Nagaland.
(d) All of the above
Ans. (d) The Constitution of India provides the freedom of
conscience in the following fields- Ans. (d)
(i)
Morality, health, public order, laws for social welfare and 40. Which one of the following rights conferred by the
reform, any religious institutions for propagation of their views Constitution of India is also available to non-citizens?
and philosophy. [NDA 2009-II]
(ii) To defame an offence. (a) Freedom of speech, assembly and form association
(b) Freedom to move, reside and settle in any part of the
36. Which of the following Fundamental Rights is / are available
territory of India
to non-citizens? (CDS 2015-II)
(c) Freedom to acquire property or to carry on any
1. Equality before Law
occupation, trade or business
2. Right against Discrimination
(d) Right to constitutional remedies
3. Equality of Opportunity
4. Protection of Life and Personal Liberty Ans. (c) Freedom to acquire property or to carry on any occupation
Select the correct answer using the code given below. trade or business is also available to non citizens.
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 4 only 41. Which one of the following is a human right as well as a
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 2 and 3 Fundamental Rights under the Constitution of India?
Ans. (b) Equality before law and protection of life and personal [NDA 2010-I]
liberty are available to non citizens by fundamental Rights of Indian (a) Right to Information (b) Right to Education
Constitution. (c) Right to Work (d) Right to Housing
37. A writ of Habeas Corpus for the release of a person can be Ans. (b) The Constitution (86th Amendment) Act, 2002 inserted
issued (CDS 2015-II) Article 21-A in the Constitution of India to provide free and
1. where the arrest or detention has taken place in compulsory education of all children in the age group of six to fourteen
contravention of the procedure established by law years as a Fundamental Right. This is recognized in the International
2. to secure the release of a person imprisoned on a Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights as a human right
criminal charge that includes the right to free, compulsory primary education for all.
3. where the arrest has taken place for contempt of Court 42. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
or the Parliament [NDA 2010-II]
Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1. In India, the constitutional remedy under Article 32
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 only is available only in case of Fundamental Rights, not
(c) 1 only (d) l and 2 only in the case of rights which follow from some other
Ans. (c) Habeas Corpus is a legal remedy to provide relief to detaines provision in the Constitution.
from unlawful imprisonment. 2. Both the Supreme Court and High Courts can issue
the writs of habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition,
38. Which of the following statements is/are correct? certiorari and quo warranto only for the purpose of
[NDA2008-II] enforcement of Fundamental Rights.
Article 26 of the Constitution of India states that subject Select the correct answer using the codes given below
to public order, morality and health, every religious (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
denomination or any section there of shall have the right. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. to establish and maintain institutions for religious and
charitable purposes. Ans. (c) According to Article 32, when an individual feels that he
2. to manage its own affairs in matters of religion. has been “unduly deprived” of his fundamental rights, he can move the
Supreme Court and seek justice. Apart from the Supreme Court, the High
3. to own and acquire movable and immovable property.
Courts also have the power to protect fundamental rights. Like the apex
court, they also can issue writs for the enforcement of fundamental rights
of the citizens. The both courts can issue five different writs - Certiorari,
(c) 1 and 3 (d) All of the above
Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, and Quo Warranto.
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C-32 INDIAN POLITY
43. In India the right to ‘freedom of speech and expression’ is Select the correct answer using the codes given below
restricted on the grounds of [NDA 2010-II] (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
1. the sovereignty and integrity of India. (c) 1 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4
2. contempt of court. Ans. (c) Articles 23 and 24 of the Indian Constitution safeguard
3. friendly relation with foreign states. women and children and others against exploitation of various forms.
4. protection of minorities.
Article 23 declares slave trade, prostitution and human trafficking a
punishable offence.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 4 Article 24 of the Indian Constitution prohibits employment of children
below the age of 14 years in dangerous jobs like factories and mines.
Ans. (a) Freedom of speech and expression is restricted on the ground of :
• security of the State, 47. Which one among the following is not guaranteed by the
• friendly relations with foreign States, Constitution of India? [NDA 2012-I]
• public order, (a) Freedom to move freely throughout the country
• decency and morality, (b) Freedom to assemble peacefully without arms
• contempt of court, (c) Freedom to own, acquire and dispose property
• defamation, anywhere in the country
• incitement to an offence, (d) Freedom to practice any trade or profession
• Sovereignty and integrity of India. Ans. (c) The Indian Constitution does not recognize property right as
44. Which of the following statements regarding writ of a fundamental right. In the year 1978, the 44th amendment eliminated
certiorari is/are correct? [NDA 2011-I] the right to acquire, hold and dispose of property as a fundamental
1. There should be court, tribunal or an officer having right.
legal authority to determine the questions of deciding 48. The Rights to Information means and includes
Fundamental Rights with a duty to act judicially. [NDA 2012-II]
2. Writ of certiorari is available during the tendency of 1. Inspection of documents.
proceedings before a subordinate court. 2. Taking out files from office to any place desired by the
Select the correct answer using the codes given below applicant.
(a) Only I (b) Only 2 3. Taking photograph of files.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 4. Obtaining information in tapes.
Ans. (b) If a lower court or tribunal gives its decision but based on Select the correct answer using the codes given below
wrong jurisdiction the affected party can move this writ to a higher (a) 1 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 3
court like supreme court or High Court. The writ of certiorari issued (c) 2 and 4 (d) All of these
to subordinate judicial or quasi judicial body when they act. Ans. (c) The right to information includes
• Without or in excess of jurisdiction • Any document, manuscript and file
• In violation of the prescribed procedure • Any microfilm, microfiche and facsimile copy of a document;
• In contravention of principles of natural justice • Any reproduction of image or images embodied in such
• Resulting in an error of law apparent on the face of record. microfilm (whether enlarged or not).
45. Which one among the following statements regarding the • Any other material produced by a computer or any other device
constitutionally guaranteed Right to Education in India is 49. Which one among the following writs literally means you
correct? [NDA 2011-I] many have the body? [NDA 2012-II]
(a) This right covers both child and adult illiteracy and (a) Certiorari (b) Habeas Corpus
therefore, universally guarantees education to all (c) Mandamus (d) Quo Warranto
citizens of India
(b) This right is a child right covering the age group of 6 to Ans. (b) Habeas corpus writs literally means you should have the
body. It is writ that a person may seek from a court to obtain immediate
14 years and becomes operational from the year 2015
release from an unlawful confinement.
(c) This right has been taken from the British Constitution
which was the first Welfare State in the world 50. The writ of Prohibition is issued by a superior court
(d) This right has been given to all Indian children between [NDA 2012-II]
the ages of 6 to 14 years under the 86th Constitutional (a) to prevent an inferior court or tribunal from exceeding
Amendment Act its jurisdiction or acting contrary to the rules of natural
Ans. (d) The 86th amendment to the Constitution approved in justice
2002 providing free and compulsory education to all children age 6 (b) to an inferior court or body exercising judicial or
to 14 years has been notified. It included Article 21(a) in the Indian quasijudicial functions to transfer the record to
constitution making education a fundamental right. proceedings in a case for its review
(c) where it can call upon a person to show under what
46. Which of the following are envisaged as being part of the authority he/she is holding the office
‘Right against Exploitation’ in the Constitution of India? (d) to an authority to produce an illegally detained person
[NDA 2012-I] before the court for trial
1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour.
Ans. (a) The writ of Prohibition is an order from a superior court to
2. Abolition of untouchability.
a lower court or tribunal directing the judge and the parties to cease
3. Protection of the interests of the minorities. the litigation because the lower court does not have proper jurisdiction
4. Prohibition of employment of children in factories and to hear or determine the matters before it.
mines.
51. Which one among the following statements is not 56. Which of the following statements are true for the
correct? [NDA 2013-I] Fundamental Right to Life and Personal Liberty as
(a) The right conferred by Article 32 cannot be suspended guaranteed under Article 21 of the Constitution of India?
except by virtue of Article 359 (1) of the Constitution [NDA/NA 2014-I]
of India 1. The Right is available to citizens as well as aliens.
(b) The enforcement of Articles 20 and 21 cannot be 2. It covers protection against arbitrary executive and
suspended legislative action.
(c) Punishments can be prescribed by a State Legislation 3. It includes the right to live with human dignity.
for offences under Part III of the Constitution of India 4. It can be taken away according to the procedure
(d) The Fundamental Rights can be abrogated by law made established by law.
by the Parliament with regard to members of the forces Select the correct answer using the code given below.
charged with the maintenance of public order (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4 only
Ans. (c) The State shall not make any law which takes away or abridges
the rights conferred by this Part lll and any law made in contravention of Ans. (c) Option (c) is the correct answer.
this clause shall, to the extent of the contravention, be void.
57. The Constitution of India guarantees the Fundamental Right
52. Which of the following freedoms is not specifically to Freedom of Religion to all its citizens. Which among the
mentioned in the Constitution of India as a Fundamental following is not true for this Rights? [NDA/NA 2014-I]
Right but has been subsequently upheld by the Supreme (a) It gives freedom of conscience and freedom to profess,
Court as such? [NDA 2013-II] practice and propagate any religion
(a) Freedom of trade, occupation and business (b) It gives freedom to establish and maintain institution
(b) Freedom to reside and settle in any part of the country for religious and charitable purposes
(c) Freedom of association and union (c) The Right is subject to public order, morality and health
(d) Freedom of the press (d) The State cannot make any law which abrogates this
Ans. (d) The constitution of India does not specifically mention the Right for citizens
freedom of press. Freedom of press is implied from the Article 19(a) Ans. (d) The state can make laws which abrogate the right in case
(a) of the Constitution. there is a threat to public order, morality and health.
53. Which one of the following categories of persons is not 58. While deciding any question relating the disqualification
treated at par so far as the availability of Fundamental Rights of a member of Parliament, the President shall obtain the
is concerned ? [NDA 2015-I] opinion of [UP-PCS 2015]
(a) Members of the armed forces (a) Chief Justice of India
(b) Members of the forces charged with the responsibility (b) Election Commission of India
of maintenance of public order (c) Attorney General of India
(c) Members of the forces employed in connection with (d) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
the communication systems set up in the country
Ans. (b) The President seeks the opinion of the Election Commission
(d) Members of the forces employed in connection with
matters related with disqualification of Member of Parliament.
the communication systems set up for maintenance of
public order 59. Which of the following Fundamental Rights are granted
Ans. (a) Members of Armed Forces are not treated at par so far as only to citizens of India? Select the correct answer from
the availability of Fundamental Rights is concerned. the code given below : [UGC 2016]
I. Cultural and educational rights.
54. The citizens of India do not have which one of the following II. Equality before the law.
Fundamental Rights? [NDA/NA 2016-I] III. Right against exploitation
(a) Right to reside and settle in any part of India IV. Protection from discrimination on grounds only of
(b) Right to acquire, hold and dispose of property religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth.
(c) Right to practice any profession Codes :
(d) Right to form co-operative societies (a) I and II only (b) II and IV only
(c) III and IV only (d) I and IV only
Ans. (b)
Ans. (d) The fundamental rights to equality before law and right
55. Which of the following is/are not fundamental right(s) under against exploitation are available to foreign citizen also, if they reside
the Constitution of India ? [NDA/NA 2015-I] in the territory of India.
1. Right to education. 60. When were the Fundamental Duties included in the
2. Right to work. Constitution? [MP-PSC 2017]
3. Right to form associations. (a) At the time of framing of Constitution
4. Right to practise any profession. (b) On 26th January, 1950
Select the correct answer using the code given below: (c) In the 42nd Constitutional Amendment
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 4 (d) In the 41st Constitutional Amendment
(c) 2 only (d) 1 and 3 Ans. (c) The Fundamental Duties are defined as the moral obligations
Ans. (c) The seven fundamental rights are Right to equality, Right to of all citizens to help promote a spirit of patriotism and to uphold the
freedom, Right against exploitation, Right to freedom of religion, Cultural unity of India. These fundamental Duties were introduced in the Indian
and Educational rights, Right to constitutional remedies and Right to life. Constitution by the 42nd Amendment Act 1976- Article 51A, upon
the recommendations of the Swarn Singh Committee.
EBD_9432
C-34 INDIAN POLITY
61. Choose the fundamental rights available to Indian Citizen 1. A legislative process has been provided to enforce
but not to aliens – [BPSC 2017] these duties.
I. Freedom of Speech and Expression 2. They are correlative to legal duties.
II. Equality Before the Law Select the correct answer using the code given below:
III. Right of minorities (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
IV. Protection of Life and Liberty (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) I and II (b) I and IV Ans. (d) At present there are no laws for enforcing the the duty to
(c) II and IV (d) II and III develop scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and
Ans. (a) Freedom of speech and Expression and Equality before the reform or to enforce the fundamental duty to strive towards excellence.
law are the fundamental rights available to Indian citizens but not to So, first statement wrong.
aliens. The list of fundamental duties does not cover other important duties
62. The concept of ‘Right of service’ originated in – like casting vote, paying taxes, family planning etc. so second
[UK-PSC 2016] statement also wrong.
(a) The United States of America 66. In the context of India, which one of the following is the
(b) Switzerland correct relationship between Rights and Duties?
(c) Great Britain [IAS Prelim 2017]
(d) China (a) Rights are correlative with Duties.
Ans. (c) The concept of ‘Right of Service’ originated in Great Britain. (b) Rights are personal and hence independent of society
and Duties.
63. Which of the following are envisaged by the Right against
(c) Rights, not Duties, are important for the advancement
Exploitation in the Constitution of India? [IAS Prelim 2017]
1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced of the personality of the citizen.
labour (d) Duties, not Rights, are important for the stability of
2. Abolition of untouchability the State.
3. Protection of the interests of minorities Ans. (a) Rights and duties are correlative and inseparable, hence A
4. Prohibition of employment of children in factories is the answer.
and mines 67. Consider the following statements : [IAS Prelim - 2018]
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only 1. As per the Right to Education (RTE) Act, to be
(c) 1 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 eligible for appointment as a teacher in a State, a
person would be required to possess the minimum
Ans. (c) Prof.DD Basu classifies fundamental right in following qualification laid down by the concerned State
manner:
Council of Teacher Education.
Right to equality Abolition of untouchability. S “2” 2. As per the RTE Act, for teaching primary classes,
is wrong in the classification. This a candidate is required to pass a Teacher Eligibility
eliminates A and D. Test conducted in accordance with the National
Right against • Prohibition of human trafficking and Council of Teacher Education guidelines.
exploitation forced Labour. 3. In India, more than 90% of teacher’s education
• Prohibition of employment of institutions are directly under the State Governments.
children in factories etc. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
• So 1 and 4 are fitting. (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only
Cultural and • Minorities rights. (c) 1 and 3 (d) 3 only
educational • So 3 is wrong in classification. Ans. (b)
rights • Under RTE Act section 23, National Council for Teacher
So by elimination, we are left with answer 1 and 4 only. Education (NCTE) decides the minimum qualification. So, #1
is wrong.
64. Which one of the following statements is correct? • After RTE it is mandatory that only those people may be
[IAS Prelim 2017] appointed as teachers who are able to clear TET. So, #2 is right.
(a) Rights are claims of the State against the citizens. Thus by elimination, we get the correct answer B: only 2.
(b) Rights are privileges which are incorporated in the
68. Right to Privacy is protected as an intrinsic part of Right
Constitution of a State.
(c) Rights are claims of the citizens against the State. to Life and Personal Liberty. Which of the following in the
(d) Rights are privileges of a few citizens against the Constitution of India correctly and appropriately imply the
many. above statement? [IAS Prelim 2018]
(a) Article 14 and the provisions under the 42nd
Ans. (c) New NCERT,Std. 11, Political Theory Chapter 5: Rights ,
Amendment to the Constitution
Page 72
• Through these rights, people make demands upon the state. So, (b) Article 17 and the Directive Principles of State Policy
“C” is most fitting answer. in Part IV
(c) Article 21 and the freedoms guaranteed in Part. III
65. Which of the following statements is/are true of the Fundamental (d) Article 24 and the provisions under the 44th
Duties of an Indian citizen? [IAS Prelim 2017] Amendment to the Constitution
Ans. (c) The Supreme Court ruled that “the right to privacy is Article 29 of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights mentions
protected as an intrinsic part of the right to life and personal liberty about duties. A similar concept that was inserted in the Indian
under Article 21 and as a part of the freedoms guaranteed by Part Constitution by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 under
III of the Constitution” so Option C is right. [Ref: IndianExpress Part IV-A of the Constitution (Article 51A).
2017-August]
Let’s also look at the wrong options: 72. Which one of the following categories of Fundamental
• Article 14- Gives the Right to Equality. 42nd Constitutional Rights incorporates protection against untouchability as a
Amendment Act 1976, is known as mini constitution. form of discrimination? [IAS Prelims 2020]
• Article 17- Related to the Abolition of Untouchability. It is (a) Right against Exploitation
part of Right to Equality. Part IV- Directive Principles of State (b) Right to freedom
Policy, does not have any mention about the Privacy. (c) Right to constitutional remedies
• Article 24- Prohibition of employment of children in factories,
(d) Right to equality
et(c) 44th Constitution Amendment- 44th amendment of the
Constitution was enacted by the Janata Government mainly to Ans. (d) Following fundamental rights are related to “Equality”:
nullify some of the amendments made by the 42nd Amendment • Article 14 → Equality before law
Act, 1976. • Article 15 → Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of
69. Right to privacy as a Fundamental Right is implied in religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth
[UGC December 2014] • Article 16 → Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment
(a) Right to Freedom • Article 17 → Abolition of untouchability
(b) Right to Life and Personal Liberty • Article 18 → Abolition of titles
(c) Right to Equality 73. Which of the following Articles in the Constitution of India
(d) Right against Exploitation are exceptions to the Fundamental Rights enumerated in
Ans. (b) “Right to Privacy is an integral part of Right to Life and Article 14 and Article 19? [CDS 2020-II]
Personal Liberty guaranteed in Article 21 of the Constitution,” the SC’s (a) Article 31A and Article 31C
nine-judge bench + ruled unanimously. It added that the right to privacy (b) Article 31B and Article 31D
is intrinsic to the entire fundamental rights chapter of the Constitution. (c) Article 12 and Article 13
(d) Article 16 and Article 17
70. Which of the following is not a Fundamental Right ?
[UGC December 2005] Ans. (a)
(a) Right to equality
(b) Right against exploitation Directive Principle of State Policies
(c) Right to freedom of speech and expression 1. Concept of welfare state in Indian Constitution is included in
(d) Right of free compulsory education of all children upto (a) Fundamental Rights
the age of 14 (b) Directive Principles of State Policy
(c) Citizenship
Ans. (d) The Constitution (Eighty-sixth Amendment) Act, 2002 (d) Provision of Election Commission
inserted Article 21-A in the Constitution of India to provide free and
compulsory education of all children in the age group of six to fourteen Ans. (b) The directive principles of state policy are the guidelines
years as a Fundamental Right in such a manner as the State may, by given to the central and state government of India. These provisions
law, determine. are contained in part IV (Article 36-51) of the Constitution of India
NOTE : In 2009, with the 86th amendment to Article 21-A (2002) of and these are not enforceable by any court.
the Constitution of India, free and compulsory education of all children
in the age group of six to fourteen years became a fundamental Right 2. In how many articles of Indian Constitution, Directive
from a directive principle. principles of the state policy are mentioned ?
(a) From Article 36-51 (b) From Article 36-52
71. Other than the Fundamental Rights, which of the following (c) From Article 36-53 (d) From Article 36-54
parts of the Constitution of India reflect/reflects the
Ans. (a) From Article 36-51. DPSP was borrowed from Irish
principles and provisions of the Universal Declaration of
constitution.
Human Rights (1948)? [IAS Prelims 2020]
1. Preamble 3. Which part of the Constitution of India refers to the
2. Directive Principles of State Policy responsibility of the state towards international peace and
3. Fundamental Duties security ?
(a) Fundamental Rights
Select the correct answer using the code given below: (b) Directive Principles of state policy
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only (c) Emergency provisions
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) Preamble to the constitution
Ans. (d) Preamble to the Universal Declaration of Human Rights Ans. (b) Directive principles of state policy states the responsibility
mentions about dignity of an individual. Preamble of Indian of the state towards international peace and security.
Constitution speaks about “EQUALITY of status and of opportunity;
assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity” So 4. The purpose of the inclusion of directive principles of
#1 is correct.
state policy in the Indian constitution is to establish?
(a) Political Democracy
Article 23 of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights mentions (b) Social Democracy
about the Right to Work. Similar concept in Article 41 of the Indian (c) Canadian Democracy
Constitution, under the head of DPSPs. (d) Social and Economic Democracy
EBD_9432
C-36 INDIAN POLITY
Ans. (d) Social and economic democracy is the foundation on which 10. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
political democracy would be a way of life in the Indian polity. 1. 42nd Amendment to the Constitution of India gave
primacy to Directive Principles over Fundamental
5. Consider the following statements: [NDA 2017] Rights.
Directive Principles of State Policy are: 2. Minerva Mills case ruled that there has to be a balance
1. Directives in the nature of ideals of the state between Part III and Part IV of the Constitution.
2. Directives influencing and shaping the policy of State 3. National Commission for Review of the Working
3. Non-justiciable rights of the citizens of the Constitution has recommended that Directive
Which of these statements is/are correct? Principles be made justiceable.
(a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 3 Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(c) Only 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3 (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
Ans. (d)
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 only
Ans. (a)
6. Consider the following statements and select the correct
answer from the codes given below : 11. Which of the following is/are among Directive Principles
Assertion (A): The Directive Principles of State Policy of State Policy?
contained in the Constitution of India are relevant in 1. The State shall strive to promote science and
determining the limits of reasonable restrictions laid down in technology for development.
Article 19 dealing with the fundamenal right to Freedom. 2. The State shall endeavour to secure for citizens a
Reason (R): The Fundamental Rights in Part III of the Uniform Civil Code throughout India.
Constitution have been superseded by the Directive 3. The State shall try to develop population policy and
Principles. family planning programmes.
Codes: 4. The State shall take steps to promote tourism.
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
explanation of A (a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 4
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the (c) 2 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
correct explanation of A Ans. (c)
12. Consider the following statements:
Directive principles of State Policy are :
Ans. (c) 1. Not amendable
7. Though the Directive Principles of State Policy contained 2. Not enforceable by any court
3. Fundamental in the governance of the country
in the Constitution are not enforceable by any court, yet
Which of the above statements are correct?
they are:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(a) Fundamental in the governance of the country
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) Binding on the State
(c) Enforceable at the instance of the President of India Ans. (c)
(d) Superior to Fundamental Rights 13. Which of the following statements regarding the
Ans. (a) Directive Principles of the state are fundamental in the Fundamental Duties contained in the Indian Constitution
governance of country. are correct?
1. Fundamental duties can be enforced through writ
8. Which of the following are included in the Directive jurisdiction.
Principles of State Policy in the Constitution of India? 2. Fundamental duties have formed a part of the Indian
1. Uniform civil code for the citizens Constitution since its adoption.
2. Separation of judiciary from executive 3. Fundamental duties became a part of the Constitution
3. Protection of monuments of national importance in accordance with the recommendations of the
Select the correct answer using the codes given below: Swaran Singh Committee.
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 4. Fundamental duties are applicable only to citizens of
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3 India.
Ans. (a) Protection of monuments of national importance is not Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
included in the Directive Principle of State Policy. (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 and 4
9. Which one of the following is not a Directive Principle of
Ans. (d)
State Policy? [CDS 2017]
(a) The State shall endeavour to secure for the citizens a 14. Which of the following duties have been prescribed by the
uniform civil code. Indian Constitution as Fundamental Duties? [NDA 2017]
(b) The State shall promote with special care the educational 1. To defend the country
and economic interest of the weaker sections. 2. To pay income tax
(c) The State shall endeavour to promote adult education 3. To preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture
to eliminate illiteracy. 4. To safeguard public property
(d) The State shall endeavour to protect every monument, Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
place or object of artistic or historic interest. (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4
Ans. (c) is not a directive principal of state policy.
Ans. (d)
15. Which of the following are included in the list of 1. Fundamental Duties can be enforced through writ
fundamental duties in the Constitution? jurisdiction.
1. To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideas and 2. Fundamental Duties have formed a part of the
institutions Constitution since its adoption.
2. To safeguard public property and to abjure violence 3. Fundamental Duties became a part of the Constitution
3. To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and in accordance with the recommendations of the Swaran
integrity of India Singh Committee.
4. To uphold and protect secularism 4. Fundamental Duties are applicable only to the citizens
Select the correct answer using the codes given below: of India.
(a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 4 Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3 (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 4
Ans. (d) (c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 and 4
Ans. (d) The fundamental duties are defined as the moral obligations
16. Consider the following statements: of all citizens to help promote a spirit of patriotism and too uphold
The fundamental duties provided in the constitution are: the unity of India. The Fundamental Duties of citizens were added
1. To protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India to the Constitution by the 42nd Amendment in 1976, upon the
2. To safeguard private property recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee. The fundamental
3. To protect and improve the natural environment duties are contained in Art. 51APart IV(a). The fundamental duties
including forests, lakes, rivers and wild life of these however are non-justifiable in character. This means that no citizen
statements: can be punished by a court for violation of a fundamental duty.
Of these statements: 21. The purpose of Directive Principles of State Policy is to
(a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (b) 1 and 2 are correct [NDA 2012-I]
(c) 2 and 3 are correct (d) 1 and 3 are correct (a) lay down positive instructions which would guide State
Ans. (d) Policy at all levels
(b) implement Gandhiji’s idea for a decentralised state
(c) check the use of arbitrary powers by the government
Fundamental duties: (d) promote welfare of the backward sections of the society
1. Have always been a part of the Constitution of India
2. Have been added through an amendment Ans. (a) The purpose of Directive Principle of State Policy is to lay
down positive instructions which would guide State Policy at all levels.
3. Are mandatory on all citizens of India The Directive Principles of State Policy contained in Part IV, Articles
Which of these statements is/are correct? 36-51 of the Indian constitution. The Directive Principles may be said
(a) 1 and 3 (b) Only 1 to contain the philosophy of the constitution. The Directive principles
(c) Only 2 (d) 2 and 3 are broad directives given to the state in accordance with which the
legislative and executive powers of the state are to be exercised.
Ans. (c) Though the swaran singh committee suggested the
incorporation of eight fundamental duties in the constitution, the 42nd 22. Which one among the following is a Fundamental Duties
Constitutional Amendment Act 1976 included ten fundamental duties. of citizens under the Constitution of India?
18. In which of the following years the Fundamental Duties [NDA 2012-I]
have been added to the existent Fundamental Rights in the (a) To provide friendly co-operation to the people of the
Constitution of India? [NDA 2009-I] neighbouring countries
(a) 1965 (b) 1976 (b) To protect monuments of national importance
(c) 1979 (d) 1982 (c) To defend the country and render national service when
called upon to do so
Ans. (b) The Fundamental Duties were added to the Constitution by (d) To know more and more about the history of India
the 42nd Amendment in 1976 on the recommendations of the Swaran
Singh Committee. They were Originally ten in number, but by the 86th Ans. (c) The Forty Second Constitution Amendment Act, 1976 has
incorporated ten Fundamental Duties in Article 51(a) of the constitution
Amendment in 2002 they were increased to eleven.
of India. The 86th Constitution Amendment Act 2002 has added one more
19. Which one of the following is not a correct description of Fundamental Duty in Article 51(a) of the constitution of India. As a result,
the Directive Principles of State Policy? [NDA 2009-II] there are now 11 Fundamental Duties of the citizen of India.
(a) Directive Principles are not enforceable by the courts 23. Which among the following provisions of the Constitution
(b) Directive Principles have a political sanction of India is/are fulfilled by the National Social Assistance
(c) Directive Principles are declaration of objective for Programme launched by the Government of India?
State Legislation [NDA 2012-II]
(d) Directive Principles promise equal income and free 1. Fundamental Rights
health care for all Indians
2. Fundamental Duties
Ans. (d) The Directive Principles of State Policy are guidelines 3. Directive Principles of State Policy
for creating a social order characterized by social, economic, and Select the correct answer using the codes given below
political justice, liberty, equality, and fraternity as enunciated in the (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
constitution’s preamble. It does not promise equal income and free (c) Only 3 (d) All of these
healthcare for all Indians.
Ans. (c) The National Social Assistance Programme(NSAP)
20. Which of the following statements regarding the represents a significant step towards the fulfilment of the Directive
Fundamental Duties contained in the Constitution of India Principles in Article 41 of the Constitution. It came into effect from
are correct? [NDA 2010-II] 15th August 1995.
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C-38 INDIAN POLITY
24. Which one among the following is not a fundamental duty (c) Right to work, education and public assistance
of the citizen of India? [NDA 2012-II] (d) Securing living wage and human conditions of work
(a) To develop scientific temper, humanism and the spirit to workers
of inquiry and reform Ans. (b) The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 added four new Directive
(b) To safeguard public property and to abjure violence Principles to the original list. They require the State:
(c) To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and 1. To secure opportunities for healthy development of children
integrity of India (Article 39).
(d) To practice family planning and to control population 2. To promote equal justice and to provide free legal aid to the poor
Ans. (d) To practise family planning and to control population, is not (Article 39 A).
a fundamental duty of the citizen of India. The Fundamental Duties 3. To take steps to secure the participation of workers in the
of citizens were added to the Constitution by the 42nd Amendment management of industries (Article 43 A).
in 1976. Originally ten in number, the Fundamental Duties were 4. To protect and improve the environment and to safeguard forests
increased to eleven by the 86th Amendment in 2002, which added and wild life (Article 48 A).
a duty on every parent or guardian to ensure that their child or ward
was provided opportunities for education between the ages of six and 29. Consider the following statements:
fourteen years. With reference to the Constitution of India, the Directive
25. Which one among the following is a Fundamental Duties Principles of State Policy constitute limitations upon
of citizens under the Constitution of India?[NDA 2013-I] 1. legislative function.
(a) To provide friendly cooperation to the people of the 2. executive function.
neighbouring countries Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(b) To visit the monuments of national importance (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) To defend the country and render national service when (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
called upon to do so
Ans. (d) The phrase ‘Directive Principles of State Policy’ denotes
(d) To know more and more about the religions of India
the ideals that the State should keep in mind while formulating
Ans. (c) One of the fundamental duties is to “defend the country and policies and enacting laws. These are the constitutional instructions
render national service when called upon to do so.” or recommendations to the State in legislative, executive and
26. Which one among the following is not a fundamental duty ? administrative matters. Noted constitutional author Granville Austin
[NDA/NA 2015-I] considers DPSP as “positive obligations” of the state.So, all of above
(a) To abide by the Constitution of India and respect the points that answer “D” neither 1 nor 2.
national flag and national anthem 30. In which of the following ‘the provisions for the protection
(b) To safeguard public property and improvement of environment and safeguarding of
(c) To protect the Sovereignty, Unity and Integrity of India forests and wildlife’ are found in the Constitution of India?
(d) To render compulsory military service
Ans. (d) To render compulsory military service is not a fundamental (a) Only in the Directive Principles of State Policy
duty of the Indian Citizens. (b) Only in the Fundamental Duties
27. Which of the following is/are not related to fundamental (c) Both (a) and (b)
duties? (d) None of the above
1. To cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired Ans. (c) The provision for protection and improvement of
our national struggle for freedom environment and safeguarding it is found in both the DPSPs and
2. To value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite fundamental duties as well. Under article 48A the constitution says
culture that The State shall endeavour to protect and improve the environment
3. To promote the educational and economic interests and to safeguard the forests and wild life of the country.
of the weaker sections of the people, especially the Again part IVA and article 51A cast a duty on all its citizens to protect
Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes. and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers
4. To protect all monuments of historic interest and and wild life, and to have compassion for living creatures.
national importance.
Select the correct answer using the code given below. 31. Which one of the following Directive Principles was
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 inserted by the Constitution (42nd Amendment) Act, 1976?
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 4 only [NDA 2020-I]
Ans. (c) Article 51(A), Part IV(A) of the Indian Constitution, (a) The State shall minimise inequalities in income
specifies the list of fundamental duties of the citizens. According to (b) Equal justice and free legal aid
it “to promote the educational and economic interests of the weaker (c) Promotion of co-operative societies
sections of the people, especially the Scheduled castes and Scheduled (d) Provision for early childhood care
Tribes” and “To protect all monuments of historic interests and national
importance” are not fundamental duties. Ans. (b) Equal justice and free legal aid was inserted by the
Constitution (42nd Amendment) Act, 1976. It defines- the State shall
28. Which principle among the ‘following was added to the secure that the operation of the legal system promotes justice, on a
Directive Principles of State Policy by the 42nd Amendment basis of equal opportunity, and shall, in particular, provide free legal
to the Constitution? aid, by suitable legislation or schemes or in any other way, to ensure
(a) Equal pay for equal work for both men and women that opportunities for securing justice are not denied to any citizen by
(b) Participation of workers in the management of reason of economic or other disabilities.
industries
Emergency Provisions 7. While a proclamation of emergency is in operation the

duration of the Lok Sabha can be extended for a period
1. The first proclamation of Emergency under article 352 [NDA 2012-I]
was made by the President in (a) not exceeding three months
(a) 1975 (b) 1971 (b) not exceedng nine-months
(c) 1965 (d) 1962 (c) of one year at a time
(d) of two years at a time
Ans. (d) First proclamation of emergency under article 352 (national
emergency) was declared in India in 1962 (Indo-China War) 1971, Ans. (c) While a proclamation of emergency is in operation, this
(Indo-Pak War), 1975 (by Indira Gandhi) were made under article 352. period may be extended by Parliament by law for a period not
exceeding one year at a time.Under Article 352 the president can
2. How many types of emergencies have been envisaged declare a national emergency when the security of India or part of it
under the Indian Constitution? is threatened by war or external aggression or armed rebellion.
(a) Two (b) Three
8. An emergency under Article 352 of the Constitution of India
(c) Four d) One.
can be declared only during: [NDA/NA 2015-II]
Ans. (b) There are three types of emergencies which have been (a) War, external aggression or internal disturbance.
envisaged under the Indian constitution. The President can declare
(b) War, external aggression or armed rebellion.
three types of emergencies:
(c) Failure of Constitutional Machinery in the State.
National emergency under Article 352
(d) Financial instability in the country.
State emergency under Article 356
Financial emergency under Article 360 Ans. (b) National emergency under article 352, emergency can be
declared on the basis of external aggression or armed rebellion in
3. Consider the following statements : the whole of India or a part of its territory. Such an emergency was
When the financial emergency has been declared by the declared in India in 1962 (Indo-China war), 1971 (Indo-Pakistan war),
President under the Article 360, then its proclamation : and 1975 (declared by Indira Gandhi).
1. May be revoked or varied by a subsequent proclamation
2. Shall cease to operate at the expiration of two 9. The President of India can issue proclamation of Emergency
months, unless before the expiration of that period it (a) on the advice of the Prime Minister
has been approved by the resolution of both Houses (b) on the advice of the Council of Ministers
of Parliament (c) in his own discretion
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (d) when the decision of the Union Cabinet for the issue
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 of such proclamation has been communicated to him
in writing
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (d) Article 352 of the Indian Constitution mentions the National
Ans. (c) According to Article 360, (1) If the President is satisfied
Emergency in India can be declared by . Tthe President can declare
that a situation has arisen whereby the financial stability or credit of
such an emergency only on the basis of a written request by the Council
India or of any part of the territory thereof is threatened, he may by a
of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister.
Proclamation make a declaration to that effect. 334 (2) A Proclamation
issued under clause (1) 10. Which of the following can be done under conditions of
(a) may be revoked or varied by a subsequent Proclamation; financial emergency?
(b) shall be laid before each House of Parliament;
1. State Legislative Assemblies can be abolished.
(c) shall cease to operate at the expiration of two months, unless
before the expiration of that period it has been approved by 2. Central Government can acquire control over the
resolutions of both Houses of Parliament. budget and expenditure of States.
3. Salaries of the Judges of the High Courts and the
4. How many times has Financial Emergency been declared supreme court can be reduced.
in India so far?
(a) 5 times (b) 4 times 4. Right to Constitutional Remedies can be suspended.
(c) once (d) Never Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Ans. (d) Article 360 deals with provision of financial emergency and
Codes:
it never been declared in India. (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 2 and 3
5. Which one of the following is the time limit for the
Ans. (d) Under the condition of Financial Emergency, Central
ratification of an emergency period by parliament? Government can acquire control over the budget and expenditure of
(a) 14 days (b) 1 month states and salaries of the Judges of the High Courts and Supreme Court
(c) 3 months (d) 6 months can be reduced.
Ans. (b) The time limit for the ratification of an emergency period
11. Which one of the following cannot be the ground for
by Parliament is 1 month.
proclamation of Emergency under the Constitution of India?
6. A proclamation of emergency must be placed before the [URRO 2016]
Parliament for its approval (a) War (b) External aggression
(a) Within 1 month (b) Within 2 months (c) Armed rebellion (d) Internal disturbance
(c) Within 6 months (d) Within 1 year Ans. (d) Internal disturbance substituted by the words ‘armed
Ans. (a) Proclamation of emergency must be replaced withing 1 rebellion’ under the 44th Amendment Act of 1978. So, it is not the
month before the parliament for its approval. ground for proclamation of Emergency under the Constitution of India.
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C-40 INDIAN POLITY
12. Which of the following are not necessarily the consequences 16. When a Proclamation of Emergency is in operation, the right
of the proclamation of the President’s rule in a State? to move a Court for the enforcement of all Fundamental
1. Dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly Rights remains suspended, except [CDS 2019-I]
2. Removal of the Council of Ministers in the State (a) Article 20 and Article 21
3. Dissolution of the local bodies (b) Article 21 and Article 22
Select the correct answer using the code given below: (c) Article 19 and Article 20
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (d) Article 15 and Article 16
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Ans. (a) Where a Proclamation of Emergency is in operation, the
Ans. (b) MIND IT: you’ve to find the wrong statements here- they’re President may by order declare that the right to move any court for
the right answers. the enforcement of such of the rights conferred by Part 3 (fundamental
• when the President’s Rule is imposed in a state, the President rights) except Art 20 & 21 and all proceedings pending in any Court
dismisses the state council of ministers headed by the chief for the enforcement of the same shall remain suspended for the period
minister. The state governor, on behalf of the President, carries during which the proclamation is in force.
on the state administration with the help of the chief secretary
of the state or the advisors appointed by the President. Meaning Centre State Relations, Uniform Civil Code,
“2” is definitely the consequence of proclamation. Hence all Article 370, etc.
options involving “2” are wrong. Hence by elimination we are
left with answer “B”: 1 and 3 only. 1. Which one of the following is a subject of the concurrent list?
(a) Police (b) Criminal matters
13. If the President of India exercises his power as provided (c) Radio and Television (d) Foreign Affairs.
under Article 356 of the Constitution in respect of a Ans. (b) Criminal matters is a subject of the concurrent list.
particular State, then
(a) the Assembly of the State is automatically dissolve(d) 2. Which of the states of Indian federation has a separate
(b) the powers of the Legislature of that State shall be constitution ?
exercisable by or under the authority of the Parliament. (a) Goa (b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Jammu & Kashmir (d) Himachal Pradesh
(c) Article 19 is suspended in that State.
(d) the President can make laws relating to that State. Ans. (c) The state of Jammu & Kashmir of Indian Federation has a
separate constitution. Article 370 of the Indian Constitution, which is
Ans. (b) The President’s Rule can be proclaimed under Article of a temporary nature, grants special status to Jammu and Kashmir.
356… He can declare that the powers of the state legislature are to be Limited government in which governmental intervention in personal
exercised by the Parliament. So “B” is the right answer. liberties and the economy is not allowed by law usually in a written
constitution e.g. India, USA etc.
14. When a Proclamation of Emergency is in operation,
the right to move a Court for the enforcement of all 3. Article 371 B of the Constitution of India makes special
Fundamental Rights remains suspended, except provision for which of the following state(s)?
(a) Article 20 and Article 21 (a) Maharashtra and Gujarat (b) Assam
(b) Article 21 and Article 22 (c) Nagaland (d) Manipur
(c) Article 19 and Article 20 Ans. (b) Article 371 B makes special provision for Assam.
(d) Article 25 and Article 16 Article 371 A for Nagaland
Article 371 C for Manipur state
Ans. (a) Indian constitution Article 359 of the Constitution authorizes Article 371 for state of Maharashtra & Gujarat.
the President of India to suspend the right to move any court for the
enforcement of Fundamental Rights during National Emergency 4. Which one of the following is not included in the state list
except Article 20 and Article 21. in the Constitution of India?
(a) Criminal procedure code (b) Police
15. Which of the following can be done under conditions of (c) Law and order (d) Prison
financial emergency ? [UGC December 2012]
1. State Legislative Assemblies can be abolished. Ans. (a) Criminal procedure code is not included in the state list.
2. Central Government can acquire control over the 5. Which of the following is/are extra-constitutional and
budget and expenditure of States. extra-legal device(s) for securing co-operation and
3. Salaries of the Judges of the High Courts and the coordination between the states in India?
Supreme Court can be reduced. 1. The National Development Council
2. The Governor’s Conference
4. Right to Constitutional Remedies can be suspended. 3. Zonal councils
Select the correct answer from the codes given below : 4. The Inter-state council
Codes : (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4 (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 4 only
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 2 and 3 Ans. (a)
Ans. (d) In case of a financial emergency, the President can reduce the
6. With reference to the Constitution of India, which one of
salaries of all government officials, including judges of the Supreme
the following pairs is not matched?
Court and High Courts. All money bills passed by the State legislatures
(a) Forests : Concurrent List
are submitted to the President for his approval. He can direct the state
(b) Stock Exchanges : Concurrent list
to observe certain principles (economy measures) relating to financial (c) Post office saving Bank : Union List
matters; but fundamental rights cannot be suspended.
(d) Public Health : State list
Ans. (b) Stock exchange and future markets are listed in the Union Ans. (b) Education lies in the concurrent list. Education, includes
list, but not in the concurrent list. technical education, medical education and universities, subject to
the provisions of Entries 63, 64, 65 and 66 of List I.
7. Which of the following are the matters covered under
List-I of Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India ? 12. Sarkaria Commission was set up to review
1. Foreign loans 2. Atomic energy (a) the relation between the President and the Prime
3. Insurance 4. Public health Minister
Select the correct answer using the codes given below : (b) the relation between the legislative and the executive
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) the relations between the executive and the judiciary
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4 (d) the relations between the Union and the State.
Ans. (d) Ans. (d) Sarkaria Commission was set up to review the relations
between the Union and the States. Sarkaria Commission was set up
8. Consider the following statement :
in June 1983 by the central government of India.
1. Part III of the Constitution of India dealing with
Fundamental Rights is not applicable to the state of 13. Which of the following statements regarding the residuary
Jammu & Kashmir powers in the Constitution of India are correct ?
2. Part IV of the Constitution of India dealing with 1. Residuary powers have been given to the Union
Directive Principles is applicable to the state of Jammu Parliament
& Kashmir with some exceptions and conditions 2. In the matter of residuary powers, the Constitution of
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? India follows the Constitution of Australia
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 3. The final authority to decide whether a particular
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 matter falls under the residuary power or not is the
Ans. (d) Part IV (Directive Principles of the State Policy) and Part Parliament
IVA (Fundamental Duties) of the Constitution are not applicable 4. The Government of India Act, 1935 placed residuary
to J&K. In addition to other fundamental rights, Articles 19(1)(f) powers in the hands of the Governor-General
and 31(2) of the Constitution are still applicable to J&K; hence the Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Fundamental Right to property is still guaranteed in this state. (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 3 and 4
9. The power of the President of India to declare that Article
370 (under which the state of J & K enjoys a special status) Ans. (c)
shall cease to be operative, is subject to : 14. Who among the following is Constitution empowered to
1. Public notification
declare a geographic area as a scheduled area?
2. Recommendation of Parliament
(a) Governor (b) Chief Minister
3. Advice of the Union Council of Ministers
(c) Prime Minister (d) President
4. Recommendation of Constituent Assembly of J & K
Of these statements : Ans. (d) The term `Scheduled Areas has been defined in the Indian
(a) 1 and 3 are correct (b) 1 and 2 are correct Constitution as “such areas as the President may by order declare to
(c) 2 and 4 are correct (d) 1 and 4 are correct be Scheduled Areas”.
Ans. (d) According to the Constitution notwithstanding anything in 15. Following is an example of residuary powers in India
the foregoing provisions of article 370, the President may, by public (a) Preventive detention (b) Service taxation
notification, declare that this article shall cease to be operative or shall (c) Labour Laws (d) None of these
be operative only with such exceptions and modifications and from
Ans. (b) Service taxation is an example of residuary powers in India.
such date as he may specify:
Provided that the recommendation of the Constituent Assembly 16. With respect to Article 371 A of the Constitution of India, the
of the State referred to in clause (2) shall be necessary before the Governor of which one of the following States has special
President issues such a notification. responsibility with respect to law and order of the State?
[NDA 2008-II]
10. The Constitution of Jammu & Kashmir came into force on : (a) Asom (b) Manipur
(a) January 26, 1950 (b) January 26, 1952 (c) Nagaland (d) Andhra Pradesh
(c) January 26, 1955 (d) January 26, 1957
Ans. (c) Article 371A deals with theSpecial provision with respect
Ans. (d) On 15 February, 1954 the assembly members who were to the State of Nagaland.
present cast a unanimous vote ratifying the J&K’s accession to India.
Constitution was drafted which came into force on 26 January 1957. 17. With reference to the Constitution of India, which one of
Part II, section (3) of the constitution states ‘The State of Jammu and the following pairs is not correctly matched
Kashmir is and shall be an integral part of the Union of India’. In 1956 [NDA 2009-I]
the Constituent Assembly finalised its constitution, which declared the Subject List
whole of the former Princely State of Jammu and Kashmir to be ‘an
integral part of the Union of India’. Elections were held the next year (a) Stock Exchanges The State List
for a Legislative Assembly. This section cannot be legally amended (b) Forest The Concurrent List
as per provisions of Part XII of the constitution.
(c) Insurance The Union List
11. Which of the following subjects lies in the concurrent list? (d) Marriage and Divorce The Concurrent List
(a) Agriculture (b) Education
(c) Police (d) Defence Ans. (a) Stock Exchange is the subject of union list.
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C-42 INDIAN POLITY
18. Which of the following statements with regard to Inter- 1. Constitutional provisions
State Council is/are correct? [NDA 2010-II] 2. Conventions and practises
1. It was established under the provisions of the 3. Judicial interpretations
Constitution of India. 4. Mechanisms for dialogue
2. The Council is a recommendatory body. Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
3. There is a standing committee of the Council under Codes :
the Chairmanship of the Prime Minister of India to (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3
process matters for consideration of the Council. (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) All the four
(a) Both 1 and 3 (b) Only 2 Ans. (d) Centre state relation in India are dependent upon.
(c) 1 and 2 (d) All of these Constitutional provisions, conventions and practice. Judicial
interpretation and Mechanism for dialogue.
Ans. (c) The Inter-State Council was established under Article 263
of the Constitution of India through a Presidential Order dated 28 May 23. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion
1990. As the article 263 makes it clear that the Inter-State Council (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select the correct
is not a permanent constitutional body for coordination between the answer from the codes given below : [UGC 2016]
States of the Union. It can be established ‘at any time’ if it appears
to the President that the public interests would be served by the
Assertion (A) : federalism is not dead in India.
establishment of such a Council. The Council is a recommendatory Reason (R) : New regions are constantly demanding
body. The Council shall consist of Prime Minister (Chairman), Chief statehood.
Ministers of all States and union territories (Member), Administrators Codes :
(UT) and Six Ministers of Cabinet rank to be nominated by the Prime (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
Minister (Member).This is not a standing committee. explanation of (A)
19. Which one among the following is not correct? (b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct
A special category state invariably [NDA2011-I] explanation of (A)
(a) is a border State (b) has harsh terrain (c) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(c) has low literacy rate (d) has poor infrastructure (d) (R) is true, but (A) is false
Ans. (d) As per Gadgil formula a special category state gets Ans. (b) Federalism is the mixed or compound mode of government,
preferential treatment in federal assistance and tax breaks. The
combining a general government with regional governments in a single
special-category states get significant excise duty concessions and thus
help these states attract large number of industrial units to establish political system.
manufacturing facilities within their territory. 90% of the central 24. Match the following – [BPSC 2017]
assistance is treated as grant and remaining 10% is considered as loan List-I List-II
unlike other states which get 30% grant and 70% loan.
(A) Union list 1. 97 entries
20. Which one among the following pairs of level of government (B) State list 2. 47 entries
and legislative power is not correctly matched ? (C) Concurrent list 3. 66 entries
[NDA 2012-I] Codes :
(a) Central Government : Union List (A) (B) (C)
(b) Local Governments : Residuary powers (a) 1 2 3
(c) State Governments : State List (b) 1 3 2
(d) Central and State Government : Concurrent List (c) 1 2 3
Ans. (b) The State list contains 66 subjects of local or state (d) 3 2 1
importance. The state governments have the authority to make laws on (e) None of the above / More than one of the above
these subjects. These subjects include police, local governments, trade, Ans. (b)
commerce and agriculture. Parliament has exclusive power to make List - I List - II
any law with respect to any matter not enumerated in the Concurrent
(A) Union List (1) 97 entries
List or State List.
Note: Residuary Power retained by a governmental authority after (B) State List (2) 66 entries
certain powers have been delegated to other authorities. (C) Concurrent List (3) 47 entries
21. Consider the following statements: 25. Which one of the following is not a feature of Indian
1. The Constitution of India empowers the Parliament to form federalism?
new States and to alter the areas, boundaries or names of (a) There is an independent judiciary in India.
existing States by passing a resolution in simple majority.
2. Jammu and Kashmir has been given special status (b) Powers have been clearly divided between the Centre
under Article 370 of the Constitution of India. and the States.
[NDA/NA 2016-I] (c) The federating units have been given unequal
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? representation in the Rajya Sabha.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (d) It is the result of an agreement among the federating
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 units.
Ans. (c) Ans. (d) Indian federation is not the result of an agreement among
22. Centre - state relations in India are dependent upon the states unlike the American federation. So, “D” is not the feature
[UP-PCS 2009] of Indian federalism.
26. Which one of the following statements about the provisions Ans. (d) The 11th Schedule distributes powers between the State
of the Constitution of India with regard to the State of Legislature and the Panchayat just as the 7th Schedule distributes
Jammu and Kashmir is not correct? [CDS 2019-I] powers between the Union and the State Legislature. Powers to impose
(a) The Directive Principles of State Policy do not apply. taxes and financial resource.It can also assign to a Panchayat various
(b) Article 35A gives some special rights to the permanent taxes, duties.
residents of the State with regard to employment, 29. Which one of the following is not the characteristic of
settlement and property. decentralization? [BPSC 2020]
(c) Article 19(1)(f) has been omitted. (a) Autonomy
(d) Article 368 is not applicable for the amendment of (b) People’s participation
Constitution of the State. (c) To instil non-confidence among local communities
Ans. (c) Article 19 (1) (f) and 31 (2) have not been abolished for (d) To empower local communities
this State and hence, properly still stands guaranteed to the people of (e) None of the above/More than one of the above
Jammu and Kashmir.
Ans. (c) Decentralization seeks to redistribute authority, responsibility
27. Consider the following statements with regard to the and financial resources for providing public services among different
formation of new States and alteration of boundaries of levels of government. It is the transfer of responsibility for the
existing States : [CDS 2019-II] planning, financing and management of certain public functions from
1. Parliament may increase the area of any State. the central government and its agencies to field units of government
agencies, subordinate units or levels of government, semi-autonomous
2. Parliament may diminish the area of any State.
public authorities or corporations, or area-wide, regional or functional
3. Parliament cannot alter the boundary of any State. authorities. The three major forms of administrative decentralization
4. Parliament cannot alter the name of any State. -- deconcentration, delegation, and devolution -- each have different
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct ? characteristics.
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 4 only 30. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion
(A) and the other as Reason (R) :
Ans. (c) The Fifth Amendment of the Constitution of India, officially
known as The Constitution (Fifth Amendment) Act, 1955, empowered
the President to prescribe a time limit for a State Legislature to convey Assertion (A) : Indian federalism is called ‘Quasi-federal’.
its views on proposed Central laws relating to the formation of new Reason (R) : India has an independent judiciary with power
States and alteration of areas, boundaries or names of existing States. of Judicial Review.
The amendment also permitted the President to extend the prescribed Select the correct answer from the codes given below.
limit, and prohibited any such bill from being introduced in Parliament Codes :
until after the expiry of the prescribed or extended period. The 5th (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
Amendment re-enacted the proviso to Article 3 of the Constitution. explanation of (A)
Under the proviso to Article 3 of the Constitution (relating to formation (b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
of new States and alteration of areas, boundaries or names of existing
explanation of (A)
States), no bill for the purpose of forming a new state, increasing or
decreasing the area of any state or altering the boundaries or name of (c) (A) is true but (R) is false
any state could be introduced in. (d) (A) is false but (R) is true
Ans. (b) Indian federalism is called Quasi-federalism as it combines
28. The 11th Schedule of the Constitution of India distributes the features of the federal government and a unitary government.
powers between [CDS 2020-I] The Legislature, Executive and Judiciary are different organs of the
(a) the Union and the State Legislatures government and work in coordination for effective governance. In
(b) the State Legislatures and the Panchayat India, the Judiciary is not dependent on the legislature and executive
(c) the Municipal Corporation and the Panchayat and is free to give its Judicial review.
(d) the Gram Sabha and the Panchayat
EBD_9432
2 Constitutional Bodies
Election Commission Codes:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 and 4
1. Which of the following is not a constitutional authority? (c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) Only 4
(a) State Election Commission Ans. (a)
(b) State Finance Commission
(c) Zila Panchayat 6. Who among the following determines the authority who
(d) State Electoral Officer shall readjust the allocation of seats in the Lok Sabha
to the states and division of each State into territorial
Ans. (d) State Electoral officer is not a constitutional authority. constituencies? [NDA 2007-II]
2. Which one among the following commissions was set up (a) The President of India
in pursuance of a definite provision under an Article of the (b) The Parliament of India
(c) The Chief Election Commissioner of India
Constitution of India? (d) The Lok Sabha alone
(a) University Grants Commission
(b) National Human Rights Commission Ans. (b) According to article 82 of Indian Constitution, the parliament
(c) Election Commission of India shall readjust the allocation of seats in the Lok Sabha to the
(d) Central Vigilance Commission states and division of each state into territorial constituencies.
Ans. (c) University Grants commission, N.H.R.C. and C.V.C are non- 7. The Chief Election Commissioner of India holds office for
constitutional bodies, whereas election commission is a constitutional a period of [NDA 2012-I]
body under Article 324. (a) six years
(b) during the pleasure of the President
3. What is the tenure of the Chief Election Commissioner of (c) for 6 years or till the age of 65 years, whichever is
India? earlier
(a) Five years (d) for 5 years or till the age of 60 years, whichever is
(b) During the ‘pleasure’ of the President earlier
(c) Six years or till the age of 65 years whichever is Ans. (c) The Chief Election Commissioner holds office for a term of
earlier six years or until they attain the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.
(d) Five years or till the age of 65 years whichever is
earlier 8. Delimitation of constituencies and determination of
constituencies reserved for Scheduled Castes and
Ans. (c) The tenure of the Chief Election Commissioner of India is Scheduled Tribes are done by [NDA 2012-II]
six years or till the age of 65 year whichever is earlier. (a) Election Commission
(b) Delimitation Commission
4. Consider the following statements regarding state election (c) Planning Commission
commission (d) Election Commission with the assistance of
1. The state election commission is appointed by the Delimitation Commission
Governors of the respective states.
Ans. (b) Delimitation commission of India is a Commission
2. State election commission conducts election to the
established by Government of India under the provisions of
panchayats only
the Delimitation Commission Act. In India, such Delimitation
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? Commissions have been constituted 4 times - in 1952 under the
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only Delimitation Commission Act, 1952, in 1963 under Delimitation
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Commission Act, 1962, in 1973 under Delimitation Act, 1972 and in
Ans. (a) The state Election Commission is the constitutional body 2002 under Delimitation Act, 2002. The main task of the commission
responsible for conducting and supervising elections to the local bodies is to redraw the boundaries of the various assemblyand Lok Sabha
in the state. constituencies based on a recent census. The representation from each
state is not changed during this exercise. However, the number of SC
5. Consider the following functions of State Election
and ST seats in a state ischanged in accordance with the census.
Commission and select correct answer by using code given
below 9. Consider the following statements about State Election
1. Prepares the electoral rolls for Panchayats and Commission ? [NDA 2014-II]
Municipalities elections in the State. 1. The State Election Commissioner shall be appointed
2. Conducts elections for Panchayat and Municipalities by the Governor of the State.
of the State. 2. The State Election Commission shall have the power
3. Conducts elections to various bodies except of even preparing the electoral rolls besides the power
of superintendence, direction and control of election
Panchayats and Municipalities as directed by the to the panchayats.
Governor. 3. The State Election Commissioner cannot be removed
4. Prepares the electoral rolls and conducts elections as in any manner from his office until he demits himself
assigned by Election Commission of India. or completes his tenure.
CONSTITUTIONAL BODIES C-45
Which of the above statements is/are correct? 14. Constitutionally the registration and recognition of political
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only parties is the function performed by
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 only [UGC December 2011]
Ans. (b) Three Election Commissioners in the each State shall be (a) The State Election Commission of respective States
appointed by the Governor of the respective State from a penal of (b) The Law Ministry of Government of India
five names for each office forwarded by the Election Commission of (c) The Election Commission of India
Bharatto the provision of the Constitution (Seventy-third Amendment)
Act, 1992 and the Constitution (Seventy-fourth Amendment) Act, (d) Election Department of the State Governments
1992, whereunder the constitution of State Election Commissions Ans. (c) Constitutionally the registration and recognition of political
and appointment of State Election Commissioners are contemplated parties is the function performed by Election Commission of India.
to superintend, direct and control the preparation of the electoral rolls
for, and the conduct of elections to Panchayats and Municipalities. 15. In a democracy, the will of the people is supreme. Which
Election Commissioner of a State can be removed by the Full Bench of the following statement concerning democracy in India
of State Judicial Commission on the basis of enquiry and investigation best reflects this? [NTSE]
made by a judicial committee constituted for the purpose, consisting (a) The President appoints the Prime Minister who is the
of two Chief Justices and one Judge from different High Courts. leader of the political party possessing a majority in
the Lok Sabha.
10. The power to decide the date of an election to a State (b) An assembly of elected representatives excercises
Legislative Assembly rests with the [NDA 2015-I] political authority on behalf of the people.
(a) President of India (c) In case of a difference between the two Houses
(b) Chief Minister and his/her Cabinet of Parliament, the final decision is taken in a joint
(c) Election Commission of India session of the two Houses.
(d) Parliament (d) The permanent executive has more powers than the
Ans. (c) The power to decide the date of an election a state legislative political executive.
assembly rests with the election commission of India. Ans. (b) In all democracies an assembly of elected representatives
11. The Election Commissioner can be removed by the exercises political authority on behalf of the people. Parliament has
[UP-PCS 2014] the authority to make new laws for the country and abolish existing
(a) Chief Election Commissioner laws. Parliament control all the money related issues of government.
(b) Prime Minister All the bills have to be presented to Lok Sabha before they become
(c) President on the recommendation of the chief laws. Since Lok Sabha consists of elected representative of the people,
Election Commissioner it exercises authority over the government.
(d) Chief Justice of India 16. Who was the first woman to became a Chief Election
Ans. (c) Election Commissioner/s can be removed by the President Commissioner of India? [MPPSC 2019]
of India on the recommendation of the Chief Election Commissioner (a) R. M. Nikam (b) S. K. Bedi
(c) V. S. Ramadevi (d) G. D. Das
12. Who recognises the political parties in India?
(a) President of India Ans. (c) V.S. Ramadevi was the first woman to take over as the Chief
(b) Election Commission of India Election Commissioner of India. Ramadevi was born in Chebrolu
(c) Ministry of Law and Justice district of Andhra Pradesh. Ramadevi served as Governor of Himachal
(d) Speaker of the Lok Sabha Pradesh and Governor of Karnataka.
Ans. (b) Election Commission of India recognises the political parties
in the India.
Comptroller & Auditor General (CAG)
13. Consider the following statements: 1. The office of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India
1. The Election Commission of India is a five- was created
member body. (a) Through an act of the parliament
2. Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the (b) By the Constitution
election schedule for the conduct of both general (c) Through a cabinet resolution
elections and by-elections. (d) None of the above
3. Election Commission resolves the disputes relating Ans. (b) CAG of India was created by the constitution of India.
to splits/mergers of recognized political parties.
(Article 148-151)
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only 2. Consider the following statements :
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 3 only 1. The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India
Ans. (d) Election Commission has three election Commissioners. has no control over the issue of money from the
So first statement is wrong. Consolidated Fund of India.
Election Commission decides the election schedule for the conduct 2. The term of the office of the Comptroller and Auditor
of both general elections and bye-elections. So second statement General of India has been fixed by an Act enacted by
is wrong. It also decides the disputes relating to splits/mergers of Parliament.
recognized political parties. So third statement is right. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
Hence answer “D” only 3. (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
EBD_9432
C-46 INDIAN POLITY
Ans. (c) He audits the accounts related to all expenditure from the (a) by the President
consolidated fund of India. (b) on an address from both Houses of Parliament
(c) on the recommendation of the President by the
He holds office for a period of 6 years or up to the age of 65 years
Supreme Court
whichever is earlier. (d) by CJI
3. Which of the following statements regarding the Ans. (b) The Comptroller and Auditor General can be removed on
Comptroller and Auditor General of India is / are true? an address from both Houses of Parliament. The Comptroller and
The Report of the Comptroller and Auditor General of Auditor General (CAG) of India is an authority, established by the
India: Constitution of India under Chapter V.
1. Can be considered by the joint session of both Houses 8. What is the Terms of the Comptroller and Auditor General
of Parliament of India?
2. Includes examination of income and expenditure of (a) 6 years
all public sector undertaking (b) upto 65 years of age
3. Is placed before the Lok Sabha with the comments of (c) 6 years or 65 years of age, whichever earlier
the Estimates Committee (d) upto 64 years of age
4. Constitutes the basis for scrutiny by the Public
Accounts Committee of the Parliament Ans. (c) CAG of India holds office for 6 years or 65 years of age,
Select the correct answer using the codes given below : which ever earlier.
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 9. Who is called the Guardian of public purse?
(c) 2 and 4 (d) Only 4 (a) President
Ans. (c) The CAG submits three audit report to the president- audit (b) Comptroller and Auditor-General
report on appropriation accounts, audit report on financial accounts and (c) Parliament
audit report on public undertakings. The president lays these reports (d) Council of Ministers
before both the Houses of parliament. After this the public accounts Ans. (b) The Constitution of India (Article 148) provides for an
committee examines them and reports its findings to the parliament. independent office of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India
(CAG). He controls the entire financial system of the country at the
4. Consider the following statements :
Centre and the State.
The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India has to:
1. Audit government expenditure 10. Which of the following statement about Comptroller and
2. Make financial policy Auditor General of India (CAG) are correct?
3. Sanction grants to various departments (CDS 2016-I)
4. See that public expenditure are in conformity with the 1. The CAG will hold office for a period of six years
government rules from the date he assumes the office, He shall vacate
Of these statements : office on attaining the age of 65 years, if earlier than
(a) 2, 3 and 4 are correct (b) 1 and 3 are correct the expiry of the 6 years term
(c) 2 and 3 are correct (d) 1 and 4 are correct 2. The powers of CAG are derived from the Constitution
Ans. (d) The work of CAG does not include making of financial of India
policy and sanctioning grants to various departments. 3. The CAG is a multi-member body appointed by the
5. Who among the following can only be removed from the President of India in constitution with the prime
office in like manner and on the like grounds as a Judge of Minister and the Council of Ministers
the Supreme Court? 4. The CAG may be removed by the President only on
1. Comptroller and Auditor-General of India an address from both Houses of Parliament, on the
2. Chief Election Commissioner grounds of proved misbehavior or incapacity
3. Chairman, Union Public Service Commission Select the correct answer using the code given below :
4. Attorney General for India (a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3
Select the correct answer using the codes given below : (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) 2 and 3 only Ans. (a)
Ans. (c) 11. Consider the following statements with respect to the
Comptroller and Auditor General of India
6. The provision of the Act relating to the duties of the [NDA 2010-I]
Comptroller and Auditor-General of India are to audit and 1. He shall only be removed from office in like manner
report on all the expenditure form which of the following?
1. Consolidated Fund of India and on the ground as a Judge of the Supreme Court.
2. Consolidated Fund of each State 2. He shall not be eligible for further office either under
3. Contingency Fund of India the Government of India or under the Government of
4. Public Account of India any State after he has ceased to hold his office.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below : Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3 only (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (a) CAG audits the accounts related to all expenditure from the Ans. (c) Under Article 148 of the Indian Constitution the Comptroller
Consolidated Fund, Consolidated Fund of each state, Contingency and Auditor General (CAG) of India is an authority who audits all
Fund of India and Public Accounts of India. receipts and expenditure of the Government of India and the state
governments, including those of bodies and authorities substantially
7. The Comptroller and Auditor General is appointed by the
President. He can be removed financed by the government.
The CAG shall only be removed from office in like manner and on the Ans. (d) Article 149 of the Constitution deals with the duties and
like grounds as a judge of the Supreme Court of India :Article148(a) powers of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India.
The Comptroller and Auditor General shall not be eligible for further The said Article states that “The CAG shall perform such duties and
office either under the Government of India or under the Government excise such powers in relation to the accounts of the Union and of
of any State after he has ceased to hold his office :Article 148(d) the States and of any other authority or body as prescribed by or
under any law made by the Parliament”. The CAG is mentioned in
12. Which of the following statements relating to Comptroller
the Constitution of India under Article 148 – 151. The CAG is ranked
and Auditor General in India is/are correct?
9th and enjoys the same status as a judge of Supreme Court of India
[NDA 2014-I]
1. He/She is not an officer of the Parliament but an in Indian order of precedence.
officer under the President.
2. He/She is an independent constitutional authority not Union Public Service Commission & SPSC
directly answerable to the House.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below 1. Who is the highest civil servant of the Union Government?
(a) Attorney General
(b) Cabinet Secretary
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) Home Secretary
Ans. (b) The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India is appointed (d) Principal Secretary of the P.M.
by the President of India. CAG is an authority that was established by Ans. (b) Cabinet Secretary is the highest civil servant of the Union
the Constitution of India under article 148. Report of CAG of Union Government. The Cabinet Secretary is the senior-most civil servant
Accounts to be submitted to President who causes them to be laid in the Government of India. Cabinet Secretary has been less than 3
before each house of parliament. years. His or her tenure however, can be extended.
13. Which of the following statements relating to the 2. A member of UPSC may be removed on the ground of
comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India is/are misbehaviour by
correct? [NDA/NA 2016-I] (a) Both the Houses of Parliament by way of
1. The CAG can attend the sittings of the Committee on impeachment
Public Accounts. (b) The President on the basis of enquiry by the Supreme
2. The CAG can attend the sittings of Lok Sabha and Court.
Rajya Sabha. (c) A resolution passed by the Rajya sabha by 2/3
3. The jurisdiction of CAG is co-extensive with powers majority of members present and voting.
of the Union Governement.
(d) The PM on the basis of the recommendation of the
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only cabinet
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Ans. (b) According to Article 317 of the constitution of India, the
chairman or any other member of a PSC shall be removed from his
Ans. (a)
office by the order of the president with reference to the supreme court
14. The office of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India on reference being made to it by the President, has, on inquiry, held in
was created [UP-PCS 2012] accordance with the procedure prescribed in that behalf under Article
(a) through an Act of the Parliament 145, reported that the Chairman or such other member, as the case
(b) by the Constitution may be, ought on any such ground to be removed.
(c) through a Cabinet Resolution 3. Consider the following statements:
(d) none of the above 1. The first Public Service Commission in India was set
Ans. (b) Article 148 of the Constitution of India provides for an up in the year 1926, on the recommendation of the
independent office to the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of Lee Commission on the Superior Civil Services in
India. CAG is appointed by President of India. India.
15. The comptroller and Auditor General of India – 2. The Government of India Act, 1935, provided for
(a) Can be appointed as a member of UPSC after his setting up of public service commissions at both the
retirement federal and provincial levels.
(b) Can be appointed as the Chairman of State Public Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Service commission (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Is not eligible for any further office either under the (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Central government or the state government after his Ans. (c) The first Public Service Commission was set up on October
retirement 1st, 1926. However, its limited advisory functions failed to satisfy the
(d) Can be appointed to any office after his retirement people’s aspirations and the continued stress on this aspect by the leaders
of our freedom movement resulted in the setting up of the Federal Public
Ans. (c) The Comptroller and Auditor General of India is not eligible
Service Commission under the Government of India Act 1935. Under
for any further office either under the central government or state
this Act, for the first time, provision was also made for the formation of
government after his retirement current CAG of India – Rajiv Mehrishi.
Public Service Commissions at the provincial level.
16. Which Article of the Constitution prescribes the duties of 4. Consider the following statements and select the correct
the Comptroller and Auditor General of India ? answer from the codes given below :
[MPPSC 2019] Assertion (A): No qualifications have been prescribed
(a) Article 146 (b) Article 147 for the membership of the Union Public
(c) Article 148 (d) Article 149 Service Commission.
EBD_9432
C-48 INDIAN POLITY
Reason (R) : The Constitutions does not fix the number (c) A is true, but R is false
of members of the Union Public Service (d) A is false, but R is true
Commission. Ans. (d) A is false because the constitution without specifying the
Codes : strength of the Commission has left the matter to the discretion of the
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct president, who determines its composition. According to article 315,
explanation of A the UPSC consists of a chairman and other members appointed by the
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the president of India. Articles 315 to 323 of Part XIV of the constitution
correct explanation of A provide for a Public Service Commission for the Union and for each state.
(d) A is false but R is true 9. Consider the following statements [NDA 2008-II]
1. The Chairman and the Members of the UPSC are
Ans. (b) appointed by the President.
5. Consider the following statements and select the correct 2. The Chairman and the Members of the UPSC are
answer from the codes given below : eligible for further employment under the Government.
Assertion (A): UPSC is an independent organisation. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Reason (R) : UPSC is a constitutional body. (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
Codes : (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct Ans. (a) According to Article 316(a)of the Indian Constitution, the
explanation of A chairman and the members of the UPSC are appointed by the president.
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the Under Article 316(c) a person who holds office as a member of a Public
correct explanation of A Service Commission shall, on the expiration of his term of office, be
(c) A is true but R is false ineligible for re-appointment to that office.
10. Which of the following is not a Constitutional body?
Ans. (a) [UP-PCS 2013]
6. Consider the following statements : (a) Union Public Service Commission
A member of the Union Public Service Commission (b) State Public Service Commission
1. Is appointed by the President of India. (c) Finance Commission
2. Is ineligible for re-appointment to that office. (d) Planning Commission
3. Holds office for a period of 6 years or till the age of Ans. (d) Planning Commission was an Executive body (created by
60 years, whichever is earlier. an Executive order and the rest are constitutional bodies created by
Of the above statements : the provisions of Constitution). .
(a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (b) 1 and 2 are correct
11. Who was the first Chairman of the Uttarakhand Public
(c) 2 and 3 are correct (d) 1 and 3 are correct
Service Commission? [UK-PSC/FR 2015]
Ans. (b) A member of the Union Public Service Commission holds (a) N. P. Navani (b) S. K. Das
office for a period of 6 years or till the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier. (c) Lt. Gen. G.S. Negi (d) Lt. Gen. M. C. BhandarI
7. Consider the following statements and select the correct Ans. (a) N.P. Navani was the first chairman of the Uttarakhand Public
answer from the codes given below : Service Commission.
Assertion (A): After being chairman of UPSC, one cannot
12. Who was the first President of India to make use of
become a member of Central or State legislature.
‘Pocket Veto’? [UGC-II 2016]
Reason (R) : He is completely debarred from any future (a) Zakir Hussain (b) Sanjeeva Reddy
employment under the Central or State Government after (c) R. Venkatraman (d) Gyani Zail Singh
retirement.
Codes : Ans. (d) President Zail Singh introduced ‘Pocket veto’ in India,
when he kept on pending on his table the controversial Postal Bill
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct in 1986,. Even as the Rajiv Gandhi government spared no efforts to
explanation of A bring the law into force, opposition leaders called on Zail Singh to
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the withhold, his assent.
correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false 13. Which of the following statements about the Union Public
(d) A is false but R is true Service Commission are correct ?
[UGC September 2013]
Ans. (d)
1. UPSC is a Constitutional body.
8. Assertion (A) : The number of the Members of the 2. It serves as an advisory body.
Union Public Service Commission is preserved in the 3. It is called upon to advise the Government in regard to
Constitution of India. representation of the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled
Reason (R) : The Union Public Service Commission was Tribes in the Civil Service.
constituted under the provisions in the Constitution of India. 4. It is consulted on appointments of Chairman and
Codes: [NDA 2007-II] members of Tribunals and Commissions.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation Select the correct answer from the code given below :
of A Codes :
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4
explanation of A (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 2
Ans. (d) The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) is an (c) Salary and allowances of the Justice of the Supreme
independent recruiting agency of Union and performs other functions Court of India
as provided by the constitution. The UPSC shall be consulted on all (d) Salary and allowances of the speaker of the Lok Sabha
matters relating to - methods of recruitment to civil services and for Ans. (d) Salary and allowances of the speakers of the Lok Sabha is
civil posts; making appointments to civil services and posts; making not charged on the consolidated fund of India.
promotions and transfers from one service to another; the suitability
of candidates for such appointments, promotions or transfers, etc. 6. Recommendations to the President of India on the specific
Union state fiscal relation are made by the
Finance Commission (a) Finance Minister (b) Reserve Bank of India
(c) Planning Commission (d) Finance Commission
1. The Constitution of India authorizes the parliament to
Ans. (d) The finance commission made recommendations to the
determine the qualifications of members of the Finance
president of India on the specific union state fiscal relation.
Commission of India and the manner in which they
should be selected. In this regard consider the following 7. Consider the following statement :
statements : The expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India
1. The commission consists of five members including comprises:
its chairperson. 1. Pension payable to Judges of High Court
2. Its chairperson necessarily should be an economist. 2. Debt charges for which the Government of India is liable
3. Its members are appointed from different fields such 3. Salary, allowances and pension payable to
as finance and accounts, administration, judicial etc. Comptroller and Auditor General of India
Which of the statements given above are correct? Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 2 only
Ans. (c) The chairperson of the finance commission of India should Ans. (a) Article 112 mentions the expenditure charged on
be a person having experience in public affairs but there is no such consolidated fund of India comprises, the salaries and allowances
compulsion that he should be an economist. of the Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Council of States
2. The primary function of the Finance Commission in India is to and the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker of the House of the People,
(a) Distribute revenue between the centre and the state. debt charges for which the Government of India is liable, the salaries,
allowances and pensions payable to or in respect of Judges of the
(b) Advise the president on financial matters
Supreme Court, the pensions payable to or in respect of Judges of the
(c) Advise the president on financial matters.
Federal Court, the pensions payable to or in respect of Judges of any
(d) Allocate funds to various ministries of the Union and
High Court.
state Governments.
Ans. (c) The finance commission can only advise the president on 8. The principles concerning the provisions of the grant-in-
financial matters such as distribution of the net proceeds of taxes aid to the States out of the Consolidated Fund of India are
between the Union and the states. recommended by the :
(a) Planning Commission
3. Which one of the following authorities recommends the (b) Administrative Reforms Commission
principles governing the grants-in-aid of the revenues to (c) Finance Commission
the states out of the consolidated fund of India? (d) Public Accounts Committee
(a) Finance Commission
Ans. (c)
(b) Inter-State-Council
(c) Union Ministry of Finance 9. Consider the following statements about the Finance
(d) Public Accounts Committee Commission:
Ans. (a) Finance commission recommends the president on the 1. The duty of the Finance Commission is to make
principle that should govern the grants-in-aid to the states by the centre. recommendations as to the distribution of revenue
resources between the Union and the States.
4. On which of the following matters, does the Finance 2. It is appointed every fifth year by the President of India.
Commission make recommendations to the President of India? 3. It raises revenue for central financial transfers to the
1. The distribution between Union and States of net States.
proceeds of taxes and allocation between the States 4. It borrows money form the market for central grants
of their respective share, of such proceeds. to the States.
2. The principles which should govern the grants-in-aid Which of the statements given above is / are correct ?
of the revenues of the States out of the Consolidated (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3
Fund of India. (c) 1 only (d) 2 and 4
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Ans. (a)
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 10. Financial distribution between the Union and the State
Ans. (c) takes place on the basis of the recommendations of which
one of the following? [NDA 2008-I]
5. Which one of the following expenditure is not charged on (a) The National Development Council
the consolidated fund of India? (b) The Inter-State Council
(a) Salary and allowances of the President of India (c) The Planning Commission
(b) Salary and allowances of the Vice President of India (d) The Finance Commission
EBD_9432
C-50 INDIAN POLITY
Ans. (d) The Finance Commission is constituted by the President under 15. The Fourteenth Finance Commission assigned different
article 280 of the Constitution, mainly to give its recommendations weights to the following parameters for distribution of tax
on distribution of tax revenues between the Union and the States and proceeds to the States : [CDS II 2018]
amongst the States themselves. 1. Income distance 2. Population
3. Demographic changes 4. Area
11. Which among the following functions as a coordinate Arrange the aforesaid parameters in descending order in
between the Planning Commission and State terms of their weights.
Governments? [UP-PCS 2012] (a) 1 - 2 - 3 - 4 (b) 1 - 2 - 4 - 3
(a) National Integration Council (c) 1 - 3 - 2 - 4 (d) 4 - 3 - 2 - 1
(b) Finance Commission
(c) National Development Council Ans. (b)
(d) None of the above Criteria and weights for the horizontal distribution of the tax is as
follows;
Ans. (c) National Development Council co-ordinates between Union Criteria Weight (%)
government, the Planning Commission and the State governments. 1. Income Distance – 50
12. Consider the following statements – 2. Population (1971) – 17.5
The state government shall appoint a finance commission 3. Area – 15
to review the financial positions of the Panchayats and to 4. Demographic Change (2011) – 10
make recommendations as to – 5. Forest Cover – 7.5
1. The distribution between the state and Panchayats of
the net proceeds of taxes tolls and fees leviable by the Other Commissions & Miscellaneous
states.
1. 1. The National Commission for Scheduled Tribes was
2. The determination of the taxes, duties, tolls and fees constituted under the Constitution (Eighty-ninth
which may be assigned to the Panchayats Amendment) Act.
3. The principles that will determine grants-is-aid to the 2. The first National Commission for Scheduled Tribes
panchayats. was constituted in 2006.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1,2 and 3 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (d) The state government shall appoint a finance commission Ans. (a)
to review the financial positions of the panchayats and to make
recommendations as to. 2. The Twentieth Law Commission was constituted through
a government order with effect from 1st Sep. 2012. It has
1. The distribution between the State and Panchayats of the net a three year term ending on 31st Aug. 2015. Who is the
proceeds of taxes tolls and fees leviable by the states. chairman of the commission? [NDA 2017]
2. The determination of the taxes, duties, tolls and fees which may (a) Justice D.K. Jain
be assigned to the Panchayats. (b) Justice J.S. Verma
3. The principles that will determine grants–in–aid to the panchayats. (c) Justice Markanday Katju
(d) Justice M. Mualyal
13. Consider the following bodies of India.
1. The National Commission for scheduled castes Ans. (a) Justice D K Jain is appointed the chairman of the Twentieth
2. The National Commission for women Law commission.
3. The National Commission for Backward classes 3. Consider the following statements regarding law
4. The National Human Rights Commission commission of India:
Which of the bodies given above is/are established by the 1. Recently, the 20th law commission was constituted
constitution of India? under the chairmanship of D.K. Jain
(a) 1 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 only 2. The commission is constituted for a period of five
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 years
3. Codification of the penal code, and the Criminal
Ans. (a) The National Commission for Scheduled Castes is
Procedure Code were recommended by the law
established by the Article 388 of the constitution of India whereas
commission constituted under charter Act of 1833.
rest are established by acts of the parliament. National Commission
Which of the statements given above are correct?
for Scheduled Castes is an Indian constitutional body established with (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 4 only
a view to provide safeguards against the exploitation of Scheduled (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1,3 and 4 only
Castes and to promote and protect their social, educational, economic
and cultural interests, special provisions were made in the Constitution. Ans. (c) The law commission of India is constituted for the period
of three years. It is a non-statutory body.
14. Under which one of the following Articles is the formation
of Finance Commission laid down? [BPSC - 2018] 4. The Planning Commission has been abolished by the Prime
(a) Article 280 (b) Article 269 Minister [UP-PCS 2015]
(c) Article 268 (d) Article 265 (a) Narendra Modi (b) Morarji Desai
(e) None of the above/More than one of the above (c) Atal Bihari Vajpayee (d) I. K. Gujral
Ans. (a) The First Finance Commission was established by the Ans. (a) Prime Minister Narendra Modi abolished the Planning
President of India in 1951. According to 280th article the President Commission and replaced it with National Institution for Transforming
of India appoints finance commission once for every five years. India or NITI Aayog.
5. The tenure of the Chairman of the National Human Rights Ans. (b) The Prime Minister of India is the ex – officio chairman
Commission is – [MP-PSC 2017] of the Planning Commission. The Deputy Chairman is the de-facto
(a) 3 years (b) 4 years executive head.
(c) 5 years (d) 6 years
Ans. (c) The National Human Rights Commission of India is an
12. Match the List – I with the List – II and select the correct
autonomous public body constituted on 12 October, 1993 under the answer from the codes given below [UGC December 2011]
Protection of Human Rights Ordinance of 28 September, 1993. The List–I (Commissions and Committees)
Chair Person and members of NHRC are appointed by the President A. First Administrative Reforms Commission
of India. B. Paul H. Appleby Committee I
C. K. Santhanam Committee
6. The recommendations of Sarkaria Commission relate to D. Second Administrative Reforms Commission
which of the following? [UP-PCS- 2018] List – II (Year)
(a) Distribution of revenue
(i) 2005 (ii) 1962
(b) Power and functions of the President
(c) Membership of Parliament (iii) 1966 (iv) 1953
(d) Centre-State relations Codes :
A B C D
Ans. (d) Sarkaria Commission was set up in 1983 by the central (a) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
government of India. Government appointed a commission under the (b) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
chairmanship of Justice R.S. Sarkaria to review the question of centre (c) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
state relations. (d) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
7. Who was the first Chairman of the Backward Classes Ans. (b) First Administrative Reforms – 1966
Commission? [BPSC- 2018] Paul H. Appleby Committee – 1953
(a) Jagjivan Ram (b) Kaka Saheb Kalelkar K. Santhanam Committee – 1962
(c) B. D. Sharma (d) B. R. Ambedkar Second Administrative Reforms Commission – 2005
(e) None of the above/More than one of the above
13. Which of the following statements are correct about the
Ans. (c) The First Backward Classes Commission was set up by a
Planning Commission? [NTSE]
presidential order on 29 January 1953 under the chairmanship of Kaka
A. It is a constitutional body created by the Parliament.
Kalelkar.
B. It acts as an advisory body to the Union Government.
8. The Inter-State Council was seet up in 1990 on the C. The Finance Minister is the ex-officio chairman of
recommendation of [CDS I 2019] this body.
(a) Punchhi Commission D. Its basic function is to formulate priorities for the
(b) Sarkaria Commission Five Year Plan for integrated economic and social
(c) Rajamannar Commission development
(d) Mungerilal Commission (a) A and C only
Ans. (b) Inter State council is a constitutional body set up on the (b) B and D only
basis of provisions in Article 263 of the Constitution of India by (c) A, C and D only
a Presidential Order dated 28th May, 1990 on recommendation of (d) D only
Sarkaria Commission. Ans. (b) Planning commission is a non constitutional body as Prime
Minister as the ex-officio chairman. 1
9. The National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC)
has been declared unconstitutional by [UGC July 2016] 14. Which one of the following Commissions is related to
(a) The Supreme Court of India Article 338A? [CDS 2020-II]
(b) The High Court (a) The National Commission for Scheduled Castes
(c) The High Court and the Supreme Court both (b) The National Commission for Scheduled Tribes
(d) The President of India (c) The National Commission for Backward Classes
Ans. (a) The Constitution Bench of Supreme Court on 16 October (d) The National Commission for Women
2015 by 4:1 Majority upheld the collegium system and struck down Ans. (b)
the NJAC as unconstitutional after hearing the petitions filed by
several persons and bodies with Supreme Court Advocates on Record 15. Who is not a member of the Committee constituted for
Association (SCAoRA) being the first and lead petitioner. recommendations of appointment of Chairperson and other
10. Who was the Speaker of the first Lok Sabha? Members of National Human Rights Commission ?
(a) Sardar Hukam Singh (b) G. V. Mavalankar [MPPSC 2019]
(c) M. N. Kaul (d) M. A. Ayyangar (a) Prime Minister
(b) Speaker of the House of the People
Ans. (b)
(c) Leader of the Opposition in the House of the People
11. Who among the following is the de facto executive head (d) Chairman of the Council of States
of the Planning Commission? [UGC June 2014] Ans. (d) The Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha and not the
(a) Chairman Chairman of the Council of States is the member of the Committee
(b) Deputy Chairman constituted for recommendations of appointment of Chairperson and
(c) Minister of State for Planning other Members of National Human Rights Commission.
(d) Member Secretary
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C-52 INDIAN POLITY
16. Which of the following statement is not correct in relation Ans. (a) Attorney general of India, appointed by President, advises
to Protection of Human Rights Act? [MPPSC 2019] the government of India on legal matters. Presently Venugopal is an
(a) Chairman holds office for a term of five years Attorney General of India.
(b) Members of the Commission hold office for a term of
five years 5. Consider the following statements:
(c) Member is not eligible for re-appointment for another 1. The Attorney General of India is appointed by the
term of five years President upon the recommendation of the Chief
(d) Chairperson or a Member is ineligible for further Justice of Supreme Court.
employment under Government of India or 2. The Attorney General of India has the right to speak
Government of any State in the Parliament but he can’t vote.
Ans. (a, b, c) The Protection of Human Rights Act allows for the (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
reappointment of members of the NHRC and SHRCs for a period of (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
five years.
Ans. (b) The proposal for appointment of Law officers viz. Attorney
The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) was formed on 12
General, Solicitor General, is sent to the Appointments committee of
October 1993. It is a statutory public body. It was given a statutory
the cabinet for its approval. On the recommendation of cabinet the
basis by the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993.
president appoints Attorney General.
The Protection of 1993 (NHRC) obliges it to do the following:
Negligence or reaction to human rights violations by the Government 6. Consider the following statements about the attorney
of India. general of India:
Recommending measures for the protection of human rights and their 1. He is appointed by the President of India
effective implementation 2. He must have the same qualifications as required for
The Protection of Human Rights Act mandates the NHRC to perform a judge of the Supreme Court
the following: proactively or reactively inquire into violations of 3. He must be a member of either House of Parliament
government of India human rights or negligence iention of such 4. He can be removed by impeachment by Parliament
violation by a public servant. the protection of human rights and Which of these statements are correct?
recommend measures for their effective implementation. The (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
Protection of Human Rights (Amendment) Bill, 2019 was introduced (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 3 and 4
in Lok Sabha by the Minister of Home Affairs. Ans. (a) Article 76 of the constitution says about Attorney General
of India. The president shall appoint a person who is qualified the
Attorney General & Advocate General same as a judge of the Supreme Court.
1. Who is the first Law Officer of the Government of India? 7. Consider the following statements:
(a) Chief Justice of India (b) Union Law Minister 1. The Advocate General of a state in India is appointed
(c) Attorney General of India (d) Law Secretary by the President of India upon the recommendation of
the Governor of the concerned state.
Ans. (c) Attorney General of India is the first law officer of the
2. As provided in Civil procedure Code, High Courts
Government of India.
have original appellate and advisory jurisdiction at
2. Who among the following holds his office at the pleasure the state level
of the President? Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(a) Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission (a) 1 Only (b) 2 Only
(b) Attorney General of India
(c) Speaker of the Lok Sabha Ans. (d) Article 165, Advocate-General for the state. The governor
(d) Comptroller and Auditor General of India of each state shall appoint a person who is qualified to be appointed
a judge of a High court to be advocate General for the state.
Ans. (b) The term of Office of the AG is not fixed by the constitution.
Further the Constitution does not contain the procedure and grounds 8. Consider the following statements about the Attorney-
for his removal. He holds office during the pleasure of the president. General of India? [NDA 2007-II]
1. He is appointed by the President of India
3. Who among the following can attend the meetings of both 2. He has the right to take part in the proceeding of the
Houses of Parliament while being not a member of either Parliament.
of the Houses? 3. He has the right of audience in all courts in India.
(a) Solicitor-General of India Which of the statements given above are correct?
(b) Vice-President of India (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these
(c) Comptroller and Auditor-General of India
(d) Attorney General of India Ans. (d) Attorney General of India is appointed by the President of
India under Article 76(a) of the Constitution and holds office during
Ans. (d) He has the right to speak and to take part in the proceedings the pleasure of the President.
of both houses of parliament or their joint sitting.
9. Consider the following statements with respect to the
4. Who advises the Government of India on legal matters?
Attorney General of India [NDA 2009-I]
(a) Attorney General
1. He is appointed by the President.
(b) Chief justice of Supreme Court
2. He must have the same qualifications as are required
(c) Chairman, Law Commission
by a Judge of High Court.
(d) None of these
3. In the performance of his duties he shall have the right Ans. (b) The Attorney General for India is the Indian government’s
of audience in all courts of India. chief legal adviser, and its primary lawyer in the Supreme Court of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? He is appointed by the President of India under Article 76(1) of the Indian
(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 3 Constitution and holds office during the pleasure of the President.
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
13. The term of office of the Advocate General of a State is:
Ans. (b) The Attorney General of India is the chief legal advisor of [UGC Dec. 2015]
Indian government. He is appointed by the President of India under
(a) 4 years
Article 76(a) of the Constitution. He must be a person qualified to be
(b) 5 years
appointed as a Judge of the Supreme Court. The Attorney General
(c) 6 years or 65 years of age whichever is earlier
has the right of audience in all Courts in India as well as the right to
(d) not fixed
participate in the proceedings of the Parliament. He holds office during
the pleasure of the President. The current Attorney General is Mukul Ans. (d) The Office of the Advocate General is a constitutional office
Rohatgi (14th Attorney General). created under Article 165 of the Constitution of India. The Governor
of the State appoints a person who is qualified to be appointed as a
10. Which one of the following has the right to address the judge of the High Court as Advocate General of the State.
Parliament? [UP-PCS 2011]
(a) Atorney General of India 14. Which of the following statement(s) is/are not correct about
(b) Chief Election Commissioner of India the Attorney General of India? [UGC Dec. 2012]
(c) Chief Justice of India 1. The President appoints a person, who is qualified
(d) National Security Advisor to be a Judge of a High Court, to be the Attorney
General of India.
Ans. (a) Attorney general of India may speak in Parliament and can 2. He has the right of audience in all the Courts of the
take part in proceedings without having right to vote. country.
11. Which officer of the Government of india has the right to 3. He has the right to take part in the proceedings of the
take part in the proceedings of Parliament of India even Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.
though he is not a member? [BPSC 2017] 4. He has a fixed tenure.
(a) Vice - President Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(b) Attorney General of India Codes :
(c) Comptroller and Auditor General (a) 1 and 4 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(d) Election Commissioner (c) 3 and 4 (d) 3 only
Ans. (b) Attorney General of India has the right to take part in the Ans. (a) The Attorney General for India is appointed by the President
of India under Article 76 (1) of the Constitution and holds office during
proceedings of parliament of India even though he is not a member.
the pleasure of the President. He is Indian government’s chief legal
12. The Attorney General of India is appointed by adviser, and its primary lawyer in the Supreme Court of India. The
(a) the Law Minister President appoints a person, who is qualified to be a Judge of a High
(b) the President of India Court, to be the Attorney General of India. It has become a tradition
(c) the Speaker of the Lok Sabha that the Attorney General resigns when a new government is formed.
The Attorney General is selected by the Government and acts as its
(d) the Prime Minister advocate, and hence is not a neutral person.
(e) None of the above/More than one of the above
EBD_9432
3 Union Government
5. In what way does the Indian Parliament exercise control
Union Legislature over the administration?
1. Any amendment in the Constitution of India, in regard (a) Through Parliamentary Committee
to which of the following subjects, needs only simple (b) Through Consultative Committee of various ministers
majority of the parliament? [CDS-2017] (c) By making the administration send periodic reports
1. Directive principles of state policy. (d) By compelling the executives to issue writs
2. Election of the President and its manner Ans. (a) Parliament supervises the Activities of the executives
3. Quorum in the Parliament with the help of its committees like committees on Govt. assurance,
4. Creation of the Legislative Council in a State committees on subordinate legislation, committees on petition etc.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below: Considering the volume of legislation to be handled by the Parliament,
committees have been established to transact a good deal of the
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only legislation. Parliamentary Committees are of two kinds - Standing
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only Committees and Ad hoc Committees. The former are elected or
appointed periodically and they work on a continuous basis. The latter
Ans. (c) The amendment in the Directive Principle of state policy are appointed on an ad hoc basis as need arises and they cease to exist
needs for a special majority of the Parliament where the amendment as soon as they complete the task assigned to them.
in the election of the President and its manner needs for a special
majority of the parliament. 6. Consider the following statements regarding Constitutional
Amendments.
2. Which of the following are matters on which a 1. In Article 368, two methods of Constitutional
constitutional amendment is possible only with the Amendment are mentioned.
ratification of the legislature of not less than one half of 2. Constitutional Amendment Bill can be initiated only
the states? in Lok Sabha.
1. Election of the president 3. In case of any dispute between two Houses of
2. Representation of the states in parliament Parliament on Constitutional Amendment Bill, Joint
3. Any of the lists in the 7th schedule sitting of both houses can be summoned.
4. Abolition of the Legislative Council of a State. 4. The President cannot veto a Constitutional
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only Amendment Bill.
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 2, 3 and 4 only Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
Ans. (a) Election of the President representation of the states (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1 and 4 only
in Parliament and any of the Lists in the 7th schedule require (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 2, 3 and 4 only
rectification of the Legislature of not less than one half of the states
for a constitution amendment. Ans. (b)
3. Which of the following are/is stated in the Constitution of 7. The States of the Indian Union can be reorganised or their
India? boundaries altered by:
1. The President shall not be a member of either House (a) The Union Parliament by a simple majority in the
of Parliament. ordinary process of legislation.
2. The Parliament shall consist of the President and two (b) Two-thirds majority of both the Houses of Parliament.
Houses. (c) Two-thirds majority of both the Houses of Parliament
Choose the correct answer from the codes give below: and the consent of the legislature of the concerned
(a) 1 only (b) Both 1and 2 States.
(c) 2 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) An executive order of the Union Government with the
consent of the concerned State Governments.
Ans. (b) Art. 59 of the constitution-The president shall not be a
member of the either House of Parliament or House of the legislatures Ans. (a) Such Laws can be passed by a simple majority and by the
of any state. So, both 1 and 2 are correct. ordinary legislative process.
4. The Parliament can make any law for the whole or any part 8. Consider the following statements:
of India for implementing international treaties? 1. A Constitutional amendment inserting a regulation in
the Ninth Schedule can be challenged on the ground
(a) With the consent of all the states of violation of basic structure of the Constitution.
(b) With the consent of majority of states 2. Any legislation enacted by Parliament cannot be
(c) With the consent of state concerned successfully challenged for affecting the basic
(d) Without the consent of any state. structure of the Constiution.
Ans. (d) Art 253- Parliament has power to make any law for the Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
whole or any part of the country or territory of India for implementing (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
any treaty, agreement or convention with any other country or any (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
decision made at any international conference, association or other Ans. (a)
body without the consent of any state.
UNION GOVERNMENT C-55
9. Consider the following statements : [NDA-2017] 13. Rajya Sabha can delay the Finance bill sent for its
1. An amendment of the Constitution of India can be consideration by the Lok Sabha for a maximum period of
initiated by the introduction of a Bill only in the Lok (a) One month (b) One Year
Sabha. (c) Seven day (d) Fourteen days
2. The Bill for amendment of the Constitution of India
Ans. (d) Rajya Sabha can delay the Finance Bill sent for its
has to be passed in each House by a majority of the
consideration by the Lok Sabha for a maximum period of fourteen
total membership of that House and by a majority of days.
not less than two-thirds of the members of that House
Present and voting. 14. In which of the following houses the chairperson is not the
Which of the statements given above is / are correct? member of that house?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (a) Lok Sabha (b) Rajya Sabha
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) Legislative Assembly (d) Legislative council
Ans. (b) An amendment of the constitution can be initiated only by Ans. (b) The chairperson of Rajya sabha in not the member of
the introduction of a bill for the purpose in either House of Parliament house. Presently vice president of India Venkaiah Naidu is the
and not in the state legislatures. chairman of upper house.
10. Which of the following are matters on which the 15. Who amongst the following is not entitled to take part in
Parliament has the power to modify provisions of the the activities of Lok Sabha?
Constitution by a simple majority ? (a) The Comptroller and Auditor General of India
1. Alternation of names, boundaries and areas of States. (b) The Attorney General of India
(c) The Solicitor General
2. Appointment of additional judges
(d) The Secretary to President of India
3. Abolition of the second chamber of a State Legislature
4. Administration of Scheduled Areas Ans. (d) The secretary to the president of India is not entitled to
Select the correct answer using the codes given below : take part in the activities of Lok Sabha. Other can take part.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4 16. The state wise allocation of seats in Lok Sabha is based on
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4 the 1971 census. Up to which year does this remain intact?
Ans. (c) A number of provision in the constitution can be amended (a) 2031 (b) 2026
by a simple majority of the two houses of parliament outside the (c) 2021 (d) 2011
scope of Article 368. Some of these are:
Ans. (b) The state wise allocation of seats in Lok Sabha is based on
1. Admission or establishment of new States. 1971 census and this remain upto 2026 under article 82.
2. Formation of new states and related subjects
3. Abolition or creation of legislative councils in states. 17. How many members are nominated by the president in the
4. Second schedule- emoluments, allowances, privileges, Rajya Sabha
and so on of the president, the governors,, the speakers, (a) 2 (b) 10
judges etc. (c) 12 (d) 15
11. Consider the following statements and select the correct Ans. (c) There are 12 members nominated by the president in
answer from the codes given below : the Rajya Sabha. The Rajya Sabha (RS) or Council of States is the
Assertion (A): By amendment, Parliament cannot destroy upper house of the Parliament of India. Membership is limited to
the basic features of the Constitution. 250 members, 12 of whom are nominated by the President of India
Reason (R) : The power to amend does not include the for their contributions to art, literature, science, and social services.
power to abrogate the Constitution. The remainder of the body is elected by the state and territorial
Codes: legislatures.
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct
explanation of A. 18. A bill presented in Parliament becomes an Act after
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the (a) It is passed by both the Houses.
correct explanation of A. (b) The president has given his assent
(c) A is true but R is false. (c) The Prime Minister has signed it
(d) A is false but R is true. (d) The Supreme Court has declared it to be within the
Ans. (a) competence of the Union Parliament
12. Consider the following statements : Ans. (b) Under article 53 power of president mentioned. Any bill
1. There was a special provision for the Anglo-Indian presented in parliament becomes an act after president’s assent
community in certain services.
19. According to our Constitution, the Rajya Sabha
2. The Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes
(Prevention of Atrocities) Act was passed in 1955. (a) is dissolved once in two years.
3. The Untouchability (Offences) Act, was renamed as (b) is dissolved every five years.
the Protection of Civil Rights Act. (c) is dissolved every six years.
Which of the statements given above are correct ? (d) is not subject of dissolution
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 Ans. (d) Rajya Sabha is not a subject of dissolution. Lok Sabha
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3 dissolved on every five years.
Ans. (d) The Scheduled Castes and Tribes (Prevention of 20. As a non-member who can participate in the proceedings
Atrocities) Act, 1989 an Act of the Parliament of India enacted to of either House of Parliament
prevent atrocities against scheduled castes and scheduled tribes (a) Vice President
To, further strengthen the constitutional provision in Article 15 (b) Chief Justice
and Article 17, the parliament of India enacted the Untouchability (c) Attorney General
(offences) Act in 1955. This act was further amended and renamed in (d) Chief Election Commissioner
1976 as Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955.
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C-56 INDIAN POLITY
Ans. (c) As a non-member, Attorney General can participate in the Ans. (b) The first meeting after the election when the Speaker and
proceedings of either House of Parliament. The Attorney General of the Deputy Speaker are selected by members of the Parliament is
India is the Indian government’s chief legal advisor, and its primary held under the Protem Speaker.
lawyer in the Supreme Court of India.
28. Which of the following is the most appropriate tool to raise
21. In which house is the presiding officer not a member of the issue of Naxalism activities in the Lok Sabha?
that house?
(a) Lok Sabha (b) Rajya Sabha (a) Calling attention motion
(c) Vidhan-Sabha (d) Vidhan parishad (b) Discussion under Rule 377
(c) Censure motion
Ans. (b) The Vice-President of India is ex-officio Chairman of (d) Short duration discussion
Rajya Sabha.
Ans. (a) Calling attention is a type of motion introduced by a
22. Which one of the following statements about the member to call the attention of a minister to a matter of urgent public
Parliament of India is not correct? importance.
(a) The Constitution provides for a parliamentary form of
government 29. What is the maximum time interval permissible between
(b) The foremost function of the parliament is to provide two successive sessions of the parliament? [NDA-2017]
a cabinet (a) 4 months (b) 5 months
(c) The membership of the cabinet is restricted to the (c) 6 months (d) 3 months
lower house
Ans. (c) 6 months is the maximum time interval permissible
(d) The cabinet has to enjoy the confidence of the
majority in the popular chamber between the two successive session of the parliament.
Ans. (c) The membership of the cabinet is for both upper house and 30. Who is the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha?
lower house. (a) The President (b) The Vice-President
(c) The Prime Minister (d) The Speaker
23. The first speaker against whom a motion of non-confidence
was moved in the Lok Sabha was Ans. (b) The Vice President of India is the ex-officio Chairman of
(a) Balram Jakhar (b) G.V. Mavalankar the Rajya Sabha, who presides over its sessions.
(c) Hukum Singh (d) K.S. Hegde
31. Who is competent to dissolve the Rajya Sabha?
Ans. (b) The first speaker against whom a motion of non-confidence (a) The Chairman of Rajya Sabha
was moved in the Lok Sabha was G.V. Mavalankar. Ganesh Vasudev (b) The President
Mavalankar (27 November 1888 – 27 February 1956) popularly (c) The joint session of Parliament
known as Dadasaheb term – (1952 – 1956). (d) None of these
Balram Jakhar - 8th Speaker of Lok Sabha.
Ans. (d) Rajya sabha is not a subject of dissolution.
Hukum singh - 3rd Speaker of Lok Sabha.
K. S. Hegde - 7th Speaker of Lok Sabha. 32. The speaker’s vote in the Lok Sabha is called
(a) Casting vote (b) Sound vote
24. Indian Parliament consists of (c) Direct vote (d) Indirect vote
(a) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
(b) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and Prime Minister Ans. (a) The speaker’s vote in the Lok Sabha is called casting vote.
(c) Speaker and Lok Sabha A casting vote is a vote given to the presiding officer of a council or
(d) President and both the Houses legislative body to resolve a deadlock and which can be exercised
Ans. (d) Indian Parliament consist of President and both the house. only when such a deadlock exists.
25. Money bill is introduced in 33. The chairman of the Lok Sabha is designated as
(a) Lok Sabha (a) Chairman (b) Speaker
(b) Rajya Sabha (c) Vice President (d) President
(c) Joint sitting of both the Houses Ans. (b) Chairman of Lok sabha is designated as speaker.
(d) None of the above
34. Who decides whether a Bill is a money Bill or not?
Ans. (a) Money Bills can be introduced only in Lok Sabha. Money
bills passed by the Lok Sabha are sent to the Rajya Sabha. (a) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(b) The President
26. The Parliament can legislate on a subject in the state list (c) The Prime Minister
(a) by the wish of the president (d) The Parliamentary Select Committee
(b) if the Rajya Sabha passes such a resolution
(c) under any circumstances Ans. (a) Speaker of Lok sabha decides wheather a bill is a money
(d) by asking the legislature of the concerned state bill or not.
Ans. (b) The parliament can legislate on a subject in the state list if 35. In order to be recognised as an official opposition group in
the Rajya Sabha passes such a resolution. the Parliament
27. The function of the pro-tem in the absence of Speaker is to (a) 1/3rd of the total strength
(a) conduct the proceedings of the House in the absence (b) 1/4th of the total strength
of speakers. (c) 1/6th of the total strength
(b) officiate as speaker when the speaker is to be elected (d) 1/10th of the total strength
(c) only check if the election certificates of the members Ans. (d) Officialy opposition group in the parliament required
are in order 1/10x of the total strength.
36. Rajya Sabha enjoys more power than the Lok Sabha in the Ans. (d) ‘Zero Hour’ in Political jargon refers to question answer
case of session. Zero Hour in Parliament starts at 12 noon during which
(a) Money bills members raise matters of importance, especially those that cannot be
(b) Non-money bills delayed.
(c) Setting up of new All India Services 44. What is the term of a Member of the Rajya Sabha?
(d) Amendment of the Constitution (a) Three years (b) Four years
Ans. (c) Rajya Sabha enjoys more power than the Lok Sabha in the (c) Five years (d) Six years
case of setting up of new All India Services. Ans (d) The Rajya Sabha is a permanent house, not subject to
37. The speaker of the Lok Sabha can resign his office by disolution, one third of its members retiring after every two years.
addressing his resignation to Thus every member enjoys a 6-year tenure.
(a) The President 45. Which among the following was NOT constituted as per
(b) The Prime Minister mandate of Constitution of India?
(c) The Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha (a) Election Commission (b) NITI Aayog
(d) The Chief Justice of India (c) Finance Commission (d) Inter State Council
Ans. (c) Speaker can resign his office to Deputy speaker of Lok 45. (b)
sabha. 46. In terms of Parliamentary terminology, What do we call a
38. The bill of which of the following categories can be rule of legislative procedure under which a further debate
initiated only in Lok Sabha? on a motion can be stopped?
(a) Ordinary Bill (a) Closure (b) Gullitone
(c) Expunction (d) Recess
(b) Private members Bill
(c) Money Bill Ans. (a)
(d) Constitution Amendment Bill 47. The Government Bill means a bill introduced by a
Ans. (c) Money Bill - Lok sabha (a) Member of the Treasury bench in the Lok Sabha
(b) Member of the Parliament who is not a Minister
39. Which of the following appointments is not made by the (c) Minister in the Lok Sabha
President of India? (d) Minister in any House of the Parliament.
(a) Speakers of the Lok Sabha Ans. (d) Government bill can introduced by minister in any house
(b) Chief Justice of India of the parliament.
(c) Chief of Air Staff
(d) Chief of Army 48. When an ordinary Bill is referred to a joint sitting of both
the Houses of Indian Parliament, it has to be passed by a
Ans. (a) Speaker of Lok sabha elected by simple majority in the (a) simple majority of the total number of members of
Lok sabha. both the Houses present and voting
40. The most important feature of the Indian Parliament is that (b) two-third majority of the total number of members of
(a) It is the Union Legislature in India both the Houses
(b) It also comprises of the President (c) simple majority of the total number of members of
both the Houses
(c) It is bicameral in nature (d) two-third majority of the total number of members of
(d) The Upper House of the Parliament is never dissolved both the Houses present and voting
Ans. (c) Bicameralism has been one of the most important features Ans. (a) Joint session is presided over by the speaker of Lok Sabha
of India’s parliamentary democracy. Ever since the coming into force or in his absence by the Deputy Speaker. In a joint sitting a bill is
of the Constitution, both the Chambers of Indian Parliament have
passed simply by the majority of the both the members of the house
been complementing each other in more ways than one.
present and voting.
41. The allocation of seats in the present Lok Sabha is based 49. Joint Parliamentary Sessions in India are chaired by the
on which one of the following census? (a) President of India
(a) 1971 (b) 1981 (b) Vice-President of India who is the Chairman of the
(c) 1991 (d) 2001 Rajya Sabha
Ans. (a) 1971 census. (c) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(d) Prime Minister of India
42. Who among the following was not elected for two terms as
Ans. (c) The joint sitting of the Parliament is called by the President
the Speaker of Lok Sabha?
and is presided over by the Speaker or, in his absence, by the Deputy
(a) G.M.C. Balayogi (b) N. Sanjiva Reddy Speaker of the Lok Sabha or in his absence, the Deputy-Chairman of
(c) Balram Jakhar (d) Baliram Bhagat the Rajya Sabha.
Ans. (d) Baliram Bhagat was not elected for two terms as the
speaker of Lok Sabha. He served as the Speaker of Lok Sabha from
50. The members of the Lok Sabha from the Union Territories
of India are:
1976 to 1977, during the turbulent final year of Indira Gandhi’s first (a) Nominated by the President
reign as Prime Minister. (b) Elected by the members of local bodies of the Union
43. ‘Zero Hour’ in political jargon refers to [CDS-2017] Territories.
(a) Suspended motion (b) Question hour (c) Chosen by direct election
(d) Chosen by direct election in Puducherry whereas
(c) Adjourned time (d) Question-answer session
nominated by the president in other territories.
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C-58 INDIAN POLITY
Ans. (c) All the members of the Lok Sabha have chosen by direct 3. Impeachment of judges of the High Court
election except two members may be nominated by the President 4. Passing of laws in the national interest on the subject
from Anglo-Indian Community. enumerated in state list
5. Creation of all India services.
51. The first reading of the Bill in a House of Parliament refers Select the correct answer by using the codes given below:
to : [CDS-2017] (a) 1, 3 and 4 only (b) 2, 3 and 5 only
(a) The motion for leave to introduce a Bill in the House (c) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only (d) 1, 2 and 5 only
(b) The general discussion on the Bill as whole where Ans. (c) Both the Houses have been enshrined with equal powers
only the principle underlying the Bill is discussed and on the matter of impeachment of judges of the High Courts. Soumitra
not the details of the bill. Sen is a retired judge of the Calcutta High Court. He was the first
(c) The general discussion on the Bill where the bill is judge in independent India to be impeached in India’s Rajya Sabha
discussed in details. for misappropriation of funds.
(d) The state when the Bill is referred either to select 55. Which among the following have the right to vote in the
committee of the House or to the joint committee of elections to both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha?
the two houses. 1. Elected members of the Lower House of the
Ans. (a) The first reading of the bill in a house of parliament refers
Parliament
2. Elected members of the Upper House of the
to motion for leave to introduce the bill in the House.If a motion for
Parliament
leave to introduce a Bill is opposed, the Speaker, after permitting, 3. Elected members of the Upper House of the State
if he thinks fit, brief statements from the member who opposes the Legislature.
motion and the member who moved the motion, may, without further 4. Elected members of the Lower House of the State
debate, put the question: provided that where a motion is opposed Legislature.
on the ground that the Bill initiates legislation outside the legislative (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
competence of the House, the Speaker may permit a full discussion (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 4 only
thereon. Provided further that the Speaker shall forthwith put to vote
Ans. (d) Article 80 states that the state legislature participates in
the motion for leave to introduce a Finance Bill or an Appropriation the election of the members of Rajya Sabha and also of the president
Bill. (Art.54)
52. Consider the following statements : 56. The speaker can ask a member of the House to stop
1. Ministers are liable for the official acts done by the speaking and let another member speak. This phenomenon
President or the governor on their advice. is known as?
2. The ministers can be sued for crimes as well as torts (a) Decorum (b) Crossing the floor
in ordinary courts like common citizen. (c) Interpolation (d) Yielding the floor
Which of the following statements given above is/are Ans. (d) Decorum = Parliamentary etiquette
correct? Crossing the floor = Changing the party
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only Interpolation = Seeking clarification through ruling
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Yielding the floor = Respecting speaker’s order
Ans. (b) The ministers are not liable for the official acts done by the 57. The term of the Lok Sabha
president and the governors on their advice as the courts are debarred (a) Can’t be extended under any circumstances
from inquiring into such cases. (b) Can be extended by six months at a time
(c) Can be extended by one year at a time during the
53. Which of the following Bills requires prior assent of the proclamation of emergency
President before presenting in the Parliament? (d) Can be extended for two years at a time during the
1. A Bill for the formation of boundaries of a state proclamation of emergency
2. A money Bill
3. A Bill which involved expenditures from the Ans. (c) The term of the Lok Sabha can be extended by the
Parliament beyond the five-year term during the period of time of
consolidated fund of India emergency proclaimed under Art 352. But his extension is for a
4. A Bill affecting taxation in which the interest of states period of not more than one year at a time (no limit on the number of
is vested times in the Constitution).
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 58. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) Only the Rajya Sabha and not the Lok Sabha can have
Ans. (d) There are some bills which require prior recommendation nominated members
of the President: Bill that seeks to alter the boundaries of the states (b) There is a constitutional provision for nominating two
and names of the states, Money Bill (as per Article 110) & Finance members belonging to the Anglo-Indian Community
Bill, Any bill which affects the taxation in which the states are to the Rajya Sabha.
interested (Article 274) and State Bills which impose restriction (c) There is no constitutional bar for nominated members
upon freedom of trade. to be appointed as a Union Minister
(d) A nominated member can vote both in the Presidential
54. Though the Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha are constitutent
and Vice Presidential elections
part of Parliament, on some subject they have unequal
powers which of the following matters depict the Ans. (c) There is no bar on appointment of a person from outside
difference of powers between these two houses? the legislature as Minister, but he cannot continue as Minister for
more than 6 months unless he secures a seat in either house of the
1. No confidence motion
parliament (by election or nomination) in the meantime [Article
2. Power to vote on Demand for Grants 75(5)].
59. Which of the following statements is not correct? Ans. (a) Red Button represents NOES, Black button represents
(a) In Lok Sabha, a no-confidence motion has to set out ABSTAIN.
the grounds on which it is based.
(b) In the case of a no-confidence motion in Lok Sabha, 64. Which of the following is/are correct regarding effect
no conditions of admissibility have been laid down in of motions or resolutions adopted by the Houses of
the rules. Parliament? [NDA-2017]
(c) A motion of no-confidence once admitted has to be 1. The resolution expressing merely an opinion of the
taken up within ten days of leave being granted. Houses is not binding on the government.
(d) Rajya Sabha is not empowered to entertain a motion 2. The resolutions adopted by the Houses on matters
of no-confidence. concerning its own proceeding are not binding.
3. Resolutions having a statutory effect, if adopted, are
Ans. (a) ‘No-confidence motion’ need not state the reason for it
binding on the government.
being adopted in the Lok Sabha
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
60. Consider the following statements: (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only
1. The Rajya Sabha alone has the power to declare that Ans. (d) The resolution adopted by the House in matters concerning
it would be in national interest for the parliament to its own proceedings are binding and have the force of law.
legislate with respect to a matter in the state list. Notice of resolution 170 : A member other than a minister who
2. Resolutions approving the proclamation of emergency wishes to move a resolution on a day allotted for private members’
are passed only by the Lok Sabha. resolutions, shall give a notice to that effect at least two days before
Which of the statements given is/are correct? the date of ballot. The names of all members from whom such notices
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only are received shall be balloted and those members who secure the first
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither1 nor 2 three places in the ballot for the day allotted for private members’
Ans. (a) The Rajya Sabha alone has the power to declare that it resolutions shall be eligible to give notice of one resolution each
would be in national interest for the parliament to legislative with within two days after the date of the ballot.
respect to a matter in the state list. Form of resolution 171 : A resolution may be in the form of a
declaration of opinion, or a recommendation; or may be in the form
61. Which one of the following Bills must be passed by each so as to record either approval or disapproval by the House of an
House of the Indian parliament separately, by special act or policy of government, or convey a message; or commend,
majority. urge or request an action; or call attention to a matter or situation for
(a) Ordinary Bill consideration by government; or in such other form as the Speaker
(b) Money Bill may consider appropriate.
(c) Finance Bill
65. When the House of people clearly and conclusively
(d) Constitution Amendment Bill
determines that the government does not command its
Ans. (d) The Constitutional amendment bill must be passed by each support, the government has to resign. By which of the
house of the Indian Parliament separately by special majority. ways parliamentary confidence in the government may be
expressed by the House of People?
62. Consider the following statements regarding ‘No 1. Defeating the government on a major issue of policy.
confidence motion’ 2. Passing an adjournment motion
1. Only a motion expressing want of confidence in 3. Defeating the government on finance issues
the council of ministers as a whole is admitted and 4. Passing a motion of no confidence in the council of
one expressing lack of confidence in an individual ministers.
minister is out of order (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
2. A no confidence motion needs to set out grounds on (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
which it is based.
3. Any no confidence motion once moved can’t be Ans. (d) The government may be expressed by the House of People
withdrawn by all the statements given. So the all statements are correct.
4. Rajya Sabha is not empowered to entertain a motion 66. Consider the following statements related to women
of no confidence members of 15th Lok Sabha
Which of the following given above are not correct? 1. They are less than 10% of the total members of the
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2, and 3 only Lok Sabha.
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 2. The maximum women members are from Indian
Ans. (d) A no-confidence motion does not need to set out grounds National Congress.
on which it is based. The withdrawal of the notice by a member may 3. Three women members are elected from Rajasthan.
be made when he is called upon by the speaker to ask for leave of the 4. The maximum women members are elected from
House. Uttar Pradesh.
63. In both the Houses of Parliament under the automotive Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
vote recorder system each member casts his vote from the (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
seat allotted to him. Consider the following: (c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 4 only
1. Green button represents AYES Ans. (c)
2. Red button represents ABSTAIN 67. Which of the following statements are correct about Indian
3. Black button represent NOES Government?
Which of the above is/are correct? 1. Rajya Sabha represents the local interests of the
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only States.
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only
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C-60 INDIAN POLITY
2. A member of Rajya Sabha must be a resident of the 2. The election of a Deputy Speaker shall be held on
State from which he is elected. such date as the Speaker may fix and the Secretary
3. Number of seats allotted to a State has to be General shall send to every member notice of this
proportionate to its population. date.
4. The term of a member of Rajya Sabha is same as that Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
of Senator in the US. (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
Codes: (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 2 Ans. (b) Usually, a member belonging to the ruling party is elected
the Speaker. A healthy convention, however, has evolved over
Ans. (c) the years whereby the ruling party nominates its candidate after
68. Consider the following statements : informal consultations with the Leaders of other Parties and Groups
1. For the Parliament to make laws with respect to any in the House. This convention ensures that once elected, the Speaker
matter enumerated in the State List, a resolution must enjoys the respect of all sections of the House. Once a decision on
the candidate is taken, her name is normally proposed by the Prime
be passed in both the Houses of the Parliament. Minister or the Minister of Parliamentary Affairs. If more than one
2. A resolution passed as stated above can be extended notice is received, these are entered in the order of receipt. The Speaker
beyond one year. pro term presides over the sitting in which the Speaker is elected, if it is
Which of the statements given above is / are correct ? a newly constituted House. If the election falls later in the life of a Lok
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 Sabha the Deputy Speaker presides. The election of a Deputy Speaker
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 shall be held on such date as the Speaker may fix, and the Secretary-
Ans. (b) General shall send to every member notice of this date.
69. Consider the following statement : 72. Consider the following statements :
1. A bill pending in the Rajya Sabha which has not been 1. The nature of a Bill, if it is certified by the Speaker of
passed by the Lok Sabha shall lapse on dissolution of the House of People as a Money Bill, is not open to
the Lok Sabha. question in a Court of Law.
2. A bill pending in Parliament shall lapse by reason of 2. The President of India has the power to question the
nature of a Bill to be taken as a Money Bill even if
the propogation of the Houses.
it is certified to be so by the Speaker of the House of
People.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct ?
Ans. (d) After a Bill has been passed by both Houses, it is presented (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
to the President for his assent. The President can assent or withhold
his assent to a Bill or he can return a Bill, other than a Money Bill, Ans. (a) Article 109 special procedures in respect of Money Bills
for reconsideration. If the Bill is again passed by the Houses, with mentions a Money Bill shall not be introduced in the Council of States.
or without amendment made by the President, he shall not withhold After a Money Bill has been passed by the House of the People it
assent there from. But, when a Bill amending the Constitution shall be transmitted to the Council of States for its recommendations
passed by each House with the requisite majority is presented to the and the Council of States shall within a period of fourteen days from
President, he shall give his assent thereto. A Bill becomes an Act of the date of its receipt of the Bill return the Bill to the House of the
Parliament after being passed by both the Houses of Parliament and People with its recommendations.
assented to by the President. If a Money Bill passed by the House of the People and transmitted to
the Council of States for its recommendations is not returned to the
70. Consider the following statement : House of the People within the said period of fourteen days, it shall
1. The Chairman of the Council of States or Speaker be deemed to have been passed by both Houses at the expiration of
of the House of the People, or person acting as the said period in the form in which it was passed by the House of
such, shall not vote at any sitting of either House of the People.
Parliament or joint sitting of the House in the first 73. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
instance, but shall have and exercise a casting vote in State No. of members in the
the case of an equality of votes. Rajya Sabha
2. A person is qualified to fill a seat in the Council of (a) Maharashtra – 19
States or House of the People if he is not less than (b) Tamil Nadu – 18
twenty-five years of age. (c) Bihar – 18
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (d) West Bengal – 16
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 Ans. (c) Bihar represents 16 members to Rajya Sabha. All the other
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 options are correct.
Ans. (a) 74. Which of the following is/are correct in respect of ‘Zero
Hour’ discussion? [NDA-2017]
71. Consider the following statements relating to the procedure
1. It is not directed against individual Minister.
of the election of the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker of 2. It covers questions raised over matters of public
the Lok Sabha: importance.
1. The election of a Speaker shall be held on such date as Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
the Prime Minister may fix and the Secretary General (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
shall send to every member notice of this date. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (b) During the Zero Hour members raise matters of importance, 79. Which of the following statements regarding Rajya Sabha
especially those which cannot be delayed. Nobody knows which is / are correct ? (CDS 2016-I)
issue a member would raise during this hour. As a result, questions 1. The maximum Permissible strength of Rajya Sabha is
so raised without prior notice result in avoidable loss of precious 250
time of the House. 2. In Rajya Sabha, 238 members are elected indirectly
from the States ans Union Territories.
75. Which of the following regarding the Rajya Sabha are 3. It shares legislative powers equally with Lok Sabha in
correct? matters such as creation of All India Services
1. It is not subject to dissolution. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
2. It has a term of six years. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3
3. One-third of its members retire after every two years. (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 only
4. Its members shall not be less than 25 year of age. Ans. (b) The Constitution lays down 250 as the maximum strength
Select the correct answer using the codes given below: of the Rajya Sabha, out of which 12 are nominated by the President
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4 from among persons who have achieved distinction in literature, art,
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 4 science and social services.
Ans. (c) The Rajya Sabha is also known as “Council of States” or 80. A Bill is deemed to be a ‘Money Bill’ if it has any
the upper house. Its members are indirectly elected by members of provisions dealing with (CDS 2015-II)
legislative bodies of the States. The Rajya Sabha has 250 members in
1. imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or
all. Elections to it are scheduled and the chamber cannot be dissolved.
Each member has a term of six years and elections are held for one-
regulation of any tax
third of the seats after every two years. The composition is specified 2. appropriation of money from the Consolidated Fund
in Article 80 of the Constitution of India. of India
3. imposition of fines or other pecuniary penalties
76. Who is responsible to make changes in names and 4. payment of fee for licences or fee for service rendered
boundaries of the states? Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) Prime Minister (b) Parliament (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) Rajya Sabha (d) Governor (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2 only
Ans. (b) Under article 3 mentioned Parliament is responsible to Ans. (a) A Bill shall be deemed to be a money Bill if it contains the
make changes in names and boundaries of the state. following matters
(I) The imposition abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of
77. Govt. decided to add four new tribes, Abuj Maria, Korba, any tax
Hill Korba and Kodaku into the list of scheduled tribes. (II) The regulation of the borrowing of money or the giving of
Which of the following is/are correct in regard to granting any guarantee by the Government of India, or the amendment of
the status of scheduled tribe to a tribe? the law with respect to any financial obligations undertaken or to be
1. President has the authority to include or exclude a undertaken by the Government of India.
tribe from the list of schedule tribes. (III) The custody of the consolidated fund or the contigency Fund of
2. The criterion for a community to be recognized as India, The payment of money into or withdrawal of money from any
scheduled tribe is not spelled out in the constitution such fund.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 81. After the general elections, the Protem Speaker is
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (CDS 2015-II)
(a) elected by the Lok Sabha
Ans. (b) According to article 342 of the constitution it is the (b) appointed by the President of India
parliament, which can decide on the inclusion and exclusion of a (c) appointed by the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
tribe into the list of schedule tribe. The President may with respect to (d) the senior most member of the Lok Sabha
any State or Union territory, and where it is a State, after consultation
with the Governor thereof, by public notification, specify the tribes Ans. (b) After the general election and newly formed government,
or tribal communities or parts of or groups within tribes or tribal the legislative section prepares a list of senior Lok Sabha member
communities which shall for the purposes of this Constitution be (MPs), This list is submitted to the minister of parliamentary affairs
deemed to be Scheduled Tribes in relation to that State or Union through this process a pro tem Speaker is seleced and is approved by
territory, as the case may be. the President.
78. A Member of Lok Sabha does not become disqualified to 82. Which one of the following statements about the process
continue as a Member of the House if the Member of the Parliament to make new States is not correct?
(CDS 2016-I) (CDS 2015-II)
(a) voluntarily gives up his / her membership of the (a) The Parliament may by law form a new State and alter
political party from which he /she was elected the boundaries or names of existing States.
(b) is expelled by the political party from which he / she (b) A Bill to this effect cannot be introduced in the
had been elected to the House Parliament except on the recommendation of the
(c) Joins a political party after being elected as an President.
independent candidate (c) A Bill to this effect may be referred by the President
(d) abstains from voting contrary to the direction by his / to the Legislature of the affected State.
her political party (d) Such a law will fall under the purview of Article 368.
Ans. (b) An MP elected from a particular party does not become Ans. (b) The Bill may be introduced in either House of Parliament
disqualified for a member of a house, when he is expelled by that to form a new state. It needs a prior permission of the President
particular party. before introduction of the Bill.
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83. Consider the following statements [NDA 2007-I] 88. The function of a Protem Speaker is to [NDA 2009-II]
1. A Money Bill cannot be introduced in the Council of (a) conduct the proceeding of the House in the absence
States. of the Speaker
2. The Council of States cannot reject a Money Bill nor (b) officiate as Speaker when the Speaker is to be elected
amend it. (c) swear members and hold charge till a regular Speaker
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? is elected
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (d) scrutinize the authenticity of the election certificates
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 of members
Ans. (c) Money Bills can be introduced only in Lok Sabha. Money Ans. (c) Protem Speaker performs the duties of the office of the
bills passed by the Lok Sabha are sent to the Rajya Sabha.Rajya Speaker from the commencement of the sitting of the new Lok Sabha
Sabha(Council of States) cannot reject or amend this bill. It can only till the election of the Speaker. Protem speaker is mainly an operating
recommend amendments. and temporary speaker.
84. Consider the following statements [NDA 2007-II] 89. Consider the following statements [NDA 2010-I]
1. The Annual Appropriation Bill is passed by the Lok 1. The total elective membership of the Lok Sabha
Sabha in the same manner as any other Bill. is distributed among the States on the basis of the
2. An amendment to the Constitution of India can be population and the area of the State.
initiated by an introduction of a Bill in either Lok 2. The 84th Amendment Act of the Constitution of India
Sabha or Rajya Sabha. lifted the freeze on the delimitation of constituencies
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? imposed by the 42nd Amendment.
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
Ans. (b) The Appropriation Bill is intended to give authority to (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Government to incur expenditure from and out of the Consolidated
Ans. (c) The total elective membership of the Lok Sabha is
Fund of India. The procedure for passing this Bill is the same as in
distributed among States in such a way that the ratio between the
the case of other money Bills.
number of seats allotted to each State and population of the State is,
An amendment of the Constitution can be initiated only by the as far as practicable, the same for all States. The 84th Amendment
introduction of a Bill in either House of Parliament. The procedure to the Constitution (which was numbered as the 91st Amendment
of amendment in the constitution is laid down in Part XX (Article Bill before it was passed in Parliament) lifted the freeze on the
368) of the Constitution of India. delimitation of constituencies, as stipulated by the 42nd Constitution
85. Who among the following was the first Speaker of the Lok amendment of 1976, and allowed delimitation within States on the
Sabha? [NDA 2009-I] basis of the 1991 Census.
(a) M A Ayyangar (b) G V Mavalankar 90. With reference to the conduct of government business in
(c) Sardar Hukam Singh (d) N Sanjiva Reddy the Parliament of India, the term ‘closure’ refers to
Ans. (b) Ganesh Vasudev Mavalankar became the Speaker of the [NDA 2012-I]
Provisional Parliament on 26 November 1949 and continued to (a) suspension of debate at the terminatan of a day’s
occupy the office till the 1st Lok Sabha that was constituted in 1952. sitting of the Parliament
(b) a rule of legislative procedure under which further
86. The quorum for Joint Sitting of the Indian Parliament is debate on a motion can be halted
[NDA 2009-II]
(c) the termination of a Parliamentary session
(a) One- twelveth of the total number of members of the
(d) refusal on the part of tie Government to have the
House
(b) One-sixth of the total numbers of members of the opposition look at important documents
House Ans. (a) “Closure” is one of the means by which a debate may be
(c) One-tenth of the total number of members of the brought to a close by a majority decision of the House, even though
House all members wishing to speak have not done so.
(d) Two-third of the total number of members of the
91. With regard to the powers of the Rajya Sabha, which one
House
among the following statements is not correct? [2012-I]
Ans. (c) The quorum to constitute a joint sitting shall be one-tenth (a) A money bill cannot be introduced in the Rajya Sabha
of the total number of members of the Houses. (b) The Rajya Sabha has no power either to reject or
87. Identify the correct sequence of passing a Budget in the amend a money bill
Parliament [NDA 2009-II] (c) The Rajya Sabha cannot discuss the Annual Financial
(a) Vote on Account, Finance Bill, Appropriation Bill Statement
Discussion on Budget (d) The Rajya Sabha has no power to vote on the
(b) Finance Bill, Appropriation Bill, Discussion on Demands for Grants
Budget, Vote on Accounts Ans. (c) A Money Bill cannot be introduced in Rajya Sabha. Rajya
(c) Discussion on Budget, Vote on Account, Finance Sabha has no power either to reject or amend a Money Bill. It can
Bill, Appropriation Bill only make recommendations on the Money Bill. Whether a particular
(d) Discussion on Budget, Appropriation Bill, Finance Bill is a Money Bill or not is to be decided by the Speaker of Lok
Bill, Vote on Account Sabha. Rajya Sabha may discuss the Annual Financial Statement. It
has no power to vote on the Demands for Grants.
Ans. (d) The correct sequence is, Discussion on Budget,
Appropriation Bill, Finance Bill, Vote on Account.
92. Suppose a Legislation was passed by the Parliament Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
imposing certain restrictions on newspapers. These included (a) 2 and 3 (b) Only 2
page ceiling, price and advertisements. The legislation is (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these
included in the Ninth Schedule to the Constitution of India.
Ans. (d) Election of Speaker shall be held on such date as the
In this context, which one among the following statements President may fix, and the Secretary-General shall send notice of this
is correct? [CDS 2012-I] date to every member.
(a) The legislation is invalid as it violates the Freedom of The election of a Deputy Speaker shall be held on such date as the
Press Speaker may fix and the Secretary-General shall send notice of this
(b) The legislation is valid by virtue of Article 31 B dateto every member.
(c) The legislation is invalid as it imposes unreasonable At any time before noon on the day preceding the date so fixed,
restrictions under Article 19 (2) of the Constitution any member may give notice in writing, addressed to the Secretary-
(d) The legislation is valid as the Press is not a citizen General, of a motion that another member be chosen as the Deputy
under Article 19 of the Constitution Speaker of the House and the notice shall be seconded by a third
member and shall be accompanied by a statement by the member
Ans. (b) Article 31B of the Constitution of India ensured that whose name is proposed in the notice that he is willing to serve as
any law in the 9th Schedule could not be challenged in courts and Deputy Speaker, if elected.
Government can rationalize its programme of social engineering
by reforming land and agrarian laws. In other words laws under 96. Besides representation, the Parliament of India is also a
Ninth Schedule are beyond the purview of judicial review even deliberative body with diverse functions. [NDA 2013-I]
though they violate fundamental rights enshrined under part III of Which one among the following is not a function of the
the Constitution. On the one hand considerable power was given to
Parliament of India?
legislature under Article 31B and on the other hand the power of
judiciary was curtailed, this is the starting point of tussle between (a) Ventilating the grievances of the people
legislature and judiciary. (b) Executing major policy decisions
(c) Holding the government accountable for its actions
93. In the Rajya Sabha, the states have been given seats and expenditure
[CDS 2012-II] (d) Amending the Constitution
(a) in accordance with their population
(b) equally Ans. (b) Our Parliamentary system blends the legislative and the
executive organs of the State in as much as the executive power is
(c) on the basis of population and economic position wielded by a group of Members of the Legislature who command
(d) on the basis of present economic status majority in the Lok Sabha.
Ans. (a) In the Rajya Sabha the states have been given seats on the
basis of population. 97. Which of the following statements is not correct?
[NDA 2013-II]
94. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha may be removed from office (a) A Money Bill shall not be introduced in the Council
by [CDS 2012-II] of States
(a) the majority party in the house adopting a (b) The Council of States has no power to reject or amend
no-confidence motion a Money Bill
(b) a resolution passed by not less than half of the total (c) the Council of Ministers is responsible to the House
membership of the house of the People and not to the Council of States
(c) a resolution passed by at least two-thirds of the total (d) The House of the People has special powers with
membership of the house respect to the State List compared to the Council of
(d) a resolution passed by a majority of all the members States
of the house Ans. (d) The Constitution empowers Parliament of India to make
Ans. (d) The Speaker of Lok Sabha may be removed from his office laws on the matters reserved for States (States List). However, this
by a resolution of the House of the People passed by a majority of can only be done if Rajya Sabha first passes a resolution by two-
all the then members of the House. No resolution for the purpose of thirds supermajority granting such a power to the Union Parliament.
removal of the Speaker or the Dy. Speaker shall be moved unless at The union government cannot make a law on a matter reserved for
least fourteen days notice has been given of the intention to move the states without an authorisation from Rajya Sabha.So the House of
resolution. People does not have special powers with respect to the state list.
95. Consider the following statements relating to the procedure 98. The subject matter of an adjournment motion in the
of the election of the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker of Parliament [NDA 2014-I]
the Lok Sabha [NDA 2012-II] 1. must be directly related to the conduct of the Union
Government.
1. The election of a Speaker shall be held on such date as 2. may involve failure of the Government of India to
the Prime Minister may fix and the Secretary General perform its duties in accordance with the Constitution.
shall send to every member . notice of this date. Select the correct answer using the codes given below
2. The election of a Deputy Speaker shall be held on such (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
date as the Speaker may fix and the Secretary General (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
shall send to every member notice of this date. Ans. (b) The subject matter of the motion must have a direct
3. At anytime before noon on the day preceding the date or indirect relation to the conduct or default on the part of the
so fixed, any member may give notice in writing of a Union Government and must precisely pinpoint the failure of the
motion that another member be chosen as the Deputy Government of India in the performance of its duties in accordance
with the provisions of the Constitution and Law.
Speaker of the House.
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C-64 INDIAN POLITY
99. Which of the statements relating to the Deputy Speaker of 2. any law made under Article 3 (relating to formation of
the Lok Sabha is/are correct? [NDA 2014-I] new states)
1. The office of the Deputy Speaker acquired a more 3. amendment of First Schedule and Fourth Schedule
prominent position after the enforcement of the Select the correct answer using the codes given below
Constitution of India in 1950. (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
2. He/She is elected from amongst the members. (c) 2 and 3 (d) None of these
3. He/She holds office until he/she ceases to be a Ans. (a) Article 2- (Admission or establishment of new States)
member of the House. Parliament may by law admit into the Union, or establish new States
Select the correct answer using the codes given below on such terms and conditions as it thinks fit.
(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2 Article 3- Formation of new States and alteration of areas, boundaries
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 3 or names of existing States.
Amendment in the First and Fourth schedule can be done through
Ans. (c) The Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha is the vice- constitution amendment bill.
presiding officer of the Lok Sabha.He/She is elected from amongst
the members. It acquired a more prominent position after 1950. He 103. Which of the following statements in the context of
holds office till either he ceases to be a member of the Lok Sabha or structure of the Parliament is/are correct? [NDA 2014-I]
he himself resigns. 1. The Parliament of India consists of the President, the
Council of States and the House of the People.
100. After a Bill has been passed by the Houses of the 2. The President of India is directly elected by an
Parliament, it is presented to the President who may electoral college consisting of the elected members
either give assent to the Bill or with hold his assent. The of both the Houses of the Parliament only.
President may [NDA 2014-I] Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) assent within six months (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(b) assent or reject the Bill as soon as possible (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) return the Bill as soon as possible after the Bill is Ans. (a) Article 79- There shall be a Parliament for the Union
presented to him with a message requesting the House which shall consist of the President and two Houses to be known
to reconsider the Bill respectively as the council of States and the House of the People.
(d) with hold his assent even if the Bill is passed again by Article 54 - The President shall be elected by the members of an
the Houses electoral college consisting of the elected members of both Houses of
Ans. (c) Article 111 of the Indian constitution stipulates that the Parliament; and the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies
President shall give assent to a bill passed by both houses of the of the States.
parliament or return the bill as soon as possible for reconsideration 104. The legislative power of the Parliament includes making
with his recommendation. laws [NDA 2014-I]
101. Which of the following principles is/are taken into 1. on matters not enumerated in the Concurrent List and
consideration by the Speaker while recognising a State List.
parliamentary party or group? [NDA 2014-I] 2. in respect of entries in the State List if two or more
1. An association of members who have an organisation State Legislatures consider it desirable
both inside and outside the House 3. for implementing any treaty agreement or convention
2. An association of members who shall have at least with any country even if it falls in the State List.
one-third of the total number of members of the
House (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these
3. An association of members who have a distinct
programme of parliamentary work Ans. (d) Article 248- Parliament has exclusive power to make any
Select the correct answer using the codes given below law with respect to any matter not enumerated in the Concurrent List
or State List.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) Onfy 1
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 3 Article 252- If it appears to the Legislatures of two or more States to be
desirable that any of the matters with respect to which Parliament has
Ans. (c) In recognizing a parliamentary party or group, the speaker no power to make laws for the States except as provided in Articles
shall take into consideration the following principles: 249 and 250 should be regulated in such States by Parliament by law.
An association of members who propose to form a parliamentary Article 253- Legislation for giving effect to international agreements
party: notwithstanding anything in the foregoing provisions of this Chapter,
1. Shall have an association of members who have a distinct Parliament has power to make any law for the whole or any part
programme of parliamentary work of the territory of India for implementing any treaty, agreement or
2. Shall have an organization both inside and outside the house convention with any other country or countries or any decision made
3. Shall have at least a strength equal to the quorum fixed to at any international conference, association or other body.
constitute a sitting of the house i.e one tenth of the total number of 105. Which one of the following statements regarding the
members of the house. Departmental Committee of the Parliament of India on the
102. There are provisions in the Constitution of India which empowerment of women is correct? [NDA 2014-I]
empower the Parliament to modify or annul the operation (a) The Committee will consist of members of the Lok
of certain provisions of the Constitution without actually Sabha only
amending them. [NDA 2014-I] (b) A Cabinet Minister can be a member of the Committees
(c) The term of office of the members of the Committee
They include
shall not exceed two years
1. any law made under Article 2 (relating to admission (d) It reports on the working of welfare programmes for
or establishment of new states)
the women
Ans. (d) The Committee on Empowerment of Women was Ans. (d) Any act done under martial law cannot be validated by
constituted on 29th April 1997. The Committee consists of 30 parliament by law.
Members of whom 20 are nominated by the Speaker from amongst
the Members of Lok Sabha and 10 are nominated by the Chairman, 109. Which one of the following statements about Money Bill
Rajya Sabha from amongst the Members of the Rajya Sabha. A is correct ? [NDA/NA-2016-II]
Minister cannot be nominated a Member of the Committee. The term (a) A Bill shall be deemed to be a Money Bill only if it
of the Committee does not exceed one year. One of the functions of Provides for imposition of fines or penalties
the committee is to report on the working of the welfare programmes (b) A Money Bill shall be introduced in the Rajya Sabha
for the women. (c) The Rajya Sabha can reject the Money Bill.
(d) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha finally decides if it is a
106. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Money Bill, should any dispute about it arise
Joint Session of the Houses of the Parliament in India?
[NDA 2014-I] Ans. (d)
1. It is an enabling provision, empowering the President 110. Joint sittings of the two Houses of Indian Parliament are
to take steps for resolving deadlock between the two held to [NDA/NA 2014-II]
Houses. (a) elect the President of India
2. It is not obligatory upon the President to summon the (b) elect the Vice President of India
Houses to meet in a join sitting. (c) adopt a Constitution Amendment Bill
3. It is being notified by the President. (d) consider and pass a Bill on which the two Houses
4. It is frequently resorted to establish the supremacy of disagree
the Lok Sabha. Ans. (d) In case of a deadlock due to disagreement between the two
Select the correct answer using the codes given below Houses on a Bill, an extraordinary situation arises which is resolved
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3 by both the Houses sitting together.which is resolved by both the
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 and 4 Houses sitting together.The Constitution empowers the President
to summon a ‘joint sitting’ of both the Houses. Article 108 of the
Ans. (b) Article 108 of the Constitution empowers the President to
constitution deals with the Joint sitting of both Houses.
summon a joint session of both houses “for the purpose of deliberating
and voting on the Bill”. In India, if a bill has been rejected by any 111. The Union Parliament can also legislate on a subject of
house of the parliament and if more than six months have elapsed, State List. [UP-PCS 2009]
the President may summon a joint session for purpose of passing 1. to give effect to international agreement.
the bill. If at the joint sitting the Bill is passed with or without 2. with the consent of the State concerned.
amendments with a majority of total number of members of the two 3. during President’s rule in the State.
Houses present and voting, it shall be deemed to be passed by both
4. in the national interest, when Rajya Sabha passes a
the Houses. It is not frequently restored to establish the supremacy of
the Lok Sabha.
resolution to this effect by a 2/3rd majority.
107. Certain Bills can not be introduced or proceeded with Codes:
unless the recommendation of the President is received. (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
However, no recommendation is required in some (c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) All the four
other cases. In which one of the following cases such Ans. (d)
recommendation is not required? [NDA 2014-I]
(a) For introduction of Bills and for moving amendments 112. The cardinal features of political system in India are
relating to financial matters [UP-PCS 2009]
(b) For introduction of a Bill relating to formation of new 1. It is a democratic republic.
states or of alternation of areas of existing states 2. It has a Parliamentary form of government.
(c) For moving of an amendment making provision for 3. The Supreme Power vests in the people of India.
the reduction or abolition of any tax 4. It provides for a unified authority.
(d) For introduction of a Bill or moving of an amendment Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
affecting taxation in which states are interested Codes:
Ans. (c) The recommendation of the president is required for (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3
introduction of money bills or for moving amendments to acts (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) All the four
relating to financial matters, except those making provision for Ans. (b) Democratic Republic, Parliamentary form of government
the reduction or abolition of any tax. So, for option (c) president’s and vesting of absolute power in people are the fundamental features
recommendation is not required. of Indian Constitution.
108. When martial law is imposed, Parliament cannot make law 113. The Provision for the Calling Attention Notices has
in respect of which one of following matters ? restricted the scope of which of the following?
[NDA 2015-I] [UP-PCS 2010]
(a) Indemnify any person in respect of any act done by (a) Short duration discussion
him in connection with the maintenance of order in
(b) Question hour
the area where martial law was in force
(c) Adjournment motion
(b) Parliament can by law validate any sentence passed
(d) Zero hour
when martial law was in force in the area
(c) A law of Parliament can validate forfeiture ordered Ans. (c)
when martial law was in force in the area 114. Which one of the following statements about the
(d) Any act done under martial law can be validated by
Parliament of India is NOT correct? [UP-PCS 2011]
Parliament by law
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C-66 INDIAN POLITY
(a) The Constitution provides for a Parliamentary form 120. Who among the following was the first Tribal speaker of
of Government Lok Sabha? [UP-PCS 2015]
(b) The foremost function of the Parliament is to provide (a) G. V. Mavalankar
a Cabinet (b) G. M. C. Balayogi
(c) The membership of the Cabinet is restricted to the (c) Manohar Joshi
Lower House (d) P. A. Sangma
(d) The Cabinet has to enjoy the confidence of the
Ans. (d) P.A. Sangma was the first tribal Speaker of Lok Sabha. He
majority in the popular Chamber. hailed from a small tribal village in Meghalaya.
Ans. (c)
121. Which of the following is/are the common feature(s)
115. The Parliament can legislate on a subject in the State list between the Indian political system and the US political
[UP-PCS 2012] system? [UGC 2016]
(a) by the wish of the President (A) Residuary powers belong to the centre.
(b) if the Rajya Sabha passes such a resolution (B) Residuary powers are with the states.
(c) under any circumstances (C) Presidents have the power of pocket veto.
(d) by asking the legislature of the concerned state (D) Upper houses have some nominated members.
Ans. (b) If the Rajya Sabha passes any of the subjects of the state Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
list with 2/3 majority of the House, declaring the subjects to have (a) (A), (C) and (D) (b) (B), (C) and (D)
national importance then According to Art. 249 of the Constitution (c) (C) and (D) (d) C only
parliament acquire the power to make laws.
Ans. (d) Unlike the US, in India, the residuary powers are with
116. No money bill can be introduced in the Legislative the centre (Parliament). Unlike Indian Rajya Sabha, the US second
Assembly of the a State, except on the recommendations chamber-senate does not have any nominated members.
of [UP-PCS 2012]
(a) the Parliament 122. Which of the following Houses has had the longest
(b) the Governor of the State speeches by the members? [UGC 2016]
(c) the president of India (a) House of Lords
(d) a Special Committee of Ministers (b) Lok Sabha
(c) US Senate
Ans. (b) A Money Bill cannot be introduced in the Legislative
(d) Swiss Council of States
Assembly of a state except on the recommendations of the Governor
of the state. Ans. (c) US senate holds the record for the longest speeches by the
members.
117. Which of the following are correct about the Rajya
Sabha? [UP-PCS 2014] 123. Which one of the following is the correct breakup of the
1. It is not subject to dissolution composition of Lok Sabha Constituencies? [UGC 2016]
2. It has a term of five years (a) (b) (c) (d)
3. One third of its members retire after every two year Total Constituencies 545 543 543 545
4. Its member shall not be less then 25 years of age General Constituencies 423 423 425 427
Select the correct answer using the codes given below : Schedule Caste Constituencies 80 79 78 79
Codes : Constituencies 42 41 40 39
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4 Ans. (b) Lok Sabha Constituencies
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 4 Total Constituencies 543
Ans. (c) The Rajya Sabha is the upper house of the Parliament of General Constituencies 423
India. Rajya Sabha is not subject to dissolution although members of Schedule Caste Constituencies 79
the Rajya Sabha are elected for staggered six-year terms. One third Constituencies 41
of the members retire every two years. The minimum age required
for eligible to be a member of Rajya Sabha is 30.
answer from the codes given below : [UGC 2016]
118. Who nominates the Chairman of the Public Accounts I. Subject to legislation by Parliament, the power to
Committee of Indian Parliament? [UP-PCS 2014] declare any area as a ‘Scheduled area ‘ is given to the
(a) The Speaker of Lok Sabha President.
(b) The Prime Minister II. The 5th Schedule of the Constitution deals with
(c) The President administration of ‘Scheduled Areas’ in Assam,
(d) The Chairman of Rajya Sabha Meghalaya and Tripura.
III. The Government of the states having ‘Scheduled
Ans. (a) The Public Accounts Committee is constituted by
Areas’ have to submit reports to the President
Parliament for one year term. The Chairman is appointed by the
Speaker of Lok Sabha amongst its members. regarding the administration of such ‘Areas’.
IV. The executive power of the Union Shall extend to
119. Who among the following was the member of Lok Sabha giving directions to the respective states regarding
during his Prime Ministership? [UP-PCS 2015] administration of the ‘Scheduled Areas’.
(a) Deva Gowda (b) I.K.Gujral Which of the above statements are correct?
(c) Chandrasheker (d) Dr. Manmohan Singh Codes :
Ans. (d) Chandra Shekhar was member of Lok Sabha from Ballia (a) Only I and III (b) Only I and IV
during his tenure as PM of India. (c) Only I and II (d) Only II and III
Ans. (b) I. Subject to legislation by parliament, the power to declare Ans. (d) The electoral Collect of the vice President has
any area as a ‘Scheduled area’ is given to the President. 1. Elected members of the Lok Sabha
IV. The executive power of the Union shall extend to giving 2. Nominated members of Lok Sabha
directions to the respective states regarding administration of the 3. Elected members of Rajya Sabha
‘Scheduled Areas’. 4. Nominated members of Rajya Sabha
125. Which one of the following is correctly matched about the 130. A seat of a M. P. can be declared vacant if he absents
outcome of the XVI Lok Sabha elections? [UGC 2016] himself from the house for a continuous period of –
(a) National Democratic Alliance — 336 seats and 35 [BPSC 2017]
percent vote share. (a) Six month
(b) United Progressive Alliance — 54 seats and 23 per (b) Two month
cent vote share. (c) Three months
(c) Left Front — 10 seats and 4.8 per cent vote share. (d) None of the above / More than one of the above
(d) Congress — 44 seats and 17 per cent vote share.
Ans. (b) If for a period of sixty days a member of either House
Ans. (b) United Progressive Alliance-54 Seats and 23 percent vote of Parliament is without permission of the House absent from all
share. meetings thereof, the House may declare his seat vacant.
126. The number of Rajya Sabha members from Uttarakhand 131. The privileges enjoyed by members of a parliament are:
is – [UK-PSC/FR 2015] I. Freedom from arrest with certain riders.
(a) one (b) two II. Exemption from attendance as jurors and witnesses.
(c) three (d) five III. Freedom of Speech.
Ans. (c) There are 3 Rajya Sabha members from uttarakhand. (a) Only III (b) I and III
Name Party (c) I and II (d) I, II and III
Shri Mahendra Indian National Congress Ans. (d) The privileges enjoyed by members of a parliament are
Singh Mahra 1. Freedom from arrest with certain riders
Shri Tarun Vijay Bhartiya Janta Party 2. Exemption from attendance
Shri Raj Baffar Indian National Congress 3. Freedom of speech
132. The purpose of an adjournment motion is to –
127. Which of the following may be considered a Pressure [UGC-II 2016]
Group? [MP-PSC 2017]
(a) seek the leave of the House to introduce a bill
(a) Members of the Lok Sabha
(b) censure the Government
(b) Member of a Panchayat (c) propose a reduction in the budget
(c) Members of the cabinet (d) Draw the attention of the House to a matter of urgent
(d) Members of a trade union public importance
Ans. (d) Members of a Trade Union may be considered a pressure Ans. (d) Adjournment Motion is the procedure for adjournment of
Group. A pressure group can be described as an organised group the business of the House for the purpose of discussing a definite
that does not put up candidates for election, but seeks to influence matter of urgent public importance, which can be moved with the
government policy or legislation. consent of the speaker.
128. Consider the following statements – 133. Members of Parliament enjoy the Privilege of freedom
1. The Rajya Sabha alone has the power to declare that from arrest in –
it would be in the national interest for the Parliament (a) Criminal Cases
to legislate with respect to a matter in the state list. (b) Civil Cases
2. Resolutions approving in the Proclamation of (c) Preventive detention
Emergency are passed only by the Lok Sabha. (d) All types of cases
Which of the statements, given above is / are correct? Ans. (b) Members of Parliament enjoy the Privilege of freedom
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only from arrest in Civil Cases.
134. How many members of Lok Sabha are elected from
Ans. (a) The Rajya Sabha alone has the power to declare that it Uttarakhand? [UK-PSC 2016]
would be in the national interest for the parliament to legislate with (a) 4 (b) 5
respect to a matter in the state. (c) 6 (d) 7
Resolutions approving in the Proclamation of emergency are passed Ans. (b) There are 5 members of Lok Sabha which are elected from
by both the houses and the president. uttarakhand.
129. Consider the following — 135. Who among the following doesn’t take oath of the office?
1. Elected members of the Lok Sabha. [Chhatisgarsh-PSC 2016]

2. Nominated members of Lok sabha. (a) President (b) Vice President
3. Elected members of Rajya Sabha. (c) Prime minister (d) Speaker
4. Nominated members of Rajya Sabha. Ans. (d) Speaker does not take oath of the office.
Who among the above complete the electoral collect of the
Vice- president? 136. The Tenure of which Lok Sabha was about 6 years?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 3 and 4 [Chhatisgarsh-PSC 2016]
(a) 5th Lok Sabha (b) 7th Lok Sabha
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) All of the above
(c) 9th Lok Sabha (d) 11th Lok Sabha
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C-68 INDIAN POLITY
Ans. (a) Tenure of 5th lok sabha = March 16, 1971 till January 18, (A) The President is both Head of the State and Head of the
1977 Government.
(B) Parliament is Supreme.
137. Sitting of Lok Sabha can be terminated by ........ of the (C) The Supreme Court is the guardian of the Constitution.
house. (D) The Directive Principles of State Policy are justiciable.
(a) Adjournment since die
(b) Prorogation Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(c) Dissolution (a) (A), (B ), (C) and (D) (b) (B), (C) and (D)
(d) All of the above (c) (B) and (C) (d) (C) only
Ans. (d) Sitting of Lok Sabha can be terminated by Adjournment Ans. (d) The Supreme Court is called the guardian of the
Sine die, prorogation, dissolution of the house. Constitution as it protects the fundamental rights of citizens from
being getting violated by any organ of the government The Directive
138. Who declare the Rajya Sabha adjourned sine die?
(a) President of India Principles of State Policy contained in Part IV, Articles 36-51 of the
(b) Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha Indian constitution constitute the most interesting and enchanting
(c) Speaker of the Lok sabha part of the constitution. The idea of directives being included in
(d) Union Cabinet the constitution was borrowed from the constitution of Ireland. The
Ans. (b) Adjournment Sine die means “without assigning a day for Directive Principles are non-justifiable in nature because they are not
a further meeting or hearing”. To adjourn an assembly sine die is to legally enforceable by the courts for their violation.
adjourn it for an indefinite period. A legislative body adjourns sine
143. Which of the following statements are correct about Lok
die when it adjourns without appointing a day on which to appear or
Sabha? [UGC December 2015]
assemble again.
(A) The Constitution puts a limit on the size of the Lok Sabha.
139. The Parliament of India exercises control over the functions (B) The size and shape of the Parliamentary Constituencies
of the Council of Ministers through. is determined by the Election Commission.
1. Adjournment motion (C) First - past - the Post electoral system is followed.
2. Question hour (D) The Speaker of Lok Sabha does not have a casting vote
3. Supplementary questions in case of an equality of votes.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (a) (A) and (C) (b) (A), (B) and (C)
(c) (A), (C) and (D) (d) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
Ans. (d)
Ans. (a) The maximum strength of the House allotted by the
140. With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the Constitution of India is 552. Currently the house has 545 seats; the
following statements: house is made up by election of up to 543 elected members and at a
1. A private member’s bill is a bill presented by a maximum 2 nominated members of the Anglo-Indian Community by
Memberof Parliament who is not elected but only the President of India. A first-past-the-post (FPTP) voting method is
nominated by the President of India. one in which voters chooses a candidate of their choice on a ballot,
2. Recently, a private member’s bill has been passed in and the candidate who receives the most votes wins: this is described
the Parliament of India for the first time in its history. as winner takes all. First Past the Post (FPTP) is a legacy of British
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? government in India.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 144. Public Order as an item in the Constitution figures in :
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 [UGC December 2015]
Ans. (d) (a) the Union List (b) the State List
(c) the Concurrent List (d) the Residuary Powers
141. Which of the following statements are correct ?
[UGC January 2017] Ans. (b) Public order as an item in the constitution figures in the
(A) Rajya Sabha is a permanent House which can be state list under seventh schedule of the constitution.
dissolved only during national emergency.
(B) Rajya Sabha does not represent the local interests of the 145. Which among the following States has the highest number
States. of seats in the Lok Sabha? [UGC December 2015]
(C) Members of the Rajya Sabha are not bound to vote at (a) Maharashtra (b) Rajasthan
the dictates of the states they represent. (c) Tamil Nadu (d) West Bengal
(D) No Union territory has a representative in the Rajya Sabha. Ans. (a) Maharashtra has 48 seats among all these states.
Codes : 146. The factors which are most important in determining the
(a) (A) and (D) (b) (B) and (C) impact of anthropogenic activities on environment are :
(c) (B), (C) and (D) (d) (A), (B), (C) and (D) [UGC June 2015]
(a) Population, affluence per person, land available per
Ans. (b) The Rajya Sabha or Council of States is the upper house person
of the Parliament of India. Membership of Rajya Sabha is limited by (b) Population, affluence per person and the technology
the Constitution to a maximum of 250 members, and current laws used for exploiting resources
have provision for 245 members. Most of the members of the House (c) Atmospheric conditions, population and forest cover
are indirectly elected by state and territorial legislatures using single
(d) Population, forest cover and land available per person
transferable votes. Rajya Sabha does not represent the local interests
of the States. Members of the Rajya Sabha are not bound to vote at Ans. (b) The most important factors which determine the impact of
the dictates of the states they represent. anthropogenic activities on environment are:
Population, affluence per person and the technology used for
142. Which of the following statements about the Indian political exploiting resources.
system is/are correct ? [UGC July 2016]
147. The session of the parliament is summoned by : • However, if we interpret the question in a broader manner, then
[UGC June 2015] Article 85 of the Indian Constitution mentions that 6 months
(a) The President shall not intervene the 2 sessions of the Parliament. Interpreting
(b) The Prime Minister this clause, it essentially means that Parliament has to meet at
(c) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha least for 2 days in a year to prevent the violation of Article 85.
(d) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha and the Chairman of In such a scenario, 3rd statement is incorrect.
the Rajya Sabha
152. With reference to the funds under Members of Parliament
Ans. (a) The President has the power to summon and prorogue Local Area Development Scheme (MPLADS), which of
either House of Parliament or to dissolve Lok Sabha. the following statements are correct?
148. The interval between two sessions of parliament must not [IAS Prelims 2020-I]
exceed [UGC December 2014] 1. MPLADS funds must be used to create durable assets
(a) 3 months (b) 6 months like physical infrastructure for health, education etc.,
(c) 4 months (d) 100 days 2. A specified portion of each MP’s fund must benefit
Ans. (b) The maximum gap between two sittings should not be SC/ST populations
more than 6 months. That means, The parliament should meet at least 3. MPLADS funds are sanctioned on yearly basis and
twice a year. the unused funds cannot be carried forward to the
next year.
149. In the warrant of precedence, the Speaker of the Lok Sabha 4. The district authority must inspect at least 10% of all
comes next only to [UGC June 2013] works under implementation every year
(a) The President (b) The Vice-President
(c) The Prime Minister (d) The Cabinet Ministers Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 and 4 only
Ans. (c) The Speaker is looked upon as the true guardian of the (c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 4 only
traditions of parliamentary democracy. Her unique position is
illustrated by the fact that she is placed very high in the Warrant of Ans. (d)
Precedence in our country, standing next only to the Prime Minister. • 15 percent of MPLADS funds are to be utilized for areas
inhabited by SC population and 7.5 per cent for areas inhabited
150. The Lok - Sabha can be dissolved before the expiry of its by ST population. So, #2 is correct. (b) eliminated.
normal five year term by [UGC December 2005] • The funds released under the Scheme are non-lapsable, i.e., the
(a) The Prime Minister entitlement of funds not released in a particular year is carried
(b) The Speaker of Lok Sabha forward to the subsequent years, subject to eligibility. So, #3 is
(c) The President on the recommendation of the Prime wrong. Upon reading the official guidelines page 34: District
Authority would inspect at least 10% of the works under
Minister
implementation every year. So, #4 is right answer therefore
(d) None of the above Answer is (d).
Ans. (c) The Lok Sabha may be dissolved before the expiry of its
term by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister. During 153. Overseas Indians can exercise franchise in an election to
national emergency, the life of the Lok Sabha may be extended by the Lok Sabha under which of the following conditions?
the President beyond five years for one year at a time. The new Lok 1. They must be citizens of India. [CDS 2020-I]
Sabha must be elected within six months after the national emergency 2. Their names must figure in the electoral roll.
is lifted. 3. They must be present in India to vote.
151. Consider the following statements:[IAS Prelims 2020-I] (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 only
1. The President of India can summon a session of (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1 only
Parliament at such place as he/she thinks fit.
2. The Constitution of India provides for three sessions Ans. (a) An overseas elector is a person who is a citizen of India
and who has not acquired citizenship of any other country and is
of the Parliament in a year, but it is not mandatory to
otherwise eligible to be registered as a voter and who is absenting from
conduct all three sessions his place of ordinary residence in India owing to his employment,
3. There is no minimum number of days that the education or otherwise is eligible to be registered as a voter in the
Parliament is required to meet in a year. constituency in which his place of residence in India as mentioned in
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? his passport is located. According to the provisions of Section 20A
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only of the Representation of People Act, 1950, an NRI settled in foreign
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only land can become an elector in electoral roll in India.
Ans. (a, c) 154. Which one among the following is not correct about the
• Article 85 of the Indian Constitution empowers the President to Secretary General of the Lok Sabha? [CDS 2020-II]
summon each house of the Parliament at such time and place as (a) The Secretary General is the advisor to the Speaker
he thinks fit. (Hence, 1st statement is correct) (b) The Secretary General acts under the authority in the
• The Constitution of India does not mention the anything about name of the Speaker
the number of Parliamentary sessions in a year. (Hence, 2nd (c) The Secretary General works under the Speaker with
statement is incorrect)
delegated authority
• There is some ambiguity in the 3rd statement. (d) The Secretary General passes order in the name of
• If the UPSC interprets it in a narrow and literal sense, then the Speaker
exact number of days for which the Parliament is supposed to
meet in a year is not mentioned in the Constitution and hence, Ans. (d) The Secretary General of the Lok Sabha is the
3rd statement is correct. administrative head of the Lok Sabha Secretariat. He/she is appointed
by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha. The post of Secretary General is of
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C-70 INDIAN POLITY
the rank of the Cabinet Secretary in the Government of India, who 1. Judges of the High Court
is the senior most civil servants to the Indian Government. In the 2. Judges of the Supreme Court
discharge of his constitutional and statutory responsibilities, the 3. Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission
Speaker of the Lok Sabha is assisted by the Secretary-General, Lok 4. Comptroller and Auditor General of India
Sabha, (whose pay scale, position and status etc. is equivalent to that Choose the correct answer from the codes given below.
of the highest-ranking official in the Government of India i.e. Cabinet Codes :
Secretary), functionaries of the level of the Additional Secretary, Joint (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 and 4 only
Secretary and other officers and staff of the Secretariat at various (c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 3 only
levels. The Secretary General remains in office till his/her retirement
at the age of 60. He/she is answerable only to the Speaker, his action Ans. (d) The Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission
cannot be discussed or criticised in or outside the Lok Sabha. On is removed from his office on the ground of proved misbehaviour
behalf of the President of India, he/she summons members to attend by the President of India. The Union Public Service Commission,
session of Parliament and authenticates bills in the absence of the commonly abbreviated as UPSC, is India’s premier central recruiting
Speaker. agency. It is responsible for appointments to and examinations for
All India services and group A & group B of Central services.
155. Which of the following statements with regard to the
159. Joint sitting of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha can take place
privileges of the Members of the Parliament are correct?
to resolve deadlock over [UPPSC Prelims 2020]
[CDS 2020-II] (a) Ordinary Legislation
1. Privileges would not be fettered by the Article 19(1) (b) Money Bill
(a) of the Constitution of India. (c) Constitutional Amendment Bill
2. Privileges must be read subject to the Articles 20-22 (d) Appropriation Bill
and Article 32 of the Constitution of India.
3. Immunity is available in relation to both civil and Ans. (a) In passing an ordinary bill simple majority of members is
criminal prosecution. required which can be done by a joint sitting of Lok Sabha and Rajya
Sabha. The members of both the houses will be present and voting is
4. Immunity is available in relation to freedom of
done. The bill becomes a law by a simple majority.
speech even in his/her private or personal capacity.
(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 1 and 2 only Union Executive
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 4 only
1. The form of oath of office for a minister for the union of
Ans. (a) India is enshrined in the
156. Which one of the following statements with regard to (a) first schedule (b) second schedule
the appointment of the Members of the Parliamentary (c) third schedule (d) fourth schedule
Committees is correct? [CDS 2020-II] Ans. (c) The form of oath of office for a minister for the union of
(a) The Members are only appointed India is enshrined in the third schedule of the Constitution.
(b) The Members are only elected In first schedule List of States & Union Territories is mentioned.
(c) The Members are only nominated The second schedule is about salary of President, Governors, chief
(d) The Members are appointed or elected on a motion Judges, Judges of High court and supreme court, comptroller and
made and adopted or nominated by the Speaker of the Auditor General of India. Fourth schedule is for allocation of seats
Lok Sabha or the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha for each state of India in Rajya Sabha.
Ans. (d) 2. The Constitution of India vests the executive powers of the
157. Which one of the following statements is correct regarding Indian Union in which of the following ?
parliamentary form of Government? [BPSC 2019] (a) The prime minister (b) The president
(a) The Legislature is responsible to Judiciary. (c) The council of ministers (d) The parliament
(b) The Legislature is responsible to Executive. Ans. (b) Executive powers of the Indian Union refers to the
(c) The Legislature and the Executive are independent. President.
(d) The President is responsible to Judiciary.
(e) None of the above/More than one of the above 3. The President can be impeached on the grounds of
violating the Constitution by
Ans. (e) India chose a parliamentary form of government primarily
because the constitution-makers were greatly influenced by the (a) The Chief Justice of India
system in England. Another reason the founding fathers saw was (b) The Vice-President of India
that the parliamentary model would only work to accommodate the (c) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
varied and diverse groups within our population. Also, the strict (d) The two Houses of Parliament
separation of powers in the presidential system would cause conflicts
between the two branches, the executive and the legislature, which Ans. (d) Impeachment of President by the two houses of Parliament
our newly-independent country could ill-afford. under article 61 mentioned.
There are more parliamentary forms of government in the world 4. All the executive powers in Indian Constitution are vested
than there are presidencies. In this system, the parliament is generally
supreme and the executive is responsible to the legislature. It is also with
known as the Cabinet form of government, and also ‘Responsible (a) Prime Minister (b) Council of Ministers
Government’. (c) President (d) Parliament
158. In the removal of which of the following officials does the Ans. (a) All the executive powers are vested with Prime Minister.
Parliament NOT play any role? [UPPSC Prelims 2020]
5. Before entering upon his office the President of India has to Ans. (c) As per Article 56, “Term of office of President (1) The
make and subscribe to an oath or affirmation. In this oath President shall hold office for a term of five years from the date on
or affirmation he swears: which he enters upon his office under various provision.
1. To faithfully execute the office (2) Any resignation addressed under clause (a) of the proviso to
2. To preserve, protect and defend the constitution and clause (1) shall forthwith be communicated by him to the Speaker of
the law the House of the People.”
3. To devote himself to the service and well-being of the 9. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer
people of India.
Which one of the contents of the oath or affirmation given
above is correct? List-I List-II
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (Power of President) (Relevant
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Provision)
A. Power to grant pardon 1. Article 76
Ans. (d) The President of India in his oath or affirmation swears
to faithfully execute the office, to preserve and protect constitution B. Executive power of the 2. Article 75
law and to devote himself to the service of the people of India. The Union
President is required to make and subscribe in the presence of the C. Power to appoint Prime 3. Article 53
Chief Justice of India (or in his absence, the senior most Judge of Minister
the Supreme Court), an oath or affirmation that he/she shall protect, D. Appointment of 4. Article 72
preserve and defend the Constitution. Attorney-General
Codes :
6. The President of India has no power to
A B C D
1. Proclaim a financial emergency in the state (a) 4 2 3 1
2. Proclaim the future of the constitutional machinery in (b) 4 3 2 1
the state. (c) 1 2 3 4
Which of the statement(s) given above regarding the (d) 1 3 2 4
special constitutional status of Jammu and Kashmir is/are Ans. (b) As mentioned in Article 72 of Indian Constitution, the
correct? President is empowered with the powers to grant pardons in the
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only following situations:
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 • Punishment is for offence against Union Law
• Punishment is by a Military Court
Ans. (a) The President of India can proclaim the failure of the
• Sentence is that of death
constitutional machinery in Jammu and Kashmir but the Proclamation
should be grounded under the provision of the state constitution and not • The executive power is vested mainly in the President of
Indian constitution. India, as per Article 53 (1) of the constitution. Article 75 (1) of the
Constitution of India reads: “The Prime Minister shall be appointed
7. Consider the following statements : by the President and the other Ministers shall be appointed by the
President on the advice of the Prime Minister.”
When a president is to be impeached for violation of the
The Attorney General for India is the Indian government’s chief
Constitution, no change can be preferred by either House legal advisor, and its primary lawyer in the Supreme Court of India.
of Parliament unless He is appointed by the President of India under Article 76(1) of the
1. A resolution containing proposal is moved after Constitution and holds office during the pleasure of the President.
seven days notice in writing signed by not less than
one fourth of total number of members of that house. 10. Which of the following are not mentioned in the
Constitution of India ? [NDA-2017]
2. The resolution is passed by the majority of not less
1. Council of Ministers
than 2/3 rd of the total membership of that house.
2. Collective Responsibility
Which of the statement given above is/are correct? 3. Resignation of Ministers
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 4. Office of the Deputy Prime Minister
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Ans. (b) The charge of violation of constitution by the president (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
of India for his impeachment can’t be preferred by a House unless a (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 3
resolution containing proposal to prefer such charge is moved after at
Ans. (c)
least fourteen days notice in writing signed by not less than one fourth of
the total number of the members of that house. 11. Consider the following statement :
8. Consider the following statement : 1. The President cannot function without the Union
1. On the expiry of the term of five years by the President Council of Ministers.
of India, the outgoing President must continue to 2. The Solicitor-General is the highest legal authority of
hold office until his successor enters upon his office. the Union Government.
2. The Electoral College for the President’s election 3. The Union Council of Ministers can function for
consists of the elected members of the Legislative sometime even after death or resignation of the Prime
Assemblies of Delhi and Puducherry also. minister.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? 4. In the absence of the Prime Minister, only the Home
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 Minister can preside over emergency meetings of the
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Union Council of Ministers.
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C-72 INDIAN POLITY
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? 19. Who of the following Presidents of India was associated
(a) Only 1 (b) 3 and 4 with trade union movement?
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (a) V.V. Giri (b) N. Sanjiva Reddy
Ans. (a) The Constitution Provides for a Council of Ministers to aid (c) K.R. Narayanan (d) Zakir Hussain
and advise the President in the exercise of his functions. (Art 74). Ans. (a) V.V. Giri, the President of India was associated with trade
Union movement. Varahagiri Venkata Giri, commonly known as V.
12. Which one of the following is not a department in the V. Giri, was the fourth President of the Republic of India from 24
Ministry of Human Resource Development? August 1969 to 23 August 1974.
(a) Department of Elementary Education and Literacy
(b) Department of Secondary Education and Higher 20. The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to
Education which of the following? [CDS-2017]
(c) Department of Technical Education (a) Prime Minister (b) President
(d) Department of women and child development (c) Rajya Sabha (d) Lok Sabha
Ans. (d) Department of women and child development is not a Ans. (d) As per article 74 of Indian constitution the council of
department under Ministry of Human Resource Development. ministers are responsible to the Lok Sabha.
13. Who decides the office of profit? 21. The Council of Ministers has to resign if no-confidence
(a) President and Governor motion is passed by a majority of members of
(b) Union Parliament (a) Lok Sabha
(c) Supreme Court (b) Rajya Sabha
(d) Union Public Service Commission (c) Both the Houses separately
Ans. (a) Under article 102 mentioned the decision of the president (d) Both the Houses in joint sitting
shall be final. President and Governor decides the office of profit. Ans. (a) The Council of Ministers has to resign if a no-confidence
14. The vacancy of the office of the President of India must be motion is passed by a majority of members of Lok Sabha. A motion
filled up within of no confidence is primarily a statement or vote which states that a
(a) 90 days person in a superior position - be it government, managerial, etc.
(b) 6 months 22. Which of the following statements is not correct in relation
(c) One year to Dr. Manmohan Singh?
(d) within the period decided by the Parliament (a) Former Finance Minister
Ans. (b) The vacancy of the office of the President of India must be (b) Former Governor of RBI
filled up within 6 months. (c) Former Representative of India in International
15. Who has the right to seek advisory opinion of the Supreme Monetary Fund
Court of India, on any question of law? (d) Member of Rajya Sabha
(a) Prime Minister (b) President Ans. (c) Dr. Manmohan Singh Rajya Sabha MP and was former
(c) Any of the high courts (d) All of the above finance minister, former governor of RBI.
Ans. (b) President has the right to seek advisory opinion of the 23. The office of the President does not characterize the
supreme court of India.
combination of governmental systems of
16. By which of the following can the President of India be (a) Parliamentary and Federal
impeached? (b) Republican and Parliamentary
(a) The Lok Sabha (c) Presidential and Republican
(b) The Parliament (d) Democratic and Republican
(c) The Chief Justice of India
(d) The Prime Minister Ans. (c) President does not characterize the combination of
Presidential and Republican governmental system.
Ans. (b) By the Parliament the President of India can be impeached.
The President may be removed before the expiry of the term through 24. The President of India enjoys emergency powers of
impeachment. (a) Two types (b) Three types
(c) Four types (d) Five types
17. The Prime Minister of India is the head of the
(a) State government Ans. (b) The President can declare three types of emergencies:-
(b) Central government national, state, financial under articles 352, 356 & 360 in addition to
(c) Both the state and Central government promulgating ordinances under article 123.
(d) None of them 25. How many times can the President of India seek re-election
Ans. (d) The prime Minister of India is the chief of government, to his post?
chief advisor to the President of India, head of the Council of (a) Once (b) 2 times
Ministers and the leader of the majority party in parliament. (c) 3 times (d) Any numbers of time
18. If the position of President and Vice-President are vacant, Ans. (d) There is no restriction for President of India seeking for
who officiates as the President of India? re-election.
(a) The Prime Minister
(b) The Chief Justice of India 26. Who held the office of the Vice-President of India for two
(c) The Speaker of Lok Sabha consecutive terms?
(d) None of these (a) Dr. Radhakrishnan
Ans. (b) Chief Justice of India officiates position of President and (b) Mr. R. Venkataraman
Vice-President when there seats vacant. (c) Dr. Shankar Dayal Sharma
(d) Mr. V.V. Giri
Ans. (a) Dr. Radhakrishnan held the office of the Vice-President of 33. Which of the following bodies of India are headed by the
India for two consecutive terms. Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan was an Prime Minister?
Indian philosopher and statesman who was the first Vice President of 1. National Development Council
India and the second President of India from 1962 to 1967. 2. Interstate Council
3. National Water Resource Council
27. In India, the Prime Minister remains in office so long as he 4. National Integration Council
enjoys the Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) Support of armed forces (a) 1 and 4 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) Confidence of Rajya Sabha (c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) Confidence of Lok Sabha Ans. (d) The given bodies like NDC, Interstate council, NWRC and
(d) Support of the people NIC are headed by the Prime Minister of India. NDC-The National
Ans. (c) The prime minister remains in office so long as he enjoys Development Council (NDC) or the Rashtriya Vikas Parishad is the
the confidence of Lok sabha. apex body for decision making and deliberations on development
matters in India, presided over by the Prime Minister. It was set
28. The proposal relating to dismissal of the Vice-President can up on 6 August 1952 to strengthen and mobilize the efforts and
be presented in resources of the nation in support of the Plan, to promote common
(a) any House of the Parliament economic policies in all vital spheres, and to ensure the balanced
(b) the Rajya Sabha and rapid development of all parts of the country. Prime Minister Dr.
Manmohan Singh has reconstituted the Inter-State Council. NWRC-
(c) The Lok Sabha National Water Resources Council was set up by the Government
(d) None of these of India in March 1983. The Prime Minister is the Chairman. The
Ans. (b) Proposal of dismissal of the Vice president can be National Integration Council (NIC) is a group of senior politicians
presented in Rajya Sabha. and public figures in India that looks for ways to address the problems
of communalism, casteism and regionalism.
29. In case the President wishes to resign, to whom is he to
address his resignation letter? 34. Consider the following statements in regard to the Union
(a) Chief Justice of India (b) Secretary of Lok Sabha Council of Ministers
1. Parliamentary secretaries are the members of the
(c) Vice President (d) Prime Minister
council of Ministers.
Ans. (c) Article 56 of the Indian Constitution says that the President 2. The cabinet is superior to the council of Ministers.
shall hold office for a term of five years from the date he takes up Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
his post. Article 56 also provided that the President may, by writing (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
under his hand addressed to the Vice-President, resign his office.
30. Who among the following Indian Prime Ministers resigned Ans. (a) Since the cabinet is a part of the council of ministers, it
before facing a vote of no-confidence in the Lok Sabha? never can be superior to that.
(a) Chandra Shekhar
35. Department of official languages is subordinate office of
(b) Morarji Desai which ministry?
(c) Chaudhary Charan Singh (a) Ministry of social justice and Empowerment
(d) V.P. Singh (b) Ministry of Home Affairs
Ans. (c) Chaudhary Charan Singh was the Prime Minister who (c) Ministry of Rural Development
resigned before facing a vote of no-confidence in the Lok Sabha. (d) Ministry of Culture
Chaudhuri Charan Singh was the sixth Prime Minister, serving from
Ans. (b) Department of official languages is subordinate office of
28 July 1979 until 14 January 1980.
the Ministry of Home affairs. It deals with the implementation of the
31. The Union Executive of India consists of: provisions of the Constitution relating to official languages and the
(a) The President; Vice-President, Lok Sabha Speaker and provisions of the Official Languages Act, 1963.
the Council of Ministers 36. With regard to union government, consider the following
(b) The President, Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, statements:
Lok Sabha Speaker and the Prime Minister 1. The ministries /departments of government of India
(c) The President and the Council of Ministers only are created by the PM on the advice of counsel of
(d) The President, Vice-President and the Council of Ministers.
Ministers only 2. Each of the Ministries is assigned to a minister by the
president on the advice of PM.
Ans. (d) Union Executive consists of the President, the Vice-
President, the Price Minister and Council of Ministers and the
3. The administrative head of the cabinet secretariat
Attorney General. is also the ex-officio chairman of the civil services
Board
32. Vice-President of India is elected by an electoral college Which of the statements given above are correct?
consisting of (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(a) members of both Houses of Parliament (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) members of Rajya Sabha only Ans. (b) The ministry / department of government of India is created
(c) elected members of both Houses of Parliament by the PM on the advice of cabinet secretary. The administrative
(d) elected members of Lok Sabha only head of the cabinet secretariat is also the ex-officio chairman of the
civil services board.
Ans. (a) members of both houses of parliament.
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C-74 INDIAN POLITY
37. Consider the following statements regarding censure motion: State population
1. It need not state the ground on which it is based × 100
2. It can be moved only against the council of ministers No. of elected MLAs of the state
and not against an individual minister. 2. The value of the vote of an electing member of
3. No leave of house is required to move this motion parliament equals.
4. It is in the discretion of the government to find time
and fix a date for its discussion. Total value of the votes of all elected MLAs
Which of the statements given above are not correct? Total no. of elected MPs
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 3. There were more than 5000 members in the latest
elections.
Ans. (a) It must state the grounds on which it is based. Censure Which of these statements is/are correct?
motion can be moved against the council of ministers or an
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only
individual minister or a group of Ministers. “Censure” is meant to
show disapproval and does not result in the resignation of ministers. (c) 1 and 3 (d) 3 only
The censure motion can be against an individual minister or a group Ans. (b) The value of the vote of an electing member of a parliament
of ministers. can be calculated by dividing the total value of the votes of all elected
MLAs by the total number of elected MPs.
38. Which one of the following is part of the Electoral College
for the election of the president of India but does not form 42. Consider the following statements given below:
part of the forum for his impeachment? [NDA-2017] 1. J. L. Nehru was in his fourth term as the PM of India
(a) Lok Sabha at the time of his death.
(b) Rajya Sabha 2. J.L. Nehru represented Rae Bareilly constituency as a
(c) State Legislative Councils Member of Parliament.
(d) State legislative Assemblies 3. The first non-congress PM of India assumed the office
in the year 1977.
Ans. (d) State legislative assemblies, both houses of the parliament
form part of the electoral college for the election of the president.
An electoral college is a set of electors who are selected to elect (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only
a candidate to a particular office. Often these represent different (c) 1 only (d) 1 and 3 only
organizations or entities, with each organization or entity represented Ans. (d) J.L Nehru was in PM’s office for 4th term represented
by a particular number of electors or with votes weighted in a ‘Phulpur’ near Allahabad as a member of Parliament. Morarji Desai
particular way. of Janta party was the first non-congress PM of India assumed the
39. If the PM belonged to the upper House of Parliament? office on march 24, 1977.
(a) He will not be able to vote in his favour in the event 43. Who among the following have held the office of the Vice
of a no-confidence motion.
President of India?
(b) He will not be able to speak on the budget in the
Lower House. (1) Mohd. Hidayatullah (2) Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed
(c) He can make statements only in the Upper House. (3) Neelam Sanjiva Reddy (4) Shankar Dayal Sharma
(d) He has to become a member of the Lower House Select the correct answer using the code given below:
within six months after swearing in as the PM. (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1 and 4 only
Ans. (a) He will not be able to vote in his favour in the event of a (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 3 and 4 only
no-confidence motion. Ans. (b) Mohd. Hidayatullah was the sixth vice president of India
and served from 1979 to 1984. He was also the 11th chief justice of
40. With reference to India polity, which one of the following India, from 1988 to 1970. Shankar Dayal Sharma was the 8th vice
statements is correct? president of India and served under R Venkataraman. He was also the
(a) Planning commission is accountable to parliament. 9th President of India, from 1992 to 1997.
(b) President can make ordinance only when either of the
two houses of parliament is not in session. 44. Department of Border management is a department of
(c) The minimum age prescribed for appointment as a which one of the following Union Ministers ?
judge of the Supreme Court is 40 years. (a) Ministry of Defense
(d) NDC is constituted of Union Finance Minister and the (b) Ministry of Home Affairs.
Chief Ministers of all the states. (c) Ministry of Shipping, Road Transport and Highways
Ans. (b) President can promulgate ordinances when the parliament (d) Ministry of Environment and Forest.
is not in session. These ordinances must be approved by the Ans. (b) Department of border management is a department of
parliament within six weeks from its re-assembly. Article 123 in ministry of Home affairs of the union minister. Department of Border
the Constitution of India 1949 describes the power of President to Management is dealing with management of borders, including
promulgate Ordinances during recess of Parliament. If at any time, coastal borders.
except when both Houses of Parliament are in session, the President
is satisfied that circumstances exist which render it necessary for him 45. With reference to Union Government consider the
to take immediate action, he may promulgate such Ordinance as the following statements :
circumstances appear to him to require.
1. The constitution of India provides that all cabinet
41. Consider the following statements; ministers shall be compulsorily the sitting members
In the electoral college for Presidential election in India of Lok Sabha only.
1. The value of the vote of an electoral member of 2. The Union cabinet secretariat operates under the
Legislative Assembly equals. direction of the ministry of Parliamentary Affairs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 50. Consider the following statement :
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 1. The President nominates twelve members of the Rajya
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Sabha on the advice of the Council of Ministers.
Ans. (d) The Prime Minister shall be appointed by the president 2. The President has absolute power to appoint and
and the other Ministers shall be appointed by the president on remove the Chairman and members of statutory
the advice of the PM(Article 75(1)). The cabinet secretariat is bodies at his discretion.
under the direct charge of the P.M. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
46. With reference to Union Government consider the following
statements:
1. The ministries/Departments of the government of Ans. (a) Twelve of Rajya Sabha members are nominated by the
India are created by the PM on the advice of the President from persons who have earned distinction in the fields of
cabinet secretary. literature, art, science and social service. Rajya Sabha is a permanent
2. Each of the ministries is assigned to a minister by the body. It is not subject to dissolution but one-third of its members
president of India on the advice of the PM. retire every two years. Rajya Sabha was duly constituted for the first
time on April 3, 1952 and it held its first sitting on May 13, that year.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 51. Consider the following statement :
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 The charge of violation of the Constitution by the President
Ans. (b) The government of India consists of a number of ministers/ of India for his impeachment cannot be preferred by a
departments for its administration, each ministry assigned to a House unless:
minister who runs it with the assistance of a secretary in charge of 1. A resolution containing the proposal is moved after
the particular ministry. a seven days notice in writing signed by not less
47. Consider the List-I and List-II and choose the correct code than 1/4th of the total number of the members of that
given below. House.
List - I List - II 2. The resolution is passed by the majority of not less
A. National Front 1. 1996-98 than 2/3rd of the total membership of that House.
B. United Front 2. 1998-2004 Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
C. National 3. 1989-90 (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
Democratic Alliance (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
D. United Progressive 4. 2004-14 Ans. (b)
Alliance 1. According to Article 61, when a President is to be impeached
Codes: for violation of the Constitution, the charge shall be preferred by
A B C D either House of Parliament.
(a) 3 1 2 4 2. No such charge shall be preferred unless -
(b) 1 3 2 4 (a) the proposal to prefer such charge is contained in a resolution
(c) 1 2 3 4 which has been moved after at least fourteen days’ notice in writing
(d) 1 2 4 3 signed by not less than one-fourth of the total number of members of
the House has been given of their intention to move the resolution, and
Ans. (a) (b) such resolution has been passed by a majority of not less than
48. Which of the following pairs of Constitutional authority two-thirds of the total membership of the House.
and procedure of appointment is/are correctly matched? 52. Consider the following statements relating to the President
1. President: Elected by an electoral college consisting of India :
of elected MLAs and MPs. 1. He may resign by writing to the Vice-President.
2. Vice-president: Elected by an electoral college 2. He shall continue, not withstanding the expiration of
consisting of MLAs and MPs. his term, to hold office until his successor enters upon
3. Speaker: The House of People chooses after its first his office.
sitting. 3. His is not entitled to hold the office for more than two terms.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below: Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 only (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 3 only
Ans. (c) Ans. (b) According Article 56(1) in the Constitution of India
(1) The President shall hold office for a term of five years from the
49. Which of the following are the principles on the basis of date on which he enters upon his office: Provided that
which the Parliamentary system of government in India (a) the President may, by writing under his hand addressed to the
operates ? Vice President, resign his office;
1. Nominal Executive Head (b) the President may, for violation of the constitution, be removed
2. Vice-President as the Chairman of the Upper House from office by impeachment in the manner provided in Article 61:
3. Real executive authority with the Council of Ministers. (c) the President shall, notwithstanding the expiration of his term,
4. Executive responsibility to the Lower House continue to hold office until his successor enters upon his office
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below :
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4 53. Which of the following bodies are headed by the Prime
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4 Minister ?
1. National Integration Council
Ans. (c) Vice president as the chairman of the upper house does not 2. National Water Resources Council
come under the basic structure of parliamentary system. 3. National Development Council
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C-76 INDIAN POLITY
4. Inter-State Council 56. Consider the following Vice-Presidents of India:

5. Zonal Council 1. V.V. Giri 2. M. Hidayatullah
Select the correct answer using the codes given below: 3. B.D. Jatti 4. G.S. Pathak
(a) 1, 3, 4 and 5 (b) 3, 4 and 5 Which on of the following is the correct chronology of
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4 their tenures?
Ans. (c) The National Integration Council (NIC) is a group of (a) 1-4-3-2 (b) 2-1-3-4
senior politicians and public figures in India that looks for ways to (c) 3-2-1-4 (d) 4-1-3-2
address the problems of communalism, casteism and regionalism Ans. (a) Presidents, Vice Presidents, Prime Ministers etc.
is chaired by Prime Minister. The Prime Minister is the Chairman (i) Sh. V.V. Giri
of National Water Resources Council. The National Development (Term of Office 13.5.1967 to 3.5.1969)
Council (NDC) or the Rashtriya Vikas Parishad is the apex body for (ii) Sh. Gopal Swarup Pathak
decision making and deliberations on development matters in India, (Term of Office 31.8.1969 to 30.8.1974)
presided over by the Prime Minister. The Inter-State Council shall (iii) Sh. B.D.Jatti
consist of: (Term of Office 31.8.1974 to 30.8.1979)
(a) Prime Minister - Chairman (iv) Sh. M. Hidayatullah
(b) Chief Ministers of all States - Member (Term of Office 31.8.1979 to 30.8.1984)
(c) Chief Ministers of Union Territories having a Legislative
Assembly and Administrators of UTs not having a Legislative 57. Which one of the following Union ministries implements
Assembly - Member the Cartagena Protocol on biosafety?
(d) Six Ministers of Cabinet rank in the Union Council of Ministers (a) Ministry of Science and Technology
to be nominated by the Prime Minister – Member (b) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
(c) Ministry of Environment and Forests
54. Who of the following became Prime Minister after being (d) Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers
Chief Ministers ?
1. P.V. Narasimha Rao 2. Charan Singh Ans. (c) The ministry of environment and forest government
3. H.D. Deve Gowda 4. V.P. Singh of India, is Implementing a GEF/World Bank funded project on
capacity building on biosafety in context of Cartagena Protocol
5. Morarji Desai
Select the correct answer from the codes given below : 58. India started Visa on Arrival (VOA) facility for Pakistan.
(a) 2, 3, 4 and 5 (b) 1, 2 and 4 Consider the following statements regarding this VOA
(c) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 (d) 2, 3 and 4 facility.
Ans. (c) Narasimha Rao’s tenure as Chief Minister of Andhra 1. The visas are valid for Pakistan senior citizens only.
Pradesh is well remembered even today for his land reforms and 2. This visa will be given at Attari/Wagah checkpost for
strict implementation of land ceiling act in Telangana region. Charan 45 days.
Singh became Chief Minister of Uttar Pradesh in 1967, and later in 3. It will be a multiple entry visa.
1970. Deve Gowda was the 14th Chief Minister of Karnataka from Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1994 to 1996 V.P. Singh was appointed by Indira Gandhi as the Chief (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
Minister of Uttar Pradesh in 1980, when Gandhi was re-elected after (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
the Janata interlude. Before the independence of India, Morarji Desai Ans. (a) India on 1st April 2013 started visa on arrival (VOA)
became Bombay’s Home Minister and later was elected as Chief facility for the senior citizen of Pakistan and will allow a Pakistan
Minister of Bombay State in 1952. resident in India for a maximum period of 45 days. It is a single entry
55. Consider the following statements and select the correct visa.
answer from the codes given below : 59. Which of the following statements is not correct regarding
Assertion (A): Collective responsibility of the Cabinet recent guidelines issued by the Union Home Ministry for
signifies unity and coordination among regulating surrogacy?
members of the Council of Ministers. (a) Surrogacy should be recognized in the country of
Reason (R) : It is the prerogative of the Prime Minister the foreign couple who intended to have an Indian
to select or drop a member of the Cabinet. surrogate.
Codes : (b) Single foreigners as well as gay couples would not be
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct eligible for Indian surrogate.
explanation of A (c) Only these foreign men and women, who are married
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the for at least two years, would be granted the visas.
correct explanation of A (d) Foreign couples who intended to have an Indian
(c) A is true but R is false surrogate should provide a letter from the Foreign
(d) A is false but R is true Ministry of their country certifying that a child has the
Ans. (b) The collective responsibility under Article 75 of the
rights to enter the home country as a biological child.
Constitution of India has two meanings: Ans. (b) Single foreigners as well as the gay couples would not be
(I) All members of a Government are unanimous in support of its eligible for having the Indian surrogate.
policies, (II) The ministers, who had an opportunity to speak for or
against the policies in the cabinet are thereby personally and morally 60. Consider the following statements about the President of
responsible for its success and failure. India. (CDS 2016-I)
1. The President has the right to address and send
The prime minister selects and can dismiss other members of the
message to The Council of Ministers to clicit specific
cabinet; allocates posts to members within the Government; is the
information
presiding member and chairman of the cabinet and is responsible for
2. The President can call for information relating to
bringing proposal of legislation.
proposala for legislation
3. All decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
administration of the Union must be communicated to (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
the President Ans. (b) Article 65 of the Indian Constitution says that while acting
Which of the statements given above are correct? as president or discharging the functions of president, the Vice
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only President does not perform the duties of the office of the chairman of
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Rajya sabha.
Ans. (d) The rights of Indian President - Article 123 of the Constitution grants the President certain law
(i) To address the Council of Ministers making powers to promulgate Ordinances when either of the two
(ii) To send message to the Council of Ministers. Houses of Parliament is not in session and hence it is not possible to
(iii) To Call for information regarding proposals of Legislation. enact laws in the Parliament.
(iv) The president will receive all decisions of the council of
Ministers concerned with administration of the Union. 66. Consider the following statements [NDA 2008-I]
1. The Union Executive consists of the President and the
61. Who among the following Prime Ministers of India were Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister as the
defeated by a vote of No Confidence ? (CDS 2016-I) head.
1. Morarji Desai 2. The President may, by writing under his hand
2. Viswanath Pratap Singh addressed to the Vice-President, resign his office.
3. H.D. Deve Gowda 3. Executive power of the Union is vested in the Prime
4. Atal Bihari Vajpayee Minister.
Select the correct answer using the code given below : Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1,2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3 only (a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) Only 2
Ans. (c) Vishwanath Pratap Singh, H.D. Deve Gowda, Atal Bihari
Ans. (d) The Union executive consists of the President, the Vice-
Vajpayee were defeated by a vote of ‘no confidence’.
President, and the Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister as
62. Which of the following statements relating to the office of the head to aid and advise the President.He may, by writing under his
the President of India are correct? (CDS 2016-I) hand addressed to the Vice-President, resign his office (Article 61).
1. The President has the power to grant pardon to a According to article 52,executive power of the Union is vested in the
criminal in special case President.
2. The President can promulgate ordinances even when 67. Who among the following was the first Law Minister of
the Parliament is in session India? [NDA 2008-I]
3. The President can dissolve the Rajya Sabha during
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru
emergency.
4. The President has the power to nominate two member (b) Maulana Abdul Kalam Azad
in the Lok Sabha from the Anglo Indian community (c) Dr BR Ambedkar
Select the correct answer using the code given below : (d) T Krishnamachari
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 4 Ans. (c) Jawaharlal Nehru took charge as the first Prime Minister of
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 3 only 4 Indiaon 15 August 1947, and chose 15 other members for his cabinet
in which B. R. Ambedkar was the first law minister of India.
Ans. (a) The President can dissolve the Lok Sabha only. On the
other hand, President can nominate 12 member in Rajya Sabha. 68. Who among the following was the Finance Minister of
63. Who was the President of India at the time of proclamation India in the Interim Government during 1946-1947?
of emergency in the year 1976? [NDA 2007-I] [NDA 2008-II]
(a) V.V Giri (b) Giani Zail Singh (a) R K Shanmukham Chetty
(c) Fakhr-ud-din Ali Ahmad (d) Shankar Dayal Sharma (b) John Mathai
(c) Liaquat Ali Khan
Ans. (c) In India, “the Emergency” refers to a 21-month period in
1975-77 when Prime Minister Indira Gandhiunilaterally had a state (d) Chintamanrao Deshmukh
of emergency declared across the country.Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed Ans. (c) Liaquat Ali Khan became the first Finance Minister of
was the President at that time. India in the Interim Government during 1946-1947.
64. Who among the following was never a Deputy Prime 69. Department of Official Language (Raj Bhasha Vibhag)
Minister of India? [NDA 2007-II] comes under which one of the following Ministries?
(a) Devi Lal (b) GL Nanda [NDA 2008-II]
(c) LK Advani (d) YB Chavan (a) Ministry of Culture
Ans. (b) Gulzarilal Nanda became the Prime Minister of India for (b) Ministry of Home Affairs
two short periods following the deaths of Jawaharlal Nehru in 1964 (c) Ministry of Human Resource Development
and Lal Bahadur Shastri in 1966. (d) Ministry of Information and Broadcasting
65. Consider the following statements [NDA 2007-II] Ans. (b) Department of Official language(Raj Bhasha Vibhag)
1. When the Vice-President of India acts as the President comes under Ministry of Home affairs.
of India, he performs simultaneously the functions of 70. Consider the following statements [NDA 2009-I]
the Chairman of Rajya Sabha. 1. The Ministries Departments of the Union Government
2. The President, of India can promulgate ordinances at are created by the Prime Minister.
any time except when both Houses of Parliament are 2. The Cabinet Secretary is the Ex-officio Chairman of
in session. the Civil Services Board.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
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C-78 INDIAN POLITY
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 76. If the Prime Minister is a member of the Rajya Sabha
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 [NDA 2009-II]
Ans. (b) The Government of India (Allocation of Business) Rules, (a) He/she has to get elected to the Lok Sabha within 6
1961 are made by the President of India under Article 77 of the months
Constitution for the allocation of business of the Government of (b) He/she can declare the government’s policies only in
India. The Ministries/Departments of the Government are created the Rajya Sabha
by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister under these (c) He/she cannot take part in the voting when a vote of
Rules. The Cabinet Secretary is the ex-officio Chairman of the Civil
Services Board of the Republic of India.
no confidence is under consideration
(d) He/she cannot take part in the budget deliberation in
71. In which one of the following Minsitries the census the Lok Sabha
organisation has been functioning on a permanent footing
since 1961? [NDA 2009-I] Ans. (c) He/she cannot take part in the voting when a vote of no
confidence is under consideration.
(a) Health and Family Welfare
(b) Home Affairs 77. Who among the following Indian Prime Ministers resigned
(c) Social Justice and Empowerment before facing a vote of no-confidence in the Lok Sabha?
(d) Human Resource Development [NDA 2010-I]
Ans. (b) The responsibility of conducting the decennial Census rests (a) Chandra Shekhar (b) Morarji Desai
with the Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner, (c) Chaudhary Charan Singh (d) VP Singh
India under Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India.
Ans. (c) OnAugust 20, 1979, Charan Singh resigned without
72. Consider the following Vice-Presidents of India moving the motion after the Congress withdrew support.
[NDA 2009-I]
1. V.V Giri 2. M Hidayatullah 78. The impeachment of the President of India can be initiated
3. BD Jatti 4. GS Pathak in [NDA 2010-II]
Which one of the following is the correct chronology of (a) either house of the Parliament
their tenures? (b) a joint siting of both houses of the Parliament
(a) 1, 4, 3, 2 (b) 2, 1, 3, 4 (c) the Lok Sabha alone
(c) 3, 2, 1,4 (d) 4, 1,3, 2 (d) the Rajya Sabha alone
Ans. (a) Correct chronological order of the Vice-Presidents of India
Ans. (a) Under Article 61, the President of India can be removed
is as follows:
from the office by a process of impeachment for the violation of the
1. V.V .Giri - 1967 2. G.S Pathak 1969
Constitution. The impeachment is to be initiated by either House of
3. B.D Jatti-1974 4. M Hidayatullah- 1979
Parliament.
73. In India the Supreme Command of the Armed Forces is,
vested in the President. This means that in the exercise of 79. The President of India is elected by a proportional
this power [NDA 2009-II] representation system through single transferable vote.
(a) he/she cannot be regulated by law This implies that [NDA 2011-I]
(b) he/she shall be regulated by law (a) each elected MP or MLA has an equal number of votes
(c) during war, the President seeks advice only from the (b) MPs and MLAs of a State have the same number of
Chiefs of the Armed Forces votes
(d) during war the President can suspended the (c) all MPs and MLAs have one vote each
Fundamental Rights of citizens (d) MPs and MLAs of different States have different
Ans. (b) According to Article 53(b) of the Indian Constitution numbers of votes
the supreme command of the Defence Forces of the Union shall be
Ans. (c) Irrespective of the fact that a number of seats may have
vested in the President and the exercise thereof shall be regulated by
to be filled, this system postulates one vote for each voter with the
law.
reservation that this single vote is transferred to other candidates.
74. Who among the following Indian Prime Ministers could This is the reason why this system is known as “single transferable
not vote for himself during the ‘Vote of Confidence’ that vote system.”
he was seeking from the Lok Sabha? [NDA 2009-II]
(a) VP Singh (b) PV Narasimha Rao 80. Consider the following statements about the powers of the
(c) Chandra Sekhar (d) Manmohan Singh President of India [NDA 2012-I]
Ans. (b) P V Narasimha Rao could not vote for himself during vote
1. The President can direct that any matter on which
of confidence. decision has been taken by a Minister should be
placed before the Council of Ministers.
75. Who among the following was elected President of India 2. The President can call all information relating to
unopposed? [NDA 2009-II] proposals for legislation.
(a) Dr Rajendra Prasad 3. The President has the right to address and send
(b) Dr S Radhakrishnan messages to either House of the Parliament.
(c) Dr Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy 4. All decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to the
(d) K R Narayanan administration of the Union must be communicated
Ans. (c) Dr. Neelam Sanjiva Reddy was the sixth President of to the President.
India. After the death of Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed in office,Reddy was Which of the statements given above are correct?
elected unopposed. He was only President to be elected thus, after
(a) 1,2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3
being unanimously supported by all political parties including the
opposition Congress party. He was elected president on 21 July 1977. (c) 2 and 4 (d) 1,2, 3 and 4
Ans. (d) According to Article 78 it shall be the duty of the Prime 1. Department of Defence
Minister- 2. Department of Defence Research and Development
(a) to communicate to the President all decisions of the council of 3. Department of Defence Production
Ministers relating to the administration of the affairs of the union and 4. Department of Defence Finance
proposals for legislation; Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(b) to furnish such information relating to the administration of the (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3
affairs of the Union and proposals for legislation as the President (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1 only
may call for;
(c) if the President so requires, to submit for the consideration of Ans. (b) Ministry of Defence comprises of four Departments as
the Council of Ministers any matter on which a decision has been Department of Defence (DOD), Department of Defence Production
taken by a Minister; (DDP), Department of Defence Research & Development (DDR&D)
and Department of Ex-Servicemen Welfare .
81. Which of the following pairs of constitutional authority and 85. Notification regarding commencement on cessation of a
procedure of appointment is/are correctly matched? state of war is the responsibility of [NDA 2015-I]
[NDA 2013-II] (a) Ministry of Home Affairs
1. President : Elected by an electoral college consisting (b) Ministry of Defence
of elected MLAs and MPs (c) Ministry of External Affairs
2. Vice-President: Elected by an electoral college (d) None of the above
consisting of MLAs and MPs
Ans. (c) Notification regarding commencement or cessation of a
3. Speaker : The House of People chooses after its first
state of war is the responsibility of Ministry of External Affairs.
sitting
Select the correct answer using the codes given below 86. Which one of the following statements is not correct ?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) Only 1 [NDA 2015-I]
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 3 (a) The President cannot pardon a person sentenced by a
Ans. (c) The Vice-President is elected by an Electoral College, Court Martial.
which consists of the members of the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha (b) The supreme command of the defence forces of the
(both elected and nominated members). Union vests in the President, but its exercise has to
be regulated by law.
82. The principle of “collective responsibility’ under (c) A person awarded rigorous imprisonment cannot be
parliamentary democracy implies that [NDA 2014-I] compelled to do hard work as this would amount to
1. a motion of no-confidence can be moved against violation of Article 23 of the Constitution of India.
the Council of Ministers as a whole as well as an (d) The Armed Forces Tribunal Act, 2007 excludes the
individual minister. powers of the High Courts under Article 226 of the
2. no person shall be nominated to the cabinet except on Constitution of India in relation to service matters of
the advice of the Prime Minister. persons in the armed forces.
3. no person shall be retained as a member of the Cabinet
Ans. (a) Option (a) is not correct. Under Article 72 of the Indian
if the Prime minister says that he shall be dismissed. Constitution the Indian President is empowered to grant pardon, he
Select the correct answer using the codes given below can reprieve, respite or remit the punishment in all cases where the
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 punishment or sentence is by a court martial.
(c) Only 3 (d) 2 and 3
87. Which one of the following statements about the Union
Ans. (d) Cabinet collective responsibility is a tradition in
Executive in India is correct ? [NDA/NA 2016-II]
parliamentary governments in which the prime minister is responsible
for appointing the cabinet ministers. It is the Prime Minister who (a) According to the Constitution of lndia, the total
enforces collective responsibility amongst the Ministers through his number of member of the Council of Ministers cannot
ultimate power to dismiss a Minister. No person shall be nominated exceed 20% of the total number of Members of the
to the cabinet except on the advice of the Prime Minister. Secondly, house of the People
no person shall be retained as a Member of the Cabinet if the Prime (b) The rank of different Ministers is determined by the
Minister says that he should be dismissed. In India, a Motion of No president
Confidence can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha. (c) The Ministers is appointed by the president on the
advice of the Prime Minister
83. The Annual Financial Statement of the Government of
(d) Only a member of either House of Paliament can be
India in respect of each financial year shall be presented to
appointed as a Minister.
the House on such day as the [NDA 2014-I]
(a) Speaker may direct Ans. (c)
(b) President of India may direct 88. Which one of the following powers of the Prime Minister
(c) Parliament may decide of India is codified in the Constitution of India itself?
(d) Finance Minister may decide [NDA/NA 2016-II]
Ans. (b) According to article 112,the President shall in respect (a) The power of advising the president as regards the
of every financial year cause to be laid before both the Houses of appointment of other Ministers
Parliament a statement of the estimated receipts and expenditure of (b) The power to allocate business amonst the Ministers
the Government of India for that year, in this Part referred to as the (c) The power of summon the meeting of the cabinet
annual financial statement. (d) The power of transfer of Minister from one
84. Which of the following is/are departmcnt(s) in Ministry of Department to another department
Defence ? [NDA 2014-II] Ans. (a)
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C-80 INDIAN POLITY
89. Which of the following statements relating to election as 95. At least how many days of prior notice is required for the
the President of India is/are correct? [NDA/NA 2016-I] impeachment to the President of India? [UP-PCS 2014]
1. A person above the age of thirty-five years is eligible (a) 7 days (b) 14 days
for election as the President of India. (c) 21 days (d) 30 days
2. The President of India is eligible for re-election for Ans. (b) For impeachment of President of India at least fourteen
more than one term. days’ notice in writing is required.
3. A person is not eligible for election as the President of
India if the person holds an office of profit. 96. In the absence of both the President of India and the Vice
Select the correct answer using the code given below: President of India who shall act as the President of India?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only (a) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 3 only (b) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(c) Vice Chairman of Rajya Sabha
Ans. (c)
(d) A person elected by the Lok Sabha with two third
90. The Council of Ministers has to resign if a no - confidence majority
motion is passed by a majority of members of Ans. (a) The Chief Justice of the Supreme Court acts as the
[UP-PCS 2012] President of India in the absence of both the President of India and
(a) Lok Sabha the Vice-President of India.
(b) Rajya Sabha
(c) Both the Houses separately 97. Which one of the following types of bureaucracy exhibits
(d) Both the House in joint sitting a bias towards party interests? [UGC 2016]
(a) Guardian bureaucracy
Ans. (a) Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to Lok
(b) Caste bureaucracy
Sabha or lower house .Therefore If a no confidence motion is
(c) Patronage bureaucracy
passed by majority of members of Lok Sabha , the ministry loses the
confidence of the Lok Sabha and must resign.
(d) Merit bureaucracy
Ans. (c) Patronage System is a practice in which a political party,
91. State Governor is appointed by [UP-PCS 2012] after winning an election, gives government civil service jobs to its
(a) Central cabinet supporters, friends and relatives as a reward for working toward
(b) Chief Justice of Supreme Court victory, and as an incentive to keep working for the party.
(c) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(d) President of India 98. Which of the following are true of presidential system of
government? [UGC 2016]
Ans. (d) The Governor of a State is appointed by the President.
(a) President is both Head of the State and Head of the
According to Article 155 the Governor is appointed by president by
Government.
warrant under his hand and seal.
(b) It is based on separation of powers.
92. The Council of Minsters is collectively responsible to (c) President’s term of office is fixed.
which of the following? [UP-PCS 2012] (d) Secretaries are responsible to the President as well as
(a) Prime Minister (b) President to the Senate.
(c) Rajya Sabha (d) Lok Sabha Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Ans. (d) Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to Lok (a) (A), (B) and (C) (b) (A), (B), (C), and (D)
Sabha or lower house (c) (A), (B), and (D) (d) (A), (C), and (D)
Ans. (a) A presidential system of government is a system of
93. Who amongst the following elects the Vice President of government where an executive branch is led by a president who
India? [UP-PCS 2012] serves as both head of state and head of government. America is an
Select the correct answer from the codes given below : ideal example of the presidential form of government
1. Members of Lok Sabha
2. Members of Rajya Sabha 99. Which of the following statements are correct about the
3. Members Legislative Assemblies Vice - Presidents of India and America? [UGC 2016]
4. Members of Legislative Councils (1) Both the Vice-Presidents are elected for a fixed term.
Codes : (2) They are the presiding officers of the upper house.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (3) They appoint the committees of the house.
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (4) They have a casting vote in case of a tie.
Ans. (a) The Electoral College to elect a person to the office of the
Vice-President consists of all members of both Houses of Parliament
(a) (1), (2) and (4) (b) (2) and (3)
that is Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha. Electoral college works in (c) (1), (2) and (3) (d) (1), (2), (3) and (4)
accordance with the system of proportional representation by means Ans. (d) Vice-Presidents of India and America are elected for a
of the single transferable vote through secret ballot. fixed term. They both are the presiding officers of the upper house
and they have a casting vote in case of a tie.
94. Who has the right under the Constitution to seek the
opinion of the Supreme Court on Question of law? 100. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer
[UP-PCS 2012] from the codes given below : [UGC 2016]
(a) President (b) Any High Court List – I
(c) Prime Minister (d) All the above (Presidents of India)
Ans. (a) President can seek the opinion of the Supreme Court on
(a) Varahgiri Venkatgiri
the question of law or fact which has arisen or is likely to arise of (b) Dr. Zakir Hussain
such nature. Article 143 of the Constitution of India directs it as a (c) R. Venkatraman
duty upon the Supreme Court to advise the President on such matter. (d) Neelam Sanjiva Reddy
List – II Ans. (c) Incase a President dies while in office, the vice – president
(Tenure) acts as President for a maximum period of 6 months.
1. July 1987 — July 1992
2. July 1977 — July 1982 106. Who among the following is not appointed by the President
of India?
3. August 1969 — August 1974
(a) The Attorney General of India
4. May 1967 — May 1969 (b) The Solicitor General of India
Codes: (c) Special officer for linguistic minorities
(a) (b) (c) (d) (d) Comptroller and Auditor General of India
(A) 3 1 4 2
Ans. (b) Whereas attorney general for India is appointed by the
(B) 3 4 1 2 President under Article 76 (1) of the constitution, the Solicitor
(C) 2 2 4 1 general of India is appointed to assit the attorney general along with
(D) 1 2 3 4 four additional solicitors general by the Appointments Committee of
Ans. (b) the cabinet.
List - I List - II 107. As per the constitutional provisions. The President of India
(Presidents of India) (Tenure) enjoys the power of absolute veto, suspensive veto and
(a) Varahgiri Venkatgiri August 1969 - Agust 1974 pocket veto. However none of these can be applied on case
of giving assent to –
(b) Dr. Zakir Hussain May 1967 - May 1969
(a) Money Bill
(c) R. Venkatraman July 1987 - July 1992 (b) Bill related to declaration of emergency in a part or
(d) Neelam Sanjiva Reddy July 1977 - July 1982 whole of the country
(c) Bill related to suspension of any of the fundamental
101. The President of India, who granted his consent, to the Bill rights
of Creation of Uttarakhand State was – (d) All of the above
[UK-PSC/FR 2015] Ans. (a) As per the Constitutional provisions, The president of
(a) R. Venkatraman India cannot use the power of absolute veto, suspensive veto and
(b) K. R. Narayanan pocket veto in case of giving assent to the Money Bill.
(c) Shankar Dayal Sharma
108. Consider the following statements in the context of Indian
(d) A. P. J. Abdul Kalam Constitution : [UGC-II 2016]
Ans. (b) (K.R. Narayanan granted his consent, to the Bill of creation 1. The Union Council of Ministers shall be collectively
of Uttrakhand state. responsible to the Lok Sabha.
2. Union Ministers shall hold office during the pleasure
102. Which of the following is not a constitutional prerogative of the Prime Minister.
of the President of India? [UK-PSC/FR 2015] Of these :
(a) Returning back an ordinary bill for reconsideration (a) Only 1 is correct
(b) Returning back a money bill for reconsideration (b) Both 1 and 2 are correct
(c) Dissolution of Lok Sabha (c) Neither 1 nor 2 is correct
(d) Summoning of the session of the Rajya Sabha (d) Only 2 is correct
Ans. (b) Returning back a money bill for reconsideration is not a Ans. (a) The Prime Minister is appointed by the President. All
constitutional prerogative of the president of India. other ministers are appointed by the president upon the advice of the
Prime Minister. The ministers hold office during the Pleasure of the
103. The States and the Central Government derive power
President.
from– [MP-PSC 2017]
(a) the Constitution of India 109. Which of the following doesn’t consist in the power To
(b) the President of India Pardon’ of President?
(c) the Prime Minister of India (i) Pardon (ii) Commutation
(d) the Parliament of India
(iii) Remission (iv) Respite
Ans. (a) The states and the Central Government derive power from (v) Reprieve (vi) Detention
the constitution of India. (vii) Continuation
104. President of India exercises his powers – [BPSC 2017] (a) (i) (b) (ii), (iii)
(a) either directly or through officers subordinate to him (c) (iv), (v) (d) (vi), (vii)
(b) through Ministers Ans. (d) Pardon, Commutation, Remission, Reprieve, Respite
(c) through Prime Ministers consists in the power “To Pardon” of President.
(d) through Cabinet
(e) None of the above / More than one of the above 110. Consider the following facts about the election of President
Ans. (a) According to the article 53(1) the executive power of the of India.
union shall vested in the President and shall be exercised by him I. All elected MPs of both the houses and MLAs
either directly or through officers subordinate to him in accordance of legislative assemblies, including Delhi and
with this constitution . Puducherry are part of electoral college of the
105. In case a President dies while in office, the Vice - President President.
can act as President for a maximum period of – II. Unlike in voting by elected representatives in
(a) 1 year (b) 3 months Legislative Assemblies and Parliament, Party whips
(c) 6 months (d) 2 years cannot be issued in voting for presidential elections.
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C-82 INDIAN POLITY
Which of the above statements is correct? 115. Which of the following ministers can attend the meetings
(a) Only I (b) Only II of the cabinet?
(c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor II I. Cabinet Minister
Ans. (c) In the election of President of India– II. Minister of State independent charge
1. All elected MPs of both the houses and MLAs of legislative III. Minister of State
assemblies, including Delhi and Puducherry are part of electoral IV. Deputy Minister
college of the President. (a) Only I (b) Only I and II
2. Unlike in voting by elected representatives in Legislative (c) I, II and III (d) I, II, III and IV
Assemblies and Parliament, Party Whips cannot be issued in voting Ans. (d) Ministers who can attend the meetings of the cabinet are
for presidential elections. Cabinet Minister, Minister of State Independent Charge, Minister of
111. Consider the following statements in relation to the election State, Deputy Minister.
of president of India. 116. Which of the following is/are part of electoral college of
Statements: the President of India?
I. The total value of votes in president’s election is I. Elected members of the Rajya Sabha (upper house of
about 10,98,903 votes with each MP carrying a vote the Parliament of India).
value of 708. The vote weight of an MLA depends on II. Elected members of the Lok Sabha (lower house of
the population of the state he or she represents. the Parliament of India).
II. For the purpose of calculation of value of votes of III. Elected members of each state Vidhan Sabha (lower
MPs / MLAs in President’s Election, the population house of the state legislature).
of Census 1971 in considered. IV. Elected members of each union territory possessing
Which of the following is correct? an assembly (i.e., Delhi and Pudducherry).
(a) Only I (b) Only II V. Elected members of each state Vidhan Parishad
(c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor II (upper house of the state legislature).
Ans. (c) In relation to the election of President of India– (a) I, II, III and IV (b) I, II and III
1. The total value of votes in president election is about 10,98,903 (c) I and II (d) All of the above
votes with each MP Carrying a vote value of 708. The vote weight of
Ans. (a) The electoral college of the President of India contains
an MLA depends on the population of the state he or she represents.
elected members of the Rajya Sabha, Lok Sabh, Eacha State Vidhan
2. For the purpose of calculation of value of votes of MPs/
Sabha members and each union territory possessing an assembly.
MLAs in president’s Election, the population of the census 1971 is
considered. 117. The main advantage of the parliamentary form of
112. The value of votes of electors (voters) of elector college government is that [IAS-2017]
of the president is basically determined on the basis of (a) the executive and legislature work independently.
population of the states, as per the census data of – (b) it provides continuity of policy and is more efficient.
(a) Census of India 1971 (b) Census of India 1981 (c) the executive remains responsible to the legislature.
(c) Census of India 1991 (d) Census of India 2001 (d) the head of the government cannot be changed
without election.
Ans. (a) Since population figures are dynamic and keep changing
every year, it has been decided through the 84th Constitutional Ans. (c) New NCERT, Std. 11, Introduction to Indian Constitution,
Amendment, that until the population figures for the first census after page 91: Parliamentary system is also known as Cabinet Government.
2026 are published (in other words, 2031 census), the population of It provides for collective responsibility of the executive to the
the States for the purpose of this calculation will mean the population legislature.Hence answer “C”.
as per the 1971 census. 118. Out of the following statements, choose the one that
113. Who votes in the election of Vice President of India? brings out the principle underlying the Cabinet form of
(a) All the members of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha Government: [IAS-2017]
(b) All the Members of Parliament and members of (a) An arrangement for minimizing the criticism against
legislative assemblies the Government whose responsibilities are complex
(c) Elected MPs and MLAs and hard to carry out to the satisfaction of all.
(d) All of the MPs , MLAs and MLCs (b) A mechanism for speeding up the activities of the
Government whose responsibilities are increasing day
Ans. (a) All the members of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha votes in
the election of Vice–President of India.
by day.
(c) A mechanism of parliamentary democracy for
114. If the election of the President of India is declared void ensuring collective responsibility of the Government
by the Supreme Court, the acts performed by President to the people.
incumbent before the date of such decision of court remain– (d) A device for strengthening the hands of the head of
[CDS-2017] the Government whose hold over the people is in a
(a) Valid state of decline.
(b) Invalid Ans. (b) NCERT Class 9: Democratic Politics: Chapter 5: Working
(c) Valid Subject to the judicial review of the institutions, page 87
(d) Valid Subject to the approval of the parliament • Since it is not practical for all ministers to meet regularly
and discuss everything, (hence) the decisions are taken in Cabinet
Ans. (a) If the election of the President of India is declared void meetings. That is why parliamentary democracy in most countries is
by the Supreme Court, the acts performed by President incumbent often known as the Cabinet form of government. Hence “B” is the
before the date of such decision of court remain valid.\ answer.
119. Which of the following prefix President Pranab Mukherjee Ans. (a) The prime minister acts as the head of the executive and is
desires to be discontinued while interacting with Indian responsible for running the Union Government.
dignitaries as well as in official notings ?
[UGC December 2012] 125. Which of the following statements as per the Constitution
1. His Excellency 2. Mahamahim of India are not correct ? [CDS 2019-II]
3. Hon’ble 4. Shri/Smt. 1. The President tenders his resignation to the Chief
Select the correct answer from the codes given below : Justice of India.
Codes : 2. The Vice-President tenders his resignation to the
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 President of India.
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3 3. The Comptroller and Auditor General of India is
removed from his office in the like manner as the
Ans. (c) Ex President Pranab Mukherjee desires to be discontinued
the prefixes ‘His Excellency and Mahamahim’ while interacting with President of India.
Indian dignitaries as well as in official notings. 4. A Judge of the Supreme Court can resign his office
by writing under his hand addressed to the Chief
120. The President of India takes oath [UGC June 2012] Justice of India.
(a) to uphold the sovereignty and integrity of India. Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(b) to bear true faith and allegiance to the Constitution of (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 and 4 only
India. (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 3 and 4
(c) to uphold the Constitution and Laws of the country. Ans. (d) President removal from office is to be in accordance with
(d) to preserve, protect and defend the Constitution and procedure prescribed in Article 61 of the Constitution. He may, by
the law of the country. writing under his hand addressed to the Vice-President, resign his
Ans. (d) The President of India takes oath to preserve, protect and office. Comptroller and Auditor General of India can be removed
defend the Constitution and the law of the country. by the President only in accordance with the procedure mentioned
in the Constitution that is the manner same as removal of a Supreme
121. The President of India is [UGC June 2011] Court Judge. A Judge of SC may resign his office, by submitting his
(a) the Head of State resignation letter to the President.
(b) the Head of Government
(c) both Head of the State and the Head of the Government 126. The total number of members in the Union Council of
(d) None of the above Ministers in India shall not exceed [CDS 2019-II]
(a) 10% of the total number of members of the Parliament
Ans. (c) The President of India is t he state of the Republic of India. (b) 15% of the total number of members of the Parliament
The President is the formal head of t he executive, legislature and
(c) 10% of the total number of members of the Lok
judiciary of India and is also the commander-in-chief of the Indian
Armed Forces.
Sabha
(d) 15% of the total number of members of the Lok
122. Who among the following holds office during the pleasure Sabha
of the President of India? [UGC June 2011] Ans. (d) All union cabinet members shall submit in writing to the
(a) Chief Election Commissioner President to propose proclamation of emergency by the president in
(b) Comptroller and Auditor General of India accordance with Article 352. According to the Constitution of India,
(c) Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission the total number of ministers in the council of ministers must not
(d) Governor of a State exceed 15% of the total number of members of the Lok Sabha.
Ans. (b) The appointment to all constitutional posts is made by 127. Which one among the following statements pertaining to
the President of India. This includes the Chief justice, the Election
Commissioner, the CVC and the Chairman of the UPSC and also the
the President’s term of office is not correct?
officers of All India Services. Chairman of the Union Public Service [CDS 2020-II]
Commission holds office during the pleasure of the President of India. (a) The President holds office for a term of five years
123. If the posts of the President and Vice-president fall vacant, (b) The President may be removed from the office by
who will act as the President of India? way of impeachment
(a) Speaker of Lok Sabha (c) The President may resign before the expiration of his/
(b) Prime Minister of India her term by writing to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(c) Chief Justice of India (d) The President shall, notwithstanding the expiration
(d) Union Council of Ministers of his/her term, continue to hold office until his/her
successor enters upon his/her office.
Ans. (c) The Chief Justice of India will act as the President of
India if the post of the President and Vice President falls vacant. Ans. (c)
For instance, when Zakir Hussain died suddenly on 3rd May, 1969,
128. With reference to Prime Minister’s Officer (PMO) which
the then Vice President of India Mr. V.V. Giri became the acting
President. Later, V.V. resigned from both offices as acting President one of the statements is/are correct?
and Vice President. Muhammad Hidayatullah, the Chief Justice of [UPPSC Prelims 2019]
India then served as the President of India. 1. It came into existence in 1977.
2. It is headed by the Cabinet Secretary.
124. In India who is the executive head of the state? Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) Prime Minister Codes:
(b) The President (a) Only 2 (b) Both 1 and 2
(c) The Chief justice of Supreme Court (c) Only 1 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) The Governor
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C-84 INDIAN POLITY
Ans. (d) The PMO is a staff agency meant for providing secretarial Codes:
assistance and crucial advice to the Prime Minister. The PMO came A B C D
into existence in 1947 by replacing the Secretary to the Governor- (a) 3 4 1 2
General (Personal). Till June 1977, it was called as the Prime (b) 4 3 2 1
Minister’s Secretariat (PMS).The PMO is headed politically, by the (c) 3 4 2 1
Prime Minister and administratively, by the Principal Secretary. (d) 4 3 1 2
Functions Ans. (b) The President of India takes the oath of upholding the
Assisting the Prime Minister in respect of his overall responsibilities constitution and the law. The judges of the Supreme Court affirm
as head of the government like: Maintaining liaison with central to take faith in and swear allegiance to the Indian Constitution. The
ministries or departments and the state governments. MPs or the members of Parliament swear to faithfully discharge their
Acting as the ‘think-tank’ of the Prime Minister. that is, it deals with duties. The Ministers for the Union take an oath towards secrecy of
all such subjects which are not allotted to any ministry/department. information.
It is not concerned with the responsibilities of Prime Minister as the
6. Which of the following constitutional provisions facilitate
chairman of the Union Cabinet.
Union control over States ?
1. All-India services
Union Judiciary 2. Grants-in-aid
1. The guardian of fundamental rights is 3. Inter-State Councils
(a) Judiciary (b) Executive Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
(c) Parliament (d) None of above (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
Ans. (a) Judiciary is the guardian of fundamental rights. (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
2. Which article of the Constitution permits the Supreme Ans. (d)
Court to review its own judgment or order? 7. What does the ‘Judicial Review’ function of the Supreme
(a) Article 137 (b) Article 130 Court mean?
(c) Article 139 (c) Article 138 (a) Review its own judgment
Ans. (a) Article 137 of the Constitution permits the Supreme Court (b) Review the functioning of judiciary in the country
to review its own judgement or order. (c) Examine the constitutional validity of the constitution
Article 130 deals, with seat of supreme court. Article 138 enlargement (d) Examine the judicial amendments
of the jurisdiction of the supreme court mentioned. Article 139 refers Ans. (c) The ‘judicial review’ function of the Supreme Court means
conferment on the supreme court of powers to issue certain writs. to examine the constitutional validity of laws. Judicial review is the
doctrine under which legislative and executive actions are subject to
3. Consider the following functionaries
review (and possible invalidation) by the judiciary.
1. Cabinet Secretary
2. Chief Election Commissioner 8. The disputes regarding the election of the President and
3. Union Cabinet Minister Vice-President of India are decided by the-
4. Chief Justice of India (a) Parliament
Their correct sequence, in the order of precedence is (b) Election Commission
(a) 3, 4, 2, 1 (b) 4, 3, 1, 2 (c) Supreme Court
(c) 4, 3, 2, 1 (d) 3, 4, 1, 2 (d) High Court
Ans. (c) The order of precedence of the functionaries given in the Ans. (c) According to Article 71 of the Constitution, all doubts
options are chief justice of India> cabinet Minister of the Union > and disputes arising out of or in connection with the election of a
Chief Election commissioner > Cabinet secretary. President or Vice-President shall be inquired into and decided by the
Supreme Court.
4. How is legislative excess of Parliament and State
Assemblies checked? 9. How many types of writs can be issued by the Supreme
(a) Intervention from President/Governor Court?
(b) No- confidence motions (a) 2 (b) 3
(c) Judicial review (c) 5 (d) 6
(d) General elections Ans. (c) There are 5 types of writs which can be issued by the
Ans. (c) The legislative excess of parliament and state assemblies Supreme Court. They are Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition,
checked by judicial review of Supreme Court. Certiorari, & Quo Warranto.
5. Match list I with list II and select the correct answer using 10. The Supreme Court of India enjoys
the codes given below the lists : (a) Original jurisdiction
List I List II (b) Advisory jurisdiction
(Functionaries) (Oaths or affirmations) (c) Appellate and advisory jurisdictions
A. President of India 1. Secrecy of (d) Original, appellate and advisory jurisdictions.
Information Ans. (d) The Supreme Court has originally jurisdiction i.e. cases
B. Judges of Supreme 2. Faithful discharge which can originate with the Supreme Court alone over disputes
Court of duties between (a) the Government of India and one or more states (b) the
C. Members of 3. Faith and Allegiance Government of India and any state and states on one side and one or
Parliament to the constitution more state on the other (c) two or more states.
of India
11. What makes the judiciary the guardian of the constitution?
D. Minister for 4. Upholding the
(a) Independence (b) Service conditions
the Union constitution and the (c) Salary (d) Judicial Review
law
Ans. (d) Because the Supreme Court is given the power to protect, Ans. (d) The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide
safeguard and uphold the Constitution and empowered to declare a disputes between the centre and the states falls under its original
law null and void if it is found to be inconsistent with the Constitution. jurisdiction. The original jurisdiction of a court is the power to hear
a case for the first time, as opposed to appellate jurisdiction, when a
12. On which of the following grounds can a judge of the court has the power to review a lower court’s decision.
Supreme Court be impeached? [NDA-2017] Advisory jurisdiction mentioned under article 143. Appellate
(a) Violation of constitution jurisdiction comes under article 132. It is the power of a higher court
(b) Proved misbehaviours to review decisions and change outcomes of decisions of lower court.
(c) Incapacity to act as a judge In constitutional jurisdiction the power and authority conferred upon
(d) (b) & (c) both a court or judge to pronounce the sentence of law, provided by law
Ans. (d) A judge of the Supreme Court can be removed under the upon a state of facts.
Constitution only on grounds of proven misconduct or incapacity
18. Sovereignty of Indian Parliament is restricted by:
and by an order of the President of India, after a notice signed by
at least 100 members of the Lok Sabha (House of the People) or 50 (a) Powers of the President of India
members of the Rajya Sabha (Council of the States) is passed by a (b) Judicial Review
two-third majority in each House of the Parliament. (c) Powers of the Prime Minister of India
(d) Leader of the opposition
13. Public Interest Litigation (PIL) may be linked with
(a) judicial review (b) judicial activism Ans. (b) Sovereignty of Indian parliament is restricted by judicial
(c) judicial intervention (d) judicial sanctity review. The concept also holds that the legislative body may change
or repeal any previous legislation, and so that it is not bound by
Ans. (b) Public Interest litigation (PIL) may be linked with judicial written law (in some cases, even a constitution) or by precedent.
activism. Judicial review is a process under which executive and
legislative actions are subject to review by the judiciary. 19. Who of the following Chief Justice of India acted as the
President of India also?
14. Who held the power to increase the number of judges in
the Supreme Court? (a) Justice M. Hidayatullah
(a) Prime Minister (b) President (b) Justice P.N. Bhagwati
(c) Parliament (d) Ministry of Law (c) Justice Mehar Chand Mahajan
Ans. (c) Article 124 of the Constitution provides that the Supreme
(d) Justice B.K. Mukherjee
Court shall consist of a Chief Justice and not more than seven judges. Ans. (a) The CJI, Justice Hidayatullah then became the acting
The Parliament is empowered to increase the number of judges by law. President of India. When the newly elected President took office a
month later, Justice Hidayatullah reverted as the Chief Justice of India.
15. Acting Chief Justice of the Supreme Court in India is P.M. Bhagwati - 17th Chief Justice of India (1985-1986)
appointed by the Mehar Chand Mahajan - Ist Prime minister of Jammu & Kashmir 3rd
(a) Chief Justice of Supreme Court Chief Justice of India (1954)
(b) Prime Minister • B.K. Mukharjee - 4th Chief Justice of India (1954-1956)
(c) President
(d) Law Minister 20. The Indian Constitution provides for the appointment of
Adhoc judges in:
Ans. (c) The President of India appoints the Chief Justice of
Supreme court as per the following procedure. (a) Supreme Court
1. The Government of India proposes the name of the most senior (b) High Court
Judge of the Supreme Court of India, for the Post of Chief Justice of (c) District and Session Court
India, to the President of India. (d) All of these
2. The President of India gives approval to this name, after
consultation with the other Judges of the Supreme Court and the Ans. (a) The Indian Constitution provides for the appointment
Judges of State High Courts, as the President may think necessary. of Ad hoc judge in supreme court. A Judge of a High Court duly
qualified for appointment as a Judge of the Supreme Court to be
16. Who has the right to seek advisory opinion of the Supreme designated by the Chief Justice of India.
Court of India, on any question of law? 21. Salaries of the judges of the Supreme Court are determined
(a) Prime Minister by:
(b) President (a) Pay Commission appointed by the President
(c) Any judge of the High Court (b) Law Commission
(d) All of the above (c) Parliament
Ans. (b) According to Article 143 of the Constitution of India, the (d) Council of Ministers
President of India can request the Supreme Court of India to provide
Ans. (c) Article 125 of the Indian Constitution leaves it to the
its advice on certain matters. This procedure is called “Presidential
Indian Parliament to determine the salary, other allowances, leave of
Reference”.
absence, pension, etc. of the Supreme Court judges.
17. The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes
22. Which of the following courts in India is/are known as the
between the Centre and the State falls under its _________
court(s) of Records?
(a) Advisory Jurisdiction
(a) The High Court only
(b) Appellate Jurisdiction
(b) The Supreme Court only
(c) Constitutional Jurisdiction
(c) The High Court and Supreme Court
(d) Original Jurisdiction
(d) The District Court
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C-86 INDIAN POLITY
Ans. (c) A court of record is a court whose acts and proceedings M. Hidayatullah - 11th chief Justice of India. He also served as Vice
are enrolled for perpetual memory and testimony. These records are President and acting President of India.
used with a high authority and their truth cannot be questioned. In A.M. Ahmadi - 26th Chief Justice of India. Ex vice chancellor of
Indian constitution article 129 makes the Supreme Court the ‘court AMU (1994-1997).
of record”. Article 215 empowers the High Courts of the states to be A.S. Anand - 29th Chief Justice of India (1998-2001).
courts of record.
29. Judicial Review’s Doctrine of Partial Annulment is related
23. The system of Judicial Review exists in to which article of the Constitution?
(a) India only (b) U.K. only (a) Article 13 (b) Article 32
(c) U.S.A. only (d) India and U.S.A. (c) Article 141 (d) Article 246
Ans. (d) The system of judicial review exists in India and U.S.A. Ans. (a) Article 13 of the Indian Constitution deals with the Judicial
Judicial review is the power of a court to review the constitutionality review.
of a statute or treaty, or to review an administrative regulation for
consistency with either a statute, a treaty, or the Constitution itself. 30. Original jurisdiction of Supreme Court is mentioned in
In U.K. tribunal system is part of the administrative justice. which of the following articles of Indian Constitution?
24. Which article of the Constitution permits the Supreme
Court to review its own judgement or order?
(a) Article 137 (b) Article 138 Ans. (a) Article 131 of the Constitution of India deals with the
(c) Article 139 (d) Article 140 original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India.
Ans. (a) Article 137 of the constitution permits the supreme court 31. Which article of Indian Constitution provides an advisory
to review its own judgment or order. Article 137 of the Constitution jurisdiction to the Supreme Court? [NDA-2017]
provides that subject to provisions of any law and rule made under (a) Article 129 (b) Article 132
Article 145 the Supreme Court of India has the power to review any (c) Article 143 (d) Article 32
judgement pronounced (or order made) by it.
Ans. (c) Article 143 of Indian Constitution provides an advisory
Article 138 - Enlargement of the jurisdiction of the Supreme court. jurisdiction to the Supreme Court.
Article 139 - Conferment on the supreme court of powers to certain
writes. 32. Reasonable restrictions under Article 19(2) can be imposed
Article 140 - Ancillary powers of supreme court. on the ground of
(a) Defection
25. Who is the custodian of Indian Constitution? (b) Contempt of court
(a) President (b) Parliament (c) Death of the PM
(c) Council Court (d) Supreme Court (d) Signing of a trade treaty with a country
Ans. (d) The Supreme Court of India is regarded as the guardian Ans. (b) According to Article 19(2), Nothing in sub clause (a) of
of the Constitution. It is the Supreme or final interpreter of the clause (1) shall affect the operation of any existing law, or prevent the
Constitution. The interpretation of the Constitution given by the State from making any law, in so far as such law imposes reasonable
Supreme Court is to be respected. Council court is a legislative body restrictions on the exercise of the right conferred by the said sub
of Local bodies. i.e. Bar council of India. clause in the interests of the sovereignty and integrity of India.
26. Who has the right to transfer any case anywhere in India? 33. In Indian Constitution the power to issue a writ of ‘Habeas
(a) President (b) Supreme Court corpus’ is vested only in-
(c) High Court (d) None of these (a) The Supreme Court
Ans. (b) Supreme Court has the power to transfer any Case, appeal (b) The High Court
or other proceedings from High Court or other court in one State to a (c) The Supreme Court and the High Court
High Court or other civil court in any other State. (d) Lower Courts
Ans. (c) In Indian constitution, the power to issue a writ of ‘Habeas
27. Who is the final authority to interpret the Constitution? Corpus’ is vested only in the Supreme Court and the High Court. A
(a) The President (b) The Parliament writ of habeas corpus is a writ (court order) that requires a person
(c) The Lok Sabha (d) The Supreme Court under arrest to be brought before a judge or into court. The principle
Ans. (d) The Supreme Court of India is regarded as the guardian of habeas corpus ensures that a prisoner can be released from
of the Constitution. It is the Supreme or final interpreter of the unlawful detention.
Constitution. The interpretation of the Constitution given by the
34. The Federal court of India was established in
Supreme Court is to be respected.
(a) 1947 (b) 1946
28. Who was the Chief Justice of India when public Interest (c) 1935 (d) 1937
Litigation (PIL) was introduced to the Indian judicial Ans. (d) The Federal Court of India was a judicial body, established
system? in India in 1937 under the provisions of the Government of India Act
(a) M. Hidayatullah (b) A.M. Ahmadi 1935, with original, appellate and advisory jurisdiction. It functioned
(c) P.N. Bhagwati (d) A.S. Anand until 1950, when the Supreme Court of India was established.
Ans. (c) P.N. Bhagwati was the chief justice of India when public 35. Judicial Review signifies that the Supreme Court
interest Litigation (PIL) was introduced to the Indian judicial system. (a) has final authority in overall cases
The concept of Public Interest Litigation (PIL) is in consonance with (b) can declare a state law as unconstitutional
the principles enshrined in Article 39A of the Constitution of India to (c) can review cases whose decisions have been given by
protect and deliver prompt social justice with the help of law. Justice High Court
P. N. Bhagwati and Justice V. R. Krishna Iyer were among the first
judges to admit PILs in court.
Ans. (c) Supreme Court can review cases whose decisions have (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct
been given by High Court. explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the
36. Judicial Review in the Indian Constitution is based on correct explanation of A
which of the following ? (c) A is true but R is false
(a) Rule of law
(b) Due process of Law
(c) Procedure established by law Ans. (d) A is false but R is true
(d) Conventions
43. To be eligible to be appointed as a Judge of Supreme Court
Ans. (c) Judicial Review is based on procedure established by law. of India,how long a person should have practised in a High
37. The Provisions concerning the powers of the Union Court?
judiciary in the constitution can be amended by (a) 10 Years (b) 15 Years
(a) Simple majority of the Parliament (c) 12 Years (d) 5 Years
(b) Two-third majority of the Parliament Ans. (a) Article 124 (3) of the constitution prescribes that for
(c) Two-third majority of the Parliament and the majority appointment as a judge of the Supreme Court a person must be; (a) a
of states citizen of India,(b) has been a judge of any High Court for at least 5
(d) None of the above years, or(c) has been an advocate in a High Court for 10 years or is in
Ans. (c) Power of Union Judiciary can be amended by two-third the opinion of the President a distinguished jurist.
majority of the Parliament and the majority of states. 44. The number of judges can be modified in the Supreme
38. Justice is essentially a Court by
(a) Moral concept (a) Presidential Order
(b) Social concept (b) Supreme Court by Notification
(c) Legal concept (c) Parliament by Law
(d) Complex concept combining all the above concepts (d) Central Government by notification
Ans. (d) Justice is essentially a moral, social & legal concept. Ans. (c) The no judges can be modified in the court supreme court
by parliament by laws.
39. The Supreme Court of India declares by issuing a writ that
“respondent was not entitled to an office he was holding or 45. In which year Supreme Court of India came into being?
a privilege he was exercising”. Which writ is that? (a) 1937 January 28 (b) 1947 January 28
(a) Habeas Corpus (b) Quo Warranto (c) 1950 January 28 (d) 1949 January 28
(c) Prohibition (d) Certiorari
Ans. (c) On the 28th of January, 1950, two days after India became
Ans. (b) The given provision came under a writ Quo Warranto a Sovereign Democratic Republic, the Supreme Court came into
issued by the Supreme Court of India. Quo warranto (Medieval Latin being. The inauguration took place in the Chamber of Princes in the
for “by what warrant?”) is a prerogative writ requiring the person to Parliament building which also housed India’s Parliament, consisting
whom it is directed to show what authority they have for exercising of the Council of States and the House of the People.
some right or power (or “franchise”) they claim to hold.
40. What is the objective advocated for appointment of the (a) A tenant can be evicted for abuse or threat to landlord
National Judicial Commission?
or landlady.
(a) Training of the judges
(b) A father neglected by his son is legally entitled to
(b) Reforms in legal system
(c) Bringing about transparency and impartiality in the execute a will bequeathing his property in favour of
appointment of judges of the highest level. his relatives.
(d) To examine the working period of the judges. Which of following senetence (S) is/are corrcet?
Ans. (c) The main objective advocated for appointment of the
National Judicial Commission is bringing about transparency and (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
impartiality in the appointment of judges of the highest level. Ans. (c) Both the given sentence are correct.
41. How can the number of judges in the Supreme Court in 47. The Supreme Courts of India enjoys
India be increased ? (a) Original jurisdiction
(a) Representation from the Supreme Court (b) Original, appellate and advisory jurisdiction
(b) By amendment of the Constitution (c) Advisory jurisdiction
(c) By a Parliamentary Act (d) Appellate and advisory jurisdiction
(d) By Presidential notification
Ans. (b) The supreme court of India enjoys original, appellate and
Ans. (b) By amendment of constitution number of judges in the advisory jurisdiction.
supreme court in India be increased.
48. The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide
42. Assertion (A): A Habeas Corpus writ petition dismissed disputes between the Centre and the States falls under its
by the Supreme Court can be admitted by the High Court (a) Advisory Jurisdiction
under article 226 of the Constitution. (b) Appellate Jurisdiction
Reason (R): In exercising writ jurisdiction, the powers of (c) constitutional Jurisdiction
the Supreme Court and High Court are concurrent. (d) Original Jurisdiction
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Ans. (d) The jurisdiction of the Supreme Court may be categorised IV. Judicial decisions of superior courts
as original, appellate and advisory. Under the Original Jurisdiction, Choose the answer from the code:
the Supreme Court can settle disputes (a) between the Centre and one (a) I and II (b) I, II and IV
or more States; (b) between the Centre and any State or States on the (c) II and IV (d) I, II, III and IV
one side and one or more other States on the other; or (c) between Ans. (d) The fountain source of law in India is the Constitution
two or more States. which, in turn, gives due recognition to statutes, case law and
customary law consistent with its dispensations. Statutes are enacted
49. Which one of the following is correct about the Supreme by Parliament, State Legislatures and Union Territory Legislatures.
Court regarding its judgement? [CDS-2017] There is also a vast body of laws known as subordinate legislation
(a) It cannot change the judgement in the form of rules, regulations as well as by-laws made by
(b) Only the Chief Justice of India can change the Central and State Governments and local authorities like Municipal
judgement Corporations, Municipalities, Gram Panchayats and other local
(c) It can change the judgement bodies. This subordinate legislation is made under the authority
(d) Only the Ministry of Law can change the judgement. conferred or delegated either by Parliament or State or Union
Ans. (c) Supreme Court can only change its position in a case Territory Legislature concerned. The decisions of the Supreme Court
decided earlier by it where it considers for good and substantial are binding on all Courts within the territory of India.
reasons to overrule itself on an application if the need arises. 55. The Constitution allows preventive detention but stipulates:
50. Which one of the following subjects comes under the (a) that no one should be detained beyond three months
common jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and the High unless an Advisory Board authorises detention beyond
Court? that period
(a) Protection of the Fundamental Rights (b) that the grounds for detention should be conveyed to
the detenu before arresting him
(b) Mutual disputes among the states (c) that the detenu must be produced before the nearest
(c) Disputes between Centre and States magistrate within a period of 24 hours of his arrest
(d) Protection from the violation of the Constitution (d) All of the above
Ans. (a) Protection of fundamental rights come under the common Ans. (a) Article 22 (4) provides that no law providing for preventive
jurisdiction of the supreme court and high court. detention shall authorise the detention of a person for a longer period
than 3 months unless an Advisory Board consisting of persons who
51. All proceedings in the Supreme Court and in every High are, or have been, or are qualified to be appointed as Judges of a
Court will be in: High Court, has reported before the expiration of the said period of 3
(a) Hindi (b) English months that there is in it’s opinion sufficient cause for such detention.
(c) Hindi and English (d) Hindi or English
Ans. (b) The constitution provides that all proceedings in the 56. Which of the following articles makes the Supreme Court
Supreme Court of India, the country’s highest court and the High a Court of Record?
Courts, shall be in English. Parliament has the power to alter this by
(a) 127 (b) 128 (c) 129 (d) 130
law, but has not done so. Ans. (c) According to Article 129 of the Constitution Supreme
Court to be a court of record. The Supreme Court shall be a court
52. The minimum number of judges to sit on the Constitutional of record and shall have all the powers of such a court including the
Bench or on Bench which gives its advisory opinion on the power to punish for contempt of itself.
reference by the President must be:
(a) One half of the total strength of the Supreme Court 57. What is the number of Judges (including Chief Justice) in
(b) Seven the Supreme Court of India as provided in the Constitution
(c) Three of India?
(d) One-third of the total strength of the court (a) 20 (b) 24 (c) 26 (d) 34
Ans. (a) Court’s advisory jurisdiction may be sought by the Ans. (d) The Supreme Court originally consisted of a Chief-Justice
President under Article 143 of the Constitution. This procedure and seven other judges. In 1985, the strength was increased. It
is termed as “Presidential Reference” and is recognized as the comprises the chief justice and not more than 25 other judge. With a
‘Advisory jurisdiction’ of the Court. The minimum number of huge backlog of cases in the top court, the government had increased
judges to sit on the Constitutional Bench or on Bench which gives its the strength at its judge to 31 and then after 31 to 34 including CJI.
advisory opinion on the reference by the President must be one half
of the total strength of the Supreme Court.
58. On which of the following grounds can a Judge of the
Supreme Court or a High Court be impeached?
53. Which is not a correct statement? The Supreme Court: 1. Violation of the Constitution
(a) is a watch-dog of citizen’s liberty 2. Proved misbehaviour
(b) settles electoral disputes of the President and Vice- 3. Incapacity
President of India Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(c) interprets the Constitution
(d) protects the Directive Principles of State Policy (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 3
Ans. (d) The Directive Principles of State Policy are guidelines/
principles given to the central and state governments of India, to Ans. (d) The Judge of the Supreme Court or a High Court can be
be kept in mind while framing laws and policies. These provisions, impeached on the basis of proved misbehaviour and incapacity.
contained in Part IV of the Constitution of India, are not enforceable 59. Public Interest Litigation (PIL) may be linked with
by any court. (a) judicial review (b) judicial activism
54. The main sources of law in India are: (c) judicial intervention (d) judicial sanctity
I. The Constitution Ans. (b) Public Interest litigation (PIL) may be linked with judicial
II. Statutes activism in India.
III. Customary law
60. Consider the following statements and select the correct 65. Among the three types of alternative dispute resolutions-
answer: arbitration, conciliation and mediation, the award is
1. The original jurisdiction of Supreme Court extends binding in the following
only to any dispute between the government of India (a) Arbitration (b) Conciliation
and one or more States. (c) Mediation (d) None of these
2. The Supreme Court also has an appellate jurisdiction
over all courts and tribunals in India Ans. (a) The award is binding in the arbitration among the three
3. The Supreme Court has special advisory jurisdiction types of alternative dispute resolution—arbitration, conciliation and
in matters which may specifically be referred to it by mediation.
the president of India
Codes: 66. The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only disputes between the centre and the states falls under its :
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) All the above (a) Advisory jurisdiction
Ans. (c) The exclusive original jurisdiction of Supreme Court extends (b) Appellate jurisdiction
to any dispute between the government of India and one or more (c) Original jurisdiction
states, if and insofar as the dispute involves any question on which (d) Constitutional jurisdiction
the existence or extent of a legal right depends. Ans. (c) Under Article 131, disputes between different units of the
61. In the following cases, the Supreme Court has no Federation will be within the exclusive original jurisdiction of the
adjudicatory jurisdiction to change the award Supreme Court. Subject to the provisions of this Constitution, the
(a) Inter state river water disputes Supreme Court shall, to the exclusion of any other court, has original
(b) Delimitation of constitution jurisdiction in any dispute (a) between the Government of India and
(c) Both (a) and (b) one or more States; or (b) between the Government of India and any
(d) Neither (a) nor (b) State or States on one side and one or more other States on the other;
or (c) between two or more States.
Ans. (c) The supreme court has no adjudicatory jurisdiction to
change the award in the case of interstate river water disputes and 67. The power to enlarge the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court
delimitation of constitution. of India with respect to any matter included in the Union
list of legislative powers rests with:
62. The minimum number of judges who are to sit for the (a) The President of India
purpose of deciding any case involving any substantial (b) The Chief Justice of India
question of law for the purpose of hearing any reference
(c) The Parliament
under Art 143 shall be
(a) Five (b) Seven (d) The Union Ministry of Law
(c) Nine (d) Eleven Ans. (c) The parliament can regulate the organization and
jurisdiction of the Supreme Court. It can expand the jurisdiction but
Ans. (a) The minimum number of judges who are to sit for the
can’t curtail the same.
purpose of hearing any reference under Article 143 shall be five. If
at any time it appears to the President that a question of law or fact 68. Article 136 of Indian Constitution authorizes the Supreme
has arisen, or is likely to arise, which is of such a nature and of such
Court to grant special leave to appeal. Which of the
public importance that it is expedient to obtain the opinion of the
Supreme Court upon it, he may refer the question to that Court for following statement is not correct with respect to ‘Appeal
consideration and the Court may, after such hearing as it thinks fit, by Special Leave’? [NDA-2017]
report to the President its opinion thereon. (a) It is a discretionary power of the Supreme Court
63. Supreme Court has exclusive jurisdiction under the (b) It can be granted against any court or tribunal
following article in relation to including the military court
1. Constitutional cases (c) It can be related to any matter
2. Federal cases (d) None of these
3. Cases related to directive principles of state policy Ans. (b) According to Article 136, ‘Appeal by special leave’ can be
4. River water disputes. granted against any court or tribunal including the military court.
Codes:
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only 69. Consider the following statements:
(c) 2 only (d) 1,2 and 3 1. There is no provision in the Constitution of India
Ans. (c) Supreme Court has exclusive jurisdiction in relation to for the impeachment of a judge of the High Court or
federal Cases. Supreme Court.
2. The parliament is not empowered to discuss the
64. Special leave petition power of the Supreme Court does not
conduct of any judge of the Supreme Court or a High
extend to the following judgements, decrees etc.
1. interim order Court and the protection in this regard is applied to
2. Any court or tribunal constituted by or under any law his judicial duties as well as his private conduct.
relating to the Armed forces Which of the Statements given above is/are correct?
3. Criminal cases. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) 3 only (d) 2 only Ans. (a) The parliament is not empowered to discuss the conduct of
Ans. (d) Special leave petition power of the SC does not to the any judge of the Supreme Court, or a High Court but the protection
judgment of any court or tribunal constituted by or under any law of the judge in this regard is restricted to his official duties and does
relating to the Armed Forces not apply to his private conduct.
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C-90 INDIAN POLITY
70. Consider the following regarding death penalty Reason (R) : The source of the power of judicial review
1. Indian law permits execution only in the cases of is Article 13 of the Constitution.
‘rarest of rare’ crimes. Codes :
2. In India pardoning power of the president with respect (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct
to death sentence is decided by the president as per explanation of A
recommendations of the Union Home Ministry. (b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the
3. Recently, China, Pakistan, voted against a UN correct explanation of A
resolution on calling for a ban on capital punishment (c) A is true but R is false
while India supported the resolution. (d) A is false but R is true
Which of the following given statements is/are correct? Ans. (b) The Indian Constitution adopted the Judicial Review
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only on lines of U.S. Constitution. Parliament is not supreme under the
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 nor 3 Constitution of India. Its powers are limited in a manner that the
Ans. (b) India was among the 39 countries that voted against a UN power is divided between centre and states.
General Assembly draft resolution which called for abolishing the Moreover the Supreme Court enjoys a position which entrusts it with
death Penalty. the power of reviewing the legislative enactments both of Parliament
and the State Legislatures. This grants the court a powerful instrument
71. Which of the following statements are correct regarding of judicial review under the constitution.
the Fast Track Courts (FTCs) in India?
1. The FTCs were started by the Central govern-ment 74. Consider the following statements and select the correct
pursuant to the observations of the First National answer from the codes given below :
Judicial Pay Commission, 1999, the 120th Report of Assertion (A): The rule-making power of the Supreme
the Law Commission on Manpower Planning in the Court is not subject to any law made by
judiciary, the Parliament of India.
2. The FTCs are established to expeditiously dispose of Reason (R) : Only an impartial and independent
long pending cases in the Sessions Courts and long judiciary can protect the rights of the
pending cases of undertrial prisoners. individual without fear or favour.
3. When judges were appointed to the FTCs, their service Codes :
conditions were settled by the framing of rules which (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct
were done in consultation with the High Courts of the explanation of A
States. (b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the
Select the answer from the code given below: correct explanation of A
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) A is true but R is false
(c) 1 and 2 (d) All of the above (d) A is false but R is true
Ans. (d)
Ans. (d) A unique feature of the FTCs is to prove to be cost effective.
This is so because the new courts charged with the exclusive work 75. Which of the following statements regarding Supreme
of disposing of undertrial cases in the first year of their existence. A Court of India are correct ?
large majority of undertrials being those who had been booked for 1. It has the power to entertain appeal from any court or
petty/minor offences, they are bound to be discharged forthwith as
most of them have been behind bars for periods which are longer
tribunal within India.
than the punishment warranted by the offence. In plain terms, this 2. It has the power to deliver advisory opinion on any
mean a huge saving in jail expenditure. question of fact or law referred to it by the President.
72. Consider the following statements and select the correct 3. Salaries of the Judges of the Supreme Court are
answer from the codes given below : subject to vote by the Parliament.
Assertion (A): The Supreme Court is a Court of Record. 4. Its jurisdiction is binding on all other courts within
Reason (R) : Once a Court is made a Court of Record, India.
its power to punish for its contempt Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
necessarily follows form that position. (a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 4
Codes : (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct Ans. (d) The Supreme Court is the highest Court appeal from all
explanation of A courts in India. It hears appeals in (i) cases involving interpretation
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the of the constitution- civil, Criminal or otherwise (Article 132) (ii)
correct explanation of A Civil cases irrespective of any constitutional issue (Article. 133)
(c) A is true but R is false (iii) Criminal matters irrespective of any constitutional issue (134).
(d) A is false but R is true Besides, the Supreme Court may grant special leave to appeal in
Ans. (b) According to Article 129 the Supreme Court to be a court certain cases (136).
of record. The Supreme Court shall be a court of record and shall The Supreme Court renders advice on any question of law or fact
have all the powers of such a court including the power to punish for of public importance as may be referred to it for consideration by
contempt of itself. R is not the correct explanation of A. the President. The decision of the Supreme Court is binding on all
courts within the territory of India. However the Supreme Court is
73. Consider the following statements and select the correct not bound by its earlier decision it can come to a different decision
answer from the codes given below : if it is convinced that it had made an error or harmed public interest.
Assertion (A): Judicial Review is a process to restrain the 76. Which of the statement given below is / are correct?
executive or the legislature from exercising (CDS 2016-I)
power which may not be sanctioned by the 1. The ideal of a common civil code is set forth in Article
Constitution. 44 of the Constitution of India
2. In certain respects, the High Courts in India have been 2. Under the Constitution of India, there is a single
given more extensive power than the Supreme Court integrated system of courts for the Union as well as
3. The Supreme Court of India, the first fully the states.
independent Court for the country was set up under 3. The organisation of the subordinate judiciary varies
the Constitution of India in 1950 slightly from state to state.
Select the correct answer using the code given below : Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 only (a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 1 only (d) 3 only (c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these
Ans. (a) Article 44 of the constitution states about the existance of Ans. (d) The U.S. court system is divided into two administratively
uniform civil code for all citizens in the country. separate systems, the federal and the state, each of which is independent
Each High court has power to issue to any person within it jurisdiction, of the executive and legislative branches of government. One of the
orders different writs including habeas corpus, mandamus, unique features of the Indian Constitution is that, notwithstanding the
prohibition quo-warranto and certiorari Supreme Court of India was adoption of a federal system and existence of Central Acts and State
established on January 28, 1950. It is the highest Judicial forum. Acts in their respective spheres, it has generally provided for a single
integrated system of Courts to administer both Union and State laws.
77. Consider the following statements [NDA 2007-II] At the apex of the entire judicial system, exists the Supreme Court of
1. The maximum number of the Judges of the Supreme India below which are the High Courts in each State or group of States.
Court of India is prescribed in the Constitution of Below the High Courts, lies a hierarchy of Subordinate Courts.
India.
2. The maximum number of the Members of the Union 81. Under which law it is prescribed that all proceedings in the
Public Service Commission is prescribed in the Supreme Court of India shall be in English language?
Constitution of India. [NDA 2012-I]
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) The Supreme Court Rules, 1966
(a) Only I (b) Only 2 (b) A Legislation made by the Parliament
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) Article 145 of the Constitution of India
(d) Article 348 of the Constitution of India
Ans. (a) Article 124 (a) of the Indian Constitution stipulates that
“There shall be a Supreme Court of India constituting of a Chief Ans. (d) Article 348 of Indian Constitution mentions the language
Justice of India and, until Parliament by law prescribes a larger to be used in Supreme Court and the High Courts. According to the
number, of not more than seven other Judges”. At present the article 348, the language of all proceedings in the Supreme court and
Supreme Court consists of thirty one judges (one chief justice and in every high court shall be English.
thirty other judges). 82. Consider the following statements regarding e-courts,
Under article 315 the UPSC consists of a chairman and other launched recently in India [NDA 2013-I]
members appointed by the president of India. The constitution 1. They will facilitate hearing of cases via video conferencing.
without specifying the strength of the Commission has left the matter 2. They will follow the same procedures that are laid out
to the discretion of the president, who determines its composition. for the bench for hearing appeals in an open court.
78. Which one of the following jurisdictions of the Indian Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
judiciary covers Public Interest Litigation? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
[NDA 2009-II] (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) Original Jurisdiction (b) Appellate Jurisdiction Ans. (c) The E-courts project was established in 2005. According to
(c) Epistolary Jurisdiction (d) Advisory Jurisdiction the project, all the courts including taluk courts will get computerized.
As per the project in 2008, all the District courts were initialised
Ans. (b) PIL (Public Interest Litigation) writ petition can be filed under the project. In 2010, all the District courts were computerized.
in Supreme Court under Article 32 only if a question concerning the The project also includes producing witnesses through video
enforcement of a fundamental right is involved. Under Article 226, a conferencing. The judicial service centres are available in all court
writ petition can be filed in a High court whether or not a Fundamental campuses. The Public as well as the advocates can walk in directly
Right is involved. Thus, it comes under appellate jurisdiction. and ask for the case status, stage and next hearing dates.
79. The original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India 83. Power of the Supreme Court of India to decide the dispute
extends to [NDA 2011-I] between centre and state falls under [NDA 2013-II]
(a) treaties and agreements signed by the Government of (a) advisory jurisdiction
India (b) original jurisdiction
(b) disputes between the Government of India and one or (c) appellate jurisdiction
more States (d) constitutional jurisdiction
(c) disputes relating to implementation of the Directive
Principles of State Policy Ans. (b) Original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court(Article 131):
(d) a bill passed by the Parliament which is violative of Supreme court has power to decide disputes
the Constitution • between the Government of India and one or more States
• between the Government of India and any State or States on
Ans. (b) The original jurisdiction of supreme court of India extends one side and one or more other States on the other
to all cases between the Government of India and the States of India • between two or more States.
or between Government of India and states on side and one or more
states on other side or cases between different states. 84. Electoral disputes arising out of Presidential and Vice-
Presidential Elections are settled by [NDA 2013-II]
80. Which of the following statements with respect to the (a) Election Commission of India
judiciary in India is/are correct? [NDA 2012-I] (b) Joint Committee of Parliament
1. Unlike in the United States, India has not provided for (c) Supreme Court of India
a double system of courts. (d) Speaker of Lok Sabha
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C-92 INDIAN POLITY
Ans. (c) All doubts and disputes arising out of or in connection Ans. (b) The Chief Justice of a Hight court is appointed by the
with the election of a President or Vice-President shall be inquired President of India with the consultation of the chief Justice of the
into and decided by the Supreme Court whose decision shall be final Supreme Court and the Governor of the state.
(Article 71(a)).
91. Upto what age, can the judges of Supreme Court serve?
85. Which of the following statements about Indian Judiciary [UK-PSC/FR 2015]
is not correct ? [NDA 2014-II] (a) 62 years (b) 68 years
(a) The Constitution of India has not provided for double
system of courts as in the United States (c) 65 years (d) 70 years
(b) The organization of the subordinate judiciary in India Ans. (c) The Judge of Supreme Court can serve up to 65 years of
varies slightly from State to State age.
(c) Every State in India has separate High Court
(d) The Supreme Court has issued direction to constitute 92. Consider the following statements –
an All India Judicial Service to bring about uniformity 1. The oath of the Judges of High Court is administered
in designation of officers in criminal and civil side by the Governor of the State.
Ans. (c) Every state in India does not have a separate High Court. 2. The oath of the judges of Supreme Court is
The constitution provides that parliament may by law establish a administered by the President of India.
common High Court for two or more states and a Union Territory. Which of the above statements(s) is/are correct?
86. The Supreme Court of India is a ‘Court Record’. It (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
implies that [UP-PCS 2008] (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None of the above
(a) It has to keep a record of its decisions. Ans. (c) The oath of the Judges of high court is administered by
(b) All its decisions have evidentiary value and cannot the Governor of state and the oath of the Judges of Supreme Court is
be questioned in any court administered by the President of India.
(c) It has the power to punish for its contempt
(d) No appeal can be made against its decisions. 93. In which year was the Collegium System for the
Ans. (b) Article 129 declares Supreme Court as the Court of record. appointment of Judges adopted by the Supreme Court of
By court of record we mean two thing - (1) that its proceeding will India ? [UK-PSC 2016]
be in writing and (2) that it’s order will be binding upon the all courts (a) 1993 (b) 1996
within the territory of India. Thus its decisions have evidentiary (c) 2000 (d) 2004
value.
Ans. (a) The collegium system for the appointment of Judges
87. The minimum number of Judges of the Supreme Court adopted by the Supreme Court of India in 1993.
required for hearing any case involving interpretation of
the Constitution is [UP-PCS 2012] 94. Match it – [Chhatisgarsh-PSC 2016]
(a) ten (b) nine (A) Habeas Corpus (B) Mandamces
(c) seven (d) five (C) Prohibition (D) Certiorary
Ans. (d) Minimum five Judges of the Supreme Court are required (E) Quo - Warranto
for hearing any case involving interpretation of the Constitution or (i) Be more fully informed
for the purpose of hearing any reference to it. (ii) By which authority
88. A judge of the Supreme Court may resign his office by (iii) We command
written a letter to [UP-PCS 2014] (iv) Let us have the body
(a) the Chief Justice (v) Writto Subordinate Courts
(b) the President (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
(c) the Prime Minister (a) (ii) (iv) (v) (iii) (i)
(d) the Law Minister (b) (iv) (iii) (v) (ii) (i)
Ans. (b) The Judge of the Supreme Court can tender his resignation (c) (iv) (iii) (v) (i) (ii)
by addressing a letter to President of India. (d) (iv) (v) (iii) (i) (ii)
89. Who among the following shall have the right of audience Ans. (c)
in all courts in the territory of India in performance of his List - I List - II
duties? [UP-PCS 2015] (A) Habeas Corpus (iv) Let us have the body
(a) Advocate General
(b) Attorney General (B) Mandamus (iii) We command
(c) Additional Advocate General (C) Prohibition (v) Writ to Subordinate Courts
(d) None of the above (D) Certiorary (i) Be more fully in formed
Ans. (b) The Attorney General has the right of audience in all (E) QUO - Warranto (ii) By which authority
Courts in India. He has also the right to participate in the proceedings
of the Parliament. 95. Power of Judicial review rests with –
(a) The Supreme Court of India
90. Chief Justice of a High Court is appointed by the – (b) The High Courts
(a) Chief Justice of India (c) Law Commission
(b) President of India (d) Both (a) and (b)
(c) Union Public Service Commission Ans. (d) Power of Judicial Review rests with the Supreme Court of
(d) A collegium India and the High Courts.
96. In India, Judicial Review implies [IAS 2017] Ans. (c)

(a) the power of the Judiciary to pronounce upon the • The Speaker/Chairman may admit the motion or refuse to
constitutionality of laws and executive orders. admit motion for impeachment of SC Judges.
(b) the power of the Judiciary to question the wisdom of
• The address to remove SC Judge must be supported by a
the laws enacted by the Legislatures.
special majority of each House of Parliament (ie, a majority of the
(c) the power of the Judiciary to review all the legislative
total membership of that House and a majority of not less than two-
enactments before they are assented to by the thirds of the members of that House present and voting). So #4 is
President. right, answer is (c).
(d) the power of the Judiciary to review its own
judgements given earlier in similar or different cases. 100. A parliamentary system of government is one in which
Ans. (a) New NCERT, Std. 11, Constitution at Work, Chapter-6 [IAS Prelims 2020-I]
Judiciary, Page 139. (a) All political parties in the parliament are represented
Judicial review means the power of SC or HC to examine the in the government
constitutionality of any law. So again, “A” is the most fitting option. (b) The government is responsible to the parliament and
can be remove by it
97. Who among the following can be removed by the President (c) The government is elected by the people and can be
without Parliament’s resolution ?[UGC November 2017] removed by them
(a) Judge of a High Court (d) The government is chosen by the parliament but
(b) Governor of a State cannot be removed by it before completion of a fixed
(c) Chief Election Commissioner term
(d) Comptroller and Auditor - General Ans. (b)
Ans. (b) Governor of a State can be removed by the President • Article 75: The ministers are collectively responsible to
without Parliament’s resolution since a Governor holds office at the the Parliament in general and to the Lok Sabha in particular. The
“pleasure of the President.” principle of collective responsibility implies that the Lok Sabha can
remove the ministry (i.e., council of ministers headed by the prime
98. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about a minister) from office by passing a vote of no confidence.
Judge of the Supreme Court of India ? • So, (b) is the right choice.
[UGC June 2013]
1. A Judge of the Supreme Court is appointed by the 101. Which among the following writs is issued to quash the
President of India. order of a Court or Tribunal? [CDS 2019-I]
2. He holds office during the pleasure of the President. (a) Mandamus (b) Prohibition
3. He can be suspended, pending an inquiry. (c) Quo Warranto (d) Certiorari
4. He can be removed for proven misbehaviour or Ans. (d) The writ of certiorari can be issued by the Supreme Court
incapacity. or any High Court for quashing the order already passed by an
Select the correct answer from the codes given below : inferior court, tribunal or quasi-judicial authority.
Codes :
102. Which one of the following conditions laid down in the
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 3 and 4
Constitution of India for the issue of a writ of Quo-Warranto
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1 and 4 is not correct ? [CDS 2019-II]
Ans. (d) A Judge of the Supreme Court is appointed by the (a) The office must be public and it must be created by a
President of India and he can be removed for proven misbehaviour Statute
or incapacity. (b) The office must be a substantive one
99. Consider the following statements : (c) There has been a contravention of the Constitution or
a Statute in appointing such person to that office
[IAS Prelims 2019-I]
(d) The appointment is in tune with statutory provision
1. The motion to impeach a judge of the supreme court
of India cannot be rejected by the speaker of the Lok Ans. (d) The word Quo Warranto literally means “under what
Sabha as per the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968. authority?” This kind of a writ is issued to ensure that the person
2. The constitution of India defines and gives holding a public office to which he is not entitled. The writ of quo-
warranto is used to prevent illegal assumption of any public office or
details of what constitutes ‘incapacity and proved
usurpation of any public office by anybody. The fundamental basis
misbehaviour’ of the judges of the Supreme Court of of the proceeding of Quo Warranto is that the public has an interest
India. to see that an unlawful claimant does not usurp a public office. For
3. The details of the process of the impeachment of the example, a person of 62 years has been appointed to fill a public
judges of the Supreme Court of India are given in the office whereas the retirement age is 60 years. Now, the appropriate
judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968. High Court has a right to issue a writ of Quo Warranto against the
4. If the motion of the impeachment of a judge is taken person and declare the office vacant.
up for voting, the law requires the motion to be backed
by each house of the parliament and supported by a 103. In the Indian judicial system, writs are issued by
majority of total membership of that house and by not [CDS 2020-II]
less than two-thirds of total members of that House (a) the Supreme Court only
present and voting. (b) the High Courts only
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (c) the Supreme Court and High Courts only
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 only (d) the Supreme Court, High Courts and Lower Courts
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 3 and 4 Ans. (c)
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C-94 INDIAN POLITY
104. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion 105. Consider the following statements in the context of Attorney
(A) and the other as Reason (R). General of India : [UPPSC Prelims 2020]
[UPPSC Prelims 2019] 1. The President shall appoint a person who is qualified
Assertion (A): The Supreme Court of India has exclusive as to be appointed a Judge of Supreme Court.
jurisdiction regarding Constitutional validity of Central 2. The Attorney General shall receive such remuneration
laws. as the Parliament may determine.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
Reason (R): The Supreme Court is the Guardian of the
Codes :
Indian Constitution. (a) Only 1 is correct
Select the correct answer from the codes given below: (b) Only 2 is correct
Codes: (c) Both 1 and 2 are correct
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct (d) Neither 1 nor 2 is correct
explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct Ans. (a) Article 76 states that the President appoint a person who
explanation of (A) is qualified as judge of the supreme court to be Attorney General for
India. His/her duty is to advise the government of India in the legal
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false matters assigned to him/her by the president. In the performance of
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true his/her duties, the Attorney General shall have the right of audience
Ans. (d) in all courts in the territory of India.
State & Union Territory
4 Government
State Legislature 6. Which one of the following states of India has passed
a legislation (1996) making the maintenance of one’s
1. As per the Constitution of India, what is the limit prescribed for
parents mandatory?
the number of members in the Legislative Assembly of a State?
(a) Kerala (b) West Bengal
(a) 350 members (b) 400 members
(c) Maharashtra (d) Himachal Pradesh
(c) 450 members (d) 500 members
Ans. (d) Himachal Pradesh passed a legislation (1996) making the
Ans. (d) The number of members ranges between 60 and 500.
maintenance of one’s parents mandatory.
2. Which of the following states can nominate two women
7. The functions of which of the following bodies in India are
members to the legislative assembly?
limited to advisory nature only?
(a) Himachal Pradesh (b) Kerala
(a) Legislative Council (b) Rajya Sabha
(c) Jammu and Kashmir (d) Uttar Pradesh
(c) Lok Sabha (d) Legislative Assembly
Ans. (c) The state of Jammu and Kashmir can nominate two
Ans. (a) The Provincial Legislative Councils established were mere
women members to the Legislative Assembly. The two women may
advisory bodies by means of which Government obtained advice and
be nominated as members by the Governor of Jammu and Kashmir if
assistance.
he or she is of the opinion that women are not adequately represented.
The Provincial Legislative Council could not interfere with the laws
3. The Legislative Council in a State in India can be created passed by the Central Legislature.
or abolished by the
(a) Parliament on the recommendation of a Governor of 8. Who among the following recommends to the Parliament
the state. for the abolition of the Legislative Council in a State?
(b) Parliament alone (a) The President of India [NDA 2009-II]
(c) Parliament after the state assembly passes the (b) The Governor of the concerned State
resolution of that effect. (c) The Legislative Council of the concerned State
(d) Governor of the state on the recommendation of the (d) The Legislative Assembly of the concerned State
Council of Ministers. Ans. (d) The legislative assembly of the concerned state recommends
to the parliament for the abolition of the legislative council in a state
Ans. (c) Legislative council in state canbe created or abolished by
(Article 169).
Parliament after the state assembly passes the resolution.
4. Consider the following statements regarding the chairman 9. Which one of the following states does not have Vidhan
of the Legislative Council of a state in India: Parishad? [NDA 2009-II]
1. He is elected by the members of the concerned state (a) Bihar (b) Maharashtra
legislature. (c) Tamil Nadu (d) Uttar Pradesh
2. He can be removed from his office by a resolution Ans. (c) Up to 2014, seven (out of twenty-nine) states have a
passed by a majority of all those present and voting Legislative Council: Andhra Pradesh, Bihar, Jammu and Kashmir,
members of the concerned state legislature. Karnataka, Maharashtra, Telangana and Uttar Pradesh.Tamil Nadu
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? does not have Legislative Council.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 10. ........................ state assembly has the lowest number of
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 seats among Indian states .
Ans. (d) The Legislative Council elects its Chairman and Deputy (a) Sikkim (b) Goa
Chairman from amongst its members. A member holding office as (c) Nagaland (d) Arunachal Pradesh
Chairman or Deputy Chairman of a Legislative Council may be Ans. (a) Sikkim state assembly has the lowest number of seats
removed from his office by a resolution of the Council passed by a among Indian States. There are 32 members in a legislative assembly.
majority of all the then members of the Council.
11. How many nominated members are there in the Legislative
5. Consider the following facts about the disallowance of State Assembly of Uttarakhand (2016) ? [UK-PSC 2016]
legislation. (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
1. The President has no direct power to disallow a bill
passed by the state legislative assembly. Ans. (a) There is 1 nominated member in the Legislative Assembly
2. But there is a provision for disallowance of the bill, of Uttrakhand 2016. George Ivan Gregory Mann a member of the
passed by state legislative assembly, as are reserved Anglo - Indian Community has been nominated for this.
by the State Governor for assent of the President. 12. If budget is disclosed before introducing in the Legislative
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only Assembly, what will happen? [Chhatisgarsh-PSC 2016]
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 is correct (a) Council of Ministers will have to resign
Ans. (c) (b) Chief Minister will have to resign
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C-96 INDIAN POLITY
(c) Finance Minister will have to resign 1. communicate to the Governor of the State all decisions of
to
(d) All of the above the council of Ministers relating to the administration of the
(e) None of the above affairs of the State and proposals for legislation;
Ans. (c) If budget is disclosed before introducing in the Legislative 2. to furnish such information relating to the administration of
Assembly, the Finance Minister will have to resign. the affairs of the State and proposals for legislation as the
Governor may call for; and
13. Which of the following statements is incorrect about
Legislative Council? 3. the Governor so requires, to submit for the consideration of
(a) 1/3rd of its members are elected by local bodies the Council of Ministers any matter on which a decision has
(b) President has the final power to decide about its been taken by a Minister but which has not been considered
by the Council.
composition
(c) It is not subject to dissolution 18. Which one of the following is not a correct statement
(d) Minimum strength of Legislative Council cannot be regarding the provision of Legislative Council in the State
less than 40 Legislature? [CDS I- 2019]
(a) The States of Bihar and Telangana have Legislative
Ans. (b) President does not has the final power to decide about the
legislative council composition.
Councils.
(b) The total number of members in the Legislative
14. The Governor of a State is appointed by [BPSC- 2018] Council of a State shall not exceed one-third of the
(a) the Prime Minister total number of members in the Legislative Assembly.
(b) the Chief Justice of India (c) One-twelfth of all members shall be elected by
(c) the President electorates consisting of local bodies and authorities.
(d) the Chief Justice of the High Court (d) One-twelfth of all members shall be elected by
(e) None of the above/More than one of the above graduates resising in the State.
Ans. (c) The Governor of the States of India is appointed by the Ans. (c) 7 States in India have both Legislative Assemblies and
President of India for a period of five years. A Governor is appointed Legislative Councils - Uttar Pradesh, Karnataka, Jammu and Kashmir,
on the advice of the Union Council of Ministers, or in reality on the Maharashtra, Telangana, Andhra Pradesh and Bihar. one-twelfth shall
advice of the Prime Minister. be elected by electorates consisting of persons who have been for at
15. Who among the following has not been the acting Governor least three years engaged in teaching in such educational institutions
of Madhya Pradesh? [MPPSC- 2018] within the State, not lower in standard than that of a secondary school,
(a) Justice N.D. Ojha (b) Justice P.V. Dixit as may be prescribed by or under any law made by Parliament.
(c) Justice G.D.Dixit (d) Justice G.P.Singh
State Executive
Ans. (c) Justice G. D. Dixit has not been the acting Governor of
Madhya Pradesh. 1. The Constitution of India does not contain any provision
for the impeachment of
16. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
(a) The President
State Allocation of Seats in the Rajya Sabha
(b) The Governor of state
[MPPSC- 2018]
(c) The Chief Justice of India
(a) Andhra Pradesh 18 (b) Odisha 10
(d) The Any Justice of High courts
(c) Tamil Nadu 18 (d) Maharashtra 19
Ans. (b) There is no provision of impeachment of Governor of state.
Ans. (a) The Fourth Schedule to the Constitution provides for
allocation of seats to the States and Union Territories in Rajya Sabha. 2. Consider the following officials of India;
The allocation of seats is made on the basis of the population of each 1. The State election commissioner
State. 2. Chairman of the State Public Service Commission
3. A judge of the High Court
17. Which one of the following is not among the duties of the 4. The Advocate General of the State.
Chief Minister? [CDS II - 2018] Which of the officials given above is/are appointed by the
(a) To communicate to the Governor of the State all governor of the concerned state?
decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to the (a) 1, 2 and 4 only (b) 2 and 4 only
administration of the affairs of the State and proposals (c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 4 only
for legislation
(b) To furnish information relating to the administration Ans. (a) The state election commissioner, chairman of the state PSC,
of the State and proposals for legislation as the and the advocate General of the state are appointed by the governor.
A judge of the High Court is appointed by the President.
Governor may call for
(c) To communicate to the President all decisions of the 3. Article 156 of the constitution of India provides that a
Council of Ministers relating to the administration of Governor shall hold office for a term of five years from
the State in the monthly report the date on which he enters upon his office. Which of the
(d) To submit for the consideration of the Council of following can be deduced from this?
Ministers any matter on which a decision has been 1. No Governor can be removed from his office till the
taken by a Minister but has not been considered by completion of this term
the Council, if theGovernor so requires 2. No Governor can continue in office beyond a period
of five years.
Ans. (c) Duties of Chief Minister as respects the furnishing of
information to Governor, etc.-
STATE & UNION TERRITORY GOVERNMENT C-97
Ans. (d) As per Article 156, the governor shall hold office during the Ans. (c) A Governor can make recommendation, to the president
pleasure of the president. He can resign his office, or can be removed on dissolution of the state legislative assembly and the declaration
from his office by president at any time. of the breakdown of the constitution machinery in the state. Under
article 356 State emergency is declared on failure of constitutional
machinery in a state. Nearly every state in India has been under a
answer from the codes given below :
state of emergency at some point of time or the other. The state of
Assertion (A): According to the Constitution of India,
emergency is commonly known as ‘President’s Rule’.
the same person cannot function as the
Governor of two or more States at the 8. Consider the following and select correct answer by using
same time. codes given below
Reason (R) : Article 153 of the Constitution states that 1. The Governor shall take oath or affirmation before
there shall be a Governor for each State. entering upon his office.
Codes : 2. The format of oath or affirmation is given in the Third
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct schedule of Indian Constitution.
explanation of A 3. The Governor shall make and subscribe the oath or
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the affirmation in the presence of Chief Justice of the High
correct explanation of A Court or in his absence senior most judge of that Court.
(c) A is true but R is false 4. The process of oath and affirmation is given in the
(d) A is false but R is true Article 159 of Indian Constitution.
Codes:
Ans. (d) In article 158 of the Constitution, after clause (3), the (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 3 and 4
following clause shall be inserted, namely: (c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
“(3A) Where the same person is appointed as Governor of two
Ans. (b) The format of the oath and affirmation of the governor is
or more States, the emoluments and allowances payable to the
also mentioned under the Article 159 of the Indian Constitution.
Governor shall be allocated among the States in such proportion
as the President may by order determine.” Clause 6 -Article 153 9. Select the constitutional duties of the Chief Minister from
provides that there shall be a Governor for each State. Since it may following by using codes given below
be desirable in certain circumstances to appoint a Governor for 1. The Chief Minister communicates to the Governor all
two or more States, it is proposed to add a proviso to this article to decisions of the Council of Ministers related to the
remove any possible technical bar to such an appointment. administration of the affairs of the State.
5. The ‘Contingency Fund’ of the state is operated by 2. The Chief Minister communicates to the Governor the
(a) The Governor of the state proposals for legislation.
(b) The Chief Minister of the state 3. The Chief Minister participates in the meetings of
(c) The State Finance Minister National Development Council.
(d) None of the above 4. The Chief Minister submits for the consideration of
the Council of Ministers any matter on which decision
Ans. (a) Contingency Fund of each State Government is established has been taken by a minister but which has not been
under Article 267(2) of the Constitution – this is in the nature of an considered by the council as if the Governor requires.
imprest placed at the disposal of the Governor to enable him/her Codes:
to make advances to meet urgent unforeseen expenditure, pending (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 4
authorization by the State Legislature. (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 4
6. State Governor is appointed by Ans. (d) National Development Council is not constitutional.
(a) Central Cabinet
(b) Chief justice of Supreme Court 10. Consider the following statements with respect to the
(c) Speaker of Lok Sabha powers of the Governor of a State :
(d) President of India 1. The governor can summon, prorogue and dissolve
the State Assembly.
Ans. (d) The Governor of the States of India is appointed by the 2. The Governor can adjourn the sittings of the State
President of India for a period of five years. A Governor is appointed Assembly.
on the advice of the Union Council of Ministers, or in reality on the 3. The Governor addresses the first session of the
advice of the Prime Minister. Legislative Assembly after elections.
7. A governor can make recommendation to the president on 4. The Governor causes to lay the annual budget in the
which of the following issues? State Assembly.
1. Removal of the members of the state PSC Which of the statements given above are correct ?
2. Removal of the judges of the High Court (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 3 and 4
3. Dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly (c) 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 4
4. Declaration of the breakdown of the constitutional Ans. (b) The Governor is a part of the state legislative and can
machinery in the state. summon, adjourn or prorogue the state legislative. The governor
Select the correct answer using the codes given below: can even dissolve the Vidhan Sabha. At the commencement of the
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only first session after each general election to the Legislative Assembly
(b) 2 and 4 only and at the commencement of the first session of each year the
(c) 3 and 4 only Governor shall address the Legislative Assembly and inform it of
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 the causes of its summons. As per Article 202 of the Constitution of
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C-98 INDIAN POLITY
India the Governor of a State shall, cause to be laid before the 4. Declaration of the breakdown of the Constitution
House or Houses of the Legislature of the State a Statement of the Machinery in the State
estimated receipts and expenditure of the State for a financial year. Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
This estimated statement of receipt and expenditure for a financial (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
year named in the Constitution as the “Annual Financial Statement” (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4
is commonly known as “Budget”. Ans. (c) In case no political party bags a majority in the Vidhan
11. Which of the following are functions to which the scope of Sabha of the state, the Governor holds the power to use his discretion
the discretionary powers of the Governor is limited ? to select the Chief Minister. The Governor informs the President
1. The appointment of the Chief Minister in an official report, of a particular emergency arisen in the state,
2. The dismissal of the Ministry and imposes ‘President’s Rule’ on the behalf of the President. The
3. The dissolution of the Legislative Assembly Governor, in such circumstances, overrides the advice or functions
4. Assent to Bills of the Council of Ministers, and directs upon himself, the workings
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below : of the state.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 15. In which of the following bodies, does the Chief Minister
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4 of a State hold membership?
Ans. (a) State Governor has constitutional discretion in the following 1. National Integration Council
cases: 2. National Development Council
(i) Recommendation for the imposition of the President’s Rule in
3. Inter-State Council
the State;
4. Zonal Council
(ii) Appointing the Chief Minister when no party has acquired
(a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 2 and 3
clear cut majority in the State Legislative Assembly and when
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4
the Chief Minister dies when in office.
(iii) Dismissal of the Council of Ministers when they lose the Ans. (c) The chief minister holds membership in the National
confidence of the State Legislative Assembly. Integration Council, National Development Council, Inter-State
Council and the Zonal Council.
The Governor of a State has the power of appoint: 16. Consider the following statements :
1. Judges of the High Court 1. The Governor cannot function without the State
2. Members of the State Public Service Commission Council of Ministers.
3. Members of the State Finance Commission 2. A person who is not a member of the State Legislature
4. The Accountant General cannot be appointed as a minister.
Which of these statements are correct? 3. The State Council of Ministers can function for
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 sometime even after death or resignation of the Chief
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Minister.
4. In the absence of the Chief Minister, only the Home
Ans. (b) The Governor has the power to appoint the Council of Minister can preside over emergency meetings of the
Ministers including the Chief Minister of the state, the Advocate State Council of Ministers.
General and the members of the State Public Service Commission. Which of these is / are correct ?
However, the Governor cannot remove the members of the State Public
Service Commission as they can only be removed by an order of the
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
President.
Ans. (a) The Constitution provides that there shall be a Council of
Ministers with the Chief Minister at the head to aid and advice the
Under Article 200 of the Constitution of India, the Governor in the exercise of his functions except in so far as he is by or
Governor may: under the Constitution required to act in his discretion. The governor
1. Withhold his assent to a Bill passed by the State appoints the Chief Minister and other Ministers on the advice of the
Legislature. Chief Minister.
2. Reserve the Bill passed by the State Legislature for
the consideration of the President. 17. The salaries and allowances of the Council of Ministers of
3. Return a Bill, other than a Money Bill, for the State Government are paid from the :
reconsideration of the legislature. [NDA-2017]
Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) Reserve Bank of India
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (b) Treasury of the State Government
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) Contingency Fund of the State
(d) Consolidated Fund of the State
Ans. (d) Under Article 200 of the constitution of India, the Governor
may withhold his assent to a Bill passed by the State Legislature, Ans. (d) Members of the Legislative Assembly and the Legislative
reserve the Bill passed by the State Legislature for consideration of Council of a State shall be entitled to receive such salaries and allowances
the President and return a Bill, for reconsideration of the Legislature. as may from time to time be determined, by the Legislature of the State by
law and, until provision in that respect is so made, salaries and allowances
14. On which of the following issues can a Governor make at such rates and upon such conditions as were immediately before the
recommendation to the President? commencement of this Constitution applicable in the case of members
1. Dismissal of the State Council of Ministers of the Legislative Assembly of the corresponding province. The salary
2. Removal of the Judges of the High Court is paid from state consolidated fund.
3. Dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly
18. The ministers in the Council of Ministers at the state level Ans. (d) Yashpal Arya was the speaker of the First Elected
are appointed by : Legislative Assembly of Uttarakhand.
(a) President of the party (b) Governor
(c) Chief Minister (d) Prime Minister 24. On the basis of formation, Uttarakhand is the –
(a) 27th State of Indian Union [UK-PSC/FR 2015]
Ans. (b)
(b) 26th State of Indian Union
19. Which/Who of the following can appoint a commission (c) 28th State of Indian Union
to examine and report on any matter relating to the (d) 29th State of Indian Union
administration of the autonomous districts or regions?
Ans. (a) Uttrakhand is the 27th state of Indian Union. It is a state
(a) Legislative Assembly of the State
in the northern part of India.
(b) Governor of the State
(c) President of India 25. Who among the following appointed by the Governor can
(d) Parliament of India be removed by only the President of India?
(a) Chief Minister of a state
Ans. (b)
(b) A member of the State Public Service Commission
20. The Governor may recommend the imposition of the (c) Advocate - General
President’s rule in the state [NDA 2013-II] (d) Vice - Chancellor of a State University
(a) on the recommendation of the State Legislature
Ans. (b) A member of the State Public Service Commission
(b) on the recommendation of the President
appointed by the Governor can be removed by only the President of
(c) on the recommendation of the Chief Minister
India.
(d) if he is convinced thai the Government of the State
cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions 26. The Governor of the state has the power to reserve a Bill
of the Constitution of India for the consideration of the President. At least in one case
the reservation of the Bill is compulsory. The case is –
Ans. (d) President’s rule refers to Article 356 of the Constitution of
(a) Where the law in question would derogate from the
India deals with the failure of the constitutional machinery of an Indian
powers of the High Court under the Constitution
state. In the event that government in a state is not able to function as per
(b) The bill is related to enhancing quota of reservation
the Constitution, the state comes under the direct control of the central
for a particular class of the society
government, with executive authority exercised through the Governor
instead of a Council of Ministers headed by an elected Chief Minister
(c) The Bill creating a new district or the division
accountable to the state legislature. Article 356 is invoked if there has
(d) The Bill starting any special type of population
been failure of the constitutional machinery in any states of India. census in the state
Ans. (a) The Governor of the State has the power to reserve a bill
21. The Governor of a State can act independent of the advice
for the consideration of the president especially where the law in
of the Council of Ministers in [UP-PCS 2009]
question would derogate from the powers of the High court under
1. asking the government to prove its majority in the the constitution.
Assembly.
2. dismissing a Chief Minister 27. Consider the following statements:
3. reserving a bill for the consideration of the President 1. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted against
of India. the Governor of a State any court during his term of
4. returning the bill passed by the legislature for office.
reconsideration 2. The emoluments and allowances of the Governor
of a State shall not be diminished during his term of
5. seeking the opinion of the High Court.
office. [IAS Prelim 2018]
Codes : (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2, 3, 4 and 5 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) 1, 2, 4 and 5 (d) All the above
Ans. (c)
Ans. (a) • Governor enjoys personal immunity from legal liability for his
22. Which among the following States did record the formation official acts. During his term of office, he is immune from any
of maximum Coalitation Governments in between 1967 to criminal proceedings, even in respect of his personal acts. He
1971? [UP-PCS 2013] cannot be arrested or imprisone(d)
(a) Uttar Pradesh (b) Haryana • His emoluments and allowances cannot be diminished during
(c) Bihar (d) Punjab his term of office. Thus both statements are right.
Ans. (c) The maximum number of coalition government between 28. Under which Article of the Constitution of India, the
1967 to 1971-72 was formed in Bihar. During this period 9 Governor has the power to promulgate ordinances during
governments were formed in the state. recess of Legislature? [MPPSC- 2018]
(a) 155 (b) 156
23. Who was the Speaker of the First Elected Legislative (c) 212 (d) 213
Assembly of Uttarakhand? [UK-PSC/FR 2015]
(a) Prakash Pant Ans. (d) Governor of an Indian state draws ordinance making
(b) Harbansh Kapur power from Article 213 of the constitution. This article empowers
(c) Govind Singh Kunjwal the governor to promulgate ordinance on urgent matter during recess
of legislature.
(d) Yashpal Arya
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C-100 INDIAN POLITY
29. In the event of occurrence of any vacancy in the office (d) Power to grant pardons, reprieves, respites or
of the Chairperson of the State Commission, who can remission of punishments
authorize one of the members to act as Chairperson?
Ans. (a) Diplomatic and military powers is related to the powers of
[MPPCS- 2018] the President. It is not the power of Governor.
(a) The Chief Justice of the High Court
(b) The President 34. Which one of the following regarding the ordinance-
(c) The Chairperson of the National Human Rights making power of the Governor is not correct?
Commission [CDS II-2018]
(d) The Governor (a) It is not a discretionary power.
(b) The Governor may withdraw the ordinance anytime.
Ans. (d) In the event of occurrence of any vacancy in the office of
(c) The ordinance power can be exercised when the
the chairperson of the state commission, The Governor can authorize
one of the members to act as Chairperson.
Legislature is not in session.
(d) The aid and advice of ministers is not required for
30. Every member of the Commission, State Commission and declaring the ordinance.
every officer appointed or authorized by the Commission or
State Commission to exercise functions under the Protection Ans. (d) The exercise of ordinance-making power is not
of Human Rights Act is to be deemed [MPPCS- 2018] discretionary. The governor exercises this power on the advice of the
(a) Public Officer. (b) Public Servant cabinet.
(c) Officer of Commission (d) None of the above 35. Which one of the following is not considered a part of the
Ans. (a) Every member of the Commission, State Commission and Legislature of States? [CDS II-2018]
every officer appointed or authorized by the Commission or State (a) The Governor
Commission to exercise functions under the Protection of Human (b) The Legislative Assembly
Rights Act is to be deemed Public Officer. (c) The Legislative Council
(d) The Chief Minister
31. The State Commission submits its annual report to the
[MPPCS- 2018] Ans. (d) Legislature of States consist of (a) The Governor (b) The
(a) Governor Legislative Assembly (c) The Legislative Council.
(b) State Government
36. Which of the following are not necessarily the immediate
(c) Chief Justice of the High Court
consequences of the proclamation of the President’s Rule
(d) Chief Justice of India
in a State ? [UGC January 2017]
Ans. (a) The Government of India Act, 1935 provided for the (A) Dissolution of the State Assembly.
establishment of the Public Service Commission at the Provincial level
known as the State Public Service Commission and the constitution of (B) Removal of the Council of Ministers in the State.
India gave it a constitutional status as autonomous bodies. The State (C) Takeover of the State administration by the Union
Public Service Commissions were constituted under the provisions of Government.
the Constitution of India. The annual report of the state Public Service (D) Appointment of a new Chief Secretary.
Commission regarding its performance is submitted to the governor. The Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
governor then gets this report laid before the state legislature, together
with a memorandum explaining the cases where the advice of the
Codes :
commission was not accepted and the reason for such non acceptance. (a) (A) and (D (b) (A), (B) and (C)
32. Which of the following statements relating to the duties of (c) (A), (B), (C) and (D) (d) (B) and (C)
the Governor is / are correct? [CDS II- 2018 Ans. (a) The dissolution of the State Assembly and appointment
1. The duties of the Governor as a constitutional Head of a new Chief Secretary are not the immediate consequences of the
of the State do not become the subject matter of proclamation of the President’s Rule in a State.
questions or debate in the Parliament.
2. Where the Governor takes a decision independently 37. Instead of holding the office during the pleasure of the
of his Council of Ministers or where he acts as the President who among the following hold (s) office during
Chief Executive of the State under President’s rule, good behaviour ? [UGC January 2017]
his actions are subject to scrutiny by the Parliament. (A) Governor of a State
Select the correct answer using the code given below. (B) Attorney General of India
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (C) Judges of the High Court
(D) Administrator of a Union Territory
Ans. (b) Where the Governor takes a decision independently of his Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Council of Ministers or where he acts as the Chief Executive of the
State under President’s rule, his actions are subject to scrutiny by the
Codes :
Parliament. This statement is correct. (a) (A) only (b) (C) only
33. Which of the following is not related to the powers of the (c) (A) and (C) (d) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
Governor? [CDS II- 2018] Ans. (c) The Constitution provides that a judge of the High Court
(a) Diplomatic and military powers can be removed only by an order of the President, based on a motion
(b) Power to appoint Advocate General passed by both Houses of Parliament. The procedure for removal of
(c) Summoning, proroguing and dissolving State judges is elaborated in the Judges Inquiry Act, 1968.
Legislature
38. The ‘Sociogram’ technique is used to study enactments or executive orders of both central and
(a) Vocational Interest [UGC December 2010] State governments is following the constitution of
(b) Professional Competence India or not
(c) Human Relations (c) Judicial review means the power vested in High
(d) Achievement Motivation Courts to challenge supreme court of India
Ans. (c) Sociogram is a graphic representation of the interpersonal
relationships within a social group situation for the purpose of Ans. (b) It is the authority vested in the hands of Supreme Court to
discovering group structure or network of relationship patterns and examine whether some legislative enactments or executive orders of
sub-group organization. both central and State governments is following the Constitution of
India or not.
39. In the context of India, which one of the following is the The judicial reviews seek to put checks on the power of Executive
characteristic appropriate for bureaucracy? and Legislature with regards to the principles laid down in the
[IAS Prelims 2020] Constitution of India.
(a) An agency widening the scope of parliamentary
4. Who is authorized to transfer the judges of one High Court
democracy
to another High Court?
(b) An agency for strengthening the structure of
(a) The President
federalism
(b) The Chief Justice of India
(c) An agency for facilitating political stability and
(c) A collegium of judges of the Supreme Court.
economic growth
(d) The Law Minister
(d) An agency for the implementation of public policy
Ans. (a) The President may, after consultation with the Chief
Ans. (d) Bureaucrats are appointed by the President / Governor of Justice of India, transfer a judge from one high court to any other
India for implementing the policies of the government of the day. high court. When a judge has been or is transferred, he shall, during
Other options are less suitable. the period he serves, after the commencement of the Constitution
(Fifteenth Amendment) Act, 1963, as a Judge of the other High
State Judiciary Court.
1. Consider the following statements : 5. The Chief Justice of a High Court is appointed by
1. An administrator of a union territory is an agent of (a) President
the President of India and not head of state like a (b) Governor
Governor. (c) Chief Justice of India
2. The Parliament can make laws on any subject of (d) President on the advice of Governor of the state
the three lists (including the state list) for the Union concerned and the Chief Justice of India
territories. Ans. (d) Judges in High Court are appointed by the President of
Which of the statements given above is / are correct ? India in consultation with the Chief Justice of India and the governor
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 of the state. High Courts are headed by a Chief Justice.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 6. Which of the following state/Union territories have a
Ans. (c) common High Court?
(a) Uttar Pradesh and Bihar
2. Which of the following is correct regarding the union (b) Punjab, Haryana and Chandigarh
territories ? (c) Punjab and Jammu and Kashmir
1. Articles 239 to 241 contain provisions regarding the (d) Assam and Bengal
union territories. Ans. (b) Punjab, Haryana and Chandigarh share a high court under
2. Part VIII of the Constitution deal with the union the High Court (Punjab) Order, 1947.
territories. 7. In which year was the High Court in Madras established?
3. Part VII of the Constitution deal with the union (a) 1862 (b) 1871
territories. (c) 1881 (d) 1891
4. Articles 238 to 242 contain provisions regarding the Ans. (a) Madras High Court established in 1862. It consists of 74
union territories. Judges and a chief justice. Sanjay Kishan Kaul is present Chief justice
Select the correct answer from the codes given below : of Madras court.
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 8. The mobile court in India is brainchild of:
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 2 and 4 (a) Justice Bhagwati (b) Mr. Rajiv Gandhi
Ans. (b)
(c) Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam (d) Mrs. Pratibha Patil
Ans. (c) It is said to be a brainchild of former President A.P.J. Abdul
3. What does the term ‘judicial review’ mean? Kalam, the concept of mobile court is based on the pressing need
(a) A review of the judicial structure of the system to take the administration of civil and criminal justice closer to the
(b) It is the authority vested in the hands of Supreme people so that those living in remote areas are able to benefit without
Court to example whether some legislative incurring the expenses of travelling to courts at distant places.
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C-102 INDIAN POLITY
9. A high court judge addresses his letter of resignation to: Ans. (b) Salary is charged on Consolidated Fund of State. But the
(a) The President pension of the High Court judge is given from the Consolidated Fund
(b) The Chief Justice of India of India.
(c) The Chief Justice of High Court
(d) The Governor of the state 16. How many High Courts in India have jurisdiction over
more than one state (Union territories not included)?
Ans. (a) High court judge is removed only by the order of the (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5
President. The high court judge addresses his letter of resignation to
the President. Ans. (b) Bombay High Court has jurisdiction over ; Dadra & Nagar
Haveli and Daman Diu, Goa. Guwahti High Court has jurisdiction
10. Which one of the following states does not have its High Court? over Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Mizoram and Nagaland; Punjab and
(a) Odisha (b) Sikkim Haryana High Court has jurisdiction over Punjab and Haryana.
(c) Himachal Pradesh (d) Goa
17. Which writ is issued by the High court to the lower courts
Ans. (d) Goa comes under the jurisdiction of Bombay High Court. to stop legal action?
11. Which of the following High Courts has the largest number (a) Habeas Corpus (b) Prohibition
of Benches? (c) Quo Warranto (d) Certiorari
(a) Kolkata High Court Ans. (b) Prohibition writ is issued by the high court to the lower
(b) Madhya Pradesh High Court courts to stop legal action. A writ of prohibition is a writ directing a
(c) Bombay High Court subordinate to stop doing something the law prohibits. In practice,
(d) Guwahati High Court the court directs the clerk to issue the writ, and directs the Sheriff to
Ans. (d) Guwahati High Court has the largest number of Benches. serve it on the subordinate, and the clerk prepares the writ and gives
The principal seat of the Gauhati High Court is at Guwahati in it to the Sheriff, who serves it.
Assam. The court has 3 outlying benches. These are: 18. The jurisdiction of state high court can be extended by
The Kohima bench for Nagaland state. (a) Parliament
The Aizawl bench for Mizoram state. (b) The Chief Justice of India
The Itanagar bench for Arunachal Pradesh state. (c) The Governor of the state
(d) The President of India.
12. Which one of the following is NOT the main jurisdiction
of the High Court of a state? Ans. (a) The Parliament may make a provision for a common High
(a) Advisory Jurisdiction Court for two or more States or extend the jurisdiction of a High Court
(b) Original Jurisdiction to one or more Union Territories.
(c) Supervisory Jurisdiction 19. Under the provisions of the Constitution of India, who is
(d) Appellate Jurisdiction entitled to be consulted by the President of India in the
Ans. (a) The High Court of India does not have advisory jurisdiction. matter of the appointments of the Judges of the High
It has original, appellate and supervisory jurisdiction only. Court?
Supervisory jurisdiction refers to power of superior courts of general
(a) The Union Minister of Law and Justice
superintendence over all subordinate courts. (b) The Advocate General of the State
(c) The Attorney-General of India
13. The first High/Supreme Court judge, who voluntarily (d) The Governor
made his assets public is
(a) Justice D.V.S. Kumar Ans. (d) Clause (1) of Article 217 says that “every judge of a High
(b) Justice K. Chandra Court shall be appointed by the President by warrant under his hand
(c) Justice K. Kannan and seal after consultation with the Chief Justice of India, the Governor
of the State.
(d) Justice V.C. Srivastava
Ans. (c) High court judge Justice K Kannan was the first judge to
20. Who has the authority to appoint a judge of a High Court?
have voluntarily made his assets public.
(a) The Chief Justice of India
(b) The president of India
14. Which one of the following High Courts has the territorial (c) The governor of the concerned state
jurisdiction over Andaman and Nicobar Islands? (d) The Legislative Assembly
(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Calcutta
(b) Madras (d) Odisha Ans. (b) Every Judge of a High Court shall be appointed by the
President by warrant under his hand and seal after consultation with
Ans. (b) Calcutta High court has the territorial jurisdiction over the Chief Justice of India, the Governor of the State, and, in the case
Andaman and Nicobar Islands. The Calcutta High Court is the oldest of appointment of a Judge other than the chief Justice.
High Court in India. It was established as the High Court of Judicature
at Fort William on 1 July 1862 under the High Courts Act, 1861.
21. Which High Court has jurisdiction over the State of
Arunachal Pradesh?
15. On which one of the following funds are salary and (a) Guwahati (b) Mumbai
allowances of the judges of High Court of the state (c) Kolkata (d) Chandigarh
charged? [CDS-2017]
(a) Consolidated fund of India Ans. (a) The Guwahati High Court was established on 1 March, 1948
after the Government of India Act 1935 was passed. It was originally
(b) Consolidated fund of the State
known as the High Court of Assam and Nagaland, but renamed as
(c) Contingency fund of India
Gauhati High Court in 1971.
(d) Contingency fund of the state
22. Which among the following Union Territory has a Judicial 3. No Union territory has a High Court of its own.
Commissioner? 4. Judges of the High court hold office till the age of 62.
(a) Pondicherry (a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 2 and 4
(b) Andaman & Nicobar Islands (c) 1 and 4 (d) 4 only
(c) Daman & Diu
Ans. (b) The Centre has constituted three new High Courts in
(d) Lakshadweep
the northeast — Meghalaya, Manipur and Tripura — taking the
Ans. (c) Act no. 16 of 1964 is an act to declare the judicial total number of High Courts in the country from 21 to 24. The
commissioner’s court for Goa, Daman and Diu [16th may, 1964]. Constitution allows every judge of a High Court including additional
and acting judges to hold office till 62 years. The Constitution (114th
23. One High Court may have jurisdiction over two or more
Amendment) Bill, 2010 increases the age limit to 65 years.
states if the following so decides
(a) President of India (b) Parliament 29. Which one of the following High Courts has the territorial
(c) Supreme Court (d) The states involved jurisdiction over Andaman and Nicobar Island?
(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Calcutta (Kolkata)
Ans. (b) Jurisdiction over two or more states.
(c) Madras(Chennai) (d) Odisha
24. Pensions of High Court judges are charged on the
Ans. (b) The Calcutta High Court has the territorial jurisdiction over
following
West Bengal, it is having circuit bench at Port Blair.
(a) Consolidated fund of India
(b) Consolidated fund of State 30. Consider the following statements
(c) Subject to the decision of Supreme Court 1. There are 25 high courts in India
(d) None of these 2. Punjab, Haryana and the UT of Chandigarh have a
Ans. (a) Pensions of High Court judges are charged on the
common High Court.
consolidated Fund of the India.
3. NCT of Delhi has a High Court of its own
25. If any question arises as to the age of a judge of a High (a) 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
Court, the question shall be decided by (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 3 only
(a) Chief Justice of India
(b) President of India Ans. (c) All 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
(c) Collegiums of judges headed by the Chief Justice of 31. Consider the following statements and select the correct
India answer from the codes given below :
(d) Three judges committee constituted by the Vice Assertion (A) : In India, Every State has a High
President of India Court in its territory
Reason (R) : The constitution of India provides for
Ans. (a) Any question arising as to the age of a judge of a High
a High Court in each state
court, the question shall be decided by chief justice of India.
(a) (A) and (R) is correct
26. When the chief justice of a High Court acts in an (b) (A) and (R) is wrong
administrative capacity, he is subject to. (c) (A) is correct (R) is wrong
(a) The writ jurisdiction of any of the other judges of the (d) (A) is wrong (R) is correct
High Court. Ans. (d) (A) is wrong (R) is correct.
(b) Special control exercised by the chief justice of India.
(c) Discretionary power of the Governor of the State 32. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding
(d) Special powers provided to the Chief Minister in this writ of ‘prohibition’?
regard 1. It is an order issued by the Higher Court commanding
Lower Court to cease from proceeding in some
Ans. (c) According to Article 227(b), the Chief Justice of High Court matters not within its jurisdiction.
when acts in an administrative capacity, any rules made by him shall 2. This writ is available against a public officer even if
not be inconsistent with the provision of any law in force and requires he is not vested with judicial powers.
the previous approval of the governor. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
27. According to the Constitution of India the term ‘district (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
judge’ shall not include (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) Chief Presidency Magistrate Ans. (a) Writ of prohibition is not available against a public officer
(b) Sessions Judge not vested with judicial or quasi judicial powers.
(c) Tribunal Judge
(d) Chief Justice of a Small Cause Court 33. Consider the following statements :
1. The maximum number of Judges in a High Court are
Ans. (c) According to Article 236, the expression district judge specified in the Constitution of India.
includes judge of a city Civil Court, additional district judge, joint district 2. Every High Court has a power of superintendence
judge, assistant district judge, chief judge of a Small Cause Court, chief over all courts and tribunals (except military tribunals)
presidency magistrate, additional chief presidency magistrate, sessions provided they are subject to appellate jurisdiction of
judge, additional sessions judge and assistant sessions judge. the High Court.
28. Consider the following statements regarding the High Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
Courts in India: (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
1. There are eighteen High Courts in the Country. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. Three of them have jurisdiction over more than one
Ans. (d)
state.
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C-104 INDIAN POLITY
34. Which of the following are the main jurisdictions of the 39. The Chief Justice of Uttarakhand who also became the
High Court of a State ? Chief Justice of India – [UK-PSC/FR 2015]
1. Original jurisdiction (a) Justice Ashok A. Desai
2. Appellate jurisdiction (b) Justice P. C. Verma
3. Supervisory jurisdiction (c) Justice Barin Ghosh
4. Advisory jurisdiction (d) Justice S. H. Kapadia
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below : Ans. (d) There are 2 Former chief justices of uttarakhand S.H.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4 Kapadia and J.S. Khehar who later become chief Justice of India.
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4
40. Which of the following states are the first states in india
Ans. (a) At present a high court enjoys the following jurisdiction where Integrated Criminal Justice System (ICJS) will be
and powers:
launched?
• Original Jurisdiction
(a) Punjab and Haryana
• Appellate Jurisdiction
(b) Telangana and Andhra Pradesh
• Supervisory Jurisdiction
(c) Madhya Pradesh and Chhattisgargh
• Control over subordinate courts
(d) Bihar and Jharkhand
• A court of record
• Power of judicial review Ans. (b) Integrated Criminal Justice is system in which the courts,
police stations, Prosecution, forensic Science laboratories and Jails
35. The Bombay High Court does not have a bench at which
are integrated. Telangana and Andhra Pradesh are the first two states
one of the following places? [NDA 2008-II]
that has chosen the ICJS system.
(a) Nagpur (b) Panaji
(c) Pune (d) Aurangabad 41. There is a High Court for each of the states except –
I. Manipur II. Meghalaya
Ans. (c) The Bombay High Court has benches in Nagpur,
III. Tripura IV. Goa
Aurangabad and Panaji.
(a) Only IV (b) Only II and III
36. Consider the following statements [NDA 2012-II] (c) I, II and IV (d) II, III and IV
1. In India, only two Union Territories have Legislative
Ans. (d) There is a High Court for each of the states except Goa,
Assemblies.
Mizoram, Nagaland and Arunachal Pradesh.
2. Mizoram, Nagaland and Meghalaya, the three North-
Eastern States of India, have only one seat each in the 42. Which one of the following statements is not correct
Lok Sabha. regarding Certiorari? [UGC-II 2016]
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? (a) A High Court can issue a writ against itself in its
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 administrative capacity
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) A bench of a High Court can issue a writ to another
bench of the same High Court
Ans. (a) Delhi and Puducherry have their own elected legislative
(c) A High Court cannot issue a writ to another High
assemblies and the executive councils of ministers.
Court
37. The Judge of the High Courts in India is administered oath (d) A High Court can issue certiorari to a tribunal situated
of office by [NDA 2013-II] within its jurisdiction
(a) the Chief Justice of the High Court
Ans. (b) A bench of a high court is equal to the High court in all
(b) the Governor of the State
judicial powers. Hence a bench of the High court cannot issue certiorari
(c) the President of India
against the order of another bench.
(d) the Chief Justice of India
43 Chief Justice of High Court is appointed by –
Ans. (b) According to Article 219 of Indian Constitution (Oath or
[CDS-2017]
affirmation by Judges of High Courts) every person appointed to be a
(a) President of India
Judge of a High Court shall, before he enters upon his office, make and
(b) Governor of the State
subscribe before the Governor of the State, or some person appointed
(c) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court of India
in that behalf by him, an oath or affirmation according to the form set
(d) Prime Minister of India
out for the purpose in the Third Schedule.
38. Consider the following statements about lower courts and Ans. (a) The Chief Justice of High Court is appointed by the
identify the false statements from the codes given below : President of India with the consultation of the chief Justice of the
(A) The Panchayat Courts have only civil jurisdication. Supreme Court and the Governor of the State.
(B) The Munsiff Courts are lower in hierarchy to the 44. Under which one of the following Sections of the
court of Subordinate Judge. Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955 has power of State
(C) The Sessions cases are the more serious civil cases in Government to impose collective fine been provided ?
the Court of the District Judges. [MPPCS- 2018]
Codes : (a) Section 10 (b) Section 10 A
(a) (A) Only (b) (A) and (B) (c) Section 14 (d) Section 14 A
(c) (A) and (C) (d) (A), (B) and (C)
Ans. (d) Under the Section 14A of the Protection of Civil Rights
Ans. (c) At the level of district judiciary in India, the session cases Act, 1955 has power of state Government to impose collective fine
are not civil, but criminal cases. Panchayat courts have criminal been provided.
jurisdiction in minor offences.
45. A Sitting Judge of the High Court or a Sitting District Ans. (b) The Governor of each State shall appoint a person who is
Judge can be appointed as a member of the State Human qualified to be appointed as a Judge of a High Court to be Advocate
Rights Commission after consultation with General for the State. The Governor appoints the Advocate General
[MPPCS- 2018] of the state. The person who is appointed should be qualified to be
(a) the Governor appointed a judge of a high court.
(b) the Chief Justice of the High Court of the concerned The Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 is a procedural law related to
State the administration of civil proceedings in India. The Code is divided
(c) the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court of India into two parts: the first part contains 158 sections and the second part
(d) the President contains the First Schedule, which has 51 Orders and Rules.
The act clarified that the provisions of the Civil Procedure Code as
Ans. (b) A sitting judge of the High Court or a Sitting District Judge amended by the Act would have an overriding effect over any rules of
can be appointed as a member of the State Human Rights Commission the High Court or of the amendments made by the state government
after consultation with the Chief Justice of the High Court of the concerned.
concerned State.
47. A common High Court for two or more states can be
46. Consider the following statements : [CDS 2019-II] established by [NDA 2020-I]
1. The Advocate General of a State in India is appointed (a) a law passed by the Parliament
by the President of India upon the recommendations (b) an order of the Supreme Court of India
of the Governor of the concerned State. (c) an order of the President of India
2. As provided in the Code of Civil Procedure, High (d) an amendment to the Constitution of India
Courts have original appellate advisory jurisdiction at Ans. (a) A common High Court for two or more states or two or more
the State level. States and a Union territory can be established by a law passed by the
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? Parliament of India. Calcutta high court serves as the high court of
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only Anadaman & Nicobar islands and West Bengal. Similarly, Bombay
high court is the high court for Maharashtra, Goa, Dadra and Nagar
Haveli and Daman and Diu.
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5 Local Government
Panchayati Raj Ans. (d) Levy duties is a source of income of the Gram Panchayats.
The panchayats receive funds from three sources:
1. A committee appointed in 1977 to review working of the Local body grants, as recommended by the Central Finance
Panchayti Raj was chaired by Commission.
(a) Balwant Rai Mehta
Funds for implementation of centrally sponsored schemes.
(b) Ashok Mehta
(c) K.N. Katju 6. The Constitution of India mandates that the elections of the
(d) Jagjivan Ram Panchayati Raj should be held regularly after a gap of:
(a) 2 years (b) 3 years
Ans. (b) The Committee appointed in 1977 to review working of
the Panchayati Raj was chaired by Ashok Mehta. The committee (c) 4 years (d) 5 years
submitted its report in August 1978 and made 132 recommendations Ans. (d) Article 243 E mentioned duration of Panchayat is for five
to revive and strengthen the declining Panchayati Raj system in the years from the date of appointment.
country. Balwant Rai Mehta committee submitted report in 1957
which further establize the ‘democratic decentralization’ which finally
7. The 73rd Amendment of the Indian Constitution deals with
came to known as Panchayati Raj. He is also known as ‘Architect of [NDA-2017]
Panchayati Raj’. K.N. Katju was the chief minister of Madhya Pradesh (a) Panchayati Raj
in 1957. Jagjivan Ram was the first labour Minister and later served (b) Compulsory primary education
as Deputy Prime Minister in 1977-1979. (c) Nagar Palikas
2. Which article of the Indian Constitution provides for the (d) Minimum age of marriage
institution of Panchayti Raj? Ans. (a) The 73rd Amendment of the Indian Constitution deals with
(a) Article 36 (b) Article 39 Panchayati Raj. The Amendment Act of 1992 contains provision for
(c) Article 40 (d) Article 48 devolution of powers and responsibilities to the panchayats both for
the preparation of economic development plans and social justice.
Ans. (c) Article 40, of the Indian Constitution provides for the
institution of Panchayati Raj. The State shall take steps to organize 8. Which one of the following states started the Panchayati Raj
village panchayats and endow them with such powers and authority institution soon after the 73rd Constitutional Amendment
as may be necessary to enable them to function as units of self Act was passed?
government.
(a) Karnataka (b) Bihar
Article39 – Certain principles of policy to be followed by the state. (c) West Bengal (d) Orissa
Article 36 – Definition of DPSP.
Ans. (a) Some states like Kerala, Karnataka, Sikkim, West Bengal,
Article 48 – Organisation of agriculture and animal husbandry. Rajasthan, Tamil Nadu, Madya Pradesh etc. have taken good steps in
3. Which one of the following is not a Panchayati Raj devolution of Power, authority and responsibilities to the Panchayats,
institution? other states like Goa, Arunachal Pradesh and Jharkhand have done
(a) Gram Sabha little in devolving Powers to the Panchayats as provided under Article
(b) Gram Panchayat 243-G of the Constitution.
(c) Nyaya Panchayat 9. The Ashok Mehta Committee laid greater emphasis on
(d) Gram Co-operative Society (a) Gram Sabha
Ans. (d) Panchayati Raj Institutions include Gram Sabha, Gram (b) Mandal Sabha
Panchayat, Nyaya Panchayat, Panchayat Samiti and Zila Parishad. (c) Taluka Panchayat Samiti
Gram Co-operative society is not a PRI. (d) Zila Parishad
4. When was the Panchayati Raj System introduced in India? Ans. (d) Ashok Mehta Committee recommendations put greater
(a) 1945 (b) 1950 emphasis on Zila parishad. This committee recommended that, A
(c) 1959 (d) 1962 district should be the first point for decentralization under popular
Ans. (c) In 1959 the Panchayati Raj system was introduced in India. supervision below the state level.
The Balwant Rai Mehta Committee was appointed by the Government 10. Panchayati Raj in India represents:
of India in January 1957 to examine the working of the Community
(a) Decentralization of powers
Development Programme (1952) and the National Extension Service
(1953) and to suggest measures for their better working. (b) Participation of the people
(c) Community development
5. Which of the following is a source of income of the Gram (d) All of these
Panchayats?
Ans. (d) P.R. in India represents decentralisation of Powers,
(a) Income Tax (b) Sales Tax
Participation of the people and community development etc.
(c) Professional Tax (d) Duties
LOCAL GOVERNMENT C-107
11. Panchayati Raj in India is laid down under: (c) To make people politically conscious
(a) Fundamental Rights (d) To make people participate in development
(b) Directive Principle of State Policy administration
(c) Fundamental Duties Ans. (c) The main aim of Panchayat raj system is to settle the local
(d) Election Commission Act Policy problems locally and to make the people politically conscious.
Ans. (b) P.R. in India laid down under - DPSP mentioned in Part IV. 18. Nyaya Panchayats in Panchayti Raj system have no powers
12. Three-tier system of Panchayati Raj consists of of awarding imprisonment except in the state of
(a) Gram Panchayat, Panchayat Samiti, Block Samiti (a) West Bengal
(b) Gram Panchayat, Block Samiti, Zila Parishad (b) Jammu and Kashmir
(c) Gram Panchayat, Panchayat Samiti, Zila Parishad (c) Maharashtra
(d) Gram Panchayat, Zila Parishad, Block Samiti (d) Bihar
Ans. (c) Panchayati Raj is a system of governance in which are the Ans. (b) Nyaya Panchayat extends to the whole of India except the
basic unit of administrations . It has 3 levels: Gram panchayat (village State of Jammu and Kashmir.
level), Mandal Parishad or block samiti or panchayat samiti (block
19. Which of the following Indian states has no Panchayati Raj
level) and Zila parishad (district level).
institution?
13. Who was the president of the committee on whose (a) Assam (b) Tripura
recommendation was the Panchayati Raj established in India? (c) Kerala (d) Nagaland
(a) Balwant Rai Mehta Ans. (d) Nagaland has no Panchayat Raj institution. Currently,
(b) Ashok Mehta the Panchayati Raj system exists in all the states except Nagaland,
(c) Dr. Iqbal Narayan Meghalaya and Mizoram, and in all Union Territories except Delhi.
(d) Jeevraj Mehta
20. Functions to be assigned to panchayats by 73rd amendment
Ans. (a) The Balwant Rai Mehta Committee, headed by MP of the Constitution are mentioned in
Balwantrai Mehta, was a committee appointed by the Government
(a) Tenth schedule
of India in January 1957 to examine the working of the Community
(b) Eleventh schedule
Development Programme (1952) and the National Extension Service
(1953) and to suggest measures for their better working.
(c) Twelfth schedule
(d) Thirteenth schedule
14. The Panchayati Raj system was first started in India in the Ans. (b) By 73rd amendment in 1992. 11th schedule contains
states of Rajasthan and... provisions of Panchayat Raj.
(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Uttar Pradesh
(c) Gujrat (d) Haryana 21. Provision regarding panchayats and municipalities was
made in the Indian Constitution in which year?
Ans. (a) The panchayat raj system was first adopted by the state of
Rajsthan in Nagor district on 2nd Oct 1959. The second state was
(a) 1991 (b) 1992
Andhra Pradesh, while Maharashtra was the Ninth state. (c) 1995 (d) 2000
Ans. (b) The Constitution (73rd Amendment) Act, 1992 relating
15. The decision to conduct Panchayat Elections is taken by to Panchayats containing articles 243 to 243-O and the Constitution
which of the following? [CDS-2017] (74th Amendment) Act, 1992 relating to Municipalities (articles 243P
(a) The Central Government to 243ZG) imparted some basic features of certainty, continuity and
(b) The State Government strength to Panchayat Raj institutions all over the country.
(c) The District Judge
(d) The Election Commission 22. When and where Panchayati Raj system in India was
introduced?
Ans. (b) The State Election Commissions constituted under the
(a) July5, 1957; Firozabad (U.P)
Constitution (Seventy-third and Seventy-fourth) Amendments Act, 1992
(b) October 2, 1959; Nagor (Rajasthan)
for each State / Union Territory are vested with the powers of conduct
of elections to the Corporations, Muncipalities, Zilla Parishads, District
(c) Nov 14, 1959; Ahmedabad (Gujrat)
Panchayats, Panchayat Samitis, Gram Panchayats and other local bodies. (d) December 3, 1960; Bhopal (M.P)
They are independent of the Election Commission of India. Ans. (b) The panchayat raj system was first adopted by the state of
Rajsthan in Nagor district on 2nd Oct 1959.
16. A Panchayat Samiti at the block level is
(a) An advisory body 23. Which committee had first of all recommended three-tier
(b) An administrative authority Panchayati Raj in India in 1957?
(c) A consultant committee (a) Balwant Rai Committee
(d) A supervisory authority (b) Ashok Mehta Committee
Ans. (d) The principal function of the Panchayat Samiti is to (c) Setalwad Committee
co¬ordinate the activities of the various Panchayats within its (d) Hanumantayaa Committee
jurisdiction. The Panchayat Samiti supervises the work of the Ans. (a) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee had first of all
Panchayats and scrutinises their budgets. recommended three-tier Panchayati Raj in India in 1957. The Act
aims to provide a 3-tier system of Panchayati Raj for all States
17. The main purpose of Panchayati Raj is having a population of over 2 million, to hold Panchayat elections
(a) To create employment regularly every 5 years.
(b) To increase agricultural production
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C-108 INDIAN POLITY
24. The constitutional status has been given to Panchayats 31. Panchayati Raj is based on the principles of
under Article. (a) decentralisation
(a) 219 (b) 226 (b) deconcentration
(c) 239 (d) 243 (c) decmocratic centralization
Ans. (d) Article 243 gives constitutional status to the Panchayats. (d) democratic decentralisation
25. Panchayati Raj is organised at the Ans. (d) The principle of democratic decentralisation is very
(a) block level important and forms the basis of Panchayati Raj.
(b) village, block, district and state level 32. Which of the following committees is not concerned with
(c) village, block and district level Panchayati Raj?
(d) village and block level (a) Santhanam Committee
Ans. (c) Panchayati Raj is organised at the village, block and district (b) Ashok Mehta Committee
level. The 3-tier system of Panchayati Raj consists of Village-level (c) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
Panchayats, Block-level Panchayats, District-level Panchayats. (d) V.K.R.V. Rao Committee
26. The Panchayati Raj institution at the block level is known Ans. (a) The santhanam Committee Report 1964 defines corruption
as: as a complex problem having roots and ramifications in society as a
(a) Gram Panchayat (b) Panchayat Samiti whole.
(c) Zila Parishad (d) None of these 33. Which one of the following models was suggested by the
Ans. (b) Panchayati Raj institution at the block level is called the Ashok Mehta Committee for the Panchayati Raj in India?
Panchayat Samiti. It is the second tier of the Panchayati Raj system and (a) Three-tier model
acts as a link between village panchayat and district panchayat. (b) Mandal Panchayat model
Block level means Madal Parishad or block samiti or Panchayat samiti. (c) Two-tier model
(d) Gram Panchayat model
27. What is the middle unit in the three tier Panchayati Raj
System? Ans. (c) Two-tier model was suggested by the Ashok Mehta
(a) Gram Panchayat (b) Panchayat Samiti committee for the Panchayati Raj in India. The 3-tier system of
(c) Zila Parishad (d) Union Board Panchayati Raj should be replaced by the 2-tier system:
Ans. (b) Panchayat Samiti is the middle unit in the three-tier 34. Which one of the following Directive principles is nearer
Panchayati Raj system. A block panchayat (panchayat samiti) is a to Gandhi’s philosophy?
local government body at the tehsil or taluka level in India. (a) Equal pay for equal work
28. If a Panchayat is dissolved, elections are to be held within: (b) Separation of executive from judiciary
(a) One month (b) Three months (c) Strengthening of Gram Panchayats
(c) Six months (d) One year (d) Equal justice and free legal aid
Ans. (c) An election to constitute a Panchayat shall be completed Ans. (c) Gandhi’s philosophy was about strengthening of Gram
before the expiration of a period of six months from the date of its Panchayats.
dissolution. 35. Which of the following committees recommended that the
29. The Panchayati Raj is included in the elections to Panchayati Raj bodies should be held on party
(a) Union list (b) State list lines?
(c) Concurrent list (d) Residuary list (a) Balwant Rai Mehta committee
(b) Ashok committee
Ans. (b) Panchayati Raj is included in the State List of the Seventh
(c) Dhar Committee
Schedule of the Constitution.
(d) VKRV Rao committee
Article 248 - Residuary powers of legislation
7th schedule - Concurrent list or list -III Ans. (b) According to Ashok Mehta Committee, there should be
an official participation of political parties at all levels of Panchayat
7th schedule - Union list or list I.
elections.
30. Which one of the following Articles provides for the Dhar committee demanded for different region mainly south India
reservation of seats for the scheduled caste and scheduled for reorganization of states on linguistic basis in 1948. VKRV Rao
tribes in the Panchayat? was member of several committees live Bombay economic Industrial
(a) Article 243(A) (b) Article 243(B) survey committee, National income committee, UN Sub-committee
(c) Article 243(C) (d) Article 243(D) on experts on levels of living etc.
Ans. (d) According to Article 243 (D) seats should be reserved for SC 36. Elections in the Panchayati Raj Institutions in India are
and ST in every Panchayat and the number of seats of reserved shall conducted by
bear, as nearly as may be, the same proportion to the total number of (a) State Election Commissioner
seats to be filled by direct election in that Panchayat as the population (b) Election Commission of India
of the Scheduled Castes in that Panchayat area or of the Scheduled (c) State Government
Tribes in that Panchayat area bears to the total population of that area
(d) Central Government
such seats may be allotted by rotation to different constituencies in a
Panchayat. Ans. (a) The superintendence, direction and control of the preparation
Article 243 (A) – Gram Sabha of electoral rolls for, and the conduct of, all elections to the Panchayats
shall be vested in a State Election Commission consisting of a State
Article 243 (B) – Constitution of Panchayats
Election Commissioner to be appointed by the Governor.
Article 243 (C) – Composition of Panchayats
37. Which one of the following is not the concern of local Ans. (c) 73rd Amendment Act, 1992 provides for 3-tier system of
government? [NDA-2017] Panchayati Raj for all the states having population of over 20 Lakhs.
(a) Public health
(b) Sanitation 44. Which one of the following is incorrect in respect of
(c) Public utility service Local Government in India?
(d) Maintenance of public order (a) According to the Indian Constitution, local
government is not an independent tier in the federal
Ans. (d) The local government of India are vested with a long list system.
of functions delegated to them by the state governments under the (b) 30% of the seats in local bodies are reserved for
municipal legislation. women
38. In which year, the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act (c) Local government finances are to be provided by a
(1972) was assented by the President? Commission
(a) 1990 (b) 1991 (d) Elections to local bodies are to be determined by a
Commission
(c) 1993 (d) 1994
Ans. (b) According to 73rd amendment act 1993, under article 243D,
Ans. (c) The constitutional 73rd &74th Amendment Acts 1992
not less than 1/3rd i.e. 33% seats should be reserved for women.
received the assent of the president of India on 20th April 1993 and
came into force on 24th April and on 1st June 1993 respectively. 45. In the new Panchayati Raj Bill enacted in 1993, there are
several fresh provisions deviating from the past. Which
39. In which year, Ashok Mehta Committee was appointed to one of the following is not one such provisions?
review the working of Panchayati Raj institution? (a) A number of added responsibilities in the area of
(a) 1977 (b) 1978 agriculture rural development, primary education
(c) 1979 (d) 1980 and social forestry among other
Ans. (a) In December 1977, the Janata Government appointed a (b) Elections being made mandatory for all posts at the
committee on Panchayati Raj institutions under the chairmanship of time they are due
Ashoka Mehta. (c) A statutory representation for women in the
panchayats, up to a third of the strength
40. Which article of the Constitution lays down that state shall (d) Regular remuneration to the panchayat members, so
take steps to organise village Panchayats? as to ensure their punctuality and accountability
(a) Article 36 (b) Article 73 Ans. (d) Provision given in option (d) is not included under 73rd
(c) Article 24 (d) Article 40 amendment act 1993.
Ans. (d) Article 40 of the Constitution which enshrines one of the
46. Swaraj Trophy is associated with which of the following
Directive Principles of State Policy lays down that the state shall take
(a) Best district (b) Best Zila Parishad
steps to organise village panchayats and endow them with such powers
(c) Best metropolitan (d) Best Panchayat
and authority as may be necessary to enable them to function as units
of self-government. Ans. (a) Kerala Government distributes the Swaraj Trophy and
Article 73 – Extent of executive power of the union. cash prize for the best local bodies. From 1999-2000 onwards, the
prize extents for the best district panchayat, block panchayat and
Article 24 – Prohibition of employment of children in factories, etc.
municipalities.
41. After elections, vote of no-confidence against the sarpanch
47. Which is the first state in South India to introduce
can be proposed only after Panchayati Raj? [CDS-2017]
(a) 3 months (b) 6 months (a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Kerala
(c) 1 year (d) 2 years (c) Tamil Nadu (d) Karnatka
Ans. (d) Provided that if the no-confidence motion is lost another such Ans. (a) Andhra Pradesh is the first state in South India to introduce
motion shall not be moved against that Sarpanch before the expiry of Panchayati Raj. Overall second state in India after Rajasthan.
two years from the date of its having been lost.
48. Under which Prime Minister were the 73rd and 74th
42. Which of the following articles in the shape of the amendment implemented?
directive principles mentions the organisation of the (a) Narasimha Rao (b) Indira Gandhi
village panchayats? (c) Rajiv Gandhi (d) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
Ans. (a) 73rd and 74th amendment implemented in 1993 under period
of PV Narsimha Rao (1991-1996), 9th Prime minister of India.
Ans. (a) Article 40 states that the State shall take steps to organise
village panchayats and endow them with such powers and authority 49. Which of the following articles states that State shall take
as may be necessary to enable them to function as units of self- necessary steps to organize village panchayat?
government.
Article 43 - Living wage etc for workers
Article 44 - Uniform civil code for the citizen. Ans. (a) Article 40 of the Constitution which enshrines one of the
Directive Principles of State Policy lays down that the State shall take
Article 47 -Duty of the state to raise the level of nutrition and the
steps to organise village panchayats and endow them with such powers
standard of living and to improve public health.
and authority as may be necessary to enable them to function as units
43. A 2 – tier system is prescribed by the 73rd Amendment of self-government. Article 29- Protection of interest of minorities.
Act, 1992 for states with population less than Article 30 – Right of minorities to establish and administer
(a) 10 lakhs (b) 5 lakhs educational institution.
(c) 20 lakhs (d) none of these Article 101 – Vacation of seats in both houses.
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C-110 INDIAN POLITY
50. Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
India makes a specific mention of village panchayats? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(a) Article 19 (b) Article 21 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Article 40 (d) Article 246 Ans. (c) Article 243 A of the constitution is to provide a democratic
Ans. (c) Article 40 - Organisation of village Panchayats. basis to decentralized decision-making. A Gram Sabha may exercise
Article 21 - Protection of life and personal liberty. such powers and perform such functions at the village level as the
Article 246 - Subject matter of laws made by parliament and by the legislature of a state may by law, provide
legislature of states. 55. Which one of the following is incorrect in respect of local
51. Point out the difference between the local government in government in India?
India before and after the Constitutional Amendments in (a) According to the Indian constitution, local
government is not an independent tier in the federal
1992:
system.
1. It has become mandatory to hold regular elections to (b) 30% of the seats in local bodies are reserved for
the local government bodies. women.
2. 1/3rd positions are reserved for women. (c) Local government finances are to be provided by a
3. Elected officials exercise supreme power in the commission.
government. (d) Elections to local bodies are to be determined by a
Select the correct answer using the code given below. commission.
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
Ans. (b) Under Article 243, it has been mentioned that not less than
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 3 only 1/3rd (33%) seats in the local bodies shall be reserved for women.
Ans. (b) There is a provision of reservation of seats for SCs, STs
and Women at every level of Panchayat. Out of the total number of 56. What is the system of governance in the Panchayati Raj
seats to be filled by the direct elections, 1/3rd have to be reserved for set up?
women. (a) Single tier structure of local self govt. at the village
level
52. ‘Local government’ as a subject, is mentioned in which of (b) Two tier system of local self govt. at the village and
the following parts of the Constitution of India? block levels.
(a) State list under the 7th schedule (c) Three tier structure of local self govt. at the village,
(b) Concurrent list under the 7th schedule block and district levels.
(c) 11th Schedule (d) 12th schedule (d) Four tier system of local self govt. at the village,
Ans. (a) 11th and 12th Schedules of the Constitution of India belong block, district and state levels.
to only subjects under the ‘Panchayati Raj’, whereas 7th schedule Ans. (c) Part IX of the constitution envisages a 3-tier system of
of the state list, titled as ‘Local Government’. Local government, panchayats, namely (a) the village level (b) the district panchayat
refers to the constitution and powers of municipal corporations, (district-level) (c) The intermediate panchayat (block-level)
improvement trusts, district boards, mining settlement authorities
and other local authorities for the purpose of local self-government 57. Match list I with list II and select the correct answer using
or village administration. the codes given below the list:
List I List II
53. Which of the following provisions about the Panchayati (Local Bodies) (State as 1999)
Raj in the Constitution of India is/are correct? A. Zilla Parishads at 1. Andhra Pradesh
1. All the members of Panchayats at the village, the subdivisional
intermediate and district levels are elected directly level
by the voters. B. Mandal Praja 2. Assam
2. The Chairperson of Panchayats at the village, Parishad
intermediate and district levels is elected directly by C. Tribal Councils 3. Mizoram
the voters. D. Absence of 4. Meghalaya
Select the correct answer using the codes given below: village
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only Panchayats
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Codes:
A B C D A B C D
Ans. (a) The Chairperson of Panchayats at inter-mediate and district
(a) 2 1 4 3 (b) 1 2 4 3
levels are elected indirectly
(c) 3 2 1 4 (b) 2 1 3 4
54. Consider the following statements: [NDA-2017] Ans. (a) Zilla parishads at the sub-divisional level-Assam Mandal
1. The goal of empowering Gram Sabha as the voice of Praja parishad-Andhra Pradesh, Tribal Councils-Meghalaya and
Panchayats through Article 243A of the constitution Absence of village panchayats-Mizoram
was to provide a democratic basis to decentralized
decision making. 58. If a Panchayat is dissolved, elections are to be held within:
(a) 1 month (b) 3 months
2. The Ministry of Environment and Forests, has
(c) 6 months (d) 1 year
recently modified a circular it issued in 2009 and
allowed building activities in forests areas without the Ans. (c) The fresh elections to constitute a panchayat shall be
need for Gram Sabha consent. completed in case of dissolution before the expiry of a period of six
months.
59. Consider the following statements : 64. Which among the following statements regarding Lord
1. Courts have no jurisdiction to examine the validity Ripon’s plan for local self-government in India is/are
of a law relating to delimitation of constituencies or correct? [NDA 2011-I]
allotment of seats in respect of Panchayats. 1. The district should be the maximum area served by
2. An election to a Panchayat can be called in question
only by an election petition, which should be one Committee or Local Board.
presented to such authority and in such manner as 2. The Local Boards should consist of a large majority
may be prescribed by the State Election Commission. of nominated official members and be presided over
Which of the statements given above is / are correct ? by an official member as Chairman.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) Only 1 (b) Onty 2
Ans. (a)
60. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by
Ans. (d) Lord Ripon’s plan for local Self government in India is as
follows:
List-I (Features) List-II (Related to) 1. The sub-division, not the district, should be the maximum area
A. Democratic 1. 73rd Amendment served by one committee or local board with primary boards
Decentralisation under it serving very small areas, so that each member of it
might possess knowledge of and interest in its affairs.
B. Nagar Panchayats 2. 74th Amendment
2. The local boards should consist of a large majority of elected
C. Panchayati Raj 3. B.R. Mehta non-official members, and theyshould be presided over by a
Elections Committee non-official member.
D. Two Tier System 4. Ashok Mehta 65. The Parliament of India passed the Panchayats Extension
Committee to Scheduled Areas Law popularly known as PESA law.
Codes : Which one among the following statements regarding
A B C D A B C D PESA law is not correct? [NDA 2013-I]
(a) 3 1 2 4 (b) 4 1 2 3 (a) PESA was meant to provide self-governance in the
(c) 4 2 1 3 (d) 3 2 1 4 scheduled areas
Ans. (d) (b) PESA disempowers Gram Sabhas
(c) PESA protects the interests of the tribals
61. The members of a Panchayat Samiti are:
(a) Directly elected by the people (d) PESA conducts public hearings to protect inheritance
(b) Indirectly elected by the members of the Village rights of the tribals
Panchayat Ans. (b) Panchayats Extension to Scheduled Areas Act(PESA) is
(c) Nominated by the Block Development Officer a law enacted by the Government of India to cover the “Scheduled
(d) Nominated by the president / chairman of the areas” which are not covered in the 73rd amendment or Panchayati
Panchayat Samiti Raj Act of the Indian Constitution. It was enacted on 24 December
1996 to enable Gram Sabhas to self-govern their natural resources.
Ans. (a)
66. How does participatory budgeting seek to make the
62. Consider the following statements : functioning of local governance institutions more
The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act provided: transparent and accountable? [NDA 2013-I]
1. For 27% reservation of seats in the Panchayats for 1. By allowing citizens to deliberate and negotiate over
the Other Backward Castes (OBCs). the distribution of public resources.
2. That the Chairpersons of the Panchayats at 2. By allowing citizens to play a direct role in deciding
intermediate or district level, shall be elected by, and how and where resources should be spent.
from amongst the elected members thereof. 3. By allowing historically excluded citizens with access
Which of the statements given above is / are correct ?
to important decision-making venues.
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
Ans. (b) (c) Only 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
63. The tenure of every Panchayat shall be for five years from Ans. (d) Participatory Budgeting is a democratic process of
the date of [NDA 2011-I] deliberation by citizens, civic officials and elected representatives on
(a) its first meeting the issues that need attention and collectively arriving at decisions
(b) issue of notification for the conduct of elections to the that would directly be included in the budget of the government.
Panchayat Participatory budgeting empowers the citizens to present their demands
(c) declaration of the election results and priorities for improvement and influence through discussions
(d) taking oath of office by the elected members and negotiations the budget allocations made by their municipalities.
It is an opportunity in which the common citizens can decide about
Ans. (a) According to Article 243(E), every Panchayat, unless sooner the allocation and distribution of public expenditure in their areas or
dissolved under any law for the time being in force, shall continue for regions.
five years from the date appointed for its first meeting and no longer.
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C-112 INDIAN POLITY
67. Consider the following statements about local government (c) Coordinating and Supervisory Authority
in India: [NDA 2014-II] (d) Administrative Authority
1. Article 40 of Indian Constitution provides for the State Ans. (c) A Panchayat Samiti at the block level in India is only a
to organize village panchayats and endow them with Coordinating and Supervisory Authority.
such powers and authority as may be necessary to
make them function as units of self-government. 73. The members of Gram Sabha are
2. The 73rd and 74th Constitution Amendments inserted (a) Sarpanch, Upsarpanch and all elected Panchas
Part IX and IX A in the Constitution. (b) Sarpanch, Upsarpanch and Village level worker
3. The provisions in Parts IX and IX A of Indian (c) sarpanch, Gram Sevak and elected Panchas
Constitution are more or less parallel and analogous. (d) Registered voters of Village Panchayat
4. The 73rd Constitution Amendment is applicable to all Ans. (d) The members of Gram Sabha includes Registered voters of
states irrespective of size of population. Village Panchayat.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 only 74. Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct answer
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 from the codes given below – [UGC-II 2016]
List – I List – II
Ans. (b) 73rd constitution amendment is applicable to all states (A) Finance Commission 1. Ashok Mehta
except Jammu & Kashmir. Committee
68. The Panchayati Raj system under Part-IX of the Constitution (B) Nagar Panchayats 2. 73rd Constitutional
of India does not apply of the States of : Amendment Act
[NDA/NA 2015-II] (C) Democratic 3. 74th Constitutional
(a) Assam, Mizoram and Nagaland Decentralisation Amendment Act
(b) Nagaland, Meghalaya and Tripura (D) Mandal Panchayats 4. Balwantrai Mehta
(c) Nagaland, Meghalaya and Mizoram Committee
(d) Sikkim, Tripura and Meghalaya Codes :
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Ans. (c) In the history of Panchayati Raj, in India, on 24 April 1993,
(a) 2 3 4 1
the Constitutional (73rd Amendment) Act 1992 came into force to
(b) 1 2 3 4
provide constitutional status to the Panchayati Raj institutions. Currently,
the Panchayati Raj system exists in all the states except Nagaland,
(c) 3 4 2 1
Meghalaya and Mizoram, and in all Union Territories except Delhi.
(d) 2 3 1 4
Ans. (a)
69. The members of the Panchayat Samiti are
[UP-PCS 2013] List - I List - II
(A) Finance Commission 73rd Constitutional
(a) nominated by the Block Development officer
Amendment Act
(b) nominated by the Zila Panchayat Chairman
(c) directly elected by the people (B) Nagar Panchayats 74th Constitutional
(d) indirectly electred by the members of the Village Amendment Act
Panchayat (C) Democratic Balwantrai Mehta
Ans. (c) The voters of the State Legislative Assembly of the region Decentralisation Committee
directly elect members of the Panchayat Samiti. All the Pradhans of (D) Mandal Panchayats Ashok Mehta
the Gram Panchayat within the block area are also the members of Committee
Panchayat Samiti. The elected members of the Lok Sabha and the State
Legislature belonging to the block or any part of it or the members of 75. The System of Panchayat Raj is mentioned in –
the Rajya Sabha residing in that block-all are ex-officio members of [UK-PSC 2016]
the Panchayat Samiti. (a) The Union List (b) The State List
70. Who amongst the following had demanded first the (c) The Concurrent List (d) None of the above
dominion status for India? [UP-PCS 2013] Ans. (b) The system of Panchayat Raj is mentioned in the state list.
(a) Raj Gopalachari and Sardar Patel Panchayat Raj is the system of local self-government for villages.
(b) Pt. Motilal Nehru and Govind Ballabh pant
76. If there is dispute between Panchayat and Cantonment
(c) Sir Tej Bahadur Sapru and Jay Kar
Board, who will decide finally?
(d) Jawaharlal Nehru and Jag Jeevan Ram
[Chhatisgarsh-PSC 2016]
Ans. (c) (a) Collector, subject to approval of Divisional
71. What is the normal tenure of a Panchayat? commissioner
[UK-PSC/FR 2015] (b) Divisional Commissioner, subject to approval of
(a) 3 years (b) 4 years Panchayat and Rural Development Department
(c) 2 years (d) 5 years (c) Panchayat and Rural Development Department,
Subject to approval of State Government
Ans. (d) The normal tenure of Panchayat is 5 years. (d) State Government, Subject to approval of central
72. A Panchayat Samiti at the block level in India is only Government
a/an – [BPSC 2017] Ans. (d) State Government, subject to approval of Central
(a) Advisory Body Government can decide the dispute between Panchayat and
(b) Consultative Committee Cantonment Board.
77. Who notify the alteration in limits of Block and Zila 82. Which of the following statements about the Panchayati
Panchayat? [Chhatisgarsh-PSC 2016] Raj Institutions after the Constitutional Amendment
(a) Governor in1992 are false? NTSE
(b) State Election Commission I. Seats are reserved for the Scheduled Castes, Scheduled
(c) Divisional Commissioner Tribes, and Other Backward Classes in the elected
(d) Collector and District Returning Officer bodies of the Panchayati Raj Institutions.
Ans. (a) Governor will notify the alternation in limits of Block and II. Elections to the Panchayati Raj Institutions are
Zila Panchayat. supervised by the Election Commission of India.
78. What is correct about the powers of Zila Panchayats of III. Elections to the Panchayati Raj Institutions are held
Scheduled Areas? [Chhatisgarsh-PSC 2016] regularly after every five years.
(a) To plan minor water bodies IV. Half of the seats in all the States are reserved for
women.
(b) To control over institutions in all social sectors
(a) I and III (b) I and II
(c) To control on tribal sub-plans (c) III and IV (d) II and IV
(d) All of the above Ans. (d) II. Election of the Panchayati Raj Institution are supervised
Ans. (d) The powers of Zila panchayats of scheduled Areas are– by the Election Commission of India it is not true. Election of
(i) To plan minor water bodies the Panchayati Raj Institutions are supervised by State Election
(ii) To control over institutions in all social sectors Commission.
(iii) To control on tribal subplans IV. Half of the seats in all the states are reserved for women.
This statement is not true. The Women’s Reservation Bill or The
(iv) To exercise other functions as conferred by state govt.
constitution (108th Amendment) Bill 2008 was lapsed as Rajya
79. The Constitution of India was amended in 1992 to make the sabha passed the bill on 9th March 2016 but Lok sabha never voted
third-tier of democracy more effective. As a result, at least against the bill so, there is no laws or regulation over the reservation
one-third of all positions in the local bodies are reserved seats for women in elections.
for women. This is because 83. Which one of the following is not correct about the
(a) women are good at managing resources. Panchayats as laid down in Part IX of the Constitution of
(b) although women constitute nearly half of the population,
they have inadequate representation in decision-making India? [CDS 2019-I]
bodies. (a) The Chairperson of a Panchayat needs to be directly
(c) we have many powerful women leaders. elected by people in order to exercise the right to vote
(d) women are obedient and would follow the constitutional in the Panchayat meetings.
provisions well. (b) The State Legislature has the right to decide whether
Ans. (b) In 73rd Amendment Act, at least one third of seats in Local or not offices of the Chairpersons in the Panchayats
Self Government are reserved for women because women constitute are reserved for SCs, STs or women.
nearly half of the population. (c) Unless dissolved earlier, every Panchayat continues
for a period of five years.
80. The members of Gram Sabha are [UGC December 2011]
(d) The State Legislature may by law make provisions for
(a) Sarpanch, Upsarpanch and all elected Panchas
audit of accounts of the Panchayats.
(b) Sarpanch, Upsarpanch and Village level worker
(c) Sarpanch, Gram Sevak and elected Panchas Ans. (a) The chairperson of a panchayat can be elected directly or
indirectly, as the legislature may provide.
(d) Registered voters of Village Panchayat
Ans. (d) The members of Gram Sabha are Registered voters of Village 84. Which one of the following statements in relation to
Panchayat. The Gram Sabha members also elect the representatives to Panchayats is not correct? [CDS 2020-II]
the Gram Panchayat. Together the Sarpanch and Panchs form a Gram (a) Legislature of a State may, by law, make provisions
Panchayat. A Gram Panchayat is elected for five years. with respect to the composition of Panchayats
(b) Panchayat area means the territorial area of a
81. The Constitution of India was amended in 1992 to make
the third-tier of democracy more effective. As a result, Panchayat
at least one-third of all positions in the local bodies are (c) Gram Sabha includes all persons in the electoral rolls
reserved for women. This is because [NTSE] of village within a Panchayat
(a) women are good at managing resources. (d) Reservation of seats for SCs and STs has nothing to do
(b) although women constitute nearly half of the with proportion of their population.
population, they have inadequate representation in Ans. (d) Article 243D provides for reservation for the Scheduled
decision-making bodies. Castes and the Scheduled Tribes in every Panchayat. Seats shall be
(c) we have many powerful women leaders. reserved for (a) the Scheduled Castes; and (b) the Scheduled Tribes,in
(d) women are obedient and would follow the every Panchayat and the number of seats of reserved shall bear, as nearly
constitutional provisions well. as may be, the same proportion to the total number of seats to be filled
Ans. (b) In 73rd Amendment Act, at least one third of seats in Local by direct election in that Panchayat as the population of the Scheduled
Self Government are reserved for women because women constitute Castes in that Panchayat area or of the Scheduled Tribes in that Panchayat
nearly half of the population. area bears to the total population of that area and such seats may be
allotted by rotation to different constituencies in a Panchayat.
EBD_9432
C-114 INDIAN POLITY
85. Which Article gives the list of 29 functions to be performed 3. Under 74th Amendment of the Constitution, the local body
by the Panchayati Raj Institutions? [BPSC 2020] for a transitional area is known as
(a) Article 243 (H) (b) Article 243(E) (a) Nyaya Panchayat (b) Municipal Panchayat
(c) Article 243(F) (d) Article 243(G) (c) Nagar Panchayat (d) Gram Panchayat
(e) None of the above/More than one of the above Ans. (c) Under 74th Amendment of the Constitution the local body
for a transitional area is known as Nagar Panchayat. This article
Ans. (d) The 73rd Amendment provides for an elaborate system of provides that there be a Nagar Panchayat for transitional areas i.e. an
establishing panchayats as units of self-government. For the first time area in transition from rural to urban, a municipality for a smaller urban
in the constitutional history of India, the constitution of panchayats, area and a municipal corporation for a larger urban area. Amendment
the duration of their term, their membership, the constitution of a article 280
Finance Commission to review their financial position is detailed. It 4. Which among the following in India have been referred to
also adds a new Schedule to the Constitution, the Eleventh Schedule as “Glorified Municipalities” by critics?
(Article 243G), which lists 29 subjects, which are to be handled by the (a) Nagar Nighams (b) Union Territories
panchayats. This schedule covers important topics such as Panchayat’s (c) Panchayats (d) States
powers, rural development, poverty alleviation, market, roads and
Ans. (d) The critics slammed the Centre for making attempts to
drinking water etc. With this Amendment, Panchayati Raj institutions “weaken the States with too much interference, reducing them to the
are as much a part of the structure of constitutional government in status of glorified municipal corporations.”
India as the Lok Sabha.
5. Reducing water consumption and improvising water
86. The superintendence, direction and control of all elections efficiency in building is a major step towards sustainable
to the Panchayats are vested in [UPPSC Prelims 2020] water management. How do we reduce our water
(a) The Governor footprint?
(b) The Election Commission of India 1. Conventional faucet should be replaced by modern
taps.
(c) The District Panchayat Raj Officer
2. We should use top-loading washing machines in
(d) The State Election Commission place of front loading washing machines.
Ans. (d) The State Election Commission takes care of superintendence, 3. Single-flush toilets should be replaced by dual-flush
direction and control of all the elections to the Panchayats. The toilets.
elections of Panchayats are held on the local level so the State Election Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Commission looks after this. It works under the Election Commission (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
of India. The Election Commission of India is an autonomous (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
constitutional authority responsible for administering election Ans. (c)
processes in India at national and state.
6. In India, the first municipal corporation was set up in
87. Panchayati Raj Subject falls under which List of the which one of the following
Constitution ? [MPPSC 2019] (a) Calcutta (b) Madras
(a) Union List (b) State-List (c) Bombay (d) Delhi
(c) Concurrent List (d) None of the above Ans. (b) In 1687, the first municipal corporation in India was set
up at Madras during the British rule period. The Chennai Municipal
Ans. (b) Article 40 of the Indian Constitution directs the states to
Corporation (officially the Corporation of Chennai), formerly known
form panchayats.It Empowers the State Government to provide the
as the Corporation of Madras, is the civic body that governs the city
necessary powers and powers to Panchayats to function as institutions of Chennai (formerly Madras), India. Inaugurated on September 29,
of self-government. 1688, under a Royal Charter issued by King James II on December
Urban Local Governments 30, 1687 as the Corporation of Madras, it is the oldest municipal body
of the Commonwealth of Nations outside Great Britain. It is headed
1. Which Act provides for the reservation seats for women, by a mayor, who presides over 200 councilors each of whom represents
scheduled castes and scheduled tribes in the municipality? one of the 200 wards of the city. It is also the second oldest corporation
(a) 65th Constitutional Amendment Act in the world.
(b) 68th Constitutional Amendment Act 7. What is the qualification to contest the election of
(c) 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act Municipal Council? [Chhatisgarsh-PSC 2016]
(d) 74th Constitutional Amendment Act (i) For the office of the President, his age should not be
Ans. (d) less than 25 years.
(ii) For the office of the councillor, his age should not be
2. The Municipal Commissioner is appointed by less than 21 years.
(a) Member of Legislative Assembly (iii) Whose name is in the voter list, he can contest the
(b) Zila Parishad election.
(c) State Government (iv) A person can contest the election of councillor from
(d) District Magistrate
two wards simultaneously.
Ans. (c) A municipal commissioner is appointed by the state (v) A person can contest the election of president and
government from the Indian Administrative Service and mostly
from Provincial Civil Service to head the administrative staff of the councillor simultaneously.
Municipal Corporation, implement the decisions of the Corporation (a) (i), (ii), (iii) (b) (i), (ii), (v)
and prepare its annual budget. (c) (ii), (iv), (v) (d) (iii), (iv), (v)
Ans. (b) The qualification to contest the election of municipal (vi) The process of recall may be initiated once in his
corporation are whole term.
(I) For the office of the President, his age should not be less than (vii) The process of recall may be initiated twice in his
25 years. whole term.
(II) For the office of Councillor his age should not be less than 21 (a) (i), (iii), (v) (b) (ii), (iv), (vi)
years.
(c) (i), (v), (vii) (d) (ii), (iv), (vii)
(V) A person can contest the election of president and councillor
simultaneously. Ans. (b) The procedure of recall of President of Municipal Council
may be initiated with a proposal signed by 3/4 members of council.
8. What is correct about the recall of President of Municipal President may be recalled by general voters with majority. The process
Council? [Chhatisgarsh-PSC 2016] of recall may be initiated once in his whole term.
(i) The procedure of recall may be initiated with a 9. Local self-government can be best explained as an
proposal signed by 3/4 members of council. exercise in [IAS-2017]
(ii) The procedure of recall may be initiated with a (a) Federalism
proposal signed by 3/4 elected members of council. (b) Democratic decentralization
(iii) If the council passed a resolution by majority, (c) Administrative delegation
collector will take action. (d) Direct democracy
(iv) President may be recalled by general voters with Ans. (b) Balwant Rai G Mehta Committee submitted its report in
majority. November 1957 and recommended the establishment of the scheme
(v) President may be recalled by general voters with 2/3 of ‘democratic decentralisation’, which ultimately came to be known
majority. as Panchayati Raj.
EBD_9432
6 Statutory Bodies: Lok Pal/Lokayukta,
NDC, NITI Ayog & NHRC
1. Which of the following is not provided by the Constitution 2. The State Information Commission is a high-powered
of India? independent body.
(a) Election Commission Which of the statements given above is / are correct ?
(b) Finance Commissions (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Public Service Commission (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) Planning Commission Ans. (c)
Ans. (d) The planning commission was not provided by the 6. Consider the following statements:
constitution of India.
1. The first National Commission for Scheduled Castes
2. Assertions (A): The word minority is not defined in the and Scheduled Tribes was constituted in the year
Constitution of India. 1992.
Reason (R): The Minorities Commission is not a 2. The first National Commission for Scheduled Castes
constitutional body. and Scheduled Tribes was constituted under the
Which of the following is correct? Constitution (Sixty-fifth Amendment) Act.
(a) Both A and R true and R is the correct explanation of A. 3. The 87th Amendment bifurcated the combined
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation National Commission for Scheduled Castes and
of A Scheduled Tribes into two separate bodies.
(c) A is true but R is false. Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(d) A is false but R is true. (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
Ans. (b) The word minority is not defined in the constitution of
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
India, yet it recognizes two types of minorities, based on religion and Ans. (a) The first Commission was constituted in 1992 with Shri
language. The minorities commission is a statutory body constituted S.H. Ramdhan as chairman. The second Commission was constituted
in 1993 by an act of Parliament. in October 1995 with Shri H. Hanumanthappa as chairman.
3. Consider the following statements: [CDS-2017] The 65th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1990 provided for the
1. The Central Information Commission can order establishment of a high level National Commission for SCs and STs.
inquiry into any matter if there are reasonable The 89th constitution Amendment Act of 2003 bifurcated the Combined
grounds. National Commission for SCs and STs into two separate bodies.
2. The Central Information Commission has the power 7. The National Human Rights Commission can:
to secure compliance of its decisions from the public 1. Enquire only on the presentation of a petition of
authority. the victim and not suo moto, into the complaint of
Which of the statements given above is / are correct ? violation of human rights.
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 2. Not intervene in any proceeding involving violation
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 of human rights pending before a court.
Ans. (c) The Central Information Commission was established by Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
the central government in 2005. It was constituted through an official (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
Gazette Notification under the provisions of the Right to Information (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
act (2005). Hence, It is not a constitutional body. Ans. (d) The commission can inquire suo moto or on a petition
4. Consider the following statements : presented to it by victim or any person on his behalf or on a direction
1. The Central Information Commission is a high- into complaint of violation of human rights.
powered independent body. 8. Consider the following statements regarding the National
2. The Central Information Commission is a Human Rights Commission of India [NDA-2017]
constitutional body. 1. Its chairman must be a retired CJI.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct ? 2. It has formations in each state as state Human Rights
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 Commission.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 3. Its powers are only recommendatory in nature.
Ans. (a) Central Information Commission is a High powered 4. It is mandatory to appoint a woman as a member of
independent body and not a Constitutional body. the commission.
Which of the above statements are correct?
5. Consider the following statements : (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
1. The State Information Commission entertains (b) 2 and 4 only
complaints and appeals pertaining to offices, financial (c) 2 and 3 only
institutions and public sector undertakings under the (d) 1 and 3
concerned state government.
STATUTORY BODIES: LOK PAL/ LOKAYUKTA, NDC, NITI AYOG & NHRC C-117
Ans. (d) Only 1 and 3 statements are correct. They are not necessarily 13. Assertion (A): An award made by a Lok Adalat is deemed
formed in each state as state Human Rights Commission. Till now only be a decree of a Civil Court.
15 states have SHRCs and not mandatory appoint a woman as a member. Reason (R): Award of Lok Adalat is final and binding on
all parties, and no appeal lies against thereto
9. Answer the incorrect one from below about the Lok before any court [NDA 2008-II]
Ayuktas? Codes:
(a) Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh have no Lokayuktas. (a) Bath A and R are true and R is the correct explanation
(b) 11th All India Lokayukta Conference 2012 was held of A
in New Delhi. (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct
(c) Both (a) and (b) explanation of A
(d) Neither (a) nor (b) (c) A is true, but R is false
Ans. (a) Tamil Nadu and Andhra pradesh have already set up (d) A is false, but R is true
Lokayauktas. So the incorrect answer is option (a). The Lokayukta Ans. (b) The award of the Lok Adalat is fictionally deemed to be
appointed by the people is an anti-corruption ombudsman organization decrees of Court and therefore the court has all the powers in relation
in the Indian states. The Administrative Reforms Commission (ARC) thereto as it has in relation to a decree passed by itself. This includes
headed by Morarji Desai submitted a special interim report on “Problems the powers to extend time in appropriate cases. The award passed by
of Redressal of Citizen’s Grievances” in 1966. In this report, the ARC the Lok Adalat is the decision of the court itself, though, arrived at by
recommended the setting up of two special authorities designated as the simpler method of conciliation instead of the process of arguments
‘Lokpal’ and ‘Lokayukta’ for the redressal of citizens’ grievances. in court.
10. Consider the following 14. Which one of the following Commissions is not provided
1. Disputes with mobile cellular companies in the Constitution of India? [NDA 2009-II]
2. Motor accident cases (a) Planning Commission
3. Pension cases (b) UPSC
For which of the above are Lok Adaalats held? (c) Finance Commission
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 (d) Election Commission
(c) 2 Only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (a) The Planning Commission was set up by a Resolution
Ans. (c) Lok Adalats settle disputes through conciliation and of the Government of India in March 1950.It is not provided in the
compromise. Lok Adalats have been organized for settlement of motor constitution of India.
accident cases, insurance claims and Land dispute cases. The System
of Lok Adalats is an improvement and is based on the principles of 15. With reference to Lok Adalats, which one among the
Mahatma Gandhi. following statements is correct? [NDA 2012-II]
(a) Lok Adalats have the jurisdiction to settle the matters
11. With reference to Lok Adalats which of the following at pre-litigative state and not those matters pending
statements is correct? before any court
(a) Lok Adalats have the jurisdiction to settle the matters (b) Lok Adalats can deal with matters which are civil and
at pre-litigative stage and not those matters pending not criminal in nature
before any court. (c) Lok Adalats has not been given any statutory status so
(b) Lok Adalats can deal with matters which are civil and far
not criminal in nature. (d) No appeal lies in a civil court against the order of the
(c) Every Lok Adalat consist of either serving or retired Lok Adalat
judicial officers only or not any other person.
(d) None of the statements given above is correct. Ans. (d) Award has the same effect as of a Civil Court decree. The
Supreme Court has held that award of the Lok Adalat is as good as the
Ans. (d) Lok Adalat has the jurisdiction to settle, by way of effecting decree of a Court. The award of the Lok Adalat is fictionally deemed
compromise between the parties, any matter which may be pending to be decrees of Court and therefore the courts have all the powers
before any court. Lok Adalat is a non-adversarial system, whereby in relation thereto as it has in relation to a decree passed by itself. It
mock courts (called Lok Adalats) are held by the State Authority, was the legal services authority act 1987, which gave statutory status
District Authority, Supreme Court Legal Services Committee, High to Lok Adalat.
Court Legal Services Committee, or Taluk Legal Services Committee.
16. The Planning Commission of India has been constituted
12. With reference to Lok Adalat, consider the following [NDA 2013-II]
statements: (a) under constitutional provision with specific mention
1. An award made by a Lok Adalat is deemed to be a for it
decree of a Civil Court and no appeal lies against (b) through an Act of Parliament
thereto before any Court. (c) through a cabinet decision in this regard
2. Matrimonial/Family disputes are not covered under (d) through constitutional amendment
Lok Adalat
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? Ans. (c) The Planning Commission was established in March
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 1950 by an executive resolution of the Government of India, on
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 the recommendation of the Advisory Planning Board constituted
in 1946, under the chairmanship of KC Neogi. Thus, the Planning
Ans. (a) An award made by a Lok adalat is deemed to be a decree Commission is neither constitutional nor a statutory body. Planning
of a Civil Court and no appeal lies against thereto before any court. It commission has been replaced by new institution namely NITI
was according to the Legal Services Authority Act 1987, which gave Aayog.
statutory status to Lok Adalat.
EBD_9432
C-118 INDIAN POLITY
17. The First Five Year Plan (1951-1956) was drafted by : 22. In relation to offences described under Section 175,
[NDA/NA 2015-II] Section 178, Section 179, Section 180 or Section 228 of
(a) P C Mahalanobis (b) K N Raj the Indian Penal Code, the Human Rights Commission is
(c) J C Kumarappa (d) Jawaharlal Nehru to be deemed [MPPSC- 2018]
Ans. (b) Kakkadan Nandanath Raj was a veteran Indian economist.
(a) Criminal Court (b) Civil Court
He is popularly known as K. N. Raj. He played an important role in
(c) Revenue Court (d) None of the above -
India’s planned development, drafting sections of India’s first Five Ans. (b) In relation to offences described under Section 175, Section
Year Plan. 178, Section 180 or Section 228 of the Indian panel code, the human
18. During Twelfth Five-Year Plan, which one of the following rights commission is to be deemed civil court.
average annual growth rate targets was envisaged for 23. While dealing with complaints of violation of Human
agriculture and allied sector? [BPSC- 2018] Rights by the members of the armed forces, the
(a) 3.0 percent (b) 3.5 percent Commission either on its own motion or on receipt of a
(c) 4.0 percent (d) 4.5 percent petition will [MPPSC- 2018]
(e) None of the above/More than one of the above (a) enquire itself
(b) give directions to the concerned police officers to
Ans. (c) The average annual growth rate of agriculture and allied enquire
sector during the first four years of the current Five Year Plan period (c) seek a report from the Central Government
(2012-17) has been 1.6 per cent as against the 12th plan target of 4
per cent per annum
Ans. (c) While dealing with complaints of violation of Human Rights
19. Which statement is true in relation to the Protection of
by the armed forces, the Commission either on its own motion or on
Human Rights Act ? [MPPSC- 2018] receipt of a petition will seek a report from the Central Government.
(a) The Act came into force on 23rd September, 1993
(b) The Act came into force on 28th September, 1993 24. In the definition of armed forces under the Protection of
(c) The Act came into force on 23rd September, 1995 Human Rights Act, which of the following is not included?
(d) The Act came into force on 28th September, 1995 [MPPCS- 2018]
(a) Navy
Ans. (b) The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) of India (b) Armed Forces of the State
is an autonomous public body constituted on 12 October 1993 under (c) Military
the Protection of Human Rights Ordinance of 28 September 1993. It (d) Air Force
was given a statutory basis by the Protection of Human Rights Act,
Ans. (b) In the definition of armed forces under the Protection of
1993 (TPHRA).
Human Rights Act, Armed Forces of the state are not included.
20. Who is not the ex officio member of the National Human 25. Who was the first Vice-Chairman of the NITI Ayog?
Rights Commission ? [MPPSC- 2018] [UP-PCS- 2018]
(a) The Chairperson of the National Commission for (a) Arvind Panagariya
Minorities. (b) Raghuram Rajan
(b) The Chairperson of the Law Commission of India (c) Chandrashekhara Subramanyam
(c) The Chairperson of the National commission for the (d) Rajiv Kumar
scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes
Ans. (a) Arvind Panagariya took charge as Vice-Chairman of NITI
(d) The Chairperson of the National Commission for Aayog on 13 January 2015. He became the first vice-chairman of
Women the National Institution for Transforming India (NITI) Aayog, which
Ans. (b) The NHRC (National Human Rights Commission) consists replaced the Planning Commission on 1 January 2015.
of: A Chairperson, One Member who is, or has been, a Judge of the 26. Which of the following is an extra-constitutional agency?
Supreme Court of India, One Member who is, or has been, the Chief [UP-PCS- 2018]
Justice of a High Court, Two Members to be appointed from among (a) Union Public Service Commission
persons having knowledge of, or practical experience in, matters (b) Finance Commission
relating to human rights. In addition, the Chairpersons of four National (c) Election Commission
Commissions of (1.Minorities 2.SC 3.ST 4.Women) serve as ex officio (d) NITI Ayog
members. Ans. (d) Extra constitutional bodies or Non-constitutional bodies
21. The term of office of members of the National Human derive their authority by a law created by the parliament, an ordinance
Rights Commission from the date on which he/she enters promulgated by the president or an executive order. It does not have
upon his /her office is [MPPSC- 2018] mention in the constitution. (a) Statutory Body: Created by a law
(a) five years or till the age of 65 years passed by the parliament. Example – Information commission,
(b) five years or till the age of 70 years National Human Rights Commission (formed to conform to United
(c) six years or till the age of 65 years Nations charter on Human rights), Lokpal, CBI. (b) Executive bodies:
Created by an executive order – i.e. order of a ministry of union
(d) six years or till the age of 70 years
or state. Such bodies have no constitutional or law backing them.
Ans. (b) The Chairperson and the members of the NHRC have tenure Example: Planning commission (now replaced by NITI Aayog),
of five years. But if any member attains the age of 70 years before the UIDAI (Aadhar card).
completion of his tenure, he or she has to retire from the membership.
STATUTORY BODIES: LOK PAL/ LOKAYUKTA, NDC, NITI AYOG & NHRC C-119
27. Which one of the following statements regarding the Ans. (c) NITI Aayog is not a constitutional body nor is it a statutory
Universal Declaration of Human Rights is not correct? body. However, it has been formed by a cabinet resolution as was
[CDS II- 2018] the case in erstwhile yojana Aayog or planning commission .It’s an
(a) The UN General Assembly adopted the Human advisory body and it is a think tank in terms of five years planning.
Rights Charter on 10th December, 1948.
(b) Some of the provisions of the Fundamental Rights 30. In India, which of the following review the independent
enshrined in the Constitution of India are similar to the regulators in sectors like telecommunications, insurance,
provisions of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights. electricity etc.? [IAS Prelims 2019-I]
(c) The Right to Property is not a part of the Universal 1. Ad Hoc Committees set up by the Parliament.
Declaration of Human Rights.
2. Parliamentary Department Related Standing
(d) India is a signatory to the Universal Declaration of
Human Rights. Committees
3. Finance Commission
Ans. (c) A right to property is recognised in Article 17 of the
Universal Declaration of Human Rights, but it is not recognised
4. Financial Sector Legislative Reforms Commission
in the International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights or the 5. NITI Aayog
International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
28. Which one of the following statements regarding the (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 , 3 and 4
Human Rights Council is not correct? [CDS II- 2018] (c) 3, 4 and 5 (d) 2 and 5
(a) It is an inter-governmental body within the United Ans. (a)
Nations system made up of all members of the UN. • Financial Sector Legislative Reforms Commission was setup for
(b) It is responsible for the promotion and protection of a limited time period under Justice B.N. Srikrishna’s chairmanship.
all human rights around the globe. And its mandate did not include reviewing the electricity regulator. #4
(c) It replaced the former United Nations Commission is wrong. Similar reason eliminates Finance Commission (#3) which
on Human Rights. is setup periodically for the tax distribution between Union and States.
(d) It is made up of 47 UN Member States which are Thus (b) and (c) are eliminated.
elected by the UN General Assembly. • NITI Ayog is a think tank and policy advisor for the Government.
Ans. (a) The United Nations Human Rights Council (UNHRC) is a Yes, it reviews development work in the Aspirational districts and SDG
United Nations body whose mission is to promote and protect human implementation across India but reviewing independent regulators is
rights around the world. The UNHRC has 47 members elected for not under its purview. So, #5 is wrong. This eliminates (d). Thus by
staggered three-year terms on a regional group basis. The members of elimination, we are left with Answer (a) only 1 and 2.
the General Assembly elect the members who occupy the UNHRC’s
47 seats. The term of each seat is three years, and no member may
31. In the Indian Order of Precedence, who amongst the
occupy a seat for more than two consecutive terms. following comes first? [BPSC 2019]
(a) The Chairman of UPSC
29. Which of the following statements are correct in respect of
Niti Aayog ? [UGC July 2016] (b) The Chief Election Commissioner
(A) It is a constitutional body. (c) The Comptroller and Auditor General
(B) It is a statutory body. (d) The Chief Justice of High Court
(C) It is neither a constitutional body nor a statutory body. (e) None of the above/More than one of the above
(D) It is a think-tank. Ans. (e) The Chairperson of Union Public Service Commission, the
Select the correct answer from the codes given below : Chief Election Commissioner and Comptroller and Auditor General
(a) (A) and (D) (b) (B) and (D) of India are on the same level of ranking.
(c) (C) and (D) (d) (B), (C) and (D)
EBD_9432
Elections : Electoral
7 System & Its Reform
1. Who among the following are mentioned in the Ans. (b) In proportional representation, a candidate requires 50% + 1
Constitution of India, as the part of the Electoral College vote to get elected. In a bi-party system, one automatically secures it.
to elect the members of the Legislative Council of a State? Proportional representation (PR) is a concept in voting systems used
1. Members of local bodies in the state to elect an assembly or council. PR means that the number of seats
2. Members of chambers of commerce in the state. won by a party or group of candidates is proportionate to the number
3. Graduates of three years and residing within the state of votes received.
4. All the teachers of three years in the state.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below: 7. A college student desires to get elected to the municipal
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only council of his city. The validity of his nomination would
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 depend on the important condition, among others, that?
(a) He obtains permission from the principal of his college.
1. (b) Of the total number of members of the Legislative council (b) He is a member of a political party.
consists of—Member of local bodies in the state, Graduates of three (c) His name figures in the voter’s list.
years and residing within the state. (d) He files a declaration owing allegiance to the
Nearly 1/12th of its memebers shall be elected by the persons constitution of India.
who have been for at least three years engaged in teaching in such
educational institutions within the State, not lower in standard than Ans. (c) The validity of nomination of a person to get elected to
that of a secondary school. the municipal council would depend on the condition that his name
should be figured in the voter’s list.
2. Voting right by the youth at the age of 18 years was exercised
for the first time in the general election of [CDS 2017] 8. Which one of the following statements about Electoral
(a) 1987 (b) 1988 Government in India is not correct? (CDS 2015-II)
(c) 1989 (d) 1990 (a) The superintendence, direction and control of elections
are vested in the Election Commission of India.
Ans. (c) 61th amendment, 1989 on amending article 326 reduced (b) There is one general electoral roll for every territorial
age for voting rights from 21 to 18. constituency.
3. The system of proportion of Representation as an electoral (c) The Parliament has the power to make laws relating
mechanism ensures to the delimitation of constituencies.
(a) Representation of minorities (d) The Supreme Court of India has the authority to
(b) Rule of majority scrutinize the validity of a law relating to delimitation
(c) Stability in government of constituencies.
(d) Common political thinking Ans. (d) Under Article 82 of the constitution, after every census, the
Ans. (a) delimitation commission demarcates the boundary of parliamentary
constituency on the basis of Delimitation Act.
4. Right to vote is a
(a) Social right (b) Personal right 9. The electronic voting machines are developed jointly with
(c) Political right (d) Legal right (CDS 2015-II)
1. Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited
Ans. (d) Right to vote is a legal right.
2. Bharat Electronics Limited
5. If in an election to a state Legislative Assembly, the candidate 3. Electronics Corporation of India Limited
who is declared elected loses his deposit, it means that? 4. Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited
(a) The polling was very poor. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(b) The election was for a multi-member constituency. (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) The elected candidate’s victory over his nearest rival (c) 2 and 4 (d) 3 and 4
was very marginal.
(d) A very large number of candidates contested the election. Ans. (b) Bharat Electronics Limited (BEL) and Electronics
Corporation of India Limited both jointly developed EVM (Electronic
Ans. (d) A candidate loses his deposit only when he is polled less voting Machine). It was implemented partly in 1999 election and
than 1/6th of votes. It can only be possible when a very large number totally in 2004 election.
of candidates contested the elections.
10. Under which of the following conditions security deposits
6. Proportional representation is NOT necessary in a country of a candidate contesting for a Lok Sabha seat is returned
where? to him/her? [NDA 2009-II]
(a) There are no reserved constituencies.
1. The nomination made by the candidate if found to be
(b) A two-party system has developed
(c) The first past-post system prevails invalid.
(d) There is a fusion of presidential and parliamentary 2. The candidate has withdrawn his/her nomination even
form of government. though it is found valid.
ELECTIONS : ELECTORAL SYSTEM & ITS REFORM C-121
3. The candidate lost the polls but secured l/6th of the Ans. (b) Sustained economic growth specially after the 1990s, is
total number of valid votes polled in that election. not an attribute of sustainability of Indian democratic model.
(a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 3 15. Which among the following is not a part of the electoral
(c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these reforms?
(a) Installation of electronic voting machines
Ans. (b) The deposit made by a candidate shall be returned if the (b) Appointment of election Commissioner
following conditions are satisfied:- (c) Registration of Political parties
(i) the candidate is not shown in the list of contesting candidates, (d) Disqualifying the offenders
that is to say, either his nomination was rejected or after his
nomination was accepted, he withdrew his candidature; or Ans. (a) Electoral reforms is change in electoral systems to improve
(ii) he dies before the commencement of the poll; or how public desires are expressed in election results, Installation of
(iii) he is elected; or electronic voting machines is not the parts of such reforms.
(iv) he is not elected but gets more than 1/6th of the total number 16. For election to the Lok Sabha, a nomination paper can be
of valid votes polled by all the candidates at the election. filed by
11. The core of political democracy lies in the basic axiom of (a) anyone residing in India.
electoral democracy which is based on [NDA 2010-II] (b) a resident of the constituency from which the election
(a) Right to education (b) Freedom of speech is to be contested.
(c) Right to equality (d) Universal adult franchise (c) any citizen of India whose name appears in the electoral
roll of a constituency.
Ans. (d) The core of political democracy is based on Universal adult (d) any citizen of India.
Franchise. pertaining to civil matters in India.
Ans. (c) Let’s go by elimination.
12. Which of the following statements is/are correct? • To contest any election, person has to be CITIZEN of India.
[NDA 2010-II] This eliminates A and B.
1. A registered voter in India can contest an election to • Any citizen of India, then could be a minor (below 18 years
Lok Sabha from any constituency in India. also) then he can’t contests election. So, “D” also wrong.
2. As per the Representation of the People Act, 1951, if Hence we are left with answer “C”.
a person is convicted of any offence and sentenced
to an imprisonment of 2 years or more, he will be 17. Consider the following statements:
disqualified to contest election. 1. In the election for Lok Sabha or State Assembly, the
Select the correct answer using the codes given below winning candidate must get at least 50 per cent of the
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 votes polled, to be declared elected.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither I nor 2 2. According to the provisions laid down in the
Ans. (b) A registered voter in India can contest an election to Lok Constitution of India, in Lok Sabha, the Speaker’s post
Sabha from any constituency in India except autonomous Districts goes to the majority party and the Deputy Speaker’s to
of Assam, Lakshadweep and Sikkim. According to Section 8 of the Opposition.
Representation of Peoples Act 1951,a person convicted of any offence Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
and sentenced to imprisonment for not less than two years [other than (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
any offence referred to in sub-section (a) or sub-section (b)] shall be (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
disqualified from the date of such conviction and shall continue to be
disqualified for a further period of six years since his release. Ans. (d) New NCERT, Std. 11, Introduction to Indian Constitution
Chapter 3: Election and Representation, Page 57: India has first
13. Which of the following condition/conditions must be past the post system wherein a candidate who wins the election
fulfilled by the NRIs to be eligible to vote in elections in may not (need to) get majority (50%+1) votes. Statement #1 is
India? [NDA 2012-I] wrong.
1. They must be physically present in their place of origin
Upto the 10th Lok Sabha, both the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker
to exercise their franchise.
were usually from the ruling party. Since the 11th Lok Sabha, there
2. NRIs whether they have acquired citizenship of other
has been a consensus that the Speaker comes from the ruling party
countries or not are eligible to vote. (or ruling alliance) and the post of Deputy Speaker goes to the
3. Eligible NRIs have to register by filling up form 6-A main opposition party.Meaning it’s an ‘informal consensus’ among
with electoral registration office. political parties, and not Constitutional provision. Hence #2 also
Select the correct answer using the codes given below wrong.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3
(c) Only 2 (d) Only 3 18. Right to vote and to be elected in India is a
(a) Fundamental Right (b) Natural Right
Ans. (a) All statements are correct. (c) Constitutional Right (d) Legal Right
14. Which one among the following is not an attribute of Ans. (c) New NCERT Class 9: Democratic Politics, Page 109: Right
sustainability of Indian democratic model? to vote in elections is an important constitutional right.
[NDA 2012-II]
New NCERT,Std. 11, Introduction to Indian Constitution, Page 66
(a) Unity in diversity in socio-cultural patterns
one of the important decisions of the framers of India Constitution
(b) Sustained economic growth specially after the 1990s was to guarantee every adult citizen in India, the right to vote.
(c) Regular elections in the centre and states since 1950s [Article 326]
(d) A strong industrial base with a vibrant federal structure
Combining the interpretation of both textbooks, “C” is the answer.
EBD_9432
C-122 INDIAN POLITY
19. With reference to the election of the President of India, (d) Appointment of the Regional Commissioners to ssist
consider the following statements: the Election Commission in the performance of the
[IAS Prelim Paper- 2018] functions conferred on the Commission
1. The value of the vote of each MLA varies from State Ans. (d) The President appoints Regional Commissioners after
to State. consultation with the election commission to assist the election
2. The value of the vote of MPs of the Lok Sabha is Commissioner.
more than the value of the vote of MPs of the Rajya
Sabh(a) 21. The mobile app ‘cVIGIL’ is helpful in [CDS I- 2019]
Which of the statements given above is/are Correct? (a) conducting free and fair e-tendering process in
(a) 1 only government offices
(b) 2 only (b) fighting against corruption in public services
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) removing garbage from the municipal areas
(d) Neither 1 or 2 (d) reporting violation of model code of conduct in
Ans. (c) Both 1 and 2 election-bound States
• Statement 1- Correct. Value of 1 MLA’s vote is based on total
Ans. (d) The Election Commission launched a mobile app, called
population of state to be divided by the total MLAs. Hence it
‘Cvigil,’ on July 3, 2018, for citizens to report any violation of the
ought to vary from state to state.
model code of conduct during elections.
• While the value of an MLA’s vote depends on the population
of the state he or she belongs to, the value of an MP’s vote 22. Electoral disputes arising out of Presidential and Vice-
remains the same at 708. So, #2 is wrong. [Ref: IndianExpress Presidential Elections are settled by:
coverage of Ramnatha Kovind’s election, 2017-July] [UGC December 2006]
20. Which of the following is not under the powers and (a) Election Commission of India
functions of the Election Commission of India? (b) Joint Committee of Parliament
[CDS II- 2018] (c) Supreme Court of India
(a) Superintendence, control of the electoral rolls (d) Central Election Tribunal
direction preparation and of Ans. (c) According to Article 71 of the Constitution, all doubts
(b) Conduct of elections to the Parliament and to the and disputes arising out of or in connection with the election of
Legislature of each State a President or Vice-President shall be inquired into and decided
(c) Conduct of election to the office of the President and by the Supreme Court.
the Vice President
Political Parties & Pressure
8 Groups/Civil Society
1. The political parties got the Constitution recognition for Reason (R): Political parties contesting elections can
the first time in the year allocate thirty-three per cent of seats they
(a) 1975 (b) 1977 contest to women candidates without any
(c) 1985 (d) 1995 Constitutional Amendment
Ans. (c) Political parties got the constitutional recognition for the
Which one of the following is correct?
first time in 1985.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation
of A.
2. The Kamraj Plan proposed (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
(a) priority to agriculture over industry explanation of A.
(b) inducting senior leaders to party work (c) A is true but R is false.
(c) election to all party officers (d) A is false but R is true.
(d) an overhaul of the congress working committee
Ans. (d) The 108th amendment bill or the women’s reservation bill,
Ans. (b) The Kamraj Plan proposed inducting senior leaders to party introduced in 2008, is a lapsed bill. The bill proposed to amend the
work. He came up with a plan which was called the “Kamaraj Plan”. Indian Constitution to reserve 33 percent of seats for women in the
On 2 October 1963, he resigned from the post of Tamil Nadu Chief lower house of the Indian Parliament, in the Lok Sabha and in the
Minister. He proposed that all senior Congress leaders should resign state legislative assemblies.
from their posts and devote all their energy to the re-vitalization of
the party.
8. Which one among the following is the distinguishing factor
between a pressure group and a political party?
3. In India partyless democracy was first advocated by [2012-I]
(a) Jai Prakash Narayan (b) M.N. Ray (a) Pressure groups are confined to a few, while political
(c) Vinoba Bhave (d) Mahatma Gandhi parties involve larger number of people
Ans. (a) In India partyless democracy was first advocated by Jai (b) Pressure groups do not seek active political power,
Prakash Narayan. Jayaprakash Narayan (11 October 1902 – 8 October political parties do
1979), widely known as JP Narayan, Jayaprakash, or Lok Nayak (c) Pressure groups do not politically motivate people,
(Hindi for The People’s Hero). while political parties do
(d) Political parties take political stance, while pressure
4. Which party provided two Prime Ministers in two years groups do not bother about political issues
time?
(a) B.J.P. (b) Janata Party Ans. (b) Pressure groups do not seek active political power, political
(c) Janata Dal (d) Samajwadi Janata Party parties do. Political parties exist to gain power over governmental
policy by winning elections for political office. Interest groups do
Ans. (c) Janata Dal provided two prime Ministers in two years. not necessarily have their members run for office and they vote in a
H.D. Deve Gowda - 1996 to 1997 (11th Prime Minister) nonpartisan way, supporting candidates who promote their point of
I. K. Gujral - 1997 to 1998 (12th Prime minister) view.
5. Who is the founder of the Bahujan Samaj Party (BSP)? 9. Which one among the following statements about the
(a) Jyotiba Phule (b) Kanshi Ram functioning of political parties in a democracy is not
(c) B.R. Ambedkar (d) Sahu Maharaj correct? [2012-II]
(a) Political parties give political education to the people
Ans. (b) BSP was founded in 1983 by Kanshi Ram. Due to his (b) Political parties serve as a link between the government
deteriorating health in the 1990s, former school teacher Mayawati and the people
became the party’s leader. (c) Political parties fight elections and try to get the
6. Which party has advocated the coming together of all Left maximum number of their candidates elected
parties? (d) None of the above
(a) CPI (b) CPI (M) Ans. (a) “Political parties give political education to the people” is
(c) NCP (d) INC not the function of political parties in a democracy.
Ans. (a) Communist party of India (CPI) has advocated to coming 10. Consider the following statements
together of all left parties. [2013-I]
7. Consider the following statements : 1. The Anti-Defection Law bans an elected member from
Assertion (A): The reservation of thirty-three percent of voting against the explicit mandate of his/her party.
seats for women in parliament and state 2. The Anti-Defection provisions do not apply if one-third
legislature does not require constitutional of the members of a party disobey the mandate of the
Amendment. party and constitute themselves as a separate party.
EBD_9432
C-124 INDIAN POLITY
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? Ans. (d) For the purpose of constituting the Lok Sabha, the whole
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 country has been divided into 543 Parliamentary Constituencies
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 , each one of which elects one member. The members of the Lok
Ans. (a) The grounds for disqualification under the Anti-Defection Sabha are elected directly by the eligible voters. The President of
Law are as follows: India can nominate maximum of two members as representatives of
If he votes or abstains from voting in such House contrary to any the Anglo- Indian community . Some seats are reserved in Lok Sabha
direction issued by his political party or anyone authorised to do for the members of the Schedule Castes and Scheduled Tribes. As per
so, without obtaining prior permission. As a pre-condition for his the order issued by the Delimitation Commission in 2008 , 412 are
disqualification, his abstention from voting should not be condoned general, 84 seats are reserved for Scheduled Castes and 47 seats for
by his party or the authorised person within 15 days of such incident. the Scheduled Tribes .Earlier it was 79 and 41 for Scheduled Castes
As per the 1985 Act, a ‘defection’ by one-third of the elected and Scheduled Tribes respectively.
members of a political party was considered a ‘merger’. Finally, the 16. Under which section of the Scheduled Castes and
91st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003, changed this. So now at Scheduled Tribes [Prevention of Atrocities] Act, 1989 is
least two-thirds of the members of a party have to be in favour of a economic boycott defined ? [MPPSC- 2018]
“merger” for it to have validity in the eyes of the law. (a) Section 2[b] (b) Section 2[b c]
11. The Election Commission recognizes a political party as a (c) Section [b f] (d) Section 2[b g]
national party if [NDA/NA 2016-I] Ans. (b) In Scheduled Caste and Schedule Tribes( Prevention of
1. it secures at least six percent of the total valid votes Atrocities) act – 1989, section 2( bc) ―economic boycott‖ means– (i)
polled in four or more States in a general election to A refusal to deal with, work for hire or do business with other person;
the Lok Sabha or to the State Legislative Assemblies.
or (ii) To deny opportunities including access to services or contractual
2. it wins at least four seats in a general election to the
opportunities for rendering service for consideration; or (iii) To refuse
Lok Sabha from any State or States.
to do anything on the terms on which things would be commonly done
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only in the ordinary course of business; or Scheduled Castes and Scheduled
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Tribes (iv) To abstain from the professional or business relations that
one would maintain with other person.
Ans. (c)
17. Under which one of the following Sections of the Scheduled
12. A political party is recognized as a regional party, if Castes and Scheduled Tribes [Prevention of Atrocities] Acr,
[UP-PCS 2015] 1989 is anticipatory bail prohibited ? [MPPSC- 2018]
(a) It gets 4% votes in the State either in Lok Sabha or (a) Section 22 (b) Section 20
the Assembly election (c) Section 18 (d) Section 16
(b) It gets 6% votes in the State either in Lok Sabha or
the Assembly election Ans. (c) Under Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes
(c) It gets 8% votes in the State either in Lok Sabha or (prevention of atrocities) act 1989, section -18 is anticipatory bail
the Assembly election prohibited. Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of
(d) None of the above Atrocities) Act, 1989 protects marginalised communities against
discrimination and atrocities. ... It had stated that for persons accused
Ans. (b) A political party is entitled to be recognised as a state party
of committing offence under Act, approval of Senior Superintendent
only if it secures at least 6% of the valid votes polled in the State at a
of Police (SSP) will be required before an arrest is made.
general election either to the Lok Sabha or to the Legislative Assembly
of the State concerned and in addition wins at least 2 seats in the State 18. Under which one of the following Sections of the
Legislative Assembly of concerned state. Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes Rules, 1995 has
13. When did the Communist Party of India (Marxist) emerge Material for Annual Report been provided ?
as a separate political party? [UGC-II 2016] [MPPSC- 2018]
(a) 1960 (b) 1964 (a) Section 18 (b) Section 20
(c) 1968 (d) 1973 (c) Section 22 (d) Section 24
Ans. (b) The communist party of India (Marxist) was born in the Ans. (a) Under section 18, Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes
struggle against revisionism and sectarianism in the communist Rules, 1995 has Material for Annual report been provided.
movement at the international and national level, in order to defend 19. Under the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribe [Prevention
the scientific and revolutionary tenets of Marxism – Leninism and of Atrocities] Act, 1989, whoever, not being a member of a
its appropriate application in the concrete Indian conditions. It was Scheduled Caste or a Scheduled Tribe, causes physical harm
emerged as a Separate Political party in 1964. or mental agony of a member of a Scheduled Caste or a
14. Which one of the following has been recognised as Scheduled Tribe on the allegation of practicing witchcraft or
National Party in 2016? [UK-PSC 2016] being a witch shall be punishable [MPPSC- 2018]
(a) INLD (b) Akali Dal (a) with imprisonment for a term which shall not be less
(c) TMC (d) AIADMK than six months but which may extend to five years
and with fine.
Ans. (c) The All India Trinamool Congress is an Indian political
party based in West Bengal. It was founded on 1st January 1998 and
(b) with imprisonment for a term which shall not be less
has been recognised as National Party in 2016.
than six months and with fine
(c) with imprisonment for a term which shall be one year
15. How many seats are reserved for Scheduled Castes in the and with fine
Lok Sabha? [MPPSC- 2018] (d) with imprisonment for a term which shall be five
(a) 59 (b) 69 years and with fine
(c) 79 (d) 84
POLITICAL PARTIES & PRESSURE GROUPS/CIVIL SOCIETY C-125
Ans. (a) Under the scheduled castes and scheduled tribe (Prevention 23. The political party which believes in Marxism-Leninism
of Atrocities) Act 1989 whoever, not being a member of a scheduled is – [NTSE]
caste or a scheduled tribe, casuses physical harm or mental agony of (a) Nationalist Congress Party
a member of a scheduled caste or a scheduled tribe on the allegation (b) Communist Party of India
of practicing witchcraft or being a witch shall be punishable with (c) Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam
imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than six months but (d) Bahujan Samaj Party
which may extend to five years and with fine. Ans. (b) The CPI came into existence in 1964 as a result of the
20. How many Sections are there Under the Scheduled Castes division of communist party of India. It is against capitalism and
and Scheduled Tribes [Prevention of Atrocities] Act, 1989 ? believes in socialism, democracy and secularism.
[MPPSC- 2018] 24. Which one of the following is not a classified category of
(a) 18 (b) 22 political parties as outlined by the Election Commission of
(c) 23 (d) 27
India? [CDS 2020-II]
Ans. (b) The Scheduled Castes and Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) (a) National Parties
Act is popularly known as POA, the SC/ST Act, the Prevention of (b) State Recognised Parties
Atrocities Act, or simply the Atrocities Act. The SC/ST Act was (c) Regional Parties
enacted on September 9, 1989. The rules for the Act were notified on (d) Registered Unrecognised Parties
March 31, 1995. The SC/ST Act lists 22 offences relating to various
Ans. (c)
patterns or behaviours inflicting criminal offences and breaking the
self-respect and esteem of the scheduled castes and tribes community. 25. Aam Admi party is a [BPSC 2019]
This includes denial of economic, democratic and social rights, (a) state party (b) National party
discrimination, exploitation and abuse of the legal process. (c) regional party (d) registered party
21. Consider the following statements [NTSE] (e) None of the above/More than one of the above
(a) Some election laws have been made to ensure that Ans. (a) Aam Aadmi Party is a state party. It currently has the status
every political party and candidates get a fair and of a state party in the Delhi NCR and Punjab.
equal chance to compete. A party is recognised as a national party if any of the following
(b) According to codes of conduct of election campaign, conditions is fulfilled:
any parties or candidate can use any place of worship If it secures six per cent of valid votes polled in any four or more
for election propaganda. states at a general election to the Lok Sabha or to the legislative
(c) People who are eligible to vote can go to electoral assembly; and, in addition, it wins four seats in the Lok Sabha from
office to vote. any state or states; or
(d) Elections are conducted by Election Commission. If it wins two per cent of seats in the Lok Sabha at a general election;
Which of the above statements are correct ? and these candidates are elected from three states; orIf it is recognised
(a) (a), (b) and (c) (b) (a) and (d) as a state party in four states.
(c) (b) and (d) (d) (b), (c) and (d)
A party is recognised as a state party in a state if any of the
Ans. (b) If the elections for electing the representative are not fair following conditions is fulfilled:
and impartial people will lose faith in the entire democratic system. If it secures 6% of the valid votes polled in the state at a general
22. Consider the following statement about the pressure groups election to the legislative assembly of the state concerned; and, in
addition, it wins 2 seats in the assembly of the state concerned; or
and political parties. Which of the statements given below
If it secures 6% of the valid votes polled in the state at a general
are correct. [NTSE]
election to the Lok Sabha from the state concerned; and, in addition,
I. Pressure groups are the organised expression of
it wins 1 seat in the Lok Sabha from the state concerned; or
interests and views of special social sections.
II. Pressure groups take positions on political issues. If it wins 3% of seats in the legislative assembly at a general election
III. All pressure groups are political parties. to the legislative assembly of the state concerned or 3 seats in the
assembly, whichever is more; or
IV. Pressure groups and political parties do not seek to
mobilise people. If it wins 1 seat in the Lok Sabha for every 25 seats or any fraction
(a) I, II and III (b) III and II thereof allotted to the state at a general election to the Lok Sabha
(c) I, II, III and IV (d) I and II from the state concerned; or
If it secures 8% of the total valid votes polled in the state at a General
Ans. (d) Pressure groups are organisations that attempt to influence Election to the Lok Sabha from the state or to the legislative assembly
government policies. But unlike political parties pressure control or of the state. This condition was added in 2011.
share political power. Pressure groups much more on spontaneous
mass participation.
EBD_9432
9 World Polity/Miscellaneous
1. Which one of the following is not an essential element of a (c) highlight the achievement of the government without
federal form of government? criticizing its policies
(a) Written Constitution (b) Independent judiciary (d) criticize the policies of the government
(c) Division of power (d) Separation of powers Ans. (a) A press in democracy must be free and impartial.
Ans. (d) In a federal form of government separation of powers is not 8. The Indian parliamentary system is different from the
an essential element. A federal state is a political entity characterized British Parliamentary system in that India has?
by a union of partially self-governing states or regions under a central (a) Both a real and a nominal executive
(federal) government in a single political system. So the federation is
(b) A system of collective responsibility
a form of government in which a division of powers between central
govt. and regional govt. eg. India. (c) Bicameral legislature
(d) The system of judicial review
2. Parliamentary Supremacy is the definite feature of the
political system in Ans. (d) The law that the British Parliament enacts, cannot be
brought to the Judiciary for its review unlike the Indian Parliament,
(a) UK (b) India
wherein the legislation that it passes, undergoes a judicial review.
(c) Canada (d) Australia Any such legislation, as passed in the Indian Parliament can also
Ans. (a) ‘Parliamentary Supremacy’ is the definite feature of the be struck down in case the courts declare it to be violating the basic
political system in U.K. structure of the Indian Constitution.
3. Which one of the following is the basis of federal 9. Consider the following events :
government? 1. Fourth general elections in India
(a) Supremacy of the parliament 2. Formation of Haryana state
(b) Supremacy of Judiciary 3. Mysore named as Karnataka state
(c) Division of powers between federal and state 4. Meghalaya and Tripura become full states
government Which one of the following is the correct chronological
(d) single citizenship order of the above?
Ans. (c) Federal Government-Division of powers between federal (a) 2-1-4-3 (b) 4-3-2-1
and state government. (c) 2-3-4-1 (d) 4-1-2-3
4. Government is classified as parliamentary and presidential Ans. (a) Haryana state - Act 1966 Fourth Lok Sabha - 16th March
on the basis of which of the following? 1967 Manipur Tripura and Meghalaya- Act, 1971 Karnataka - Act,
(a) Relations between legislature and executive 1973
(b) Relations between politician and civil servants 10. The concept of Public Interest Litigation originated in
(c) Written or unwritten Constitutions (a) The United Kingdom (b) Australia
(d) Rigid or Flexible Constitutions (c) The United States (d) Canada
Ans. (a) Government is classified as parliamentary and presidential Ans. (c) The concept of public Interest litigation (PIL) originated in
on the basis of relations between legislature and executive. the USA.
5. The presidential system operates on the principle of 11. The ‘Due Process of Law’ is the characteristics of the
(a) Division of powers (b) Separation of powers judicial system of
(c) Fusion of powers (d) Balance of powers (a) India (b) France
Ans. (b) The presidential system operates on the principle of (c) U.K. (d) U.S.A
separation of powers. India follows a parliamentary system of Ans. (d) The Fifth and Fourteenth Amendments to the United States
government, which offers a clear separation of powers. Constitution each contains a Due Process Clause. Due process deals
6. The cabinet in the Parliamentary system is accountable to with the administration of justice and thus the Due Process Clause
[NDA-2017] acts as a safeguard from arbitrary denial of life, liberty, or property
by the Government outside the sanction of law.
(a) The President
(b) The Prime Minister 12. Recently London High Court granted right to few elderly
(c) The Council of Ministers people to go ahead with their case against government in
(d) The Legislature relation to Mau Mau Rebellion. In which country this
rebellion took place?
Ans. (d) Cabinet in Parliamentary system is accountable to (a) Kenya (b) Libya
legislature’ Presidential system is accountable to executive. (c) Ethiopia (d) Republic of Congo
7. Which one among the following statements is correct ? Ans. (a) The Mau Mau Rebellion took place in Kenya. The Mau
The press in democracy must Mau Uprising (also known as the Mau Mau Revolt, Mau Mau
(a) be free and impartial Rebellion and Kenya Emergency) was a military conflict that took
(b) be committed to the policies of the government place in Kenya between 1952 and 1960.
WORLD POLITY/MISCELLANEOUS C-127
It involved Kikuyu-dominated anti-colonial groups summarily Select the correct answer using the codes given below
called Mau Mau and elements of the British Army, the local Kenya (a) Only 3 (b) 1, 2 and 3
Regiment mostly consisting of the British, auxiliaries and anti- (c) 1 and 3 (d) Only 2
Mau Mau Kikuyu. The capture of rebel leader Dedan Kimathi on Ans. (b) Power sharing helps in reducing the conflict between
21 October 1956 signalled the ultimate defeat of Mau Mau, and various social groups. Hence, power sharing is necessary for
essentially ended the British military campaign.
maintaining social harmony and peace.Power sharing helps in
13. The ‘Panchsheel Agreement’ for peaceful coexistence was avoiding the tyranny of majority. The tyranny of majority not only
signed between (CDS 2015-II) destroys the minority social groups but also the majority social
(a) India and Bhutan (b) India and Nepal group. It decreases the possibility of arbitrary decision making.
(c) India and China (d) India and Pakistan People’s voice forms the basis of a democratic government (people’s
Ans. (c) Panchsheel Agreement was signed between India and participation at different levels of government).
China (29 April 1954) on the following principles - I. Mutual 18. Despite being a Republican State, India is a member of
respect for each other’s territorial integrity and sovereignty. the Commonwealth of Nations whose head is the British
II. Mutual non-aggression III. Mutual non-interference in each Monarch. This is because [NDA 2011-I]
other’s internal affairs. IV. Equality and mutual benefit and V.
Peaceful coexistance.
(a) this mernbership does not affect the sovereign nature
of the Indian Republic
14. Which one of the following is not a component of the (b) this membership only shows that the British ruled over
Realist Theory? (CDS 2015-II) India
(a) The State is the preeminent actor (c) members of the association are sovereign and
(b) State sovereignty is important for the affirmation of independent
juridical authority over territory (d) it is a symbol of the unity among the members of the
(c) The primary objective of all States is survival association
(d) Survival can be assured in cooperation with
international organizations Ans. (b) The Commonwealth of Nations is an intergovernmental
organisation of 53 member states that were mostly territories of the
Ans. (d) Realists believe in self assistance. They think that no other former British Empire. The membership only shows that the British
country may be trusted for the survival. ruled over India.
15. Which one of the following does not form part of Immanuel 19. There are different arguments given in favour of power
Kant’s theory of ‘perpetual peace’? (CDS 2015-II) sharing in a democratic political system. [NDA 2012-I]
(a) Republican Constitutionalism Which one of the following is not one of them?
(b) Federal contract among States to abolish war (a) It reduces conflict among different communities
(c) World Government (b) Majority community does not impose its will on others
(d) Transformation of individual consciousness (c) Since, all are affected by the policies of the government,
Ans. (c) Immanuel Kant (22 April, 1724 - 12 Feb 1804), a great they should be consulted in the governance of the country
German philosopher proposed the theory of perpetual peace (d) It speeds up the decision-making process and improves
containing following points:- the chances of unity of the country
(i) No standing army existence.
Ans. (b)
(ii) No any independent state will be interfered with any other
dominion state. 20. What is/are the major difference/differences between a
(iii) No state will be interfered by another state constitutionally. written and an unwritten Constitution? [NDA 2012-II]
(iv) Existence of universal peace policy. 1. A written Constitution is the formal source of all
Constitutional Laws in the country and the unwritten
16. Formal or procedural democracy does not by any means Constitution is not the formal source.
guarantee [NDA 2010-II] 2. A written Constitution is entirely codified whereas an
(a) political and civil rights unwritten Constitution is not.
(b) constitutionalism Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(c) the rule of law (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(d) absence of caste discrimination (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (c) Procedural democracy is a democracy in which the people Ans. (c) A written constitution is one which is found in one or
or citizens of the state have less influence than in traditional liberal more than one legal documents duly enacted in the form of laws.
democracies. This type of democracy is characterized by voters It is precise, definite and systematic and codified. An unwritten
choosing to elect representatives in free elections. Procedural constitution is one in which most of the principles of the government
democracy is quite different from substantive democracy, which have never been enacted in the form of laws. It consists of customs,
is manifested by equal participation of all groups in society in the conventions, traditions and some written laws bearing different
political process.Namibia, Angola, and Mozambique are examples dates. It is not codified. It is unsystematic, indefinite and unprecise.
of examples of procedural democracies. So, Written constitution is the formal source of all constitutional laws
17. Why is political power sharing through different levels of and Unwritten Constitution is not the formal source.
government desirable in a democracy? [NDA 2010-II] 21. Political theory [NDA 2014-I]
1. It helps to reduce the possibility of conflict between 1. deals with the ideas and principles that shape
various social groups. Constitutions.
2. It decreases the possibility of arbitrary decision-making. 2. clarifies the meaning of freedom, equality and justice.
3. It prompts people’s participation at different levels of 3. probes the significance of principles of rule of law,
government. separation of power and judicial review.
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C-128 INDIAN POLITY
Select the correct answer using the codes given below 4. Utilitarians were advocates of the idea of the ‘greatest
(a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 1 good for the greatest number of people’
(c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Ans. (d) Political Theory deals with the study of political (a) 1 and 4 only (b) 2 and 4 only
institutions as well as with theories of state, law, liberty, equality and (c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 2 and 3
representation. Ans. (b)
22. Consider the following statements about democracy 26. Which of the following is/are true relating to Nelson
[NDA 2014-I] Mandela? [NDA/NA 2014-I]
1. It consists with the formation of government elected 1. He was the first President of South Africa.
by the people. 2. Mandela spent 18 years in prison on Robben Island.
2. In democracy, those currently in power have a fair 3. Mandela became the President in 1990 after his release
chance of losing. from the prison.
3. Each vote has one value. Select the correct answer using the code given below
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) Only 1 (d) 2 and 3 Ans. (c) Nelson Mandela was the first black president of South
Ans. (b) Democracy is a form of government that allows people Africa (1994-99). Mandela spent 18 years(From 1964 to 1982) in
to choose their rulers. In a democracy only leaders elected by the prison on Robben island.
people can rule the country. A democracy must be based on a free 27. We have a system of Judicial Review in [UP-PCS 2008]
and fair election where those currently in power have a fair chance (a) Indian only
of losing. Each adult citizen must have one vote and each vote must (b) U. K. only
have one value. (c) U. S. A. only
23. Which of the following about the principles of Panchsheel (d) Both in India and U. S. A.
are correct ? [NDA 2014-II] Ans. (d) We have the system of Judicial Review in both states of
1. These are a set of five principles governing relations India and U. S. A.
between States
2. The assumption of Panchsheel was that newly 28. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of
independent States after decolonization would be able persons who occupied the office of the President of India
to develop a new and more principled approach to right from beginning? [UP-PCS 2009]
international relations (a) C. Rajagopalachari, Rajendra Prasad, Zakir Hussian,
3. The first formal codification in treaty form was done in V. V. giri
an agreement between China and India (b) Rajendra Prasad, S. Radhakrishna, V. V. giri, Zakir
Select the correct answer using the code given below : Hussian
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) C. Rajagopalachari, Rajendra Prasad, S. Radhakrishna,
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3 only Fakhruddin Ali Ahmad
(d) Rajendra Prasad, S. Radhakrishna, Zakir Hussian,
Ans. (c) V. V. Giri
24. Parliamentry Democracy is one where [NDA 2015-I] Ans. (d)
1. a balance of popular participation and elite rule takes
place 29. Arrange the following Indian States in a chronological order,
2. the government is responsible not to the public but to according to their formation, and select the correct answer by
the elected representatives. using the codes given at the end. [UP-PCS 2009]
3. the parliamentarians are delegated the responsibility of 1. Chhattisgarh
thinking and acting on behalf of their constituents. 2. Arunachal Pradesh
Select the correct answer using the code given below : 3. Jharkhand
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 only 4. Sikkim
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 only Codes :
Ans. (b) Popular participation is unmediated; the people are the (a) 4, 1, 2, 3 (b) 4, 2, 1, 3
government, there is no separate elite or ruling-class between the (c) 3, 2, 1, 4 (d) 1, 4, 2, 3
government and their people. This is an indirect and limited form Ans. (b) The above states were formed in the following order –
of democracy where the people choose who shall make decisions 1. Sikkim – 1975
on their behalf. In the responsible democracy, the government is 2. Arunachal Pradesh – 1986
responsible first to the parliament’s lower house, which is more 3. Chhattisgarh – Nov. 1-2000
numerous, directly elected and thus more representative than the 4. Jharkhand – Nov. 15, 2000
upper house. The people vote for their representative who speaks on
behalf of their constituents. 30. The following States were created after 1960. Arrange them in
ascending chronological order of their formation and choose your
25. Which of the following are the features of the ideology of answer from the given code. [UP-PCS 2010]
utilitarianism? [NDA/NA 2016-II] 1. Haryana 2. Sikkim
1. Utilitarians believed that all value derives from land 3. Nagaland 4. Meghalaya
2. The most celebrated spokesmen of utilitarianism were
jeremy Bentham and John Stuart Mill Codes :
3. Utilitarians were advocates of the idea that India could (a) 1, 2, 3, 4 (b) 2, 3, 4, 1
be ruled through indigenous laws and customs (c) 3, 1, 4, 2 (d) 2, 4, 1, 3
Ans. (a) The ascending chronological order will be as following : (a) Indicate one preference more than the seats to be filled
A. Nagaland – 1961 up
B. Haryana – 1966 (b) Indicate one preference less than the total seats to be
C. Meghalaya – 1972 filled up
D. Sikkim – 1975 (c) Indicate as many preferences as there are candidates to
be elected
31. Which one of the following writs is issued during the (d) Indicate only a single preference
pendency of proceedings in a court? [UP-PCS 2010]
Ans. (c) In a single transferable vote system, each voter is required
(a) Mandamus (b) Certiorari to indicate as many preferences as there are candidates to be elected.
(c) Prohibition (d) Quo warranto
39. Which of the following statement/s about the Right to
Ans. (c)
negative vote is / are correct? Select the correct answer
32. In which of the Indian Provinces the first Communist from the codes given below : [UGC 2016]
Government was established? [UP-PCS 2010] I. The Election Commission of India wanted that ‘None
(a) TamilNadu (b) Andhra Pradesh of the above’ button on Electronic voting machine
(c) Kerala (d) West Bengal should be offered to voters.
Ans. (c) In India it was the provinces of Kerala where first II. The public interest litigation, in the Supreme Court
Communist government was formed in 1957 led by E. Nambudripad. for NOTA option was filed by the Association for
33. Which one of the following States has granted Sanskrit Democratic Reforms.
language the status of the second official language of the III. Elections in a constituency will be held again if NOTA
state? [UP-PCS 2011] gets the highest votes.
(a) Bihar (b) Chhattisgarh IV. The candidate with highest number of votes will be
(c) Uttar Pradesh (d) Uttarakhand declared elected even if she/ he receives less than the
NOTA votes.
Ans. (d) Uttarakhand has given to Sanskrit as the status of second
official language of the state in January 2010. Codes :
(a) Only I and II are correct
34. Who of the following Presidents of India was associated (b) Only II and III are correct
with Trade Union Movement? [UP-PCS 2012] (c) Only III and IV are correct
(a) V. V. Giri (b) N. Sanjiva Reddy (d) Only I and IV are correct
(c) K. R. Narayanan (d) Zakir Hussain
Ans. (d) The public Interest Litigation (PIL) for granting NOTA
Ans. (a) V.V. Giri served as President of India during 1969 to 1974. was filed in supreme Court by the People’s Union for Civil Liberties.
He was actively associated with trade union movement. He was The supreme Court Judgement was delivered on 27 September,
President of All-India Trade Union Congress (AITUC) twice. He 2013. The NOTA option is not at present effectively implemented in
was also associated with All India Railway Workers’ Federation. Indian elections as it does affect the outcome of elections.
35. Which one the following statements is not correct? 40. ‘Balance of Power’ is an important principle of :
[UP-PCS 2013] [UGC 2016]
(a) The Constitutional Amendment Bill has to be passed (a) Liberal thought in international politics
by both houses of Parliament separately with special (b) Marxist thought in international politics
majority (c) Traditional thought in international politics
(b) Constitutional cases in Supreme Court is heard by (d) Realist thought in international politics
minimum five judges
(c) Freedom of press is included in the fundamental right Ans. (d) ‘Balance of Power’ is an important principle of Realist
thought in international politics which suggests that national security
- Freedom of speech and expression. is enhanced when military capability is distributed so that no one
(d) Zakir Hussain was the first Vice President of India state is strong enough to dominate all others.
Ans. (d) Dr. Zakir Hussain served as second Vice President of 41. According to Iris L Calude Jr. which of the following is not
India. Dr. Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan was the first Vice President of a device for the management of power? [UGC 2016]
India.
(a) Arms control (b) Collective security
36. The largest Union Territory of India is [UP-PCS 2014] (c) Balance of power (d) World Government
(a) Daman and Diu (b) Puducherry
Ans. (a) According to Iris L Calude Jr. arms control is not a device
(c) Delhi (d) Chandigarh for the management of power. He was a leading scholar in international
Ans. (c) The top three largest union territories are Andaman & relations and international organizations.
Nicobar Islands, Delhi and Puducherry. 42. The modern state system with its territorial sovereignty
37. ‘Pivot to Asia’ is the strategy of the foreign policy of came into existence first in Europe in the wake of the :
[UP-PCS 2015]
[UGC 2016]
(a) India (b) Japan (a) Treaty of Versailles
(c) China (d) U. S. A (b) Congress of Vienna
Ans. (d) Pivot to Asia was one of the United States of America’s (c) Treaty of Westphalia
central foreign policy initiatives during the tenure of President (d) Congress of Berlin
Barack Obama. Ans. (c) The peace treaties of Westphalia were signed in 1648,
38. In a single transferable vote system, each voter is required which led to the emergence of modern state system in international
to : relations.
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C-130 INDIAN POLITY
43. Which one among the following statements is correct? 49. The House of Lords in Great Britain is mainly retained
The press in democracy must – because – [UGC-II 2016]
(a) be free and impartial (a) It is as important as the House of Commons
(b) be committed to the policies of the government (b) It plays an important role of checks and balances
(c) highlight the achievement of the government without (c) It acts as a judicial court
criticizing its policies (d) It is maintained as an institution
(d) Criticize the policies of the government Ans. (d) It is observed That British people are very conservative
Ans. (a) The press in democracy must be free and impartial. and have great regard for their historical institutions. Therefore, they
continue to support historical institutions like Crown and House of
44. The head of state of the United Kingdom is – Lords.
[BPSC 2017] 50. The growth of judicial power over the last one hundred
(a) Queen Elizabeth I (b) Queen Elizabeth II years in liberal democracies have taken place because –
(c) Queen Elizabeth III (d) Queen Elizabeth IV [UGC-II 2016]
(e) None of the above / More than one of the above (a) The constitutions have given the judiciary more
Ans. (b) Queen Elizabeth II is the head of state of the United Kingdom. powers
(b) Acceptance of the theory of separation of powers
45. Vote on Account is meant for – [BPSC 2017] (c) The U. N. Directives
(a) Vote on the report of CAG (d) Protect Human Rights
(b) To meet unforeseen expenditure
(c) Appropriating funds pending due to passing of budget Ans. (d) T
he growth of Judicial Power over the last one hundred
years in liberal democracies has taken place to protect
(d) Budget
Human rights.
(e) None of the above/ More than one of the above
51. E - governance is – [UGC-II 2016]
Ans. (c) The Vote on Account is the Special Provision given to the
government to obtain the vote of Parliament to withdraw Money
1. cost-efficient
when the budget for the new financial year is not released or the 2. transparent
elections are underway. 3. time-saving
4. responsive
46. There are different arguments given in favour of power
Select the correct answer from the codes given below –
sharing in a democratic political system. Which one of the
following is not one of them? Codes:
(a) It reduces conflict among different communities (a) 1 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(b) Major community does not impose its will on others
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(c) Since all are affected by the policies of the government, (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
they should be consulted in the governance of the
Ans. (d) Electronic – governance is the application of information
county
and communication technology for delivering government services,
(d) It speeds up the decision making process and improves exchange of information, communication transactions etc. It is cost
the chances of unity of the country efficient, transparent, time – saving and responsive.
Ans. (d) Power sharing in a Democratic political System does not 52. Which one of the following is not the technique of the
speeds up the decision making process and improves the chances of balance of power? [UGC-II 2016]
unity of the country. (a) Amassing of weapons
47. Which of the following are the tools of good governance? (b) Seizing of territory
1. Social Audit (c) Methods of persuasion
2. Separation of Powers (d) Creating of buffer states
3. Citizen’s Charter Ans. (c) Methods of persuasion is not the technique of the balance
4. Right to Information of power.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below : 53. Which one of the following was not the basis invoked by
(a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 2, 3 and 4 the US for attacking Iraq in March 2003? [UGC-II 2016]
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (a) Iraq possessed weapons of mass destruction
Ans. (d) The tools of good governance are social Audit, Separation (b) Saddam Hussain had links with A1 Quaeda
of Power, Citizen’s Charter, Right to Information. (c) Regime Change in Iraq
48. The Presidential system operates most successfully in the (d) Iraq had not withdrawn from Kuwait complety
USA because of – [UGC-II 2016] Ans. (d) The question of withdrawal of Iraq from kuwait was an
(a) A strong two party system issue in 1991 Iraq war. This was not an issue during 2003 Iraq war.
(b) A well demarcated constitution 54. Which of the following Republic/Republics was/were
(c) Judicial review supported by Russia in Georgia war of 2008 ?
(d) Minor contradictions in society
[UGC-II 2016]
Ans. (d) T
he presidential system is a system of government where (a) South Ossettia
an executive branch is led by a President who serves as (b) South Ossettia and Abkhazia both
both head of state and head of government. It operates most (c) Abkhazia
successfully in the USA because of Minor Contradictions
(d) Nogorno Karabakh
in society.
Ans. (b) South Ossettia and Abkhazia republics were supported by Ans. (b) The US stopped cultivating ties with Taliban Regime in
Russia in Georgia war of 2008. Afghanistan after attack on US embassies in Kenya and Tanzania in1998.
55. As per United Nations Convention on the Law of sea 59. Referendum has an integral relationship with–
(UNCLOS) states are entitled for Jurisdiction over sea (a) Indirect Democracy
water as under – [UGC-II 2016] (b) Limited Monarchy
(a) three miles from sea shore as territorial waters (c) Direct Democracy
(b) twelve miles from the shore for shipping (d) People’s Courts
(c) two hundred miles as Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ) Ans. (c) Referendum is a general vote by the electorate on a single
(d) all the three jurisdictions political question which has been referred to them for a direct
Ans. (d) As per United Nations Convention on the Law of Sea decision. It has an integral relationship with Direct Democracy.
(UNCLOS) States are entitled for Jurisdiction over Sea water under – 60. Public Interest Litigation has its origin in –
(i) three miles from sea shore as territorial waters (a) England (b) France
(ii) twelve miles from the shore for shipping (c) USSR (d) USA
(iii) two hundred miles as Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ)
Ans. (d) Public Interest Litigation (PIL) means litigation for the
56. Under Bush Doctrine, the USA held states responsible for protection of the Public Interest. It is litigation introduced in a court
activities inside their territor and thus acquired the right to of law, not by the aggrieved party but by the court itself or by any
– [UGC-II 2016] other private party. It has its origin in USA.
(a) act unilaterally against rogue and failed states
(b) act against states which were opposed to it ideologically 61. Democracy’s superior virtue lies in the fact that it calls into
(c) move against states which refused to join in drive for activity
NATO expansion (a) the intelligence and character of ordinary men and
(d) intervene instituations of ethnic cleansing women.
Ans. (a) The Bush Doctrine was laid down by the US President George (b) the methods for strengthening executive leadership.
W, Bush in 2001. It refers to foreign policy principles of the President of the (c) a superior individual with dynamism and vision.
united states, George W. Bush. Charles Krathammer first used the phrase in (d) a band of dedicated party workers.
June 2001. Generally, the Bush Doctrine was used to indicate a willingness Ans (a) NEW NCERT Class 8 Civics, Chapter 3, page 32
to unilaterally Pursue U. S. military interests. Some of these policies were The take-off point for a democracy is the idea of consent, i.e. the desire,
incorporated in a National Security Council proposals the National Security approval and participation of people. It is the decision of people that
strategy of the United states, published on September 20, 2002.
creates a democratic government and decides about its functioning.
57. Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct answer So, since democracy requires voters’ decision making- hence
from the codes given below – intelligence and character are called in. hence answer “A”
List- I List - II 62. One of the implications of equality in society is the absence
(A) Uniting for Peace 1. 1990 of
Resolution (a) Privileges (b) Restraints
(B) The Suez Crisis 2. 2002 (c) Competition (d) Ideology
(C) UN Security Council 3. 1956 Ans. (a) NEW NCERT Class 11, Political Science, page 45.
Resolution on Iraq weapons • First step towards bringing about equality is of course ending
(D) UN Mission in Kosovo 4. 1950 the formal system of inequality and privileges. The caste system in
India prevented people from the ‘lower’ castes from doing anything
Codes : except manual labour. In many countries only people from some
(A) (B) (C) (D) families could occupy high positions. Attainment of equality requires
(a) 3 2 1 4 that all such restrictions or privileges should be brought to an end.
(b) 2 1 3 4 63. Consider the following in respect of Indian Ocean Naval
(c) 4 3 2 1 Symposium (IONS):
(d) 1 2 4 3 1. Inaugural IONS was held in India in 2015 under the
Ans. (c) chairmanship of the Indian Navy.
List - I List - II 2. IONS is a voluntary initiative that seeks to increase
(A) Uniting for Peace (4) 1950 maritime co-operation among navies of the littoral
Resolution states of the Indian Ocean Region.
(B) The Suez Crisis (3) 1956 Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(C) UN Security Council (2) 2002 (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
Resolution on Iraq
Weapons Ans. (b)
(D) UN Mission in Kosovo (1) 1990 • The 2015 event was hosted by S.Africa and co-chair Tanzania.
So first statement is wrong.
58. The US stopped cultivating ties with Taliban regime in • In 2008, IONS was setup taking all the littoral countries of the
Afghanistan after – [UGC-II 2016] Indian Ocean (IO) onboard to promote friendly relationship and bear
(a) 9/11 attacks in the US upon issues of regional maritime security and cooperation in the
(b) attacks on US embassies in Kenya and Tanzania maritime domain. Second statement is right.
(c) attack on US military mission headquarter in Riyadh 64. What is the importance of developing Chabahar Port by
(d) failures of talks on gas pipeline through Afghanistan India?
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C-132 INDIAN POLITY
(a) India’s trade with African countries will enormously 69. How many types of justice, liberty, equality and fraternity
increase. in that order has been mentioned in the preamble of
(b) India’s relations with oil-producing Arab countries constitution of India? [UP-PCS- 2018]
will be strengthened. (a) 3,5,2, 1 (b) 1,3,5,2
(c) India will not depend on Pakistan for access to (c) 2,5,3,1 (d) 5,2,1,3
Afghanistan and Central Asia. Ans. (a) The term ‘justice’ in the Preamble embraces three
(d) Pakistan will facilitate and protect the installation of a distinct forms—social, economic and political, secured through
gas pipeline between Iraq and India. various provisions of Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles.
Ans. (c) In May 2016, India and Iran signed the “historic” Chabahar The Preamble secures to all citizens of India liberty of thought,
port agreement, which has the potential of becoming India’s gateway to expression, belief, faith and worship, through their Fundamental
Afghanistan, Central Asia and Europe. So, C is the most fitting answer. Rights, enforceable in court of law, in case of violation. The term
‘equality’ means the absence of special privileges to any section
65. Consider the following statements: of the society, and the pro-vision of adequate opportunities for all
1. The Nuclear Security Summits are periodically held individuals without any discrimination. Fraternity means a sense of
under the aegis of the United Nations. brotherhood. The constitution promotes this felling of fraternity by
2. The International Panel on Fissile Materials is an organ the system of single citizenship.
of International Atomic Energy Agency. 70. Which of the following is the first State in India formed on
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? the basis of languages? [UP-PCS- 2018]
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (a) Kerala (b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) Andhra Pradesh (d) Uttar Pradesh
Ans. (d) President Obama had initiated NSS in 2010. so, first Ans. (c) The congress in its Jaipur session appointed a three
statement is wrong. member committee also popularly known as JVP committee after
• The International Panel on Fissile Materials (IPFM), an the name of its leaders – Jawaharlal Nehru,Vallabh Bhai Patel and
independent group of arms-control and non-proliferation experts Pattabhai Sitaramaya.The committee rejected language as the basis
from 17 countries, has been keeping track of HEU and plutonium of reorganization of states.. Potti Sreeramulu, one of the activists
around the world. So second statement also wrong. demanding the formation of a Telugu-majority state, died on 16
December 1952 after undertaking a fast-unto-death. This resulted in
66. In which year did the State Jharkhand come into existence? the creation of the first state on linguistic basis for Telugu speaking
[BPSC- 2018] people called Andhra State on October 1, 1953. It was later renamed
(a) 1998 (b) 1999 Andhra Pradesh.
(c) 2000 (d) 2001
(e) None of the above/More than one of the above 71. The recommendations of Sarkaria Commission relate to
which of the following? [UP-PCS- 2018]
Ans. (c) The 28th state of the Indian Union was brought into (a) Distribution of revenue
existence by the Bihar reorganization Act on November 15, 2000. The (b) Power and functions of the President
birth anniversary of the legendary Bhagwan Birsa Munda. Jharkhand (c) Membership of Parliament
is famous for its rich mineral resources like Uranium, Mica, Bauxite,
Granite, Gold, Silver, Graphite, Magnetite, Dolomite, Fireclay,
(d) Centre-State relations
Quartz, Fieldspar, Coal (32% of India), Iron, Copper (25%of India) Ans. (d) Sarkaria Commission was set up in June 1983 by the
etc. Forests and woodlands occupy more than 29% of the state which central government of India. The Sarkaria Commission’s charter was
is amongst the highest in India. to examine the relationship and balance of power between state and
central governments in the country and suggest changes within the
67. In which one of the following years was Sarkaria framework of Constitution of India.
Commission, which was empowered to recommend
changes in Centre-State relations, submitted its report? 72. The Parliamentary form of Government was first introduced
in which country ? [UP-PCS- 2018]
[BPSC- 2018]
(a) Great Britain (UK) (b) Belgium
(a) 1983 (b) 1984
(c) 1985 (d) 1987 (c) France (d) Switzerland
(e) None of the above/More than one of the above Ans. (a) Great Britain was the first country to introduce the
parliamentary form of government.
Ans. (a) In view of the growing pressure for the greater autonomy,
in June 1983 the Union Government appointed a commission under 73. After how many days of absence from Parliament without
the chairmanship of Justice R.S. Sarkaria to review the question of permission can a M.P. be disqualified ? [UP-PCS- 2018]
centre state relations. The commission submitted its report to the (a) 30 days (b) 60 days
then Prime Minister Rajiv Gandhi on 27 October 1987. (c) 90 days (d) 120 days
68. The Government policy Make in India’ aims at Ans. (b) The Constitution provides for disqualification of a Member
[BPSC- 2018] of Parliament (MP) if he/she is absent continuously for 60 days from
(a) removal of bureaucratic sloth the Lok Sabha or the Rajya Sabha without permission. Hence MPs
(b) elimination of red tapism submit leave applications when they are absent for a longer period of
(c) reduction in cost of manufacturing time.
(d) making the competitive product 74. The Directive Principles of State Policy may be classified
(e) None of the above/More than one of the above in to which of the council following parts for the sake of
Ans. (e) Prime Minister Narendra Modi launched the Make in convenient study? [UP-PCS- 2018]
India initiative on September 25, 2014, with the primary goal of (a) Socialist
making India a global manufacturing hub, by encouraging both (b) Liberal intellectualistic
multinational as well as domestic companies to manufacture their (c) Gandhian
products within the country. (d) All of the above
Ans (d) The directive principles ensure that the State shall strive – an advocate there, for at least ten years, or.
to promote the welfare of the people by securing a social order in – a distinguished jurist, in the opinion of the president, power
which social, economic and political justice is animated/informed conferred by clause (2) of article 124 of the Constitution of India.
in all institutions of life per Article 38 (1). Dr. Ambedkar clarified 80. The Inter-State Council was set up in 1990 on the
in the Constituent Assembly debates on Article 38 high lighting its
inevitable implementation.
recommendation of [CDS I- 2019]
(a) Punchhi Commission
75. Who was the Chief Justice of India when Public Interest (b) Sarkaria Commission
litigation was introduced in the Indian Judicial system? (c) Rajamannar Commission
[UP-PCS- 2018] (d) Mungerilal Commission
(a) M. Hidayatuiliah (b) A.M. Ahmedi Ans. (b) The Inter-State Council is a non-permanent constitutional
(c) P.N. Bhagwati (d) A.S. Anand body set up by a presidential order on the basis of provisions in
Ans. (c) P.N. Bhagwati was the Chief Justice of India when Public Article 263 of the Constitution of India. The body was formed by
Interest Litigation was introduced in the Indian Judicial system. a Presidential Order dated 28 May 1990 on recommendation of
Sarkaria Commission. Sarkaria Commission was set up in 1983 by
76. Mention the correct date of the last meeting of the the central government of India.
Constituent Assembly of India.
(a) 26 Nov. 1949 (b) 5 Dec. 1949 81. Which one of the following is not correct about
(c) 24 Jan. 1950 (d) 25 Jan. 1950 Administrative Tribunals? [CDS I- 2019]
(a) The Parliament may by law constitute Administrative
Ans. (c) Constituent Assembly of India Tribunals both at the Union and State levels.
 Setup under the Cabinet Mission Plan of 1946
(b) Tribunals may look into disputes and complaints with
 11 sessions were held in total
 First session was held from December 9-23 1946 respect to recruitment and conditions of service of
 Last session was held from November 14-26 1949 persons appointed to public services.
 S pecial meeting was held on January 24, 1950 to append (c) Tribunals established by a law of the Parliament can
signatures exclude the jurisdiction of all Courts to allow for
77. Who has the power of annulment or suspension of Acts special leave to appeal.
and Resolutions of the Autonomous District and Regional (d) The law establishing the Tribunals may provide for
Councils? [CDS II- 2018] procedures including rules of evidence to be followed.
(a) The Governor Ans. (c) Tribunals established by a law of the Parliament can
(b) The President exclude the jurisdiction of all Courts, except that of a Supreme Court
(c) The Chief Minister of the State to allow for special leave to appeal
(d) The Prime Minister 82. Which of the following statements are correct about gender
Ans. (b) Article 370 of the Indian constitution is an article that gives budgeting ? [UGC July 2018]
autonomous status to the state of Jammu and Kashmir. The article is 1. It is a separate budget addressing the specific needs of
drafted in Part XXI of the Constitution: Temporary, Transitional and women.
Special Provisions. 2. It assesses the impact of government budget on
78. Which one of the following regarding the procedure and women.
conduct of business in the Parliament is not correct? 3. It is an accounting exercise.
4. It is another budgeting innovation.
[CDS II- 2018] Select the correct answer from the code given below :
(a) To discuss State matters (a) 2 and 4 only (b) 1 and 4 only
(b) To discuss issues of the use of police force in suppressing (c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 2, 3 and 4 only
the Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribe communities
(c) To discuss issues in dealing with violent disturbances Ans. (a) 2 and 4 only
in an Undertaking under the control of the Union The Ministry of Women and Child Development says,
Gender Budgeting is a powerful tool for achieving gender
Government
mainstreaming so as to ensure that benefits of development reach women
(d) To discuss issues for putting down the demands of the as much as men. It is not an accounting exercise but an ongoing process
industrial labour of keeping a gender perspective in policy/ programme formulation, its
Ans. (a) The reports of the Comptroller and Auditor-General of implementation and review. GB entails dissection of the Government
India relating to the accounts of the Union shall be submitted to budgets to establish its gender differential impacts and to ensure that
the president, who shall cause them to be laid before each House of gender commitments are translated in to budgetary commitments.
Parliament. The rationale for gender budgeting arises from recognition of the fact that
national budgets impact men and women differently through the pattern
79. Which one of the following criteria is not required to be of resource allocation. Women, constitute 48% of India’s population,
qualified for appointment as Judge of the Supreme Court? but they lag behind men on many social indicators like health,
[CDS II- 2018] education, economic opportunities, etc. Hence, they warrant special
(a) At least five years as a Judge of a High Court attention due to their vulnerability and lack of access to resources.
(b) At least ten years as an Advocate of a High Court The way Government budgets allocate resources, has the potential to
(c) In the opinion of the President, a distinguished Jurist transform these gender inequalities. In view of this, Gender Budgeting,
(d) At least twenty years as a SubJudicial Magistrate as a tool for achieving gender mainstreaming, has been propagated.
Ans. (d) Eligibility of a judge of the Supreme Court

83. Which of the following are the fundamental duties ?
– a judge of one high court or more (continuously), for at least [UGC July 2016]
five years, or. (A) To respect the National Flag.
(B) To protect and improve the natural environment.
EBD_9432
C-134 INDIAN POLITY
(C) For a parent to provide opportunities for education to Ans. (a) Though the Parliament of India is the supreme
his/her child. legislative body of the Republic of India, the legislation
(D) To protect monuments and places of national importance. passed by parliament may be challenged in Supreme Court.
Select the correct answer from the codes given : The Parliament is composed of the President of India and
Codes : the houses. It is a bicameral legislature with two houses: the
(a) (A), (B) and (C) (b) (A), (B) and (D) Rajya Sabha (Council of States) and the Lok Sabha (House of
(c) (A), (C) and (D) (d) (A), (B), (C) and (D) the People).
Ans. (a) The Fundamental Duties of citizens were added to 89. The Right to Information Act, 2005 makes the provision of
the Constitution by the 42nd Amendment in 1976, upon the [UGC June 2010]
recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee which was (a) Dissemination of all types of information by all Public
constituted by the government. authorities to any person.
84. Education as a subject of legislation figures in the (b) Establishment of Central, State and District Level
[UGC June 2014] Information Commissions as an appellate body.
(a) Union List (b) State List (c) Transparency and accountability in Public authorities.
(c) Concurrent List (d) Residuary Powers (d) All of the above
Ans. (c) Education is a subject which touches every person, every Ans. (a) Right to Information Act 2005 mandates timely
family and every institution in this country. Because it is such a response to citizen requests for government information. The
sensitive subject, any reform of the education process must be act empowers every citizen to seek any information from the
handled with great sensitivity and care. Education came into the Government, inspect any Government documents and seek
Concurrent List way back in 1976. certified photocopies thereof.
85. Which of the following statements are correct ? 90. Which option is not correct ? [UGC June 2010]
[UGC December 2013] (a) Most of the educational institutions of National repute
1. There are seven Union Territories in India. in scientific and technical sphere fall under 64th entry
2. Two Union Territories have Legislative Assemblies of Union list.
3. One Union Territory has a High Court. (b) Education, in general, is the subject of concurrent list
4. One Union Territory is the capital of two States. since 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act 1976.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below : (c) Central Advisory Board on Education (CABE) was
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only first established in 1920.
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) India had implemented the right to Free and
Ans. (d) All statements are correct. Compulsory Primary Education in 2002 through 86th
Constitutional Amendment.
86. The Fundamental Duties of a citizen include
Ans. (b) Through the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 Five
[UGC June 2012]
1. Respect for the Constitution, the National Flag and the subjects were transferred from State to Concurrent List. They
National Anthem are Education; Forests; Weights & Measures; Protection of
2. To develop the scientific temper. Wild Animals and Birds; Administration of Justice.
3. Respect for the Government. 91. Which one of the following is not the tool of good
4. To protect Wildlife. governance ? [UGC June 2009]
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below : (a) Right to information (b) Citizens’ Charter
Codes : (c) Social Auditing (d) Judicial Activism
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4
Ans. (d) Judicial activism refers to judicial rulings that are suspected
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 3, 4 and 2 of being based on personal opinion, rather than on existing law.
Ans. (b) The Fundamental Duties of a citizen include all the listed The question of judicial activism is closely related to constitutional
duties except for respect for the government. interpretation, statutory construction, and separation of powers.
87. Which one of the following is not a Constitutional 92. Match List - I (Institutions) with List - II (Functions) and
Body ? [UGC December 2010] select the correct answer by using the code given below:
(a) Election Commission [UGC December 2006]
(b) Finance Commission List - I List - II
(c) Union Public Service Commission (Institutions) (Functions)
(d) Planning Commission A. Parliament (i) Formulation of Budget
Ans. (d) The Planning Commission is a non-constitutional and B. C & A.G. (ii) Enactment of Budget
non-statutory body and is responsible to formulate five years plan C. Ministry of (iii) Implementation of
for social and economic development in India. Finance Budget
88. Which one of the following statements is not correct ? D. Executing (iv) Legality of expenditure
[UGC December 2010] Departments (v) Justification of Income
(a) Indian Parliament is supreme. Code:
(b) The Supreme Court of India has the power of judicial A B C D
review. (a) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(c) There is a division of powers between the Centre and (b) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
the States. (c) (v) (iii) (iv) (ii)
(d) There is a Council of Ministers to aid and advise the (d) (iv) (ii) (iii) (v)
President.
Ans. (b) Parliament – Enactment of Budget C. All the member states of the International Monetary
C & A.G. – Legality of expenditure Fund (lMF) are democracies.
Ministry of Finance – Formulation of Budget D. All the pennanent members of the United Nations
Executing Departments – Implementation of Budget Security Council are democracies.
93. Foundation training to the newly recruited IAS (a) A and B (b) A, B and C
(Probationers) is imparted by: [UGC December 2006] (c) A, B and D (d) B, C and D
(a) Indian Institute of Public Administration Ans. (a) All the member states of the IMF are not democracies,
(b) Administrative Staff College of India for instance, China. There are five permanent member of Security
(c) L.B.S. National Academy of Administration Council - US, Russia, UK, France and China in which China has not
(d) Centre for Advanced Studies democracy. China is ruled by communism.
Ans. (c) L.B.S. National Academy of Administration’s main 98. Which of the following is not a feature of a democratic
purpose is to train civil service officers of Indian Administrative form of government? [NTSE 2014]
Service, Indian Police Service, Indian Forest Service; and also for (a) Majority rule
Group-A Central Services such as Indian Foreign Service among (b) Rights of minorities
others. (c) Universal adult franchise
94. Which of the following group of States/Union Territories (d) Majoritarianism
have only one Lok Sabha constituency? [NTSE 2017] Ans. (d) Majoritarianism is not a feature of a democratic form of
(a) Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim, Lakshadweep government. It is a traditional political philosophy or agenda which
(b) Goa, Meghalaya, Andaman and Nicobar Islands asserts that a majority of the population is entitled to a certain degree
(c) Chandigarh, Sikkim, Mizoram of primacy in society, and has the right to make decisions that affect
(d) Manipur, Dadra and Nagar Haveli, Puducherry the society.
Ans. (c) 99. Which of the following institutions have reserved seats for
Chandigarh – 1 Lok Sabha Constituency women? [NTSE 2014]
Sikkim – 1 Lok Sabha Constituency A. Lok Sabha B. Rajya Sabha
Mizoram – 1 Lok Sabha Constituency C. Legislative Assemblies D. Municipalities
95. Which of the following statements about the Indian E. Panchayats
judiciary is true? [NTSE 2017] (a) A, C, D, E (b) B, C, D, E
(c) D and E (d) E only
(a) India has an integrated judiciary
(b) The Judiciary in India is subordinate to the Executive Ans. (c) 73rd Amendment Act of 1992 provides for the reservation
(c) The Supreme Court is more powerful than Parliament of not less than one third of the total number of seats for women
(including the number of seats reserved for women belonging to SCs
(d) The Chief Justice of India appointed by the Prime
and STs) in panchayat.
Minister 74th Amendment Act of 1992 provides for the reservation of not less
Ans. (a) India has an integrated judiciary is true. than one third of the total number of seats for women (including the
At the summit or top of country’s judicial system the supreme court number of seats reserved for women belonging to SCs and STs) in
look after the law’s of land, comprises Chief Justice and other 25 municipality.
judges. Women’s Reservation Bill (108th Amendment) Bill is a pending bill
• There are high courts at the state level which have juridiction in India which proposes to amend the Constitution of India to reserve
over a state. 33 per cent of all aeats in the Lower house of Parliament of India, the
• There are District courts which are established by state Lok Sabha, and in all state legislative assemblies for women.
governments. 100. The Principle of ‘checks and balances’ is related to
• There are subordinate Courts in districts which are civil and (a) Rule of law (b) Fundamental law
criminal in nature.
• Gram Nayayalyas have also been established at panchayat
(c) Fundamental Duties (d) Separation of Powers
levels from 2008. Ans. (d) “Checks and balances” is a concept set up in the United
In India, Supreme Court is the highest court of appeal which hear States Constitution whereby the various powers of any government
cases that comes as an appeal from high courts. Supreme Court are divided into 3 separate branches with no one branch having
decisions are binding on all other courts of the country. all powers. This is so that no one of the 3 branches of government
(executive, legislative, judicial) becomes so powerful that it becomes
96. Which of the following international institutions has a
a virtual monarchy. It also ensures that all three will work together
more democratic way of decision -making on matters of in relative harmony since each needs the others to perform its
global importance ? [NTSE 2016] obligations properly.
(a) General Assembly of the united Nations
101. Which one of the following is not an elected member of the
(b) International Monetary Fund
House? [NTSE 2011]
(c) Security Council of the United Nations
(a) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(d) World Bank
(b) Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha
Ans. (a) The General Assembly of the United Nations has a (c) Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
more democratic way of decision-making on the matters of global (d) Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
importance.
Ans. (c) Vice president is ex-officio chairman of Rajya Sabha. He
97. The following statements are about democracy in the is elected as Vice president not the member of Rajya Sabha.
contemporary world. [NTSE 2014]
A. Democracy expanded throughout the 20th century. 102. We need rights in a Democracy because
B. Democracy did not spread evenly throughout the I. Rights protect minorities from the appression of
world. majority.[NTSE]
EBD_9432
C-136 INDIAN POLITY
II. Right ensure individual liberty. 108. Which among the following cannot be challenged in a
III. Right guarantee limitation on an individual’s right to court of law? [NTSE]
equality. (a) Directive Principles of state policy
IV. Rights are placed higher than the government to check (b) Fundamental Rights
the government’s misuse of power. (c) Free to choose any profession or business
(a) Only III (b) Only IV (d) Right to move freely to any part of the country
(c) I, II, III and IV (d) I, II and IV
Ans. (a) The Directive principles of state policy are the directions
Ans. (d) Rights are needed in a democracy as they protect minorities given to the state these cannot be challenged in the court.
from the appression of majority. Right do not guarantee limit on an
individual’s right to equality. 109. A very good example of sharing power among different
social group is [NTSE]
103. In what ways does the Lok Sabha exercise Supreme Power (a) Panchayati Raj system in India
over Rajya Sabha select the correct option. [NTSE] (b) Demand for separate Eelam by Tamils
I. Lok Sabha controls the President of India. (c) Community government in Belgium
II. During the joint session the final decision is taken by (d) Federal arrangement in India
Lok Sabha because of its larger number of members.
III. Lok Sabha exercise more powers on money matters. Ans. (c) The community government in Belgium is elected by
IV. It guides the functioning of Rajya Sabha. people belonging to one language community, no matter where they
(a) I and IV (b) I and III live. This government has the power regarding cultural, educational
(c) II and III (d) I, II, III and IV and language related issues.
Ans. (c) 110. A ‘republic’ is a state in which the Head of the State is
[NTSE 2010]
104. Judiciary (courts) can take up any dispute [NTSE] (a) nominated by the Prime Minister.
I. Between citizens and the judiciary. (b) elected, directly or indirectly, by the people.
II. Between citizens and the government. (c) selected by the ruling party.
III. Between two or more state governments. (d) self-appointed.
IV. Between government at the Union and government of
the othe rcountries. Ans. (b) A ‘republic’ is a state in which the head of the State is
(a) Only I (b) Only II directly or indirectly or appointed by the people. Currently, 135 of
(c) I, II and III (d) Only IV the world’s 206 sovereign states use the world republic as the part of
their official names.
Ans. (c)
111. India is a federal state because its Constitution provides for
105. Consider the following statements- [NTSE] (a) dual citizenship. [NTSE 2010]
(a) Democracy promotes equality and freedom of expression. (b) division of powers between the Union and the States.
(b) In non-democratic countries people cannot freely (c) a written constitution.
choose their leaders. (d) election of members of Parliament by the people.
(c) The relationship between different countries has
become more democratic than ever before Ans. (b) India has borrowed the concept of fedrealism from Canada.
(d) Now a days there is not any military government in the In this system there is clear division of powers between the union and
states.
world.
Which of the above statements are correct? 112. Consider the following statements: [IAS Prelims 2019]
(a) (a), (b) and (c) (b) (a) and (b) 1. The United Nations Convention against Corruption
(b) (c) and (d) (d) (b), (c) and (d) (UNCAC) has a “protocol against the smuggling of
Ans. (b) Democracy is a form of government in which the Migrants by Land, Sea and Air”.
administration of the country is run by the representatives who are 2. The UNCAC is the ever-first legally binding global
elected by the people. anti-corruption instrument.
106. (a) President of India [NTSE MT] 3. A highlight of the United Nations Convention against
(b) The Prime minister Transnational organized Crime (UNTOC) is the
(c) The President after an address by the Parliament inclusion of a specific chapter aimed at returning assets
(d) The speaker to their rightful owners from whom they had been
taken illicitly.
Ans. (c) By the President after a resolution of Parliament passed 4. The United Nations office on Drugs and Crime
by a majority of its members and two third majority of the members
present and voting in each house.
(UNODC) is mandated by its member states to assist
in the implementation of both UNCAC and UNTOC.
107. What are national parties? [NTSE]
(a) Parties which have units in various states Which of the following statements given above are correct?
(b) Parties which have no units (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) Parties which have units in two states (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) Parties which have units in all states Ans. (c) United Nations Convention against Corruption is the only
Ans. (a) There are some countrywide parties called national legally binding universal anti-corruption instrument. So, #2 is right,
parties. These have units in various states, all these units follow this eliminates A. Upon checking the official webpages of UNTOC
the same policies, programmes and strategy that is decided at the and UNCAC, it’s evident that #3 is not related with UNTOC but
national level. UNCAC. So, #3 is wrong. So, by elimination, we are left with answer
(c).

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4. State & Union Territory Government 95 - 105

5. Local Government 106 - 115

7. Elections : Electoral System & Its Reform 120 - 122

8. Political Parties & Pressure Groups/Civil Society 123 - 125

9. World Polity/Miscellaneous 126-136

(a) Article 21 and Article 446 List-I List-II

3. the right to become a Member of the Parliament and Fundamental Rights

Emergency Provisions 7. While a proclamation of emergency is in operation the

4. Inter-State Council 56. Consider the following Vice-Presidents of India:

96. In India, Judicial Review implies [IAS 2017] Ans. (c)

Ans. (d) Eligibility of a judge of the Supreme Court

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