MILESTONE TEST -2 PRACTICE

PJ401MA Dropper
Paper - 01
DURATION
DURATION ::180
90 Minutes
Minutes DATE : 26/10/2023 M.MARKS : 300

Topics Covered
Physics: Basic maths, Vectors, Motion in a Straight Line, Motion in a Plane, Laws of Motion, Friction, Work,
Energy & Power, Centre of mass, Linear Momentum and collision, System of Particles & Rotational
Motion, Mechanical Properties of Solids, Mechanical Properties of Fluids
Chemistry: chemical Bonding & Molecular Structure
ChemicalKinetics Electrochemistry IUPAC Nomenclature
IsomerismGeneral Organic Chemistry

Mathematics: Basic Maths & Logarithm, Trigonometric Ratios & Identities, Trigonometric Equations, Basic
Coordinates and Straight line, Circle & System of Circles, Parabola, Ellipse, Hyperbola

General Instructions:
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the test booklet.
2. The test is of 3 hours duration.
3. The test booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 300.
4. There are Three Sections in the question paper, Section I, II & III consisting of Section-I (Physics), Section-II
(Chemistry), Section-III (Mathematics) and having 30 questions in each part in which first 20 questions are
compulsory and are of Objective Type and Last 10 questions are integers type in which you have to attempt
5 questions only.
5. There is only one correct response for each question.
6. Each correct answer will give 4 marks while 1 Mark will be deducted for a wrong MCQ response.
7. No student is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone, any
electronic device, etc. inside the examination room/hall.
8. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the
Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
9. Do not fold or make any stray mark on the Answer Sheet (OMR).
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[1]
 Section-I (PHYSICS)
Single Correct Type Questions (4) 45°
 6. Rain, driven by the wind, falls on a railway
1. Given: A  A cos iˆ  A sin ˆj. Another vector compartment with a velocity of 20 m/s, at an angle
 
B, which is perpendicular to A, is given by of 30° to the vertical. The train moves, along the
direction of wind flow, at a speed of 108 km/h.
(1) B cos iˆ  B sin ˆj
Determine the apparent velocity of rain for a
(2) B sin iˆ  B cos ˆj person sitting in the train.
(3) B cos iˆ  B sin ˆj (1) 20 7 m/s (2) 10 7 m/s

(4) B sin iˆ  B cos ˆj (3) 15 7 m/s (4) 10 7 km/h

2. Mark the correct statement. 7. A river flows with a speed more than the
        maximum speed with which a person can swim in
(1) a  b  a  b (2) a  b  a  b
still water. He intends to cross the river by the
   
(3) a  b  a  b (4) All of the above shortest possible path (i.e., he wants to reach the
point on the opposite bank which directly opposite
3. A ball is dropped into a well in which the water to the starting point). Which of the following is
level is at a depth h below the top. If the speed of correct?
sound is c, then the time after which the splash is (1) He should start normal to the river bank.
heard will be given by (2) He should start in such a way that he moves
normal to the bank, relative to the bank.
 2 1  2 1
(1) h    (2) h    (3) He should start in a particular (calculated)
 gh c   gh c  direction making an obtuse angle with the
 2 1  2 1 direction of water current.
(3) h    (4) h   
g c g c (4) The man cannot cross the river in that way.

4. The acceleration versus time graph of a particle 8. In order to raise a mass of 100 kg, a man of mass
moving in a straight line is shown in figure. The 60 kg fastens a rope to it and passes the rope over
velocity-time graph of the particle would be a smooth pulley. He climbs the rope with
acceleration 5g/4 relative to the rope. The tension
in the rope is (take g = 10 m/s2)

(1) A straight line

(2) A parabola
(3) A circle
(4) An ellipse

5. A shell fired from the ground is just able to cross

4875
horizontally the top of a wall 90 m away and 45 m (1) N
8
high. The direction of projection of the shell will
4875
be (2) N
2
(1) 25°
4875
(2) 30° (3) N
4
(3) 60°

[2]
 4875
(4) N
6

9. Two blocks A and B of masses 6 kg and 3 kg at

rest on a smooth horizontal surface as shown in
figure. If coefficient of friction between A and B is (1) 25 cm (2) 37.5 cm
0.4, the maximum horizontal force which can (3) 62.5 cm (4) None of the above
make them move without separation is
13. A ball of mass m moving speed u undergoes a
head-on elastic collision with a ball of mass nm
initially at rest. The fraction of the incident energy
transferred to the second ball is
(1) 72 N (2) 40 N n
(1)
(3) 36 N (4) 20 N 1 n
n
10. A wooden block of mass M resting on a rough (2)
horizontal floor is pulled with a force F at an angle
1  n 2
 with the horizontal. If  is the coefficient of 2n
(3)
kinetic friction between the block and the surface, 1  n 2
then the acceleration of the block is
4n
F (4)
(1) (cos    sin )   g 1  n 2
M
F
(2) cos 
M 14. Two identical balls, of equal masses A and B, are
F lying on a smooth surface as shown in figure. Ball
(3) (cos    sin )   g
M A hits ball B (which is at rest) with a velocity v =
F
(4) sin  16 m/s. What should be the minimum values of
M
coefficient of restitution between A and B such that
11. The speed v reached by a car of mass m in travelling ball B just reaches the highest point of inclined
a distance x, driven with constant power P, is given plane?
by
1/2
3xP  3xP 
(1) v  (2) v   
m  m 
1/3 2
 3xP   3xP 
(3) v    (4) v   
 m   m  (1) 2/3 (2) 1/4
(3) 1/2 (4) 1/3
12. A block of 4 kg mass starts at rest and slides a
distance d down a friction less incline (angle 30°) 15. Equal volume of two immiscible liquids of
where it runs into a spring of negligible mass. The
densities  and 2 are filled in a vessel as shown in
block slides an additional 25 cm before it is
the figure. Two small holes are punched at depths
brought to rest momentarily by compressing the
spring. The force constant of the spring is 400 N/m. h/2 and 3h/2 from the surface of lighter liquid. If v1
The value of d is (take g = 10 m/s2) and v2 are the velocities of efflux at these two
holes, then v1/v2 is

[3]
 (1) 10 kg (2) 20 kg
(3) 40 kg (4) 35 kg

20. The elastic limit of an elevator is 2 × 109 N/m2.

The maximum upward acceleration that an
1 elevator of mass 2 × 103 kg can have when
(1)
2 2 supported by a cable whose cross-sectional area is
(2) 1/2 10–4 m2, provided the stress in cable would not
(3) 1/4 exceed half of the elastic limit would be
1 (1) 10 m/s2
(4)
2 (2) 50 m/s2
(3) 40 m/s2
(4) Not possible to move up
16. An ideal fluid flow in the pipe as shown in the
figure. The pressure in the fluid at the bottom P2 is
Integer Type Questions
the same as it is at the top P1. If the velocity of the
top v1 = 2 m/s. Then the ratio of areas A1 : A2 is 21. A block is placed on an inclined plane moving
towards right horizontally with an acceleration a0
= g. The length of the plane AC = 1 m. Friction is
absent everywhere. Find the time taken (in second)
by the block to reach from C to A.

(1) 2 : 1 (2) 4 : 1
(3) 8 : 1 (4) 4 : 3

17. A small but heavy block of mass 10 kg is attached

to a wire 0.3 m long. It breaking stress is 4.8 × 107
N/m2. The area of the cross section of the wire is
10–6 m2. The maximum angular velocity with 22. A car travelling on a smooth road passes through
which the block can be rotated in the horizontal a curved portion of the road in the form of an arc
circle is of circle of radius 10 m. If the mass of car is 120
(1) 4 rad/s (2) 8 rad/s kg, find the reaction (in kN) on car at lowest point
(3) 10 rad/s (4) 32 rad/s P where its speed is 20 m/s.

18. A rubber rope of length 8 m is hung from the

ceiling of a room. What is the increase in length of
rope due to its own weight? (Given: Young's
modulus of elasticity of rubber = 5 × 106 N/m2 and 23. A ball of mass 1 kg moving with a velocity of 5
density of rubber = 1.5 × 103 kg/m3. m/s collides elastically with rough ground at an
(Take g = 10 m/s2) angle  with the vertical as shown in figure. What
(1) 1.5 mm can be the minimum coefficient of friction if ball
(2) 6 mm rebounds vertically after collision?
(3) 24 mm
(given tan  = 2)
(4) 96 mm

19. A wire can sustain the weight of 20 kg before

breaking. If the wire is cut into two equal parts,
each part can sustain a weight of

[4]
 27. Two forces of magnitude F are acting on a
uniform disc kept on a horizontal rough surface as
shown in the figure. Friction force by the
horizontal surface on the disc is nF. Find the
value of n.

24. Figure shows positions and velocities of two

particles moving under mutual gravitational 28. We apply a force of 10 N on a cord wrapped
attraction in space at time t = 0. The position of around a cylinder of mass 2 kg. The cylinder rolls
without slipping on the floor. What is its kinetic
centre of mass after one second is '*' m. Fill '*'.
energy (in Joule) when cylinder has moved by a
distance of 3/5 m.

25. A uniform rod of length 1 m and mass 2 kg is

29. A horizontal pipeline carries water in a streamline
suspended. Calculate tension T (in N) in the string
flow. At a point along the pipe, where the cross-
at the instant when the right string snaps (g = 10
sectional area is 10 cm2, the water velocity is 1
m/s2).
m/s and the pressure is 2000 Pa. The pressure of
water at another point where the cross-sectional
area is 5 cm2 is______ Pa (density of water = 103
kg/m3).

30. A ring of radius r made of wire of density  is

rotated about a stationary vertical axis passing
26. A square plate ABCD of mass m and side l is through its centre and perpendicular to the plane
suspended with the help of two ideal strings P and of the ring as shown in the figure. Determine the
Q as shown. Determine the acceleration (in m/s2) angular velocity (in rad/s) of ring at which the
of corner A of the square just at the moment the ring breaks. The wire breaks at tensile stress  .
string Q is cut, (g = 10 m/s2) Ignore gravity. Take / = 4 and r = 1 m.
 Section-II (CHEMISTRY)
Single Correct Type Questions 37. The relative stability of the following carbocations
31. In the standardization of Na2S2O3 using K2Cr2O7 in decreasing order will be
by iodometry, the equivalent weight of K2Cr2O7 is
Molecular Weight
(1)
2 C
C
Molecular Weight
(2)
6
MMTr OMe
Molecular Weight Tr
(3)
3 CH +2 CH+2
(4) same as molecular weight

32. A molal solution is one that contains one mole of

a solute in: Bn OMe
PMB
(1) 1000 g of the solvent
(1) Tr > MMTr > Bn > PMB
(2) one litre of the solvent
(2) MMTr > Tr > PMB > Bn
(3) one litre of the solution (3) MMTr > Tr > Bn > PMB
(4) 22.4 litres of the solution (4) PMB > Bn > MMTr > Tr

38. A gas can be liquefied

33. 2.76 g of silver carbonate on being strongly heated (1) above its critical temperature
yields a residue weighing (2) at its critical temperature
(1) 2.16 g (3) below its critical temperature
(2) 2.48 g (4) at any temperature
(3) 2.32 g
39. Which one of the following is an aromatic
(4) 2.64 g compound?
(1) O O (2) O
34. The average molar mass of chlorine is 35.5 g mol–1.
35 37 (+) (−)
The ratio of Cl to Cl in naturally occurring
chlorine is close to: (3) (4)
(1) 4 : 1
(2) 3 : 1 40. Assertion: Singlet carbene has a linear
(3) 2 : 1 structure.
(4) 1 : 1 Reason: The carbon atom in singlet carbene
is sp2–hybridized
(1) Assertion is True, Reason is True;
35. The Amount of sugar (C12H22O11) required to Reason is a correct explanation for
prepare 2 L of its 0.1 M aqueous solution is Assertion.
(1) 136.8 g (2) Assertion is True, Reason is True;
(2) 17.1 g Reason is a not correct explanation for
Assertion.
(3) 68.4 g
(3) Assertion is True. Reason is False
(4) 34.2 g (4) Assertion is False. Reason is True

36. Most acidic compound among the following is 41. If force of attraction between the gas molecules is
negligible, vander Waal’s equation (for one
(1) Picric acid mole) will become
(2) Squaric acid RT a
(1) PV = RT + Pb (2) PV = −
(3) Carbonic acid V − b V2
(3) PV = RT + a/V (4) PV = RT – a/V
(4) Carbolic acid

[5]
42. At STP, the decreasing order of root mean square 47. The increase of pressure on ice water system
velocity of molecules of H2, N2, O2 and HBr is at constant temperature will lead to
(1) H2 > N2 > O2 > HBr (1) a decrease in the entropy of the system
(2) HBr > O2 > N2 > H2 (2) an increase in the Gibb's energy of the system
(3) HBr > H2 > O2 > N2 (3) no effect on the equilibrium
(4) N2 > O2 > H2 > HBr (4) a shift of the equilibrium in the forward
direction
43. The values of vander Waal’s constant ‘a’ and ‘b’
for three different gases are given below. What is 48. What happens when an inert gas is added to an
the correct order of liquefaction of gases? equilibrium keeping volume unchanged?
Gases a b (1) More product will form
(2) Less product will form
X2 1.3 0.090 (3) More reactant will form
(4) Equilibrium will remain unchanged
Y2 4.1 0.023
Z2 2.2 0.075 49. The equilibrium constant at 298 K for a reaction
A+B C + D is 100. If the initial concentration
(1) X2 > Y2 > Z2 of all the four species were 1 M each, then
(2) Y2 > Z2 > X2 equilibrium concentration of D (in mol L–1) will
(3) Z2 > Y2 > X2 be:
(4) X2 > Z2 > Y2 (1) 1.818 (2) 1.182
(3) 0.182 (4) 0.818
44. The rate constant (k) of a reaction is measured at
different temperatures (T), and the data are plotted 50. What is the decreasing order of strength of the bases
in the given figure. The activation energy of the OH, NH 2 , HC  C − and CH 3 CH 2 ?
reaction in kJ mol–1 is: (R is gas constant) (1) CH3 − CH2  NH2  H − C  C−  OH
(2) H − C  C−  CH3 − CH2  NH2  OH
(3) OH−  NH2  H − C  C−  CH3 − CH2
(4) NH2  H − C  C−  OH  CH3 − CH2

Integer Type Questions

51. A 20.0 mL solution containing 0.2 g impure H2O2
reacts completely with 0.316 g of KMnO4 in acid
solution. The purity of H2O2 (in %) is ________
(mol. wt. of H2O2 = 34; mol. wt. KMnO4 = 158)
(1) 2/R
52. A 100 mL solution was made by adding 1.43 g of
(2) 1/R
(3) R Na2CO3xH2O. The normality of the solution is 0.1 N.
(4) 2R The value of x is ______.
(The gram atomic mass of Na is 23 g/mol )
45. The following reaction occurs in Blast Furnace
where iron ore is reduced to iron metal: 53. 10.30 mg of O2 is dissolved into a liter of sea water
Fe2O3(s) + 3CO(g) 2 Fe(l) + 3CO2(g) of density 1.03 g/mL. The concentration of O2 in
Using the Le Chatelier’s principle, predict which ppm is ____.
one of the following will not disturb the
equilibrium? 54. In the chemical reaction between stoichiometric
(1) Removal of CO (2) Removal of CO2 quantities of KMnO4 and KI in weakly basic
(3) Addition of CO2 (4) Addition of Fe2O3 solution, what is the number of moles of I2
released for 4 moles of KMnO4 consumed?
46. For the reaction
3 55. For a reaction X + Y 2Z, 1.0 mol of X, 1.5
Fe2 N(s) + H 2 (g) 2Fe(s) + NH3 (g) mol of Y and 0.5 mol of Z were taken in a 1 L
2
−1 vessel and allowed to react. At equilibrium, the
(1) Kc = Kp(RT) (2) Kc = K p (RT) 2 concentration of Z was 1.0 mol L–1. The
x
1 3 equilibrium constant of the reaction is .
(3) K c = K p (RT) 2 (4) K c = K p (RT) 2 15
The value of x is________.

[6]
56. The difference in the oxidation numbers of the two 59. If 75% of a first order reaction was completed in
types of sulphur atoms in Na2S4O6 is 90 minutes, 60% of the same reaction would be
completed in approximately (in minutes) ____ .
57. Consider the following equations:
(Take: log 2 = 0.30; log 2.5 = 0.40)
2Fe2+ + H2O2 → xA + yB
(in basic medium)
60. The total number of contributing structures
2MnO−4 + 6H+ + 5H2O2 → xC + yD + zE
(in acidic medium) showing hyperconjugation (involving C–H bonds)
The sum of the stoichiometric coefficients x, y, for the following carbocation is
x, y and z for products A, B, C, D and E,
respectively, is ________.

58. The concentration of R in the reaction R → P was

measured as a function of time and the following
data is obtained:
[R] 1.0 0.75 0.40 0.10
(molar)
t(min.) 0.0 0.05 0.12 0.18
The order of reaction is
 Section-III (MATHEMATICS)
Single Correct Type Questions 65. The equation 2x2 + 4xy – py2 + 4x + qy + 1 = 0 will
 log10 5  represent two mutually perpendicular straight lines,
 
 1  log10 5−1 
61. Value of 25 log16 9
+  is if
3 (1) p = 1 and q = 2 or 6
(1) Zero (2) 2 (2) p = –2 and q = –2 or 8
(3) 5 log2 3
(4) 2(5log 2 3 ) (3) p = 2 and q = 0 or 8
(4) p = 2 and q = 0 or 6
62. If the equation of the family of the ellipse is
x2 
y2  66. If f () = | sin + 1| + | sin − 2| + | sin −1| + | sin − 3|
+ = 1 0     , then the locus of
cos  sin  
2 2
4 where 0    2 , then the sum of maximum and
the extremities of the latus rectum is minimum value of f () is
(1) 2 y(1 − x2 ) = 1 + x2 (1) –4 (2) 4
(2) 2 y 2 (1 + x2 ) = (1 − x2 )2 (3) 14 (4) –14

(3) y2 = (1 − x2 )2
67. One side of square PQRS is on the line y = 2x – 17 and
(4) y2 = (1 + x2 )2 other 2 vertices are on parabola y = x 2 , then
minimum area of square is:
63. If tanx − tan x = 1 , then the value of
2
(1) 80
tan 4 x − 2tan3 x − tan 2 x + 2tanx + 1 is equal to (2) 4 5
(1) 1 (2) –2 (3) 1280
(3) –4 (4) 4
(4) 16 5
64. If the normal at the end points of a variable
chord PQ of the parabola y2 – 4y – 2x = 0 are 68. The value of
perpendicular, then the tangents at P and Q will sin 212 + sin 2 21 + sin 2 39 + sin 2 48 − sin 2 9
intersect at −sin 218 is equal to
(1) x + y = 3 (1) Zero
(2) 3x – 7 = 0 (2) 1
(3) y + 3 = 0 3
(3)
(4) 2x + 5 = 0 2
(4) 2

[7]
 x2 y 2 the angle bisectors of the lines represented by the
69. If radii of director circles of + = 1 (where a equation 2x2 – 5xy + 3y2 = 0 is
a 2 b2
(1) 5x2 – 2xy + 5y2 = 0
x2 y 2 (2) 5x2 – 2xy – 5y2 = 0
> b) and − = 1 are 2r and r respectively and
a 2 b2 (3) 5x2 + 2xy – y2 = 0
ee and eh be the eccentricities of the ellipse and the (4) 5x2 + 2xy + y2 = 0
hyperbola respectively then
(1) 2eh2 − ee2 = 0 (2) eh2 − 4ee2 = 0    
77. Let S =   −,  −   : sintan + tan = sin2 . If
(3) 4eh2 − ee2 = 6 (4) eh2 + 4ee2 = 6   2 

2
T=  cos2 , then T + n(S) is equal
S
70. The point P on the parabola y = 4ax for which
| PR – PQ | is maximum, where R(–a, 0), Q(0, a) is (1) 7 + 3 (2) 9
(1) (a, 2a) (2) (a, –2a)
(3) (4a, 4a) (4) (4a, –4a) (3) 8 + 3 (4) 10

 3 5 7
71. Let P and Q be two points on the line y – x = 0 such 78. The value of sin sin sin sin is equal to
that P and Q are symmetric with respect to the 14 14 14 14
origin. Suppose R is a point on x + 2y = 2 such that 1 1
(1) (2) –
PQR is an equilateral triangle. Then, the area of 8 8
the PQR is 1 1
8 10 (3) (4) –
(1) (2) 16 16
3 3
12 6 79. If a circle passes through the point (1, 2) and cuts
(3) (4) the circle x 2 + y 2 = 4 orthogonally, then the locus
3 3
of its centre is
72. The value of (1) x2 + y 2 − 2x − 6 y − 7 = 0
 3   5 3  (2) x2 + y2 − 3x − 8 y + 1 = 0
1 + tan tan  + 1 + tan tan  +
 8 8  8 8  (3) 2x + 4y – 9 = 0
 7 5   9 7  (4) 2x + 4y – 1 = 0
1 + tan tan  + 1 + tan tan 
 8 8   8 8 
is equal to 
 x + 3 −1 

80. Let S =  x   −6,3 − −2, 2 :  0  and
(1) 0 (2) 1 
 x −2 

(3) 2 (4) irrational
T = {x  Z : x2 − 7 | x | + 9  0} . Then the number of
1− x
73. If 1, log9 (3 + 2),log3 (4  3 −1) are in A.P, then x
x
elements in S  T is
is equal to (1) 7 (2) 5
(1) log3 4 (2) 1 − log3 4 (3) 4 (4) 3
(3) 1 − log 4 3 (4) log 4 3
Integer Type Questions
74. The area of the quadrilateral formed by the tangents
81. If 2sin 2 x + 3sinx − 2  0 and x2 − x − 2  0 then
at the vertices of pair of conics x2y2 = 4, is
(1) 4 sq. units (2) 8 sq. units the exhaustive set of values of x satisfying the two
(3) 16 sq. units (4) 32 sq. units  
inequalities is  , m  then k + m is equal to
k 
75. The number of integral values of ‘a’ for which the
equation 82. In the figure, if radius of the circle is equal to 1 and
    perimeter of OPR is 8 , then length PL is k. The
4sin  x +  cos  x −  = a 2 + 3sin2 x − cos2 x
 3  6 value of 3k is
has a solution (x  R) , is
(1) 2 (2) 3
(3) 4 (4) 5

76. The combined equation of the two lines

ax + by + c = 0 and ax + by + c = 0 can be written
as (ax + by + c) (ax + by + c) = 0. The equation of

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 x2 y 2 87. A triangle is formed by the tangents at the point
83. If the latus rectum of the hyperbola − =1 (4, 4) on the curves x2 = 4y and x2 + 2y2 = 48 and the
a 2 b2
a
through one focus subtends 90° angle at the other line x + y = 4. If the area of the triangle is , where
b
focus and its eccentricity is  +  , then the value
G.C.D. (a, b) = 2, then (a + b) is equal to
of  –  is
88. If the circum centre of the triangle, whose vertices
84. 2
The normal at the point P(ap ,2ap) meets the are (1, 2), (2, 3) and (3, 1) is (p, w) then 6(p + w) is
equal to
parabola y 2 = 4ax again at Q (aq 2 , 2aq ) such that
the lines joining the origin to P and Q are at right 89. The lengths of the sides of a triangle are
angle, then p2 + q2 is equal to log1012,log10 75 and log10 n , where n  N. Find the
number of possible values of n.
85. The maximum value of
x2 y 2
( −3 + 4 x − x2 + 4)2 + ( x − 5)2 where x  1, 3 is 90. With one focus of the hyperbola − = 1 as the
9 16
centre, a circle is drawn which is tangent to the
86. A triangle is formed by x-axis, y-axis and the line
hyperbola with no part of the circle being outside
2x + 5y = 40. Then the number of points P(, )
which lie inside the triangle, where ( + ) is the hyperbola. The radius of the circle is
multiple of 3, is _______. ( and  are integers)

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