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IBPS PO Mains Free Set – 2 (English)
Reasoning and Computer Aptitude:

Directions (1-4): In the question below are D. All trees are branch. All branches are leaf.
given some conclusions followed by some set of Some leaves are plants. No plant is flower
statements. You have to choose the correct set E. None of these
of statements that logically satisfies given
conclusions. Assume the given statements to 3. Conclusions:
be true even if they seem to be at variance Some UPSC which are IBPS being SSC is a
from commonly known facts. possibility
1. Conclusions: All RRB are TNPSC is a possibility
Some BPCL are not TVS Some RRB are not TNPSC is a possibility
Some HPCL which are BPCL being Honda is a Statements:
possibility A. All RRB are SSC. Some RRB are UPSC.
Some Honda are not IOCL Some UPSC are IBPS. All SSC are TNPSC
Statements: B. Some SSC are RRB. Some RRB are UPSC.
A. Some BPCL are HPCL. All BPCL are IOCL. Some UPSC are IBPS. All IBPS are TNPSC
Some IOCL are TVS. No TVS is Honda C. Some SSC are RRB. No RRB is IBPS. Some
B. Some BPCL are HPCL. All BPCL are IOCL. UPSC are IBPS. All TNPSC are IBPS
Some IOCL is TVS. Some TVS are Honda D. Some SSC are RRB. Some RRB are UPSC.
C. Some BPCL are IOCL. All HPCL are IOCL. Some SSC are IBPS. All IBPS are TNPSC
No IOCL is TVS. Some TVS are Honda E. None of these
D. Some BPCL are HPCL. All BPCL are IOCL.
No IOCL is TVS. Some TVS are Honda 4. Conclusions:
E. None of these Some Vanilla are not cone
Some mango are cone
2. Conclusions: Some strawberry are mango
Some Branch are not leaves Statements:
Some flowers are tree is a possibility A. Some vanilla are strawberry. No strawberry is
Some leaves which are plants being branch is a cone. All strawberry are mango. All cone are
possibility mango.
Statements: B. No vanilla is strawberry. No strawberry is
A. No tree is branch. No tree is leaf. Some leaves cone. All strawberry are cone. All cone are
are plants. All plants are flower mango.
B. All trees are branch. Some trees are leaf. No C. Some vanilla are strawberry. No strawberry is
leaf is plant. All plants are flower cone. All strawberry are cone. All mango are
C. All trees are branch. No tree is leaf. Some cone.
leaves are plants. All plants are flower D. Both (a) and (c)
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E. All are true Directions (8-12): Study the following

information carefully and answer the given
Directions (5-7): In the following , numbers below:
12, 15, 24, 67, 59, 86 and 37 are used with the There are ten boxes numbered from 1 to 10. Each
following meanings as illustrated below. Study box is kept one above the other. Box 1 is kept at
the following information and answer the lowermost place. Box 2 is arranged above box 1,
given : Box 3 is arranged above box 2, etc.. Each box is
If, in different colour and they contain different
P12T - T is the son in law of P. sweets Malpua, Gulab jamun, Halva, shrikhand,
P15T - P is the child of T. Kaju katli, Laddu, Kheer, Sandesh, Jalebi and
P24T - P is the parent of T. Basundi. All the above information is not
P67T- T is wife of P. necessarily in the same order.
P59T- T is the daughter-in-law of P. Box 9 contains Malpua. The box which contains
P86T- T is the husband of P. Sandesh is kept immediately above the brown
P37T-T is sister of P. colour box. More than four boxes are kept
between the box which contains Halva and the
5. If S86R15Q24M67N, then how N is related yellow colour box. Black colour box does not
to Q? contain Sandesh. Green colour box is kept at top.
A. Daughter The box which contains Kheer is kept
B. Cannot be determined immediately below the box which contains
C. Son in law Laddu. Neither yellow nor brown colour box
D. Daughter in law contains Malpua. Only one box is kept between
E. None of these the box which contain Halva and the red colour
box. The box which contains Kaju katli is kept
6. If G59L86Y24P37D, then how D is related immediately above Pink colour box. Number of
to G? boxes kept above pink is two more than number
A. Grandmother of boxes kept below grey colour box. Orange box
B. Grandson is kept immediately below grey colour box.
C. Granddaughter Three boxes are kept between the box which
D. Cannot be determined contains Malpua and the black colour box. The
E. None of these box which contains Sandesh is not in pink colour.
Two boxes are kept between white colour box
7. If N12H67R37K24T, then how H is related and the box which contains Laddu. Only one box
to T? is kept between the box which contain Sandesh
A. Uncle and yellow colour box. Only one box is kept
B. Niece between the box which contains Jalebi and the
C. Aunt box which contains Kheer. As many box kept
D. Cannot be determined above the box which contains Kheer as kept
E. None of these below the box which contains Basundi. White
colour box is kept below Blue colour box.
Neither Black nor Brown colour box contains

Shrikhand. Black colour box does not contain 12. Which of the following box is kept
Gulab jamun. immediately below Gulab jamun?
A. There is no
8. Box number 6 contains which of the box
following sweets?
A. Kaju katli B. Orange colour box
B. Jalebi C. Black colour box
C. Shrikhand D. Yellow colour box
D. Kheer E. None of these
E. None of these
Directions (13-16): Each of the below consist
9. How many boxes are kept between the box of a question and two statements numbered I
which contains Jalebi and Brown colour box? and II given below it. You have to decide
A. Four whether the data provided in the statements
B. Seven are sufficient to answer the question. Read
C. Two both the statements and give answer
D. Three (a) if the data in statement I alone are sufficient
E. None of these to answer the question, while the data in
statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the
10. If Box number 9 is related to Kaju katli, question.
Box number 6 is related to Laddu, in the same (b) if the data in statement II alone are sufficient
way which of the following is related to to answer the question, while the data in
Basundi? statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the
A. Box number 10 question.
B. Box number 5 (c) if the data either in statement I alone or in
C. Box number 8 statement II alone are sufficient to answer the
D. Box number 3 question.
E. None of these (d) if the data in both statement I and II together
are not sufficient to answer the question.
11. Which of the following statement is true? (e) if the data in both statement I and II together
A. Three boxes are kept between Red colour box are necessary to answer the question.
and the box which contains Jalebi
B. The box which contains Shrikhand is kept 13. Seven persons T, L, M, D, K, W and H are
below Pink colour box sitting in a row facing north but not
C. The box which contains Sandesh is kept necessarily in the same order. Which of the
immediately below Grey colour box following persons sit fourth to the left of M?
D. More than four boxes are kept between Red I. M sits second to the right of T. Two
colour box and the box which contains Kheer persons sit between T and W. K sits
E. None is true second to the left of W. Only one person
sits between H and L. D sits left of K.

II. Three persons sit between H and K. Either between W and H. L attends the seminar
H or K sits at one of the extreme end. T immediately after P. N attends the seminar
sits left of W. L and T are immediate before P. D attends the seminar after N,
neighbours. M sits right of K. but does not attend the seminar
A. a immediately before W.
B. b A. a
C. c B. b
D. d C. c
E. e D. d
E. e
14. Eight persons P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W
are sitting around a circular table facing 16. P, L, M, D, H and T are arranged
centre. Person name starts with consecutive according to their weight. Which of the
alphabets does not sit next to each other. following person is the lightest?
Which of the following person sits second to I. H is lighter than only two persons. D is
the left of W? heavier than P and L, but lighter than M. L
I. Two persons sit between S and U. R sits is heavier than T. P is not the lightest.
second to the left of U. W sits third to the II. P is heavier than L but lighter than D. M is
left of V. heavier than D. T is lighter than H.
II. P is neither an immediate neighbour of S A. a
nor an immediate neighbour of V. S sits B. b
immediate right of V. C. c
A. a D. d
B. b E. e
C. c
D. d
E. e Directions (17-19): Study the following
information carefully and answer the given
15. Six persons P, H, L, D, W and N attends below:
the seminar in two different dates 8, 13 and 17 Point C is 5m south of Point M. Point G is 3m
in two different months May and September, east of Point M. Point V is 10m south of Point G.
but not necessarily in the same order. Which Point S is 6m west of Point V. Point F is 3m
of the following person attends the seminar north of Point S. Point R is 11m east of Point F.
immediately before D? Point P is 7m north of Point R.
I. Two persons attend the seminar between
N and P. N attends the seminar before P. 17. Four of the following five are like in a
N does not attend the seminar on even certain way based on the above arrangement.
numbered date. As many persons attend Find which one does not belongs to the group?
the seminar before H and after L are same. A. GF
II. W attends the seminar on even numbered B. PC
date. Two persons attend the seminar C. MV

D. RS Input: respect choice 631 249 reader 573 412

E. MF 957 ball back
18. How far and in which direction Point P 20. How many elements are there to the left of
with respect to Point M? ‘respect’ in step IV?
A. 8m, West A. Seven
B. 7m, East B. Eight
C. 10m, West C. Six
D. 8m, East D. Five
E. None of these E. None of these
19. If Point S is 3m west of Point Q, then what 21. Which of the following element is second to
is the distance between Point Q and Point C? the left of fifth from the left end in step III?
A. 10m A. abbj
B. 5m B. 10
C. 3m C. bgpjbf
D. 7m D. abkk
Directions (20-24): Study the following 22. What is the position of ‘249’ in step I?
information carefully and answer the given A. Fourth from the right end
below: B. Seventh from the left end
A machine rearrangement given an input line C. Fifth from the right end
having both words and numbers in a particular D. Third from the right end
set of rules in step by step. The following is an E. None of these
illustration of input and its rearrangement.
Input: funny 617 advice 431 sought 236 712 23. Which of the following element is third to
alone 598 section the left of ‘qfbcfq’ in step V?
Step I: bcujbf 8 funny 617 sought 236 712 alone A. abkk
598 section B. 7
Step II: bcujbf 8 bkpmf 11 funny 617 sought 712 C. abbj
598 section D. 10
Step III: bcujbf 8 bkpmf 11 evmmx 11 617 E. None of these
sought 598 section
Step IV: bcujbf 8 bkpmf 11 evmmx 11 rfbsjpm 24. Which of the following step represents the
14 sought 598 following output, ‘abbj 7 respect choice 631
Step V: bcujbf 8 bkpmf 11 evmmx 11 rfbsjpm 14 249 reader 573 957 back’?
rpvfgs 22 A. There is no such step
Step V is the last step of the above arrangement. B. Step III
As per rules followed in the given steps, find C. Step I
appropriate step for given Input. D. Step II

E. None of these of weight loss during childhood are affected in

long term in numerous ways.
Directions (25-26): In each of the following , A. a
two statements numbered I and II are given. B. b
There may be cause and effect relationship C. c
between the two statements. These two D. d
statements may be the effect of the same cause E. e
or independent causes. These statements may
be independent causes without having any Directions (27-28): Each of the following
relationship. Read both the statements in each consists of a statement followed by two
question and mark your answer as arguments I and II.
(a)If statement I is the cause and statement II is Give answer:
its effect; (a) If only argument I is strong
(b)If statement II is the cause and statement I is (b) If only argument II is strong
its effect; (c) If either I or II is strong
(c)If both the statements I and II are independent (d) If neither I nor II is strong and
causes; (e) If both I and II are strong.
(d)If both the statements I and II are effects of
independent causes; and 27. Statement: Religious communities do not
(e)If both the statements I and II are effects of accept the supremacy of state law in respect they
some common cause. lead to child or forced marriage.
Arguments:
25. Statement I: Global warming is a direct I. In some societies, a marriage by a person
result of the increased imbalance of gases in the below the age of 21 is regarded as a child
atmosphere. marriage.
Statement II: Manufacturing industries release II. Marriageable age for women was lower in
large amount of carbon monoxide, hydrocarbons, many jurisdictions than for men, but in
organic compounds, and chemicals into the air. many places has now been raised to those
A. a of men.
B. b A. a
C. c B. b
D. d C. c
E. e D. d
E. e
26. Statement I: The degree of cognitive
impairments in children is directly related to the 28. Statement: Usage of plastic bags should be
severity of stunning and Iron deficiency banned.
Anaemia. Arguments:
Statement II: Children who do not reach the I. Yes. Plastic bags do not only pollute our
optimum height or consistently experience bouts water but also our land.

II. Yes. Plastic bags are made from non- 30. Statement: The safety app named ‘Raudram’
renewable resources and on this account, is launched on Tuesday aimed at ensuring safety
highly contribute to climate change. of women.
A. a Assumptions:
B. b I. Raudram app helps to protect several
C. c incidents of violence against women.
D. d II. Raudram enables location based alerts,
E. e recording of audio and video footage and
tracks the location of women to protect
Directions (29-30): In each question below a her.
statement is followed by two assumptions A. a
numbered I and II. An assumption is B. b
something supposed or taken for granted. You C. c
have to consider the statement and the D. d
following assumptions and then decide which E. e
of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.
Give answers: Directions (31-35): Study the following
(a) if only assumption I is implicit. information carefully and answer the given
(b) if only assumption II is implicit. below:
(c) if either assumption I or II is implicit. Eight persons P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are
(d) if neither assumption I nor II is implicit. sitting around a rectangular table. Four persons
(e) if both assumption I and II are implicit. are sitting at corner faces away from the centre
and four persons are sitting at middle side of the
29. Statement: In an attempt to make the process table faces the centre. They like different malls
of applying for a water or sewer connection G, D, L, Y, Z, X, C and F. All the above
easier, Chennai metro water has launched online information is not necessarily in the same order.
services. Person name starts with consecutive alphabet
Assumptions: does not sit next to each other.
I. Consumers now apply for connections, Two persons sit between U and the one who likes
remit payment and check application X. V sits second to the left of T. The one who
status online. likes Z sits second to the right of the one who
II. India’s foreign trade is mainly dependent likes F. Q sits immediate left of the one who likes
on water transport. Y. V does not like X. The one who likes L sits
A. a second to the left of P. The one who likes C sits
B. b third to the right of W. S does not like C. The one
C. c who likes G sits immediate left of the one who
D. d likes D. The one who likes Y sits third to the left
E. e of V. P likes neither G nor D.
31. How many persons sit between the one

who likes G and U, if P sits immediate right of

the one who likes D, when counted from right E. None of these
of U?
A. One Directions (36-39): Study the following
B. Two information carefully and answer the given
C. Three below:
D. Four If,
E. None of these ‘Snatch release online’ is coded as ‘13DH 10CM
11AX’
32. Who among the following likes mall Z? ‘Status consumer connection’ is coded as ‘15CV
A. W 11DL 0BF’
B. U ‘City based firm release out’ is coded as ‘22AG
C. V 2BV 13DH 5BF 7AI’
D. Q
E. None of these 36. What is the code for ‘Audience committee’
in this code language?
33. If Q is related to C, V is related to F, in the A. 4DX 2DV
same way W is related to which of the B. 4EX 2VD
following? C. 4EW 2DV
A. G D. 4EX 2DV
B. D E. None of these
C. X
D. L 37. What is the code for ‘decoration
E. None of these photography’ in this code language?
A. 9CS 10DL
34. Four of the following five are like in a B. 10CS 10EL
certain way based on the above arrangement. C. 10EL 9CS
Find the one which does not belongs to the D. 9EL 10CS
group? E. None of these
A. W-L
B. V-C 38. Which of the following word represent the
C. S-X code ‘2EE 1DT’?
D. V-Y A. Demand threat
E. Q-F B. Comprehensive footage
C. Welcome notice
35. Who among the following sits third to the D. Drinking restrictions
left of the one who sits fourth to the right of E. None of these
V? 39. What is the code for ‘gaining momentum’
A. P in this code language?
B. S A. 0BF 0CM
C. The one who likes G B. 0CF 0CN
D. Cannot be determined C. 1DF 0CM

D. 0CF 0CM B. 12
E. None of these C. 10
D. 13
40. How many pairs of letters are there in the E. None of these
word "RESTRICTION" which have as many
letters between them in the word as in the 42. What is the position of P from the right
alphabetical series in both backward and end?
forward direction? A. 30
A. Three B. 10
B. Six C. 25
C. Four D. 12
D. Five E. None of these
E. None of these
43. How many persons are sitting in a row?
Directions (41-45): Study the following A. 35
information carefully and answer the given B. 39
below: C. 33
Certain numbers of person are sitting in a row D. 42
facing north. K sits fourth to the left of P. Four E. None of these
persons sit between P and N. As many persons sit
between P and N sit between N and Y. The one 44. What is the position of Y with respect to
who likes lily sits second to the right of Y. Ten K?
persons sit between the one who likes lily and J. A. Sixth to the left
More than eight persons sit between Y and J. B. Fourteenth to the right
Two persons sit between J and G. B sits C. Seventh to the left
immediate left of G and is fifth from the right D. Eighth from the right
end. R sits right of J. R is an immediate E. None of these
neighbour of neither B nor G and doesn’t sit at
any of the extreme ends. L sits third to the left of 45. How many persons sit between the one
the one who likes rose. Twenty five persons sit who likes lily and the one who likes Rose?
between R and the one who likes Rose. L is third A. Ten
from the left end. B. Eleven
C. Nine
41. How many persons sit between L and the D. Twelve
one who likes Lily? E. None of these
A. 14

Data Analysis and Interpretation:

Directions (46-50): Study the following information carefully and answer the given below:
46. Number of permanent employees of A. 2464:3393

company A is what percent of number of B. 2456:6543
temporary employees of company E? C. 3393:2464
A. 102.23% D. 3446:3442
B. 112.12% E. None of these
C. 128.86%
D. 123.22% 50. Number of temporary males of company D
E. None of these is what percent more than the number of
temporary males of company B?
47. Find the total number of permanent males A. 18.12%
of companies A, B and C. B. 16.12%
A. 23001 C. 12.13%
B. 32010 D. 10.14%
C. 14230 E. None of these
D. 23400
E. None of these Direction (51-55):Read the following
information carefully and answer the
48. Find the difference between temporary following given below. The table below shows
females of companies B and C together and number of balls in different bags
that of companies D and E together.
A. 3272
B. 2373
C. 2267
D. 2113
E. None of these
49. Find the respective ratio of number of

temporary females of company A and that of
company D.

All the are independent from each other. A. 3/35

B. 3/10
51. If the probability of getting a red from bag C. 1/7
A is 1/5 when one ball is picked random and D. 6/11
the number of yellow balls are twice the blue E. None of these
balls then find the probability of getting both
yellow balls when 2 balls are picked from bag 55. If 3 blue balls are taken out from bag F
A randomly? and then one ball is picked at random from
A. 3/38 bag F then the probability of getting a blue
B. 3/10 ball is 3/9 then find how many balls were there
C. 1/7 in the bag initially?
D. 6/11 A. 8
E. None of these B. 30
C. 17
52. If the number of red balls in bag D is 3/4 of D. 21
the yellow balls in bag C and 3 green balls are E. None of these
transferred from bag B to bag D then find the
probability of getting at least one yellow ball Directions (56-60): In each of the following , a
from bag D when two balls are picked at question is followed by three statements
random from bag D? numbered I, II and III. Read all the
A. 3/38 statements and answer accordingly.
B. 3/10
C. 7/19 56. There are three pipes A, B and C. Find the
D. 6/11 number of hours taken by pipe C to empty the
E. None of these filled part of the tank.
I) Pipe A can fill a tank 12 hours and pipe C
53. If ‘x’ number of blue balls are added in can empty the same tank in 10 hours.
Bag C then the probability of getting a green II) Efficiency of pipe B is twice the efficiency
ball when one ball is picked at random is 1/6 of A. Pipe B is a filling pipe.
then find the value of x? III) Pipe A and pipe B are opened together
A. 3 and closed after 3 hours and at that time pipe
B. 10 C is opened.
C. 7 A. Only I and II together are sufficient
D. 6 B. Only II and III together are sufficient
E. None of these C. All I, II and III together are sufficient
D. Even I, II and III together are not sufficient
54. If the number of total balls in bag E is 16 E. None of these
and yellow and blue balls are in the ratio of
2:3 then find what is the probability of getting 57. Find the number of days taken by A, B, C
one blue ball and two green balls when three and D together to complete the work.
balls are picked at random? I) A can complete the work in 20 days.

II) D is twice as efficient as C and B together. II) A bike can cross the platform in 2 minutes.
III) C can complete the work in 8 days. III) Speed of the train is 54 km/h.
A. Only I and II together are sufficient A. Only I and III together are sufficient
B. Only III alone is sufficient B. Only III alone is sufficient
C. All I, II and III together are sufficient C. All I, II and III together are sufficient
D. Even I, II and III together are not sufficient D. Even I, II and III together are not sufficient
58. Find the new average age of a class when 61. Average of a class of 56 students is 22
one student left the class and another student years. Three students of age 25 years, 28 years
joined the class. and 20 years left the class and five students of
I) Average age of the class of 35 students is 25 age 22 years, 24 years, 26 years, 30 years and
years. 18 years joined the class. New average age of
II) A student of age 30 years left the class and the class is what percent of initial average age?
another student of age 26 years joined the A. 68.45%
class. B. 100.22%
III) A student left the class and another C. 88.22%
student of age 22 years joined the class. D. 79.24%
A. Only I and II together are sufficient E. None of these
B. Only III alone is sufficient
C. All I, II and III together are sufficient 62. A and B together can do a piece of work in
D. Even I, II and III together are not sufficient 15 days where as B and C together can do in
E. None of these 20 days. If A has been working at it for 6
days, and B for 10 days, C takes up and
59. Find the cost of fencing of the rectangular finishes it alone in 8 days then in how many
field at the rate of Rs.30/m. days C can complete the work alone?
I) Length of the field is 6 m more than its A. 10 days
breadth. B. 5 days
II) Breadth of the field is equal to side of a C. 7 days
square field. D. 8 days
III) Cost of flooring the square field at the rate E. None of these
of Rs.45/m2 is Rs.13005.
A. Only I and II together are sufficient 63. In a family, a couple has a son and
B. Only III alone is sufficient daughter. The age of the father is four times
C. All I, II and III together are sufficient that of his daughter and the age of the son is
D. Even I, II and III together are not sufficient half of his mother. The wife is six years
E. None of these younger to her husband and the brother is five
years older than his sister. What is the age of
60. Find the length of the platform. the mother?
I) A train of length 450 m can cross the A. 34 years
platform in 50 seconds. B. 32 years

C. 26 years Scheme Q:The Total Number of Projects under

D. 28 years Scheme Q is 375. The Number of Projects in City
E. None of these B is 75less than that of number of projects in City
A and C together. The Number of Projects in
64. Car A leaves Gorakhpur at 8 am and is City A is 5/6th of the number of projects in City
driven at a speed of 50 km/h. 4 hours later A under Scheme R.
another car B leaves Gorakhpur and is driven Scheme R:The Number of Projects under
in the same direction as car A. At what time Scheme R is 4/5th of the number of Projects
will car B be 10 kilometres ahead of car A if under Scheme Q. The Number of Projects in City
the speed of car B is 80 km/h. A is equal to the number of Projects in City B
A. 7 pm under Scheme Q. The Number of Projects in city
B. 8 pm C under Scheme Q and Scheme R is Equal.
C. 6 pm
D. 10 pm 66. In 2019, the projects allocated for city B
E. None of these under Scheme Q is increases by 30%, and the
project allocated for city C under scheme R is
65. A sold an article to B at a profit of 25%, B decreases by 45%, then the total number of
sold the same article to C at a loss of 10% and projects in 2019 for city B under scheme Q
C sold the same article to D at a profit of 30%. and City C under Scheme R is equal to total
If D paid Rs.17550 for the article, then find number of projects in which of the following
the difference between the payments made by Cities in 2018?
B and C for the article. A. City C under Scheme P and City A under
A. Rs.1400 scheme R together
B. Rs.1200 B. City B under Scheme P and City C under
C. Rs.1300 scheme P together
D. Rs.1500 C. City A under Scheme Q and City B under
E. None of these scheme R together
D. City C under Scheme Q and City A under
Directions (66-70): Study the following scheme R together
information carefully and answer the given : E. None of those given as options
There are three Cities City A, City B and City C.
Certain Number of Projects are allocated to these 67. What is the average number of projects
cities Under Scheme P, Scheme Q and Scheme R under Scheme Q and Scheme R for City C and
in 2018. City B together?
Scheme P: The Number of Projects in City B is A. 75
2/3rd of the Number of projects in city B under B. 80
Scheme Q. The Number of Projects in City C is C. 100
4/5th of the Number of projects in city C under D. 150
Scheme R. The Total Number of Projects in city E. None of those given as option
A and City C is equal under Scheme P.

68. If the cost of each projects is 15 crore for E. 635

scheme P, and 19Crore for Scheme Q, and 17
crore for Scheme R, then how much fund 70. In City X, The number of projects
allocated for City C under these three schemes allocated under scheme P is 20% more than
(In Million)? that of number of projects allocated for city C
A. 48000 under scheme P, and the number of projects
B. 3800 allocated under scheme Q is 40% less than
C. 4800 that of number of projects allocated for city B
D. 54000 under scheme Q and the total number of
E. None of those given as option projects in city X is 300, then how many
projects are allocated for City X under scheme
69. What is the total number of projects under R?
Scheme P and Scheme Q together? A. 154
A. 560 B. 100
B. 675 C. 94
C. 720 D. 114
D. None of those given as option E. None of those given as option
Directions (71-75): Study the following information carefully and answer the given :
The line graph shows that total number of manufacturing parts produced by five different
companies in the year 2016 and 2017.
The table shows that percentage of Defective parts and percentage of non- defective parts that are
not passed the quality test in the year 2016.

71. If both the years the percentage of quality test from company C and D in 2016 is
defective parts from company D is equal, and approximately what percentage more or less
in 2017 only 10% of non-defective parts are than that of the total number of Non-defective
not passed the quality test for company D, parts from A, B and E together in 2017?
then what is the total number of non-defective A. 38% More
parts that are passed the quality test in both B. 50% less
yearsfrom company D? C. 28 % More
A. 1656 D. 40% less
B. 306 E. None of those given as option
C. 1556
D. 1666 74. What is the average number of non-
E. None of those given as option defective parts that are not passed the quality
test from all the company except D in 2016?
72. What is the ratio of Non-defective parts A. 254
that are not passed by quality test from B. 248
company B and C in 2016 to the Non-defective C. 220
parts that are passed by quality test from the D. None of those given as option
same companies together in 2017, if the E. 252
percentage of Non-defective parts that are not
passed by quality test from company B and C 75. What is the difference between the non-
are equal in both the years? defective parts that are passed the quality test
A. 3: 7 from Company B and C together in 2016 to
B. 53: 52 the non- defective parts that are not passed the
C. 4 : 9 quality test from Company A, D and E
D. 19 : 17 together in 2016?
E. Cannot be determined A. 664
B. 786
73. In 2017, the percentage of defective parts C. 544
from company A, B, and E are 20%, 25% and D. 684
15% respectively, then the total number of E. None of those given as option
Non-defective parts that are passed from

Directions (76-80): In the following , two bank account. If he has 925000 as total savings,
quantities are given as Quantity 1 and how much has he saved in Insurance scheme?
Quantity 2. By finding these quantities give Quantity II: A sum of Rs 3000000 has been
corresponding answer. divided among A, B and C such that A gets 2/3
a) Quantity I ≥ Quantity II of what C gets and C gets 3/5 of what B gets.
b) Quantity I ≤ Quantity II What will be the share of C?
c) Quantity I ₌ Quantity II A. a
d) Quantity I > Quantity II B. b
e) Quantity I < Quantity II C. c
D. d
76. Quantity I: The height of a wall is five times E. e
its width and the length of the wall is eight times
its height. If volume of the wall is 544880 79. Quantity I: A tradesman blends two varieties
cm3 then find the width of the wall. of coffee from different estates, one costing Rs
Quantity II: The surface area of a cube is 1350 80 per kg and other Rs 100 per kg in the ratio of
cm2. Find the length of its diagonal. 4:5 respectively. He exports the mixture variety
A. a at Rs 110 per kg. Find his profit percent.
B. b Quantity II: A tradesman blends two varieties of
C. c tea from different estates, one costing Rs 130 per
D. d kg and other Rs 70 per kg in the ratio of 3:5
E. e respectively. He exports the mixture variety at Rs
120 per kg. Find his profit percent
77. Quantity I: A shopkeeper gave an additional A. a
10% discount on the reduced price after giving B. b
25% discount on an item. If a customer bought C. c
that item for Rs 594, what was the original price? D. d
Quantity II: A shopkeeper sold an item at a loss E. e
of 15%. If the selling price had been increased by
Rs 136, there would have been a gain of 2%. 80. Quantity I: Find the length of the diagonal of
Then what was the Cost price of an item? the room 12m long, 9m broad and 8 m high.
A. a Quantity II: A hollow sphere of internal and
B. b external diameters 10 cm and 9 cm respectively
C. c is melted into a cone of base diameter .Then what
D. d will be the height of the cone?
E. e A. a
B. b
78. Quantity I: 3/5 of Manish’s savings in C. c
Insurance scheme is equal to 2/5of his savings in D. d
E. e

General - Economy - Banking Awareness:

81. Who is present Secretary, Department of 85. Name the IAS officer, who was appointed
Posts & Chairperson of Postal Services as the Defence Secretary of India.
Board? A. Ajay Kumar
A. Meera Handa B. Vishnu Sahay
B. Ananta Narayan Nanda C. Y. N. Sukthankar
C. Usha Chandra Sekhar D. N. R. Pillai
D. Achla Bhatnagar E. None of these
E. Udai Krishna
86. Who topped in the Forbes magazine’s
82. Name the former England captain who has world’s Highest-Paid actresses of 2019 list
been appointed as the chairman of the with the earning of $56 million?
England and Wales Cricket Board’s cricket A. Scarlett Johansson
committee. B. Reese Witherspoon
A. Eoin Morgan C. Sofia Vergara
B. Alastair Cook D. Nicole Kidman
C. Andrew Strauss E. None of these
D. Paul Collingwood
E. Nasser Husain 87. Name the player, who won the 2019
Badminton Asia Championships, in men's
83. Which bank will launch a co-branded singles category.
credit card with Life Insurance Corporation A. Viktor Axelsen
of India Credit Cards Services, which will be B. Chen Long
marketed to customers, agents, and employees C. Kento Momota
of the corporation and its subsidiaries? D. Shi Yuqi
A. State Bank of India E. None of these
B. Punjab National Bank
C. HDFC Bank 88. The book titled “Diary of an Awesome
D. Syndicate Bank Friendly Kid: Rowley Jefferson’s Journal” is
E. IDBI Bank authored by?
A. Meg Wolitzer
84. Where was the 14th Edition of KONKAN- B. Gillian Flynn
19 series of annual bilateral navy exercises C. Jeff Kinney
held? D. Joan Didion
A. United States (U.S) E. None of these
B. United Kingdom (U.K)
C. Russia 89. Who among the following has been
D. India appointed by the Microsoft as the new
E. None of these managing director of Microsoft India
Research and Development Pvt Ltd (MIRPL)?
A. Anil Bhansali

B. Rajan Anandan C. International Solar Energy Society (ISES)

C. Amit Agarwal D. Organization of the Petroleum Exporting
D. Kalyan Krishnamurthy Countries (OPEC)
E. Rajiv Kumar E. United Nations Industrial Development
Organization (UNIDO)
90. What is the limit of Ways and Means
Advances (WMA) set up by Reserve Bank of 94. Which of the following Institution has
India(RBI) for the first half of the financial approved a $147 million loan agreement to
year 2019-20? Jharkhand to help improve the management
A. Rs.90000 crore capacity of the urban local bodies (ULBs) in
B. Rs.75000 crore state?
C. Rs.25000 crore A. AIIB
D. Rs.50000 crore B. ADB
E. None of these C. World Bank
D. IMF
91. ISRO launched the Chandrayaan-2 into E. RBI
the space from India’s heavy lift rocket
Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle 95. As per the the Supreme Court (Number of
_______________. Judges) Amendment Bill 2019, what shall be
A. (GSLV Mark I) the number of judges in the Supreme Court
B. (GSLV Mark II) including the Chief Justice of India (CJI)?
C. (GSLV Mark III) A. 32
D. (GSLV Mark IV) B. 33
E. (GSLV Mark V) C. 34
D. 35
92. The Reserve Bank of India fixed the Repo E. 36
Rate at what percent in its Third Bi-monthly
Monetary Policy Statement 2019-20? 96. As per the recently passed ‘Airports
A. 5.75% Economic Regulatory Authority of India
B. 6.00% (Amendment) Bill, 2019’, the threshold of
C. 5.40% annual passenger traffic for major airports
D. 6.50% has been increased from 15 lakh to over
E. 7.10% ________.
A. 20 lakh
93. Which of the following has signed an B. 25 lakh
agreement with National Institute of Solar C. 30 lakh
Energy (NISE) to initiate a skill development D. 35 lakh
programme in the solar thermal energy E. 40 lakh
sector?
A. International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA)
B. World Trade Organization (WTO)

97. ‘Meri Fasal Mera Byora’ portal for D. Vivo

farmers has been launched by which state E. Huawei
Government recently?
A. Punjab 101. What is the rank of India in Global Peace
B. Haryana Index 2019?
C. Himachal Pradesh A. 118
D. Uttar Pradesh B. 125
E. Maharashtra C. 131
D. 138
98. In order to boost credit support for the E. 141
purchase of houses, National Housing Bank
(NHB) will offer additional liquidity support 102. In which city the First Indigenous Fuel
of Rs 20,000 Crore to housing finance Cell System launched recently?
companies (HFCs). This will increase the total A. Mumbai
liquidity support to _________, said Finance B. Pune
Minister Nirmala Sitharaman on August 23 C. New Delhi
while announcing a slew of measures to revive D. Hyderabad
the economy. E. Vijayawada
A. Rs 25,000 Crore
B. Rs 30,000 Crore 103. Payment technology company Visa
C. Rs 35,000 Crore announced that it has signed up with whom as
D. Rs 50,000 Crore its brand ambassador for two years?
E. Rs 60,000 Crore A. PV Sindhu
B. Parupalli Kasyap
99. Prime Minister Narendra Modi has C. Hima Das
launched National Animal Disease Control D. Harempreet Kaur
Programme at which place? E. Geeta Kumari Phogat
A. Bhopal, Madhya Pradesh
B. Hisar, Haryana 104. In which of these cities has the PM Modi
C. Mathura, Uttar Pradesh recently inaugurated the Gandhi Solar Park
D. Nagpur, Maharashtra and Gandhi Peace Garden?
E. Jaipur, Rajasthan A. New York
B. Paris
100. Which company has recently unveiled C. Bejing
two apps namely “Good Vibes” a D. Singapore
communication tool for deaf and blind people E. Washington DC
and “Relumino” that helps the visually
impaired people to see the images clearer? 105. The Ministry of Science and Technology
A. Apple has recently launched the UMMID initiative to
B. Samsung prevent which of these diseases?
C. Xiaomi A. Tuberculosis

B. HIV/AIDS D. Complaints from Non-Resident Indians

C. Genetic disorder having accounts in India in relation to their
D. Cancer remittances from abroad
E. Rabies E. All the above issues can be filed as a
complaint
106. If an ATM card issued by bank 'ABC' is
used in banks 'ABC's ATM itself then the 110. The Reserve Bank of India launched an
transaction is called _______________. application CMS on its website for lodging
A. Off-Us transaction complaints against banks and NBFCs with a
B. WLA transaction view to improve customer experience in timely
C. On-Us transaction redressal of grievances. What does 'S' stand
D. BLA transaction for in CMS?
E. Both A & C A. Social
B. System
107. SGBs (Sovereign Gold Bond) are C. Secondary
securities denominated in grams of gold. Who D. Simple
is the issuer of SGBs? E. Sector
A. RBI on behalf of Government
B. Government on behalf of RBI 111. What is the PSL (Priority Sector
C. Private investors Lending) target for foreign banks with less
D. National Payments Corporation Of India than 20 branches?
E. Large Corporate firms A. 32 %
B. 28 %
108. What is the minimum paid up equity C. 40 %
capital of both small finance banks and the D. 44 %
payments banks? E. 38 %
A. 200 Crore
B. 100 Crore 112. What are Universal Banks?
C. 125 Crore A. Banks that have branches throughout the
D. 150 Crore country
E. 50 Crore B. Banks that have foreign branches
C. Banks that deal with international financial
109. For which among the following issues a organisations and banks of other countries
person cannot file complaint to banking D. Commercial banks which offer other financial
ombudsman? services like mutual funds, investment banking,
A. Non-payment or inordinate delay in the insurance etc
payment or collection of cheques, drafts and bills E. None of these
B. Levying of charges without adequate prior
notice to the customer 113. Which among the following is the
C. Refusal to close or delay in closing the autobiography of former American president
accounts Barak Obama?

A. Dreams from my father A. Bangladesh

B. My life B. Tibet
C. Living history C. Bhutan
D. Freedom in exile D. Assam
E. My confession E. China
114. Canelo Alvarez is related to which among 118. Kamakhya temple dedicated to goddess
the following sports events? Kamakhya is located at_______
A. Swimming A. Pune, Maharashtra
B. Horse racing B. Surat, Gujarat
C. Surfing C. Ranchi, Jharkhand
D. Boxing D. Varanasi, Uttar Pradesh
E. Soccer E. Guwahati, Assam
115. What is the capital of Lesotho? 119. In which Indian state is Bakshi Stadium
A. Niamey located?
B. Abuja A. Himachal Pradesh
C. Maputo B. Jammu & Kashmir
D. Maseru C. Haryana
E. None of these D. Punjab
E. Rajasthan
116. Hojagiri is a folk dance, performed by the
in the state of__________. 120. National Statistics Day is observed
A. Punjab annually on which date?
B. Haryana A. 15 April
C. Jammu & Kashmir B. 22 May
D. Sikkim C. 29 June
E. Tripura D. 9 July
E. 4 August
117. Brahmaputra river flows across
geographical borders. Which of the following
regions, the river does not flow through?
English Language:
Direction (121-130): Read the passage the management which helps and directs the
carefully and answer the following . (1.5 various efforts towards a definite purpose.
Marks) According to Harold Koontz, “Management is an
Management is a universal phenomenon. It is a art of getting things done through and with the
very popular and widely used term. All people in formally organized groups. It is an art
organizations - business, political, cultural or of creating an environment in which people can
social are involved in management because it is perform and individuals and can co-operate

towards attainment of group goals”. According Command i.e. one man, one boss. This principle
to F.W. Taylor, “Management is an art of is applicable to all type of organization - business
knowing what to do, when to do and see that it is or non business. On the other hand, situation like
done in the best and cheapest way”. “ if workers are given bonuses, fair wages they
In the words of Koontz and O’Donnell will work hard but when not treated in fair,
“Management is defined as the creation and reduces productivity of organization”, can easily
maintenance of an internal environment in an be understood by establishing a cause and effect
enterprise where individuals working together in relationship as we do in science.
groups can perform efficiently and effectively Every art requires practical knowledge therefore
towards the attainment of group goals”. learning of theory is not very sufficient. It is very
According to the Wheeler, “management is a important to know practical application of
human activity which directs and controls the theoretical principles. Likewise a manager can
organization and operation of a business never be successful just by obtaining degree or
enterprise. Management is centered in the diploma in management. He must know how to
administrators of managers of the firm who apply various principles in real situations by
integrate men, material and money into an functioning in capacity of manager.
effective operating limit”. Organizations are hierarchies of titles. The
Management refers to a series of inter-related organizational chart or the structure of the
functions. It is the process by which an company and the relationships of the jobs and
organization plans, organizes, directs and responsibilities, from the top down, maybe CEO,
controls its actions and objectives. It is a never Vice President, Director, then Manager, each of
ending process. It is concerned whom perform separate and critical functions,
with incessantly identifying the problem and enabling the organization to function, meet its
solving them by taking adequate steps. obligations and earn profit.
Management as a discipline refers to that branch The higher you climb in the organization’s ranks,
of knowledge which is connected to study of the further away you move from the day-to-day
principles & practices of basic administration. It operations and work of the firm’s employees.
specifies certain code of conduct to be followed While the CEO and Vice-Presidents focus more
by the manager & also various methods for of their efforts on issues of strategy, investment,
managing resources efficiently. and overall coordination, managers are directly
Management as a group refers to all those involved with the individuals serving customers,
persons who perform the task of managing an producing and selling the firm’s goods or
enterprise. When we say that management of services, and providing internal support to other
ABC & Co. is good, we are referring to a group groups.
of people who are managing the company. Organisation is the structure by which
Science is a systematic body of knowledge a harmonious inter-relation is established
pertaining to a specific field of study that between the workers and their work. On the other
contains general facts which explains a hand, management’ is the executive process of
phenomenon. Management also contains some getting works accomplished by the subordinate
fundamental principles which can be applied employees.
universally like the Principle of Unity of

It arranges the factors of production, assembles

and organizes the resources, integrates the 123. In the passage, management has not been
resources in effective manner to achieve goals. It considered as ________
directs group efforts towards achievement of pre- A. process and group
determined goals. Management helps in getting B. art and group
maximum results through minimum input by C. discipline and science
proper planning and by using minimum input & D. activity and profession
getting maximum output. Management uses E. art and science
physical, human and financial resources in such a
manner which results in best combination. This 124. In the passage, according to whom,
helps in cost depletion. Management enables the management is a human activity for directing
organization to survive in changing environment. and controlling the operations of
It keeps in touch with the changing environment. organization?
Efficient management leads to better economical A. Taylor
production which helps in turn to increase the B. Stanley
welfare of people. Good management makes a C. Wheeler
difficult task easier by avoiding wastage of D. O’Donnell
scarce resources which increases the profit of the E. Ducker
business. On the other hand, society will get
maximum output at minimum cost. Effective 125. Which of the following statements is true
management also helps the organisation in in the context of the passage?
creating employment opportunities which A. According to Taylor, “Management is defined
generate income in hands of the people. as the creation and maintenance of an internal
environment in an enterprise.
121. According to the passage, whose role can B. Every art requires practical knowledge but
be the most challenging in an organization? learning of theory is also very sufficient
A. Manager C. Management’ is the executive process of
B. CEO getting works done by the subordinate em-
C. Employee ployees.
D. President D. None of the above
E. Director E. All are true
122. According to the passage, which of the 126. Find the incorrect statement on the basis
followings can be the advantage of the of the given passage.
effective management to the society and A. Efficient management leads to better
country? economical production.
A. promotes the saving and investment B. Management is the process by which an
B. reduces the economic inequality organization can only plans its objectives.
C. creates the employment opportunities C. The higher you climb in the organization’s
D. controls the corruption ranks, the further away you move from the day-
E. regulates the domestic trade of the country

to-day operations and work of the firm’s A. amicable

employees. B. balanced
D. Management as a discipline refers to that C. congenial
branch of knowledge which is connected to study D. cordial
of principles & practices of basic administration. E. jarring
E. All are correct
Directions (131-135): Each sentence below has
127. Choose the word which as same meaning as one or two blanks, each blank indicating that
the word incessantly something has been omitted. Below the
A. periodically sentence are five sets of words. Choose the set
B. relentlessly of words for each blank that best fits the
C. infrequently meaning of the sentence as a whole.
D. intermittently
E. sporadically 131. Employing the strict ________ standard,
which demands that ________ governmental
128. Choose the word which as same meaning as interest be proved, would have established a
the word depletion healthy precedent.
A. restoration A. Perusal, deterring
B. accretion B. Scrutiny, compelling
C. abatement C. Inspection, overawing
D. accumulation D. Audits, coercing
E. boost E. Surveillance, appalling
129. Choose the word which as opposite meaning 132. The state has failed to ________ that a
as the word universal less ______ measure other than biometric
A. broad authentication will not subserve its purposes.
B. common A. Proclaim, protuberant
C. ubiquitous B. Distort, prominent
D. constrained C. Exhibit, protruding
E. omnipresent D. Demonstrate, intrusive
E. Validate, blatant
129. Choose the word which as opposite meaning
as the word universal 133. Indian strategic thinking has evolved over
A. broad the last several decades deeply _________ of
B. common American multilateralism and a strong
C. ubiquitous ________ of preserving the nation’s
D. constrained sovereignty.
E. omnipresent A. Heedless, backer
B. Conclusive, partisan
130. Choose the word which as opposite meaning C. Suspicious, proponent
as the word harmonious D. Unerring, protector

E. Sundry, defender persons from society, is in line with global

trends.
134. It is a sign of the _______ nature of the C) In October 2017, prime minister spent a day
times in which we live that many in India are with 360 officer trainees of the foundation course
_______ when the US is speaking a language and encouraged them to study and research
that India should be rather comfortable with. governance issues in depth, so that they could
A. Reliable, bewildered understand them well.
B. Treacherous, befuddled D) The related proposal of the prime minister’s
C. Competent, dazed office for allotment of service and state cadres on
D. Innocuous, flustered the combined basis of Union Public Service
E. Vigilant, inebriated Commission results and performance in the 100-
day foundation course could be a significant
135. Nor should they generally welcome a development, if both initiatives lead to a new
situation where President Trump's ______are approach to training.
deemed to be successful, that might only E) The statement focuses on a caring, ethical and
encourage further_______; after all, there transparent framework, with the core value of
have been 31 Godzilla movies so far. serving the underprivileged with integrity,
A. Maneuver, turmoil respect, collaboration and professionalism.
B. Tactics, rampages A. BCEA
C. Technique, harmonies B. DACE
D. Cessations, destructions C. EACB
E. Campaign, blow up D. BDCA
E. ABEC
Direction (136-140): Five sentences denoted by
A, B, C, D and E have been given. Identify the 137. A) An additional challenge to LVC is low
odd sentence and arrange rest of the four consumer proclivity for increased monetary
sentences in such a way that they make a contributions towards TOD through financing
meaningful paragraph instruments such as betterment levies and
surcharges.
136. A) However, the stated objectives of the B) The project has since stalled unsurprisingly, as
foundation course are a feeling of pride and few stakeholders in India seem to know how to
behaviour, to foster greater cooperation and get TOD off the ground, operationalizing TOD
coordination among various public services by typically takes many years, it requires significant
building an esprit de corps, and to promote all capital investment often without definitive
round development of the personality of an returns until the project has been completed and
officer trainee intellectual, moral, physical and is in use.
aesthetic. C) It is therefore, financially burdensome for
B) The proposed lateral entry for 10 identified public coffers, hence financing of TOD is
posts on contract at the level of joint secretary to critical, an innovative method gaining traction
bring in fresh ideas and new approaches opening globally and across several Indian cities is land
so-called cadre posts to other services and value capture.

D) The Karkardooma project was launched with specialised agro-processing financial institutions
great fanfare in 2015 as Delhi’s first attempt at in this sector and to set up state-of-the-art testing
transit-oriented development, the aim was to facilities in all the 42 mega food park.
create a liveable inclusive space near the Metro A. DEBC
station so people can enjoy easier access to jobs B.BEAD
and opportunities. C.ABCE
E) This financing technique allows authorities to D.CDEA
capture the increases in monetary values of land E.EBDA
generated by the provision of transit systems as
well as other public infrastructure and leverage it 139. A) The feeble response by democratically
for the public good elected government, and the resulting ascent of
A. DBCE the central banks, has produced two results,
B. BEAD mainstream politicians have squandered their
C. ABCE moral authority, giving rise to populist forces
D. BDEA both in Europe and in the US.
E. DEAB B) In 2011, it increased interest rates twice a
move that is now widely judged to have been
138. A) The government has also announced premature and may have contributed to
setting up of a Fisheries and Aquaculture worsening the incipient sovereign-debt crisis.
Infrastructure Development Fund fisheries sector C) Meanwhile, the world’s leading monetary
and an Animal Husbandry Infrastructure authorities have faced accusations of overreach,
Development Fund for financing infrastructure which will not go away so long as central
requirement of animal husbandry sector, total bankers keep the powers and the instruments they
Corpus of these two new Funds would be have obtained.
Rs.10,000 crore. D) The history of the financial crisis tells a
B) To meet the working capital needs of small disturbing tale for those who hold dear prosperity
and marginal farmers in fisheries and animals and democracy, although this should have been
husbandry sector, the government has extended the moment for representative governments to
the facility of Kisan Credit Cards to the sector. rise to the occasion too often political leaders
C) The government announced that it keep the failed to take the actions needed to preserve the
minimum support price for all hitherto welfare of those who elected them.
unannounced crops of Kharif at least at one-and- E) From Japan to the US, central banks around
a-half times their production cost. the rich world slashed interest rates and bought
D) This would give benefit of crop loan and vast amounts of assets as they sought to ward off
interest subvention, so far available to agriculture deflation and restore growth, it has taken some
sector only under KCC, for rearing of cattle, time for this flood of cheap money to generate
buffalo, goat, sheep poultry and fisheries. enough growth to heal the post-recession
E) The government announced doubling of wounds, particularly in the euro zone.
allocation for the Food Processing Ministry, with A. BEDC
the increased allocation for the sector, the B. EABD
government will promote establishment of C. DACE

D. CBAE organisations, agri-logistics, processing facilities

E. ABED and professional management in the sector.
D) An agri-infrastructure fund with a corpus of
140. A) NITI Aayog in consultation with Central ₹2,000 crore will be set up for developing and
and State governments, will put in place a upgrading agricultural marketing infrastructure in
foolproof mechanism so that farmers will get the 22,000 grameen agricultural markets and 585
adequate price for their produce. APMCs.
B) The government also proposed raising E) There will be 100% deduction in respect of
institutional credit for the agriculture sector to profits to farmer producer companies, having a
₹11 lakh crore for 2018-19 from ₹10 lakh crore turnover up to ₹100 crore, for a period of five
in 2017-18. To boost organic women self-help years from the financial year 2018-19, in order to
groups would be encouraged to take up organic encourage professionalism in post-harvest value
agriculture in clusters under the National Rural addition in agriculture.
Livelihood Programme. A. CEAD
C) The government proposed the launching of B. ACEB
Operation Greens to address price volatility of C. BAED
perishable commodities such as potatoes, D. DACB
tomatoes and onions, at an outlay of ₹500 crore, E. CABE
operation Greens shall promote farmer producers
Direction (141-145): In the following two columns are given containing three sentences/phrases
each. In first column, sentences/phrases are A, B and C and in the second column the
sentences/phrases are D, E and F. A sentence/phrase from the first column may or may not connect
with another sentence/phrase from the second column to make a grammatically and contextually
correct sentence. Each question has five options, four of which display the sequence(s) in which the
sentences/phrases can be joined to form a grammatically and contextually correct sentence. If none
of the options given forms a correct sentence after combination, mark (e), i.e. “None of these” as
your answer.
141.
A. C-D

B. B-F
C. A-E
D. B-D
E. None of these
142.
A. B-D
B. C-E
C. A-F
D. C-D
E. None of these
143.
A. B-D
B. A-F
C. C-E
D. C-D
E. None of these
144.

A. C-D
B. B-F
C. A-E
D. C-E
E. None of these
145.
A. A-F
B. B-D
C. C-E
D. B-D & C-E
E. None of these
Directions (146-150): In each of the question E. Brawl-emulsion

below, there is a word given in bold which is
followed by the five options. In each of the 147. Sedentary
option, a pair of words is given which is either A. Settled-militant
the pair of synonyms or antonyms or synonym B. Petulant- scrappy
& antonym of the word given in bold that pair C. Torpid-energetic
of words is as answer. D. Jarring-clamor
E. Hassle-superficial
146. Pugnacious
A. Belligerent-antagonistic 148. Fumble
B. Friction-defiant A. Factitious- litigious
C. Schematic-simplistic B. Tumult-jangle
D. Affray-variance C. Truce-crusade

D. Render-endow D. All except iv

E. Stumble-flounder E. All are correct
149. Ardent 152. Dwell on

A. Bickering –vouchsafe i) You don’t have to dwell on your mistake but
B. Ferment-avid yes, try not to repeat it in future.
C. Intrusive-contentious ii) In the discussion, he dwelt on air and river
D. Bellicose-barbaric pollution.
E. Accord-clamor iii) I dwelt on Chandigarh for more than two
years.
150. Truncate iv) When I called her up in the morning, she
A. Spirited- fervid dwelt on her financial crisis for more than an
B. Accede-tender hour.
C. Goof-endow A. Only i & ii
D. Abridge-prolong B. Only i, ii & iv
E. Botch-scrabble C. Only ii & iii
D. All except iv
Directions (151-155): In each of the following E. All are correct
one phrase has been given and it has been
followed by four sentences. You have to find 153. Account for
out in which of these sentences phrase has i) In the meeting, he clearly accounted for the
been used properly according to its meaning changes he has made in the policies of the
and mark your answer from the options company.
denoted by a), b), c) and d). Mark e) as your ii)Small handicraft companies account for 70%
answer if you find that phrase has been of the total industries of this industrial area.
applied properly in all the sentences. iii) When he was asked, he could not account for
the mistake he committed.
151. Pan out iv) Freshers or inexperienced candidates account
i) At this point of time, we should not take any for 50% of the total applicants who have applied
decision and wait till the end of the month to see for this job.
how the strategy pans out. A. Only i & ii
ii) If he had planned the things in proper manner, B. Only i, ii & iv
his attempt to start a business in global market C. Only ii & iii
would have panned out. D. All except iv
iii) Finally, his idea to get the majority vote E. All are correct
panned out.
iv) You should have panned out the guidelines of
the contract before signing it.
A. Only i & ii 154. Look into
B. Only i, ii& iv
C. Only ii & iii

i) We need a person for the position of legal

advisor who can look into the legal matters of the 155. Count on
company. i) My sister counts on me for career guidance.
ii) Special Investigation Officer has been ii) We are counting on Thomas sir for preparation
appointed to look into the case. of the reasoning section.
iii) “Soon the committee will be set up to look iii) I count on her for the management of
into the issue,” said the chairman of the accounting database of the branch.
company. iv) We should not count on market factors as
iv) I was looking into the TV and that is why did they are very volatile in nature.
not pick up your phone. A. Only i & ii
A. Only i & ii B. Only i, ii & iv
B. Only i, ii & iv C. Only ii & iii
C. Only ii & iii D. All except iv
D. All except iv E. All are correct
E. All are correct
Answers:
Reasoning and Computer Aptitude:
1) Answer: (d)
2) Answer: (c)
3) Answer: (b)

6) Answer: (c)
4) Answer: (a)
7) Answer: (a)
5) Answer: (d)
Directions (8-12):
8) Answer: (c)
9) Answer: (d)
10) Answer: (a)
11) Answer: (c)
12) Answer: (a)

Box 9 contains Malpua. Three boxes are kept between the box which contains Malpua and the black
colour box. The box which contains Sandesh is kept immediately above the brown colour box. Only one
box is kept between the box which contain Sandesh and yellow colour box. More than four boxes are kept
between the box which contains Halva and the yellow colour box. Black colour box does not contain
Sandesh. Green colour box is kept at top. Neither yellow nor brown colour box contains Malpua.
Only one box is kept between the box which contain Halva and the red colour box. The box which
contains Kaju katli is kept immediately above Pink colour box. Number of boxes kept above pink is two
more than number of boxes kept below grey colour box. Orange box is kept immediately below grey
colour box. The box which contains Sandesh is not in pink colour.
Case 3 will be dropped because orange box is kept immediately below grey colour box.
White colour box is kept below Blue colour box. Two boxes are kept between white colour box and the
box which contains Laddu. The box which contains Kheer is kept immediately below the box which
contains Laddu. Only one box is kept between the box which contains Jalebi and the box which contains
Kheer. As many box kept above the box which contains Kheer as kept below the box which contains
Basundi. Neither Black nor Brown colour box contains Shrikhand. Black colour box does not contain
Gulab jamun.

Case 2 will be dropped because only one box is kept between the box which contains Jalebi and the box
which contains Kheer.
13) Answer: (a)

From I, Directions (17-19):
H/L>D>H/L>T>K>M>W 17) Answer: (c)
18) Answer: (d)
14) Answer: (e) 19) Answer: (b)
From I and II,
15) Answer: (b) Directions (20-24):

Only II is sufficient. 20) Answer: (b)
21) Answer: (d)
22) Answer: (c)
23) Answer: (d)
24) Answer: (c)
Words are arranged in ascending order, in which
vowels are replaced by its next letter and
consonants are replaced by its previous letter.
16) Answer: (a) Numbers are arranged in ascending order with
From I, respect to sum of the digits in a number.
M>D>H>P/L>P/L>T
Only I is sufficient.

Input: respect choice 631 249 reader 573 412

957 ball back 26) Answer: (e)
Step I: abbj 7 respect choice 631 249 reader 573 Both are effects of malnutrition.
957 ball
Step II: abbj 7 abkk 10 respect choice 249 reader 27) Answer: (d)
573 957 Neither I nor II is strong.
Step III: abbj 7 abkk 10 bgpjbf 15 respect reader
573 957 28) Answer: (e)
Step IV: abbj 7 abkk 10 bgpjbf 15 qfbcfq 15 Both I and II are strong. Plastic bags create
respect 957 pollution and are the main reason of global
Step V: abbj 7 abkk 10 bgpjbf 15 qfbcfq 15 climate change.
qfrofbs 21
29) Answer: (a)
25) Answer: (b) Only assumption I is implicit
Statement II is cause and I is its effect.
Manufacturing industries releases chemical and 30) Answer: (e)
organic compound in to the air, this increase of Both assumption I and II are implicit.
gas in the atmosphere leads to global warming.
Directions (31-35):
31) Answer: (b)
32) Answer: (d)
33) Answer: (c)
34) Answer: (d)
35) Answer: (a)
Two persons sit between U and the one who likes X. V sits second to the left of T. The one who likes Y
sits third to the left of V. Q sits immediate left of the one who likes Y. V does not like X.

The one who likes L sits second to the left of P. The one who likes C sits third to the right of W. S does
not like C. The one who likes G sits immediate left of the one who likes D. The one who likes Z sits
second to the right of the one who likes F.
Case 2 will be dropped because P neither likes G nor likes D.

Case 3 will be dropped because the one who likes Z sits second to the right of the one who likes F.
Directions (36-39):
36) Answer: (d)
37) Answer: (c)
38) Answer: (b)
39) Answer: (d)
Number represents difference between first and last letter in a word.

First letter represents equivalent letter to the number of vowels count in a word.
Second letter represents opposite letter of second last letter in a word.
40) Answer: (d)

RESTRICTION
Pairs->EI, EN, IN, ST, NO
Directions (41-45):
41) Answer: (b)
42) Answer: (b)
43) Answer: (c)
44) Answer: (a)
45) Answer: (c)

K sits fourth to the left of P. Four persons sit between P and N. As many persons sit between P and N sit
between N and Y. The one who likes lily sits second to the right of Y.
Ten persons sit between the one who likes lily and J. More than eight persons sit between Y and J.
Two persons sit between J and G. B sits immediate left of G and is fifth from the right end. R sits right of
J. R is an immediate neighbour of neither B nor G and doesn’t sit at any of the extreme ends. L sits third
to the left of the one who likes rose. Twenty five persons sit between R and the one who likes Rose. L is
third from the left end.

Case 2 will be dropped because L sits third from the left end.
Data Analysis and Interpretation:

46) Answer: C = 55/100 x 48/100 x 56000
Number of permanent employees of company A = 14784
= (42/100) x 54000 = 22680 Number of temporary females of company E =
Number of temporary employees of company E = (100 – 50)/100 x (100 – 56)/100 x 40000
[(100 – 56)/100] x 40000 = 50/100 x 44/100 x 40000
= (44/100) x 40000 = 8800
= 17600 Temporary females of companies B and C
Required percentage = (22680/17600) x 100 = together = 15624 + 11232 = 26856
128.86% Temporary females of companies D and E
together = 14784 + 8800 = 23584
47) Answer: B Required difference = 26856 – 23584 = 3272
Required sum = [45/100 x 42/100 x 54000] +
[50/100 x 38/100 x 42000] + [60/100 x 48/100 x 49) Answer: C
48000] Number of temporary females of company A =
= 10206 + 7980 + 13824 (100 – 35)/100 x (100 – 42)/100 x 54000
= 32010 = 65/100 x 58/100 x 54000
= 20358
48) Answer: A Number of temporary females of company D =
Number of temporary females of company B= (100 – 45)/100 x (100 – 52)/100 x 56000
(100 – 40)/100x (100 – 38)/100x 42000 = 55/100 x 48/100 x 56000
= 60/100 x 62/100 x 42000 = 14784
= 15624 Required ratio = 20358: 14784 = 3393:2464
Number of temporary females of company C =
(100 – 55)/100 x (100 – 48)/100 x 48000 50) Answer: B
= 45/100 x 52/100 x 48000 Number of temporary males of company D =
= 11232 45/100 x (100 – 52)/100 x 56000 = 12096
Number of temporary females of company D = Number of temporary males of company B =
(100 – 45)/100 x (100 – 52)/100 x 56000 40/100 x (100 – 38)/100 x 42000 = 10416

Required percentage = (12096 – 10416)/10416 x Number of blue balls= 2*10/5= 4

100 Number of yellow balls = 10-4= 6
= 1680/10416 x 100 So,
= 16.12% Required probability= 4C1 * 4C2/ 16C3 = 3/35
51) Answer: A 55) Answer: D

Let the number of blue balls in the bag A be x Let the number of blue balls in bag F initially be
Then number of Yellow balls= 2x x
So, Balls taken out= x-3
Total balls= 4+7+x+2x= 3x+11 Balls left = 3+5+4+x-3= x+9
Then we have, 4C1/ 3x+11C1= 1/5 So,
4/(3x+11)= 1/5 x - 3C1/x+9C1= 3/9
3x+11=20 x-3 / x+9= 3/9
3x= 20-11 9x- 27= 3x+27
3x= 9 6x= 54
x= 3 x= 9
Blue balls= 3 So, number of blue balls initially = 9
Yellow balls= 6 Total balls in the bag initially= 9+3+4+5=
Probability of getting two yellow 21balls
6 20
balls= C2/ C2= 15/190= 3/38
56) Answer: C
52) Answer: C From I:
Number of red balls in bag D = (¾)*4= 3 Part of the tank filled by A in 1 hour = 1/12
Number of green balls in bag D= 8+3= 11 Part of the tank emptied by C in 1 hour = 1/10
Probability of not getting a yellow From II:
16 20
ball= C2/ C2= 120/ 190= 12/19 Efficiency (B) = 2 x Efficiency (A)
Probability of getting at least one yellow ball= 1- From III:
12/19= 7/19 Pipe A and pipe B are opened together and
closed after 3 hours and at that time pipe C is
53) Answer: C opened.
Total number of balls in bag C= 23 From I, II and III:
After addition= 23+x Part of the tank filled by B in 1 hour = 2/12 = 1/6
So, Let the number of hours taken by pipe C to
5
C1/(23+x)C1= 1/6 empty the filled part of the tank = x
5/(23+x)= 1/6 x/10 = 3/12 + 3/6
30= 23+x => x/10 = ¼ + ½
x= 7 => x/10 = (1 + 2)/4
Number of blue balls added= 7 => x = 30/4
=> x = 7.5 hours
54) Answer: A Hence, all I, II and III together are sufficient.
Number of blue and yellow balls= 16-6= 10

57) Answer: D = 2 x (17 + 23)

From I: = 2 x 40
Part of work done by A in one day = 1/20 = 80 m
From II: Cost of fencing = 30 x 80 = Rs.2400
Efficiency (D) = 2 × Efficiency(B + C) Hence all I, II and III together are sufficient.
From III:
Part of work done by C in one day = 1/8 60) Answer: A
Since, number of days required by B to complete From I:
the work is not known, even after combining all Let the length of the platform is l metre and the
the statements, we cannot find out the required speed of the train s m/s.
number of days. 450 + l = s x 50
From II:
58) Answer: A Let the length of the platform is l metre and
From I: speed of the bike is v km/h
Sum of all the students of the class = 35 x 25 = l = v x 2 x 60
875 years From III:
From II: s = 54 km/h
A student of age 30 years left the class and = 54 x 5/18
another student of age 26 years joined the class. = 15 m/s
From III: From I and III
A student left the class and another student of age 450 + l = 15 x 50
22 years joined the class. => l = 750 – 450
From I and II: => l = 300 m
New sum = 875 – 30 + 26 = 871 Hence, only I and III together are sufficient.
New average = 871/35 = 24.88 years
Hence, only I and II together are sufficient. 61) Answer: B
Sum of the ages of 56 students of the class = 56 x
59) Answer: C 22 = 1232 years
From I: New sum of the ages of 58 students of the class =
Length = breadth + 6 1232 – 25 – 28 – 20 + 22 + 24 + 26 + 30 + 18
From II: = 1279 years
Breadth of the rectangle = side of the square New average = 1279/58 = 22.05 years.
From III: Required percentage = 22.05/22 x 100 =
Area of the square = 13005/45 = 289 m2 100.22%
From I, II and III
(Side)2 = 289 62) Answer: A
=>side = 17 m Let C can complete the work in x days
Breadth = 17 m According to the question
Length = 17 + 6 = 23 m A’s 6 day work + B’s 10 day work + C’s 8 day
Perimeter of the rectangular field = 2 x (length + work = 1
breadth)

=> (A + B)’s 6 day work + (B + C)’s 4 day work

+ C’s 4 day work = 1 64) Answer: A
=> 6/15 + 4/20 + 4/x = 1 Let car B will be 10 kilometres ahead of car A
=> 2/5 + 1/5 + 4/x = 1 after t hours from 12 noon
=> 4/x = 1 – 3/5 According to the question
=> 4/x = (5 – 3)/5 80 x t – (50 x t + 50 x 4) = 10
=> 4/x = 2/5 =>80t – 50t – 200 = 10
=> x = 10 days => 30t = 210
=> t = 7 hours
63) Answer: C Time = 12 + 7 = 7 pm
Let the age of daughter = x
years 65) Answer: D
Age of father = 4x years Let the cost price of the article for A =Rs.x
Mother = (4x – 6) years According to the question
Son = (4x – 6)/2 years x× 125/100 × 90/100 × 130/100 = 17550
Now, => x = 17550 x 100/130 x 100/90 x 100/125
(4x – 6)/2 = x + 5 => x = Rs.12000
=> 4x – 6 = 2x + 10 Payment made by B = 12000 x 125/100 =
=> 2x = 16 Rs.15000
=> x = 8 Payment made by C = 12000 x 125/100 x 90/100
Age of the mother = 4x – 6 = Rs.13500
=4x8–6 Required difference = 15000 – 13500 = Rs.1500
= 26 years
Directions (Q. 66-70):
Scheme Q:The Total Number of Projects under Scheme Q = 375

The Number of Projects in City B is 75 less than that of number of projects in City A and C together.
Consider the number of projects in City A and C is X, then X + (X – 75) = 375, on solving we get,X=225,
then number of projects in City B = 150 projects.
Scheme P: The Number of Projects in City B is 2/3rd of the Number of projects in city B under Scheme
Q.
Scheme P: Number of Projects in City B = 2/3rd *150 = 100 projects.

Scheme Q:The Number of Projects in City A is 5/6th of the number of projects in City A under Scheme R.
Scheme R: The Number of Projects under Scheme R is 4/5th of the number of Projects under Scheme Q.
Therefore total number of projects in Scheme R is 300.
The Number of Projects in City A is equal to the number of Projects in City B under Scheme Q.
Therefore number of projects in city A under scheme R is 150 projects.
Scheme R: The Number of Projects in city C under Scheme Q and Scheme R is Equal. So there are 100
projects in city C under scheme R. And also for city B under scheme R should have 50 projects.
Scheme P: The Number of Projects in City C is 4/5th of the Number of projects in city C under Scheme R.
Number of Projects in City C= 4/5*100 = 80
The Total Number of Projects in city A and City C is equal under Scheme P.
Therefore number of projects in City A is 80 projects. So the final table becomes

66) Answer: D 68) Answer: AFund allocated for City C under

In 2019, The projects allocated for city B under these three schemes = (15*80) + (100 * 19) +
Scheme Q is increases by 30% (100 *17) = 4800 crores = 48000 Millions
= 150 *130 /100 69) Answer: E
= 195 The total number of projects under Scheme P and
The project allocated for city C under scheme R Scheme Q together = 260+375 = 635 Projects
is decreases by 45% = 100*55/100 = 55
Thus the total number of projects in 2019 for city 70) Answer: D
B under scheme Q and City C under Scheme R = The number of projects allocated under scheme P
250 is 20% more than that of number of projects
From the given options 250 projects obtained allocated for city C under scheme P =
only from option D. 80*120/100=96
The number of projects allocated under scheme
67) Answer: C Q is 40% less than that of number of projects
The average number of projects under Scheme Q allocated for city B under scheme Q = 150 * 60
and Scheme R for City C and City B together = /100 = 90
(150+100+50+100)/4= 400/4=100 The total number of projects in city X is 300
Then number of projects allocated for City X
under scheme R = 300-(96+90) = 114 projects
71) Answer: C
Total number of manufacturing parts from company D in 2017= 1360

From the given question there 20% parts that are defective in 2017 from company D = 1360 *20 /100 =
272
Non defective parts = 1360 -272 = 1088
10% of non-defective parts are not passed the quality test for company D
= 10% of 1088 = 108
Non-defective parts that are passed the quality test for company D = 1088-108 =980
The total number of non-defective parts that are passed the quality test in both years from company D =
576 + 980 = 1556 parts

72) Answer: E
There is no such information to find out the defective and non-defective parts from Company B and
Company C in 2017. So we are not able to find out the Non-defective parts that are passed by quality test
from company B and Company C in 2017. So cannot be determined is the answer.
73) Answer: D
In 2017,
The total number of Non-defective parts that are passed from quality test from company C and D in 2016
=972+576 = 1548
Total number of Non-defective parts from A, B and E together in 2017=768 + 960+ 850 = 2578
Required percentage = [(2578 – 1548) /2578] *100= 39.99% = 40% less
74) Answer: E
The average numbers of non-defective parts that are not passed the quality test from all the company
except D in 2016 =(272+196+108+432)/4 = 252

75) Answer: A
The difference between the non- defective parts that are passed the quality test from Company B and C
together in 2016 = 588+972 = 1560
The non- defective parts that are not passed the quality test from Company A, D and E together in 2016 =
272 + 192+432 = 896
Difference = 1560 – 896 = 664
76) Answer: E Thus, Quantity I > Quantity II

Quantity I: Let the width of the wall be x
meters. 78) Answer: D
Then height=5x meters and thus length=40x. Quantity I:
Hence 40x *x* 5x=548800 Let savings in Insurance scheme and Bank
x3=548800/200 account be Rs x and Rs (925000-x) respectively.
x3=2744 Then, (3x/5) = (2/5) (925000-x)
x=14 15x=10(925000-x)
Quantity II: The surface area of a cube =6a2 5x=9250000
Then 6a2=1350 x=1850000
a2= 225 Quantity II: Let B’s share be Rs x.
a=15 Then C’s share=Rs 3x/5 and A’s share=Rs
Then, Diagonal =√3a= 15√3cm. (2/3)(3x/5)
Thus, Quantity I < Quantity II = Rs 2x/5
Thus (2x/5)+x+(3x/5)=3000000
77) Answer: D 2x+5x+3x= 3000000*5
Quantity I: 10x=15000000
Let the original price be x. x=1500000
Then, x * 75/100 * 90/100= 594 Then C’s share=(3/5)*1500000
x= Rs 880 =Rs 900000
Quantity II: Let Cost price of an item be Rs x. Hence Quantity I > Quantity II
Then (102% of x)- (85% of x)=136
17% of x=136 79) Answer: E
x= Rs 800 Quantity I:

Profit percentage= [(110*9)-(80*4+100*5)/ 80) Answer: D

(80*4+100*5)] *100 Quantity I: Length of the diagonal of the room
= (170/820) *100 =√(122+92+82 )
=20.73% = √289
Quantity II: = 17m
Profit percentage= [(120*8)-(130*3+70*5)/ Quantity II: Volume of material in sphere=
(130*3+70*5)] *100 [(4/3)π*((10)3-(9)3)]
= (220/740) *100 = [(4/3)π *271] cm3
=29.72% Let the height of the cone be h cm.
Thus, Quantity I < Quantity II Then, (1/3)*10*10* h= [(4/3) *271]
h=10.84m
Thus, Quantity I >Quantity II
General - Economy - Banking Awareness:

81) Answer: B
Shri Ananta Narayan Nanda is present Secretary, 86) Answer: A
Department of Posts & Chairperson of Postal Scarlett Johansson tops Forbes' list of the
Services Board and Director General Postal highest-paid actresses, earning $56 million.
Services.
87) Answer: C
82) Answer: C Kento Momota successfully defended his Asian
Former England captain Andrew Strauss has crown, by putting his bunny, Shi Yuqi, to the
been appointed as the chairman of the England sword by a 12-21, 21-18, 21-8 scoreline.
and Wales Cricket Board’s cricket committee.
88) Answer: C
83) Answer: E Diary of an Awesome Friendly Kid: Rowley
IDBI Bank and Life Insurance Corporation of Jefferson’s Journal is authored by Jeff Kinney.
India Credit Cards Services will launch a co-
branded credit card, which will be marketed to 89) Answer: E
customers, agents, and employees of the Microsoft has appointed Rajiv Kumar as the new
corporation and its subsidiaries. managing director of Microsoft India Research
and Development Pvt Ltd (MIRPL).
84) Answer: B
The 14th Edition of KONKAN series of annual 90) Answer: B
bilateral exercises between Indian Navy and The Reserve Bank of India, in consultation with
Royal Navy of Britain is currently underway off the Government of India, has decided that the
the South Coast of UK. limits for Ways and Means Advances (WMA) for
the first half of the financial year 2019-20 (April
85) Answer: A 2019 to September 2019) will be Rs 75000 crore.
Ajay Kumar was appointed the new Defence The Reserve Bank may trigger fresh flotation of
Secretary. He replaced Sanjay Mitra.

market loans when the Government of India As per the Airports Economic Regulatory
utilizes 75% of the WMA limit. Authority of India (Amendment) Bill, 2019, the
threshold of annual passenger traffic for major
91) Answer: C airports has been increased from 15 lakh to over
ISRO launched the Chandrayaan-2 into the space 35 lakh. It is increased as the number of air
from India’s heavy-lift rocket Geosynchronous traffic passengers has been increased 117 million
Satellite Launch Vehicle-Mark III (GSLV Mk from 2008 to 345 million in 2019.
III).
97) Answer: B
92) Answer: C The Chief Minister of Haryana Government
Reserve Bank of India’s (RBI) Third Bi-monthly Manohar Lal Khattar has launched online portal
Monetary Policy Statement, 2019-20 reduces named “Meri Fasal Mera Byora” for farmers to
Repo Rate by 35 basis points from 5.75 per cent directly avail crop related benefits of state
to 5.40 per cent with immediate effect government schemes after self -reporting their
land and crop-related details.
93) Answer: E
The United Nations Industrial Development 98) Answer: B
Organization (UNIDO) and the National Institute In order to boost credit support for the purchase
of Solar Energy (NISE) has signed an agreement of houses, National Housing Bank (NHB) will
to initiate a skill development programme for offer additional liquidity support of Rs 20,000
different levels of beneficiaries in the solar Crore to housing finance companies (HFCs).
thermal energy sector. It was signed by Mr. René This will increase the total liquidity support to Rs
van Berkel, UNIDO Representative in India and 30,000 Crore, stated by Finance Minister Nirmala
Dr. AK Tripathi, Director General of NISE in Sitharaman on August 23 while announcing a
UNIDO Office. slew of measures to revive the economy.
94) Answer: C 99) Answer: C

To help improve the management capacity of the Prime Minister of India, Shri Narendra Modi has
urban local bodies (ULBs) in Jharkhand, the launched National Animal Disease Control
World Bank approved a $147 million loan Programme (NADCP) in Mathura, Uttar Pradesh
agreement to the state. in the presence of Uttar Pradesh Chief Minister
Yogi Adityanath and Mathura MP, HemaMalini.
95) Answer: C NADCP aims to control the Foot and Mouth
The recently passed, Supreme Court (Number of Disease (FMD) and Brucellosis in the livestock
Judges) Amendment Bill 2019, seeks to increase by 2025 and eradicate them by 2030.
the number of judges in the Supreme Court (SC)
from the present 30 to 33, excluding the Chief 100) Answer: B
Justice of India (CJI).So, including Chief Justice Samsung, South Korean tech giant, has unveiled
of India (CJI), there will be 34 Judges. two apps namely “Good Vibes” a communication
tool for deaf and blind people and “Relumino”
96) Answer: D

that helps the visually impaired people to see the conferred the "Global Goalkeeper" award by the
images clearer. Bill and Melinda Gates Foundation for the
Swachh Bharat Abhiyan launched by his
101) Answer: E government.
India has been ranked 141 among 163 countries
on the Global Peace Index, released by 105) Answer: C
Australian think tank Institute for Economics and Science and Technology and Health Minister Dr
Peace (IEP). Iceland topped the in the list. Harsh Vardhan launched ‘UMMID’ initiative to
tackle inherited genetic diseases of newborn
102) Answer: C babies.
The President of India Ram Nath Kovind Congenital and hereditary genetic diseases are
unveiled the first Indigenous High Temperature becoming a significant health burden and there is
Fuel Cell System on the occasion of CSIR a need for adequate and effective genetic testing
Foundation Day in New Delhi and counselling services. The Minister also
The System was developed by Council of inaugurated NIDAN (National Inherited Diseases
Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR) in Administration) Kendras.
partnership with Indian industries under India’s The new initiative aims at creating awareness
flagship program named “New Millennium about genetic disorders amongst clinicians and
Indian Technology Leadership Initiative establish molecular diagnostics in hospitals so
(NMITLI)” that the benefits of developments in medical
genetics could reach patients.
103) Answer: A
Payment technology company Visa announced 106) Answer: C
that it has signed up world badminton champion A transaction carried out at an ATM of the card
PV Sindhu as its brand ambassador for two years. issuing bank is called as On-Us transaction. A
Besides promoting the brand through advertising transaction carried at an ATM of the bank which
campaigns, Sindhu has also become an athlete is different from the card issuing bank or a
member of Team Visa for the Olympic Games transaction at a WLA (White Label ATM) is
Tokyo 2020. called an Off-Us transaction. For instance, if a
104) Answer: A card issued by bank A is used at an ATM of bank
Prime Minister Narendra Modi shared his A then it is an On-Us transaction; if the card
thoughts on Mahatma Gandhi at a programme issued by bank A is used at a WLA or at an ATM
hosted by India in New York. Mr Modi along of bank B, it is an Off-Us transaction. ATMs set
with others world leaders also inaugurated the up, owned and operated by non-banks are called
Gandhi Solar Park at the UN headquarters and White Label ATMs (WLAs).
released a commemorative stamp issued by the
UN on the occasion of Gandhi's 150th birth 107) Answer: A
anniversary. SGBs are government securities denominated in
UN Secretary-General António Guterres and a grams of gold. They are substitutes for holding
number of heads of state were present on the physical gold. Investors must pay the issue price
occasion. Prime Minister Narendra Modi was in cash and the bonds will be redeemed in cash

on maturity. The Bond is issued by Reserve Bank The CMS will be accessible on desktop as well
on behalf of Government of India. as on mobile devices. The RBI also plans to
introduce a dedicated Interactive Voice Response
108) Answer: B (IVR) system for tracking the status of
The minimum paid-up equity capital of both complaints.
small finance banks and the payments banks is
Rs. 100 crore. The aim behind small finance 111) Answer: C
banks is to provide financial inclusion to sections PSL (Priority Sector Lending) target for foreign
of the economy not being served by other banks, banks with less than 20 branches is 40 percent.
such as small business units, small and marginal Priority Sector Lending is an important role
farmers, micro and small industries and given by the (RBI) to the banks for providing a
unorganised sector entities. Payments banks can specified portion of the bank lending to few
issue services like ATM cards, debit cards, net- specific sectors like agriculture and allied
banking and mobile-banking. activities, micro and small enterprises, poor
people for housing, students for education and
109) Answer: E other low income groups and weaker sections.
Banking Ombudsman is to enable resolution of The lending target of 40% of adjusted net bank
complaints of customers of banks relating to the credit (ANBC) (outstanding bank credit minus
services rendered by the banks. The Banking certain bills and non-SLR bonds) - or the credit
Ombudsman Scheme was first introduced in equivalent amount of off-balance-sheet exposure
India in 1995 and was revised in 2002. The (sum of current credit exposure + potential future
current scheme became operative from 1 January credit exposure that is calculated using a credit
2006 and replaced and superseded the banking conversion factor), whichever is higher - has
Ombudsman Scheme 2002. been set for foreign banks with greater than 20
branches and for commercial banks.
110) Answer: B
The Reserve Bank of India launched an 112) Answer: D
application on its website for lodging complaints Universal banking is a banking system in which
against banks and NBFCs with a view to improve banks provide a wide variety of financial
customer experience in timely redressal of services, including commercial and investment
grievances. The Complaint Management System services as well as providing other financial
(CMS) is a software application to facilitate services such as insurance. These are also called
RBI's grievance redressal process. full-service financial firms.
Customers can lodge complaints against any
regulated entity with public interface such as 113) Answer: A
commercial banks, urban cooperative banks, “Dreams from my father” is the autobiography of
Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs). former American president Barak Obama
The complaint would be directed to the
appropriate office of the Ombudsman/Regional 114) Answer: D
Office of the RBI. Canelo Alvarez is a Mexican professional boxer.
He is known as an excellent counterpuncher,

being able to exploit openings in his opponents' The Kamakhya Temple also Kamrup-
guards while avoiding punches with head and Kamakhyais a Hindu temple dedicated to the
body movement. He is also known as a mother goddess Kamakhya located in Guwahati,
formidable body puncher. Assam. It is one of the oldest of the 51 Shakti
Pithas.
115) Answer: D
Maseru is the capital city of Lesotho. 119) Answer: B
Bakshi Stadium is a stadium in Srinagar, Jammu
116) Answer: E and Kashmir, India. It is mainly used for football
Hojagiri is a folk dance dance is performed on matches. The capacity of the stadium is 45,000.
the occasion of Hojagiri festivals or Laxmi Puja Association football club JK XI play home
in the state of Tripura. It is held in the following games at the stadium.
full moon night of Durga Puja. The Goddess
Mailuma, (Laxmi) is worshipped on this day. 120) Answer: C
Rao Inderjit Singh, Union Minister of State
117) Answer: C (Independent Charge) of the Ministry of Statistics
Originating from Tibet, the Brahmaputra is one and Program Implementation (MoSPI) and
of the major rivers of Asia, a trans-boundary Ministry of Planning, inaugurated the 13th
river which flows through China, India (Assam Statistics Day on June 29, 2019 at Vigyan
and Arunachal Pradesh) and Bangladesh. It is Bhawan, New Delhi. The theme for Statistics
also called Tsangpo within Tibet. Day 2019 is “Sustainable Development Goals”.
118) Answer: E
English Language:
121) Answer: A According to the passage, management will not
It is clear from the passage that manager be considered as an activity or profession
performs various tasks in an organisaton so because it is not mentioned in the passage.
according to the passage, his role can be the most
challenging. 124) Answer: C
It is clearly mentioned that Wheeler has said
122) Answer: C management is a human activity which directs
It is clearly mentioned in the passage that and controls the organization and operation of a
effective management helps the country and business enterprise.
society by giving economical production,
avoiding wastage of scarce resource and by 125) Answer: C
creating employment opportunities which According to the passage, true statement is
generate income in hands of the people. “management’ is the executive process of getting
works done by the subordinate employees.”
123) Answer: D
126) Answer: B

It is given in the passage that management is the support a theory, proposal, or course of action”
process by which an organization plans, so it is appropriate for ii blank
organizes, directs and controls its actions and
objectives. It is a never ending process. 134) Answer: B
The meaning of “treacherous” is “condition
127) Answer: B presenting hidden or unpredictable dangers” and
The meaning of “incessantly” is “constantly / it is suitable for i blanks and the meaning of
relentlessly /constantly”. “befuddled” is “cause to become unable to think
clearly” so it is appropriate for ii blank
128) Answer: C
The meaning “depletion” is “reduction / 135) Answer: B
abatement / lessening”. The meaning of “tactics” is “approach or policy”
and it is suitable for i blank and the meaning of
129) Answer: D “rampages” is “a period of violent and
The meaning of “universal” is “worldwide” and uncontrollable behavior by a group of people.” so
its opposite is “constrained / limited/ particular”. it is appropriate for ii blank.
136) Answer: D
130) Answer: E B) The proposed lateral entry for 10 identified
The meaning of “harmonious” is “amicable / posts on contract at the level of joint secretary to
peaceful” and its opposite is “discordant / bring in fresh ideas and new approaches opening
dissonant/ jarring”. so-called cadre posts to other services and
persons from society, is in line with global
131) Answer: B trends.
The meaning of “scrutiny” is “critical D) The related proposal of the prime minister’s
observation or examination” and it is suitable for office for allotment of service and state cadres on
i blanks and the meaning of “compelling” is “to the combined basis of Union Public Service
bring about (something) by the use of pressure” Commission results and performance in the 100-
so it is appropriate for ii blank day foundation course could be a significant
development, if both initiatives lead to a new
132) Answer: D approach to training.
The meaning of “demonstrate” is “clearly show C) In October 2017, prime minister spent a day
the existence of something by giving proof” and with 360 officer trainees of the foundation course
it is suitable for i blanks and the meaning of and encouraged them to study and research
“intrusive” is “unwanted or interrupting” so it is governance issues in depth, so that they could
appropriate for ii blank understand them well.
A) However, the stated objectives of the
133) Answer: C foundation course are a feeling of pride and
The meaning of “suspicious” is “doubtful or behaviour, to foster greater cooperation and
questionable” and it is suitable for i blanks and coordination among various public services by
the meaning of “proponent” is “a person who building an esprit de corps, and to promote all

round development of the personality of an people enjoy easier access to jobs and
officer trainee intellectual, moral, physical and opportunities. The need to institute such project
aesthetic. is crucial to both development planning as well
The passage is about the lateral entry at the level as contextual plans with area-specific regulations
of joint secretary. According to the passage now for better neighbourhood design and
the process of assigning the service and allotting improvements. This project allows authorities to
the state cadre will be depend on the foundation capture the increases in monetary values of land.
course’s performance as well as UPSC results.
Now there will be 100 day course in order to 138) Answer: E
stimulate greater synergy and to alleviate all E) The government announced doubling of
round development of the personality of an allocation for the Food Processing Ministry, with
officer trainee. the increased allocation for the sector, the
government will promote establishment of
137) Answer: A specialised agro-processing financial institutions
D) The Karkardooma project was launched with in this sector and to set up state-of-the-art testing
great fanfare in 2015 as Delhi’s first attempt at facilities in all the 42 mega food park.
transit-oriented development, the aim was to B) To meet the working capital needs of small
create a liveable inclusive space near the Metro and marginal farmers in fisheries and animals
station so people can enjoy easier access to jobs husbandry sector, the government has extended
and opportunities. the facility of Kisan Credit Cards to the sector.
B) The project has since stalled unsurprisingly, as D) This would give benefit of crop loan and
few stakeholders in India seem to know how to interest subvention, so far available to agriculture
get TOD off the ground, operationalizing TOD sector only under KCC, for rearing of cattle,
typically takes many years, it requires significant buffalo, goat, sheep poultry and fisheries.
capital investment often without definitive A) The government has also announced setting
returns until the project has been completed and up of a Fisheries and Aquaculture Infrastructure
is in use. Development Fund fisheries sector and an
C) It is therefore, financially burdensome for Animal Husbandry Infrastructure Development
public coffers, hence financing of TOD is Fund for financing infrastructure requirement of
critical, an innovative method gaining traction animal husbandry sector, total Corpus of these
globally and across several Indian cities is land two new Funds would be Rs.10,000 crore.
value capture. The passage is about the food processing sector.
E) This financing technique allows authorities to According to the passage the government has
capture the increases in monetary values of land proposed to increase the allocation fund for the
generated by the provision of transit systems as food processing sector. Also it has been stated
well as other public infrastructure and leverage it that the government will encourage the setting up
for the public good of specialised agro-processing financial
The passage is about theKarkardoomaproject. institutions, along with this the government has
According to the passage project was launched in announced to emplace a Fisheries and
2015 in order to create a space suitable for living Aquaculture Infrastructure Development Fund
with everything included in it, which will let and an Animal Husbandry Infrastructure

Development Fund with a total corpus of A) NITI Aayog in consultation with Central and
Rs.10,000 crore. State governments, will put in place a foolproof
mechanism so that farmers will get adequate
139) Answer: C price for their produce.
D) The history of the financial crisis tells a C) The government proposed the launching of
disturbing tale for those who hold dear prosperity Operation Greens to address price volatility of
and democracy, although this should have been perishable commodities such as potatoes,
the moment for representative governments to tomatoes and onions, at an outlay of ₹500 crore,
rise to the occasion too often political leaders operation Greens shall promote farmer producers
failed to take the actions needed to preserve the organisations, agri-logistics, processing facilities
welfare of those who elected them. and professional management in the sector.
A) The feeble response by democratically elected E) There will be 100% deduction in respect of
government, and the resulting ascent of the profits to farmer producer companies, having a
central banks, has produced two results, turnover up to ₹100 crore, for a period of five
mainstream politicians have squandered their years from the financial year 2018-19, in order to
moral authority, giving rise to populist forces encourage professionalism in post-harvest value
both in Europe and in the US. addition in agriculture.
C) Meanwhile, the world’s leading monetary B) The government also proposed raising
authorities have faced accusations of overreach, institutional credit for the agriculture sector to
which will not go away so long as central ₹11 lakh crore for 2018-19 from ₹10 lakh crore
bankers keep the powers and the instruments they in 2017-18, to boost organic farming women self-
have obtained. help groups would be encouraged to take up
E) From Japan to the US, central banks around organic agriculture in clusters under the National
the rich world slashed interest rates and bought Rural Livelihood Programme.
vast amounts of assets as they sought to ward off The passage is about the operation green.
deflation and restore growth, it has taken some According to the passage in order to address the
time for this flood of cheap money to generate problem of price volatility the government has
enough growth to heal the post-recession launched a program known as operation green.
wounds, particularly in the euro zone. The outlay of the operation green is ₹500 crore.
The passage is about the central banks in the It aims at boosting farmer producer’s
financial crisis. According to the passage due to organisations, processing facilities etc. also in
certain powers and the instruments that central order to promote organic farming government
bankers have with them led to the rise of some has launched the National Rural Livelihood
accusations. In order to rebuild the growth and Programme under which self-help groups would
prevent deflation, central banks used to cut down be assisted to take up organic agriculture.
interest rates. Most economists agree that in the
absence of decisive intervention by the world’s 141) Answer: C
leading monetary authorities, the Great Recession The Supreme Court’s ruling, by a 4:1 majority,
would have been much worse and lasted longer. that the exclusionary practice violates the rights
of women devotees establishes the legal principle
140) Answer: B

that individual freedom prevails over purported 149) Answer: B

group rights, even in matters of religion. The meaning of ardent is very enthusiastic
142) Answer: B 150) Answer: D

Food prices that, surprisingly, have remained The meaning of truncate is to shorten something
benign, helping slow overall CPI inflation, could by cutting off
also start hardening once the impact of the higher
payout on the minimum support price for kharif 151) Answer: D
crops kicks in. The meaning of the phrase “pan out” is “to
develop in a particular way or in a successful
143) Answer: A way / turn out well” and it has been applied
The increase in CAD and sustained higher core properly in i, ii and iii sentences.
inflation suggest that there is a case for some
moderation in demand and, in an election year, 152) Answer: B
monetary policy will have to do a balancing act. The meaning of phrase “dwell on” is “Think,
speak, or write at length about (a particular
144) Answer: C subject, especially one that is a source of
Despite all the evidence on exclusion, hardship unhappiness, anxiety, or dissatisfaction)” and it
and denial from welfare programmes resulting has been applied properly in i, ii and iv
from the compulsory integration of Aadhaar in sentences.
these programmes, the majority opinion decided
to accept at face value the claims made by the 153) Answer: E
government. The phrase “account for” has more than one
meaning. These are “to form part of a total / to
145) Answer: B give an explanation of something” and it has
There are rumblings of discontent in southern been applied properly in all the sentences.
states against migrants from the ‘Hindi belt’
though such migrants account for a small, albeit 154) Answer: D
growing, share of the population of the southern The meaning of the phrase “look into” is “to
states. examine the facts about a problem or situation”
and it has been applied properly in i, ii and iii
146) Answer: A sentences.
The meaning of pugnacious is eager or quick to
argue or fight. 155) Answer: E
The meaning of the phrase “count on” is “to
147) Answer: C depend on someone to do what you want or
The meaning of sedentary is inactive or lazy expect them to do for you / to trust someone to
do something” and phrase has been applied
148) Answer: E properly in all the sentences.
The meaning of fumble is to spoil or mess up

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IBPS PO Mains Free Set – 2 (English)

Reasoning and Computer Aptitude:

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E. All are true Directions (8-12): Study the following

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D. RS Input: respect choice 631 249 reader 573 412

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E. None of these of weight loss during childhood are affected in

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31. How many persons sit between the one

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Data Analysis and Interpretation:

46. Number of permanent employees of A. 2464:3393

49. Find the respective ratio of number of

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All the are independent from each other. A. 3/35

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C. 26 years Scheme Q:The Total Number of Projects under

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68. If the cost of each projects is 15 crore for E. 635

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General - Economy - Banking Awareness:

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B. Rajan Anandan C. International Solar Energy Society (ISES)

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97. ‘Meri Fasal Mera Byora’ portal for D. Vivo

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B. HIV/AIDS D. Complaints from Non-Resident Indians

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A. Dreams from my father A. Bangladesh

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It arranges the factors of production, assembles

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to-day operations and work of the firm’s A. amicable

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E. Sundry, defender persons from society, is in line with global

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D. CBAE organisations, agri-logistics, processing facilities

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Directions (146-150): In each of the question E. Brawl-emulsion

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D. Render-endow D. All except iv

149. Ardent 152. Dwell on

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i) We need a person for the position of legal

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13) Answer: (a)

Profit percentage= [(1109)-(804+100*5)/ 80) Answer: D