OBSTETRICS QUESTIONS

1. When assessing the adequacy of sperm for conception to occur, which of the following is the
most useful criterion?

a. Sperm count

b. Sperm motility

c. Sperm maturity

d. Semen volume

2. A couple who wants to conceive but has been unsuccessful during the last 2 years has
undergone many diagnostic procedures. When discussing the situation with the nurse, one
partner states, “We know several friends in our age group and all of them have their own child
already, Why can’t we have one?”. Which of the following would be the most pertinent nursing
diagnosis for this couple?

a. Fear related to the unknown

b. Pain related to numerous procedures.

c. Ineffective family coping related to infertility.

d. Self-esteem disturbance related to infertility.

3. Which of the following urinary symptoms does the pregnant woman most frequently experience
during the first trimester?

a. Dysuria

b. Frequency

c. Incontinence

d. Burning

4. Heartburn and flatulence, common in the second trimester, are most likely the result of which
of the following?

a. Increased plasma HCG levels

b. Decreased intestinal motility

c. Decreased gastric acidity

d. Elevated estrogen levels

5. On which of the following areas would the nurse expect to observe chloasma?

a. Breast, areola, and nipples

b. Chest, neck, arms, and legs

c. Abdomen, breast, and thighs

d. Cheeks, forehead, and nose

6. A pregnant client states that she “waddles” when she walks. The nurse’s explanation is based on
which of the following as the cause?

a. The large size of the newborn

b. Pressure on the pelvic muscles

c. Relaxation of the pelvic joints

d. Excessive weight gain

7. Which of the following represents the average amount of weight gained during pregnancy?

a. 12 to 22 lb

b. 15 to 25 lb

c. 24 to 30 lb

d. 25 to 40 lb

8. When talking with a pregnant client who is experiencing aching swollen, leg veins, the nurse
would explain that this is most probably the result of which of the following?

a. Thrombophlebitis

b. Pregnancy-induced hypertension

c. Pressure on blood vessels from the enlarging uterus

d. The force of gravity pulling down on the uterus

9. Cervical softening and uterine souffle are classified as which of the following?

a. Diagnostic signs

b. Presumptive signs

c. Probable signs
 d. Positive signs

10. Which of the following would the nurse identify as a presumptive sign of pregnancy?

a. Hegar sign

b. Nausea and vomiting

c. Skin pigmentation changes

d. Positive serum pregnancy test

11. Which of the following common emotional reactions to pregnancy would the nurse expect to
occur during the first trimester?

a. Introversion, egocentrism, narcissism

b. Awkwardness, clumsiness, and unattractiveness

c. Anxiety, passivity, extroversion

d. Ambivalence, fear, fantasies

12. During which of the following would the focus of classes be mainly on physiologic changes, fetal
development, sexuality, during pregnancy, and nutrition?

a. Prepregnant period

b. First trimester

c. Second trimester

d. Third trimester

13. Which of the following would be disadvantage of breast feeding?

a. Involution occurs more rapidly

b. The incidence of allergies increases due to maternal antibodies

c. The father may resent the infant’s demands on the mother’s body

d. There is a greater chance for error during preparation

14. Which of the following would cause a false-positive result on a pregnancy test?

a. The test was performed less than 10 days after an abortion

b. The test was performed too early or too late in the pregnancy
 c. The urine sample was stored too long at room temperature

d. A spontaneous abortion or a missed abortion is impending

15. FHR can be auscultated with a fetoscope as early as which of the following?

a. 5 weeks gestation

b. 10 weeks gestation

c. 15 weeks gestation

d. 20 weeks gestation

16. A client LMP began July 5. Her EDD should be which of the following?

a. January 2

b. March 28

c. April 12

d. October 12

17. Which of the following fundal heights indicates less than 12 weeks’ gestation when the date of
the LMP is unknown?

a. Uterus in the pelvis

b. Uterus at the xiphoid

c. Uterus in the abdomen

d. Uterus at the umbilicus

18. Which of the following danger signs should be reported promptly during the antepartum
period?

a. Constipation

b. Breast tenderness

c. Nasal stuffiness

d. Leaking amniotic fluid

19. Which of the following prenatal laboratory test values would the nurse consider as significant?

a. Hematocrit 33.5%
 b. Rubella titer less than 1:8

c. White blood cells 8,000/mm3

d. One hour glucose challenge test 110 g/dL

20. Which of the following characteristics of contractions would the nurse expect to find in a client
experiencing true labor?

a. Occurring at irregular intervals

b. Starting mainly in the abdomen

c. Gradually increasing intervals

d. Increasing intensity with walking

21. During which of the following stages of labor would the nurse assess “crowning”?

a. First stage

b. Second stage

c. Third stage

d. Fourth stage

22. Barbiturates are usually not given for pain relief during active labor for which of the following
reasons?

a. The neonatal effects include hypotonia, hypothermia, generalized drowsiness, and

reluctance to feed for the first few days.

b. These drugs readily cross the placental barrier, causing depressive effects in the
newborn 2 to 3 hours after intramuscular injection.

c. They rapidly transfer across the placenta, and lack of an antagonist make them
generally inappropriate during labor.

d. Adverse reactions may include maternal hypotension, allergic or toxic reaction or partial
or total respiratory failure

23. Which of the following nursing interventions would the nurse perform during the third stage of
labor?

a. Obtain a urine specimen and other laboratory tests.

b. Assess uterine contractions every 30 minutes.

 c. Coach for effective client pushing

d. Promote parent-newborn interaction.

24. Which of the following actions demonstrates the nurse’s understanding about the newborn’s
thermoregulatory ability?

a. Placing the newborn under a radiant warmer.

b. Suctioning with a bulb syringe

c. Obtaining an Apgar score

d. Inspecting the newborn’s umbilical cord

25. Immediately before expulsion, which of the following cardinal movements occur?

a. Descent

b. Flexion

c. Extension

d. External rotation

26. Before birth, which of the following structures connects the right and left auricles of the heart?

a. Umbilical vein

b. Foramen ovale

c. Ductus arteriosus

d. Ductus venosus

27. Which of the following when present in the urine may cause a reddish stain on the diaper of a
newborn?

a. Mucus

b. Uric acid crystals

c. Bilirubin

d. Excess iron

28. When assessing the newborn’s heart rate, which of the following ranges would be considered
normal if the newborn were sleeping?

a. 80 beats per minute

 b. 100 beats per minute

c. 120 beats per minute

d. 140 beats per minute

29. Which of the following is true regarding the fontanels of the newborn?

a. The anterior is triangular shaped; the posterior is diamond shaped.

b. The posterior closes at 18 months; the anterior closes at 8 to 12 weeks.

c. The anterior is large in size when compared to the posterior fontanel.

d. The anterior is bulging; the posterior appears sunken.

30. Which of the following groups of newborn reflexes below are present at birth and remain
unchanged through adulthood?

a. Blink, cough, rooting, and gag

b. Blink, cough, sneeze, gag

c. Rooting, sneeze, swallowing, and cough

d. Stepping, blink, cough, and sneeze

31. Which of the following describes the Babinski reflex?

a. The newborn’s toes will hyperextend and fan apart from dorsiflexion of the big toe
when one side of foot is stroked upward from the ball of the heel and across the ball
of the foot.

b. The newborn abducts and flexes all extremities and may begin to cry when exposed to
sudden movement or loud noise.

c. The newborn turns the head in the direction of stimulus, opens the mouth, and begins
to suck when cheek, lip, or corner of mouth is touched.

d. The newborn will attempt to crawl forward with both arms and legs when he is placed
on his abdomen on a flat surface

32. Which of the following statements best describes hyperemesis gravidarum?

a. Severe anemia leading to electrolyte, metabolic, and nutritional imbalances in the

absence of other medical problems.

b. Severe nausea and vomiting leading to electrolyte, metabolic, and nutritional

imbalances in the absence of other medical problems.
 c. Loss of appetite and continuous vomiting that commonly results in dehydration and
ultimately decreasing maternal nutrients

d. Severe nausea and diarrhea that can cause gastrointestinal irritation and possibly
internal bleeding

33. Which of the following would the nurse identify as a classic sign of PIH?

a. Edema of the feet and ankles

b. Edema of the hands and face

c. Weight gain of 1 lb/week

d. Early morning headache

34. In which of the following types of spontaneous abortions would the nurse assess dark brown
vaginal discharge and a negative pregnancy tests?

a. Threatened

b. Imminent

c. Missed

d. Incomplete

35. Which of the following factors would the nurse suspect as predisposing a client to placenta
previa?

a. Multiple gestation

b. Uterine anomalies

c. Abdominal trauma

d. Renal or vascular disease

36. Which of the following would the nurse assess in a client experiencing abruptio placenta?

a. Bright red, painless vaginal bleeding

b. Concealed or external dark red bleeding

c. Palpable fetal outline

d. Soft and nontender abdomen

37. Which of the following is described as premature separation of a normally implanted placenta
during the second half of pregnancy, usually with severe hemorrhage?

a. Placenta previa

b. Ectopic pregnancy

c. Incompetent cervix

d. Abruptio placentae

38. Which of the following may happen if the uterus becomes overstimulated by oxytocin during the
induction of labor?

a. Weak contraction prolonged to more than 70 seconds

b. Tetanic contractions prolonged to more than 90 seconds

c. Increased pain with bright red vaginal bleeding

d. Increased restlessness and anxiety

39. When preparing a client for cesarean delivery, which of the following key concepts should be
considered when implementing nursing care?

a. Instruct the mother’s support person to remain in the family lounge until after the
delivery

b. Arrange for a staff member of the anesthesia department to explain what to expect
postoperatively

c. Modify preoperative teaching to meet the needs of either a planned or emergency

cesarean birth

d. Explain the surgery, expected outcome, and kind of anesthetics

40. Which of the following best describes preterm labor?

a. Labor that begins after 20 weeks gestation and before 37 weeks gestation

b. Labor that begins after 15 weeks gestation and before 37 weeks gestation

c. Labor that begins after 24 weeks gestation and before 28 weeks gestation

d. Labor that begins after 28 weeks gestation and before 40 weeks gestation

41. When PROM occurs, which of the following provides evidence of the nurse’s understanding of
the client’s immediate needs?
 a. The chorion and amnion rupture 4 hours before the onset of labor.

b. PROM removes the fetus most effective defense against infection

c. Nursing care is based on fetal viability and gestational age.

d. PROM is associated with malpresentation and possibly incompetent cervix

42. Which of the following factors is the underlying cause of dystocia?

a. Nurtional

b. Mechanical

c. Environmental

d. Medical

43. When uterine rupture occurs, which of the following would be the priority?

a. Limiting hypovolemic shock

b. Obtaining blood specimens

c. Instituting complete bed rest

d. Inserting a urinary catheter

44. Which of the following is the nurse’s initial action when umbilical cord prolapse occurs?

a. Begin monitoring maternal vital signs and FHR

b. Place the client in a knee-chest position in bed

c. Notify the physician and prepare the client for delivery

d. Apply a sterile warm saline dressing to the exposed cord

45. Which of the following amounts of blood loss following birth marks the criterion for describing
postpartum hemorrhage?

a. More than 200 ml

b. More than 300 ml

c. More than 400 ml

d. More than 500 ml

46. Which of the following is the primary predisposing factor related to mastitis?
 a. Epidemic infection from nosocomial sources localizing in the lactiferous glands and
ducts

b. Endemic infection occurring randomly and localizing in the periglandular connective

tissue

c. Temporary urinary retention due to decreased perception of the urge to avoid

d. Breast injury caused by overdistention, stasis, and cracking of the nipples

47. Which of the following best describes thrombophlebitis?

a. Inflammation and clot formation that result when blood components combine to form
an aggregate body

b. Inflammation and blood clots that eventually become lodged within the pulmonary
blood vessels

c. Inflammation and blood clots that eventually become lodged within the femoral vein

d. Inflammation of the vascular endothelium with clot formation on the vessel wall

48. Which of the following assessment findings would the nurse expect if the client develops DVT?

a. Midcalf pain, tenderness and redness along the vein

b. Chills, fever, malaise, occurring 2 weeks after delivery

c. Muscle pain the presence of Homans sign, and swelling in the affected limb

d. Chills, fever, stiffness, and pain occurring 10 to 14 days after delivery

49. Which of the following are the most commonly assessed findings in cystitis?

a. Frequency, urgency, dehydration, nausea, chills, and flank pain

b. Nocturia, frequency, urgency dysuria, hematuria, fever and suprapubic pain

c. Dehydration, hypertension, dysuria, suprapubic pain, chills, and fever

d. High fever, chills, flank pain nausea, vomiting, dysuria, and frequency

50. Which of the following best reflects the frequency of reported postpartum “blues”?

a. Between 10% and 40% of all new mothers report some form of postpartum blues

b. Between 30% and 50% of all new mothers report some form of postpartum blues

c. Between 50% and 80% of all new mothers report some form of postpartum blues
 d. Between 25% and 70% of all new mothers report some form of postpartum blues

51. For the client who is using oral contraceptives, the nurse informs the client about the need to
take the pill at the same time each day to accomplish which of the following?

a. Decrease the incidence of nausea

b. Maintain hormonal levels

c. Reduce side effects

d. Prevent drug interactions

52. When teaching a client about contraception. Which of the following would the nurse include as
the most effective method for preventing sexually transmitted infections?

a. Spermicides

b. Diaphragm

c. Condoms

d. Vasectomy

53. When preparing a woman who is 2 days postpartum for discharge, recommendations for which
of the following contraceptive methods would be avoided?

a. Diaphragm

b. Female condom

c. Oral contraceptives

d. Rhythm method

54. For which of the following clients would the nurse expect that an intrauterine device
would not be recommended?

a. Woman over age 35

b. Nulliparous woman

c. Promiscuous young adult

d. Postpartum client

55. A client in her third trimester tells the nurse, “I’m constipated all the time!” Which of the
following should the nurse recommend?
 a. Daily enemas

b. Laxatives

c. Increased fiber intake

d. Decreased fluid intake

56. Which of the following would the nurse use as the basis for the teaching plan when caring for a
pregnant teenager concerned about gaining too much weight during pregnancy?

a. 10 pounds per trimester

b. 1 pound per week for 40 weeks

c. ½ pound per week for 40 weeks

d. A total gain of 25 to 30 pounds

57. The client tells the nurse that her last menstrual period started on January 14 and ended on
January 20. Using Nagele’s rule, the nurse determines her EDD to be which of the following?

a. September 27

b. October 21

c. November 7

d. December 27

58. When taking an obstetrical history on a pregnant client who states, “I had a son born at 38
weeks gestation, a daughter born at 30 weeks gestation and I lost a baby at about 8 weeks,” the
nurse should record her obstetrical history as which of the following?

a. G2 T2 P0 A0 L2

b. G3 T1 P1 A0 L2

c. G3 T2 P0 A0 L2

d. G4 T2 P1 A1 L2

59. When preparing to listen to the fetal heart rate at 12 weeks’ gestation, the nurse would use
which of the following?

a. Stethoscope placed midline at the umbilicus

b. Doppler placed midline at the suprapubic region

 c. Fetoscope placed midway between the umbilicus and the xiphoid process

d. External electronic fetal monitor placed at the umbilicus

60. When developing a plan of care for a client newly diagnosed with gestational diabetes, which of
the following instructions would be the priority?

a. Dietary intake

b. Medication

c. Exercise

d. Glucose monitoring

61. A client at 24 weeks gestation has gained 6 pounds in 4 weeks. Which of the following would be
the priority when assessing the client?

a. Glucosuria

b. Depression

c. Hand/face edema

d. Dietary intake

62. A client 12 weeks’ pregnant come to the emergency department with abdominal cramping and
moderate vaginal bleeding. Speculum examination reveals 2 to 3 cms cervical dilation. The nurse
would document these findings as which of the following?

a. Threatened abortion

b. Imminent abortion

c. Complete abortion

d. Missed abortion

63. Which of the following would be the priority nursing diagnosis for a client with an ectopic
pregnancy?

a. Risk for infection

b. Pain

c. Knowledge Deficit

d. Anticipatory Grieving
64. Before assessing the postpartum client’s uterus for firmness and position in relation to the
umbilicus and midline, which of the following should the nurse do first?

a. Assess the vital signs

b. Administer analgesia

c. Ambulate her in the hall

d. Assist her to urinate

65. Which of the following should the nurse do when a primipara who is lactating tells the nurse
that she has sore nipples?

a. Tell her to breast feed more frequently

b. Administer a narcotic before breast feeding

c. Encourage her to wear a nursing brassiere

d. Use soap and water to clean the nipples

66. The nurse assesses the vital signs of a client, 4 hours’ postpartum that are as follows: BP 90/60;
temperature 100.4ºF; pulse 100 weak, thready; R 20 per minute. Which of the following should
the nurse do first?

a. Report the temperature to the physician

b. Recheck the blood pressure with another cuff

c. Assess the uterus for firmness and position

d. Determine the amount of lochia

67. The nurse assesses the postpartum vaginal discharge (lochia) on four clients. Which of the
following assessments would warrant notification of the physician?

a. A dark red discharge on a 2-day postpartum client

b. A pink to brownish discharge on a client who is 5 days postpartum

c. Almost colorless to creamy discharge on a client 2 weeks after delivery

d. A bright red discharge 5 days after delivery

68. A postpartum client has a temperature of 101.4ºF, with a uterus that is tender when palpated,
remains unusually large, and not descending as normally expected. Which of the following
should the nurse assess next?
 a. Lochia

b. Breasts

c. Incision

d. Urine

69. Which of the following is the priority focus of nursing practice with the current early postpartum
discharge?

a. Promoting comfort and restoration of health

b. Exploring the emotional status of the family

c. Facilitating safe and effective self-and newborn care

d. Teaching about the importance of family planning

70. Which of the following actions would be least effective in maintaining a neutral thermal
environment for the newborn?

a. Placing infant under radiant warmer after bathing

b. Covering the scale with a warmed blanket prior to weighing

c. Placing crib close to nursery window for family viewing

d. Covering the infant’s head with a knit stockinette

71. A newborn who has an asymmetrical Moro reflex response should be further assessed for which
of the following?

a. Talipes equinovarus

b. Fractured clavicle

c. Congenital hypothyroidism

d. Increased intracranial pressure

72. During the first 4 hours after a male circumcision, assessing for which of the following is the
priority?

a. Infection

b. Hemorrhage

c. Discomfort
 d. Dehydration

73. The mother asks the nurse. “What’s wrong with my son’s breasts? Why are they so enlarged?”
Which of the following would be the best response by the nurse?

a. “The breast tissue is inflamed from the trauma experienced with birth”

b. “A decrease in maternal hormones present before birth causes enlargement,”

c. “You should discuss this with your doctor. It could be a malignancy”

d. “The tissue has hypertrophied while the baby was in the uterus”

74. Immediately after birth the nurse notes the following on a male newborn: respirations 78; apical
hearth rate 160 BPM, nostril flaring; mild intercostal retractions; and grunting at the end of
expiration. Which of the following should the nurse do?

a. Call the assessment data to the physician’s attention

b. Start oxygen per nasal cannula at 2 L/min.

c. Suction the infant’s mouth and nares

d. Recognize this as normal first period of reactivity

75. The nurse hears a mother telling a friend on the telephone about umbilical cord care. Which of
the following statements by the mother indicates effective teaching?

a. “Daily soap and water cleansing is best”

b. ‘Alcohol helps it dry and kills germs”

c. “An antibiotic ointment applied daily prevents infection”

d. “He can have a tub bath each day”

76. A newborn weighing 3000 grams and feeding every 4 hours needs 120 calories/kg of body
weight every 24 hours for proper growth and development. How many ounces of 20 cal/oz
formula should this newborn receive at each feeding to meet nutritional needs?

a. 2 ounces

b. 3 ounces

c. 4 ounces

d. 6 ounces
77. The postterm neonate with meconium-stained amniotic fluid needs care designed to especially
monitor for which of the following?

a. Respiratory problems

b. Gastrointestinal problems

c. Integumentary problems

d. Elimination problems

78. When measuring a client’s fundal height, which of the following techniques denotes the correct
method of measurement used by the nurse?

a. From the xiphoid process to the umbilicus

b. From the symphysis pubis to the xiphoid process

c. From the symphysis pubis to the fundus

d. From the fundus to the umbilicus

79. A client with severe preeclampsia is admitted with of BP 160/110, proteinuria, and severe pitting
edema. Which of the following would be most important to include in the client’s plan of care?

a. Daily weights

b. Seizure precautions

c. Right lateral positioning

d. Stress reduction

80. A postpartum primipara asks the nurse, “When can we have sexual intercourse again?” Which of
the following would be the nurse’s best response?

a. “Anytime you both want to.”

b. “As soon as choose a contraceptive method.”

c. “When the discharge has stopped and the incision is healed.”

d. “After your 6 weeks examination.”

81. When preparing to administer the vitamin K injection to a neonate, the nurse would select
which of the following sites as appropriate for the injection?

a. Deltoid muscle
 b. Anterior femoris muscle

c. Vastus lateralis muscle

d. Gluteus maximus muscle

82. When performing a pelvic examination, the nurse observes a red swollen area on the right side
of the vaginal orifice. The nurse would document this as enlargement of which of the following?

a. Clitoris

b. Parotid gland

c. Skene’s gland

d. Bartholin’s gland

83. To differentiate as a female, the hormonal stimulation of the embryo that must occur involves
which of the following?

a. Increase in maternal estrogen secretion

b. Decrease in maternal androgen secretion

c. Secretion of androgen by the fetal gonad

d. Secretion of estrogen by the fetal gonad

84. A client at 8 weeks’ gestation calls complaining of slight nausea in the morning hours. Which of
the following client interventions should the nurse question?

a. Taking 1 teaspoon of bicarbonate of soda in an 8-ounce glass of water

b. Eating a few low-sodium crackers before getting out of bed

c. Avoiding the intake of liquids in the morning hours

d. Eating six small meals a day instead of thee large meals

85. The nurse documents positive ballottement in the client’s prenatal record. The nurse
understands that this indicates which of the following?

a. Palpable contractions on the abdomen

b. Passive movement of the unengaged fetus

c. Fetal kicking felt by the client

d. Enlargement and softening of the uterus

86. During a pelvic exam the nurse notes a purple-blue tinge of the cervix. The nurse documents this
as which of the following?

a. Braxton-Hicks sign

b. Chadwick’s sign

c. Goodell’s sign

d. McDonald’s sign

87. During a prenatal class, the nurse explains the rationale for breathing techniques during
preparation for labor based on the understanding that breathing techniques are most important
in achieving which of the following?

a. Eliminate pain and give the expectant parents something to do

b. Reduce the risk of fetal distress by increasing uteroplacental perfusion

c. Facilitate relaxation, possibly reducing the perception of pain

d. Eliminate pain so that less analgesia and anesthesia are needed

88. After 4 hours of active labor, the nurse notes that the contractions of a primigravida client are
not strong enough to dilate the cervix. Which of the following would the nurse anticipate doing?

a. Obtaining an order to begin IV oxytocin infusion

b. Administering a light sedative to allow the patient to rest for several hour

c. Preparing for a cesarean section for failure to progress

d. Increasing the encouragement to the patient when pushing begins

89. A multigravida at 38 weeks’ gestation is admitted with painless, bright red bleeding and mild
contractions every 7 to 10 minutes. Which of the following assessments should be avoided?

a. Maternal vital sign

b. Fetal heart rate

c. Contraction monitoring

d. Cervical dilation

90. Which of the following would be the nurse’s most appropriate response to a client who asks
why she must have a cesarean delivery if she has a complete placenta previa?

a. “You will have to ask your physician when he returns.”

 b. “You need a cesarean to prevent hemorrhage.”

c. “The placenta is covering most of your cervix.”

d. “The placenta is covering the opening of the uterus and blocking your baby.”

91. The nurse understands that the fetal head is in which of the following positions with a face
presentation?

a. Completely flexed

b. Completely extended

c. Partially extended

d. Partially flexed

92. With a fetus in the left-anterior breech presentation, the nurse would expect the fetal heart rate
would be most audible in which of the following areas?

a. Above the maternal umbilicus and to the right of midline

b. In the lower-left maternal abdominal quadrant

c. In the lower-right maternal abdominal quadrant

d. Above the maternal umbilicus and to the left of midline

93. The amniotic fluid of a client has a greenish tint. The nurse interprets this to be the result of
which of the following?

a. Lanugo

b. Hydramnio

c. Meconium

d. Vernix

94. A patient is in labor and has just been told she has a breech presentation. The nurse should be
particularly alert for which of the following?

a. Quickening

b. Ophthalmia neonatorum

c. Pica

d. Prolapsed umbilical cord

95. When describing dizygotic twins to a couple, on which of the following would the nurse base the
explanation?

a. Two ova fertilized by separate sperm

b. Sharing of a common placenta

c. Each ova with the same genotype

d. Sharing of a common chorion

96. Which of the following refers to the single cell that reproduces itself after conception?

a. Chromosome

b. Blastocyst

c. Zygote

d. Trophoblast

97. In the late 1950s, consumers and health care professionals began challenging the routine use of
analgesics and anesthetics during childbirth. Which of the following was an outgrowth of this
concept?

a. Labor, delivery, recovery, postpartum (LDRP)

b. Nurse-midwifery

c. Clinical nurse specialist

d. Prepared childbirth

98. A client has a midpelvic contracture from a previous pelvic injury due to a motor vehicle
accident as a teenager. The nurse is aware that this could prevent a fetus from passing through
or around which structure during childbirth?

a. Symphysis pubis

b. Sacral promontory

c. Ischial spines

d. Pubic arch

99. When teaching a group of adolescents about variations in the length of the menstrual cycle, the
nurse understands that the underlying mechanism is due to variations in which of the following
phases?
 a. Menstrual phase

b. Proliferative phase

c. Secretory phase

d. Ischemic phase

100. When teaching a group of adolescents about male hormone production, which of the
following would the nurse include as being produced by the Leydig cells?

a. Follicle-stimulating hormone

b. Testosterone

c. Leuteinizing hormone

d. Gonadotropin releasing hormone

101. While performing physical assessment of a 12 month-old, the nurse notes that the
infant’s anterior fontanelle is still slightly open. Which of the following is the nurse’s most
appropriate action?

a. Notify the physician immediately because there is a problem.

b. Perform an intensive neurologic examination.

c. Perform an intensive developmental examination.

d. Do nothing because this is a normal finding for the age.

102. When teaching a mother about introducing solid foods to her child, which of the
following indicates the earliest age at which this should be done?

a. 1 month

b. 2 months

c. 3 months

d. 4 months

103. The infant of a substance-abusing mother is at risk for developing a sense of which of
the following?

a. Mistrust

b. Shame
 c. Guilt

d. Inferiority

104. Which of the following toys should the nurse recommend for a 5-month-old?

a. A big red balloon

b. A teddy bear with button eyes

c. A push-pull wooden truck

d. A colorful busy box

105. The mother of a 2-month-old is concerned that she may be spoiling her baby by picking
her up when she cries. Which of the following would be the nurse’s best response?

a. “ Let her cry for a while before picking her up, so you don’t spoil her”

b. “Babies need to be held and cuddled; you won’t spoil her this way”

c. “Crying at this age means the baby is hungry; give her a bottle”

d. “If you leave her alone she will learn how to cry herself to sleep”

106. When assessing an 18-month-old, the nurse notes a characteristic protruding abdomen.
Which of the following would explain the rationale for this finding?

a. Increased food intake owing to age

b. Underdeveloped abdominal muscles

c. Bowlegged posture

d. Linear growth curve

107. If parents keep a toddler dependent in areas where he is capable of using skills, the
toddle will develop a sense of which of the following?

a. Mistrust

b. Shame

c. Guilt

d. Inferiority

108. Which of the following is an appropriate toy for an 18-month-old?

a. Multiple-piece puzzle
 b. Miniature cars

c. Finger paints

d. Comic book

109. When teaching parents about the child’s readiness for toilet training, which of the
following signs should the nurse instruct them to watch for in the toddler?

a. Demonstrates dryness for 4 hours

b. Demonstrates ability to sit and walk

c. Has a new sibling for stimulation

d. Verbalizes desire to go to the bathroom

110. When teaching parents about typical toddler eating patterns, which of the following
should be included?

a. Food “jags”

b. Preference to eat alone

c. Consistent table manners

d. Increase in appetite

111. Which of the following suggestions should the nurse offer the parents of a 4-year-old
boy who resists going to bed at night?

a. “Allow him to fall asleep in your room, then move him to his own bed.”

b. “Tell him that you will lock him in his room if he gets out of bed one more time.”

c. “Encourage active play at bedtime to tire him out so he will fall asleep faster.”

d. “Read him a story and allow him to play quietly in his bed until he falls asleep.”

112. When providing therapeutic play, which of the following toys would best promote
imaginative play in a 4-year-old?

a. Large blocks

b. Dress-up clothes

c. Wooden puzzle

d. Big wheels
113. Which of the following activities, when voiced by the parents following a teaching
session about the characteristics of school-age cognitive development would indicate the need
for additional teaching?

a. Collecting baseball cards and marbles

b. Ordering dolls according to size

c. Considering simple problem-solving options

d. Developing plans for the future

114. A hospitalized schoolager states: “I’m not afraid of this place, I’m not afraid of
anything.” This statement is most likely an example of which of the following?

a. Regression

b. Repression

c. Reaction formation

d. Rationalization

115. After teaching a group of parents about accident prevention for schoolagers, which of
the following statements by the group would indicate the need for more teaching?

a. “Schoolagers are more active and adventurous than are younger children.”

b. “Schoolagers are more susceptible to home hazards than are younger children.”

c. “Schoolagers are unable to understand potential dangers around them.”

d. “Schoolargers are less subject to parental control than are younger children.”

116. Which of the following skills is the most significant one learned during the schoolage
period?

a. Collecting

b. Ordering

c. Reading

d. Sorting

117. A child age 7 was unable to receive the measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) vaccine at
the recommended scheduled time. When would the nurse expect to administer MMR vaccine?

a. In a month from now

 b. In a year from now

c. At age 10

d. At age 13

118. The adolescent’s inability to develop a sense of who he is and what he can become
results in a sense of which of the following?

a. Shame

b. Guilt

c. Inferiority

d. Role diffusion

119. Which of the following would be most appropriate for a nurse to use when describing
menarche to a 13-year-old?

a. A female’s first menstruation or menstrual “periods”

b. The first year of menstruation or “period”

c. The entire menstrual cycle or from one “period” to another

d. The onset of uterine maturation or peak growth

120. A 14-year-old boy has acne and according to his parents, dominates the bathroom by
using the mirror all the time. Which of the following remarks by the nurse would be least helpful
in talking to the boy and his parents?

a. “This is probably the only concern he has about his body. So don’t worry about it or
the time he spends on it.”

b. “Teenagers are anxious about how their peers perceive them. So they spend a lot of
time grooming.”

c. “A teen may develop a poor self-image when experiencing acne. Do you feel this way
sometimes?”

d. “You appear to be keeping your face well washed. Would you feel comfortable
discussing your cleansing method?”

121. Which of the following should the nurse suspect when noting that a 3-year-old is
engaging in explicit sexual behavior during doll play?

a. The child is exhibiting normal pre-school curiosity

 b. The child is acting out personal experiences

c. The child does not know how to play with dolls

d. The child is probably developmentally delayed.

122. Which of the following statements by the parents of a child with school phobia would
indicate the need for further teaching?

a. “We’ll keep him at home until phobia subsides.”

b. “We’ll work with his teachers and counselors at school.”

c. “We’ll try to encourage him to talk about his problem.”

d. “We’ll discuss possible solutions with him and his counselor.”

123. When developing a teaching plan for a group of high school students about teenage
pregnancy, the nurse would keep in mind which of the following?

a. The incidence of teenage pregnancies is increasing.

b. Most teenage pregnancies are planned.

c. Denial of the pregnancy is common early on.

d. The risk for complications during pregnancy is rare.

124. When assessing a child with a cleft palate, the nurse is aware that the child is at risk for
more frequent episodes of otitis media due to which of the following?

a. Lowered resistance from malnutrition

b. Ineffective functioning of the Eustachian tubes

c. Plugging of the Eustachian tubes with food particles

d. Associated congenital defects of the middle ear.

125. While performing a neurodevelopmental assessment on a 3-month-old infant, which of

the following characteristics would be expected?

a. A strong Moro reflex

b. A strong parachute reflex

c. Rolling from front to back

d. Lifting of head and chest when prone

126. By the end of which of the following would the nurse most commonly expect a child’s
birth weight to triple?

a. 4 months

b. 7 months

c. 9 months

d. 12 months

127. Which of the following best describes parallel play between two toddlers?

a. Sharing crayons to color separate pictures

b. Playing a board game with a nurse

c. Sitting near each other while playing with separate dolls

d. Sharing their dolls with two different nurses

128. Which of the following would the nurse identify as the initial priority for a child with
acute lymphocytic leukemia?

a. Instituting infection control precautions

b. Encouraging adequate intake of iron-rich foods

c. Assisting with coping with chronic illness

d. Administering medications via IM injections

129. Which of the following information, when voiced by the mother, would indicate to the
nurse that she understands home care instructions following the administration of a diphtheria,
tetanus, and pertussis injection?

a. Measures to reduce fever

b. Need for dietary restrictions

c. Reasons for subsequent rash

d. Measures to control subsequent diarrhea

130. Which of the following actions by a community health nurse is most appropriate when
noting multiple bruises and burns on the posterior trunk of an 18-month-old child during a
home visit?

a. Report the child’s condition to Protective Services immediately.

 b. Schedule a follow-up visit to check for more bruises.

c. Notify the child’s physician immediately.

d. Don nothing because this is a normal finding in a toddler.

131. Which of the following is being used when the mother of a hospitalized child calls the
student nurse and states, “You idiot, you have no idea how to care for my sick child”?

a. Displacement

b. Projection

c. Repression

d. Psychosis

132. Which of the following should the nurse expect to note as a frequent complication for a
child with congenital heart disease?

a. Susceptibility to respiratory infection

b. Bleeding tendencies

c. Frequent vomiting and diarrhea

d. Seizure disorder

133. Which of the following would the nurse do first for a 3-year-old boy who arrives in the
emergency room with a temperature of 105 degrees, inspiratory stridor, and restlessness, who
is leaning forward and drooling?

a. Auscultate his lungs and place him in a mist tent.

b. Have him lie down and rest after encouraging fluids.

c. Examine his throat and perform a throat culture

d. Notify the physician immediately and prepare for intubation.

134. Which of the following would the nurse need to keep in mind as a predisposing factor
when formulating a teaching plan for child with a urinary tract infection?

a. A shorter urethra in females

b. Frequent emptying of the bladder

c. Increased fluid intake

 d. Ingestion of acidic juices

135. Which of the following should the nurse do first for a 15-year-old boy with a full leg cast
who is screaming in unrelenting pain and exhibiting right foot pallor signifying compartment
syndrome?

a. Medicate him with acetaminophen.

b. Notify the physician immediately

c. Release the traction

d. Monitor him every 5 minutes

136. At which of the following ages would the nurse expect to administer the varicella zoster
vaccine to child?

a. At birth

b. 2 months

c. 6 months

d. 12 months

137. When discussing normal infant growth and development with parents, which of the
following toys would the nurse suggest as most appropriate for an 8-month-old?

a. Push-pull toys

b. Rattle

c. Large blocks

d. Mobile

138. Which of the following aspects of psychosocial development is necessary for the nurse
to keep in mind when providing care for the preschool child?

a. The child can use complex reasoning to think out situations.

b. Fear of body mutilation is a common preschool fear

c. The child engages in competitive types of play

d. Immediate gratification is necessary to develop initiative.

139. Which of the following is characteristic of a preschooler with mid mental retardation?
 a. Slow to feed self

b. Lack of speech

c. Marked motor delays

d. Gait disability

140. Which of the following assessment findings would lead the nurse to suspect Down
syndrome in an infant?

a. Small tongue

b. Transverse palmar crease

c. Large nose

d. Restricted joint movement

141. While assessing a newborn with cleft lip, the nurse would be alert that which of the
following will most likely be compromised?

a. Sucking ability

b. Respiratory status

c. Locomotion

d. GI function

142. When providing postoperative care for the child with a cleft palate, the nurse should
position the child in which of the following positions?

a. Supine

b. Prone

c. In an infant seat

d. On the side

143. While assessing a child with pyloric stenosis, the nurse is likely to note which of the
following?

a. Regurgitation

b. Steatorrhea

c. Projectile vomiting
 d. “Currant jelly” stools

144. Which of the following nursing diagnoses would be inappropriate for the infant with
gastroesophageal reflux (GER)?

a. Fluid volume deficit

b. Risk for aspiration

c. Altered nutrition: less than body requirements

d. Altered oral mucous membranes

145. Which of the following parameters would the nurse monitor to evaluate the
effectiveness of thickened feedings for an infant with gastroesophageal reflux (GER)?

a. Vomiting

b. Stools

c. Uterine

d. Weight

146. Discharge teaching for a child with celiac disease would include instructions about
avoiding which of the following?

a. Rice

b. Milk

c. Wheat

d. Chicken

147. Which of the following would the nurse expect to assess in a child with celiac disease
having a celiac crisis secondary to an upper respiratory infection?

a. Respiratory distress

b. Lethargy

c. Watery diarrhea

d. Weight gain

148. Which of the following should the nurse do first after noting that a child with
Hirschsprung disease has a fever and watery explosive diarrhea?
 a. Notify the physician immediately

b. Administer antidiarrheal medications

c. Monitor child ever 30 minutes

d. Nothing, this is characteristic of Hirschsprung disease

149. A newborn’s failure to pass meconium within the first 24 hours after birth may indicate
which of the following?

a. Hirschsprung disease

b. Celiac disease

c. Intussusception

d. Abdominal wall defect

150. When assessing a child for possible intussusception, which of the following would be
least likely to provide valuable information?

a. Stool inspection

b. Pain pattern

c. Family history

d. Abdominal palpation