HPCLElectrical Engineer2024

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Participant ID WWW.ALLEXAMREVIEW.COM
Participant Name
Test Center Name
Test Date 18/08/2024
Test Time 2:00 PM - 4:30 PM
Subject Electrical Engineer

Section : English Language

Q.1 Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentences in
the correct order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph.

W: They hope to preserve vital wheat and grain crops that would otherwise succumb
to a warming climate.
X: In recent years, extreme weather in Italy and throughout the Mediterranean has
caused drops in olive oil production, and wine grapes in Sicily are increasingly
damaged by drought and wildfires.
Y: While some farmers are pivoting to new crops, scientists are studying ways to
preserve current staples.
Z: Local universities in Sicily are testing resilient crop varieties capable of
withstanding extreme weather conditions.
Ans 1. XYZW

2. WXYZ

3. YZXW

4. XWYZ

Question ID : 630680940969
Option 1 ID : 6306803688435
Option 2 ID : 6306803688436
Option 3 ID : 6306803688437
Option 4 ID : 6306803688438
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.2 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Sudha is very diligent and needs ______ reminders to complete her


tasks.
Ans 1. little

2. smaller

3. less

4. few

Question ID : 630680987765
Option 1 ID : 6306803875019
Option 2 ID : 6306803875022
Option 3 ID : 6306803875020
Option 4 ID : 6306803875021
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

Q.3 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Kick the bucket


Ans 1. To pass away

2. To retire from work

3. To complete a task

4. To start a new journey

Question ID : 630680941323
Option 1 ID : 6306803689844
Option 2 ID : 6306803689843
Option 3 ID : 6306803689845
Option 4 ID : 6306803689842
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

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Q.4 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blanks.

The ________ mansion at the end of the street is rumoured to be haunted, which is
why most ________ residents avoid it after dark.
Ans 1. broken-down; male

2. backwards; often

3. mysterious; new

4. rarely; far

Question ID : 630680940899
Option 1 ID : 6306803688106
Option 2 ID : 6306803688105
Option 3 ID : 6306803688103
Option 4 ID : 6306803688104
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.5 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined word in the given
sentence.

The priest addressed the small congragaton present in the church.


Ans 1. congregasion

2. congragation

3. congregation

4. congrassion

Question ID : 630680129792
Option 1 ID : 630680502768
Option 2 ID : 630680502767
Option 3 ID : 630680502766
Option 4 ID : 630680502769
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.6 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of
words.

A handwriting that cannot be read.


Ans 1. Incorrigible

2. Illegible

3. Ineligible

4. Invisible

Question ID : 630680941002
Option 1 ID : 6306803688565
Option 2 ID : 6306803688563
Option 3 ID : 6306803688564
Option 4 ID : 6306803688566
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.7 Select the most appropriate article to fill in the blank.

The government announced new measures to aid ________ unemployed during the
economic crisis.
Ans 1. the

2. at

3. an

4. a

Question ID : 630680940882
Option 1 ID : 6306803688017
Option 2 ID : 6306803688018
Option 3 ID : 6306803688016
Option 4 ID : 6306803688015
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

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Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.

With its stark white head, dangerous talons and a wingspan of more than 6.5 feet, the bald
eagle cuts a silhouette few other birds in North America can compete with. And yet, much of
what we think we know about this raptor is, well, just plain wrong. For instance, the bald eagle
is not actually the national bird of the United States. Even though the species, known
scientifically as Haliaeetus leucocephalus, has appeared on the Great Seal of the United
States since 1782, no president nor the congress has ever officially declared the animal the
national bird. Conversely, the bison was designated the national mammal in 2016, and the
oak was named the national tree in 2004. Certainly, none of this has stopped bald eagles
from remaining prominent on American currency, military insignia and every manner of
patriotic merchandise. The good news for bald eagle fans is that as of last week, there is a
bipartisan effort, led by the National Eagle Center and supported by the Midwest Alliance of
Sovereign Tribes, to make the bald eagle’s status official. This famous raptor’s official status
is not the only fact many people get wrong. If you have ever seen a bald eagle on television
or in the movies, there’s a good chance you’ve heard its telltale screech. However, what
you’re hearing is a lie. 'It’s usually a truck commercial or an iconic mountain scene where
someone’s clinging to a rock face, and you hear what is supposed to be the sound of a bald
eagle', says Janet Ng, a wildlife biologist for the Canadian Wildlife Service. 'And it sounds
really courageous', she adds. 'Unfortunately, that’s the call of a red-tailed hawk. In reality, the
bald eagle’s cry kind of sounds like a giggle', says Ng.

SubQuestion No : 8
Q.8 In the context of the passage, which of the following words is a synonym for 'stark'?
Ans 1. Soft

2. Faint

3. Clear

4. Dull

Question ID : 630680944084
Option 1 ID : 6306803701161
Option 2 ID : 6306803701159
Option 3 ID : 6306803701160
Option 4 ID : 6306803701162
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.

With its stark white head, dangerous talons and a wingspan of more than 6.5 feet, the bald
eagle cuts a silhouette few other birds in North America can compete with. And yet, much of
what we think we know about this raptor is, well, just plain wrong. For instance, the bald eagle
is not actually the national bird of the United States. Even though the species, known
scientifically as Haliaeetus leucocephalus, has appeared on the Great Seal of the United
States since 1782, no president nor the congress has ever officially declared the animal the
national bird. Conversely, the bison was designated the national mammal in 2016, and the
oak was named the national tree in 2004. Certainly, none of this has stopped bald eagles
from remaining prominent on American currency, military insignia and every manner of
patriotic merchandise. The good news for bald eagle fans is that as of last week, there is a
bipartisan effort, led by the National Eagle Center and supported by the Midwest Alliance of
Sovereign Tribes, to make the bald eagle’s status official. This famous raptor’s official status
is not the only fact many people get wrong. If you have ever seen a bald eagle on television
or in the movies, there’s a good chance you’ve heard its telltale screech. However, what
you’re hearing is a lie. 'It’s usually a truck commercial or an iconic mountain scene where
someone’s clinging to a rock face, and you hear what is supposed to be the sound of a bald
eagle', says Janet Ng, a wildlife biologist for the Canadian Wildlife Service. 'And it sounds
really courageous', she adds. 'Unfortunately, that’s the call of a red-tailed hawk. In reality, the
bald eagle’s cry kind of sounds like a giggle', says Ng.

SubQuestion No : 9
Q.9 Which of the following statements about the bald eagle is true?
Ans 1. The bald eagle is also known as Haliaeetus albicilla.

2. The bald eagle is the official national bird of the United States.

3. The bald eagle has a wingspan of more than 6.5 feet.

4. The bald eagle's call is commonly heard in commercials and movies.

Question ID : 630680944083
Option 1 ID : 6306803701158
Option 2 ID : 6306803701155
Option 3 ID : 6306803701157
Option 4 ID : 6306803701156
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

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Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.

With its stark white head, dangerous talons and a wingspan of more than 6.5 feet, the bald
eagle cuts a silhouette few other birds in North America can compete with. And yet, much of
what we think we know about this raptor is, well, just plain wrong. For instance, the bald eagle
is not actually the national bird of the United States. Even though the species, known
scientifically as Haliaeetus leucocephalus, has appeared on the Great Seal of the United
States since 1782, no president nor the congress has ever officially declared the animal the
national bird. Conversely, the bison was designated the national mammal in 2016, and the
oak was named the national tree in 2004. Certainly, none of this has stopped bald eagles
from remaining prominent on American currency, military insignia and every manner of
patriotic merchandise. The good news for bald eagle fans is that as of last week, there is a
bipartisan effort, led by the National Eagle Center and supported by the Midwest Alliance of
Sovereign Tribes, to make the bald eagle’s status official. This famous raptor’s official status
is not the only fact many people get wrong. If you have ever seen a bald eagle on television
or in the movies, there’s a good chance you’ve heard its telltale screech. However, what
you’re hearing is a lie. 'It’s usually a truck commercial or an iconic mountain scene where
someone’s clinging to a rock face, and you hear what is supposed to be the sound of a bald
eagle', says Janet Ng, a wildlife biologist for the Canadian Wildlife Service. 'And it sounds
really courageous', she adds. 'Unfortunately, that’s the call of a red-tailed hawk. In reality, the
bald eagle’s cry kind of sounds like a giggle', says Ng.

SubQuestion No : 10
Q.10 How is the tone of the passage?
Ans 1. Sympathetic

2. Humorous

3. Informative

4. Sarcastic

Question ID : 630680944081
Option 1 ID : 6306803701150
Option 2 ID : 6306803701147
Option 3 ID : 6306803701148
Option 4 ID : 6306803701149
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.

With its stark white head, dangerous talons and a wingspan of more than 6.5 feet, the bald
eagle cuts a silhouette few other birds in North America can compete with. And yet, much of
what we think we know about this raptor is, well, just plain wrong. For instance, the bald eagle
is not actually the national bird of the United States. Even though the species, known
scientifically as Haliaeetus leucocephalus, has appeared on the Great Seal of the United
States since 1782, no president nor the congress has ever officially declared the animal the
national bird. Conversely, the bison was designated the national mammal in 2016, and the
oak was named the national tree in 2004. Certainly, none of this has stopped bald eagles
from remaining prominent on American currency, military insignia and every manner of
patriotic merchandise. The good news for bald eagle fans is that as of last week, there is a
bipartisan effort, led by the National Eagle Center and supported by the Midwest Alliance of
Sovereign Tribes, to make the bald eagle’s status official. This famous raptor’s official status
is not the only fact many people get wrong. If you have ever seen a bald eagle on television
or in the movies, there’s a good chance you’ve heard its telltale screech. However, what
you’re hearing is a lie. 'It’s usually a truck commercial or an iconic mountain scene where
someone’s clinging to a rock face, and you hear what is supposed to be the sound of a bald
eagle', says Janet Ng, a wildlife biologist for the Canadian Wildlife Service. 'And it sounds
really courageous', she adds. 'Unfortunately, that’s the call of a red-tailed hawk. In reality, the
bald eagle’s cry kind of sounds like a giggle', says Ng.

SubQuestion No : 11
Q.11 According to the passage, what is a common misconception about the bald eagle’s
call?
Ans 1. It sounds like a giggle.

2. It sounds like a truck engine.

3. It sounds like a red-tailed hawk.

4. It sounds like a peacock.

Question ID : 630680944082
Option 1 ID : 6306803701152
Option 2 ID : 6306803701151
Option 3 ID : 6306803701153
Option 4 ID : 6306803701154
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

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Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.

With its stark white head, dangerous talons and a wingspan of more than 6.5 feet, the bald
eagle cuts a silhouette few other birds in North America can compete with. And yet, much of
what we think we know about this raptor is, well, just plain wrong. For instance, the bald eagle
is not actually the national bird of the United States. Even though the species, known
scientifically as Haliaeetus leucocephalus, has appeared on the Great Seal of the United
States since 1782, no president nor the congress has ever officially declared the animal the
national bird. Conversely, the bison was designated the national mammal in 2016, and the
oak was named the national tree in 2004. Certainly, none of this has stopped bald eagles
from remaining prominent on American currency, military insignia and every manner of
patriotic merchandise. The good news for bald eagle fans is that as of last week, there is a
bipartisan effort, led by the National Eagle Center and supported by the Midwest Alliance of
Sovereign Tribes, to make the bald eagle’s status official. This famous raptor’s official status
is not the only fact many people get wrong. If you have ever seen a bald eagle on television
or in the movies, there’s a good chance you’ve heard its telltale screech. However, what
you’re hearing is a lie. 'It’s usually a truck commercial or an iconic mountain scene where
someone’s clinging to a rock face, and you hear what is supposed to be the sound of a bald
eagle', says Janet Ng, a wildlife biologist for the Canadian Wildlife Service. 'And it sounds
really courageous', she adds. 'Unfortunately, that’s the call of a red-tailed hawk. In reality, the
bald eagle’s cry kind of sounds like a giggle', says Ng.

SubQuestion No : 12
Q.12 What is the main theme of the passage?
Ans 1. Myths about the bald eagle

2. The history of the Great Seal of the United States

3. The significance of American symbols

4. The true sound of a bald eagle

Question ID : 630680944080
Option 1 ID : 6306803701144
Option 2 ID : 6306803701145
Option 3 ID : 6306803701146
Option 4 ID : 6306803701143
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.13 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word in the given sentence.

The weather caused the fields to desiccate.


Ans 1. illuminate

2. flourish

3. dehydrate

4. wither

Question ID : 630680987585
Option 1 ID : 6306803874345
Option 2 ID : 6306803874344
Option 3 ID : 6306803874343
Option 4 ID : 6306803874346
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.14 Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentences in
the correct order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph.

A. This may be just the tip of the iceberg.


B. There will be a substantial number of instances of violence that go unreported.
C. More than one million such crimes have been reported in one year.
D. Police in the UK have released a report highlighting a serious surge in violence
against women and girls.
Ans 1. BADC

2. DBCA

3. CADB

4. DCAB

Question ID : 630680983991
Option 1 ID : 6306803860034
Option 2 ID : 6306803860036
Option 3 ID : 6306803860035
Option 4 ID : 6306803860033
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

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Q.15 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word in the given sentence.

Meeta made sedulous efforts in preparing the report.


Ans 1. exclusive

2. quiescent

3. bustling

4. assiduous

Question ID : 630680987594
Option 1 ID : 6306803874382
Option 2 ID : 6306803874381
Option 3 ID : 6306803874380
Option 4 ID : 6306803874379
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.16 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Burn the midnight oil


Ans 1. Work late into the night

2. Celebrate until late

3. Burn out from stress

4. Waste time on trivial matters

Question ID : 630680941338
Option 1 ID : 6306803689903
Option 2 ID : 6306803689904
Option 3 ID : 6306803689905
Option 4 ID : 6306803689902
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.17 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blanks.

Her _____ painting stood out among the _____ artworks displayed at the gallery.
Ans 1. evocative; emotional

2. yesterday; last year

3. tall; fairly

4. extremely; above

Question ID : 630680940933
Option 1 ID : 6306803688267
Option 2 ID : 6306803688269
Option 3 ID : 6306803688270
Option 4 ID : 6306803688268
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Section : Quantitative Aptitude

Q.1 If p and q are the roots of ax2 + bx + c = 0, then the value of p2 + q2 is ________.
Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Question ID : 630680182027
Option 1 ID : 630680705333
Option 2 ID : 630680705332
Option 3 ID : 630680705330
Option 4 ID : 630680705331
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

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Q.2 Study the bar graph and answer the question that follows.
The bar graph shows the sales of books (in thousand number) from six branches (A,
B, C, D, E and F) of a publishing company during two consecutive years 2021 and
2022.

What is the ratio of the sales of branches C, D and F taken together for the year 2021
to the sales of branches A, B and E taken together for the year 2022?
Ans 1. 61 : 63

2. 52 : 53

3. 63 : 61

4. 53 : 51

Question ID : 630680695525
Option 1 ID : 6306802724341
Option 2 ID : 6306802724339
Option 3 ID : 6306802724342
Option 4 ID : 6306802724340
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

Q.3 The population of a village was 110000. It increased by 10% in the first year and
increased by 25% in the second year. Its population after two years is _______.
Ans 1. 121000

2. 151250

3. 137500

4. 148500

Question ID : 630680591516
Option 1 ID : 6306802314532
Option 2 ID : 6306802314531
Option 3 ID : 6306802314533
Option 4 ID : 6306802314534
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.4 The difference between the simple interest and the compound interest, compounded
annually, on a certain sum of money for 2 years at 15% per annum is ₹873. Find the
sum. [Give your answer to integral number without rounded off.]
Ans 1. ₹38785

2. ₹38800

3. ₹38798

4. ₹38788

Question ID : 630680930854
Option 1 ID : 6306803648226
Option 2 ID : 6306803648224
Option 3 ID : 6306803648225
Option 4 ID : 6306803648227
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

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Q.5 The average weight of a family of five members whose weights are 40 kg, 49 kg, 57 kg,
63 kg and 35 kg is:
Ans 1. 47.8

2. 48.8

3. 50.8

4. 49.8

Question ID : 630680657010
Option 1 ID : 6306802571984
Option 2 ID : 6306802571982
Option 3 ID : 6306802571985
Option 4 ID : 6306802571983
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.6 A train 200 m long running at 60 kmph passes another train in 10 seconds, which is
twice as fast as this train and running in the opposite direction. Find the length (in
metres) of the second train.
Ans 1. 300

2. 400

3. 450

4. 350

Question ID : 630680456064
Option 1 ID : 6306801781198
Option 2 ID : 6306801781197
Option 3 ID : 6306801781196
Option 4 ID : 6306801781195
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.7 Ashish invested ₹1500 at 6% per annum simple interest in a bank. What amount (in ₹)
will he get after 4 years?
Ans 1. 460

2. 1760

3. 360

4. 1860

Question ID : 630680666017
Option 1 ID : 6306802607631
Option 2 ID : 6306802607630
Option 3 ID : 6306802607629
Option 4 ID : 6306802607628
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

Q.8 729 identical small spheres are cast from a sphere of radius 18 cm, with the total
volume of the small spheres being equal to the volume of the larger sphere. The
diameter (in cm) of each of the small spheres is:
Ans 1. 7

2. 6

3. 1

4. 4

Question ID : 630680998323
Option 1 ID : 6306803917198
Option 2 ID : 6306803917197
Option 3 ID : 6306803917196
Option 4 ID : 6306803917195
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

Q.9 A shopkeeper marks an article at ₹x and offers a discount of 40% on it. He sells it for
₹252 after charging VAT of 20% on the discounted price. What is the value of ₹ x?
Ans 1. ₹600

2. ₹350

3. ₹300

4. ₹400

Question ID : 630680844521
Option 1 ID : 6306803308013
Option 2 ID : 6306803308010
Option 3 ID : 6306803308012
Option 4 ID : 6306803308011
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

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Q
.
1
0
A 1. 55
n
s
2. 72.5

3. 75

4. 67.5

Question ID : 630680998356
Option 1 ID : 6306803917326
Option 2 ID : 6306803917328
Option 3 ID : 6306803917329
Option 4 ID : 6306803917327
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.11 A labourer is engaged for 45 days on the condition that he will


receive ₹640 for each day he works and will be fined ₹180 for
each day he is absent. If he receives ₹18,960 in all, for how many
days did he remain absent?
Ans 1. 15

2. 8

3. 10

4. 12

Question ID : 630680528686
Option 1 ID : 6306802066755
Option 2 ID : 6306802066752
Option 3 ID : 6306802066753
Option 4 ID : 6306802066754
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

Q.12 How many kilograms of rice costing ₹46 per kg should be mixed with 8 kg of rice
costing ₹60 per kg so that by selling the mixture at ₹65 per kg, there is a gain of 25%?
Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Question ID : 630680669326
Option 1 ID : 6306802620834
Option 2 ID : 6306802620833
Option 3 ID : 6306802620836
Option 4 ID : 6306802620835
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.13 The distance (rounded off to two decimal place) between two points on a map is 5 cm.
The scale of the map is 1 : 205771. The actual distance (rounded off to two decimal
place) between the two points (in km) is:
Ans 1. 11.71

2. 6.21

3. 10.29

4. 8.92

Question ID : 630680789728
Option 1 ID : 6306803094695
Option 2 ID : 6306803094693
Option 3 ID : 6306803094692
Option 4 ID : 6306803094694
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

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Q.14 A, B, C alone can do a piece of work in 11, 66 and 60 days respectively. They all started
the work together, but A left after 4 days. In how many days, was the remaining work
completed?
Ans 1. 15

2. 17

3. 18

4. 16

Question ID : 630680661596
Option 1 ID : 6306802590329
Option 2 ID : 6306802590327
Option 3 ID : 6306802590328
Option 4 ID : 6306802590326
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q
.
1
5
A 1. 8
n
s
2. 10

3. 9

4. 12

Question ID : 6306806701
Option 1 ID : 6306802624
Option 2 ID : 6306802624
Option 3 ID : 6306802624
Option 4 ID : 6306802624
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.16 The current population of a town is 18750. It increases by 15% and 36% in two
successive years but decreases by 48% in the third year. What is the population of the
town at the end of the third year?
Ans 1. 15246

2. 15242

3. 15247

4. 15249

Question ID : 630680802495
Option 1 ID : 6306803144138
Option 2 ID : 6306803144139
Option 3 ID : 6306803144137
Option 4 ID : 6306803144136
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.17 After two successive discounts, a tie with a list price of ₹255 is available at ₹145. If the
second discount is 7%, what is the first discount percentage? [Give your answer
correct to 2 places of decimal.]
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Question ID : 630680900316
Option 1 ID : 6306803527030
Option 2 ID : 6306803527032
Option 3 ID : 6306803527029
Option 4 ID : 6306803527031
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

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Q.18 5 : 35 :: 8.3 : x and 3 : 24 :: 6 : y. What is the ratio of x to y?


Ans 1. 581 : 480

2. 579 : 481

3. 582 : 478

4. 585 : 490

Question ID : 630680801166
Option 1 ID : 6306803139224
Option 2 ID : 6306803139226
Option 3 ID : 6306803139225
Option 4 ID : 6306803139227
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.19

Ans 1. 296

2. 299

3. 302

4. 293

Question ID : 630680676725
Option 1 ID : 6306802650347
Option 2 ID : 6306802650346
Option 3 ID : 6306802650348
Option 4 ID : 6306802650345
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

Q.20 Five solid cubes, each of volume 216 cm3, are joined end to end to form a cuboid.
What is the lateral surface area (in cm2) of the cuboid?
Ans 1. 432

2. 515

3. 663

4. 240

Question ID : 630680802272
Option 1 ID : 6306803143244
Option 2 ID : 6306803143247
Option 3 ID : 6306803143246
Option 4 ID : 6306803143245
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.21 In a division sum, the divisor is 10 times the quotient and 5 times the remainder. If the
remainder is 46, what is the dividend?
Ans 1. 5636

2. 5663

3. 5336

4. 5633

Question ID : 630680397549
Option 1 ID : 6306801550115
Option 2 ID : 6306801550117
Option 3 ID : 6306801550114
Option 4 ID : 6306801550116
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.22 The radius of a sphere is 26 cm more than the radius of a smaller sphere. The surface
area of the larger sphere is 2288 cm2 more than the surface area of the smaller sphere.
What is the diameter (in cm) of the larger sphere?
Ans 1. 33

2. 35

3. 29

4. 31

Question ID : 630680998329
Option 1 ID : 6306803917219
Option 2 ID : 6306803917221
Option 3 ID : 6306803917222
Option 4 ID : 6306803917220
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

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Q.23 When x is added to each of 28, 39, 21 and 29, then the numbers so obtained, in this
order, are in proportion. Then, if 9x : y :: y : (6x-7), and y > 0, what is the value of y?
Ans 1. 21

2. 27

3. 23

4. 31

Question ID : 630680954570
Option 1 ID : 6306803742488
Option 2 ID : 6306803742489
Option 3 ID : 6306803742490
Option 4 ID : 6306803742491
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.24 When the selling price of a music system is ₹19000, the shopkeeper incurs a loss of
15%. What should be the selling price (in ₹) of that music system so as to gain 15%?
Ans 1. 15786.625

2. 18672.5

3. 18572.5

4. 18772.5

Question ID : 630680633404
Option 1 ID : 6306802479513
Option 2 ID : 6306802479514
Option 3 ID : 6306802479512
Option 4 ID : 6306802479515
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.25 A man spends 38% of his monthly salary (in ₹) on the rent of his house. If every month
he also spends ₹966 on his conveyance and ₹6453 on his grocery and saves the
remaining ₹672, his monthly salary (in ₹) is:
Ans 1. 13114

2. 13070

3. 12952

4. 13050

Question ID : 630680789211
Option 1 ID : 6306803092626
Option 2 ID : 6306803092625
Option 3 ID : 6306803092627
Option 4 ID : 6306803092624
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

Q.26 From a taxi stand, two cabs start at a speed of 38 km/h at an interval of 23 minutes,
both cabs travelling in the same direction. A man coming in the opposite direction
towards the taxi stand meets the cabs at an interval of 20 minutes. Find the speed (in
km/h) of the man.
Ans 1. 9.1

2. 10.7

3. 8.1

4. 5.7

Question ID : 630680936769
Option 1 ID : 6306803671539
Option 2 ID : 6306803671540
Option 3 ID : 6306803671538
Option 4 ID : 6306803671537
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

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Q.27 Which of the following pairs of roots belong to the given quadratic equation?
10x2 + 9x + 2 = 0
Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Question ID : 630680180186
Option 1 ID : 630680698489
Option 2 ID : 630680698491
Option 3 ID : 630680698490
Option 4 ID : 630680698488
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.28

Ans 1. 29 cm

2. 27 cm

3. 25 cm

4. 22 cm

Question ID : 6306801026835
Option 1 ID : 6306804030010
Option 2 ID : 6306804030011
Option 3 ID : 6306804030012
Option 4 ID : 6306804030013
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.29 The cost price of an article is ₹6963. The vendor wants to earn a profit of 10% after
giving a discount of 24%. What is the marked price of the article? [Give your answer
correct to the nearest integer.]
Ans 1. ₹10077

2. ₹10082

3. ₹10078

4. ₹10074

Question ID : 630680796558
Option 1 ID : 6306803121221
Option 2 ID : 6306803121222
Option 3 ID : 6306803121220
Option 4 ID : 6306803121223
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.30 Evaluate

Ans 1. 6

2. 9

3. 8

4. 5

Question ID : 630680704898
Option 1 ID : 6306802761278
Option 2 ID : 6306802761279
Option 3 ID : 6306802761280
Option 4 ID : 6306802761281
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

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Q.31 Solve for a, b and c:

a + 6b + c = 11, 3a− 5b− 3c = 23, 3a + 5b + 4c = 1


Ans 1. a = 5, b = 2, c = −6

2. a = −5, b = 2, c = 6

3. a = −5, b = −2, c = 6

4. a = 5, b = 2, c = 6

Question ID : 630680550005
Option 1 ID : 6306802150281
Option 2 ID : 6306802150280
Option 3 ID : 6306802150282
Option 4 ID : 6306802150283
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.32 A, B and C together finish work in 3 days. If A alone can finish the same work in 18
days and B in 18 days, find how long (in days) will C take to finish twice the same
work?
Ans 1. 10

2. 5.5

3. 9

4. 4.5

Question ID : 630680659894
Option 1 ID : 6306802583520
Option 2 ID : 6306802583521
Option 3 ID : 6306802583518
Option 4 ID : 6306802583519
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.33 If 20% of a number is added to 240, then the result is the same number. 70% of the
same number is:
Ans 1. 210

2. 450

3. 230

4. 315

Question ID : 630680573850
Option 1 ID : 6306802244268
Option 2 ID : 6306802244270
Option 3 ID : 6306802244269
Option 4 ID : 6306802244271
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.34 The greatest number, which divides 2140 and 2041 to leave 94 and 73 respectively as
remainders, is:
Ans 1. 22

2. 6

3. 14

4. 1

Question ID : 630680788749
Option 1 ID : 6306803090778
Option 2 ID : 6306803090776
Option 3 ID : 6306803090779
Option 4 ID : 6306803090777
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Section : Intellectual Potential Test

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Q.1 The following contains two pairs of words which are related to each other in a
certain way. Three of the following four word pairs are alike as these have the
same relationship and thus form a group. Which word pair is the one that does
NOT belong to that group?
(The words must be considered as meaningful English words and must not be related
to each other based on the number of letters/number of consonants/vowels in the
word.)
Ans 1. Linen - Dress

2. Men - Women

3. Wood - Furniture

4. Wool - Sweater

Question ID : 630680616314
Option 1 ID : 6306802411936
Option 2 ID : 6306802411935
Option 3 ID : 6306802411937
Option 4 ID : 6306802411938
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.2 In the following number-pairs, the second number is obtained by applying certain
mathematical operations to the first number. Which numbers should replace X and Y
so that the pattern followed by the two numbers on the left side of :: is the same as
that on the right side of :: ?
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking
down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as
adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1
and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
X : 85 :: 76 : Y
Ans 1. X = 70, Y = 86

2. X = 72, Y = 89

3. X = 68, Y = 90

4. X = 64, Y = 92

Question ID : 630680388983
Option 1 ID : 6306801516397
Option 2 ID : 6306801516396
Option 3 ID : 6306801516394
Option 4 ID : 6306801516395
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.3
Laksh ranked 15th from the top and 44th from the bottom in his class. How many
students are there in his class?

Ans 1. 57

2. 56

3. 58

4. 59

Question ID : 630680908069
Option 1 ID : 6306803557347
Option 2 ID : 6306803557348
Option 3 ID : 6306803557346
Option 4 ID : 6306803557349
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.4 In this question, a statement is followed by four conclusions. Find which conclusion is
true based on the given statements.

Statement:
U≤V>W=X<Y

Conclusion:
I. U >V
II. Y < X
Ans 1. Only conclusion II is true.

2. Only conclusion I is true.

3. Both conclusions I and II are true.

4. Neither conclusion I nor II is true.

Question ID : 630680985812
Option 1 ID : 6306803867360
Option 2 ID : 6306803867359
Option 3 ID : 6306803867358
Option 4 ID : 6306803867357
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

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Q.5 If 1 is added to each odd digit and 1 is subtracted from each even digit in the number
47523816, what will be the sum of the greatest and smallest digits in the new number
thus formed?
Ans 1. 12

2. 8

3. 9

4. 11

Question ID : 630680361308
Option 1 ID : 6306801407080
Option 2 ID : 6306801407078
Option 3 ID : 6306801407079
Option 4 ID : 6306801407077
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.6 Select the triad which follows the same pattern as that followed by the two triads given
below. Both triads follow the same pattern.

SX-MR-PU
GL-AF-DI
Ans 1. MP-GL-JO

2. EJ-YD-BG

3. VA-PU-TX

4. ZE-TY-WA

Question ID : 630680444215
Option 1 ID : 6306801734139
Option 2 ID : 6306801734141
Option 3 ID : 6306801734142
Option 4 ID : 6306801734140
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.7 Jawed starts from Point A and drives 3 km towards North. He then takes a right turn,
drives 4 km, turns left and drives 3 km. He takes a final left turn, drives 4 km and stops
at Point P. How far (shortest distance) and towards which direction should he drive in
order to reach Point A again? (All turns are 90-degree turns only unless otherwise
specified.)
Ans 1. 5 km South

2. 6 km East

3. 6 km South

4. 6 km North

Question ID : 630680574751
Option 1 ID : 6306802247809
Option 2 ID : 6306802247811
Option 3 ID : 6306802247808
Option 4 ID : 6306802247810
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.8 Six people, Tony, John, Alka, Kanak, George and Faiz, are sitting in a straight row,
facing north. Only two people sit to the left of John. Only two people sit between John
and Alka. Kanak is sitting at the fifth position from the right end. Faiz is neither an
immediate neighbour Kanak nor Alka. Tony sits fourth to the right of George.
Who sits at the extreme left end of the row?
Ans 1. Kanak

2. Alka

3. Faiz

4. George

Question ID : 630680520555
Option 1 ID : 6306802034646
Option 2 ID : 6306802034648
Option 3 ID : 6306802034647
Option 4 ID : 6306802034645
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

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Q.9 In a certain code language,


A + B means ‘ A is the father of B’,
A % B means ‘A is the brother of B’,
A * B means ‘A is the mother of B’ and
A− B means ‘A is the wife of B’.
Based on the above information, how is G related to D if 'G * R % A + N− D’?
Ans 1. Wife's father's father

2. Wife's father's mother

3. Wife's father's father's mother

4. Wife's father

Question ID : 630680503056
Option 1 ID : 6306801965811
Option 2 ID : 6306801965810
Option 3 ID : 6306801965812
Option 4 ID : 6306801965809
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.10 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
Statements: All goats are chickens. No chicken is a hen. Some hens are sheep.
Conclusion (I): No goat is a hen.
Conclusion (II): No sheep is a chicken.
Ans 1. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows

2. Only conclusion (I) follows

3. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow

4. Only conclusion (II) follows

Question ID : 630680373630
Option 1 ID : 6306801455793
Option 2 ID : 6306801455791
Option 3 ID : 6306801455794
Option 4 ID : 6306801455792
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.11 Seven boxes A, B, C, D, E, F and G are kept one over the other but not
necessarily in the same order.
Only two boxes are kept below F. Only one box is kept above C. Only one
box is kept between C and E. B is kept immediately above A. D is kept at
some place below G. How many boxes are kept below D?

Ans 1. Five

2. Three

3. Four

4. Two

Question ID : 630680908038
Option 1 ID : 6306803557225
Option 2 ID : 6306803557223
Option 3 ID : 6306803557224
Option 4 ID : 6306803557222
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.12 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statement(s).

Statements:
Some silver are white.
Some silver are black.
No silver is green.

Conclusions:
(I) Some white are black.
(II) No silver is white.
Ans 1. Only conclusion (I) is true.

2. Both conclusions (I) and (II) are true.

3. Only conclusion (II) is true.

4. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) is true.

Question ID : 630680499271
Option 1 ID : 6306801950748
Option 2 ID : 6306801950751
Option 3 ID : 6306801950749
Option 4 ID : 6306801950750
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

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Q.13 In the following number-pairs, the second number is obtained by applying certain
mathematical operations to the first number. Select the set in which the numbers are
related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking


down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as
adding/subtracting/multiplying to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3
and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

15, 230
9, 86
Ans 1. 8, 85

2. 13, 165

3. 6, 41

4. 11, 127

Question ID : 630680799945
Option 1 ID : 6306803134569
Option 2 ID : 6306803134571
Option 3 ID : 6306803134572
Option 4 ID : 6306803134570
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.14 Below are given two sets of numbers. In each set of numbers, a certain mathematical
operation on the first number results in the second number. Similarly, a certain
mathematical operation on the second number results in the third number and so on.
Which of the given options follows the same set of mathematical operations as
followed in the two sets?

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking


down the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as
adding/subtracting/multiplying to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3
and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

19 - 28 - 39 - 52
25 - 34 - 45 - 58
Ans 1. 14 - 23 - 44 - 47

2. 38 - 47 - 58 - 61

3. 27 - 46 - 57 - 70

4. 32 - 41 - 52 - 65

Question ID : 630680619130
Option 1 ID : 6306802422797
Option 2 ID : 6306802422798
Option 3 ID : 6306802422799
Option 4 ID : 6306802422796
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.15 This question is based on the following words.


CAR FRO COW MAN

In each of the words, each vowel is changed to the letter following it in


the English alphabetical order and each consonant is changed to the
letter preceding it in the English alphabetical order. In how many letter-
clusters thus formed, will no vowel appear?
Ans 1. 3

2. 1

3. 2

4. 4

Question ID : 630680909681
Option 1 ID : 6306803563688
Option 2 ID : 6306803563686
Option 3 ID : 6306803563687
Option 4 ID : 6306803563689
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

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Q.16 Three of the following word pairs are alike as they have the same relationship and
hence form a group. Which word pair does NOT belong to that group?
(The words must be considered as meaningful English words and must not be
grouped based on the number of letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word.)
Ans 1. Esoteric - Arcane

2. Placid - Turbulent

3. Salubrious - Wholesome

4. Perspicacious - Astute

Question ID : 630680697404
Option 1 ID : 6306802731703
Option 2 ID : 6306802731701
Option 3 ID : 6306802731702
Option 4 ID : 6306802731704
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.17 Refer to the following number and symbol series and answer the question that follows.
Counting to be done from left to right only.

(Left) & 3 Ω 9 # $ 7 5 1 * £ 2 & % 4 6 @ 8 (Right)

How many such symbols are there each of which is immediately preceded by a
number and also immediately followed by another number?
Ans 1. 3

2. 4

3. 2

4. 5

Question ID : 630680908136
Option 1 ID : 6306803557619
Option 2 ID : 6306803557620
Option 3 ID : 6306803557618
Option 4 ID : 6306803557621
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.18
Komal ranked 12th from the top and 38th from the bottom in her class. How many
students are there in her class?
Ans 1. 50

2. 48

3. 49

4. 47

Question ID : 630680908061
Option 1 ID : 6306803557317
Option 2 ID : 6306803557315
Option 3 ID : 6306803557314
Option 4 ID : 6306803557316
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.19 This question is based on the following words.


GEM HUT CAR FIN

How many letters are there between the second letter of the first word
from the right and the second letter of the first word from the left?
Ans 1. 1

2. 2

3. 4

4. 3

Question ID : 630680909675
Option 1 ID : 6306803563662
Option 2 ID : 6306803563663
Option 3 ID : 6306803563665
Option 4 ID : 6306803563664
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

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Q.20 Select the term that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.
LT6 MP24 OK60 ? VX210
Ans 1. SF125

2. QG120

3. RF120

4. RE120

Question ID : 630680158142
Option 1 ID : 630680612097
Option 2 ID : 630680612099
Option 3 ID : 630680612098
Option 4 ID : 630680612096
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

Q.21 If
‘A @ B’ means ‘A is the mother of B’,
‘A & B’ means ‘A is the brother of B’,
‘A # B’ means ‘A is the wife of B’,
‘A × B’ means ‘A is the father of B’ and
‘A > B’ means ‘A is the sister of B’,
then how is ‘H’ related to ‘M’ in H & I > N × K & L > M?
Ans 1. Mother

2. Father’s sister

3. Father’s father

4. Father’s brother

Question ID : 630680264582
Option 1 ID : 6306801027832
Option 2 ID : 6306801027833
Option 3 ID : 6306801027834
Option 4 ID : 6306801027831
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

Q.22 In a certain code language, ‘FIRE’ is coded as ‘9523’ and ‘ROAD’ is


coded as ‘8142’. What is the code for ‘R’ in the given code language?
Ans 1. 3

2. 8

3. 2

4. 4

Question ID : 630680907979
Option 1 ID : 6306803556987
Option 2 ID : 6306803556989
Option 3 ID : 6306803556986
Option 4 ID : 6306803556988
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.23 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation if ‘+’ and ‘−’
are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?
11 ÷ 7 − 45 × 5 + 28 = ?
Ans 1. 60

2. 58

3. 61

4. 59

Question ID : 630680368582
Option 1 ID : 6306801435748
Option 2 ID : 6306801435747
Option 3 ID : 6306801435746
Option 4 ID : 6306801435745
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

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Q.24 This question is based on the following words.


SOP JAR FOR ILE
If in each of the words, each letter is changed to the next letter in the
English alphabetical order, how many words thus formed will have no
vowel?
Ans 1. 4

2. 1

3. 3

4. 2

Question ID : 630680909685
Option 1 ID : 6306803563705
Option 2 ID : 6306803563702
Option 3 ID : 6306803563704
Option 4 ID : 6306803563703
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.25 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

512 492 467 437 402 ?


Ans 1. 374

2. 389

3. 347

4. 362

Question ID : 630680510726
Option 1 ID : 6306801996034
Option 2 ID : 6306801996035
Option 3 ID : 6306801996037
Option 4 ID : 6306801996036
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

Q.26 Seven people, A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting in a straight line, facing north. Only one
person sits to the right of D. Only three people sit between D and F. C sits to the
immediate right of F. No one sits to the left of G. E sits third to the right of A. Who sits
to the immediate right of A?
Ans 1. F

2. B

3. D

4. G

Question ID : 630680335635
Option 1 ID : 6306801305434
Option 2 ID : 6306801305436
Option 3 ID : 6306801305433
Option 4 ID : 6306801305435
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.27 Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark
(?) in the following series.

11, 17, 29, 47, 71, ?


Ans 1. 81

2. 97

3. 101

4. 91

Question ID : 630680411219
Option 1 ID : 6306801603633
Option 2 ID : 6306801603635
Option 3 ID : 6306801603632
Option 4 ID : 6306801603634
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

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Q.28 Seven people A, B, C, D, P, Q and R are sitting around a circular table, facing the
centre. C is sitting to the immediate right of A. B is sitting third to the right of C. R is an
immediate neighbour of neither B nor A. D is not an immediate neighbour of B. Q is
not an immediate neighbour of D. Who is sitting fourth to the right of R?
Ans 1. A

2. D

3. P

4. Q

Question ID : 630680341550
Option 1 ID : 6306801328635
Option 2 ID : 6306801328636
Option 3 ID : 6306801328633
Option 4 ID : 6306801328634
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.29 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the
English alphabetical order?

DGC HKG LOK PSO ?

Ans 1. TSW

2. TWS

3. WTS

4. WST

Question ID : 630680435768
Option 1 ID : 6306801700982
Option 2 ID : 6306801700981
Option 3 ID : 6306801700984
Option 4 ID : 6306801700983
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.30 Which of the following letter-clusters should replace # and % so that the pattern and
relationship followed between the letter-cluster pair on the left side of :: is the same as
that on the right side of ::?

# : RQM :: SRN : %
Ans 1. # = TSO, % = QOM

2. # = TSN, % = POK

3. # = TSO, % = QPL

4. # = TUQ, % = QPL

Question ID : 630680811015
Option 1 ID : 6306803177490
Option 2 ID : 6306803177492
Option 3 ID : 6306803177489
Option 4 ID : 6306803177491
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.31 In a certain code language, ‘BALE’ is coded as ‘1384’ and ‘SLIM’ is


coded as ‘2947’. What is the code for ‘L’ in the given code language?
Ans 1. 2

2. 4

3. 8

4. 9

Question ID : 630680907999
Option 1 ID : 6306803557067
Option 2 ID : 6306803557066
Option 3 ID : 6306803557068
Option 4 ID : 6306803557069
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

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Q.32 If ‘P’ stands for ‘×’, ‘Q’ stands for ‘÷’, ‘R’ stands for ‘−’ and ‘S’ stands for ‘+’, what will
come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation?
(93 S 6) Q 11 R (12 P 2) S (13 P 3) = ?
Ans 1. 32

2. 24

3. 18

4. 38

Question ID : 630680340874
Option 1 ID : 6306801325939
Option 2 ID : 6306801325938
Option 3 ID : 6306801325937
Option 4 ID : 6306801325940
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.33 Three of the following word-pairs are alike in some manner and thus form a group.
Which word pair does not belong to that group?
Ans 1. Chef-Recipe

2. Author-Book

3. Pilot-Airport

4. Painter-Painting

Question ID : 630680482444
Option 1 ID : 6306801884255
Option 2 ID : 6306801884253
Option 3 ID : 6306801884254
Option 4 ID : 6306801884252
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.34 A statement is followed by two conclusions. Identify which of the given conclusion(s)
is/are true based on the given statement.
Statement: P ≥ M < H = A < R
Conclusions:
I. P < R
II. H ≤ R
Ans 1. Only conclusion II is true

2. Only conclusion I is true

3. Neither conclusion I nor II is true

4. Both conclusion I and II are true

Question ID : 630680418988
Option 1 ID : 6306801634665
Option 2 ID : 6306801634666
Option 3 ID : 6306801634663
Option 4 ID : 6306801634664
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Section : Domain Knowledge

Q.1 What is the DISADVANTAGE of the electrodynamometer instruments?


Ans 1. Less expensive than PMMC

2. Low torque/weight ratio

3. Low friction losses

4. High sensitivity

Question ID : 63068079520
Option 1 ID : 630680308119
Option 2 ID : 630680308117
Option 3 ID : 630680308120
Option 4 ID : 630680308118
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

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Q.2 Which type of bridge is used to measure self-inductance in terms of mutual


inductance?
Ans 1. Carey Foster bridge

2. Hay’s bridge

3. Campbell’s modification of Heaviside bridge

4. Maxwell’s inductance bridge

Question ID : 630680104245
Option 1 ID : 630680405195
Option 2 ID : 630680405196
Option 3 ID : 630680405197
Option 4 ID : 630680405198
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.3 The swing equation of synchronous machine:


Ans 1. analyses the friction and windage loss

2. determines steady state stabilty

3. describes the rotor dynamics of synchronous machine

4. is a linear second order differential equation

Question ID : 6306801023166
Option 1 ID : 6306804015679
Option 2 ID : 6306804015680
Option 3 ID : 6306804015677
Option 4 ID : 6306804015678
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.4

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Question ID : 630680117129
Option 1 ID : 630680453805
Option 2 ID : 630680453803
Option 3 ID : 630680453804
Option 4 ID : 630680453802
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

Q.5 The per unit value of any quantity is defined as:


Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Question ID : 6306801023231
Option 1 ID : 6306804015939
Option 2 ID : 6306804015940
Option 3 ID : 6306804015937
Option 4 ID : 6306804015938
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

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Q.6 When is the comparator output high in sinusoidal pulse modulation (sin M)?
Ans 1. When the reference signal has magnitude lower than the carrier signal

2. When the reference signal has magnitude equal to the carrier signal

3. When the reference signal has magnitude higher than the carrier signal

4. When the reference signal has magnitude not equal to the carrier signal

Question ID : 630680117292
Option 1 ID : 630680454454
Option 2 ID : 630680454456
Option 3 ID : 630680454455
Option 4 ID : 630680454457
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.7

Ans 1. 50(e-5t − et)u(t) V

2. 40(e-t − e-5t)u(t) V

3. 40(et − e5t)u(t) V

4. 50(e-t − e-5t)u(t) V

Question ID : 630680117086
Option 1 ID : 630680453632
Option 2 ID : 630680453631
Option 3 ID : 630680453633
Option 4 ID : 630680453630
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.8 What will be the transfer function of the network shown in the figure given below?

Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Question ID : 6306801022664
Option 1 ID : 6306804013676
Option 2 ID : 6306804013677
Option 3 ID : 6306804013678
Option 4 ID : 6306804013679
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

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Q.9 A single phase full bridge inverter has Resistive load of R = 100 Ω and DC voltage of
100 V. Calculate the peak inverse voltage of SCR.
Ans 1. 100 V

2. 80 V

3. 200 V

4. 110 V

Question ID : 63068093449
Option 1 ID : 630680362492
Option 2 ID : 630680362491
Option 3 ID : 630680362494
Option 4 ID : 630680362493
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.10

Ans 1. 16.4 H

2. 15 H

3. 15.6 H

4. 16 H

Question ID : 630680117091
Option 1 ID : 630680453653
Option 2 ID : 630680453650
Option 3 ID : 630680453651
Option 4 ID : 630680453652
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.11 Which of the following is determined by the slip test?


Ans 1. q-axis reactance

2. Both, q-axis and d-axis reactance

3. d-axis reactance

4. Armature resistance

Question ID : 630680145055
Option 1 ID : 630680561202
Option 2 ID : 630680561204
Option 3 ID : 630680561203
Option 4 ID : 630680561205
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.12 What is the output voltage of a single-phase half bridge and full bridge inverter?
Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Question ID : 630680185400
Option 1 ID : 630680718549
Option 2 ID : 630680718551
Option 3 ID : 630680718552
Option 4 ID : 630680718550
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

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Q.13

Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Question ID : 630680147293
Option 1 ID : 630680569965
Option 2 ID : 630680569963
Option 3 ID : 630680569964
Option 4 ID : 630680569962
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.14 What is the value of the minimum steady state output current in step down chopper
when Vs = 220 V and chopper is connected to RLE load where R = 1 Ω, E = 24 V and L
= 5 mH and total chopping time is 2000 μs and ON time is 600 μs?
Ans 1. 54 A

2. 15.10 A

3. 0 A

4. 51.46 A

Question ID : 630680185357
Option 1 ID : 630680718377
Option 2 ID : 630680718378
Option 3 ID : 630680718379
Option 4 ID : 630680718380
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.15 Which error is indicated zero error in instrument?


Ans 1. Systematic error

2. Gross error

3. Random error

4. Indefinite error

Question ID : 630680119884
Option 1 ID : 630680464603
Option 2 ID : 630680464602
Option 3 ID : 630680464604
Option 4 ID : 630680464605
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.16 What are the errors when measuring power by single phase induction energy meter in
two circuits, the pressure coil lags the voltage by 88° and power factors of unity and
0.5 lagging are respectively?
Ans 1. –7.1%, – 6.1%

2. –0.071%, + 6.1%

3. 0.061%, – 5.1%

4. –0.061%, – 6.1%

Question ID : 630680119898
Option 1 ID : 630680464661
Option 2 ID : 630680464658
Option 3 ID : 630680464659
Option 4 ID : 630680464660
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

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Q.17 A DC series motor is rated 230V,1000rpm,80A. The series field resistance is 0.11Ω and
the armature resistance is 0.14Ω. If the flux at armature current of 20A is 0.4 times of
that under rated condition, calculate the speed at this reduced armature current of
20A.
Ans 1. 2678 rpm

2. 3.733 rpm

3. 428.57 rpm

4. 2333.33 rpm

Question ID : 630680403181
Option 1 ID : 6306801572246
Option 2 ID : 6306801572248
Option 3 ID : 6306801572245
Option 4 ID : 6306801572247
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.18

Ans 1. Damping torque and accelerating torque

2. Accelerating torque and friction torque

3. Accelerating torque and damping torque

4. Damping torque and friction torque

Question ID : 63068061769
Option 1 ID : 630680238395
Option 2 ID : 630680238396
Option 3 ID : 630680238394
Option 4 ID : 630680238397
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.19 Zero sequence current will NOT flow in:


Ans 1. three phase to ground fault

2. line to line fault

3. double line to ground fault

4. single line to ground fault

Question ID : 6306801023210
Option 1 ID : 6306804015856
Option 2 ID : 6306804015853
Option 3 ID : 6306804015854
Option 4 ID : 6306804015855
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.20 An RC series circuit has resistance of 100 Ω and capacitive reactance of 100 Ω. The
phase difference between the voltage and current in the circuit will be:
Ans 1. current will lag the voltage by 45°

2. current will lag the voltage by 90°

3. current will lead the voltage by 90°

4. current will lead the voltage by 45°

Question ID : 6306801022546
Option 1 ID : 6306804013211
Option 2 ID : 6306804013209
Option 3 ID : 6306804013208
Option 4 ID : 6306804013210
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

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Q.21 Full load regulation of a single-phase transformer found using short circuit test data
gave a negative value. What is the power factor of the load considered for the
calculation?
Ans 1. May be lagging or leading

2. Leading

3. Lagging

4. Unity

Question ID : 630680146460
Option 1 ID : 630680566725
Option 2 ID : 630680566722
Option 3 ID : 630680566723
Option 4 ID : 630680566724
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.22 A 2200 V/110 V, 50 Hz, single-phase transformer has an equivalent resistance of 0.02
pu and equivalent reactance of 0.08 pu. What will be its full load regulation percentage
when supplying a load of 0.8 power factor leading?
Ans 1. -3.2%

2. 6.4%

3. -5.2%

4. 7.6%

Question ID : 63068061744
Option 1 ID : 630680238294
Option 2 ID : 630680238295
Option 3 ID : 630680238297
Option 4 ID : 630680238296
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.23 What is the primary purpose of a synchronous condenser in a power


system?
Ans 1. To absorb both real and reactive power from the grid

2. To supply real power to the grid


3. To operate as a generator for supplying real power
4. To adjust voltage and control reactive power by varying its excitation

Question ID : 6306801022920
Option 1 ID : 6306804014700
Option 2 ID : 6306804014698
Option 3 ID : 6306804014701
Option 4 ID : 6306804014699
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

Q.24 What is the maximum possible VA rating of an autotransformer derived from a two-
winding transformer of rating 200 VA, 240 V/120 V?
Ans 1. 216 VA

2. 600 VA

3. 360 VA

4. 720 VA

Question ID : 63068061755
Option 1 ID : 630680238339
Option 2 ID : 630680238338
Option 3 ID : 630680238340
Option 4 ID : 630680238341
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.25 An 89 μC point charge is located at the origin. Calculate the electric flux passing
through the plane z = 3 m.
Ans 1. 44.5 μC

2. 0 μC

3. 47 μC

4. 178 μC

Question ID : 630680147299
Option 1 ID : 630680569988
Option 2 ID : 630680569989
Option 3 ID : 630680569987
Option 4 ID : 630680569986
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

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Q.26 A charge located at point p (4,60⁰,1) is said to be in ____ coordinate system.


Ans 1. space

2. spherical

3. cylindrical

4. cartesian

Question ID : 63068063785
Option 1 ID : 630680246231
Option 2 ID : 630680246232
Option 3 ID : 630680246230
Option 4 ID : 630680246233
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.27 Which of the following best describes the role of conductance G in a


transmission line?
Ans 1. Conductance G mainly influences the reactive power distribution
along the transmission line.
2. Conductance G represents the efficiency of power transmission by
reducing line losses.
3. Conductance G is responsible for the leakage current between the
transmission line conductors due to imperfect insulation.
4. Conductance G directly determines the line's ability to handle high-
frequency signals.

Question ID : 6306801023021
Option 1 ID : 6306804015111
Option 2 ID : 6306804015109
Option 3 ID : 6306804015110
Option 4 ID : 6306804015112
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.28 Gauss siedal method of load flow undergoes ______________ convergence.


Ans 1. geometric

2. linear

3. non linear

4. quadratic

Question ID : 6306801023224
Option 1 ID : 6306804015911
Option 2 ID : 6306804015909
Option 3 ID : 6306804015912
Option 4 ID : 6306804015910
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.29 All day efficiency is defined based on which of the following parameters?
Ans 1. Current

2. Power

3. Energy

4. Voltage

Question ID : 630680146464
Option 1 ID : 630680566741
Option 2 ID : 630680566739
Option 3 ID : 630680566738
Option 4 ID : 630680566740
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

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Q.30 Which of the following is correct for the electric field created by a long line of charge
at a point away from the line?
Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Question ID : 63068061882
Option 1 ID : 630680238849
Option 2 ID : 630680238846
Option 3 ID : 630680238847
Option 4 ID : 630680238848
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.31 A 400 V/100 V, 20 KVA, two-winding transformer is employed as an autotransformer to


supply a 400 V circuit from a 500 V source. As a two-winding transformer at rated load
with unity power factor, its efficiency is 0.95. What is its percentage efficiency as an
autotransformer?
Ans 1. 95%

2. 96.8%

3. 98.96%

4. 94.8%

Question ID : 63068061756
Option 1 ID : 630680238344
Option 2 ID : 630680238343
Option 3 ID : 630680238342
Option 4 ID : 630680238345
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.32 Find the field intensity at (6, 8, 3) m if ρL =20 nC/m lies along the z-axis.
Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Question ID : 63068061880
Option 1 ID : 630680238838
Option 2 ID : 630680238841
Option 3 ID : 630680238839
Option 4 ID : 630680238840
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.33 In the modified McMurray half bridge inverter, the value of resistance which provides
damping Rd = ?

Ans 1. VCL

2. 2LC

3. LC

4. 1LC

Question ID : 630680117288
Option 1 ID : 630680454440
Option 2 ID : 630680454439
Option 3 ID : 630680454441
Option 4 ID : 630680454438
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

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Q.34

Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Question ID : 630680117125
Option 1 ID : 630680453788
Option 2 ID : 630680453789
Option 3 ID : 630680453786
Option 4 ID : 630680453787
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q
.
3
5

A 1. 250 and 300


n
s
2. 350 and 200

3. 325 and 225

4. 200 and 350

Question
Option 1
Option 2
Option 3
Option 4
Sta
Chosen Op

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Q.36

Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Question ID : 630680117126
Option 1 ID : 630680453793
Option 2 ID : 630680453791
Option 3 ID : 630680453792
Option 4 ID : 630680453790
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.37 In which method of control of AC output, the method does not produce harmonics at
low output voltage levels?
Ans 1. Pulse width modulation

2. AC voltage control

3. DC output control

4. Multiple pulse modulation

Question ID : 630680134249
Option 1 ID : 630680519859
Option 2 ID : 630680519858
Option 3 ID : 630680519861
Option 4 ID : 630680519860
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.38 An autotransformer has a power input of 24 kW. If the turn ratio is 3, then, the
inductively and conductively transferred powers, respectively, are:
Ans 1. 12 kW and 12 kW

2. 18 kW and 6 kW

3. 8 kW and 16 kW

4. 16 kW and 8 kW

Question ID : 630680146462
Option 1 ID : 630680566732
Option 2 ID : 630680566733
Option 3 ID : 630680566731
Option 4 ID : 630680566730
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

Q.39 The ramp type DVM uses ___________________.


Ans 1. time measurement based linear ramp strategy

2. time measurement based non-linear ramp strategy

3. voltage measurement based linear ramp strategy

4. voltage measurement based non-linear ramp strategy

Question ID : 630680112456
Option 1 ID : 630680435520
Option 2 ID : 630680435521
Option 3 ID : 630680435518
Option 4 ID : 630680435519
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

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Q.40 The electric flux density in free space, if the electric field intensity is 2 V/m is
________.
Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Question ID : 630680136191
Option 1 ID : 630680527443
Option 2 ID : 630680527442
Option 3 ID : 630680527445
Option 4 ID : 630680527444
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.41 The electric potential at a distance of 3 cm from 2nC is____.


Ans 1. 300V

2. 600V

3. 700V

4. 200V

Question ID : 63068063789
Option 1 ID : 630680246247
Option 2 ID : 630680246248
Option 3 ID : 630680246249
Option 4 ID : 630680246246
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.42

Ans 1. 4775 N-m

2. 14331 N-m

3. 5584 N-m

4. 16753 N-m

Question ID : 63068081371
Option 1 ID : 630680315517
Option 2 ID : 630680315516
Option 3 ID : 630680315519
Option 4 ID : 630680315518
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.43 During which time period does the load current flow from source side in series
inverter?
Ans 1. Negative cycle

2. Positive cycle

3. Half of the positive and half of the negative cycle

4. Both positive and negative cycle

Question ID : 630680120840
Option 1 ID : 630680468335
Option 2 ID : 630680468334
Option 3 ID : 630680468337
Option 4 ID : 630680468336
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

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Q.44

Ans 1. 1 A

2. 0.5 A

3. 1.5 A

4. 2 A

Question ID : 630680117079
Option 1 ID : 630680453602
Option 2 ID : 630680453604
Option 3 ID : 630680453603
Option 4 ID : 630680453605
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.45 For type A Chopper with RLE load , supply voltage = 220V, R = 1Ω, E = 24 V and L is
very large for continuous conduction. Calculate load current for duty ratio of 0.3.
Ans 1. 100 A

2. 42 A

3. 82 A

4. 63 A

Question ID : 63068093446
Option 1 ID : 630680362482
Option 2 ID : 630680362481
Option 3 ID : 630680362479
Option 4 ID : 630680362480
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.46 A set of independent current measurements taken by four observers was recorded as
107.02 mA, 107.11 mA, 107.08 mA and 107.03 mA. The value of arithmetic mean is
_____.
Ans 1. 107.08 mA

2. 107.06 mA

3. 107.04 mA

4. 107.02 mA

Question ID : 63068094542
Option 1 ID : 630680366866
Option 2 ID : 630680366865
Option 3 ID : 630680366864
Option 4 ID : 630680366863
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

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Q.47 Which of the following options represents the curl of H cylindrical coordinate system?
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Question ID : 630680140158
Option 1 ID : 630680542467
Option 2 ID : 630680542466
Option 3 ID : 630680542469
Option 4 ID : 630680542468
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.48 The voltage coil in a wattmeter has ________________.


Ans 1. inductance, resistance and capacitance

2. inductance and resistance

3. inductance and capacitance

4. inductance only

Question ID : 63068079522
Option 1 ID : 630680308128
Option 2 ID : 630680308127
Option 3 ID : 630680308126
Option 4 ID : 630680308125
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.49 The SI unit of meter constant of a single phase energy meter is ___________.
Ans 1. Amps/kWh

2. Revolutions/kWh

3. kW/kWh

4. Volts/kW

Question ID : 63068079510
Option 1 ID : 630680308078
Option 2 ID : 630680308079
Option 3 ID : 630680308080
Option 4 ID : 630680308077
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.50 The ratio of the error to the specified magnitude of a quantity is defined as:
Ans 1. limiting error

2. relative error

3. inherent error

4. guarantee error

Question ID : 630680120746
Option 1 ID : 630680467958
Option 2 ID : 630680467960
Option 3 ID : 630680467961
Option 4 ID : 630680467959
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

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Q.51 What are primary constraints in power systems, and what is another term used to
describe them?
Ans 1. They are constraints related to equipment limitations and are also referred to as
economic constraints.
2. They arise from the necessity to balance load demand and generation and are also
called equality constraints.
3. They are constraints related to economic factors and are also known as inequality
constraints.
4. They refer to the maximum allowable power transfer and are known as thermal
constraints.

Question ID : 6306801023124
Option 1 ID : 6306804015507
Option 2 ID : 6306804015506
Option 3 ID : 6306804015505
Option 4 ID : 6306804015508
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.52 Which of the following is NOT a voltage control method in power system?
Ans 1. Shunt capacitor

2. Voltage regulation

3. Series capacitor

4. Tap changing transformer

Question ID : 6306801023177
Option 1 ID : 6306804015722
Option 2 ID : 6306804015724
Option 3 ID : 6306804015723
Option 4 ID : 6306804015721
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.53 Modulation index (M) is defined as:


Ans 1. the summation of the amplitude of rectangular reference signal and the amplitude of
triangular carrier wave
2. the product of the amplitude of rectangular reference signal and the amplitude of
triangular carrier wave
3. the ratio of the amplitude of triangular carrier wave to the amplitude of rectangular
reference signal
4. the ratio of the amplitude of rectangular reference signal to the amplitude of
triangular carrier wave

Question ID : 630680121080
Option 1 ID : 630680469285
Option 2 ID : 630680469282
Option 3 ID : 630680469284
Option 4 ID : 630680469283
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

Q.54 Which variables are specified by slack bus in load flow studies?
Ans 1. |V|, P

2. |V|, δ

3. P, Q

4. Q , δ

Question ID : 6306801023218
Option 1 ID : 6306804015885
Option 2 ID : 6306804015887
Option 3 ID : 6306804015886
Option 4 ID : 6306804015888
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.55 If a transformer is operating with a rated voltage and at a variable frequency, which of
the following loss can be considered as a variable loss when supplying a fixed load?
Ans 1. Hysteresis loss only

2. Hysteresis and eddy current loss

3. Copper loss only

4. Eddy current loss only

Question ID : 63068061745
Option 1 ID : 630680238299
Option 2 ID : 630680238298
Option 3 ID : 630680238300
Option 4 ID : 630680238301
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

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Q.56

Ans 1. 500az mA/m

2. 400az mA/m

3. 300az mA/m

4. 600az mA/m

Question ID : 630680206840
Option 1 ID : 630680801961
Option 2 ID : 630680801960
Option 3 ID : 630680801959
Option 4 ID : 630680801962
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.57 In a power system, the slack bus (or swing bus) is a special type of bus
where the voltage magnitude and phase angle are specified. What is the
primary function of the slack bus in power system analysis?
Ans 1. It specifies the real power (P) and reactive power (Q) while the voltage
magnitude and phase angle are calculated.
2. It specifies the voltage magnitude and phase angle and adjusts its real
and reactive power output to balance the system.
3. It specifies the voltage magnitude and phase angle and does not
contribute to the real and reactive power balance.
4. It maintains the voltage magnitude and phase angle while the real and
reactive power are calculated based on the load.

Question ID : 6306801022688
Option 1 ID : 6306804013772
Option 2 ID : 6306804013773
Option 3 ID : 6306804013774
Option 4 ID : 6306804013775
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.58 What is Bipolar Pulse Width Modulation?


Ans 1. Voltage switches between two levels -Vd and Vd

2. Two polar modulation

3. Voltage switched two or more levels of voltage

4. Modulation on positive polar side

Question ID : 630680120838
Option 1 ID : 630680468328
Option 2 ID : 630680468326
Option 3 ID : 630680468327
Option 4 ID : 630680468329
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.59 What do you mean by the multiphase chopper may be operated in phase operation
mode?
How a multiphase chopper may be operated in phase operation mode?
Ans 1. All the parallel connected choppers are ON and OFF at different times.

2. All the parallel connected choppers are ON and OFF at the same time.

3. All the series connected choppers are ON and OFF at the same time.

4. All the series connected choppers are ON and OFF at different times.

Question ID : 630680120833
Option 1 ID : 630680468309
Option 2 ID : 630680468307
Option 3 ID : 630680468306
Option 4 ID : 630680468308
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

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Q.60 In the single phase induction type energy meter, the creeping is because of
____________.
Ans 1. overvoltage across voltage coil

2. temperature increase

3. incorrect position of brake magnet

4. vibration in the instrument

Question ID : 630680131843
Option 1 ID : 630680510584
Option 2 ID : 630680510585
Option 3 ID : 630680510582
Option 4 ID : 630680510583
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.61 The intercept of the plot of core loss per cycle of a single-phase transformer against
the frequency is found to be 0.5 and the slope of the plot is calculated to be 0.005.
What are the hysteresis and eddy current losses, respectively, at 60 Hz?
Ans 1. 30 W and 9 W

2. 30 W and 18 W

3. 15 W and 9 W

4. 18 W and 30 W

Question ID : 63068061747
Option 1 ID : 630680238308
Option 2 ID : 630680238306
Option 3 ID : 630680238309
Option 4 ID : 630680238307
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.62

Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Question ID : 630680117078
Option 1 ID : 630680453600
Option 2 ID : 630680453601
Option 3 ID : 630680453599
Option 4 ID : 630680453598
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.63

Ans 1. 64.36 W

2. 48.26 W

3. 60.06 W

4. 52.48 W

Question ID : 630680117089
Option 1 ID : 630680453644
Option 2 ID : 630680453642
Option 3 ID : 630680453645
Option 4 ID : 630680453643
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

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Q.64 Which of the following options defines ‘dead time’?


Ans 1. The time when there is the largest change in input quantity for which there is no
output
2. The time before which an instrument starts to respond after the output has been
changed
3. The gradual shift in the induction over a period of time wherein the input variable
does not change
4. The time below which no output change can be detected when the instrument input is
increased gradually from zero to some minimum value

Question ID : 630680133503
Option 1 ID : 630680516987
Option 2 ID : 630680516986
Option 3 ID : 630680516989
Option 4 ID : 630680516988
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.65

Ans 1. 0.7 az

2. 0.5 ay

3. 0.5 az

4. 0.7 ax

Question ID : 630680140121
Option 1 ID : 630680542337
Option 2 ID : 630680542335
Option 3 ID : 630680542336
Option 4 ID : 630680542334
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.66 Which of the following does NOT affect the magnitude of the induced
EMF in a coil?
Ans 1. The temperature of the coil
2. The strength of the magnetic field
3. The rate of change of magnetic flux
4. The number of turns in the coil

Question ID : 6306801001381
Option 1 ID : 6306803929680
Option 2 ID : 6306803929681
Option 3 ID : 6306803929679
Option 4 ID : 6306803929682
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.67 What is the work of a large capacitor connected to a DC bus in a voltage source
inverter?
Ans 1. It provides a low impedance path on the high frequency component in a DC link
current.
2. It protects against thyristor failure.

3. It makes a constant voltage DC link.

4. It minimises the current ripple during high frequency.

Question ID : 630680120835
Option 1 ID : 630680468314
Option 2 ID : 630680468317
Option 3 ID : 630680468316
Option 4 ID : 630680468315
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.68 A fully transposed transmission line has:


Ans 1. equal positive and negative sequence impedances

2. equal negative and zero sequence impedances

3. positive sequence impedances of zero always

4. equal positive and zero sequence impedances

Question ID : 6306801023238
Option 1 ID : 6306804015965
Option 2 ID : 6306804015967
Option 3 ID : 6306804015968
Option 4 ID : 6306804015966
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

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Q.69 The values to be measured should NOT lie in:


Ans 1. one-fourth of the range

2. the lower third of the range

3. the higher third of the range

4. half of the range

Question ID : 630680120750
Option 1 ID : 630680467977
Option 2 ID : 630680467974
Option 3 ID : 630680467976
Option 4 ID : 630680467975
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.70 Find the total charge in a sphere if the radius of the sphere is 2 cm and volume charge
density is of ρV=cos2ϴ.
Ans 1. 15.19 C

2. 26.98 C

3. 32.55 C

4. 11.17 C

Question ID : 63068061886
Option 1 ID : 630680238863
Option 2 ID : 630680238864
Option 3 ID : 630680238865
Option 4 ID : 630680238862
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.71

Ans 1. Ra = 12 Ω, Rb = 12 Ω, Rc = 9 Ω

2. Ra = 9 Ω, Rb = 12 Ω, Rc = 12 Ω

3. Ra = 12 Ω, Rb = 9 Ω, Rc = 12 Ω

4. Ra = 12 Ω, Rb = 12 Ω, Rc = 12 Ω

Question ID : 630680117082
Option 1 ID : 630680453616
Option 2 ID : 630680453614
Option 3 ID : 630680453617
Option 4 ID : 630680453615
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.72 The power input to a 20 kVA, 50 Hz, single-phase transformer is found to be 810 W
under a no-load condition. When loaded to about 50% of its rated load, the power input
was found to be 250 W. At what output its efficiency will be maximum?
Ans 1. 20 kVA

2. 18 kVA

3. 10 kVA

4. 12 kVA

Question ID : 63068061750
Option 1 ID : 630680238319
Option 2 ID : 630680238318
Option 3 ID : 630680238321
Option 4 ID : 630680238320
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

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Q
.
7
3

A 1.
n
s

2.

3.

4.

Question ID : 6306801023181
Option 1 ID : 6306804015740
Option 2 ID : 6306804015737
Option 3 ID : 6306804015738
Option 4 ID : 6306804015739
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.74 Which of the following statements accurately describes the role and impact of electric
power in modern society?
Ans 1. The use of electric power is limited to industrial applications and does not impact the
daily comfort or safety of the general population.
2. Economic circumstances do not influence the development and use of electric power
in a country.
3. Electric power is influenced by history, tradition and economic circumstances and is
essential for industrial development and public convenience.
4. Electric power development is primarily driven by technological advancements and is
not significantly affected by historical or economic factors.

Question ID : 6306801023164
Option 1 ID : 6306804015671
Option 2 ID : 6306804015672
Option 3 ID : 6306804015669
Option 4 ID : 6306804015670
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.75 How much time is the output power of a full bridge inverter to a half bridge inverter?
Ans 1. Four times

2. One time

3. Two times

4. Three times

Question ID : 630680185363
Option 1 ID : 630680718402
Option 2 ID : 630680718401
Option 3 ID : 630680718404
Option 4 ID : 630680718403
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.76 A 30µC point charge is located at the origin. The electric flux passing through the
portion of the sphere, r=10cm, which is bounded by θ=0 and π, φ=0 and π/2
is________.
Ans 1. 11.67 µC

2. 6.23 µC

3. 7.5 µC

4. 2.16 µC

Question ID : 63068063780
Option 1 ID : 630680246213
Option 2 ID : 630680246211
Option 3 ID : 630680246212
Option 4 ID : 630680246210
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

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Q.77 For a fault in power system, the term 'critical clearing time' is related to:
Ans 1. steady state stability limit

2. relative stability

3. absolute stability

4. transient stability limit

Question ID : 6306801023170
Option 1 ID : 6306804015694
Option 2 ID : 6306804015693
Option 3 ID : 6306804015696
Option 4 ID : 6306804015695
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

Q.78 What is the range of the instrument, if 5% limiting error is produced when the
measured value is 5 A with 1% guaranteed accuracy error of full scale by an
instrument?
Ans 1. 0-50 A

2. 0-35 A

3. 0-100 A

4. 0-25 A

Question ID : 630680104230
Option 1 ID : 630680405136
Option 2 ID : 630680405137
Option 3 ID : 630680405135
Option 4 ID : 630680405138
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

Q.79

Ans 1. 7.5 C/m3

2. 6.89 C/m3

3. 5.78 C/m3

4. 4.34 C/m3

Question ID : 630680136193
Option 1 ID : 630680527453
Option 2 ID : 630680527452
Option 3 ID : 630680527451
Option 4 ID : 630680527450
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.80 In an AC circuit with voltage V, current I, resistance R and impedance Z, the power
factor cosϕ is defined as the ratio of:
Ans 1. cosϕ=V/I​

2. cosϕ=Z/R

3. cosϕ=R/Z

4. cosϕ=I/V​

Question ID : 6306801022347
Option 1 ID : 6306804012427
Option 2 ID : 6306804012426
Option 3 ID : 6306804012425
Option 4 ID : 6306804012424
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

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Q.81 In an RL circuit with a resistor R and inductor L in series, a step voltage V0​is applied
at t=0. What will be the initial current i(0) in the circuit immediately after the step
voltage is applied?
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Question ID : 6306801022425
Option 1 ID : 6306804012724
Option 2 ID : 6306804012725
Option 3 ID : 6306804012726
Option 4 ID : 6306804012727
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.82 How much force can be produced by a charge of 4C in an electric field of 2V/m?
Ans 1. 16 N

2. 2 N

3. 8 N

4. 4 N

Question ID : 63068061885
Option 1 ID : 630680238861
Option 2 ID : 630680238858
Option 3 ID : 630680238860
Option 4 ID : 630680238859
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.83

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Question ID : 630680146537
Option 1 ID : 630680567031
Option 2 ID : 630680567033
Option 3 ID : 630680567032
Option 4 ID : 630680567030
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.84 The deflection of the indicating pointer of an electrodynamometer instrument is


proportional to _____________.
Ans 1. the RMS current flowing through the fixed
coil
2. the square of the current flowing through moving coil and fixed coil

3. the square of the current flowing through the moving coil

4. the mean of the current flowing through the moving coil and fixed coil

Question ID : 630680112460
Option 1 ID : 630680435534
Option 2 ID : 630680435535
Option 3 ID : 630680435537
Option 4 ID : 630680435536
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

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Q.85 Which type of waveform is given by DC chopper in input and output condition?
Ans 1. Continuous, Discontinuous

2. Both continuous

3. Discontinuous, Continuous

4. Both discontinuous

Question ID : 630680119907
Option 1 ID : 630680464697
Option 2 ID : 630680464695
Option 3 ID : 630680464694
Option 4 ID : 630680464696
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

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