Practice Quiz 1. The two-fold goal of marketing is to attract new customers while improving the well-being of society as a whole.

True a. False b. 2. ________ are states of felt deprivation. Wants a. Demands b. Needs c. Satisfactions d. 3. Jamaica may be considered a product. True a. False b. 4. The difference between the values the customer gains from owning and using a product and the cost of obtaining the product is: customer satisfaction. a. relationship marketing. b. needs marketing. c. customer value. d. 5. The aim of total quality management (TQM) is to ensure that products are completely free of defects. True a. False b. 6. A(n) ________ consists of a trade of values between two parties. Exchange a. Relationship b. Transaction c. Payment d. 7. Government agencies constitute markets. True a. False b.

8. The process through which firms revitalize their marketing strategies by adopting creative, unconventional, practices is: formulated marketing. a. entrepreneurial marketing. b. relationship marketing. c. intrepreneurial marketing. d. 9. Through the _________ concept, a firm tries to sell products that offer the highest quality, best features, etc. selling a. marketing b. product c. production d. 10. In today's fragmented marketplace, most firms engage in mass marketing to target as many fragments as possible. True a. False b. 11. Most successful businesses today focus their efforts on building strong ________ with existing customers. relationships a. transactions b. exchanges c. supply chains d. 12. When two companies contract to market their complementary products, they forge a: promotional alliance. a. logistics alliance. b. pricing alliance. c. product alliance. d. 13. Companies that practice the marketing concept adopt ethical and safe business practices before they are forced to by legislation or consumer outcry. True a. False b. 14. ________ are wants driven by purchasing power.

a. b. c. d.

Needs Values Demands Purchases

15. The performance a consumer perceives in a product relative to her expectations is the source of: customer satisfaction. a. customer value. b. customer demand. c. customer need. d. 16. A mission statement should be all of the following except: promotional. a. realistic. b. motivating. c. specific. d. 17. The strategic business-planning grid is attributed to General Motors. True a. False b. 18. The use of indices in the GE approach: allows it to include only market share in its analysis of business strength. a. is limited to industry attractiveness. b. allows it to include a number of factors in its assessment of both industry c. attractiveness and business strength. allows none of the above. d. 19. A business has a 75 percent share of a low-growth industry. According to the Boston Consulting Group growth-share matrix, such a business is a: dog. a. cash cow. b. star. c. question mark. d. 20. A _____ produces a lot of funds that a business uses to pay its bills and support other business areas that need investment. dog a.

b. c. d.

cash cow star question mark

21. Marketing should seek to insure that all business departments think: product. a. profit. b. customer. c. advertising. d. 22. A market segment consists of consumers who: respond differently to a given set of marketing efforts. a. respond in similar ways to a given set of marketing efforts. b. are in the same income bracket. c. have the same level of education. d. 23. The 4 Ps of the marketing mix include: product. a. price. b. promotion. c. all of the above. d. 24. A company that focuses on a small, well-defined segment of the market is pursuing a: market leader strategy. a. market follower strategy. b. market nicher strategy. c. market competitor strategy. d. 25. A company that aggressively attacks competitors to increase its market share is pursuing a: market leader strategy. a. market follower strategy. b. market nicher strategy. c. market challenger strategy. d. 26. If approached from a buyer's perspective, 4 C's of marketing can replace the 4 Ps of the marketing mix. The "C" that would substitute for product is: customer solution. a.

b. c. d.

customer cost. convenience. communication.

27. The "C" that would substitute for promotion is: customer solution. a. customer cost. b. convenience. c. communication. d. 28. The marketing process puts the target customer(s) in the center of all marketing activities. True a. False b. 29. A marketing department can have a: functional organization. a. geographic organization. b. product management organization. c. all of the above. d. 30. The marketing environment: contains both threats and opportunities. a. should not be included in strategic planning. b. is defined by the organization of the marketing department. c. consists of controllable forces. d. 31. The ___________ consists of all the forces close to a company that affect its ability to serve its customers. macroenvironment a. organizational environment b. microenvironment c. marketing environment d. 32. All of the following are publics EXCEPT: reseller publics. a. media publics. b. local publics. c.

d.

internal publics.

33. The study of human populations in terms of size, density, location, and other variables is: Economics. a. Logistics. b. Demography. c. Marketing management. d. 34. __________ consists of roughly 72 million people born from 1977 to 1994. Generation X a. Economic forces b. The Baby Boomer Generation c. Echo Boomers d. 35. Which of the following is NOT a part of the company's macroenvironment? Natural forces a. Economic forces b. Technological innovations c. Marketing intermediaries d. 36. The belief that all people should have equal access to jobs, homes, education, and consumer products would be an example of a(n): secondary belief. a. value. b. core belief. c. ethical belief. d. 37. Through the environmental management perspective, firms strive to manage intelligently their use of nonrenewable resources. True a. False b. 38. When considering its internal environment, a firm might take into account all of the following EXCEPT: the Environmental Protection Agency. a. the Manufacturing Department. b. the Research and Development Department. c.

d.

the Accounting Department.

39. _________ provide the resources that a company needs to produce goods and services. Distributors a. Banks b. Suppliers c. Resellers d. 40. A company that sells products to individuals and households for personal use emphasizes which of the following customer markets? Business markets a. Internal b. Government markets c. Reseller markets d. 41. _________ factors affect the purchasing power and spending patterns of consumers. Cultural a. Internal b. Technological c. Economic d. 42. One trend over the last twenty to thirty years is decreased government regulation of the use of natural resources. True a. False b. 43. After several decades of movement from rural to urban areas, many Americans are now leaving cities for the country. True a. False b. 44. The ______ is all the actors and forces outside marketing that effect a marketer's ability to develop and maintain successful relationships with target customers. microenvironment a. external environment b. marketing environment c. macroenvironment d.

45. A marketer who divides the Baby Boom generation into several smaller age-specific segments is practicing: environmental marketing a. generational marketing b. demographic marketing c. environmental management d.

46. Observational research can involve setting up video cameras to view shopper motions and behavior patterns. True a. False b. 47. Survey research is best suited for causal analysis. True a. False b. 48. __________ is the modern practice of analyzing databases closely for buried information about customers. Data mining a. Data warehousing b. Data searching c. 49. __________ data consist of information collected for the specific purpose or research question at hand. Descriptive a. Primary b. Secondary c. 50. Data have the characteristics of being relatively cheap and quick to obtain. Internal a. Market intelligence b. Primary c. Secondary d. 51. _____ research is the approach best suited for gathering descriptive information. Internal a. Focus group b.

c. d.

Survey Experiment

52. Systematically collecting and analyzing available information about competitors and the marketing environment is called marketing intelligence. True a. False b. 53. If Compaq Computers wants to know how many and what kinds of people or companies will buy its new lightweight super-fast notebook computer, they would probably undertake which of the following? Market information search a. Market intelligence b. Internal company records search c. Marketing research d. 54. The most flexible form of interview is the _________interview. personal a. telephone b. mail c. online d. 55. The type of interview that gives you most control of interviewer effects is the_________ interview. personal a. mail b. telephone c. online d. 56. Which of the following is not a disadvantage of using secondary data? Data may not be current. a. Data's accuracy may not be easily assessed. b. Data may not address the problem squarely. c. Data is usually more expensive than primary data. d. 57. Which of the following is a problem with international marketing research? Translation of questionnaires into another language. a. Lack of reliable secondary data. b.

c. d.

Differences in buying roles and consumer decision-making processes. All of the above.

58. Consumers are less willing to part with personal information today than they were a few years ago. True a. False b. 59. Which of the following is not an example of probability sampling? Simple random sample. a. Judgment sample. b. Stratified random sample. c. Cluster sample. d. 60. Which of the following questions can be more aptly answered by survey research? How would different prices affect the sales of the product? a. How much of the sales increase can be attributed to the new ad campaign? b. How will the new product affect the sales of existing products? c. What percentage of our customers is in the age group 20-30 years? d. 61. The ___________________ are skeptical and they adopt an innovative product only after a majority of people have tried it. early adopters a. early majority b. late majority c. laggards d. 62. When consumers are highly involved in a purchase and perceive significant differences among brands, they engage in: dissonance-reducing buying behavior. a. evaluation. b. complex buying behavior. c. indecision. d. 63. All of the following are types of product adopters except: innovators. a. seekers. b.

c. d.

early adopters. laggards.

64. ____________ is the degree to which a product innovation fits the values and experiences of potential customers. Compatibility a. Divisibility b. Relative advantage c. Complexity d. 65. Social class is determined only by one's income. True a. False b. 66. An aspirational group is one to which a person wishes to belong. True a. False b. 67. Maslow's Theory of Motivation does not apply to consumer decision making. True a. False b. 68. A belief is a person's relatively consistent evaluation of and feelings toward a product or idea. True a. False b. 69. If the _____ living in the U.S. were a separate nation, they would be the twelfth largest economy in the world. African-Americans a. Hispanics b. Asian-Americans c. Pacific Islanders d. 70. Which of the following theories of motivation assumes that people do not fully understand their own motivations? Freud's theory a. Maslow's theory b. 71. Which of the following marketing practices is not typically followed for products relying on

habitual buying behavior? visual imagery and symbols in ads a. high repetition ad campaign of short messages b. use price and sales promotions to stimulate trial c. help consumers learn more about their product d. 72. Lifestyle research measures consumers': activities. a. interests. b. opinions. c. all of the above. d. 73. All of the following are examples of personal sources of information except: family. a. friends. b. neighbors. c. dealers. d. 74. _____ are people who have so many resources that they can indulge in many pursuits. Fulfilleds a. Achievers b. Actualizers c. Experiencers d. 75. When marketing products abroad, firms should work to keep their costs down by not adapting their products to suit specific local needs. True a. False b. 76. You want to start an online bookstore. Because every person effectively constitutes a market, you can target them through mass marketing, offering each customer a product that suits his or her needs. True a. False b. 77. You start a small online bookstore that targets African-Americans in general by offering the full range of African-American literature and books on various black-studies topics. You try to target young male African-Americans, ages 16 to 25, offering selections which address their particular concerns. You are practicing a version of what sort of marketing?

a. b. c. d.

Segment. Local. Niche. Micro.

78. As your business grows, you take advantage of the possibilities of the Internet to track your customers purchases, using that information to offer them specialized reading suggestions. For example, one customer recently purchased a copy of Native Son by Richard Wright. Based on that purchase, your computer offers this customer a list of books he might also like, such as Ralph Ellison's Invisible Man and John Edgar Wideman's Philadelphia Fire. You are using technology to practice: individual marketing. a. mass marketing. b. segment marketing. c. local marketing. d. 79. To market your firms premium ice cream, you begin by selecting the segment of customers aged 18 to 25. By choosing this characteristic, you are emphasizing what type of segmentation? Behavioral. a. Demographic. b. Psychographic. c. Geographic. d. 80. There are 24 million left-handed people in the United States. However, most marketers do not attempt to appeal to or design products for this group because there is little census data about it. This group, therefore, is not a(n) ___________ segment. actionable a. substantial b. differentiable c. measurable d. 81. To market your classical music recordings in Europe, you define as a segment white women aged 40 to 55 who make over $40,000 and live in the wealthiest countriesGermany, France, Britain, the Netherlands, Sweden, and Denmark. By doing so, you are practicing: intermarket segmentation. a. substantial segmentation. b. variable segmentation. c. measurable segmentation. d.

82. Youre the marketing manager for a small firm that produces rock-climbing and mountaineering equipment. You understand that enthusiasts of these sports constitute a relatively small group, so you target them through advertisements in magazines devoted to those sports and a few general outdoor publications. In other words, you try to reach these customers through: concentrated marketing. a. undifferentiated marketing. b. individual marketing. c. differentiated marketing. d. 83. You also understand that these consumers are, in their own way, as fashion-conscious as most other consumer groups. Accordingly, you make sure your ads display a number of styles and a few colors of the same style. In the language of marketing, you take this approach based on your sense of: product life cycle. a. product variability. b. competitors marketing strategy. c. market variability. d. 84. One of your biggest competitors is Patagonia, which offers consumers many of the same types of outdoor wear. You know you cant beat Patagonia on image, so you emphasize the fact that your outdoor clothing provides superior protection from wind and rain for a lower price. You, thus, position your products according to: service differentiation. a. the less-for-much-less proposition. b. the more-for-less proposition. c. product differentiation. d. 85. Dividing a market into groups based on consumer knowledge, attitude, or usage is called psychological segmentation. True a. False b. 86. The most extreme form of micromarketing is: local marketing. a. individual marketing. b. niche marketing. c. none of the above. d.

87. By offering limited variety and service at a low price, Sam's Club is practicing which of the following value propositions? More for Less. a. Less for More. b. More for More. c. Less for Much Less. d. 88. _____ segmentation has long been used for products such as cosmetics, clothing, toiletries, and magazines. Age a. Geographic b. Education c. Gender d. 89. Which of the following value proposition is likely to attract all market segments? Less for Much Less. a. More for More. b. Both of the above. c. None of the above. d. 90. Accessibility refers to the degree to which: segments can be effectively reached and served. a. segments are large enough to be profitable. b. an effective program can be formulated for attracting and serving the segments. c. the size and purchasing power of the segments can be measured. d. 91. A market segment that is large or profitable enough to serve is: measurable. a. substantial. b. actionable. c. differentiable. d.

92. Services are intangible and cannot be inventoried. True a. False b.

93. Youre a marketer for a sporting goods firm. One day, a colleague hands you the latest tennis racket developed by your colleagues in product development with a description of the racket's attributes, quality, and design features. You are holding a(n): core product. a. potential product. b. actual product. c. augmented product. d. 94. To promote this new racket, you give it to tennis professionals affiliated with several prominent clubs. You tell them that by using it, they can represent their clubs to prospective members as being on the cutting edge of the sport. In other words, you suggest that using these rackets can help them with their: place marketing. a. person marketing. b. organization marketing. c. idea marketing. d. 95. When one of these clubs starts selling your rackets and offers 90-day interest-free credit along with a 6-month money back guarantee, it is offering a(n): core product. a. augmented product. b. actual product. c. actual product. d. 96. The actual product consists of the brand name, features, quality level, and packaging. True a. False b. 97. When Honda introduced the more expensive Acura line of cars and Nissan introduced its Infiniti line, these companies were engaging in: downward extension. a. sideward extension. b. upward extension. c. line filling. d. 98. Unwanted products are those items that customers do not know about. True a. False b.

99. _____ consist of activities, benefits, and satisfactions that are intangible. Products a. Services b. Goods c. 100. The promotions that are targeted the most carefully by both producers and resellers are most typical of _____ products. convenience a. specialty b. sought c. shopping d. 101. _____ products are purchased for further processing or for use in operating a business. Industrial a. Mechanical b. Specialty c. Shopping d. 102. Your company's auto manufacturing has traditionally concentrated on family sedans and wagons. However, your competition has been cutting into your sales by exploiting the booming market for SUVs. You respond to this crisis by adding three models of SUV. In the language of marketing, you have countered your rivals by _________ a product line. filling a. stretching b. mixing c. augmenting d. 103. Your SUVs quickly grow popular because your first-rate engineers designed vehicles which, in virtually every case, perform at the level your marketers claim they will. In other words, your SUVs possess high: performance quality. a. brand quality. b. conformance quality. c. extension quality. d. 104. Ads for vacation spots in Michigan or New York are examples of _____ marketing. person a. organization b.

c. d.

place idea

105. Through _________, retailers charge manufacturers to stock their items and place them in prominent positions on shelves. stocking fees a. marketing fees b. slotting fees c. retail fees d. 106. The distinction between a consumer good and an industrial good is based on the purpose for which the product is purchased. True a. False b.

125 An industry characterized by many buyers and sellers trading a homogeneous commodity, where no single buyer or seller has much influence on the going market price, operates in: pure competition. a. monopolistic competition. b. target profit pricing. c. monopoly. d. 126 Through _________ pricing, a firm bases its prices largely on those of its competitors. . sealed-bid a. high-low b. cost-plus c. going-rate d. 127 Firms that compete over a range of prices, rather than a single market price, operate under . conditions of: monopolistic competition. a. government monopoly. b. pure competition. c. demand-curve competition. d. 128 Demand sets a(n):

. a. b. c. d. average price that the company can charge for its product. ceiling to the price that a company can charge for its product. floor to the price that a company can charge for its product. larger return on investment for a company's product.

129 Which pricing method is being used when a firm competes for business and bases its price on . expectations of how competitors will price, rather than in relation to its own costs or demand? Cost-plus pricing. a. Sealed-bid pricing. b. Demand-focused pricing. c. Value-based pricing. d. 130 Before setting price, the company must decide on its strategy for the product. . True a. False b. 131 Nonprofit organizations, like universities, usually aim for partial cost recovery. . True a. False b. 132 Variable costs fluctuate depending on the season or availability of materials. . True a. False b. 134 Accumulated production experience results in lower average costs over time. This is called . the experience curve. True a. False b. 135 Under pure competition, sellers can charge more than the going price if they wish to make . more money. True a. False b. 136 The relationship between the price charged and the resulting quantity demanded is called the

demand curve. True a. False b.

137 Price elasticity is a measure that illustrates how sensitive customers are to changes in prices. . True a. False b. 138 A pricing strategy of _____ seeks to provide the company the largest portion of a particular . market. survival a. current profit maximization b. market share leadership c. product quality leadership d. 139 Costs that differ depending on the level of production are called _____ costs. . fixed a. variable b. average c. partial d. 140 The simplest pricing method is: . cost-plus. a. break-even. b. average cost. c. value-based. d. 141. Setting a high initial price for a new product and then gradually reducing that price, is called: market penetration. a. market skimming. b. product-line pricing. c. functional discounting. d. 142. You run a leather goods company. Your lowest-priced products are simple jackets, handbags, and the like with no fancy stitching or stylish cuts. The next price level includes

products made with softer leather cut to more stylish dimensions. Your most expensive products are all custom-made to the consumers specifications. In terms of price, these features amount to your products: marketing mix. a. pricing points. b. pricing strategy. c. value. d. 143. Youre about to introduce a new mid-priced line of jackets. Because your company is still relatively young, you decide to price this new line such that it can capture a comfortable share of the market as quickly as possible. In other words, for this product line you are adopting a ___________ strategy. market-penetration a. market-skimming b. product-line c. demarketing d. 144. When the customer picks up the cost of shipping, _____ pricing is being used. FOB destination a. FOB origin b. zone c. basing-point d. 145. Offering the same product at different prices to different classes of customers is called _____ pricing. seasonal a. optional-product b. segmented c. penetration d. 146. Companies use captive market pricing to trap people into being lifelong customers. True a. False b. 147. Combining several products and offering them at an attractive price is called product bundle pricing. True a. False b.

148. The owner of a small leather-care firm approaches you about undertaking a joint venture, in which you would sell leather clothing along with six months of free care service. The price of each item would reflect both the cost of the garment and the reduced cost of the care service. In other words, you would price your shared product according to: by-product pricing. a. product-line pricing. b. product-bundle pricing. c. optional product pricing. d. 149. The main shipping point of your company is St. Louis, Missouri. To cover the cost of shipping, you divide the country into several areas based on the distance from your home region. To the cost of your product you add a shipping charge, which varies with the destination's distance from your home region. In other words, you are employing what sort of geographical pricing? FOB-origin. a. Zone. b. Basing-point. c. Uniform-delivered. d. 150. To increase store traffic, you encourage your retailers to offer selected products as loss leaders. By doing so, your retailers would be employing what sort of pricing? International. a. Segmented. b. Promotional. c. Psychological. d. 151. A competitor, angered by your loss-leader strategy, files a complaint against you with the Federal Trade Commission. The complaint alleges that you forced your retailers to sell your products at an unfairly low price. In other words, your competitor has accused you of: price fixing. a. resale price maintenance. b. price confusion. c. predatory pricing. d. 152. A competitor in the distant Pacific-Northwest region tries to take advantage of your weakened position by deeply undercutting your lowest price. You respond by introducing a model you can price low enough to compete with your rivals brand. In other words, youre countering your competitor with: a fighting brand. a. improved quality. b.

c. d.

reduced price of current products. an increase in perceived value.

153. A functional discount is offered to channel members for performing certain functions. True a. False b. 154. The prices buyers have in their minds when looking at a product are called _____ prices. reference a. suggested b. penetration c. skimming d. 155. Psychological pricing uses subliminal messages to get customers to accept a price. True a. False b. 156. Offering add-on accessory items to the main product is called: functional discounting. a. product-line pricing. b. optional product pricing. c. by-product pricing. d. 157. Promotion, contact, and matching are all functions of: the corporate VMS. a. the distribution channel. b. the contractual VMS. c. logistics. d. 158. Developing and spreading persuasive communications about an offer are part of the _____ function performed by channel members. information a. promotion b. contact c. matching d. 159. A channel with no intermediaries is called a(n) _____ channel.

a. b. c. d.

direct indirect incomplete partial

160. Disagreements over goals and roles can generate: role incongruity. a. channel conflict. b. goal incompatibility. c. dysfunctional distribution. d. 161. Multichannel distribution systems are also referred to as _____ marketing channels. combination a. hybrid b. conglomerate c. horizontal d. 162. A major current trend in distribution is: disintermediation a. vertical conflict b. horizontal conflict c. vertical marketing systems d. 163. A retail co-op exists when a wholesaler organizes a voluntary chain of retailers to help them compete with large chain organizations. True a. False b. 164. Through __________, the marketer works to provide superior customer service at a lower cost through teamwork, both within the company and among the members of the distribution channel. intermodal transportation a. vertical distribution b. retailer cooperatives c. integrated logistics management d. 165. _____ distribution is appropriate for low-cost, frequently-purchased items like soft drinks.

a. b. c. d.

Selective Exclusive Intensive Pervasive

166. Your young electronics firm wants to market its line of radio-controlled toys. Before it can assemble a distribution channel, it must: identify the major channel alternatives. a. set channel objectives and constraints. b. evaluate the major channel alternatives. c. determine the needs of the consumers it wants to serve. d. 167. You decide to market your toys in terms of their high quality and performance. Accordingly, you choose to limit the number of retailers that can carry your products and carefully control their marketing efforts. In other words, you will employ: exclusive distribution. a. intensive distribution. b. selective distribution. c. vertical distribution. d. 168. After six months, you evaluate your distribution channel. You find that one of your selected retailers has consistently fallen far short of sales goals. In response, you should: cut the retailer from the channel. a. impose a cash penalty. b. study the situation to find the source of the problem. c. all the above. d. 169. Your brand of radio-controlled toys becomes so strong that youre tempted to allow retailers to carry it only if they agree to carry the rest of your product lines. Finally, you decide against doing so because, according to the Clayton Act of 1914, youd risk prosecution for: full-line forcing. a. exclusive distribution. b. tying agreements. c. exclusive dealing. d. 170. You need to transport meat products from your plant in Chicago to consumers in Texas. First you transport them by train to a port on the Mississippi, where theyre loaded onto river barges. These barges take them down to Baton Rouge, Louisiana, where theyre loaded on trucks bound for destinations throughout Texas. You have moved your products through:

a. b. c. d.

water transportation. intermodal transportation. rail transportation. trucks.

171. To save on your north-south distribution costs, you establish distribution points in Texas, office-warehouses that supply you with continuous information about consumer demand. On the basis of that information, you make decisions regarding what cuts of meat to produce and how often to send them south. In the language of logistics, you are using a(n): continuous inventory replenishment system. a. response-based distribution system. b. just-in-time delivery system. c. integrated-logistics system. d.

172. The promotion mix is the specific blend of short-term incentives to encourage consumers to purchase products. True a. False b. 173. Any paid form of nonpersonal communication is known as: publicity. a. sales promotions. b. advertising. c. personal selling. d. 174. Short-term incentives to buy are called: advertising. a. sales promotions. b. publicity. c. personal selling. d. 175. The first stage of buyer readiness is: awareness. a. knowledge. b. liking. c. preference. d.

176. Which of the following is not part of the AIDA model? Attitude. a. Attention. b. Desire. c. Interest. d. 177. People whose opinions are sought by others are called: market mavens. a. opinion leaders. b. shopping buddies. c. none of the above. d. 178. A "push" strategy pushes the product: onto consumers. a. through distribution channels. b. onto consumers and middlemen. c. none of the above. d. 179. Questions 8 through 15 concern the following scenario. Youre a marketer with Fleet Feet, a producer of aerobic exercise equipment. You want to present your new Vein Popper exercise bike to health club trainers. With this task in mind, answer the following questions. Because these professionals generally keep up with new products, youre certain your audience will already know about the Vein Popper. Your message, you conclude, must raise their positive attitude towards your product in preparation for convincing them to buy it for their clubs. In other words, your message will target this audience to bring them to what buyer-readiness stage? Knowledge. a. Conviction. b. Liking. c. Awareness. d. 180. Refer to the Scenario in question 8 in order to answer the following question. You decide that your message should emphasize the features of the product and how your audiences clients will be delighted by them delight that will make them more loyal health-club members. In other words, your message will employ which of the following appeals? Emotional. a.

b. c. d.

Rational. Moral. Spiritual.

181. Refer to the Scenario in question 8 in order to answer the following question. Your presentation consists of a talk with a slide presentation. Near the end, the bulb of the projector goes out, denying your audience a key illustration of one of your most important points. This mishap is an example of: noise. a. encoding. b. sending. c. response. d. 182. Refer to the Scenario in question 8 in order to answer the following question. After your presentation, you take questions from your audience of trainers and explain further the features and benefits of the Vein Popper. You also ask the audience questions in order to learn what product features or modifications they want and how they feel about your presentation. In other words, you are: identifying the target audience. a. choosing the media. b. considering message format. c. collecting feedback. d. 183. Refer to the Scenario in question 8 in order to answer the following question. Your marketing goal is to introduce the new step machine into 20 percent of the health clubs in each major city by 2003. Accordingly, you estimate the cost of achieving this goal including the cost of travel, advertising, and other factors. You are employing which promotion budget approach? affordable. a. percentage of sales. b. competitive parity. c. objective-and-task. d. 184. Refer to the Scenario in question 8 in order to answer the following question. You and your sales representatives will begin by visiting health clubs throughout the country, talking with managers and trainers about their needs and how your step machine might serve them. In other words, the marketing tool youll employ will be: advertising. a.

b. c. d.

direct marketing. personal selling. public relations.

185. Refer to the Scenario in question 8 in order to answer the following question. By emphasizing this tool, you will be using a pull strategy because youll be trying to "pull" the attention of health club trainers and managers to your products. True a. False b. 186. Refer to the Scenario in question 8 in order to answer the following question. Before you launch your promotion campaign, you check each element to make sure that they all emphasize the campaigns main theme: the fun way to get healthy! In other words, you are integrating your promotion mix by: identifying contact points. a. analyzing external and internal trends. b. creating compatible themes and tones across all the media. c. creating comprehensive performance measures. d.