ECON0027 Section 1
ECON0027 Section 1
ECON0027 Section 1
1.1 Introduction
What is a game or more precisely what does Game Theory study? Roughly speaking, a game
is a mathematical model of a situation in which:
• there are several economic agents, who are usually called players;
player 2
c d
player 1 C 2,2 0,3
D 3,0 1,1
This is an example of a game in normal form. We can easily generalize this example and obtain
a formal definition of a game in normal form
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1.3 Definition of a game in normal form
A set of players is
N = {1, 2, ..., n}.
Each player i ∈ N has a set of strategies Si .
A strategy profile
s = (s1 , s2 , ..., sn )
is a vector of strategies such that ith component of the vector—si ∈ Si —is a strategy of player i.
The set of all strategy profiles is
S = S1 × S2 × .. × Sn .
This set represents all possible outcomes of the game.
Player i’s payoff function assigns a real number (that we call a payoff ) to every possible
outcome of the game—i.e., to every strategy profile:
ui : S → R
A tuple Γ = (N, {Si }i∈N , {ui }i∈N ) is a game in normal (or strategic) form.
The way we interpret game Γ is the following: Each player has to choose a strategy si ∈ Si .
All players choose their strategies simultaneously and independently of each other (as if
they were locked in separate rooms and could not communicate with each other). This choice
results in a strategy profile s = (s1 , s2 , ..., sn ) that is translated into payoffs for each player
i ∈ N : ui (s).
One notation that will be extremely useful is the following: by s−i we denote the choices of
all players but i:
1.4 Payoffs
How should we interpret the payoff function ui (s)? This is a representation of player’s prefer-
ences over the outcomes of the game.
A common misperception is that payoffs represent money: players need not be concerned
only with money: players could be altruistic, they could value behaving according to some social
norm, etc. All of the players’ concerns are captured in the payoff.
There could be some uncertainty about the outcomes of the game:
• opponents’ choices could be uncertain;
• other circumstances of the game—e.g., opponents’ preferences/payoffs—can be uncertain;
• uncertainty can be objective or subjective.
We model uncertainty using probability distributions and assume that payoffs are von-
Neumann Morgenstern utilities. Players seek to maximize the expected value of ui (s), condi-
tional on all the information Ii that player i has:
E[ui (s) | Ii ].
This expectation is taken using the corresponding probability distribution (more on that later).
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1.5 Beliefs about opponents choices
Belief of player i is a probability distribution on S−i . We can introduce some restriction on the
beliefs:
• opponents can coordinate (correlated strategies, this is less restrictive than the previous
assumption)
Σi = ∆(S−i ) = ∆(×j6=i Sj ).
For player 1:
D strictly dominates C:
no matter what player 2 plays, D is strictly better than C.
So 1 should play D.
The same is true for 2: she should play d as well.
The game theoretic prediction: (D, d)
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1.7 Strict dominance
Recall our notation:
s−i ≡ (s1 , s2 , .., si−1 , si+1 , ..., sn )
Let
S−i = ×j6=i Sj
be the set of all such vectors.
A strategy si strictly dominates another strategy s0i if ∀s−i ∈ S−i :
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However, since the traveler informed both of them at the same time he made a knowledge of
the statement “one of you has a black dot on your forehead” a common knowledge. That made
all the difference!
1. Eliminate all strictly dominated strategies for all players. This will produce a new game
with fewer strategies.
2. In this new game, eliminate strictly dominated strategies for all player.
Firm
H(igh) L(ow)
Consumer B(uy) 2, 2 −1, 3
N (o) 0, 0 0, 1
We can iteratively exclude strictly dominated strategies in the following order: B, C, T, L. Thus,
players will play (M, R) in this game.
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1.12 Some questions to think about
1. Can we exclude all the strategies for one of the players and be left with nothing?
The answer to both questions is no (but you should not believe me, instead, you should
formally prove both statements).
A strategy si weakly dominates another strategy s0i if ∀s−i ∈ S−i :
The answer to this one is also no, but the more interesting question is why not?
A B C
a 3, 1, 1 3, 2, 1 3, 1, 1
U:
b 0, 2, 1 0, 1, 1 0, 2, 1
c 2, 1, 2 2, 2, 2 2, 1, 2
A B C
a 0, 2, 2 0, 1, 2 0, 2, 2
D:
b 3, 1, 2 3, 2, 2 3, 1, 2
c 2, 2, 1 2, 1, 1 2, 2, 1
If we restrict our attention to pure strategies (it’s ok if you do not know what pure strategy
is, more on that later), there are no strictly dominated strategies.
We can use a different approach: let’s look for strategies that are not the best in any of
the circumstances.
Step 1: consider Player 1’s incentives
• Suppose P1 believes that P3 plays U . Then no matter what P1 believes about P2, it is
best for P1 to play a.
• Suppose P1 believes that P3 plays D. Then no matter what P1 believes about P2, it is
best for P1 to play b.
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Since strategy c was not mentioned, it will not be played by the rational player 1. Let’s get
rid of it.
Step 2: consider Player 3’s incentives
If player 3 believes that c will not be played, strategy D is always best for her.
Since strategy U was not mentioned, it will not be played by the rational player 3. Let’s get
rid of it.
1.15 Rationalizability
• Take
Ri0 = Si
This is similar to iterated strict dominance. If we allow for correlated beliefs, identical to
iterated strict dominance. The intuition behind this statement is simple: If a strategy is not a
best reply to any strategy the opponents may play, it will not be played. Let us examine this
similarity more formally.
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1.16 Never-best replies and iterated strict dominance
If a strategy does not survive iterated strict dominance exclusion, it is never a best reply to any
strategy. The converse is not true if beliefs are independent.
A B A B A B A B
X1 : a 8 0 X2 : a 4 0 X3 : a 0 0 X4 : a 3 3
b 0 0 b 0 4 b 0 8 b 3 3
Note that X2 is a best reply to a correlated strategy 21 (a, A) + 21 (b, B). In a finite game, the
set of correlated rationalizable strategies always coincides with the set of strategies that survive
iterated exclusion of strictly dominated strategies.
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1.17 Nash equilibrium
A strategy profile s∗ = (s∗1 , s∗2 , ..., s∗n ) is a Nash equilibrium if for every player i ∈ N ,
ui (s∗1 , s∗2 , .., s∗i ., s∗n ) ≥ ui (s∗1 , s∗2 , ., si .., s∗n )∀si ∈ Si .
or, equivalently, for every player i ∈ N
There are several interpretations of this definition. One of them is that player i assumes
that his opponents are playing according to a Nash equilibrium—i.e., s∗−i , and finds that it is
optimal for her to play according to a Nash equilibrium as well—i.e., it is optimal to play s∗i .
Put differently, when the others are playing s∗−i , player i has no strategy si which gives her
a strictly higher payoff than s∗i .
A B C
a 0, 2, 2 0, 1, 2 0, 2, 2
b 3, 1, 2 3, 2, 2 3, 1, 2
c 2, 2, 1 2, 1, 1 2, 2, 1
2
a b
1 A 1,-1 -1,1
B -1,1 1,-1
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This is a game of hide and seek, so working under the presumption that each player correctly
guesses what the other does is against the spirit of this game. Intuitively, each player’ best
strategy is to confuse the opponent as much as possible—to randomize. This is the key to
restoring the existence of Nash equilibria in this and many other games.
p 1-p
a b
q A 1,-1 -1,1
1-q B -1,1 1,-1
Player 1’s best reply correspondence (note that it is not a function because there may be
multiple best replies) is:
0, if p < 1/2;
qBR (p) = 1, if p > 1/2;
[0, 1], if p = 1/2.
The unique fixed point of these best reply correspondences is p = 1/2, q = 1/2. Now, let
us get back to the intuition of the hide and seek game: the player who hides wants to be as
unpredictable as possible (because if he is predictable, he is easy to find) so he randomizes and
the player who seeks wants to be as unpredictable as possible too (because if he is predictable,
he is easy to hide from) so he randomizes as well. The exact probabilities that the players use
for randomization depend on the payoffs in this game.
2. What operations can I apply to the payoffs without modifying the strategic nature of the
game? Is the answer to this question different for the original game and its mixed strategy
extensions?
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1.22 Mixed strategies
A mixed strategy of player i is mi ∈ ∆(Si ). Take a pure strategy (action) s ∈ Si : mi (s) is the
probability that player i will play s if he follows mi .
As before, a profile of strategies is
.
Players randomize independently of each other:
Y
Pr{s | m} = mi (si )
i∈N
However, we will never use this formula. Instead, we will always think in terms of the payoff
from a pure strategy when others play mixed ones:
X Y
E[ui (si , m−i )] = ui (si , s−i ) mj (sj ).
s∈S j6=i
The reason for this is that the expectation is a linear operator: if mi is a best reply to m,
then so is any pure strategy si ∈ Si : mi (si ) > 0 in its support. Conversely, for any subset
S̃i ⊂ Si , that only contains best replies to m, any mixed strategy mi ∈ ∆(S̃i ) is also a best reply
to m (Why?).
Let m = (m1 , m2 , ..., mn ) be a Nash equilibrium. The support of mi is the set of pure
strategies s : mi (s) > 0. For every player i :
1. all strategies in the support of mi have the same payoff conditional on m−i .
2. any strategy that is not in the support of mi has a (weakly) lower payoff conditional on
m−i .
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1.24 Cournot oligopoly
Two firms, 1 and 2, producing a homogeneous good. Both firms choose their quantity qi ≥ 0
simultaneously. Total quantity Q = q1 + q2 is placed on market, and gives rise to market price
P (Q). Firm i’s profits are πi (q1 , q2 ) = qi P (Q) (costs are zero). For simplicity, assume that
P (Q) = 90 − Q.
π1 (q1 , q2 ) = q1 (90 − q1 − q2 )
∂π1
= 90 − 2q1 − q2 .
∂q1
Suppose firm 1 correctly anticipates q2 .
To find optimal quantity, set ∂π
∂q1
1
= 0.
Firm 1’s best response function is
90 − q2
q̂1 (q2 ) = .
2
Similarly,
90 − q1
q̂2 (q1 ) = .
2
Setting q2 = q̂2 (q1 ),
90 − ( 90−q
2
1
)
q1 =
2
= 30.
Proof:
1) Check that player 1’s best reply contains p1 = 0. Indeed, player 1’s payoff is π1 (p1 , p2 =
0) = 0 for any p1 . The same is true for player 2.
2) By contradiction assume there is a PSNE (p∗1 , p∗2 ) 6= (0, 0). Cases:
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• p∗1 = p∗2 = p. Player 1’s payoff is π1 (p∗1 , p∗2 ) = Q(p)p/2. Player 1 is better off deviating to
p01 = p − if > 0 is small:
π1 (p01 , p∗2 ) = Q(p − )(p − ) > Q(p)p/2,
hence (p∗1 , p∗2 ) is not a NE.
• p∗1 > p∗2 > 0. Player 1’s payoff is 0 in this case. He is better off matching player 2’s price
and collecting
π1 (p01 = p∗2 , p∗2 ) = Q(p∗2 )p∗2 /2 > 0.
• p∗1 > p∗2 = 0. Player 2’s payoff is 0. He is better off matching player 1’s price and collecting
π1 (p∗1 , p02 = p∗1 ) = Q(p∗1 )p∗1 /2 > 0.
Median voter m : F (m) = 0.5. Voters are not strategic—i.e., they vote for a policy that
gives them the highest payoff.
Parties
Two parties, A and B. Both parties simultaneously choose platforms—numbers between 0
and 1. If a and b are the two platforms, then voter x votes for whichever platform is closer. If
the two are equidistant, then the voter votes for each with probability 0.5. A party’s payoff is
1 if it wins the election, 0 if it loses. If both parties get the same number of votes, payoff is 0.5.
Equilibrium
Proposition (median voter theorem): The party competition game has a unique Nash equi-
librium where both parties locate at m.
1. (a = m, b = m) is a Nash equilibrium.
2. There is no other equilibrium.
Proof:
a+m
1) Payoff for party A is 0.5. Suppose that it chooses a < m and gets all voters with x < 2
.
a+m
F ( 2 ) < 0.5, so it loses the election. If it chooses a > m similar thing happens.
2) Cases:
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• If a < b, the party that does not win for sure can win with probability 0.5 by mimicking
the winner.
• If a = b 6= m, then A can do better by choosing m and winning.
First, let us recall a benchmark in which there are two profit-maximizing firms:
q1∗ = q2∗ = 30
π1 (q1∗ , q2∗ ) = π2 (q1∗ , q2∗ ) = 900
Now, suppose that firm 1 is overcompetitive:
90 − 2q1 = 0
or
90
q1 (q2 ) =
2
as before
90 − q1
q2 (q1 ) =
2
Nash equilibrium:
q1∗ = 45
q2∗ = 22.5
452
π1∗ = = 1012.5
2
2
45
π2∗ = = 506.25
2
Firm 1 obtains a larger profit compared to the situation when firm 1 is a profit maximizer.
Why?..
If both firms are overcompetitive (zero-sum game):
q1∗ = q2∗ = 45
π1∗ = π2∗ = 0
The profit of both firms drops to 0. (Why? What does this example teach us?)
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