AILET 2024 Question Paper With Solution

AILET 2024
Official Question
Paper with
Detailed Solutions
10
Question Booklet Sl. No.
LL.B. ADMISSION TEST – 2024
Date of Exam : Center’s Name : ___________________________
Duration : 120 Minutes Roll No. : ___________________________

Max. Marks : 150 OMR Sheet No. : ___________________________
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
1. No clarification on the Question Paper can be sought. Answer the questions
as they are.
2. There will be 150 Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) of one mark each to
be answered in the OMR Response Sheet only. Total marks are 150. Answer
ALL the Questions.
3. There will be Negative Marking for Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs).
For every wrong answer 0.25 marks will be deducted.
4. Candidates have to indicate the most appropriate answer by darkening one
of the four responses provided, with only BLACK/BLUE BALL POINT PEN
in the OMR Response Sheet.
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Example : For the question, “Where is the Taj Mahal located ?”
(a) Kolkata (b) Agra (c) Bhopal (d) Delhi
Right Method Wrong Methods
——————— —————————————————————
a b c d a b c d a b c d a b c d
5. Answering the question by any method other than the method mentioned above
shall be considered wrong answer.
6. More than one response to a question shall be counted as wrong answer.
7. The candidate shall not write anything on the OMR Response Sheet other than
the details required and in the spaces provided for.
8. After the examination is over, the candidate can carry the Question Booklet
along with candidate’s copy of the OMR Response Sheet. Candidate will hand
over the original OMR Response Sheet to the invigilator.
9. The use of any unfair means by any candidate will result in the cancellation
of his/her candidature.
10. Impersonation is an offence and the candidate, apart from disqualification,
may have to face criminal prosecution.
11. Electronic gadgets like mobile phones, digital watch, pagers and calculators
etc. are strictly not permitted inside the Test Centre/Hall.
12. The candidates shall not leave the hall before the end of the Test.
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BREAK-UP OF MARKS
Section Subject Marks Q. No. Page No.
A English 50 1 – 50 3 – 16
Current Affairs
B and General 30 51 – 80 17 – 22
Knowledge
C Logical Reasoning 70 81 – 150 23 – 42
Total Marks 150
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SECTION – A : English
I. Read the given extract and answer the following questions by choosing
the most appropriate answer.
The past century has drastically changed the concept of community, no
matter if you live in a rural area, a suburban neighbourhood, or an urban
metropolis. Families no longer co-habitat as intergenerationally as they
once did, especially as the appeal of the nuclear family began to increase.
The move from rural living to urban lifestyles to suburbia and then back
to city-life has meant that extended families often fracture and live further
and further apart. We are often caught up in the reality of constant
“busy-ness” that we don’t take the time to get to know our neighbours. And
social media has redefined “connection” and “friendship,” leaving us staring
at screens more than engaging with the people around us.
The impact of this is apparent on parents and children. The adage “it takes
a village to raise a child” is absolutely still true. But somewhere along the
way, we’ve lost the “village” we need to raise kids in nurturing, creative,
and safe ways. And as a result, families are missing out on crucial learning
experiences and much needed support systems. In the end, many parents
feel isolated and alone in their struggles, and kids don’t have the opportunity
to engage with a diverse group of people and personalities.
1. The primary reason for breaking up of the traditional community set up is
a) preference for expanding suburban neighbourhoods.
b) attraction of the small family unit.
c) changing concept of cohabiting in the modern world.
d) the lack of desire to live with the oldest family members.
2. The reason people do not know their neighbour very well is because
a) they are always in transit.
b) their lifestyle is self-destructive.
c) they are constantly preoccupied with their own affairs.
d) their self-centredness keeps them from interacting with the
neighbour.
3. The writer’s attitude towards the ‘connections’ formed via social media is
a) disparaging
b) concurrence
c) apathetic
d) elusive
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4. Which of the following statements is incorrect with respect to the passage?

a) The community provides a safe and healthy environment for positive
interaction with the children.
b) Crucial learning experiences and much needed support systems at home
clash with the values of the community.
c) The collective effort of the community raises children in nurturing,
creative, and safe ways.
d) Modern communities lack meaningful interactions, leaving the parents
feeling isolated and alone in their struggles.
5. Statement 1: People are available to raise other people’s children.
Statement 2: The nature of communities has undergone tremendous
transformation regardless of their location.
Choose the most appropriate answer.
a) Both statements are true and 2 is the correct explanation of 1.
b) Both statements are true but 2 is not the correct explanation of 1.
c) Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false.
d) Statement 1 is false but statement 2 is true.
II. Read the given extract and answer the following questions by choosing
I used to be the person that would strive for perfection from the beginning
of a creative process. With more time given at the beginning an obvious
decline of quality is seen and it has become a pattern all throughout my
other works. Here’s why I had to change my system of production.
Being stuck at the beginning of a creative process (i.e., writing, designing,
painting) due to overthinking will have a ripple effect on the entire output.
In art school, I’ve had many classmates taking their time planning on how
to produce a material and half of the time given for production was wasted.
They then had more pressure to finish their works just to meet the deadline
and sacrifice the quality of output all together.
Being a working student to help support myself in school, I never had the
luxury of time that my classmates had when we were in college; when we
were given a project, I started immediately. I call my process “Finished, Not
Perfect Method” (FNPM).
FNPM allows me to be efficient. I divide the amount of time I have by the
number of parts my project has - Beginning, Middle, End, Improvements.
Each part is given focus and time for potential improvements or changes.
A friend or two could tell you what their opinion is and you may add the
necessary changes based on their input. However, keep the maximum number
of people you consult for opinion to two. Anything more than that will create
more opinions that will paralyse you from progressing later on.
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When your work can give what’s needed and you’ve finished your work on
time (if not earlier) then the next step is to stop and find a way to be happy
about it. Contentment is important in this stage for people always feel regret
for not doing their best in a work they’ve laboured so hard for.
6. Although the writer described herself as being a perfectionist, the eventual
quality of her work was____? Choose the most appropriate answer.
a) dilapidated. b) disappointing.
c) devastating. d) distorted.
7. ‘Overthinking’ posed a big hurdle for the narrator as
a) she would be coerced into being dull.
b) she would sulk over her spoiled assignments.
c) it would not allow her to start her work.
d) it would make her anxious about her submission.
8. Identify the sequence of events that ultimately led to art school students
submitting subpar work.
(1) quality of work compromised to meet the deadline
(2) large amount of time invested on planning
(3) mounting pressure to complete the task
(4) wasted half of the time in production
Choose the appropriate option:
a) (2), (3), (4), (1) b) (2), (3), (1), (4)
c) (2), (4), (3), (1) d) (2), (4), (1), (3)
9. ‘Ripple effect’ means
a) the continuing and spreading results of an event or action.
b) the cumulative effect produced when one event sets off a chain of similar
or other events.
c) anything that can go wrong will go wrong.
d) moving in a circular path towards the centre of the circle.
10. ‘Time’ is referred to as a ‘luxury’ because
a) she had to work after classes and thus, could not spare any time.
b) she had a lot of time on her hands to get things done slowly.
c) time was a valuable commodity she paid a heavy price for.
d) she was mostly running out of time because of overthinking.
11. The writer had to innovate her “Finished, Not Perfect Method” (FNPM) since:
a) she had to get better grades than her privileged classmates.
b) her overthinking pattern was a dismal failure.
c) she had very little time to spare.
d) chasing perfection never got her work done.
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12. Segregating the various parts of the project helps

a) while consulting friends for their opinion.
b) to work on each part separately and improve it.
c) to reduce production time at the beginning.
d) reduces stress that is usually accompanied by missed deadlines.
III. Read the given extract and answer the following questions by choosing
In recent years, medical schools and institutions have increasingly integrated
VR (Virtual Reality) into their curriculum, offering near real experiences
for training future healthcare professionals. While VR offers numerous
advantages in medical training, it also presents significant challenges that
must be addressed.
One of the primary benefits of VR in medical education is its ability to provide
realistic and immersive simulations of medical procedures. Medical students
can use VR to practice surgeries, diagnose illnesses, and engage in patient
interactions in a controlled and risk-free environment. These simulations
allow students to gain valuable hands-on experience before they encounter
real patients, thereby increasing their confidence and competence.
Furthermore, VR can enhance the understanding of complex anatomical
structures. By immersing students in 3D models of the human body, they
can explore organs, tissues, and systems from various angles, improving
their spatial awareness and comprehension. This interactive learning
experience fosters a deeper understanding of human anatomy, a crucial
foundation for medical practice.
However, the integration of VR into medical education is not without its
challenges. Firstly, the cost of implementing VR technology in medical
schools can be substantial. High-quality VR equipment and software
require a significant financial investment, which may strain the budgets of
educational institutions. Additionally, ongoing maintenance and updates
are necessary to ensure the technology remains effective.
Another challenge lies in the development of accurate and comprehensive
VR medical simulations. Creating realistic virtual patients and medical
scenarios that mimic real-world complexities demands extensive research
and development efforts. Ensuring the accuracy of simulations is crucial
to the educational value of VR training.
Moreover, VR raises concerns about potential over-reliance on technology.
Medical students must strike a balance between virtual training and
hands-on clinical experience. While VR offers a safe and controlled
environment for learning, it cannot replace the valuable lessons learned
through direct patient interaction.
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To sum up, Virtual Reality has the potential to transform medical education
but it also presents financial and developmental challenges, as well as
concerns about balancing virtual and real-world experiences. Addressing
these challenges will be crucial in harnessing the full potential of VR for
medical education.
13. This passage most likely appeared as part of a __________. Complete the
sentence with an appropriate option.
a) technology magazine feature
b) medical school’s informational brochure
c) government report on education
d) debate on the future of medical training
14. The author’s primary purpose in this passage is __________

a) To advocate for the complete replacement of traditional medical training
with VR.
b) To provide a balanced discussion of the advantages and challenges of
using VR in medical education.
c) To persuade readers to invest in VR technology for medical schools.
d) To critique the high cost of VR equipment in medical education.
15. The passage mentions “immersive experiences” to emphasise _________

a) The potential for escapism in VR.
b) The intensity and realism of VR training.
c) The need for virtual tours of medical facilities.
d) The limited scope of VR simulations.
16. Identify the sentence in the passage that contains a participial phrase.
a) ‘Virtual reality technology has been steadily advancing.’
b) ‘This immersive experience can significantly enhance their learning.’
c) ‘It allows them to practice complex surgical procedures.’
d) ‘The medical students, wearing VR headsets, feel as if they are in an
operating room.’
17. According to the passage, why is the cost of implementing VR in medical

schools a challenge?
a) VR technology is difficult to maintain.
b) VR equipment is currently unavailable.
c) VR requires a significant financial investment.
d) VR simulations are not realistic enough.
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18. What does the passage suggest about the balance between VR training and
hands-on clinical experience?
a) VR training can entirely replace hands-on clinical experience.
b) VR training should be the sole focus of medical education.
c) Clinical experience is no longer relevant in medical education.
d) A balance between VR training and real-world experience is essential.
19. The author’s discussion of the challenges of VR in medical education is

primarily intended to ______
a) Present a well-rounded view of the topic.
b) Convince readers that VR is not suitable for medical training.
c) Discourage investment in VR technology.
d) Highlight the need for more research and development in VR.
20. Which word from paragraphs 4-5, in the passage could be substituted with
‘financially burden’, without changing the meaning?
a) integration b) accuracy c) mimic d) strain
21. In the passage, the phrase ‘fosters a deeper understanding’, is best defined
as –
a) Promotes a more profound insight.
b) Creates a stronger resistance.
c) Reduces the complexity of.
d) Develops a superficial grasp of.
22. Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the conclusion that
addressing the challenges is crucial for harnessing the full potential of VR
in medical education?
a) Medical schools are rapidly adopting VR without considering the
costs.
b) Traditional medical training methods are becoming less effective.
c) VR technology is becoming more affordable and accessible.
d) VR simulations can replace all aspects of clinical experience.
IV. Read the given extract and answer the following questions by choosing
Why do we relentlessly pursue these gleaming awards and coveted
certificates? These tokens of recognition, ranging from simple course
completion certificates to the grandeur of global trophies, what drives us?
Do we not have an innate sense of our own value? The human pursuit of
accolades and certificates, an intricate interplay of self-worth, external
validation, and societal pressures.
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At the heart of our chase for these honours lies an unquenchable thirst for
acknowledgment and validation. No matter how confident or self-assured
one may be, the allure of external validation is irresistible. It’s not about
doubting our capabilities; it’s about the affirmation that our dedication and
hard work have been seen, recognized, and applauded. In this light, awards
and certificates stand not just as tokens but as symbols of our relentless
pursuit of excellence.
Our relentless pursuit of accolades is deeply woven into the fabric of our
society. From an early age, we are indoctrinated to compete, to shine in
academics, sports, or our careers. Society’s measure of success often hinges
on these tangible milestones, which illustrate our ability not just to meet
but to exceed expectations.
Moreover, these recognitions bestow an unparalleled sense of accomplishment
and pride. They are emblematic of the tireless hours, the unwavering
dedication, and the indomitable spirit invested in chasing our dreams. This
recognition is transformative, elevating an individual’s self-esteem, inspiring
them to reach for the stars, and to redefine their self-worth. The satisfaction
gleaned from these acknowledgments extends beyond the realm of external
validation; it is an ode to personal growth.
However, as we embark on this relentless journey, we must tread with
caution. A relentless pursuit of external validation can lead to a superficial
sense of self-worth. A person’s true worth cannot be distilled from the
certificates adorning their walls or the trophies glittering on their shelves.
Intrinsic motivation and personal fulfilment must hold equal sway.
To conclude, our burning desire for awards and certificates mirrors our
unyielding quest for recognition, validation, and the unquenchable sense
of accomplishment they bring. These accolades undeniably hold great
significance, but we must not forget that our self-worth should not be
tethered solely to the whims of external validation. Our achievements are
undeniably important, but they represent just one facet of our intricate,
multi-dimensional identities.
23. What is the tone of the passage?
a) Informative b) Reflective c) Persuasive d) Ironic
24. What is the cause-and-effect relationship presented in the passage?
a) Cause: Pursuit of awards and certificates, Effect: Increased self-worth
b) Cause: Intrinsic motivation, Effect: Pursuit of awards
c) Cause: Unquenchable sense of accomplishment, Effect: Extrinsic
validation
d) Cause: Ironic tone, Effect: Entertainment of readers
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25. What is the purpose of the word “relentless” in the passage?

a) To describe the journey as short-lived.
b) To emphasise the continuous and persistent nature of the pursuit.
c) To indicate a sudden change in direction.
d) To convey a sense of calm and tranquillity.
26. Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the conclusion that
external validation is superficial in determining self-worth?
a) Individuals who possess numerous awards tend to have high
self-esteem.
b) The pursuit of awards and certificates is often driven by personal goals
and intrinsic motivation.
c) People who lack external validation through awards still maintain high
levels of self-worth.
d) Studies show that individuals with more certificates are perceived as
more competent by employers.
27. The author would probably agree with which of the following statements?
a) “Awards and certificates are the sole determinants of self-worth.”
b) “Intrinsic motivation plays no role in the pursuit of external
validation.”
c) “The pursuit of awards and certificates is driven by societal
pressures.”
d) “Personal growth is solely influenced by external validation.”
28. The author implies that pursuing awards and certificates would be _____
to personal growth. Choose the most appropriate answer.
a) detrimental b) irrelevant
c) integral d) insignificant
29. Given the author’s position on the pursuit of awards and certificates, what
stand would the author probably take on the issue of external recognition
in academia?
a) The author would argue for stricter external recognition criteria in
academia.
b) The author would likely advocate for a reduced emphasis on external
recognition in academia.
c) The author would insist on increasing the number of awards available
in academia.
d) The author would emphasise the importance of formal dress codes in
academic institutions.
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30. In the passage, which sentence correctly uses the past perfect tense?
a) “Our relentless pursuit of accolades is deeply woven into the fabric of
our society.”
b) “No matter how confident or self-assured one may be, the allure of
external validation is irresistible.”
c) “The human pursuit of accolades and certificates, an intricate interplay
of self-worth, external validation, and societal pressures.”
d) “These recognitions had been elusive until recently, but now they have
become more attainable.”
31. Which of the following substitutions for ‘emblematic of’ in the given sentence
would NOT change the meaning of the quoted sentence?”
They are emblematic of the tireless hours, the unwavering dedication, and
the indomitable spirit invested in chasing our dreams
a) Similar to b) Representative of
c) Proof of d) Conducive to
32. What is the writer’s aim in referring to people as “multi-dimensional
identities”?
a) To emphasise that individuals possess numerous facets that contribute
to their complexity.
b) To suggest that people are hard to understand and often
contradictory.
c) To indicate that individuals should focus on their external
accomplishments.
d) To convey that people have only one defining trait that leads them to
success.
V. Read the following passage and answer the following questions by
choosing the most appropriate answer.
In recent years, electric vehicles (EVs) have emerged as a catalyst for change,
not only in terms of sustainable transportation but also in empowering
individuals to become micro-entrepreneurs. Particularly in Tier 2 markets,
where access to traditional job opportunities may be limited, EVs have
opened up new avenues for women to assert their economic independence
and contribute significantly to household income. According to our data, an
inspiring 25% of women in these markets have embraced the EV platform as
a means to earn their livelihoods. Electric vehicles, be it e-rickshaws, e-carts,
or e-bikes, offer an affordable and eco-friendly mode of transportation
that can be easily adopted by individuals. This has allowed women to
enter various service sectors like last-mile delivery, transportation, and
local commuting, empowering them to generate income and uplift their
communities.
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33. The popularity of EVs can be ascribed to it being

(1) the latest technology.
(2) a sustainable mode of transportation.
(3) a means of empowerment.
(4) easily available.
a) (1) and (2) b) (1) and (4) c) (2) and (3) d) (2) and (4)
34. A significant limitation in Tier 2 cities is
a) the lack of enough EVs
b) the dearth of sufficient number of jobs
c) the slow pace of development
d) the absence of adequate number of entrepreneurs
35. The use of the word “catalyst” conveys that it is something
a) that initiates a sudden and important change.
b) that becomes the end to justify the means.
c) that contributes to sustainable growth.
d) surfaces at regular intervals of time.
36. Statement 1: EVs are extremely versatile and have a wider range to offer.
Statement 2: More women than men have bought EVs.
a) Both statements are true and 2 is the correct explanation of 1.
b) Both statements are true but 2 is not the correct explanation of 1.
c) Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false.
d) Statement 1 is false but statement 2 is true.
37. “Last-mile delivery” refers to the journey of the product
a) reaching the customer’s doorstep.
b) in the back of a delivery truck.
c) from the warehouse shelf.
d) at the manufacturing plant.
38. In which of the following sentences is the word ‘avenue’ used in the same
sense as given in the passage?
a) As you go through the entrance, you are surrounded by an avenue of
golden trees.
b) The authors suggest several further avenues of research in which their
findings could prove useful.
c) In spite of the late hour, the lights at 22 Canning Avenue were still ablaze.
d) One of these improvements consists of a central avenue cut across the
old city to the water-front.
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39. In which sectors have electric vehicles (EVs) enabled women to generate
income and empower their communities in Tier 2 markets?
a) Healthcare and education
b) Agriculture and farming
c) Last-mile delivery, transportation, and local commuting
d) Manufacturing and heavy industries
VI.Read the following passage and answer the following questions by
It is not surprising that students are experiencing a wide range of mental
health challenges, such as paralyzing stress, anxiety and depression. In
2021-22, the National Health Survey found that college students’ anxiety and
depression were at historic levels, with 37 percent reporting some anxiety
and 44 percent experiencing some depression in the two weeks prior to
the survey. Moreover, approximately 83 percent reported that emotional or
mental difficulties had impaired their academic performance at some time
during the month prior to taking the survey. Although some observers might
try to dismiss these statistics as just a result of the pandemic, national data
suggest that mental health issues were on the rise before the virus arrived.
It is vital that institutions pay more attention and take more responsibility
for their part in causing these trends.
Research in this area suggests that cultivating caring, affirming and
connected communities on college campuses is critical when it comes to
mental health. Networks of professors, staff and fellow students who care
can become lifelines when college stressors become all consuming. And
if colleges affirm student cultures, values and identities, they can boost
students’ self-esteem and sense of empowerment, help them feel less isolated
and promote a greater sense of belonging. Prioritizing caring, connected and
affirming communities helps more students thrive. A curriculum that allows
students to simultaneously deepen their connections to their community’s
cultural values and their learning environment can help them feel like
they belong to both. Research also shows that culturally relevant learning
experiences improve academic success. Campuses therefore should provide
mental health services that are culturally responsive, via professionals
who understand diverse student backgrounds and experiences. Offering
counselling services, support groups and outreach programs designed for
diverse communities can help students feel understood and supported.
40. Based on the data from the National Health Survey, what could be a potential
consequence for educational institutions if they don’t address the mental
health challenges of their students?
a) Improved student performance
b) No impact on the institution
c) Decreased student enrolment
d) Decreased academic success and retention rates
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41. In what ways might educational institutions contribute to the rising trend
in student mental health challenges, as mentioned in the paragraph?
a) Higher educational institutions have no role in this trend
b) By appointing dedicated mentors for all students
c) Through insufficient awareness and support for student mental health
d) By increasing the academic rigor
42. What broader implications can be drawn from the statistics in the paragraph
for the overall well-being of society?
a) An indication of the need for more stringent admission standards in
educational institutions to address mental health concerns
b) A potential decline in workforce productivity and innovation due to
mental health issues
c) An increased emphasis on academic rigor and competitiveness in the
job market
d) A call for re-evaluation of social support systems to address mental health
challenges, as these issues extend beyond educational institutions
43. According to research, what is the relationship between culturally relevant
learning experiences and academic success?
a) They have no correlation
b) Culturally relevant learning experiences primarily hinder academic
success
c) Culturally relevant learning experiences can improve academic
success
d) They are only relevant for certain student populations
44. What is the significance of a curriculum that allows students to deepen their
connections to both their community’s cultural values and their learning
environment?
a) It hinders academic success
b) It has no impact on the sense of belonging
c) It helps students feel like they belong to both the institution and their
culture
d) It emphasizes academic rigidity
VII. Read the following passage and answer the following questions by
Linguistics, an intricate and ever-evolving academic discipline, has
undergone a remarkable transformation in recent decades, transcending its
origins as a mere study of language to become a profound exploration of the
complexities of human cognition and communication. The expanding purview
of linguistics is a testament to its growing significance in understanding
our world and enhancing our technological prowess.
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One of the most fundamental paradigm shift within linguistics has been
its transition from a prescriptive to a descriptive approach. Early linguistic
studies, embodied by the structuralist principles of Ferdinand de Saussure,
predominantly focused on normative rules and language structures.
However, the advent of modern linguistics, spearheaded by Noam Chomsky’s
groundbreaking generative grammar theory, has heralded a new era of
linguistic inquiry—one that seeks to understand not how languages should
be used but how they are used in practice. This transformation has enabled
linguists to uncover the underlying universals that govern human language,
revealing its intricate tapestry.
The synergy between linguistics and computer science has been instrumental
in shaping our digital age. The birth of computational linguistics has given
rise to transformative technologies, such as machine translation, speech
recognition, and sentiment analysis. These applications, weaving the intricacies
of human language with cutting-edge technology, have revolutionised fields
as diverse as e-commerce, healthcare, and social media. The confluence of
linguistics and computer science continues to chart new frontiers, shedding
light on the symbiotic relationship between humans and machines.
Moreover, interdisciplinary collaborations have propelled linguistics into
uncharted territories. Cognitive linguistics marries linguistic theory with
insights from psychology, neuroscience, and anthropology, unravelling the
profound interplay between language and human cognition. Sociolinguistics
and anthropological linguistics delve into the social and cultural dimensions
of language, elucidating linguistic variations and their socio-cultural
implications. This interdisciplinary nexus enriches our understanding of
how language permeates all facets of human life.
45. What does the term ‘ever-evolving’ imply in the first paragraph?
a) Linguistics is becoming stagnant and unchanging.
b) Linguistics is a dynamic field that continuously develops and changes.
c) Linguistics has reached its peak and will not change further.
d) Linguistics is regressing and losing its significance.
46. Which option does NOT correctly infer the meaning based on the following
sentence from the first paragraph?
“The expanding purview of linguistics is a testament to its growing significance
in understanding our world and enhancing our technological prowess.”
a) Linguistics plays a significant role in our comprehension of the world
and technological advancements.
b) The scope of linguistics has grown, reflecting its increasing importance in
understanding our world and advancing our technological capabilities.
c) Linguistics has a declining influence on our understanding of the world
and technological advancements.
d) Expanding the field of linguistics has led to a greater focus on understanding
the world and enhancing our technological capabilities.
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47. Why has the writer used the word “tapestry” in the phrase “revealing its
intricate tapestry”?
a) To emphasise the colourful and decorative nature of linguistic studies.
b) To suggest that linguistics involves the crafting of physical artworks.
c) To indicate the presence of hidden and mysterious aspects in linguistics.
d) To imply that linguistics is like a woven fabric of interconnected elements.
48. Select the option that correctly analyses the impact of the writer’s use of
words like “synergy” and “confluence”.
a) To highlight the tension and conflicts between linguistics and computer
science.
b) To illustrate the collision of linguistic theories with computer science,
creating chaos in both fields.
c) To describe the harmonious collaboration between linguistics and
computer science, resulting in transformative technologies.
d) To depict the isolation of linguistics from other academic disciplines and
its struggle to adapt.
49. How can the relationship between humans and machines be described as
‘symbiotic’ ? (paragraph 3)
a) Because machines fully depend on humans for their functionality.
b) As humans and machines work together, benefiting from each other’s
capabilities.
c) Because machines have replaced humans in various linguistic tasks.
d) As humans have become overly reliant on machines for linguistic analysis.
50. What is an example of an interdisciplinary collaboration mentioned in the

passage? (Paragraph 4)
a) Collaboration between linguistics and art history to study language’s
visual representation.
b) Collaboration between linguistics and chemistry to analyse language
composition.
c) Collaboration between linguistics and psychology, neuroscience, and
anthropology to understand the interplay between language and human
cognition.
d) Collaboration between linguistics and astronomy to explore the influence
of celestial bodies on human languages.
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SECTION – B : CURRENT AFFAIRS AND GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
51. The ‘COP26’ conference has been a significant global event. What is its
primary focus?
a) An annual event celebrating cinematic achievements
b) A global summit addressing climate change and environmental
sustainability
c) A technology conference for the gaming industry
d) A forum for discussions on international trade agreements
52. A key thrust area for the Supreme Court of India has been towards securing
diversity and inclusion in its ranks. Who was the first woman judge of the
Supreme Court of India?
a) Justice Ranjana Prakash Desai
b) Justice BV Nagarathna
c) Justice M Fathima Beevi
d) Justice Sujata V Manohar
53. What does the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) measure?
a) Total government revenue collection and expenditure incurred during
a financial year
b) Total money in circulation in the economy at any given point of time
c) Is a measure of income distribution and inequality within a country
d) Broadly understood as the final value of the goods and services produced
within the geographic boundaries of a country during a specified period
of time
54. The Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) were adopted by the United
Nations in 2015 as a universal call for peace and prosperity. Which of the
following statements about SDGs is NOT true?
a) Plan of action for people, plant and prosperity
b) Development must balance social, economic and environmental
sustainability
c) Creativity, knowhow, technology and financial resources from all of
society is necessary to achieve the goals in every context
d) Rank countries according to their economic growth and GDP per capita
55. In 1960 a Standford Professor, Walter Mischel, conducted an interesting
experiment called the ‘Marshmallow Experiment’ to test the connection
between delayed gratification and better success later in various facets of
life. The outcome of the experiment can also be referred to as:
a) Present Bias b) G.I.Joe Fallacy
c) Cognitive Dissonance d) Confirmation Bias
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56. Which international agreements remain central in efforts to enable a permanent

solution to the geopolitical tensions between Russia and Ukraine?
a) Minsk Agreements b) Geneva Conventions
c) Baku Accords d) Moscow Peace Treaty
57. The world’s tallest statue, an ode to Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, situated in
Kevadia, Gujarat is also referred to as
a) Statue of Equality b) Statue of Independence
c) Statue of Unity d) Statue of Belief
58. In 2022, India introduced the KAVACH system, which is:

a) indigenously developed Automatic Train Protection (ATP) System
b) software network developed by DRDO and used by intelligence agencies
to intercept and analyse internet traffic
c) constellation of remote sensing satellites to monitor weather patterns
and early warning of natural disaster
d) indigenously developed counter drone systems most recently deployed
during the G20 summit
59. The ‘Five Eyes Alliance’ is a global intelligence network, pooling resources
and sharing sensitive information to collectively secure peace and combat
global threat. The following countries make up the alliance:
a) US, UK, France, Germany, Japan
b) US, UK, Australia, Japan, India
c) US, UK, Germany, Australia, New Zealand
d) US, UK, Canada, Australia, New Zealand
60. The G20 Summit in India brought together leaders from the World’s major
economies to address pressing global issues. India used this platform to
underscore its commitment to fostering global growth and stability. Which
of the following areas was NOT a focus of the summit ?
a) Managing Global Debt Vulnerabilities
b) Eliminating Hunger and Malnutrition
c) Bridging the Gender Digital Divide
d) Making space exploration more equitable
61. The Indian Premier League is a professional T20 cricket league. It was
established in 2008, and has since become one of the most popular
cricketing leagues in the world. Which of the following player has played
for the same team (franchise) since the inaugural edition?
a) David Warner b) Virat Kohli
c) Ben Stokes d) Hardik Pandya
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62. The NASA OSIRIS-REx mission (Origins, Spectral Interpretation, Resource

Identification and Security – Regolith Explorer) recently brought back a
capsule of rocks and dust collected from:
a) Asteroid Bennu b) Mars
c) Saturn’s rings d) Halley’s comet
63. Which is the longest river in India ?
a) Godavari b) Ganga c) Narmada d) Mahanadi
64. A key Indian foreign policy initiative is the ‘Act East Policy’. Which statement
correctly captures its objective ?
a) is to promote economic cooperation, cultural ties and develop strategic
relationship with countries in the Indo-Pacific region
b) securing an active intelligence sharing network between India, Sri-Lanka
and Bangladesh
c) promotes a key partnership to combat human and drug trafficking
through South East Asian nations
d) promotes India as a hub of scientific education by attracting best minds
from various South East Asian nations
65. The Jnanpith Award recognizes the most outstanding contributions in the
field of –
a) Medicine b) Literature
c) Science and Engineering d) Public Affairs
66. Which of the following global companies is not led by a CEO of Indian origin?
a) Starbucks b) Microsoft c) Chanel d) RedBull GmBH
67. The Reserve Bank of India having regard to the needs of securing the
monetary stability in the country, prescribes the CRR (Cash Reserve Ratio).
Which of the following most closely explains this ratio ?
a) percentage of bank’s total deposits that is required to be maintained
either in cash or as deposits with the Reserve Bank of India
b) minimum rate at which Reserve Bank of India lends funds to commercial
bank
c) minimum percentage of net profit to cash flow over that banks require
to maintain over a financial year
d) maximum percentage of deposits that can be extended as loans by a
bank at any given point of time
68. Which Author made history by being the first Indian (non-expatriate) to win
the Booker Prize?
a) Arundhati Roy – God of Small Things
b) Kiran Desai – The Inheritance of Loss
c) Arvind Adiga – White Tiger
d) Chetan Bhagat – Five Point Someone
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69. Who among the following is not a recipient of a Nobel Prize?

a) Mother Teresa b) Kailash Satyarthi
c) Amartya Sen d) Mahatma Gandhi
70. Pick the INCORRECT combination.

a) New Horizons – Pluto b) Cassini Huygens – Saturn
c) Juno – Jupiter d) Ignis – Sun
71. Which of the following countries is NOT a member of SAARC?

a) Afghanistan b) Bhutan c) Cambodia d) Bangladesh
72. Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam, known as the Missile Man of India, was instrumental
in the creation of which of these offices? He was also the first person to hold
this office.
a) Principal Scientific Advisor to the Government of India
b) Director of the Indian Space Research Organisation
c) Director of the Defence Research and Development Organisation
d) Secretary to the Department of Atomic Energy
73.Which of the following countries have neither signed nor ratified the Rome
Statute?
I. India
II. United States of America
III. Russian Federation
IV. Azerbaijan
a) I, II, IV. b) Only I.
c) Only I and IV. d) All of the above.
74. Omar al-Bashir was the first Head of State to be indicted by the International
Criminal Court. He was indicted by the Court in relation to which of the
following incidents?
a) Alleged war crimes committed under his Presidency during the Sudanese
civil war.
b) Alleged war crimes and crimes against humanity committed at Darfur
between at least 2003 to 2008.
c) Alleged crimes against humanity of murder and rape committed in the
Central African Republic in between 2002 to 2003.
d) Alleged crimes against humanity resulting from waging war against
South Sudan.
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75.
A big roadblock towards concluding Brexit was the failure of the UK and the
EU to agree on transport of goods to Ireland (a member of the EU) through
Northern Ireland (one of the constituent countries of the UK). This problem
was resolved with the conclusion of the Windsor framework, effectively the
final step in the Brexit process. Which of the following statements about
the Windsor Framework are accurate?
I. It is a tripartite agreement between England, Northern Ireland, and the
United Kingdom.
II. The agreement proposes to establish red and green lanes for goods
moving into Northern Ireland to reduce checks and paperwork related
hurdles on such goods.
III. The agreement does not provide for separation of goods entering Northern
Ireland from those entering Ireland.
IV. The agreement is concluded between the United Kingdom and the
European Union.
a) I, II and III.
b) II and IV.
c) Only II.
d) II, III, IV.
76. Which of the following statements about BRICS is not incorrect?

I. South Africa is not an original member of the BRICS coalition.
II. The bloc was started as an attempt to strategically assist the United
States of America as allies.
III. The BRICS member countries represent at least 40% of the world’s
population.
IV. The acronym for the bloc was coined in 2001 by then Goldman Sachs
chief economist Jim O’Neill in a research paper that underlined the
growth potential of Brazil, Russia, India and China.
a) I and II.
b) Only II.
c) I, III and IV.
d) All of the above.
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77. India recently hosted the G20 Conference in New Delhi as it served as the
President for the coalition. Which of the following is the only country to
have permanent guest invitee status at the G20?
a) Spain
b) Ireland
c) South Africa
d) Portugal
78. A change in exchange rate leads to a change in supply and demand of

foreign goods in the domestic market and domestic goods in the foreign
market. This also leads to an imbalance in the balance of payments. What
is Balance of Payments?
a) Balance of payments is the statement of a country’s trade with other
nations.
b) Balance of payments is the money a country owes other nations.
c) Balance of payments is the money owed to a country from another nation.
d) None of the above.
79. The gaming industry witnessed its largest acquisition in recent history
involving the following major entities:
a) Microsoft – Activision
b) Sony - Nintendo
c) Apple – Tencent
d) Google – Electronic Arts
80. ISRO’s PSLV has been the workhorse for Indian space programme, launching
many critical payloads including the recent Chandrayaan mission. What
does PSLV stand for?
a) Plasma Synthesis Launch Vehicle
b) Planetary Surface Lander Vehicle
c) Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle
d) Planetary Survey and Lander Vehicle
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SECTION – C : LOGICAL REASONING
81. All Supreme Court judgements are binding on all High Courts. All High
Court judgements have persuasive value in other High Courts. Some High
Court judgements also have persuasive value in the Supreme Court.
Examine the following statements:
I. Some High Court judgments are binding on the Supreme Court.
II. Some judgements with persuasive value are binding on High Courts.
III. Some High Court judgements are persuasive in both the Supreme Court
and the High Courts.
a) Only I follows. b) Both I & II follow.
c) Only III follows. d) Both II & III follow.
82. All ducks are birds. Some birds fly, and no reptiles are birds. A snake is a
reptile. If the above are true, which of the following would also be true?
a) Snakes do not fly. b) No snakes are ducks.
c) All ducks fly. d) Some birds are snakes.
83.All Cats are singers. All birds dance. Some Cats are birds. Albert Einstein
is a Singer. Examine the following statements:
I. Albert Einstein does not dance
II. Albert Einstein dances
III. Albert Einstein is a bird
IV. Albert Einstein is not a bird
V. Albert Einstein is not a cat
VI. Albert Einstein is a cat
Which of the following conclusion(s) is necessarily correct? Choose the most

appropriate answer.
a) Only III and VI b) Only II, III and V
c) Only III d) None of the above
84. All Watches are Chronographs. Some Chronographs are antiques. All
Antiques are expensive. D is a Chronograph. Which of the statement
necessarily follows ?
a) D is a watch
b) If ‘D’ is antique, it must be a watch
c) D must be expensive
d) None of the above
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85.All Philosophers are logicians. Some logicians are critical thinkers. All
Critical thinkers are rationalist. Z is a rationalist. Examine the following
statements:
I. Z is a logician
II. Z may be a logician
III. Z is a Philosopher
IV. Z is a critical thinker
a) Only IV b) Only III and IV
c) Only II d) None of the above
86.Some Rivers are Ponds. All Ponds are Ocean. No Ocean is Sea.
Examine the conclusions:
I) Some Ponds are Sea
II) All Rivers are Ocean
III) Some Sea may be a River
Which of the conclusions necessarily follows ? Choose the most appropriate
answer:
a) Only I b) Only II
87.Some Ships are Boats. All Boats are submarines. Some Submarines are
Yachts. Examine the following statements:
I) Some Yachts are Boats
II) Some Submarines are Ships
III) Some Yachts are Ships
Choose the most appropriate answer:
88.All States are countries. Only some countries are States. Some States
are democratic. Given that X is democratic, examine the following
conclusions:
I. X is a State
II. X is a country
III. X is not a State
IV. X is not a country
a) Only I follows.
b) I and II follow.
c) III and IV follow.
d) None of the four conclusions necessarily follow.
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89. Statement I: All books are valuables.

Statement II: Some souvenirs are books.
Statement III: Some books are souvenirs.
Statement IV: No valuables are souvenirs.
a) Statements I, II and III are consistent with each other.
b) Statements II, III and IV are consistent with each other.
c) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’ are correct.
90. All lions are animals. No animal is a zombie. All zombies are rainbows. All
rainbows are zombies.
Given this information, which of the options necessarily follows ?
a) No lions are rainbows. b) Some lions are rainbows.
c) All lions are rainbows. d) None of the above.
91. ‘Frankly, technology is often baffling to me, too. Luckily, I have kids who
delight in parenting me – advising, explaining and guiding me, on all things
digital. But studies suggest that this helpfulness might not be as beneficial
as we think. Grappling with new and baffling things forces the ageing brain
to work in novel ways. A recent study from the University of Texas involving
more than 200 elderly adults found that those who engaged with technology
had better cognition and memory than their non-engaging peers.’
Which of the following assumption is made in the above passage?
a) Elderly adults are technology averse
b) All elderly adults are incapable of understanding technology without
significant help
c) At present technology is designed in a manner that most elderly adults
find difficult to work with
d) Elderly adults must engage with technology as it improves their
health
92. Depression among the elderly is on the rise and often goes unnoticed. Most
Gerontologists now believe that it is an extremely common psychiatric
disorders among the elderly – with half of all cases going undiagnosed. When
elderly parents become depressed (many of them come from a generation
not accustomed to talking about their mental health), it can be difficult to
know how to respond.
a) Gerontologists unanimously agree on the prevalence of depression in
the elderly
b) Depression is increasingly prevalent among the elderly
c) If the elderly talk more often, it is easy to detect if they have depression
d) While they may not talk about mental health, the elderly are very aware
about the condition
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93. Players have long been able to buy virtual items with real money in video
games, such as special weapons and features. But Nintendo raised the ire of
parents and regulators in 2018 when it added so-called loot boxes—a virtual
lottery for in-game items—to its kid-friendly game ‘Animal Crossing: Pocket
Camp.’ That same year, the US Federal Trade Commission said it would
investigate loot boxes, which critics liken to a slot machine or a scratch
ticket that’s more accessible to children. The video game industry pushed
back hard, arguing that loot boxes are an integral part of the strategy and
skills players use to compete.
The passage assumes which of the following:

a) Video games industry’s sole purpose is to maximise profit via active
exploitation of players through any means possible without consideration
as to the age of the player
b) There are no limitations in US as to who can make an in-game purchase,
since children have access to loot boxes
c) The highest utilisation of loot boxes happens in Nintendo’s games
d) By choosing to investigate the matter, the US FTC has expressed its
displeasure at presence of loot boxes in video games
94. Any attempt at fighting the camp’s psychopathological influence on the

prisoner by psychotherapeutic or psychogenic methods has to aim at giving
inner strength by pointing out to him a future goal to which he could look
forward. Instinctively some of the prisoners attempted to find one on their
own. It is a peculiarity of man that he can only live by looking to the future.
And this is his salvation in the most difficult moments of his existence,
although he sometimes has to force his mind to the task.
Which one of the following conclusions can be properly inferred from the
passage?
I. Each individual has the ability to preserve their sanity by remaining
focussed on the future
II. Looking to the future is difficult for many, as they get caught up in the
present
III. Those going through a tough time must rely on their past experiences
for inner strength

a) Only I b) Only II c) I and II d) I and III
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95.The problem with eugenics and genetic engineering is that they represent
the one-sided triumph of wilfulness over giftedness, of dominance over
reverence, of moulding over beholding. But why, we may wonder, should we
worry about this triumph? Why not shake off our unease with enhancement
as so much superstition? What would be lost if biotechnology dissolved our
sense of giftedness ?
Which of the following conclusions can be properly inferred from the
passage?
I. Genetically engineered kids would be ungifted.
II. Genetic engineering might make people more focussed on controlling
things and less respectful of natural abilities.
III. Controlling and dominating abilities through genetic engineering should
be seen as natural part of human progress.
c) Only II and III d) Only I and III
Statements: Young adults spend most of their time on social media. Young
96.
adults should spend more time making connections in the real world.
Conclusions
I. Young Adults should avoid social media.
II. Young adults cannot make real life connections because they spend
most of their time on social media.
Which of the following conclusions can be properly inferred? Choose the
most appropriate answer.
a) Only I follows b) Only II follows
c) Both I and II follows d) Neither I nor II follows
97.
While television and print media are still bound by regulations that require
a modicum of truthful content, social media is a battleground of facts,
lies, and deception, where governments, journalists, law enforcement, and
activists are on an uneven playing field. Lack of stringent regulation or
periodic verification, enable unbridled access to social media, resulting in
unchecked dissemination of information with elusive credibility.
passage?
I. Anyone can post anything on the social media.
II. It is generally difficult to ascertain the accuracy of content posted on
social media.
III. People are easily influenced by what they read on social media.
a) Only III b) Only II c) Both I and II d) I, II and III
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98. Fitness tracking devices often recommend we take 10,000 steps a day.
But the goal of taking 10,000 steps, which many of us believe is rooted in
science, in fact rests on coincidence and sticky history rather than research.
Research suggests use of time, not steps, and suggest we exercise for at
least 150 minutes a week, or half an hour most days, in addition to any
moving around we do as part of our normal daily lives.
passage?
a) most people walk 10,000 steps but become frustrated when no apparent
benefits are noticeable
b) it is better to measure effort through time rather than number of steps,
being a more scientific measure
c) most people find it difficult to complete 10,000 steps daily
d) none of the above
99. Human beings are entitled to dignity and rights while non-human animals
are not, because human beings are autonomous while animals are
heteronomous. In other words, animals are not in control of their actions and
are guided entirely by pleasure and pain, while human beings are capable
of acting, for moral reasons, even contrary to pleasure and consonant with
pain.
a) Entitlement to dignity and rights flows from the ability to act, for moral
reasons, contrary to pleasure and consonant with pain.
b) Human beings are worthy of asserting superiority over animals.
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) Neither (a) nor (b)
100. The negative psychological effects of pornography, including addiction and
emotional distress, are well-documented. We have a moral obligation to
protect our society from these potential harms. Banning pornography is a
responsible step to safeguard the mental well-being of individuals, especially
our youth.
a) The negative psychological effects of pornography are significant and
concerning enough to warrant a ban on pornography.
b) There are no substantial positive or beneficial aspects to pornography
consumption that might counterbalance the negative effects.
c) Both (a) and (b)
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101. Excessive use of mobile phones has been associated with a range of health
issues. Prolonged screen time and constant connectivity can lead to physical
problems like eye strain, neck and back pain, and disrupted sleep patterns.
Additionally, excessive use of mobile phones raises concerns about the
potential long-term health effects of exposure to electromagnetic radiation.
Therefore, one should not use mobile phones.
a) One should not use anything the excessive use of which can cause
health problems.
b) One should not use anything associated with electromagnetic radiation.
c) Both (a) and (b)
102. Dark comedy should be banned. Dark comedy often relies on humour that
is edgy and insensitive, making light of serious or sensitive topics such
as death, mental illness, or tragedy. It can normalize insensitivity and
desensitize people to the gravity of these issues. Over time, individuals may
become less empathetic or more willing to dismiss the real-life pain and
suffering of others as mere punchlines.
a) Insensitive things should be banned.
b) It is not acceptable to dismiss the real-life pain and suffering of others.
c) Both (a) and (b)
103. An environmental organization claims that replacing traditional light
bulbs with LED bulbs in households will significantly reduce electricity
consumption.
Which of the following, if true, would most support this claim?
a) LED bulbs are more expensive than traditional light bulbs.
b) LED bulbs have a longer lifespan than traditional light bulbs.
c) LED bulbs emit less heat than traditional light bulbs.
d) LED bulbs are available in a variety of colours.
104. A research study concluded that regular exercise leads to better mental
health. The study found that individuals who exercised on an average for
30 minutes every day reported lower levels of stress and anxiety.
Which of the following, if true, would undermine the study’s conclusion?
a) The study included participants from a wide range of age groups.
b) Individuals who exercised for longer durations reported did not report
marked decrease in stress and anxiety.
c) The study was limited in its geographic scope.
d) Participants who exercised experienced physical injuries.
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105. Gun violence in schools is a significant and concerning issue, and discussing
ways to prevent it and ensure the safety of students and faculty is crucial.
An important way of limiting it is by implementing background checks and
waiting periods for gun purchases. This can prevent individuals with mental
health issues from obtaining firearms. Which of the following is the most
appropriate assumption required by the above passage?
a) Gun violence in school is primarily committed by individuals with mental
health issues.
b) Individuals with mental health issues are more likely to purchase guns
to commit a crime.
c) Both (a) and (b)
106. The question of whether colonialism was ‘good’ is a complex and debated
topic. Some argue that colonialism led to advancements in technology,
infrastructure, and education in some regions. However, it also brought
about immense suffering, exploitation, and the loss of sovereignty for many
indigenous populations. The negative consequences, including cultural
erosion, displacement, and violence, often outweigh any potential benefits.
In contemporary discourse, it is generally recognized that the harms of
colonialism far outweigh any perceived ‘good,’ and its legacy continues to
shape global inequalities and injustices.
Which of the following is/are most appropriate conclusion(s) of the above

passage?
I. It is important to see both the ‘good’ and ‘bad’ of colonialism to understand
its true impact.
II. Irrespective of the ‘good’ that colonialism brought, it can never justify
the ‘bad’ it perpetrated.
III. It was necessary to do ‘bad’ to attain the good in colonialism.
IV. discussions on effects of colonialism must end with attainment of
independence, otherwise it tends to become a continuing excuse.

a) Only I
b) Only II
c) Both I and II
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107. The Examination Department at prominent National Law School is considering

setting its class schedules for the incoming batch. The subjects are Sociology,
Contracts, Political Science, Constitutional Law and Administrative Law.
The following considerations are kept in mind:
I. All classes must be held every day
II. Political Science must immediately follow Contracts on any day
III. Sociology cannot be the first or the last subject on any day
IV. Constitutional Law and Administrative law cannot immediately precede
or follow each other
If Administrative Law is the third class of the day, what does the class
schedule for that day looks like
a) Constitutional Law, Sociology, Administrative Law, Contracts, Political
Science
b) Contracts, Political Science, Administrative Law, Constitutional Law,
Sociology
c) Contracts, Constitutional Law, Administrative Law, Sociology, Political
Science
d) Sociology, Contracts, Administrative Law, Political Science,
Constitutional Law
108. Before announcing its policy of Non-Performing Assets (NPA), the Finance
Ministry has decided to consult heads of six of the largest banks in the
country (A,B,C,D,E,F). It is a well-known fact that not all heads get along
very well with each other and prefer not to sit next to each other in any
meeting. During the meeting they all will sit in a line facing the finance
minister. You have been tasked to devise a seating plan keeping in mind
the following conditions.
I. A cannot be on the immediate left or right of B
II. D cannot be at either end
III. E and F would ideally like to sit next to each other
IV. C would prefer to sit one seat removed from E
Which of the following is a possible seating arrangement?

a) D,A,F,E,B,C
b) E,F,A,B,D,C
c) A,D,E,F,C,B
d) F,E,C,A,D,B
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109. Cities are the engines of a nation’s progress. However, many cities are
poorly managed and struggle to provide a basic standard of living to many
residents. At the core of the problem is the question of autonomy of cities
that are almost always dependent on central or state governments for even
basic needs. A new report suggests that this can be remedied through
constitutional amendments to provide more autonomy, means of revenue-
generation and discretion in spending to cities.
Which of the below facts, if true, most weakens the above argument?
a) Cities which are self-governing have historically not been able to provide
a good standard of living to its residents.
b) Constitutional amendments may take some time to be passed.
c) It is easier for the central or state governments to administer cities.
110. A town was faced with the problem of an excessive number of rats. To solve
this, the town started offering a financial reward for every rat killed, which
was to be proved by showing the severed tail of the rat.
Which of the following facts, if true, would be an argument in favour of the

town’s policy?
a) Merely cutting off the tail of a rat does not stop that rat from surviving
and producing more rats.
b) Once the tail of a rat is cut off, the rat cannot survive.
c) Cutting off tails is an inhumane way to solve the problem.
111. Not wearing a seatbelt in a moving vehicle is illegal and punishable. However,
X argues that since not wearing a seatbelt can at most only harm the person
who has chosen not to wear a seatbelt, and does not harm any other person,
it should not be illegal or punishable.
Which of the following facts, if true, would weaken X’s argument?
a) People who don’t wear a seatbelt are likely to suffer severe injuries in
the event of an accident, and consequently make use of public health
resources such as government hospitals.
b) In the event of an accident, people who are not wearing a seatbelt may
also be thrown about and cause harm to other people or property.
c) Both (a) and (b)
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112. Certain tennis tournaments have started a policy for equal pay for men and
women players. Supporters of the policy argue that lack of equal pay would
violate the principle of equal pay for equal work. Which of the following
arguments most weakens the supporters’ argument?
a) Men’s matches generate more revenue than women’s matches.
b) Men usually play 5-set matches while women play 3-set matches, i.e.
men usually play longer matches.
c) The principle of equal pay for equal work did not originate in sports.
113. Certain tennis tournaments have started a policy for equal pay for men
and women players. Critics of the policy argue that because men’s matches
generate more revenue than women’s matches, this policy is ill-conceived.
Which of the following most weakens the critics’ argument?
a) Revenue generation should result in equal pay.
b) Organisers of tennis tournaments have more than enough money and
can afford to pay all players high amounts.
c) Both (a) and (b)
114. Statement: “Nudge theory” is the theory that by shaping the environment,
also known as the choice architecture, one can influence the likelihood
that one option is chosen over another by individuals, without adding any
significant incentives or disincentives for any option. For example, a retail
store may place its more expensive items at eye-level, and cheaper items
at a lower shelf. Perhaps the most frequently mentioned example of nudge
theory is the setting of defaults, which are pre-set courses of action that
take effect if nothing is specified by the decision-maker.
Which of the following facts, if true, best supports the above statements?
I. If a default option is provided, decision-makers are likely to choose that
option.
II. Consumers in a retail store are likely to choose items that are placed at
eye level rather than items which are placed on a lower shelf.
a) Only I.
b) Only II.
c) Both I and II.
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115. Some children’s books which were published in the 1950s contain racist
and sexist language that would be unacceptable today. These books should
be re-published with the racist and sexist language omitted.
Which of the following most strengthens the above argument?
a) Children who are exposed to racist or sexist language will think that
such language is acceptable.
b) Racist or sexist language should never be permitted to be published for
any reason.
c) Both (a) and (b)
116. Darshan is attempting to build a 5-day meal-plan from 6 dishes - U, V, W,
X, Y, and Z - in accordance with the following conditions:
I. No dish may be repeated unless two other dishes are cooked before the
repetition.
II. W and V must not be made on consecutive days.
III. U and Z must not be made on alternate days.
IV. Y must always be followed by X.
Which of the following is a valid meal-plan if V must be included?
a) X, U, V, X, Y b) X, U, Y, W, V
c) Z, V, U, W, X d) None of the above
117. Joseph must decide which songs - A, B, C, D, and E - to sing in a 5-day
performance schedule, with each song being performed only on one day,
in accordance with the following conditions:
I. C and D must not be scheduled on adjacent days.
II. B may immediately follow E, but not vice-versa.
III. The first day must either be A or C.
IV. The last day cannot be D.
If B is the mid-point of the performance schedule, which of the following is
a valid 5-day schedule?
a) A, E, B, C, D b) A, D, B, E, C
c) C, A, B, D, E d) None of the above
118. Anisha must decide how to seat her friends - V, W, X, Y, Z - at a circular
wedding table in accordance with the following conditions:
I. Z and W must sit next to each other.
II. Y may only sit with V if Y is also sitting with Z.
III. X is happy to sit with anyone.
If Y and X arrive early and take seats 1 and 3, which of the following is a
valid arrangement ?
a) Y, V, X, Z, W b) Y, Z, X, W, V
c) Y, W, X, Z, V d) None of the above
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119. Arjun is prioritizing his set of tasks for the day - V, W, X, Y, and Z - in
accordance with the following conditions:
I. X must not be the last task.
II. If Z is the first task, then it must be followed by either V or Y.
III. X and W cannot be prioritized sequentially.
IV. V must be followed by either W or Y.
If Arjun assigns Y to position 3, which of these is a possible ordering for
the tasks?
a) Z, W, Y, X, V
b) V, X, Y, W, Z
c) X, Z, Y, V, W
120. Principle 1: Whoever enters into another person’s property with intent to
intimidate, insult or annoy that person, commits “criminal trespass”.
Principle 2: An act which causes harm which is so slight that no person
of ordinary sense and temper would complain of such harm, is deemed not
to amount to intimidation, insult or annoyance.
Facts: X enters into Y’s property at midnight, uninvited, and points a gun
at Y. A few minutes later, he reveals that the gun is a toy gun.
a) X has committed criminal trespass, because Y finds X annoying.
b) X has not committed criminal trespass, because the gun was a toy gun
and could not possibly have caused any harm to Y.
c) X has committed criminal trespass because entering uninvited into a
property at midnight and pointing a gun at a person would intimidate
any person of ordinary sense and temper.
121. Principle: Any person who knowingly disseminates false information with
the intent to defraud shall be guilty of an offence.
Facts: Dravid shares a news article containing false information about a
popular cryptocurrency investment scheme. He claims it’s a groundbreaking
opportunity. Many people invest and later lose money.
Is Dravid guilty of an offence?
a) Yes, because he knowingly disseminated false information.
b) No, because he did not have the intent to defraud.
c) Yes, if investors can prove substantial financial harm.
d) There is insufficient information to decide.
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122. Principle: Any individual who recklessly operates a motor vehicle, causing
injury to another person, shall be guilty of an offense.
Facts: Salman, while driving, becomes momentarily distracted and
accidentally hits a pedestrian, causing minor injuries. Salman argues that
it was a genuine accident and not reckless behaviour.
Is Salman guilty of an offense?
a) Yes, because he caused injury to another person.
b) No, because momentary distractions don’t amount to recklessness.
c) Yes, because he acted recklessly.
d) There is insufficient information to decide.
Consider the following principles and respond to the Q.123-126.
I. Principle 1: Vicarious liability is a doctrine holding one person strictly
liable for the wrong of another, without regard to fault.
II. Principle 2: An employer may be vicariously liable for the employee’s action
if the employee’s act was an outgrowth of his employment, inherent in the
working environment, typical of or broadly incidental to the employer’s
business, or, in a general way, foreseeable from his duties.
III. Principle 3: No vicarious liability on employers for the intentional wrongs
by employees unless the employee’s actions were done, at least in part, to
serve the interest of the employer.
123. Which of the following will NOT result in vicarious liability?
a) A, working as delivery driver for Flipkart, runs over Mr. X’s foot while
on a personal errand on a weekend in his own car.
b) A, working as delivery driver for Flipkart, runs over Mr. X’s foot on his
way to stop at the local coffee shop between deliveries, needing a caffeine
boost to make it through the day.
c) A, working as delivery driver for Flipkart, runs over Mr. X’s foot on his
way home from work in his truck, which the company allows drivers to
take home each work night.
d) All the above.
124. Which of the following may result in vicarious liability?
a) A collision when the driver using the employer’s vehicle for the purpose
of visiting family for the holidays.
b) The driver causes injury when he is driving his truck between deliveries
and intentionally runs over a man, he believes to be his wife’s lover.
c) The driver causes injury when he intentionally hits a car in front of him,
as the car in front of him was moving too slowly while the driver was
trying to make deliveries on time.
d) All the above.
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125. An unknown person knocks down a few hundred jars of baby food in the
supermarket. Many of the jars shattered, making a big, slippery mess on
the floor. Laila, the supermarket manager, closes down the aisle with bright
orange cones and orders all available stock personnel to clean the mess.
Arun, who is not paying attention while shopping in the supermarket,
wanders past the orange cones, slips, and breaks his arm. Is the supermarket
vicariously liable?
a) Yes, as Laila is an employee of the supermarket.
b) Yes, as Arun sustained injuries at the supermarket.
c) No, as Arun was also at fault.
d) No, as Laila did no wrong.
126. Phogat works as a bouncer at the Hot Spot, a local nightclub. One night Dash
arrives outside the Hot Spot with a group of his friends. Dash is intoxicated
and acting obnoxiously, hooting at the women going in and out of the club.
Dash’s behaviour annoys Phogat, who asked Dash twice to stop acting in
this way, but Dash ignored him on both occasions. Phogat then punches
Dash in the face, breaking his nose. Dash sues the Hot Spot and Phogat,
claiming that the Hot Spot is vicariously liable. Is the Hot Spot vicariously
liable for the actions of Phogat?
a) No, because Phogat committed an intentional wrong.
b) No, because there is no evidence the Hot Spot was negligent in supervising
Phogat.
c) Yes, because employers are always liable for the torts of their
employees.
d) Yes, because such action by a bouncer may at times use force to prevent
patrons from misbehaving.
Consider the following scenario and respond to the Q.127-130.

Imagine that society can be divided into Xs and Ys, and X and Y refer to people
with different physical characteristics or other characteristics that can easily be
observed or discovered, such as race, ethnicity, immigrant status, or religious
practices. Within each group, there are good and bad types. Assume that the Xs
are wealthier and more politically powerful than the Ys perhaps because they
are more numerous, or because they are descended from a politically powerful
group. Under such conditions, it is possible that members of X will signal their
cooperative propensity by discriminating against the Ys. Discrimination functions
as a signal because it is costly (one gives up the opportunity to do business or
socialize with Ys who are good types), and because conspiracy theories based on
traditional fears of people with physical or cultural differences, or people who are
recent arrivals, provide a focal point: given these beliefs, those who discriminate
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against outsiders will appear to be loyal to the insiders. In equilibrium all or most
Xs will avoid Ys (and those who do not will be ostracized by the Xs and may seek
refuge with the Ys), and almost all Y’s will avoid the Xs, falling back on each other
when it is desirable to enter cooperative ventures. Finally, we assume that because
of their political and economic dominance, members of X control the government,
including the criminal justice system.
127. Which of the following observation is incorrect?

a) If X is a numerically large group, Y comprises of small ethnic groups
b) If X is a tiny minority of people with aristocratic lineage, Ys consist of
the masses
c) Numerical strength of X is always higher than that of Y
d) X may or may not be a numerically larger group
128. Which of the following observation is incorrect, if the Xs operate the criminal
justice system to the disadvantage of the Ys ?
a) Ys must rely heavily on each other for protection against criminals
b) Ys may form a solidary group and signal their loyalty to the group
c) Ys may express loyalty to Ys by engaging in activities that the Xs
disapprove of and even punish
d) Y who engages in activities disapproved by Xs can never be trusted in
comparison with other Ys
129. Assume that criminal punishments will have different effects on Xs and Ys.
Which of the following is incorrect?
a) Ys obtain more respect from other Ys when they become subject to
criminal punishments
b) A criminal punishment will deter a Y less than it will deter a similarly
situated X, who obtains no enhanced respect
c) Criminal punishments impact Xs and Ys in the same manner so long
as the very nature of the punishment is the same
d) A ‘Y’ who has a criminal record will not be trusted by Xs
130. Assume that semi-voluntary punishment is a reliable signal of a Y’s loyalty

to the other Ys. Which of the following is an incorrect observation?
a) Y has an incentive to get himself punished by the Xs
b) Y may commit a crime even if Y does not have a particular desire to
commit a crime
c) Y will commit a crime only if X provokes Y to commit a crime
d) A criminal punishment that was kept hidden from the public would
deter a Y from crime more effectively than a criminal punishment that
broadcasts his offense
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131. Consider the following principle.

In a dispute between Anil and Sunil, Sunil can sue Anil in:
I. the city where the dispute arose, OR
II. in the city of Anil’s place of business
Facts: Anil and Sunil enter into a contract for delivery of specialised
machinery. Anil was to deliver the machinery to Sunil’s warehouse within
a stipulated period of time. Anil’s residence is in Delhi, but his place of
business is Bengaluru, whereas Sunil is a resident of Mumbai. Anil fails
to deliver the machinery during the agreed time.
Where can Sunil sue Anil ?
a) In Delhi
b) In Bengaluru
c) In Mumbai
d) Both in Bengaluru and Mumbai provided the dispute arose in Mumbai
132. “All paintings jump. Some paintings are plants. All basketballs are plants.”
Football is a basketball. Which of the following is true?
a) Football is a plant and it jumps.
b) Football is a plant and a painting.
c) Football is a plant but neither jumps nor is a painting.
d) Football is a plant. As to whether it is painting, and as to whether it
jumps, there is not sufficient information.
Mona Lisa jumps. Which of the following is true?
a) Mona Lisa is a painting.
b) Mona Lisa is not a plant.
c) Mona Lisa is not a basketball.
d) As to whether Mona Lisa is a painting, a plant or a basketball, there is
not sufficient information.
Dragon is a plant that jumps. Which of the following is true?
a) Dragon is a painting.
b) Dragon is not a painting.
c) Dragon is a basketball.
d) As to whether Dragon is a painting or a basketball, there is not sufficient
information.
Aloe Vera is a basketball and a painting. Which of the following is true?
a) Aloe Vera is a plant and it jumps.
b) Aloe Vera is a plant but does not jump.
c) Aloe Vera is not a plant but it jumps.
d) Aloe Vera jumps. As to whether it is a plant, there is not sufficient information.
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136. “It is well known that the world isn’t the same anymore — politically,
economically or, for that matter, financially. Macroeconomic settings have
turned adverse — from ultra-low to higher-for-longer interest rates — and
raised the levels of debt, especially public debt, uncertainties, and volatility.
It follows that these conditions will bear upon future growth. The breaking
up of trade supply chains and their reshaping, for example, will be costly for
the world in general, according to calculations, and costlier for the emerging
and the developing countries.”
a) Economic events in one part of the world always shape other parts of the world.
b) When macroeconomic settings turn adverse, future growth gets impacted.
c) Both (a) and (b)
137. “Travelling in a bus can be an enjoyable experience if you have your own
seat, the vehicle is not crowded, and there is a nice breeze. But if the bus
is packed with people, you can get irritable. Something similar happens
to atoms: if they are contained in a vessel at a low density, they behave in
a certain way, but if they are packed densely together, with little moving
space, something new happens.”
a) Less crowd is essential to an enjoyable bus ride.
b) Atomic behaviour can always be understood by drawing analogies to
real-world events.
c) Both (a) and (b)
138. “The issue of “tamperability” of EVMs has been doing the rounds ever since
they were first introduced. Every time a political party loses an election, it
blames the machine. However, none of them has been able to prove their
allegations against the credibility of EVMs, and neither do they apologise
when they win the elections where the same EVMs have been used. All that
this manages to do, however, is shake the trust of people in the system.
Many critics, giving the example of Germany, say that EVMs have been
declared illegal by the German Supreme Court.”
a) EVMs are tamper proof.
b) Criticism of any system shakes people’s trust in it.
c) Both (a) and (b)
139. “The art of war is of vital importance to the State. It is a matter of life and
death, a road either to safety or to ruin. Hence it is a subject of inquiry
which can on no account be neglected.”
a) Matters of life and death should not be neglected.
b) Matters of life and death are of vital importance to the State.
c) Both (a) and (b)
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140. In a survey of IT professionals in Bangalore, those who regularly practiced

yoga reported fewer instances of work-related stress than those who did
not. Priyanka, an IT professional from Bangalore, rarely feels work-related
stress. Which of the following can be inferred?
a) Priyanka practices yoga daily.
b) Priyanka never practices yoga.
c) Priyanka might be practising yoga.
141. In English tort law, the principle of ‘strict liability’ is applied to hold a person
legally responsible for the consequences flowing from an activity, even in
the absence of fault or criminal intent on the person’s part. In 1987, the
Supreme Court of India introduced a new principle- ‘absolute liability’, a far
more stringent rule of liability without any exceptions, particularly to deal
with industrial accidents. This principle imposed a liability on individuals
who engaged in an inherently dangerous or hazardous activity for any harm
done to any person while carrying out the activity.
Which one of the following assumptions is necessary to ensure the above
argument logically follows?
a) English legal principles are not compatible with the Indian court system.
b) Post-Independence, the Supreme Court opted to create new names for
colonial-era legal principles.
c) The principle of strict liability was inadequate to protect citizens’ rights
due to the entry of foreign companies in Indian markets.
d) The principle of strict liability was inadequate to protect citizens’ rights
in the light of the rapid industrialisation in the 20th century.
142. A study conducted on a group of students found a strong correlation between the
number of hours spent studying and their exam scores. However, one student
who studied significantly less than the others achieved a top score. Which of the
following, if true, would weaken the general applicability of the study’s findings?
a) The top-scoring student had a photographic memory.
b) The study included a wide range of students from various backgrounds.
c) The top-scoring student had prior knowledge of the exam questions.
d) The study was conducted in a controlled environment.
143. Company A announced record-breaking profits this year, attributing its
success to a new marketing strategy. However, Company B, a competitor in
the same market segment, also reported significant profits without changing
its marketing approach. What conclusion can most likely be drawn about
the effectiveness of respective marketing strategies?
a) Company A’s previous marketing strategy was flawed in its conception.
b) Company B’s marketing strategy was significantly more effective than
Company A’s revised strategy.
c) Company A’s profits were solely influenced by its marketing strategy.
d) Company B’s profits were solely due to its marketing strategy.
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144. The recent surge in demand for electric vehicles has led to increased
lithium-ion battery production.
Which of the following can be inferred?
a) The increase in lithium-ion battery production is solely driven by the
demand for electric vehicles.
b) Lithium-ion batteries are the only type of batteries used in electric
vehicles.
c) Increased production of lithium-ion batteries will lead to a decrease in
their cost.
145. The education system needs comprehensive reform to address the diverse
learning needs of students.
a) Comprehensive reform will guarantee equal educational outcomes for
all students.
b) The current education system is not equipped to cater to diverse learning
needs.
c) Comprehensive reform is easy to implement and will not face
resistance.
d) Diverse learning needs can be met without changing the education
system.
146. The education system must prioritize critical thinking skills to prepare
students for the challenges of the modern world.
a) Critical thinking skills are currently not emphasized in the education system.
b) Prioritizing critical thinking skills is the only way to prepare students
for the modern world.
c) Critical thinking skills are not relevant to the challenges of the modern world.
d) Students do not need other skills besides critical thinking to succeed.
147. If in a certain code LIGHT is NFLAE, then TABLE would be ____
a) VXGEP b) WUHIG c) WIJKL d) VYTAB
148. If in a certain code TALK is YUPC, then LISTEN would be ____
a) QCZLND b) PNZCRC c) QNYBND d) PMYCQC
149. TALE : XGTO :: LONG : ?
a) OTUX b) PUVQ c) QVWC d) RWXT
150. BELL : DATV :: MATE : ?
a) OWBO b) PXCQ c) QYDS d) SABX
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ALL INDIA LAW ENTRANCE TEST-2024
B.A.LL.B.(HONS.) ADMISSION TEST-2024
PROVISIONAL MASTER ANSWER KEY
Q.No. Ans. Q.No. Ans. Q.No. Ans. Q.No. Ans. Q.No. Ans.
1 B 31 B 61 B 91 C 121 D
2 C 32 A 62 A 92 B 122 B
3 A 33 C 63 B 93 B 123 A
4 B 34 B 64 A 94 C 124 C
5 D 35 A 65 B 95 B 125 D
6 B 36 C 66 D 96 D 126 D
7 C 37 A 67 A 97 C 127 C
8 C 38 B 68 A 98 B 128 D
9 A 39 C 69 D 99 A 129 C
10 A 40 D 70 D 100 C 130 C
11 D 41 C 71 C 101 A 131 D
12 B 42 D 72 A 102 B 132 D
13 B 43 C 73 D 103 C 133 D
14 B 44 C 74 B 104 B 134 A
15 B 45 B 75 B 105 D 135 A
16 D 46 C 76 C 106 C 136 B
17 C 47 D 77 A 107 A 137 D
18 D 48 C 78 A 108 C 138 D
19 A 49 B 79 A 109 A 139 C
20 D 50 C 80 C 110 B 140 C
21 A 51 B 81 C 111 C 141 D
22 C 52 C 82 B 112 B 142 C
23 C 53 D 83 D 113 D 143 A
24 A 54 D 84 D 114 C 144 A
25 B 55 A 85 C 115 A 145 B
26 A 56 A 86 D 116 D 146 A
27 C 57 C 87 B 117 C 147 A
28 B 58 A 88 D 118 D 148 A
29 B 59 D 89 C 119 C 149 B
30 D 60 D 90 A 120 C 150 A
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SOLUTIONS
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1. (d) The text is an example of an informative text. The author has provided
details of Wesley Hohfeld's ideas on interests in property. This is not a literary text
nor an argumentative one. A descriptive text is a text which says what a person or a
thing is like. Its purpose is to describe and reveal a particular person, place, or
thing.
2. (d) Exemption refers to the process of freeing or state of being free from an
obligation or liability imposed on others. Immunity is its synonym. Accountability
refers to responsibility or liability.
3. (c) Vis-à-vis is a loanword from French, and its literal meaning is "face-to-face."
In English, vis-à-vis is used as an adverb, adjective, and noun with its literal
meaning. As a preposition, vis-à-vis is used to compare things, or as synonyms for
"opposite" or "facing."
4. (c) The passage is primarily concerned with the description of certain legal terms
and what they mean in the context of property. Hence, the third option would act as
an apt title for the passage. The other options don't have anything to do with the
ideas presented.
5. (c) The passage describes certain legal terms and what they mean in terms of
rights and responsibilities. Hence, the third statement would be aligned with the
information provided. The reference to the various thinkers is not relevant
contextually. Similarly, the discussions around human rights and discrimination
laws go beyond the scope of the passage.
6. (a) X would have no-right as against Y as 'no-right' is the jural co-relative of
privilege.
7. (c) A has POWER vis-à-vis X and Y as power has been defined as the capacity
to change the legal relationship which A hold in the given case.
8. (d) Every person has a disability against the owner of that road as the right to the
owner prevents them (disables them) from using the road.
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9. (a) The owner of the road would have a right as against every person as he could
prevent them from using the road.
10. (a) B would be under a duty to pay the damages as rights and duty are jural
correlatives of each other.
11. (b) The owner of the land would have power as against the property as he has
capacity to change the legal relationship vis-à-vis his property
12. (a) Y has a right as against X and he can enforce the imposition of duty which
X has as to not infringe the copyright.
13. (c) A feat is an achievement that requires great courage, skill, or strength. Of
the choices given, only an acrobatic performance includes these elements.
14. (a) Something is termed a 'key' event or phenomenon to indicate its crucial,
critical or extreme significance.
15. (d) Point Noun-Example: you missed the whole point of the joke.
Verb-Example: point the way home Iron Noun a silver-white malleable ductile
magnetic heavy metallic element that readily rusts in moist air, occurs in pure form
in meteorites and combined in most igneous rocks, is the most abundant element
on Earth by mass, and is vital to biological processes. Verb-to smooth with or as if
with a heated iron a shirt Core Noun a central and often foundational part usually
distinct from the enveloping part by a difference in nature the core of the city Verb
to remove a core from core an apple
16. (b) The adjective in this sentence is 'true' Here, it means exact, precise.
17. (d) Undulates refers to moving or going with a smooth up-and-down motion,
Dancing is the only action that would involve undulation.
18. (d) Information is insufficient as either B or C could be in the centre.
19. (d) If one seeks to travel to D from A, one has to go South.
20. (b) If one seeks to travel to B from A, one has to go South East.
21. (d) At sunset the rays of the sun will fall on A from west, which is towards its
left, so A's shadow points towards E.
22. (a) If, somehow, the piece of paper rotates a quarter-circle counter-clockwise,
the needle points towards approximately east.
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23. (b) A is holding a compass at the time of sunrise. He points it towards the
direction of the sunrise and sees that it reads "SW". This means that the compass
has rotated 135 degrees clockwise or 225 degrees counter- clockwise.
24. (b) In the facts of the question above, "NW" on the compass pointing towards
South.
25. (d) To outline something to the present its salient features, main aspects.
26. (b) The author is expressing amusement in these lines. Therefore, he/she is
being humorous.
27. (c) Refer the following lines from the third paragraph: "Aristotle, if an
argument was valid, it would be impossible for premises X and Y to be true and for
conclusion Z to be false." Thus, the second statement can be inferred from this.
The first statement finds no support in the text.
28. (a) The meaning of hypothetical is involving or being based on a suggested
idea or theory being or involving a hypothesis: conjectural.
29. (a) Quantifiers are words like 'all or 'some'. The use of 'a lot' in the first
sentence is an example of a quantifier.
30. (d) The premises given are in the form of an if-then' condition. In this, if the
cause occurs, the effect will occur. Thus, if it is sunny today, I can go running.
Also, if the effect did not occur, the cause did not occur. Thus, if I can't go running
today, then it is not sunny. The negation of cause does not automatically result in
negation of effect. Hence, none of the options given are correct.
31. (d) Let's read this as 'Some A is B'. Then, all the conclusions are possible -
some B is A (this will include both majority and minority) and all B is A.
32. (b)
33. (c)
34. (a) If all race-cars drive on four wheels and cars that drive on four wheels are
20 times faster than cars that drive on any other number of wheels then it follows
that in a Formula 1 race, a non-four-wheeled car (i.e., a car that does not drive on
four wheels) will never be able to win.
35. (a) One cannot conclude no A is B from some A is B.
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36. (c)
37.(b) Refer to these lines from the passage: 'Edward abdicated without any issue
(i.e., child), after his proposed marriage to divorced socialite Wallis Simpson
provoked a constitutional crisis. Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
38. (b) Provoking means giving rise to a reaction.
39. (d) Heir apparent and heir presumptive both Indicate the next person in the line
of succession, I.e. the birth of another.
40. (c) 'Double minded" is not a phrasal verb.
41. (a) Option (b) challenges the facts that build the arguments. Thus, It is not
really weakening. Options (c) and (d) bear no effect on the argument. Option (a)
challenges the given argument. Therefore, it weakens the argument.
42. (d) Refer to these lines of the passage: 'During her grandfather's reign,
Elizabeth was third in the line of succession to the British throne, behind her uncle
Edward and her father. Her younger and only sister Margaret was next in the line
of succession." As per these lines, only option (d) is correct.
43. (b) Refer to these lines of the passage: 'Since Elizabeth had no brothers, she
became heir resumptive. If her parents had subsequently had a son, he would have
been heir apparent and above her in the line of succession, which was determined
by the male-preference primogeniture (as against female preference primogeniture
or primogeniture simpliciter) in effect at the time.' From these lines, it can be
concluded that had George VI and his queen- consort given birth to a boy child, the
boy would have been the heir presumptive.
44. (a) Given X is the reigning monarch of a country (following primogeniture),
who said, "He is the son of my mother's daughter." X's mother's daughter is X's
sister. It means that the person in the picture is his sister's son. Hence, X is married
to his sister.
45. (c) Refer to these lines of the passage: 'She chose to retain Elizabeth as her
regnal name; thus, she was called Elizabeth II, which offended many Scots, as she
was the first Elizabeth to rule in Scotland. From these lines it can be concluded that
Elizabeth I did not rule over Scotland, and Elizabeth II ruled over Scotland.
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46. (b) The correct line of succession in case of primogeniture will be: R, J, Q, C,
B, A, P. R is the eldest among X's children (P, Q and R). R's successor will be his
only child, J. After J the throne will go to Q, who is the second child of X. After Q
it will pass on to his three children in order of their ages (C, B and A) and after A it
will pass on to P.
47. (c) To make her son A geon the heir presumptive Alicent will have to kill
Rhaenyra or kill Viserys. So, both the plans will make Ageon the heir presumptive.
48. (b) During the lifetime of Viserys, his brother Daemon will be fifth in line after
Rhaenyra, Ageon Aemond and Haelena.
49. (c) 'Crunch numbers' refers to large-scale processing of numerical data, i.e.
computation of numerical data.
50. (d) 'Calling it a day' means ceasing a work. Thus, option (d) is the correct
answer.
51. (b) Text titled 'what is best GPU for crypto mining' presents a precaution,
suggestion and information regarding the act of selecting the right graphic card for
crypto mining.
52. (a) In the passage, the author has presented arguments that defy the existence
of some ideal graphic card. Thus, the question headings in this text alluded towards
a certain measure of deniability.
53. (d) 'Recuperate' means to recover or retrieve or regain. Thus, option (d) is the
correct answer.
54. (d) The reason for X being a better GPU for crypto mining than Y in spite of
the initial cost of X being much lower than Y cannot be determined as the passage
does not give any relationship between the two.
55. (d) The reason for the total cost of mining N bitcoins using GPU X being lower
than the total cost of mining the same number of bitcoins using GPU Y cannot be
determined as the passage does not give any information regarding the same,
56. (d) No definite relationship between profits made using crypto-mining and
hashrates has been stated or implied in the passage. Therefore, none of the given
options can be inferred. The correct answer is option (d)
57. (c) The passage states various factors, apart from the graphic card being used,
that decide the total expense of mining crypto coins, Thus, profit earned by
49
crypto-mining during a certain period will be decided by all those factors.
Therefore, options (a) and (b) are incorrect inferences as they assert about the
profits with certainty without incorporating the effect of the electricity
consumption. So, option (c) is correct as it states a possibility, not a definite
outcome.
58. (d) Given that GPUs are made of small semiconductor chips and companies
manufacturing these chips had to shut down during the pandemic. If the prices of
cryptocurrencies and electricity remained constant, scarcity of chips would lead to
higher cost prices of GPUs.
59. (d) Given that a certain extremely expensive GPU has the best hash rates
among all GPUs. From the passage it is not clear if this GPU would have high
resale value or have high electricity consumption or give less profit in
crypto-mining. Hence, none of the above is true.
60. (a) Given that X always says the truth and Y always lies. If both salesmen say
to A, "If you asked the other salesman, he would tell you that GPU G1 is better
than GPU G2." X says the truth that Y will say that G1 is better than G2, whereas
Y lies while saying that, X will say that G1 is better than G2. Hence, we can
conclude that G2 is better than G1.
61. (c) Exclamation mark is used to either express any extreme emotional response
or a state of astonishment. Therefore, option (c) is correct.
62. (d) The headlines that are presented as questions indicate that the author is
engaging with the reader.
63. (c) Pedigree means the recorded ancestry or lineage of a person or family.
Therefore. option (c) is correct.
64. (b) In the passage, the author tries to explain the complex nomenclature related
to the different generations of cousins. And the author himself asserts that it can be
very confusing and also adds some traces of humour at several instants in the
passage Therefore, the overall passage can be a part of a humorous act or a
stand-up act.
65. (b) As the author offers simplified ways to understand the nuances of the
confusing nomenclature of the different kinds of cousins in a lineage, it does
become obvious that the author believes that some information can be
50
mind-boggling yet comprehensible through certain hacks and simplifications.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct option.
66. (a) The assumption required is that the woman in the picture was X's mother's
aunt. If not, then she could be X's father's aunt too.
67. (a) X's grandson's paternal grandson is 4 generations down and his sister's
father's father's father is 3 generations up, which means he is X's son.
68. (b) X and Y are sisters. A is X's grandson's niece. Y is A's Great-great-aunt.
69. (d) X's second cousin once removed is X's second cousin's child or X's parent's
second cousin. None of the options satisfy the condition.
70. (a) Given X is A's first cousin. Y is X's first cousin. Z is Y's first cousin. The
closest relationship possible between X and Z is sibling.
71. (c) The common ancestor between X and Y, who is X's first cousin twice
removed can be X's grandparent's grandparent and Y's grandparent or it can be X's
grandparent and Y's grandparent's grandparent. Hence, option (c) is correct.
72. (a) X's father's aunt is X's great-aunt.
73. (a) Precedence and priority are synonymous. Similarly, progeny and offspring
are also synonymous. Therefore, option (a) is the answer.
74. (a) The passage describes different inheritance laws. Therefore, option (a) is
75. (c) The given sentence is conditional in nature. Therefore, option (c) is the
answer.
76. (c) 'Validly' and 'justifiably' are synonyms. 'Cease' and 'desist' are also
synonyms. Therefore, option (c) is the answer.
77. (b) Monkhood refers to renouncing the material world. Therefore, option (b) is
the answer.
78. (c) Refer to the second paragraph of the passage for the answer.
79. (c) Refer to the first paragraph of the passage for the answer.
80. (b) Refer to the given definitions of primogeniture and ultimogeniture in the
passage.
51
81. (b) Refer to the given information related to primogeniture. Option (b) is a
possible scenario.
82. (b) Refer to the given information related to primogeniture. Option (b) is a
possible scenario.
83. (d) B is the youngest son of X whereas E is the youngest daughter of X. Given
that F is younger than B, it means that E is also younger than B. Since the realm
follows gender-neutral ultimogeniture, the throne passes to E after X. Also, Q is
the youngest child of E. So, the throne passes to Q after E's death.
84. (a) If the realm followed the rule of house seniority, the throne would pass to Z
as he is the oldest child of X.
85. (a) Statements iii and iv are verifiable facts while statements I and ii are
opinions.
86. (c) The given idiom refers to paying a great deal of attention. The given
passage is a meticulous description of Formula One cars. Therefore, option (c) is
appropriate.
87. (b) The passage is expository because it explains the functioning of Formula
One cars.
88. (a) The author is trying to convey the exact or literal meaning. Therefore,
option (a) is the answer.
89. (b) The passage stresses on the aerodynamic design. Therefore, option (b) is
the correct answer.
90. (c) If the orientation of the wings in a Formula One car is reversed (and all
other things remain equal), then it would behave like an aircraft's wings, so would
lead to take off from the track. Hence, the effective weight pressing down on the
track would be less than the weight of the car. So, X is less than 1.
91. (b) Refer to the 3rd paragraph where the explanation of downforce is given.
92. (d) Refer to the second and third paragraphs. All the given statements are true.
Therefore, option (d) is correct.
93. (a) A formula one car is built in such a way that it is in free fall at all times
during the race.
52
94. (a) Given the facts in the paragraph, the Formula One car can be driven upside
down in the tunnel.
95. (d) The new respective positions of D, E and F cannot be determined.
96. (a) The number of overtakes that a person starting 10th in a race needs to make
to get to 1st position, assuming no other person makes any overtakes is 9.
97. (d) Cardiologists are doctors, similarly, hackers are criminals
98. (d) This is more of a magazine article as it defines phishing and states how it is
executed. It is not a speech and it is not talking about recent news and it is also not
a personal narrative of the author.
99. (c) The basic goal of prolonged engagement is to gain the faith of the victim, to
build trust, based on which the hacker can attain personal information.
100. (b) Victims who are always busy with work. Email is the best way to gain
their attention
101. (b) To scam is to dupe people.
102. (c) Scamming is the superset here, of which vishing and smishing are subsets.
103. (b) In option (a), a character appears twice. In options (c) and (d) an alphabet
appears after a number. In option (b), "ersfjtncjlx" satisfies the given four
conditions so it is filtered out as a scam.
104. (d) None of the options is a scam. We can see that in options (a) and (c)
characters are repeated twice and option (b) contains a special character (.).
105. (b) Condition (iii) is redundant in light of Condition (ii)
106. (d) The basic purpose of the bot is to "filter scam emails." Hence, it will scan
all phishing emails.
107. (d) Let us go by the options. (a) Abcgilig2s: This cannot be a code as contains
2, which should have been converted to the letter b in one of the previous steps. (b)
Abcglijgzs: This cannot be a code as it contains z, which should have been
converted to 7 and consequently to g in one of the previous steps. (c) AbcOlijgs:
This cannot be a code as it contains 0, which should have been converted to j in
one of the previous steps. (d) Abcolijgs: This can be a code generated by the
macro.
53
108. (d) These steps, in whichever order, cannot and achieve the company's aim.
109. (d) Since the patch is described to extend between states and countries, (d) is
the correct choice.
110. (c) The passage mentions that, 'Garbage that reaches the ocean from the west
coast of the United States and from the east coast of Japan is carried by currents -
including the California Current, the North Equatorial Current, the North Pacific
Current, and the Kuroshio into the North Pacific subtropical gyre, the clockwise
rotation of which draws in and traps solid matter such as plastics." Thus (c) is the
correct choice.
111. (b) Since it is floating under the sun and the word 'photo' is used in
conjunction, B is the correct choice.
112. (d) The phrase use is an imagery. It invokes the sensation of plasti induced
waste.
113. (b) Since marine life constitutes the food chain and the plastic is hampering
both coastal and marine ecosystem, B is the apt choice among the given options.
114. (d) Neither of the two assumptions can be concluded from the passage.
115. (a) Given that as a piece of plastic travels through oceanic water, it breaks
down into 100 pieces and each of those pieces also breaks down into 100 more
pieces. This phenomenon is analogically equivalent to reproduction of amoeba -
each amoeba splits into two in a certain period of time; which then again splits into
two in the same period of time.
116. (d) Given that the lighter place travels at twice the speed of the heavier one. If
there are ten pieces of plastic (each with a different weight) to the diagnosis,
prevention, study, and that start from the same geographical location, the speed of
the fastest piece would X times the speed of the slowest piece. X=2=512.
117. (c) Filtering out all plastics from water bodies flowing into the sea and
preventing direct disposal of any plastic from land into sea would stop the speed of
growth of the size and depth of the Great Pacific Garbage Patch over a sufficiently
long time period.
118. (d) We know that water level in a partially filled bucket with an outlet at its
bottom rises if the amount of water coming through the inlet is faster than the
54
amount of water going out of the outlet. It is also true that water level in a partially
filled bucket with an outlet at its bottom goes down if the amount of water coming
through the inlet is slower than the amount of water that goes out through the
outlet. Hence, both (b) and (c) are correct.
119. (d) None of the above conclusions can be drawn.
120. (a) Rate of photodegradation is inversely related to size of original piece of
plastic. Larger the size, more the time, so we can conclude that the rate of
degradation is lower for larger pieces of plastic.
121. (c) The Qatari Riyal, ISO code 'QAR' is the national currency of the State of
Qatar. In 1966 Qatar replaced its former currency, the Indian Rupee, with the
newly adopted Qatar and Dubai riyal, which became the Qatari Riyal in 1973. One
Qatari riyal is subdivided into 100 dirhams. The currently circulating Qatari Riyal
banknotes are those of the Fifth Series, issued in 2020.
122. (a) As a result of air pollution and nearby sewage, the Taj Mahal is reported to
be turning yellow. Built in the 17th century, it is one of the seven wonders of the
world. Due to increasing air pollution, the colour of Taj Mahal is changing from
white to yellow. The gas causing the yellowing of Taj Mahal must be one that can
react with a base, here calcium carbonate. Complete step by step answer: Air
contains a variety of gases namely nitrogen, oxygen, carbon dioxide, etc.
123. (b) Psychiatrist is a physician who specializes in psychiatry, the branch of
medicine devoted to the diagnosis, prevention, study and treatment of mental
disorders. Psychiatrists are physicians and evaluate patients to determine whether
their symptoms are the result of a physical illness, a combination of physical and
mental ailments or strictly mental issues. Sometimes a psychiatrist works within a
multi-disciplinary team, which may comprise clinical psychologists, social
workers, Occupational therapists, and nursing staff. Psychiatrists have broad
training in a biopsychosocial approach to the assessment and management of
mental illness.
124. (c) Elon Musk is a business magnate and investor. He is the founder, CEO and
chief engineer of SpaceX; angel investor, CEO and product architect of Tesla, Inc.;
owner and CEO of Twitter, Inc.; founder of The Boring Company; co-founder of
Neuralink and OpenAl; and president of the philanthropic Musk Foundation. With
an estimated net worth of around $164 billion as of December 13, 2022, primarily
55
from his ownership stakes in Tesla and SpaceX, Musk is the second- wealthiest
person in the world according to both the Bloomberg Billionaires Index and
Forbes's real-time billionaires list. In 1999, Zip2 was acquired by Compaq for $307
million and Musk co-founded X.com, a direct bank. X.com merged with Confinity
in 2000 to form PayPal, which eBay acquired for $1.5 billion in 2002. In 2006, he
helped create SolarCity, a solar energy company that was later acquired by Tesla
and became Tesla Energy. In 2015, he co-founded OpenAl, a nonprofit artificial
intelligence research company. He is not associated with Waymo Company.
125. (d) Two statements given in the questions are not Fundamental Duties
mentioned in the Constitution of India.
126. (b) Prakash Padukone was the first player from India to achieve the world no.
1 spot in the game, after which Srikanth Kidambi became the second male player
to make it to the top spot in April 2018. Prakash Padukone was ranked World No. 1
in 1980, the same year he became the first Indian to win the All England Open
Badminton Championships.
127. (a) Sanna Marin, the Prime Minister of Finland, has found herself at the
centre of a controversy after a video of her partying with her friends surfaced
online. The video, which has gone viral on social media, shows her drinking and
partying. While some social media users thought Marin's actions were cool, many
others thought they were unfit for a Prime Minister.
128. a) Arun Kumar Mishra is the current and eighth Chairperson of National
Human Rights Commission of India. [1] He is the former Judge of Supreme Court
of India. He is former Chief Justice of Calcutta High Court and Rajasthan High
Court. He has also served as Acting Chief Justice of Rajasthan High Court. He is
also former Judge of Madhya Pradesh High Court.
129. (c) As of October 2021, there have been 105 amendments of the Constitution
of India since it was first enacted in 1950. There are three types of amendments to
the Constitution of India of which second and third type of amendments are
governed by Article 368.
130. (c) The Supreme Court in Janhit Abiyan v. Union of India upheld the
constitutional validity of the EWS reservation. Of the five judgments delivered,
Justice Ravindra Bhat and CJI Lalit gave dissenting judgment. Reading out the
verdict, Justice Maheshwari said that the 103rd constitutional amendment for the
56
EWS quota was valid and did not violate the basic structure of the Constitution.
Reservation, he said, is an instrument of affirmative action to ensure an
all-inclusive march towards the goals of an egalitarian society.
131. (c) Maharashtra and Tamil Nadu had the highest numbers of foreign tourist
visits, with 1.26 million and 1.23 million, respectively in 2021, as per a report by
Union Tourism Ministry.
132. (b) The IMF chief Kristalina Georgieva said she is pleased the
Washington-based lender and the Sri Lankan government have reached a staff-level
agreement to provide about USD 2.9 billion to help the bankrupt country, terming
the deal as an "important step forward." The International Monetary Fund (IMF)
announced that it will provide Sri Lanka a loan of about USD 2.9 billion over a
four-year period to help the island nation overcome the unprecedented economic
turmoil.
133. (a) The government has notified regulations for attracting foreign universities
to set up off- shore campuses at GIFT City and allowed them to repatriate profits.
The new regulations allow a foreign university or educational institution among the
top 500 QS World Universities to come to GIFT City and give an undertaking to
"place suitable infrastructure and facilities" to offer courses such as financial
management, FinTech and Science, Technology, Engineering and Mathematics
(STEM). The regulations were framed eight months after Finance Minister
Nirmala Sitharaman in her Budget 2022 speech said that world-class foreign
universities and institutions would be allowed in the GIFT City to offer courses
and be free from domestic regulations to facilitate availability of high-end human
resources for financial services and technology.
134. (b) India's first privately built rocket - Vikram- suborbital (VKS)- was
launched by the ISRO (Indian Space Research Organisation). The rocket developed
by Skyroot Aerospace- has been named after Vikram Sarabhai, hailed as the father
of India's space sector. In a bid to symbolise a new start, the mission has been
named 'Prarambh', which literally translates as "begining".
135. (c) The National Voters' Day is celebrated every year on January 25 to
encourage the country's voters to participate in the electoral process. This year, it is
the 12th edition which is being celebrated. The theme for this year's National
Voters' Day is 'Making Elections Inclusive, Accessible and Participative'. Vice
President M Venkaiah Naidu was supposed to be the chief guest for this event.
57
However, he won't be physically attending the event after getting infected with
Covid-19 and will deliver a virtual message.
136. (a) The 2022 Peace Prize is awarded to human rights advocate Ales Bialiatski
from Belarus, the Russian human rights organisation Memorial and the Ukrainian
human rights organisation Center for Civil Liberties.
137. (b) In line with the clarion call given by Hon'ble Prime Minister of India, Shri
Narendra Modi, to phase out single use plastic items by 2022, Ministry of
Environment, Forest and Climate Change, Government of India notified the Plastic
Waste Management Amendment Rules, 2021, on 12 August 2021. Carrying
forward the spirit of 'Azadi ka Amrit Mahotsava', a defining step to curb pollution
caused by littered and unmanaged plastic waste is being taken by the country. India
will ban manufacture, import, stocking, distribution, sale and use of identified
single use plastic items, which have low utility and high littering potential, all
across the country from July 1, 2022.
138. (a) There is a fear that certain nanoplastics would become a part of human
food, thereby causing severe harm to the human body. These particles are size of
10 m. There is growing concern about the environmental and health impact of
plastic pollution, especially since it breaks down into smaller pieces that begin to
accumulate in the environment. Now, researchers from the University of Eastern
Finland have found that small pieces of plastic called nanoplastics can travel up the
human food web, through plants, insects and even fish. Nanoplastics are tiny
plastic debris particles smaller than 1,000 nanometre (1 nm is equal to one billionth
of a metre).
139. (c) The Panama Canal connects the Atlantic Ocean with the Pacific Ocean
through the narrow Isthmus of Panama. It also divides North America and South
America. With an approximate length of 65 km, it is one of the strategic waterways
in the world, along with the Suez Canal. The Strait of Magellan also called the
Straits of Magellan, is a navigable sea route in southern Chile separating mainland
South America to the north and Tierra del Fuego to the south. The strait is
considered the most important natural passage between the Atlantic and Pacific
oceans.
58
140. (b) India's Jehan Daruvala raced to his first feature race win in the FIA
Formula 2 Championship to make it a double podium for himself. Jehan Daruvala
is an Indian racing driver currently serving as reserve driver for the Mahindra
Racing Formula E team. He was a protégé of the Force India F1 team, after being
one of three winners of a 'One in a Billion hunt organized by the team in 2011. He
is currently a member of the Red Bull Junior Team.
141.(b) Commemorating the 75th Anniversary of the Universal Declaration of
Human Rights. Every year on 10 December, the world celebrates Human Rights
Day, the very day when, in 1948, the United Nations General Assembly adopted
the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR).
142. (d) Rameshbabu Praggnanandhaa is an Indian chess grandmaster. A chess
prodigy, he earned the international master title at the age of 10, the youngest at the
time to do so, and the grandmaster title at age 12, the second-youngest at the time
to do so. On 22 February 2022, at the age of 16, he became the youngest player till
then to defeat current world champion Magnus Carlsen, when he beat Carlsen in a
rapid game at the Airthings Masters Rapid Chess Tournament. Three Youth World
Titles in Chess have been won by Grand Master Praggnanandhaa as of now.
143. (c) Manika Batra, the Indian Table Tennis player, became the first Indian
woman to win a medal at the Asian Cup Table Tennis Tournament. Manika
defeated World no.6 Hina Hayata of Japan in the Asian Cup 2022 in the women's
singles bronze medal match in Bangkok, Thailand.
144. (b) Neeraj Chopra created history by becoming the second Indian to win an
individual gold medal in Olympics after shooter Abhinav Bindra. Neeraj is the first
Indian in over 120 years, and the first athlete from independent India, to win an
Olympic medal in a track-and-field discipline. Neeraj won the gold medal in the
men's javelin throw event with a throw of 87.58m in his second attempt. Olympic
gold medallist javelin thrower Neeraj Chopra achieved yet another historic feat as
he became the first Indian to win the prestigious Diamond League Finals title here.
Chopra began with a foul but jumped to the top spot with a throw of 88.44m ‘his
fourth career best’ in his second attempt, and that turned out to be his winning
effort. He had 88.00m, 86.11m, 87.00m and 83.60m in his text next four throws.
145. (c) Saina Nehwal is the first Indian player who the first Olympic medal in
Badminton. She is a professional badminton player from India. Saina Nehwal has
achieved several milestones in the field of badminton for India. As one of India's
most successful badminton players, Nehwal is also credited for increasing the
59
popularity of badminton in India in recent years. In 2016, the Government of India
(Gol) conferred her the 'Padma Bhushan' which is India's third-highest civilian
award.
146. (b) Retired Punjab cadre IAS officer Arun Goel assumed the office of
Election Commissioner (EC), two days after President Droupadi Murmu appointed
him to the post. Goel was secretary, Union Ministry of Heavy Industries, till he
took voluntary retirement on November 18, a day before being appointed as EC. In
a statement, the Election Commission of India (ECI) said Goel had "catalysed
e-vehicle movement in India to a tipping point" as heavy industries secretary. Prior
to that, he had served as secretary in the Union Ministry of Culture, vice-chairman
of the Delhi Development Authority and in various capacities in the Union finance,
urban development and labour & employment ministries.
147. (c) As of 2022, there are 40 World Heritage Sites located in India. Out of
these, 32 are cultural, 7 are natural, and one, the Khangchendzonga National Park,
is of mixed type.
148. (b) India ranks 107 out of 121 countries o the Global Hunger Index in which
it fares I worse than all countries in South Asia baning war-torn Afghanistan.
India's score of 29.1 places it in the 'serious' category. India also ranks below Sri
Lanka (64), Nepal (81), Bangladesh (84), and Pakistan (99). Afghanistan (109) is
the only country in South Asia that performs worse than India on the index.
149. (a) G20 leaders met for a two-day summit. hosted by the Indonesian G20
presidency in Bali, under the theme 'Recover Together, Recover Stronger. This
G20 takes place in a very different world from our meeting last year in Rome.
Russia, a permanent member of the UN Security Council and a member of G20, is
attacking the free and sovereign nation of Ukraine.
150. (d) India's first Education Policy was passed and implemented in 1986. After
thirty-four years, the National Education Policy (NEP) for India has been updated,
revised and approved on 29 July 2020. The policy signifies a huge milestone for
India's Education system, which will certainly make India an attractive destination
for higher education world-wide. The regulatory system, with the National Higher
Education Regulatory Council (NHERC) is set to function as one single regulator
for the higher education sector, including teacher education, but excluding medical
and legal education.
60

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AILET 2024

Date of Exam : Center’s Name : ___________________________

Duration : 120 Minutes Roll No. : ___________________________

Section Subject Marks Q. No. Page No.

C Logical Reasoning 70 81 – 150 23 – 42

Total Marks 150

4. Which of the following statements is incorrect with respect to the passage?

12. Segregating the various parts of the project helps

14. The author’s primary purpose in this passage is __________

15. The passage mentions “immersive experiences” to emphasise _________

17. According to the passage, why is the cost of implementing VR in medical

19. The author’s discussion of the challenges of VR in medical education is

25. What is the purpose of the word “relentless” in the passage?

33. The popularity of EVs can be ascribed to it being

50. What is an example of an interdisciplinary collaboration mentioned in the

SECTION – B : CURRENT AFFAIRS AND GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

56. Which international agreements remain central in efforts to enable a permanent

58. In 2022, India introduced the KAVACH system, which is:

62. The NASA OSIRIS-REx mission (Origins, Spectral Interpretation, Resource

69. Who among the following is not a recipient of a Nobel Prize?

70. Pick the INCORRECT combination.

71. Which of the following countries is NOT a member of SAARC?

76. Which of the following statements about BRICS is not incorrect?

78. A change in exchange rate leads to a change in supply and demand of

SECTION – C : LOGICAL REASONING

Which of the following conclusion(s) is necessarily correct? Choose the most

89. Statement I: All books are valuables.

The passage assumes which of the following:

94. Any attempt at fighting the camp’s psychopathological influence on the

Choose the most appropriate answer.

Which of the following is/are most appropriate conclusion(s) of the above

Choose the most appropriate answer.

107. The Examination Department at prominent National Law School is considering

Which of the following is a possible seating arrangement?

Which of the following facts, if true, would be an argument in favour of the

Consider the following scenario and respond to the Q.127-130.

127. Which of the following observation is incorrect?

130. Assume that semi-voluntary punishment is a reliable signal of a Y’s loyalty

131. Consider the following principle.

140. In a survey of IT professionals in Bangalore, those who regularly practiced

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