KIPS NUMS FLP#5 Teachers Copy - Prep Titans

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NUMS
FULL LENGTH PAPER–5
PHYSICS
Q.1 An acceleration is produced in a body if
A. Magnitude of velocity increase or decrease
B. A force is applied
C. Direction of velocity changes
D. All of these
Q.2 Basic law which relates the force and motion is
A. Newton’s laws of motion B. Einstein’s equation
C. Maxwell equation D. None of these
Q.3 What is the absorbed dose D of a sample of 10 kg which is given an amount of 1000
J of radioactive energy?
A. 200 Gy B. 50 Gy C. 100 Gy D. 98 Gy
Q.4 The -rays radiography are used in:
A. Agricultural B. Sports industry C. Medical industry D. All of above
Q.5 A bomb of mass 16 kg at rest explodes into two pieces of masses 4 kg and 12 kg. The
velocity of the 12 kg mass is 4ms–1. The kinetic energy of the other mass is
A. 144 J B. 192 J C. 288 J D. 96 J
Q.6 If an agent consumes a power of 1kilo-watt in one hour, the work done is
A. One-watt B. One kilo-watt
C. One kilowatt-hour D. Zero
Q.7 A fixed mass of an ideal gas slowly absorbs 1000J of heat and as a result expands
slowly at a constant pressure of 2.0 104 pa, from a volume of 0.050 m3 to a volume
of 0.075 m3. What is the effect on the internal energy of the gas?
A. It decreases by 1000J B. It decreases by 500J
C. It is unchanged D. It is increased by 500J
Q.8 A football of mass 0.4 kg at rest acquire a speed of 20 m / sec when kickeD. The
impulse imparted to the ball is
A. 4 Ns B. 8 Ns C. 5 Ns D. 20 Ns
Q.9 If the length of the conductor becomes half and the area is doubled then the
resistance decreases by
A. 2 times B. 4 times C. 8 times D. None of these
Q.10 Increasing the charge on the plates of a capacitor means
A. Increasing the capacitance
B. Increasing the potential difference between the plates
C. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’
D. None of these
Q.11 The ratio of the number of turns in primary and secondary coils of a transformer is
1: 20. The ratio of the currents in the primary and secondary coils will be
A. 1 : 20 B. 20 : 1 C. 1 : 400 D. 400 : 1
Q.12 If S is the distance move by body and D is displacement, then which of give is not possible
A. S > D B. S = D C. S < D D. S  D
Q.13 A car runs at constant speed on a circular track of radius 100 m taking 62.8 sec on
each lap. What is the average speed and average velocity on each complete lap?
A. Velocity 10 m/sec, speed 10 m/sec B. Velocity zero, speed zero
C. Velocity zero, speed 10 m/sec D. Velocity 10 m/sec, speed zero
Q.14 For an observer standing on a railway platform; the pitch of the whistle of a
receding locomotive heard will be
A. First lower and then higher than the actual pitch
B. First higher and then lower than the actual pitch
C. Higher than the actual pitch
D. Lower than the actual pitch
Q.15 At what angle of projectile horizontal range is minimum:
A. 30-degree B. 45-degree C. 60-degree D. 90 degree
Q.16 Consider two nuclei of same radioactive nuclide. One of the nuclei was created in
supernova explosion 5 billion years ago. The other was created in a nuclear reactor
5 minutes ago. The probability of decay during the next time is
A. Different of each nuclei B. Nuclei created in explosion decays first
C. Nuclei created in the reactor decays first D. Independent of time of creation
NUMS FULL LENGTH PAPER–5 PAGE 1 OF 16

Q.17 An atom with mass number A1 converts into another with mass number A2 after
radioactive decay. The correct statement is
A. A2 can never be equal to A1
B. The value A1 will be less than A2
C. The value of A2 will not be more than that of A1
D. The value of A1 will not be more than that of A2
Q.18 The net amount of work done in the following indicated diagram is
A. Area under the graph B. Negative

C. Zero D. Area bounded by the graph
Q.19 Single force does not exist, is the result of which law of motion
A. 1st law B. 2nd law C. 3rd law D. All of these
Q.20 A force of 10N acts on a body of mass 2kg for 1m distance. The K.E. obtained by the
body is
A. 20 J B. 5 J C. 10 J D. 2.5 J
Q.21 Power of a water pump is 2 kW. If g = 10 m / sec2 , the amount of water it can raise in
one minute to a height of 10 m is
A. 2000 litre B. 1000 litre C. 100 litre D. 1200 litre
Q.22 The circuit shows a bridge rectifier with a sinusoidal alternating voltage applied to
it, the output terminals P and Q being joined together by a load resistor.
If the diode X were removed, which trace would be seen on a cathode ray oscilloscope
connected across PQ?
A. B.
C. D.
Q.23 The half-life of radioactive substance is six years. The time taken by 12grams of the
substance to decay completely will be?
A.  B. 18 years C. 48 years D. 72 years
Q.24 AC generator cannot generate:
A. AC voltage B. High AC voltage
C. DC voltage D. Low AC voltage
Q.25 The electric lines are farther apart where field is
A. Strong B. Weak C. Zero D. None of these
Q.26 Why should household appliances be connected in parallel with the voltage source?
A. To increase the resistance of the circuit
B. To provide each appliance the same voltage as the power source
C. To decrease the resistance of the circuit
D. To provide each appliance the same current as the power source
Q.27 Example of mechanical waves is:
A. Transverse wave B. Longitudinal wave
C. Both transverse and longitudinal wave D. Compressional waves
Q.28 Resistivity of a substance is defined as the resistance of a ______ of that substance.
A. Meter B. Meter Square C. Meter Cube D. Centimeter
Q.29 A train takes 2 hour to go from one station to the other. It travels at a speed of 40
kmh–1 for first hour and at a speed of 50 kmh–1 for the next hour. The average speed
of the train is:
A. 45 kmh–1 B. 35 kmh–1 C. 40 kmh–1 D. 30kmh–1
Q.30 In elastic collision, 100% energy transfer takes place when
A. m1 > m2 B. m1 = m2 C. m1 < m2 D. m1 = 2m2
Q.31 Angular form of centripetal acceleration ac =
A.  2 r B. r C. − 2 r D. −r
Q.32 An earth-based receiver is detecting electromagnetic waves from a source in outer
space. If the frequency of the waves is observed to be increasing, then the distance
between the source and the earth is probably ____.
A. Decreasing B. Increasing
C. Remaining the same D. None
Q.33 The velocity of sound is generally greater is solids than in gases because
A. The density of solids is high and the elasticity is low
B. The density of solids is low and the elasticity is high
C. Both the density and the elasticity of solids are very low
D. The elasticity of solids is very high
Q.34 The phase difference between the velocity and displacement of a particle executing
SHM is
A.  radian B. 2 radian C.  radian D. Zero
2
Q.35 The distance between two consecutive crests of a travelling wave is 10 cm. If the
speed of the wave 50 cm/s, then its frequency would be:
A. 40 Hz B. 1/5 Hz C. 5 Hz D. 500 Hz
Q.36 A charge is moving with velocity v, it enters a uniform electric field E. The direction
of v and E are not parallel. What is the path of the charge particle inside the electric
field?
A. Parabolic B. Circular C. Parallel to v D. Parallel to E
Q.37 In the diagram, the input is across the terminals A and C and the output is across
the terminals B and D, then the output is
A. Zero B. Same as input

C. Full wave rectifier D. Half wave rectifier
Q.38 Force between the plates of a charged parallel plate capacitor is attractive and its
magnitude is
Q2 Q2
A. B. C. Q 2 A 0 D. Q A  0
A 0 2 A 0
Q.39 An 8microF capacitor is connected in series with a 0.5 mega ohm resistor. The DC
voltage supply is 200V. Calculate the time constant.
A. 1s B. 2s C. 3s D. 4s
Q.40 A wire of 10-ohm resistance is stretched to thrice its original length. What will be its
(i) new resistivity and (ii) new resistance?
A. Remain same, 10 B. Remain same, 40
C. Remain same, 90 D. Increases, Remain same
CHEMISTRY
Q.41 The number of covalent bonds formed in beryllium chloride is
A. 3 B. 4
C. 2 D. 5
Q.42 What temperature would be required to change 4dm3 of gas at 1 atm pressure and
27°C to 10dm3 at 0.8 atm pressure
A. 350 K B. 500 K
C. 400K D. 600 K
Q.43 Relative acidic strength of alcohol, phenol, carboxylic acid and water is in the order
A. Phenol > Alcohol > Water > Carboxylic acid
B. Carboxylic acid > Phenol > Water > Alcohol
C. Alcohol > Water > Phenol > Carboxylic acid
D. All are correct
Q.44 Which of the following is more basic oxide
A. BeO B. BaO
C. MgO D. CaO
Q.45 Arrange the elements according to the trends of ionization energies C, N, Ne, B.
A. Ne < N < C < B B. B < N < C < Ne
C. B < C < N < Ne D. Ne < B < C < N

Q.46 Select correct statement
A. When a covalent bond is formed, transfer of electrons take place
B. Pure H2O does not contain any ion
C. A bond is formed when attractive forces overcome repulsive forces
D. HF is less polar than HBr
Q.47 A standard hydrogen electrode has zero electrode potential because
A. Hydrogen is easiest to oxidize
B. Its electrode potential is assumed to be zero
C. Hydrogen atom has only one electron
D. Hydrogen is the lightest element
Q.48 The cyclic compound with Sulphur as a hetero atom is
A. Naphthalene B. Pyrrole
C. Pyridine D. Thiophene
Q.49 Which order of priority of the functional groups for nomenclature is incorrect
A. –COOH > –CN > –CHO B. –OH > –NH2 > –OR
C. –CHO > –COCH3 > –OH D. –CHO > –CN > –OH
Q.50 Among the following compounds which can be readily sulphonated
A. Toluene B. Nitrobenzene
C. Benzene D. Chlorobenzene
Q.51 One of the following will form superoxide when burnt in air
A. Li B. Na
C. K D. Be
Q.52 1-Butanol and ethoxyethane are
A. Position isomers B. Chain isomers
C. Functional group isomers D. Geometrical isomers
Q.53 The correct set of quantum number is
A. n = 2 , = 1, m = –2, s = 0 B. n = 2, = 2, m = –1, s = –1/2
C. n = 2, = –2, m = 1, s = /2 +1
D. n = 2, = 1, m = 0, s = +1/2
Q.54 The reagent used for decarboxylation of carboxylic acids is
A. SOCl2 B. CaO + NaOH
C. NH3 D. NaHCO3
Q.55 Which one of the following does not react with steam
A. Li B. Mg
C. Na D. Be
Q.56 Which of the following species has lone pair of electrons on central atom
A. CH4 B. SO3
C. NH +4 D. PCl3
Q.57 Which of the following electronic configuration corresponds to an element with the
highest ionization energy
A. 1s2, 2s2, 2p3 B. 1s2, 2s2, 2p5
C. 1s2, 2s2, 2p6 D. 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s1
Q.58 Which of the following reaction has greater Kp than Kc (Kp > Kc)?
A. 2 NOCl 2 NO + Cl2 B. 2 SO2 + O2 2 SO3
C. 2 NOCl . NO + Cl2 D. N2 + 3H2 2 NH3
Q.59 When butanoic acid is heated with HI/P, ________ is formed
A. n-Butane B. Butene
C. Iso-Butene D. Butyne
Q.60 Ketone resists oxidation in the presence of
A. K2Cr2O7 / H2SO4 B. KMnO4 / H2SO4
C. AgNO3 / NH4OH D. HNO3.Conc.
Q.61 Which of the following type of alcohol is more reactive when bond is to be broken
between O–H
A. CH3OH B. (CH3)2CH – OH
C. CH3CH2OH D. (CH3)3COH
Q.62 Benzene reacts with acetyl chloride in presence of AlCl3 to give
A. Benzaldehyde B. Benzyl chloride
C. Acetophenone D. Benzophenone
Q.63 The solubility product of a salt having general formula MX2 in water is 4×10–12 the
concentration of M2+ ions in the aqueous solution of the salt is
A. 1.6 × 10–4 M B. 2.0 × 10–6
C. 4×10–10M D. 1.0 × 10–4M

Q.64 After 3 half-lives of a chemical reaction, the percentage fraction of the amount left is
A. 6.25 B. 25
C. 12.5 D. 20
Q.65 The highest value of lattice energy is given by
A. NaI B. NaF
C. NaBr D. NaCl
Q.66 Which of the following is not correct about furan, it is _________?
A. Heterocyclic B. Aromatic
C. Carbocyclic D. Cyclic
Q.67 Which of the following equilibrium in gaseous phase, would be unaffected by an
increase in pressure
A. N2+3H2 2NH3 B. N2O4 2NO2
C. N2+O2 2NO D. CO+1/2O2 CO2
Q.68 Which of the following hydrogen bonds is the strongest
A. O–H…..O B. O–H…..F
C. O–H…..N D. F–H…..F
Q.69 Among the following compounds the one that is polar and has the central atom with
sp2 hybridization is
A. H2S B. SnCl2
C. CO2 D. CH4
Q.70 Magnesium burns in air to form
A. MgO B. Mg3N2
C. MgCO3 D. MgO and Mg3N2
Q.71 Hydrogen gas is evolved during reaction of Na metal with all except
A. Water B. Ethyl alcohol
C. Ethyl chloride D. Hydrochloric acid
Q.72 The correct order of atomic size of C, N, O and F follows the order
A. C < N < O < F B. C < F < O < N
C. F < O < N < C D. F < O < C < N
Q.73 No work is done at constant
A. Pressure B. Volume
C. Temperature D. Mass
Q.74 In air at STP, the average kinetic energy of
A. Nitrogen molecules is greater than oxygen molecules
B. Oxygen molecules is less than nitrogen molecules
C. Nitrogen molecules is less than oxygen molecules
D. Oxygen molecules is equal to nitrogen molecules
Q.75 Which of the following have highest heat of vaporization
A. F2 B. I2
C. Cl2 D. Br2
Q.76 The rate of a certain hypothetical reaction A + B +C ⎯⎯ → products is given by
-d[A]
rate = = k[A]1/2 [B]1/3 [C]1/4 the order of reaction is
dt
A. 13/14 B. 12/13
C. 13/12 D. 13/11
Q.77 The unit of 1st order rate constant is expressed as
A. Mol dm–3Sec–1 B. Mol–2dm+6Sec–1
–1
C. Sec D. Mol–1dm+3Sec–1
Q.78 The number of moles of CO which contain 8g of oxygen are
A. 0.25 B. 0.50
C. 0.125 D. 1.00
Q.79 Formyl group can occur
A. Anywhere in the carbon chain
B. In the middle of carbon chain
C. Only at the second carbon atom of the chain
D. Only at the end carbon atom of the chain
Q.80 Bond energy is inversely proportional to
A. Size of atom B. Bond order
C. Electronegativity difference D. s- character
ENGLISH
Directions: Fill in the Blank
Q.81 Time once gone cannot________.
A. may recall B. recalls
C. be recalled D. recalled
Q.82 I worked hard so that I _____.
A. should not fail B. may not fail
C. might not fail D. cannot fail
Q.83 Five hundred dollars _____torn into pieces that the dealer was asking.
A. were B. was
C. is D. have
Q.84 The samples on the tray in the lab ______testing.
A. needs B. need
C. is needed D. has needed
Q.85 A lot of my friends ________to emigrate.
A. are wanting B. wants
C. does not want D. want
Directions: Find the Error
Q.86 In special conferences held by (A) one consultant, each of the participants (B)
practices(C) making the others to laugh.(D)
A. held by B. each of the participants
C. practices D. to laugh (D- laugh)
Q.87 When (A) employees or(B) their manager regularly post(C) cartoons on the bulletin
board, office spirit usually picks up.(D)
A. When B. or
C. regularly post(C- regularly posts) D. picks up
Q.88 After (A) I had washed (B) all the windows, I lay down(C) the squeegee and then I
set the table. (D)
A. After B. I had washed
C. lay down (laid down) D. set the table
Directions: Choose the Correct Option
Q.89
A. They suggested that each had donated both time and money.
B. They suggested that each donated both time and money.
C. They suggested that each donates both time and money.
D. They suggested that each donate both time and money.
Q.90
A. The new process works smooth and efficient.
B. The new process works in smoothly and in efficiently.
C. The new process works in smooth and in efficient.
D. The new process works smoothly and efficiently.
Q.91
A. Most welfare recipients wanted to work rather than instead of accepting handouts.
B. Most welfare recipients wanted to working rather than to accepting handouts.
C. Most welfare recipients wanted to work rather than to handouts.
D. Most welfare recipients wanted to work rather than to accept handouts.
Q.92
A. The ship was built in 1910 it had sailed ever since.
B. The ship was built in 1910, it had sailed ever since.
C. The ship was built in 1910: and it had sailed ever since.
D. The ship was built in 1910; it had sailed ever since.
Q.93
A. Natasha can play a piano and a violin.
B. Natasha can play the piano and the violin.
C. Natasha can play the piano and a violin.
D. Natasha can play piano and violin.

Q.94 The word ADEPT means______.
A. Proficient B. Naive
C. Friend D. Abode
Q.95 Which is the correct Spelling?
A. Acquaintance B. Acquaintence
C. Aquaintance D. Aquainttance
BIOLOGY
Q.96 Which one of the following combination is not the part of an animal cell?
A. Small vacuoles, cell membrane, ribosome B. RER, ribosome, mitochondrion
C. Cell wall, chloroplast, central vacuole D. Ribosome, SER, cell membrane
Q.97 Which molecules do not contribute to the formation of biological membranes?
A. Glycoproteins B. Glycolipids
C. Phospholipids D. Nucleoproteins
Q.98 Many substances which are urgently required by the cell while cell absorbs them
against the concentration gradient by utilizing energy in the form of:
A. ATP B. NADH
C. Glucose D. G3P
Q.99 __________ are spherical sacs surrounded by a single membrane and contain
hydrolytic enzyme.
A. Mitochondria B. Golgi bodies
C. Lysosomes D. Chloroplast
Q.100 The inner membrane of mitochondrion has many infoldings into the inner chamber,
these infoldings are called:
A. Cristae B. Cisternae
C. Matrix D. Stalk particles
Q.101 Site of fatty acid metabolism in our cells is:
A. Chloroplast B. Ribosomes
C. Mitochondria D. Nucleus
Q.102 Which region of the nucleolus has rDNA?
A. Peripheral granular B. Central fibrillar
C. Nucleoplasm D. Chromosome
Q.103 __________ are the most abundant organic compound found in a cell.
A. Water B. Proteins
C. Carbohydrates D. Lipids
Q.104 Ribose that is main part of RNA, is a type of ___________ sugar.
A. Triose B. Tetrose
C. Pentose D. Hexose
Q.105 When hydroxyl group of carboxyl group of one amino acid linked with hydrogen of
amino group of another amino acid, _______ is released and peptide bond is formed.
A. NH3 B. CO2
C. H2O D. O2
Q.106 Most common stored fats in our body belong to which group of lipids?
A. Steroids B. Glycolipids
C. Phospholipids D. Acylglycerols
Q.107 In nucleic acids, nitrogenous base is attached at position ________ of pentose sugar.
A. 1' B. 2'
C. 3' D. 5'
Q.108 mRNA directs the building of proteins through a sequence of:
A. Exons B. Codons
C. Introns D. Anti-codons
Q.109 An enzyme without its co-factor is called:
A. Holoenzyme B. Apoenzyme
C. Co-enzyme D. Activator
Q.110 In a normal laboratory reaction, substance ‘A’ is being converted to substance ‘B'.
What change will occur in reaction, if we add respective enzyme in it?
A. ‘A’ will form ‘C’
B. No activation energy will be needed now for reaction
C. Quality of ‘B’ will be increased
D. Production of ‘B’ will be increased
Q.111 Estimation of relative CO2 consumption or O2 release during photosynthesis at
different wavelength of light is termed as:
A. Action spectrum B. Absorption spectrum
C. Dark reaction D. Light Reaction
Q.112 Chlorophyll molecule resembles the haem group of haemoglobin, the main
difference between these two molecules is that chlorophyll has:
A. Fe2+ B. Mg2+
2+
C. Mn D. Ca2+
Q.113 Lactic acid production is the result of:
A. Aerobic respiration B. Aerobic respiration in man
C. Anaerobic respiration in yeast D. Anaerobic respiration in animals
Q.114 Net yield of ATPs during complete aerobic breakdown of glucose in eukaryotic cells
is:
A. 36 B. 38
C. 40 D. 02
Q.115 Which one can be considered as the living characteristic of virus?
A. Can be crystalized B. No cellular respiration
C. Mutate their genetic material D. Lack biosynthetic machinery
Q.116 Which of the following process takes place in host’s nucleus during HIV replication
in helper-T cells?
A. Reverse transcription B. Uncoating
C. Integration D. Translation
Q.117 Overall thickness of Gram positive cell wall is:
A. 8-11 nm B. 20-80 nm
C. 90-100 nm D. 120-180 nm
Q.118 Bacteria having tuft of flagella at one pole are called:
A. Monotrichous B. Peritrichous
C. Lophotrichous D. Amphitrichous
Q.119 In given diagram, the first one (on the left side) is coccus bacterium, while the
second one (on the right side) is most appropriately a:
A. Bacillus B. Sarcina
C. Coccobacillus D. Pleomorphic
Q.120 The end product of maltose digestion is:
A. Glucose only B. Glucose and fructose
C. Glucose and galactose D. Fructose only
Q.121 A function that is made possible only by stomach in alimentary canal is:
A. Mechanical digestion B. Storage and absorption
C. Chemical digestion D. Discontinuous feeding
Q.122 Wall of alveoli is made up of:
A. Smooth muscles B. Cartilaginous rings
C. Moist squamous epithelium D. Moist endothelium
Q.123 Breathing center of medulla communicates with diaphragm via:
A. Vagus nerve B. Intercostal nerves
C. Phrenic nerve D. Optic nerve
Q.124 The movement of materials through the vascular tissue of plants is called:
A. Transpiration B. Translocation
C. Transcription D. Transduction
Q.125 Least blood pressure is seen in:
A. Aorta B. Arterioles
C. Capillaries D. Vena cava
Q.126 When the tissue fluid enters the lymph capillaries, it is called as:
A. Lymph B. Plasma
C. Blood D. Serum
Q.127 Which one of the following pair of terms represent one and the same thing?
A. Plasma - Serum B. Plasma - Interstitial fluid
C. Blood - Lymph D. Mitral valve - Bicuspid valve
Q.128 The example of artificially induced active immunity is:
A. Exposure of actual infection B. Injection of antiserum
C. Injection of antibiotics D. Vaccination
Q.129 Which is not a mode of action of an antibody molecule?
A. Neutralizing an antigen B. Precipitating an antigen
C. Secreting cytokines D. Enhancing phagocytosis
Q.130 The __________ may be a cell, neuron ending or an organ that receive the stimulus.
A. Effector B. Receptor
C. Response D. Stimulus
Q.131 Which of the following component of plasma membrane of neuron is involved in
active transport?
A. Na+ gate B. Na+-K+ Pump
+
C. K gate D. K+ leaky channels
Q.132 Our voluntary movements will become jerky and shaky if __________ of brain is
destroyed.
A. Cerebral B. Thalamic
C. Cerebellum D. Medullary
Q.133 An anti-diabetic hormone is:
A. Insulin B. Glucagon
C. Cortisol D. Growth hormone
Q.134 Development of certain male characters in female is due to tumor of:
A. Adrenal medulla B. Adrenal cortex
C. Thyroid D. Testis
Q.135 At the time of birth, reduction of progesterone level will stimulate pituitary gland to
secrete:
A. FSH B. Prolactin
C. LH D. Oxytocin
Q.136 Spermiogenesis is a process of conversion of:
A. Primary spermatocyte into sperms B. Primary spermatocytes into spermatids
C. Spermatids into sperms D. Spermatogonia into primary spermatocyte
Q.137 In human female, secondary oocyte completes its division only in case of
__________.
A. Death B. Birth
C. Ovulation D. Fertilization
Q.138 Which of the following type of cartilage is most abundant in human body?
A. Fibrous B. Hyaline
C. Elastic D. Flexible
Q.139 Muscles that are attached to bones and have voluntary movements are termed as
__________ muscles.
A. Cardiac B. Smooth C. Skeletal D. Unstriated
Q.140 Inflammation of the joint is known as:
A. Sciatica B. Arthritis C. Spondylosis D. Disc-slip
Q.141 The shoulder joint is an example of:
A. Saddle joint B. Fibrous joint
C. Ball and socket joint D. Hinge joint
Q.142 Which structure marks the separation between two sarcomeres?
A. I-band B. H-zone
C. A-band D. Z-disc
Q.143 At the start of a muscle contraction, calcium ions are released from:
A. Actin B. T-tubule
C. Motor neuron D. Sarcoplasmic reticulum
Q.144 Linked genes with closer loci, __________ Mendel’s law of independent assortment
as they __________ assort independently.
A. Don't obey, cannot B. Don't obey, can
C. Obey, cannot D. Obey, can
Q.145 Types of blood group ‘A’, ‘B’, ‘AB’ and ‘O’ are known as:
A. Phenotypes B. Genotypes C. Genomes D. Multiple alleles
Q.146 The one who believed on divine creation was:
A. Linnaeus B. Lyell C. Cuvier D. Darwin
Q.147 Which of the following organism has undergone least evolutionary changes?
A. Prokaryotic cell B. Archaeobacteria
C. Galapagos finches D. Amoebic bacteria
Q.148 Chitin is present in:
A. Exoskeleton of arthropods B. Setae of earthworm
C. Cell wall of fungus D. All A, B, C
Q.149 Which one is not a function of large intestine?
A. Absorption of electrolytes B. Absorption of water
C. Production of vitamin D. Absorption of amino acids
Q.150 The gap between neurons at a synapse is:
A. Synaptic knob B. Synaptic cleft
C. Synaptic delay D. Synaptic vesicle

PSYCHOLOGY
Q.151 Do you think animals are ugly?
A. Not particularly B. Particularly
C. To some extent D. No
E. Yes
Q.152 Do you like ugly people?
E. Yes
Q.153 Do you make good perceptions about others?
E. Yes
Q.154 Do you have a sixth sensation?
E. Yes
Q.155 Do you like organized things?
E. Yes
Q.156 Do you have any planning ideas?
E. Yes
Q.157 Do you really think that all your memories are good?
E. Yes
Q.158 Do you want to learn from others?
E. Yes
Q.159 Do you think that you are a social person?
E. Yes
Q.160 Do you like your self-assessment?
E. Yes
Q.161 Do you like to remember your bad memories?
A. Not particularly B. To some extent
C. No D. Yes
Q.162 Are you being a focused person?
E. Yes
Q.163 Do you think your goal is easy?
E. Yes
Q.164 Do you think that other people are psychologically affected?
E. Yes
Q.165 Do you have an organized plan for learning?
E. Yes
Q.166 Do you think that you are intelligent?
E. Yes
Q.167 Are you affected by people’s thinking about you?
E. Yes
Q.168 Are you afraid of failure?
E. Yes
Q.169 Do you like a love story?
E. Yes
Q.170 Do you like to eat a meal?
E. Yes
Q.171 Do you like others’ opinions?
E. Yes
Q.172 Do you like to interfere with others’ personal matters?
E. Yes
Q.173 Do you like swimming?
E. Yes
Q.174 Do you have a good job?
E. Yes
Q.175 Do you like to help others?
E. Yes
Q.176 Do you like jogging in the early morning?
E. Yes
Q.177 Do you like to eat dry fruits in winter?
E. Yes
Q.178 Do you have a small family?
E. Yes
Q.179 Do you like tourism?
E. Yes
Q.180 Do you like to walk after a meal?
E. Yes
Q.181 Do you like flowers?
E. Yes
Q.182 Are you enjoying a happy life?
E. Yes
Q.183 Are you married?
E. Yes
Q.184 Are you happy in your life?
E. Yes
Q.185 Are you serious about your behavior?
E. Yes
Q.186 Are you a good human?
E. Yes
Q.187 Are you a sophisticated person?
E. Yes
Q.188 Are you like to be a Businessman?
E. Yes
Q.189 Are you like to visit Kashmir?
E. Yes
Q.190 Are you a human being?
E. Yes
Q.191 Do you like to solve problems?
E. Yes
Q.192 Are you an open-minded person?
E. Yes
Q.193 Are you like to eat Chinese food?
E. Yes
Q.194 Are you like to go abroad?
E. Yes
Q.195 Are you like to study abroad?
E. Yes
Q.196 Do you love others?
E. Yes
Q.197 Are you like to visit the beach?
E. Yes
Q.198 Do you like traveling?
E. Yes
Q.199 Are you a lazy person?
E. Yes
Q.200 Are you want to do something different?
E. Yes
Q.201 Are you like to enjoy your life?
E. Yes
Q.202 Are you like to blame others?
E. Yes
Q.203 Are you like farming?
E. Yes
Q.204 Are you like a co-education?
E. Yes
Q.205 Are you comfortable with others?
E. Yes
Q.206 Are you like to finish your work on time?
E. Yes
Q.207 Is you an extrovert?
E. Yes
Q.208 Are you a moody person?
E. Yes
Q.209 Are you a skillful person?
E. Yes
Q.210 Are you follow a schedule in your daily work routine?
E. Yes
Q.211 Are you satisfied with your life?
E. Yes
Q.212 Are you like to drink milk?
E. Yes
Q.213 Do you think that social media has an adverse effect on student’s life?
E. Yes
Q.214 Do you think that TV is that source of information?
E. Yes
Q.215 Are you a YouTuber?
E. Yes
Q.216 Do you feel shy in front of others?
E. Yes
Q.217 Do you like to visit your friends?
E. Yes
Q.218 Are you confident about your skills?
E. Yes
Q.219 Do you feel happy to help others?
E. Yes
Q.220 Do you prefer others over your priorities?
E. Yes
Q.221 Do you respect your elders?
E. Yes
Q.222 Do you prefer shortcuts over hard work?
E. Yes
Q.223 Do you prefer leg-pulling?
E. Yes
Q.224 Are you annoyed by other’s behaviors?
E. Yes
Q.225 Do you play brain teaser games?
E. Yes
Q.226 Do you listen to songs?
E. Yes
Q.227 Do you prefer news over movies?
E. Yes
Q.228 Do you stay away from tough jobs?
E. Yes
Q.229 Do you like to wear Dress pent coat?
E. Yes
Q.230 Do you feel happy on appreciation?
E. Yes
Q.231 Do you waste your time in useless gossips?
E. Yes
Q.232 Do you prefer writing over reading?
E. Yes
Q.233 Do you appreciate others for good work?
E. Yes
Q.234 Do you play cricket with your friends?
E. Yes
Q.235 Do you exercise daily?
E. Yes
Q.236 Do you think healthy body is important for mind?
E. Yes
Q.237 Do you feel jealous from the success of your friends?
E. Yes
Q.238 Do you remain alone most of the time?
E. Yes
Q.239 Are you always ready to face the hurdles?
E. Yes

Q.240 Do you like winter season more than summer?
E. Yes
Q.241 Do you prefer mango juice over apple juice?
E. Yes
Q.242 Do you respect your teachers?
E. Yes
Q.243 Do you take proper sleep of 8 hours?
E. Yes
Q.244 Do you prefer books over mobile?
E. Yes
Q.245 Can you bear the insult from others?
E. Yes
Q.246 Can you lose your patience in emergency?
E. Yes
Q.247 Can you help others during road accident?
E. Yes
Q.248 Do you give gifts to your younger siblings?
E. Yes
Q.249 Do you face hate from others?
E. Yes
Q.250 Are you eager to become a pilot in future?
E. Yes

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