Science

PREFACE
Assessments are an important tool that help gauge learning. They provide valuable feedback about
the effectiveness of instructional methods; about what students have actually understood and also
provide actionable insights. The National Education Policy, 2020 has outlined the importance of
competency‐based assessments in classrooms as a means to reform curriculum and pedagogical
methodologies. The policy emphasizes on the development of higher order skills such as analysis,
critical thinking and problem solving through classroom instructions and aligned assessments.
Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE) has been collaborating with Educational Initiatives (Ei)
in the area of assessment. Through resources like the Essential Concepts document and A‐ Question‐
A‐Day (AQAD), high quality questions and concepts critical to learning have been shared with schools
and teachers.
Continuing with the vision to ensure that every student is learning with understanding, Question
Science (Volume 2) | Grade 10 Booklets have been created for subjects for Grade 10th and 12th. These booklets contain
competency‐based items, designed specifically to test conceptual understanding and application of
concepts.
Process of creating competency‐based items
All items in these booklets are aligned to the NCERT curriculum and have been created keeping in
mind the learning outcomes that are important for students to understand and master. Items are a
mix of Free Response Questions (FRQs) and Multiple‐Choice Questions (MCQs). In case of MCQs, the
options (correct answer and distractors) are specifically created to test for understanding and
capturing specific errors/misconceptions that students may harbour. Each incorrect option can
thereby inform teachers on specific gaps that may exist in student learning. In case of subjective
questions, each question also has a detailed scoring rubric to guide evaluation of students’
responses.
Each item has been reviewed by experts, to check for appropriateness of the item, validity of the
item, conceptual correctness, language accuracy and other nuances.
How can these item booklets be used?
There are 187 questions in this booklet.
The purpose of these item booklets is to provide samples of high‐quality competency‐based items to
teachers. The items can be used to–
● get an understanding of what good competency‐based questions could look like
● give exposure to students to competency‐based items
● assist in classroom teaching and learning
● get inspiration to create more such competency‐based items
Students can also use this document to understand different kinds of questions and practice specific
concepts and competencies. There will be further additions in the future to provide competency
focused questions on all chapters.
The item booklets are aligned with the 2022‐23 curriculum. However, a few questions from topic
which got rationalized in 2023‐24 syllabus are also there in the booklet which may be used as a
reference for teachers and students.
Please write back to us to give your feedback.
Team CBSE
Competency Focused Practice Questions | Science | Grade 10

Competency Focused Practice Questions | Science | Grade 10
CONTENTS Answer Key and Marking Scheme .................................................................................... 78
18. EFFECTS OF CURRENT ...................................................................................................... 81
1. ACIDS, BASES AND SALTS ................................................................................................... 1 Answer Key and Marking Scheme .................................................................................... 84
Answer Key & Marking Scheme.......................................................................................... 4 19. NATURAL RESOURCES ...................................................................................................... 85
2. CARBON COMPOUNDS ...................................................................................................... 6 Answer Key and Marking Scheme .................................................................................... 95
Answer Key & Marking Scheme.......................................................................................... 7

3. CHEMICAL REACTIONS ....................................................................................................... 8
Answer Key & Marking Scheme.......................................................................................... 9
4. CONTROL AND COORDINATION ....................................................................................... 10
Answer Key & Marking Scheme........................................................................................ 10
5. ELECTRICITY ..................................................................................................................... 11
6. HEREDITY AND EVOLUTION.............................................................................................. 16
7. HUMAN EYE AND COLOURFUL WORLD ............................................................................ 19
8. LIFE PROCESSES ............................................................................................................... 21
9. METALS AND NON-METALS ............................................................................................. 24
10. OUR ENVIRONMENT ........................................................................................................ 26
11. PERIODIC CLASSIFICATION ............................................................................................... 27
12. REFLECTION AND REFRACTION ........................................................................................ 28
Answer Key & Marking ..................................................................................................... 28
13. REPRODUCTION ............................................................................................................... 29
14. SOURCES OF ENERGY ....................................................................................................... 32
15. CHEMICAL SUBSTANCES- NATURE AND BEHAVIOUR ........................................................ 35
Answer Key and Marking Scheme .................................................................................... 42
16. WORLD OF LIVING............................................................................................................ 45
Answer Key and Marking Scheme .................................................................................... 63
17. NATURAL PHENOMENA ................................................................................................... 74
Competency Focused Practice Questions | Science | Grade 10 Competency Focused Practice Questions | Science | Grade 10
1. ACIDS, BASES AND SALTS B. X
C. Y
D. Z
Q. No Question Marks
Free Response Question/ Subjective Question
Multiple Choice Question
Q.2 An excess of carbon dioxide gas is bubbled through lime water. 3
Q.1 Hydrangea plants develop blue or pink flowers depending on the availability of 1 (a) Will the pH of lime water change? If yes, how? Explain your answer.
aluminium from the soil. When the soil is acidic, aluminium is more available to
the roots, resulting in blue flowers. When the soil is alkaline, the availability of (b) Write the balanced equation for the reaction.
aluminium decreases, resulting in pink flowers.
Q.3 Tanu takes 500 mL milk each in two bowls P and Q. She adds curd to both the 3
The graph below is of the pH of the soil at different sections of a field. bowls and baking soda only to bowl Q as shown below.
(a) Bowl P - 500 mL milk + 1 teaspoon curd
(b) Bowl Q - 500 mL milk + 1 teaspoon curd + 1 teaspoon baking soda
In which bowl will the milk form into curd faster? Explain your answer.
Q.4 A solution P is taken in a flask and two drops of phenolphthalein indicator is 3

added to it. The graph below shows how the pH of the mixture changes as
a solution Q is added dropwise to the flask with stirring.
In which section of the field will the flowers on ALL the hydrangea plants
definitely be blue in colour and in which section will the flowers on ALL the
hydrangea plants definitely be pink in colour?
Option Blue flowers Pink flowers

(a) Identify the nature of solutions P and Q.
W Section P and Q Section R and S (b) What will the colour of the solution in the flask be at points X and Y?
X Section R and S Section P and Q (c) Identify the type of reaction taking place in the flask.
Y Section P, Q and S Section R Q.5 Aditi adds 1 mole of dilute hydrochloric acid to an aqueous solution of 1 mole 5
of sodium carbonate.
Z Section P Section R (a) Write the balanced equation for the reaction that takes place.
A. W
Competency Focused Practice Questions | Science | Grade 10 1 Competency Focused Practice Questions | Science | Grade 10 2
(b) How will the colour of a red litmus and a blue litmus paper change when Answer Key & Marking Scheme
dipped in this mixture? Explain why.
Q.6 The presence of acidic gases in the air increases the rate of corrosion. 1
Furthermore, an increase in temperature can also increase the rate of Q. No Answers Marks
corrosion.
Q.1 D. Z 1
The graph below is created under 4 different conditions (shown below in the
table) of temperature and acidic nature of air. Q.2 (a) 3
- The pH of lime water will decrease. [0.5 marks]
- Carbon dioxide, being an acidic oxide, will neutralise lime water which is basic.
[1 mark]
OR
-The products formed, namely, calcium carbonate and Calcium hydrogen
carbonate are basic salts but less basic than Calcium hydroxide so pH decreases.
(b) 0.5 marks each for writing the formula of lime water and the product calcium
bicarbonate; 0.5 marks for balancing the equation:
Ca(OH)2 + 2 CO2 ---> Ca(HCO3)2
Which of the graphs represents condition 2?
OR
Ca(OH)2 + CO2 ---> CaCO3 + H2O
CaCO3 + CO2 + H2O ---> Ca(HCO3)2
Q.3 The milk will form into curd faster in bowl P. 3

- Curdling of milk takes place due to formation of lactic acid by bacteria. [1 mark]
- In bowl Q, the lactic acid formed by bacteria has to first neutralise the baking
soda, which is basic in nature, before the milk starts curdling. [1 mark]
Q.4 (a) 0.5 marks each for the following: 3

- solution P: acidic
- solution Q: basic
(a) P
(b) 0.5 marks for each of the following:
(b) Q
- colour of solution at X: colourless
(c) R
- colour of solution at Y: pink
(d) S
(c) neutralisation
Q.5 (a) 0.5 marks each for writing the formula of each reactant and product: 5
HCl + Na2CO3 ---> NaCl + NaHCO3
(b)
- Red litmus paper will turn blue. [0.5 marks]
- There will be no effect on blue litmus paper. [0.5 marks]
- The complete neutralisation of 1 mole of sodium carbonate requires 2 moles 2. CARBON COMPOUNDS
of hydrochloric acid. [1 mark]
- Since only 1 mole of HCl is used, neutralisation is incomplete and the mixture
will be basic. [1 mark]
Q.6 Graph P 1
Q.7 Combustion analysis of compound X revealed the ratio of its elements in a 2

molecule to be carbon:hydrogen:oxygen::3:6:2. The compound undergoes
esterification to yield an ester and water.
(a) Identify the compound X. Write its chemical formula.
(b) Write the balanced equation for the combustion of compound X.
Q.8 Bonding of oxygen with carbon and with hydrogen are highly exothermic 3
processes. Compare the amount of energy released on combustion of methane
and propane.
(a) Which compound will yield more energy per mole on combustion? Justify
your answer.
(b) Write the balanced chemical equations for complete combustion of propane
and methane.
Q.9 One mole of an alkane P is burned in an excess of oxygen to yield 6 moles of 3

carbon dioxide and 14 moles of water.
(a) Write the chemical formula and chemical name of the compound.
(b) Will this compound produce a clear or sooty flame on burning? Justify your
answer.
Answer Key & Marking Scheme 3. CHEMICAL REACTIONS
Q. No Answers Marks Q. No Question Marks
Q.7 (a) Propionic acid / Propanoic acid [0.5 marks] 2 Free Response Question/ Subjective Question
C2H5COOH [0.5 marks]
Q.10 Photographic film consists of a gelatin emulsion with silver halide grains layered 1
(c) 2C2H5COOH + 7O2 --> 6CO2 + 6H2O + energy onto a film base. The halides that are used are silver chloride, bromide or iodide.
The photographic film is usually stored in metal containers to protect it from
Q.8 (a) Energy released per mole will be more in propane since it has more number 3 light.
of carbon atoms.
Write the chemical equation for the possible chemical reaction that this method
(b) 1 mark for each correct equation: of storing photographic film is preventing.
CH4 + 2O2 --> CO2 + 2H2O
Q.11 Trupti mixed one teaspoon of baking soda in 500 g of cake mixture. She kept 3
C3H8 + 5O2 --> 3CO2 + 4H2O the mixture aside for 5 minutes.
Q.9 (a) 1 mark each for the correct name and formula: 3 Geeta mixed one teaspoon of baking powder in 500 g of the same cake mixture.
She also kept the mixture aside for 5 minutes.
chemical name - Hexane
She then baked the two cakes together in the same oven. Whose cake is likely
chemical formula - C6H14
to rise higher? Justify your answer.
(b) It will burn with a clear flame since it is a saturated hydrocarbon.
Q.12 While cooking in an aluminum vessel, Sudeshna burned some food till all that 2
was left was a completely charred and black residue. She just left the blackened
vessel heating on the stove. After an hour she found that the vessel was
completely clean, with no trace of any blackness.
(a) Write a chemical equation to explain what happened to the charred, black
residue that made it disappear.
(b) Name the type of reaction referred to in (a).
Answer Key & Marking Scheme 4. CONTROL AND COORDINATION
Q.10 1 Multiple Choice Question
Q.13 Two statements are given below - one labelled Assertion (A) and the other 1
labelled Reason (R). Read the statements carefully and choose the option that
Q.11 Trupti's cake will rise more. [1 mark] 3 correctly describes statements (A) and (R).
Baking powder is a mixture of sodium bicarbonate and tartaric acid. [1 mark] Assertion (A): All reflex actions are involuntary actions but only some
involuntary actions are reflex actions.
- Baking soda is pure sodium bicarbonate. Hence one teaspoon of baking soda
contains more bicarbonate than baking powder and releases more carbon Reason (R): Reflex actions take the shortest route from the receptor (detector
dioxide than baking powder.. [1 marks] of stimulus) to the effector (producer of response).
Which of the following is correct?
Q.12 (a) 0.5 marks each for writing the reactants and product: 2
C + O2 ---> CO2 A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) 0.5 marks for any of the following: B. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of the
assertion.
- combustion
C. (A) is true but (R) is false.
- oxidation
- combination D. (A) is false but (R) is true.
Answer Key & Marking Scheme
Q.No Answers Marks
Q.13 B. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of the 1
assertion.
5. ELECTRICITY Which of the following resistances will she NOT be able to get by combining
these resistors is different combinations?
A. 0.67 Ω
Q. No Question Marks B. 0.75 Ω
Multiple Choice Question C. 3 Ω
Q.14 The graph below shows the variation of resistivity of copper with temperature. 1 D. 6 Ω
Q.16 A cylindrical copper wire X of length l and radius r has a resistance R and 1
resistivity ρ. Another copper wire Y has a length 2l and a radius 2r.
Which of the following rows in the table shows the correct resistance and
resistivity of the copper wire Y?
Resistance Resistivity
I R/2 ρ
I R ρ
I
Kishore constructs a simple circuit as shown below. The resistor is made of

copper. I R/2 ρ/2
I
I
I R ρ/2
V
A. I
He then heats the copper resistor. What will happen to the current flowing B. II
through the circuit? Why?
C. III
A. The current will increase because the resistance of copper increases with
an increase in temperature. D. IV
B. The current will increase because the resistance of copper decreases with Q.17 The variable resistor R is connected in a circuit, as shown below. A variable 1
an increase in temperature. resistor is one whose resistance can be changed.
C. The current will decrease because the resistance of copper increases with
an increase in temperature.
D. The current will decrease because the resistance of copper decreases with
Q.15 Priya has three resistors each of resistance 2 Ω. 1
C.
The resistance of R is increased. What will happen to the voltmeter readings

V1 and V2?
A. V1 increases; V2 increases
B. V1 increases; V2 decreases
C. V1 decreases; V2 increases D.
D. V1 decreases; V2 decreases
Q.18 Kishore connects two resistors in parallel. He wants to measure the total 1
current through the two resistors.
Which of the following shows the correct arrangement to measure the
current through Ammeter ‘A’?
A.
B.
Answer Key & Marking Scheme 6. HEREDITY AND EVOLUTION
Q.14 C. The current will decrease because the resistance of copper increases with 1 Multiple Choice Question
Q.19 Manisha is an Indian actress. She was born in Delhi to a homemaker mother 1
Q.15 B. 0.75 Ω 1 and an engineer father. She is around 5 feet tall. She has naturally curly hair.
She has trained in contemporary and ballet dancing.
Q.16 A. I 1
Which of these is MOST LIKELY to be true about her children?
Q.17 C. V1 decreases; V2 increases 1
A. They may dance well.
Q.18 1 B. They may grow up to have curly hair.
C. They may be born to an engineer father.
D. They may become famous actors one day.
Q.20 Study the diagrams given below that depict the analogy/homology of organs 1
and answer the questions that follow.
B.
Which diagram represents evolution of homologous organs?

A. only P
B. only Q
C. both - P and Q
D. neither - P nor Q
Q.21 The farmer concludes that the allele for green seeds shows dominance over 1
that of yellow seeds.
Is he right? Justify your answer.
Q.22 What is the genetic basis of the increase in number of the black peppered 1
moth after the Industrial Revolution?
Q.23 The picture below is of the chromosome pairs present in a cell of a person. 2
Q. No Answers Marks
Q.19 B. They may grow up to have curly hair. 1
Q.20 A. only P 1
Q.21 Yes, he is right. [0.5 marks] 1

Since the offspring pod has all green seeds, the allele for green seeds is
dominant even if present in heterozygous state. [0.5 marks]
Q.22 During sexual reproduction, the genes determining darker colour of moths get 1
selected and their frequency increased in the population.
Q.23 (a) male. 23rd pair has X and Y chromosomes. 2

(b) 23
(a) Identify the sex of the person. Give reasons for your answer.
(b) State the number of chromosomes present in a male or female gamete.
7. HUMAN EYE AND COLOURFUL WORLD Answer Key & Marking Scheme
Q. No Question Marks Q. No Answers Marks
Free Response Question/ Subjective Question Q.24 (a) 2 spots 3

(b)
Q.24 An autorefractor, which is used to automatically measure the refractive errors 3
in a person's eye, makes use of the Scheiner principle explained below.
Parallel rays of light from a distant object are limited to two parallel bundles of
light using a disc with two pinholes. For an eye with no refractive error, the rays
would be focused on the retina, where only one spot can be observed.
(c) 1 mark for any one of the following:

-elongation of the eyeball
-excessive curvature of the eye lens
(a) For a myopic eye, how many spots will be observed on the retina?
(b) Draw a diagram showing how the light rays fall on the retina of a myopic
eye?
(c) What could be the reason for the observation?
8. LIFE PROCESSES D. left ventricle and right ventricle
Q. No Question Marks Q.29 Aerobic respiration requires intake of oxygen to breakdown food to release 5
energy.
(a) Name the structures through which gaseous exchange takes place in plants
Answer the questions based on the following information. 1 and human beings.
William Harvey (1578–1657) was one of the early biologists who studied the (b) Name the structure that controls the size of the chest cavity in humans to
bodies of humans and animals. He even dissected the bodies and did facilitate exchange of gases.
experiments with the heart and blood vessels. He concluded from his (c) What is the process by which gas exchange occurs in plants?
experiments that the blood leaves the heart through the arteries and returns
(d) Why is the process named in (c) not sufficient to carry oxygen throughout
via the veins. However, he could not explain how blood left the arteries to enter
human body? How is this complemented in humans to ensure that oxygen
the veins. He said there must be some structure between arteries and veins but
is carried to all parts of the body?
he could not find them. Marcello Malphigi (1628–1694) later discovered these
structures while studying a dead frog's lungs under a microscope. (e) Reactions in living systems can absorb heat or release heat. State whether
the heat energy is absorbed/ released during digestion. Also write the
Q.25 Which of the following structures did Malphigi find in the frog? 1 scientific term to denote the same.
A. cells Q.30 Given below is an image of an experiment conducted by a student to 3
understand the process of respiration. He blows into a clear solution present in
B. capillaries
the test tube and sees that it turns cloudy.
C. heart chambers
D. small air sacs in lungs
Q.26 What is the MOST LIKELY reason why Harvey could NOT find these structures? 1
A. These structures are not found in humans.
B. These structures are found only in the lungs.
C. These structures become visible only in dead animals.
D. These structures were too small to be seen by the naked eye.
Q.27 Which of the following statements about arteries and veins is TRUE? 1
A. Arteries have thicker walls than veins.
B. Veins have thicker walls than arteries.
C. All arteries carry only oxygenated blood. (a) What is the most likely substance present in the test tube?
D. All veins carry only deoxygenated blood. (b) What could be the aim of his experiment?
Q.28 Which two chambers of the human heart have arteries connected to them? 1 (c) What kind of respiration is shown in the experiment? Justify your answer.
A. left atrium and left ventricle

B. right atrium and right ventricle
C. left atrium and right atrium
Answer Key & Marking Scheme 9. METALS AND NON-METALS
Q.25 B. capillaries 1 Multiple Choice Question
Q.26 D. These structures were too small to be seen by the naked eye. 1 Q.31 In which of the following forms do electrovalent compounds conduct 1
electricity?
Q.27 A. Arteries have thicker walls than veins. 1
A. only in solid form
Q.28 D. left ventricle and right ventricle 1
B. both in solid form and in aqueous solution
Q.29 (a) 0.5 marks for each correct answer: 5 C. both in aqueous solution and in molten form
Plants: stomata/guard cells D. in solid form, molten form and in aqueous solution
Human beings: alveoli/ lungs
(b) diaphragm
(c) diffusion Q.32 1
(d) 1 mark for each correct point:
- because diffusion is a slow process and human beings have complex tissues
that might not allow diffusion to happen effectively and easily
- carried by the blood/ haemoglobin in the blood
(e) 0.5 marks for each correct answer:
- use up heat
- endothermic
Q.30 (a) lime water / dilute aqueous solution of calcium hydroxide/ Ca(OH)2 3
(b) To prove that carbon dioxide is released during respiration.
(c) - aerobic respiration [0.5 marks] Many chemical reactions like the one shown below, are carried out in glass-
- CO2 is a product of either aerobic respiration or fermentation [0.5 marks] lined, iron chemical reactors instead of directly in iron reactors.
- fermentation does not take place in human cells. [0.5 marks]
State one advantage of carrying out the reaction in a glass-lined reactor instead
of directly in an iron reactor.
Answer Key & Marking Scheme 10. OUR ENVIRONMENT
Q.31 C. both in aqueous solution and in molten form 1 Free Response Question/ Subjective Question
Q.32 1 mark for any one of the following: 1 Q.33 Fishes like swordfish and king mackerel are tertiary consumers. Fishes like 1
- no corrosion of the reactor tilapia and salmon are secondary consumers. The habitat of these fishes are
usually contaminated with heavy metals like mercury.
- no contamination of the product with metal / metal salts
Scientists suggest consuming these fishes according to the table given below:
Best to avoid Good to eat

(1 serving/ (2-3
month) servings/week)
King mackerel Tilapia
Swordfish Pollock
What phenomenon is likely to have led the scientists to give such an advisory to
the people who consume fish?
Q. No Answers Marks
Q.33 biomagnification of toxic substances in higher trophic levels 1
11. PERIODIC CLASSIFICATION 12. REFLECTION AND REFRACTION
Q. No Question Marks Q. No Question Marks
Multiple Choice Question Multiple Choice Question
Q.34 Elements X and Y are in the same period of the periodic table and have the same 1 Q.35 Which of the following characteristics of a spherical mirror is given by the ratio 1
valency. The force of attraction between the valence electrons and the nucleus of the size of the image to the size of the object?
is greater in element X than in element Y.
A. aperture
Which of the following is also likely to be true about elements X and Y?
B. magnification
A. Y is more electronegative than X.
C. focal length
B. X has a greater atomic radius than Y.
D. radius of curvature
C. Y has more metallic character than X.
Q.36 Which of the following does the negative sign in the power -3D signify? 1
D. X forms covalent bonds and Y forms ionic bonds.
A. The focus is on the same side of the lens as the object.
B. The focus is on the opposite side of the lens as the object.
C. The principal focus is situated outside the principal axis.
D. The focal length on one side of the lens is smaller than that on the other.
Q. No Answers Marks
Q.37 Which among the two lenses with power- 3D AND 4D respectively can form a 1
Q.34 C. Y has more metallic character than X. 1 real image?
A. only the lens with power -3 D
B. only the lens with power 4 D
C. both the lenses
D. neither of the lenses
Answer Key & Marking
Q.No Answers Marks
Q.35 B. magnification 1
Q.36 A. The focus is on the same side of the lens as the object. 1
Q.37 B. only the lens with power 4 D 1
13. REPRODUCTION (i) abundance of water
(ii) scarcity of water
Q.41 Compare the reproductive parts of flowers and humans and answer the 3
questions below:
Multiple Choice Question (a) Which part of the human female reproductive system has a similar function
as the stigma in a flower? Give a reason to support your answer.
Q.38 Contraceptives help in preventing pregnancies. 1
(b) Testes in the male reproductive system would correspond to which part of
What function would a contraceptive loop inserted at T serve? the male reproductive system in a flower? Justify.
A. Stopping sperms from reaching and fertilizing eggs (c) The style of a flower and the fallopian tube in humans correspond
functionally with each other. Is this statement true? Justify your answer.
B. Stopping release of sperms
C. Blocking the release of eggs
D. Stopping egg creation
Q.39 Bindu wants to produce a hybrid variety of tomatoes. She has tomato plants X 1
and Y belonging to two different varieties, one with smooth, long fruits and the
other one with wrinkled, round fruits.
Tomatoes have bisexual flowers. Bindu carries out the following steps carefully
to cross pollinate the flowers of plants X and Y:
1. She removes a part of the flowers of tomato plant X just before the flowers
bloom.
2. She manually pollinates the flowers of tomato plant X using pollen from the
flowers of tomato plant Y.
3. She ties small plastic bags around the pollinated flowers of tomato plant X.
The plastic bags are removed after a couple of days.
What could be reason for covering the pollinated flowers of plant X?
Q.40 Water hyacinths reproduce both sexually and asexually. They reproduce 4
sexually by producing seeds through flowers, and asexually by bud formation or
fragmentation. It undergoes reproduction through either of the methods
depending on environmental conditions. Water hyacinths bloom freely in
water-rich conditions whereas, reproduction for survival is more effort-
intensive in water-scarce conditions.
(a) Explain why this variation in reproduction is required in water hyacinths.
(b) Which mode of reproduction is likely to occur in the following conditions?
Justify:
Answer Key & Marking Scheme 14. SOURCES OF ENERGY
Q.38 A. Stopping sperms from reaching and fertilizing eggs 1 Multiple Choice Question
Q.39 to prevent pollen from other plants from reaching the stigma 1 Q.42 Place X is a metropolitan city with many high-rise buildings and parks. Place Y is 1
an elevated location with cottages and large open spaces.
Q.40 (a) 1 mark for each point: 4
Which of the two places would be LESS SUITABLE to set up a wind energy farm
- The population of each species thrives in its specific habitat/niche, having
and why?
particular environmental conditions which can change due to reasons beyond
the organisms' control A. Place X, as there are parks.
- Having variation ensures greater chances of survival through such changes. B. Place Y, as it is at an elevation.
[Accept any other valid answer]
C. Place Y, as it has large open spaces.
(b) 0.5 marks each for the following points:
D. Place X, as there are high-rise buildings.
(i)
- asexual reproduction Q.43 Mohan owns a large livestock farm near a pond. The farm is on an elevation. It 1
receives a steady wind speed of 10 km/h. The area is sunny for the greater part
- In its natural environment, the organism is likely to undergo an energy-
efficient method of reproduction such as asexual reproduction. of the day on most days.
(ii) Which of the following could be the sources of energy on his farm?
- sexual reproduction P) hydro-electricity

- In a stressed environment, the organism is likely to opt for the effort-intensive Q) biomass
method for survival. R) wind
[Accept any other valid answer] S) solar
Q.41 (a) 0.5 marks for identifying the part and 0.5 marks for the reason: 3 A. only P and S
- Part - Cervix/Vagina B. only Q and S
- Reason - The stigma of the flower serves as the point of entry of the male
C. only Q and R
gametes/pollen grains, similarly, the cervix serves as the point of entry of the
male gametes/sperm in humans/ vagina receives the male gametes in humans. D. only P and R
(b) 0.5 marks for identifying the part and 0.5 marks for the reason:
Q.44 The best source of energy to power satellites in space is solar energy. 1
- Part - anther
Select the reasons that justify the above statement.
- Function - produces male gametes in form of pollen, just like testes which
produce sperms P) It is easily available.
(c) 0.5 for stating true/false and 0.5 marks for the reason: Q) It is the only inexhaustible form of energy.
- False R) It does not need to be transported as a source of fuel.
- Reason - the main function of the fallopian tube is to serve as the point of A. only P and Q
fertilisation, which is not the function of the style in flowers.
B. only Q and R
C. only P and R
D. all- P, Q and R Answer Key & Marking Scheme
Q.45 Although wind is present everywhere, wind energy devices are not commonly 2 Q. No Answers Marks
found in residential areas.
Q.42 D. Place X, as there are high-rise buildings. 1
State any TWO reasons why harnessing wind energy is NOT a common practice
in residential areas. Q.43 B. only Q and S 1
Q.46 Hydropower plants are used to generate electricity, commonly, from waterfalls. 2 Q.44 C. only P and R 1
In the absence of waterfalls,
Q.45 1 mark each for any two reasons such as: 2
(a) What kind of setup has to be made to enable a flowing water source to
- Devices that harness wind energy require large areas of land which is generally
generate electricity?
scarce in residential areas.
(b) How does the setup mentioned in (a) help to generate electricity?
- Buildings in residential areas may block the wind reducing its speed to below
Q.47 A region 'X' along the coast, with large vacant space experiences a wind speed 5 15 m/s required to run a turbine.
of 32 km/h for most of the year. (Accept any other valid answer.)
(a) Describe, briefly, the setup and the process involved in generating electricity
Q.46 (a) High-rise dams can be constructed on the river to obstruct the flow and 2
using the given wind speed.
collect water in the reservoirs.
(b) State TWO factors that make region X a suitable location to set up a wind
(b) Water falling from the high level of the reservoir turns the turbines at the
energy farm.
bottom of the dam, converting the potential energy of the falling water into
(c) Apart from wind energy, identify TWO forms of energy that can be generated electricity.
using renewable sources in region X. Justify your answer.
Q.47 (a) 0.5 marks for each of the following: 5
- A wind energy farm OR windmill has to be set up in the open space available
near the coast.
- The kinetic energy of the wind causes the windmill to rotate.
- The rotating windmill turns the turbine of an electric generator thereby
generating electricity.
(b) 1 mark for each of the following:
- High wind speed that can be used to harness more energy.
- availability of large open spaces to set up a windmill/ wind energy farm
(c) 0.5 marks each for identifying the two forms of energy and 0.5 marks for the
justification:
- wave energy
- tidal energy
- Justification: Since the region is located along the coast, it allows for the
generation of electricity using tides and wave speed/size of marine water.
15. CHEMICAL SUBSTANCES- NATURE AND BEHAVIOUR Q.50 Sheetal has two test tubes, one containing dilute hydrochloric acid and the 1
other dilute sulphuric acid but they are not labelled.
Adding which of the following to the test tubes will help her to find out which
test tube contains hydrochloric acid and which contains sulphuric acid?
Multiple Choice Question A. Blue litmus paper

B. Zinc metal strips
Q.48 Manav found an unknown solid substance on a riverbank. To check its nature, 1 C. Sodium carbonate
he carried out some tests on the substance and recorded his observations in D. Barium carbonate
the table shown below.
Q.51 Two statements are given - one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled 1
Test Observation Reason (R). Read the statements carefully and choose the option that correctly
describes statements A and R.
Effect of heat melts on heating
Assertion (A): An alloy may be a compound consisting of a metal and a non-
Ductility can be stretched into a thin strand
metal.
Malleability can be beaten into a thin sheet
Reason (R): An alloy is made by melting a metal and then dissolving other
Electrical conductivity does not conduct electricity elements in it in definite proportions.
Which of the following could the substance be? A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation for A.
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation for A.
A. It is a polymer. C. A is true but R is false.
B. It is a metal. D. A is false but R is true.
C. It is glass.
D. It is wax. Q.52 Freshly cut pieces of iron are stored in three closed containers P, Q and R 1
containing dry air, oxygen and nitrogen respectively.
Q.49 Trupti has given the following reasons for Gold being the most abundantly used 1
In which of the containers is the Iron likely to rust?
metal for jewellery:
(i) It has high ductility. A. Only P

B. Only P and Q
(ii) It has high malleability. C. All - P, Q and R
D. In none of them
(iii) It shines more than other metals.
(iv) It reacts quickly with oxygen to form a protective layer of oxide. Q.53 Gautam has to courier a sample of silver bromide powder to a laboratory for 1
analysis.
(v) It does not react with water & oxygen even at high temperatures.
Which of the following containers can he use to pack the sample?
Which of the reasons given is/are INCORRECT?
P) Transparent glass bottle
A. only (iii)
Q) Opaque plastic bottle
B. only (iv)
C. only (iv) & (v) R) Black paper packet
D. only (i), (ii) & (iii)
A. Only P
B. Only P or Q
C. Only Q or R
D. Any of P, Q or R
Two statements are given - one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Adding nickel and iron metal to which of the following solutions will show that
Q.54 1
Reason (R). Read the statements carefully and choose the option that correctly iron is more reactive than nickel?
A. Copper sulphate
Assertion (A): Potassium metal burns and produces a flame when thrown in B. Tin sulphate
water.. C. Cobalt sulphate
D. Zinc sulphate
Reason (R): The reaction of potassium with water is highly exothermic and
violent. Q.57 Carbon compounds undergo combustion in oxygen to give carbon dioxide along 1
with heat and light.
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation for A.
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation for A. The same number of molecules of each of the following carbon compounds
C. A is true but R is false. undergo complete combustion.
D. A is false but R is true.
P) CH3COOH
Q.55 Doing which of the following will break the bonds in a crystal of sodium 1
Q) CH3CH2COOH
chloride?
R) CH3CH=CH2
A. Passing an electric current through it
B. Crushing it into a fine powder S) CH3CH2CH2OH
C. Mixing it with kerosene
D. Mixing it with water Which of them will produce the same amount of carbon dioxide?
A. Only P and Q
Q.56 In the list given below, a metal to the right is more reactive than a metal that is 1
B. Only Q and S
to its left.
C. Only P, Q and R
D. Only Q, R and S
Copper Tin Nickel Cobalt Iron Zinc
The table below gives the colour of the metal sulphate salt solutions. Free response question/Subjective Question
Q.58 A redox reaction is defined as a type of chemical reaction that involves transfer 4
Colour of aqueous metal salt of electrons between reacting atoms, molecules or ions - one gains and the
Metal salt solution
solution other loses electrons.
Copper sulphate blue Study the equation given below that shows the reaction between zinc oxide and
hydrochloric acid.
Tin sulphate yellow
ZnO + 2 HCl → ZnCl2 + H2O
Nickel sulphate green
(a) Is this a double displacement reaction? Justify your answer.
Cobalt sulphate pink
(b) Is this a redox reaction? Justify your answer.
Iron sulphate green
Zinc sulphate colourless (c) Name another type of reaction that this is an example of.
Q.59 A metal oxide XO on being heated with carbon does NOT produce carbon 1
dioxide.
Give a possible explanation for this behaviour of the metal oxide. What change is he likely to observe in the pH of the mixture as the reaction
proceeds? Explain why.
Q.60 Farida checks the pH of a bottle of milk at 10:00 AM and finds it to be 6.0. She 2
leaves the milk bottle on the table at room temperature (30 °C). She checks the Q.66 A red litmus paper and a blue litmus paper are added to distilled water in a test 2
pH of the milk again at 4:00 PM. tube. A small piece of calcium metal is now added to the water.
How is the pH of the milk at 4:00 PM likely to compare with the pH of milk at What will be the change in the colour of the litmus papers? Justify your answer.
10:00 AM? Justify your answer.
Q.67 Sugar free chewing gum, as shown below, have baking soda as one of their key 1
Q.61 On opening a bottle of soda, Nishchal observed that there was a lot of 2 ingredients and are considered to be good to keep teeth healthy.
effervescence and some of the soda water bubbled out of the bottle.
(a) Write the equation for the chemical reaction taking place.
(b) Identify the type of reaction.
Q.62 The molecular formulae of three carbon compounds are: 2
CH2O, C2H4O, C3H6O
(a) Identify the compound that can exist as two isomers having different
functional groups.
(b) Write the structures of the two isomers.
Q.63 Uzma peeled and cut some potatoes and left them in an open bowl. After a few 1
minutes, she observed that the cut potato pieces had turned brown.
What is likely to be the function of baking soda in the chewing gum?
Radhika also peeled and cut some potatoes. She kept the cut potato pieces
immersed in a bowl of water. The potato pieces in water did NOT turn brown.
Q.68 Study the compounds displayed below: 4
Explain the difference in the reaction of the cut potato pieces in the two cases.
Q.64 The densities of water and magnesium metal at different temperatures are 1
given in the table below.
Density of Density of
Temperature
magnesium metal water
25 °C (room temperature) 1.738 0.99
100 °C (boiling point of - 0.958

water)
650 °C (melting point of 1.64 - (a) Identify all the compounds that are the first members of their respective
magnesium) homologous series.
(b) Which of the above compounds are likely to undergo non-catalytic
'Magnesium floats in boiling water because its density decreases on heating.'
hydrogenation reaction?
Is the statement above true or false? If true, give a reason. If false, correct it. (c) Which TWO compounds will combine to form an ester? Justify with an
equation for the reaction.
Q.65 Bala was monitoring the pH of the reaction mixture of ethanoic acid and ethanol 2
in the presence of an acid. Q.69 The reactants of two reactions are given below. 3
1) Ca + 2 H2O ------> Answer Key and Marking Scheme
2) CaO + H2O ------ >
(a) Write the chemical formula of the common product formed in the two
Q.No Answers Marks
reactions.
(b) Identify the type of reaction that will occur in (1) and (2) Q.48 A. It is a polymer. 1
Q.70 Excess carbon dioxide gas is continuously bubbled through a solution of slaked 5 Q.49 B. Only (iv) 1
lime.
Q.50 D. BArium carbonate 1
(a) Describe how the appearance of the solution will change.
(b) Write balanced chemical equations to explain the change described in the Q.51 D. A is false but R is true. 1
answer to part (a). Also mention the states of the reactants and products for
each reaction. Q.52 D. (in none of them) 1
Q.71 The list given here is known as the Electrochemical Series of metals. A metal to 2 Q.53 C. Only Q or R 1
the right is more reactive than a metal that is to its left in the list.
Q.54 D. A is false but R is true. 1
Copper Tin Nickel Cobalt Iron Zinc Q.55 D. mixing it with water 1
The table below gives the colour of a few metal sulphate salt solutions. Q.56 C. Cobalt sulphate 1
Metal salt solution Colour of aqueous metal salt solution Q.57 D. Only Q, R and S 1
Copper sulphate blue Q.58 (a) Yes, it is. [0.5 marks] 4

Since there is an exchange of ions between the reactants. [1 mark]
Tin sulphate yellow
(No marks to be given if justification not given.)
Nickel sulphate green (b) No, it is not. [0.5 marks]
Cobalt sulphate pink Since none of the reactants have gained or lost an electron. [1 mark]
(No marks to be given if justification not given.)
Iron sulphate green
(c) neutralisation reaction
Zinc sulphate colourless
Q.59 (a) The metal is more reactive than carbon. 1
Q.60 - The pH will be below 6.0. [1 mark] 2

To show that iron is more reactive than nickel, Smita adds nickel metal and iron
metal to copper sulphate solution in separate test tubes. - The bacteria in the milk will change the lactose in the milk to lactic acid. [1 mark]
Will her test show which is more reactive? Justify your answer. (no marks to ge given without justification.)
Q.72 To compare the reactivity of magnesium and aluminium two friends carried out 3 Q.61 (a) H2CO3 -----> H2O + CO2 2
the following tests. (b) decomposition reaction
- Shardul reacted the metals with hydrochloric acid.
Q.62 (a) C3H6O 2
- Ashwin reacted the metals with boiling water.
(b) CH3 - CO - CH3 [0.5 marks]
Whose test will differentiate between the two metals based on their reactivity?
Explain why.
CH3 - CH2 - CHO [0.5 marks]
Q.63 The browning of the potato pieces kept in the open bowl is likely to be due to an 1 Q.71 The test will not be able to tell which is more reactive. 2
oxidation reaction between the potato and air. The oxidation is prevented by
Both nickel and iron are more reactive than copper and will displace copper from
keeping the potato under water as it is not in contact with air.
the copper sulphate solution turning it green in colour.
Q.64 - False. 1
Q.72 Only Ashwin's test 3
- Magnesium floats when placed in boiling water because of the bubbles of 1 mark each for the following:
hydrogen gas forming on its surface as it reacts with hot water.
- Only magnesium reacts with boiling water releasing hydrogen gas. Aluminium
Q.65 - He will observe an increase in the pH of the reaction mixture. [1 mark] 2 does not react with boiling water, but reacts only with steam. [1 mark]
- The amount of acid in the reaction mixture keeps decreasing as ethanoic acid Mg + 2 H2O (l)--------- > Mg(OH)2 + H2
gets converted to the ester. [1 mark] Al + H2O (l) --- > no reaction
Q.66 - The red litmus paper will turn blue. [0.5 marks] 2 - Both magnesium and aluminium react with hydrochloric acid producing salt and
hydrogen gas. [1 mark]
- The blue litmus paper will remain blue. [0.5 marks]
Mg + 2 HCl ---> MgCl2 + H2
- Calcium reacts with water to form calcium hydroxide which is basic in nature.
[1 mark] 2 Al + 6 HCl- > 2 AlCl3 + 3 H2
(no marks to be given if justification is not given or is incorrect)
Q.67 The baking soda neutralises the acids that form in the plaque between the teeth. 1
Q.68 (a) A,D,E 4

(1 mark for all three correct answers, 0.5 marks for any two correct answers.)
(b) 0.5 marks each for both correct names:
compound A and compound F
(c) compound E and compound C [0.5 marks each]
HCOOH + CH3CH2OH --> CH3CH2OCOH + H2O [1 mark]
Q.69 (a) Ca(OH)2 3

(b) 1 mark each for the following:
- (1) displacement reaction
- (2) combination reaction
(Accept any other correct answer.)
Q.70 (a) The clear solution of slaked lime will first turn milky (whitish in colour), due 5
to the formation of a precipitate of calcium carbonate. [1 mark]
On passing excess carbon dioxide, the solution will slowly become clear again
due to formation of calcium bicarbonate which is water soluble. [1 mark]
(b) 1 mark for each balanced equation, and 0.5 marks for writing the states of
the substances in each equation.
Ca(OH)2(aq) + CO2 (g) --> CaCO3(s) + H2O (l) [1.5 marks]
CaCO3 (s) + H2O (l) + CO2 (g) --> Ca(HCO3)2 (aq) [1.5 marks]
16. WORLD OF LIVING D. They are homologous organs with different functions.
Reason (R). Read the statements carefully and choose the option that correctly
Q.No Question Marks
Assertion (A): Desert plants take in carbon dioxide for photosynthesis during
the night.
Q.73 Study the diagrams given below that depict the analogy/homology of organs 1
Reason (R): In desert plants, the stomata are closed during the day to conserve
and answer the question that follow.
water by reducing transpiration.
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true but R is false.
D. A is false but R is true
In cactus, leaves are modified into spines. In Venus flytrap, leaves are modified Q.76 Given below are some biotic and abiotic components of an ecosystem. 1
into jaws.
rock, rainfall, sunlight, mango tree, rabbit
Which of these components can continue to exist in the absence of the other
component/s?
A. Only sunlight
B. Only rock and sunlight
C. Only mango tree and rabbit
D. Only rock, sunlight and rainfall
Q.77 Shown below are the trophic levels of an ecosystem. 1
Which diagram are the spines in the cactus and the jaws in the venus flytrap an
example of?
A. Only P
B. Only Q
C. Both - P and Q
D. Neither - P nor Q
Q.74 Which of the following would be true about the wings of a bat and wings of a 1
bird? In which of the levels can an omnivore be present?
A. They are analogous organs with same functions. A. Only secondary consumers
B. They are analogous organs with different function. B. Only secondary and tertiary consumers
C. They are homologous organs with same function. C. Only primary and secondary consumers
D. Only primary, secondary and tertiary consumers Which of the following is CORRECT?
A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation for A.

Q.78 If the total energy at the trophic level of producers in an ecosystem is 'E', then 1
B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation for A.
which of the following corresponds to the energy available to the tertiary
C. A is true, but R is false.
consumers?
D. A is false, but R is true.
A. E/10
B. 10 x E Q.82 If a tall pea plant bearing red flowers (TTRr) is crossed with another pea plant 1
C. E/1000 that is short and has white flowers (ttrr), what percentage of GAMETES will
D. 1000 x E have both alleles for short and white flowers?
A. 0%
B. 25%
Reason (R).
C. 50%
Assertion (A): Plants that can reproduce asexually cannot reproduce sexually. D. 75%
Reason (R): Asexual reproduction does not involve the production of gametes. Rett syndrome is a condition caused due to the mutation of a gene located on
the X chromosome such that if an individual carries even a check of the
Which of the following correctly describes statements A and R? mutated gene they show symptoms of the condition.
Consider two cases:
A. (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the reason for (A).
B. (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the reason for (A). Case I: The father is affected (XRY) but the mother is not (XX).
C. (A) is false, but (R) is true Case II: The father is not affected (XY) but the mother is (XRX).
D. (A) is true, but (R) is false.
Answer Q.83 and Q.84 based on the facts given above.
Q.80 Biological magnification is the increase in concentration of certain substances 1

in the tissues of organisms at successively higher levels in a food chain. Q.83 What is the probability of the sons showing symptoms of the disease in Case I? 1
Which of the following could the increase be a result of? A. 0%

B. 50%
P) Inability of environmental processes to break down the substance. C. 75%
D. 100%
Q) High rate of excretion of the substance by the organism.
Q.84 What percentage of daughters will be affected in Case II? 1
R) Low rate of internal degradation of the substance by organisms.
A. 0%
A. Only P B. 25%
B. Only P and R C. 50%
C. Only Q and R D. 100%
D. All - P, Q and R
Q.85 A person views an object placed at a certain distance from him. Under which 1
Q.81 Two statements are given below - one labelled Assertion (A) and the other 1 of the following scenarios will the ciliary muscles contract to make the eye lens
labelled Reason (R). thicker?
Assertion (A): Blood cells do not receive or pass information to the rest of the A. Amount of light falling on the object is increased
human body. B. Amount of light falling on the object is decreased
C. Object is moved closer to the eye
Reason (R): Blood cells are not directly connected with neurons.
D. Object is moved away from the eye A. Pupil dilation
B. Thickening of the eye lens
Q.86 Which of the following is/are TRUE about traits that have NOT been naturally 1 C. Relaxation of the ciliary muscles
selected? D. Contraction of the ciliary muscles
X) They were always detrimental to the life of the organism. Q.91 A certain class of herbicides does not allow pollen tube formation. Which of the 1
following processes does it inhibit?
Y) Their frequency reduces in subsequent generations.
A. Cross-pollination
Z) Organisms carrying these traits cannot reproduce at all.
B. Self-pollination
C. Seed dispersal
A. Only X
D. Fertilisation
B. Only Y
C. Only Y and Z
D. Only X and Z Study the diagrams given below that depict the analogy/homology of organs
and answer the question that follow.
Q.87 Gautam notices that Geeta wears spectacles that contain concave lens. Which 1
of the following conditions could she be suffering from?
A. Myopia
B. Hypermetropia
C. Presbyopia
D. Night blindness
Q.92 Sweet potato is a root that stores food. Potato is a stem that stores food. 1
Q.88 In their natural habitats, and in normal conditions, in which of the following 1
organisms does the offspring exhibit genetic differences from their parents? Which diagram(s) is/are the example/s above related to?
A. Cyanobacteria A. Only P
B. Amoeba B. Only Q
C. Planaria C. Both - P and Q
D. Ant D. Neither - P nor Q
Q.89 Two statements are given below - one labelled Assertion (A) and the other 1
labelled Reason (R). Q.93 Here is an image of a pea plant climber. The tendrils at the tip of the plant tend 1
to circle around an object or a surface.
Assertion (A): An organism with 24 chromosomes undergoes binary fission to
give rise to daughter cells with 12 chromosomes each.
Reason (R): Binary fission gives rise to two identical daughter cells.

C. A is true, but R is false
D. A is false, but R is true.
Q.90 Which of the following actions helps the eye in focusing on distant objects? 1 When are tendrils likely to grow rapidly?
A. When the plant is kept warm Q.97 A plant 'X' is placed in a closed box and is left unwatered for 15 days. 1
B. When the plant is well watered
C. When the tendril is exposed to light Identify the plant hormone that is MOST LIKELY to be released and the reason
D. When the tendril is in contact with a surface for it.
Q.94 Pneumatophores are a special type of root found in mangrove trees. They help 1 A. Auxins are released in response to the absence of light.
the trees by absorbing oxygen needed for the process of respiration in the B. Cytokinins are released to enhance the growth of the shoot.
roots. C. Abscisic acid is released in response to the scarcity of water.
D. Gibberellins are produced in response to the absence of water.
Free response question/Subjective Question
Q.98 There are different nutrients required by the human body. These are in 3 major 3
categories of carbohydrates, fats and proteins (apart from vitamins, minerals
and roughage).
(a) Digestion of nutrient R happens in the stomach. Identify R.
(b) Consider fats and oils from your diet as large globules in your digestive tract.
Choose the statement/s that is/are TRUE about the movement exhibited by Name the reaction that can help in making these easier to absorb.
pneumatophores. (c) What is the difference in the kind of medium required for digestive enzymes
in the stomach and the small intestine to work?
P) They show negative geotropism as they grow against gravity.
Q.99 In a population of 10,000 ladybugs spread over the entire country, there are 2
Q) They show positive phototropism to absorb sunlight.
7500 red-colored with black spots, 1200 purple-colored with black spots, and
R) They show positive geotropism as the roots grow below the ground. remaining are white-colored with black spots.
Which colored ladybugs have an evolutionary advantage? Why?
A. Only P
B. Only Q Bindu wants to produce a hybrid variety of tomatoes. She has tomato plants X
C. Both P & Q and Y belonging to two different varieties, one with smooth, long fruits and the
D. Both Q & R other one with wrinkled, round fruits.
Tomatoes have bisexual flowers. Bindu carries out the following steps carefully
Q.95 Identify the example that BEST describes a response to a stimulus. 1 to cross pollinate the flowers of plants X and Y:
1. She removes a part of the flowers of tomato plant X just before the flowers
A. Absorption of sunlight by chloroplast
bloom.
B. Germination of pollen grains on the stigma
C. Absorption of nutrients from the soil through root hairs 2. She manually pollinates the flowers of tomato plant X using pollen from the
D. Transportation of water and nutrients through the xylem flowers of tomato plant Y.
3. She ties small plastic bags around the pollinated flowers of tomato plant X.
Q.96 Person X met with an accident and injured a part of the hindbrain. 1 The plastic bags are removed after a couple of days.
Identify the function that is most likely to be affected due to the injury.
Q.100 Bindu now wants to try producing a hybrid variety of pumpkins from two 2
A. Display of emotions varieties P and Q. Pumpkin plants have unisexual flowers, with both male and
B. Walking in a straight line female flowers on all plants.
C. Regulation of blood pressure There is a slight variation in the procedure as described below:
D. Maintenance of body temperature
- She does NOT remove any part from the pumpkin flowers she wants to
pollinate.
- However, she still ties small plastic bags around the manually pollinated have the ability to produce large amounts of biomass and accumulate lipids
flowers. suitable for biofuel production.
Explain why Bindu does not remove any part from the flowers to be pollinated, Shown below are two boxes, X and Y. Containers with water that contains
but still ties small plastic bags after pollination. cyanobacteria are placed in both boxes.
Q.101 Read the two statements below. 1

(P) Adrenaline is also called the fight or flight hormone.
(Q) Adrenaline affects the heart to increase heart rate for optimum delivery of
oxygen to muscles.
Does statement (Q) offer a valid explanation for statement (P)? Justify your
answer.
(a) Ideally, how should the samples of water with cyanobacteria be kept in
Q.102 Human systems work in coordination with each other. 2 order to get products that can be used for maximum production of biofuels?
(b) In which of the boxes, is cyanobacteria likely to have better growth and
Pratik spent an hour in the swimming pool and found himself breathing heavily. why?
(a) Name the: Q.106 Hormones in Animals are secreted in specific quantities by glands in the body. 3
The secretion of these hormones is also regulated by the body.
(i) system/s that help his body regain normalcy
(a) The table below gives the normal reading of blood glucose levels before and
(ii) system/s that help the systems mentioned in (a-i) to function after eating.
(b) What can happen to the composition of Pratik's blood if the system/s
mentioned in (a-i) does/do not respond properly? Before eating After eating
80-100 170-200
Q.103 Vasectomy is a method of contraception in males where the vasa deferentia 3
are tied or sealed so as to prevent sperm from entering the urethra.
Ram's blood glucose level is 275. Name the hormone that would be released to
The diagram below represents the human female reproductive system with
regulate the blood glucose level.
some of its parts marked P, Q, R, S, T.
(b) Explain the regulation of the hormone named in answer (a) in TWO points.
Q.107 The stimulus of touch triggers different responses in different plants. 4
A blue pea plant is kept in a well-lit area. The shoot tip curls around the support
while growing.
(a) Identify the labelled part that will be operated on for 'tubectomy' in females.
State its function.
(b) Kavya says that if part R is removed the female would not be able to produce
eggs. Is she correct? Justify.
Q.104 A new sugarcane plant is genetically the same as the parent plant, but a child 2
of human parents is genetically not the same as its parents. Explain why.
Q.105 Cyanobacteria, also known as blue-green algae, are a group of photosynthetic 3

bacteria that can fix atmospheric nitrogen and thrive in diverse habitats. They (a) The curling of the shoot tip is in response to touch, not sunlight. Describe
an experiment to prove this statement.
(b) Explain the steps by which the Venus flytrap plant traps insects.
Q.108 Nitu and Ria went for a routine health check. The doctor tapped the patellar 4
tendon that is below the kneecap. Nitu showed a knee-jerk reaction but Ria
didn't show any reaction.
(a) What does the lack of reaction in Ria indicate?
(b) If Ria sees a sharp object and does not step on it, what kind of action is it?
Describe the neural path followed for this action.
(C) Write TWO points explaining the neural pathway followed for the knee-jerk
reaction in Nitu.
Q.109 Here is a conversation between Ria and Lipa: 2 Identify the blood pressure values that will be obtained at the stages of the
Ria: The sky appears blue as the blue light scatters the most. heart, shown in figures P and Q, for a normal person at rest.
Lipa: The sky is blue because it reflects the blue of the seas and oceans. Q.114 In the digestive tract, food is moved forward by the rhythmic contraction of 3
Who is correct? Justify your answer. muscles lining the tract. This process is called peristalsis.
Roopa conducts an experiment with light. She notices that when light rays fall List ALL the parts of the digestive tract in which peristalsis occurs.
Q.110 3
on the surface of a certain object, the light rays change direction. When the
Q.115 In most adults, the left atrium is separated from the right atrium by a septum 1
light leaves the object from another surface, the light rays bend again.
(wall) to prevent the oxygen-rich blood in the left atrium from mixing with the
(a) What could be the object that Roopa used to conduct this experiment? blood containing a higher amount of carbon dioxide in the right atrium. The
patent foramen ovale (PFO) is a hole in the septum separating the left and right
(b) Why does the light bend twice? Explain with two points. atria (upper chambers) of the heart. This hole exists in everyone before birth,
but most often closes shortly after a baby is born.
Q.111 Tina was star gazing. She observed celestial objects P and Q. They were visible 3
brightly in the night sky. She concluded that one was a star and the other was Explain why the hole in the septum separating the atria does not cause
a planet. problems in a baby before it is born.
(a) What could she have observed to arrive at her conclusion? Q.116 Shown below are the diagrammatic representations of the circulatory systems 3
(b) If these celestial objects P and Q were to be observed from the moon, would of three organisms X, Y and Z.
Tina be able to distinguish them as a star and a planet? Why or Why not?
Q.112 Nia looked at an object X that was kept near her. She could see it clearly. She 3
then looked at object Y which was kept farther away. She could see object Y
also clearly.
(a) Which part of the eye enables a person to see clearly, both, objects that are
near and those that are far away? Why?
(b) Describe the eye changes that enable nearby objects to be seen clearly.
(c) Describe the eye changes that enable far-away objects to be seen clearly.
Q.113 The figures P and Q show the state of the heart at stages of the cardiac cycle. 2
(a) Identify which organism is a fish. Give a reason for your answer.
(b) Identify the organism(s) that does/do NOT require energy to maintain their
body temperature.
Q.117 The two pictures below illustrate tropism in plants. P shows a plant bending 1
towards light. Q shows a plant twining around a pole.
Is such a food chain likely to exist in nature? Justify your answer.
Q.121 'Plants and animals give out carbon dioxide all the time.' 2
Is this statement true or false? Justify your answer.
Q.122 State what is required for two or more food chains to form a food web. 1
Q.123 Raman's mother moved her leg immediately as she saw that she was about to 2
step on Raman's toy.
Netra says this action is a reflex action as it was a quick action whereas Kabir
says it was a reflex action because it was an involuntary response.
Based on the pictures, what is true about the growth rate of the plant cells on Is either of them CORRECT? Justify your answer.
the side away from the stimulus as compared to the growth rate of the plant
cells on the side towards the stimulus? Q.124 A scientist wanted to determine whether a tall pea plant X was TT or Tt. 5
To do this he crossed two X plants:
Q.118 The picture below shows a cow looking for food in the garbage. 1
(i) one with a pea plant known to carry the TT traits
(ii) one with a pea plant known to carry the tt traits
(a) Considering that X could be TT or Tt, what ratios would he obtain in both
crosses - (i) and (ii)? Show the crosses.
(b) Based on the ratios obtained in (a), a cross with which parent - (i) or (ii) -
would help in identifying whether X was TT or Tt? Justify.
Q.125 Genetic drift can greatly increase variation in a population. 2

Is this statement TRUE? Justify.
Q.126 Give ONE reason why genetic drift is not the same as natural selection. 1
Very often, while eating some food the animal also swallows plastic. The plastic
that the animal swallows remains undigested and accumulates in the stomach. Q.127 Before Darwin's theory of evolution, another theory existed that postulated 2
This eventually leads to starvation as there is less and less space for real food. that any physical changes that occurred in an organism through its lifetime
Give one reason for plastic remaining undigested in an cow's stomach. could be transmitted to its offspring.
Using one example, explain why this theory cannot be true.
Q.119 In the food chain given below, which position would a vulture occupy? Justify 2
your answer. Q.128 One parent suffered from a disease which was then seen only in the male 1
Plants -------> Rabbit --------> wild cat --------- > lion children of subsequent generations and not seen in the female children.
Is this disorder likely to be linked to the sex chromosome of the individuals or
Q.120 Observe the food chain shown below. 2 not? Justify your answer.
Q.129 Justify the following statements: 2

(a) Organisms that originate from a common ancestor may look very different
from each other.
(b) Organisms that have similar-looking structures may not necessarily come State TWO observations in the family history that will help the geneticist
from a common ancestor. identify that the disease is caused by a dominant trait.
Q.130 (a) Ketaki thinks that the fresh dialysing fluid that enters the dialysis machine is 2 Q.136 A terrarium contains soil and a variety of plants inside a glass container. It is 3
rich in urea. watered and sealed. The soil gives the required nutrients, and plants use the
Is she correct? Why or why not? carbon dioxide present in the air inside the container to prepare food using
sunlight.
(b) Urination is a (voluntary/involuntary/both voluntary
and involuntary) process.
Q.131 In diabetic patients, with high blood glucose levels, the urine sample also 2
consists of high levels of glucose. This is mainly because, in the nephron,
glucose is not reabsorbed back into the blood.
Explain why does reabsorption not take place in two points.
Q.132 In respiration, glucose is broken down into a 3-C molecule called pyruvate, in 1
the cytoplasm of the cell.
Is this particular process aerobic or anaerobic in nature? Justify your answer.
Q.133 The graph below shows the hours of the day during which a plant absorbs CO2. 2
(a) Can this terrarium be called an ecosystem? Give a reason.

(b) List the biotic and abiotic components of this ecosystem.
Q.137 Neuronal coordination of the body is generally much faster than chemical 2
coordination of the body.
Mark the above statement as true or false and justify your answer.
Q.138 Here is a picture of a germinating seed. 3

(a) In what kind of weather conditions is this plant likely to be growing? Give a
reason to support your answer.
(b) When is photosynthesis likely to happen in such plants?
Q.134 Walnut plants belong to a category of plants where the male and female 2
flowers grow separately on the same plant. A scientist took three plants - P, Q
and R. He removed the male flowers from plant P and the female flowers from
plant Q. Plant R, he left as it is - with both flowers on the same plant. He kept
all three plants in an open space.
Will any of these plant/s bear fruits? Justify your answer. (a) What is the environmental stimulus required for the seed to develop roots
downwards and shoots upwards? Name the respective phenomenon.
Q.135 Consider a woman suffering from a disease that is not linked to the sex 2
chromosome. A geneticist wanted to know the likelihood of this disease (b) What environmental factor in the experimental setup shown below can be
passing on to future generations. To identify this, it was important to identify if altered in Figure X to observe the direction of root growth as observed in Figure
the disease is caused by a dominant allele or a recessive one. The geneticist Y?
made a chart of the appearance of this disease in the family members related
to the woman.
(a) What could be the deficiency disease Ram maybe suffering from? Justify.
(b) State TWO reasons why the doctor prescribed a thyroid test.
Q.141 Raghav was watching Nia and made the following observation: 4
Nia was practicing boxing. As her opponent swung an arm, Nia blinked her eyes
and ducked down. Nia retaliated with a punch.
(c) Name the tropic movement that occurs when pollen tubes grow towards (a) Raghav said that the blinking of eyes and ducking down are both reflex
ovules. actions. Is he correct? Justify.
Q.139 (a) What is the role of auxin in a plant? 3 (b) Explain the nervous process involved in Nia's retaliation with a punch in
(b) What should be the direction of light for the shoot tip to bend toward a side TWO points.
as given in the image below? Q.142 Raj is blindfolded. He is made to taste the food without seeing it. He concludes 2
that the food is burnt.
(a) What specific component of the tongue helped him conclude the taste of
the food?
(b) If the food was crunchy, which part of the brain would help him recognise
this texture of the food?
(c) Describe the mechanism involved in the bending of a shoot tip due to
stimulation by light.
Q.140 The thyroid hormone controls the body's metabolism. The two main hormones 3
thyroid releases are thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3), which collectively
comprise the thyroid hormone. The thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) in the
pituitary gland stimulates the thyroid to release the hormones.
Ram lives in a remote part of a Himalayan village. He visited the doctor with
symptoms of tightness in the throat and a hoarse voice. The doctor asked for a
thyroid profile and blood sugar test.
Given below are the test results:
Test Normal/Reference range Amount in sample
TSH 0.4-5 mIU/L 6 mIU/L
T3 4.6-12 μg/dL 1.76 μg/dL
T4 80-180 ng/dL 21 ng/dL
Blood sugar (post-meal) 170-200 mg/dL 180 mg/dL
Answer Key and Marking Scheme Q.96 B. Walking in a straight line 1
Q.97 C. Abscisic acid is released in response to the scarcity of water. 1
Q. No Answers Marks Q.98 (a) protein 3
Q.73 A. Only P 1 (b) emulsification
(c) Digestive enzymes in the stomach need an acidic medium while those in the
Q.74 A. They are analogous organs with same functions. 1
small intestine need an alkaline medium.
Q.75 A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. 1
Q.99 1 mark for each: 2
Q.76 B. Only rock and sunlight 1
- Red-colored ladybugs have an evolutionary advantage.
Q.77 D. Only primary, secondary and tertiary consumers 1
- This is because they are present in the largest numbers throughout the
Q.78 C. E/1000 1 country.
Q.79 C. (A) is false, but (R) is true 1

Q.100 1 mark for each reason: 2
Q.80 B. Only P and R 1
- She does not remove any part from the flowers to be pollinated because the
Q.81 D. A is false, but R is true. 1 female pumpkin flowers don't have any male parts.
- She still ties the pollinated flowers because the pollen from other male flowers
Q.82 C. 50% 1
can still reach the stigma.
Q.83 A. 0% 1
(Award marks for any other correct justification)
Q.84 C. 50% 1
Q.101 Yes, it does. [0.5 marks] 1
Q.85 C. Object is moved closer to the eye 1
The effect of adrenaline is to prepare the muscles of the body for a fight or
Q.86 B. Only Y 1 escape response. [0.5 marks]
Q.87 A. Myopia 1
Q.102 (a) 0.5 marks for each correct name: 2
Q.88 D. Ant 1
(i) circulatory and respiratory systems
Q.89 D. A is false, but R is true. 1 (ii) nervous system
Q.90 C. Relaxation of the ciliary muscles 1 (b) increased carbon dioxide quantity in blood
Q.91 D. Fertilisation 1
Q.103 (a) 1 mark for each of the following: 3
Q.92 B. Only Q 1
Part Q - Fallopian tube
Q.93 D. when the tendril is in contact with a surface 1
Function - Acts as the fertilization place for egg & sperm.
Q.94 A. Only P 1
(b) 0.5 mark for each of the following:
Q.95 B. Germination of pollen grains on the stigma 1
- No, she is not correct
- Eggs are produced in the ovaries which are intact. Q.108 (a) Ria's lack of reaction in response to the tapping of the patellar tendon 4
indicates possible damage to the central nervous system or a neurological
OR The uterus does not play a role in producing eggs.
problem.
[Accept any other valid reason.]
(b) 1 mark for each of the following:
Q.104 - New sugarcane plants are produced by vegetative propagation which is an 2 - If Ria sees a sharp object and does not step on it, it is a voluntary action.
asexual method of reproduction. Only one parent is involved and there is no
mixing of gametes. [1 mark] - The neural path followed is - signal from the eyes is passed to the brain, and
from the brain, the message is passed to move away by the motor nerve to the
- Humans reproduce through sexual reproduction involving two parents and the legs/effector organ.
mixing of male and female gametes, which results in the offspring having the
genes of both parents. [1 mark] (c) 1 mark for each of the following:
- Tapping of the patellar tendon initiates the neural signal, which is transmitted
Q.105 (a) 1 mark for each of the following: 3
through the sensory neuron to the spinal cord.
- Cyanobacteria in box X are likely to have better growth.
- From the spinal cord, the signal to stretch the leg is passed through the motor
- Cyanobacteria are photosynthetic bacteria that need sunlight which can enter neuron to the leg muscle.
only in box X as it has an opening.
Q.109 Ria is correct. (1 Mark) 2
(b) The containers should be kept in the open, where there is maximum
exposure to sunlight. -The sky appears blue as blue light has a shorter wavelength than red light.
-Scattering is inversely proportional to the wavelength of light.

Q.106 (a) Insulin would be released in response to the high glucose level. 3
(Give 1 mark if both points are mentioned)
(b) 1 mark for each of the following points:
- When the level of glucose increases, the cells of the pancreas release insulin. Q.110 (a) Roopa could have used any transparent object which could be made of glass 3
or plastic.
- When the level of glucose is stabilized, the cells of the pancreas regulate the
production of insulin and reduce insulin production through a feedback (b) 1 mark for each of the following:
mechanism.
- Light goes through two refractions in the object. The first one is the air-glass
interface when light is incident on the object.
Q.107 (a) Growth needs to be observed in each of the following plants: 4
- The second one is the glass-air interface when the ray of light emerges out of
- Keep a blue pea plant with a stick in the dark and another one with a stick in
the object. This happens because light has travelled from an optically denser
the sunlight [1 mark]
medium to an optically rarer medium.
- Keep another blue pea plant without a stick in the dark and another one
without a stick in the sunlight [1 mark] Q.111 (a) One of the celestial objects was twinkling, while the other was not. (1 mark) 3
(b) 1 mark for each point: (b)
- The venus fly trap plant's leaves have hairs sensitive to touch. - If the celestial objects were to be observed from the moon, Tina would not be
able to distinguish them as a star or a planet.
- When a fly sits on the leaf, it triggers/stimulates the hairs and in response to
this the leaf traps shut. - Since there is no atmosphere on the moon, stars would not appear to twinkle.
(1 mark for each point.)
Q.112 (a) The lens of the eye, because it has the ability to adjust its focal length. 3 - organisms X
(b) When we are looking at nearby objects closer, the ciliary muscles contract. - organism Y
This increases the curvature of the eye lens. The eye lens then becomes thicker.
The focal length of the eye lens decreases. This enables us to see nearby objects Q.117 The cells on the side away from the stimulus grow faster than the cells on the 1
clearly. side of the stimulus.
(c)The curvature of the eye lens can be modified to some extent by the ciliary Q.118 Cows do not produce the enzyme required to break down and digest plastic 1
muscles. The change in the curvature of the eye lens changes its focal length. material.
When the muscles are relaxed, the lens becomes thin, and its focal length
increases. This enables us to see distant objects clearly.
Q.119 A vulture would occupy a position after the lion. 2
Q.113 1 mark each for the following: 2 Vultures are scavengers that feed on the remains of dead organisms.
- Figure P: 120
Q.120 Such a food chain is not likely to exist in nature. 2
- Figure Q: 80
The food chain shown has too many trophic levels. Due to the loss of energy at
each level, there will not be enough energy available at the higher trophic levels.
Q.114 0.5 marks for each of the following: 3
- pharynx Q.121 - True. [1 mark] 2
- oesophagus - Plants and animals respire continuously and hence give out the product of
respiration, carbon dioxide, all the time. [1 mark]
- stomach
(No marks to be awarded without justification.)
- small intestine
Q.122 They must have an organism that is eaten by two or more other kinds of 1
- large intestine organisms.
- anus [Accept any other valid answer.]
Q.115 A baby does not use its lungs when it is growing in the womb. [1 mark] 1 Q.123 0.5 marks for each of the following: 2
OR - Neither of them is correct.
The hole in the septum does not cause problems in an unborn infant as the - The action was a voluntary action in response to seeing the toy.
developing embryo gets nutrition and oxygen from the mother's blood through
the placenta and umbilical cord. [1 mark] [Accept any other valid justification.]
Q.116 (a) organism X [1 mark] 3 Q.124 (a) 0.5 marks each for the correct crosses and the correct ratios: 5
1 mark for any one of the following: (i) If X was TT
- fishes have a two-chambered heart.

T T
- In fishes, the blood passes through the heart only once during one cycle
T TT TT
(b) 0.5 marks each for the following:
T TT TT
All tall plants would be obtained. - False.
If X was Tt - Genetic drift causes a change in the population of species which can result in
the wiping out of some variants completely which results in decreased variation
in a population.
T t
[Accept any other valid justification. No marks to be awarded if the correct
T TT Tt justification is not written.]
T TT Tt
Q.126 Genetic drift is a chance event that does not depend on a trait's suitability to 1
the environment which drives natural selection.
All tall plants would be obtained. Q.127 1 mark for each of the following: 2
(ii) If X was TT - Humans with amputated legs give birth to children with properly formed limbs.
T T - This theory talks about the inheritance of non-genetic characteristics which do

not affect the genetic makeup of an organism.
t Tt Tt
[Accept any other valid answer.]
t Tt Tt
- Yes it is linked to the sex chromosome/Y chromosome.

All tall plants would be obtained.
- If it was not linked to the Y chromosome it would be seen in the daughters as
If X was Tt well.
T t Q.129 1 mark for each of the following: 2

t Tt tt (a) Over time, mutations and variations cause organisms coming from the same
ancestor to accumulate a lot of differences causing them to look very different
t Tt tt from each other.
(b) It is possible for unrelated organisms to have similar-looking organs

1:1 ratio of tall:short plants. especially when they live in similar environments/undergo the same selective
pressure.
[Award marks if the cross is shown in any other correct manner.]
(b) 0.5 marks for each of the following:
Q.130 (a) 2
- (ii) would be helpful
- No she is not correct. [0.5 marks]
- In (ii), the ratios of offspring obtained were different for TT and Tt whereas in
(i) the ratios were the same for TT and Tt so it would not be possible to - During dialysis, nitrogenous wastes such as urea leave the blood and enter the
determine whether X is TT or Tt based on (i). dialysing fluid by diffusion due to a concentration difference and so urea cannot
be present in the fluid otherwise urea from the blood will not get excreted into
Q.125 1 mark for each of the following: 2 the dialysing fluid. [1 mark]
(b) both voluntary and involuntary (b)
- The biotic components are the variety of plants and other organisms present
Q.131 1 mark for each of the following: 2 in the soil. [1 mark]
- Reabsorption of nutrients in the nephron is a process mainly driven by osmosis. - The abiotic components are soil, sunlight, air and water. [give 1 mark if all the
components are written]
- When some of the glucose from the blood is filtered in the urine, it does not
get reabsorbed as the concentration of glucose is already high in the blood and Q.137 True 2
so there is little/no concentration gradient causing glucose to be retained in the
urine. Neuronal coordination is faster due to rapid electrical signalling, direct point-to-
point communication, and immediate responses, whereas chemical
coordination relies on slower hormone diffusion through the bloodstream.
- anaerobic Q.138 (a) 0.5 marks for identifying the stimulus and 0.5 marks for naming the 3
phenomenon.
- This step occurs in all organisms, even those that respire anaerobically and so
this process is likely to be anaerobic. -roots growing downwards- stimulus: gravity, phenomenon: positive
geotropism
-shoot growing upwards-stimulus: sunlight, phenomenon: positive
phototropism
(b) The environmental factor that can be altered is adding a source of
- in dry and arid conditions/deserts
water/nutrients towards one side of the root.
- Since gas exchange is not happening in the day, it indicates that stomata is
(c) The tropic movement that occurs when pollen tubes grow towards ovules is
likely to be closed, which is common in dry conditions.
called chemotropism.
(b) in the day
Q.139 (a) 0.5 marks for each keyword. 3
Q.134 - Plants P and R will bear fruits [0.5 marks for naming each plant] 2
Auxin in the plant promotes:
- Plant P has the female reproductive organs which can receive pollen and
-cell growth
fertilisation can take place. [0.5 marks]
-cell elongation.
- Plant R has both sexes on the same plant facilitating pollination and
fertilisation. [0.5 marks] (b) The light source should be at Side X for the shoot tip to bend
Q.135 1 mark each for any TWO of the following: 2 (c) 0.5 marks for each point
- At least one parent of the woman will also have the disease. - When the light comes from one side of the plant, then the plant hormone auxin
gets diffused towards the side of the shoot that is away from sunlight.
- Other than her, some of her siblings would also have the disease.
- This concentration of auxin stimulates cell growth and elongation on the side
- In each generation, one or more individuals will have the disease. of the shoot away from light.
[Accept any other valid answers.]

Q.136 (a) The terrarium can be called an ecosystem because all the components of the 3 - The deficiency disease is goitre.
terrarium are interacting with each other.
- T3 and T4 level for Ram is less than the given normal range while TSH is high. 17. NATURAL PHENOMENA
(b) 1 mark each for the following:
- The geographical location of Ram indicated the possibility of low levels of Q.No Question Marks
Iodine availability in food.
-The symptoms described indicated iodine deficiency.
Q.143 Diabetic retinopathy causes damage to blood vessels in the retina. 1
Q.141 (a)1 mark for each point 4
Which of the following would NOT happen in a person having diabetic
- Blinking of eyes is not a reflex action. It is an involuntary action that happens retinopathy?
with or without a stimulus.
A. Focussing on objects at different distances
- Nia ducked down because of reflex action. B. Formation of a clear image of the object
C. Change in the size of the pupil
(b)1 mark for each point D. Entry of light into the eye
-Nia's brain received the signal from the eyes through sensory nerves, and the
brain processed this signal. Q.144 A bottle is viewed through a convex lens as shown below. The bottle appears 1
inverted at first. The bottle is now moved slowly towards the lens.
- The brain sent the signal to the hand, through motor nerves to punch back
Q.142 (a) The gustatory receptors on the tongue help us to identify the taste of the 2
food.
(b) Fore brain has a specialized function of hearing. Crunch in the food can be
heard, and this is processed by the forebrain
At which of the marked points will the image appear upright?
A. P
B. Q
C. R
D. S
Two statements are given below - one labelled Assertion (A) and the other
Q.145 1
labelled Reason (R).
Assertion (A): For making danger signals and signs that are at a distance, a colour
with a longer wavelength is used.
Reason (R): Colours with longer wavelengths travel faster than the other
colours.

C. A is true, but R is false.
D. A is false, but R is true. (b) Would the gel beads shown in the first image be visible if placed in oil instead
of water? Give a reason for your answer.
Q.148 The ray of light emerging from a rectangular glass slab into air is shown in the 2
Q.146 The image given below indicates defective vision in Ram. 5 diagram below.
.
Copy the diagram and draw the path of the same light ray as it enters from air
(a) Based on the given information, what could be the nature of the eye defect? and passes through the glass slab.
(b) State the type of lens to be used to correct his vision. Justify your choice.
Q.149 The ozone layer absorbs harmful ultraviolet rays. Chlorine released by certain 1
(c) The near point of Ram's eye is 75 cm. Calculate the focal length and power substances such as chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) and hydrochlorofluorocarbons
of the lens he should use while reading a book kept at a distance of 25 cm from (HCFCs) contributes to ozone depletion.
the eye.
Large volcanic eruptions produce large amounts of tiny particles called aerosols,
Q.147 Neeti took some clear gel beads and soaked them in water for a few hours. The 2 which increase chlorine's effectiveness in destroying ozone.
gel beads absorbed water and increased in size. She then placed these beads in
a glass container. The beads were clearly visible in the container as shown State one possible reason why erupting volcanoes, though increasing chlorine's
below. effectiveness at destroying ozone, do not pose a serious threat to the ozone
layer.
Q.150 Ajay took a stem cutting (scion) from a red rose plant and a stem (stock) from a 2
white rose plant. After cutting both the stems, he arranged and tied them as
shown below.
Neeti then added water to the container and it appeared as shown below.
(a) Why are the gel beads not visible on adding water?
(a) Name the type of asexual reproduction seen here. Answer Key and Marking Scheme
(b) What will be the colour of the roses that will be produced in the new plant?
Q.151 State TWO points of similarities between the processes of reproduction in hydra 2
and bryophyllum. Q. No Answers Marks
Q.152 A concave lens has a power of -2.0D. It forms an image of an object at a distance 4 Q.143 B. Formation of a clear image of the object 1
of 10 cm from the lens.
Q.144 D. S 1
(a) Find the distance of the object from the lens.
(b) Find the magnification produced. Q.145 B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation for A. 1
Q.153 A light ray is incident on the wall of a glass tank as shown below. 3 Q.146 (a) The nature of the eye defect is hypermetropia. 5
( 1 mark for correct answer)
(b) 1 mark for each point
-The type of lens to be used to correct his vision is a convex lens.
- The image of a nearby object is being formed behind the retina and by using a
convex lens the light rays can be converged further causing the image to be
focused correctly on the retina.
(c)0.5 mark for the formula, 0.5 mark for the final answer
Draw a rough diagram of the path of the light ray as it passes through the glass
tank and the water and emerges again ito air. Draw the normal at each interface.
Q.154 While walking along the riverbank, Trupti found a smooth, milky white stone. 2
When a ray of sunlight fell upon it, she observed that the stone appeared bluish For distant vision,
in colour and the light that passed through it appeared orange in colour.
The focal length is p= 1/f
(a) Identify the phenomenon that Trupti observed as sunlight fell upon the
stone. p= 100/20
(b) How would the size of the stone particles compare to the wavelength of p= 5 D
visible light?
Q.147 (a) The water-filled gel beads have nearly the same refractive index as water 2
and hence light does not bend as it moves from water to the beads.
(b) The gel beads would be visible when placed in oil, as the refractive index of
water is different from that of the oil.
Q.148 1 mark for drawing the incident ray entering the glass slab and 1 mark for 2
drawing the refracted ray as it passes through the glass slab:
Q.153 3
(0.5 marks each for drawing the rays correctly at each interface. 1 Mark for
drawing the normal at each interface.)
Q.149 Volcanic eruptions do not occur frequently. 1
Q.154 (a) scattering of light 2
Q.150 (a) It is also called vegetative propagation/grafting. 2 (b) The stone particles would be smaller than the wavelength of visible light.
(b)The new plant would produce red flowers.
Q.151 (1 mark for each point ) 2
- The offspring that are produced are genetically identical to the parent.
-Single parent is involved in the process of reproduction.
(Accept any other valid points)
Q.152 (a) 4
Power of lens D = -2.0 = 1/f
f = -1/2 = -50 cm [1 mark]
lens formula 1/v -1/u = 1/f [1 mark]
1/u = 1/v -1/f = 1/-10 - (1/-50)
= -5 - (-1) / 50
= -4/50
u = 50/-4 = -12.5 cm [1 mark]
(b) magnification =v/u
= -10/-12.5 =0.8
18. EFFECTS OF CURRENT Q.157 The circuit shown below has a bulb, three resistors R1, R2 and R3, and three 1
switches S1, S2 and S3. There are also two ammeter A1 and A2 in the circuit.
Q.No Question Marks
Q.155 The electric circuit below consists of a voltmeter, a battery and three bulbs X, Y 1
and Z.
How will the reading on ammeter A2 compare with the reading on ammeter A1
when
(i) All the three switches are closed?
(ii) One switch is closed?
Q.158 Before cleaning the light bulb in his room, Gautam turned off the light by turning 1
the switch off. Yet, he received an electric shock while cleaning the bulb.
Explain why the bulb connection was live though the switch was off.
The reading on the voltmeter represents the potential difference across which
bulb(s)? Q.159 The picture shown below is of a special bulb P which is used in some circuits of 3
series lights. Its filament is joined to the two terminals through a bimetallic strip,
as shown. When the filament gets heated and glows, it also heats up the
A. Only X
bimetallic strip which bends when heated.
B. Both X and Y
C. Both X and Z
D. All X, Y and Z
Q.156 Of all the components in the circuit shown below, the current flowing through 1
the voltmeter is the least.
Explain why.
Besides its function as a light bulb, which other component of a normal electric
circuit is this bulb likely to function as? Justify your answer.
Q.160 The picture below shows two diagrams of the wiring of an electric clothes iron. 4
The thermostat is a device that can be set at a particular temperature, and
controls the heating temperature of the iron by automatically shutting off and
on. The indicator light is connected differently in the two diagrams.
Answer Key and Marking Scheme
Q.No Answers Marks
Q.155 B. Both X and Y 1
Q.156 Of all the components, the voltmeter has the highest resistance. 1
Q.157 The reading on ammeter A2 will be the same as the reading on ammeter A1.
The reading on ammeter A2 will be equal to the reading on ammeter A1. 1

0.5 mark for each correct answer.
Q.158 The switch was connected in the neutral wire instead of the live wire. 1
Q.159 The bulb acts as a switch, shutting the lights off and on. [1 mark]
- On heating, the bimetallic strip expands and bends away from the terminal
thus breaking contact with the terminal connected to the battery and thus
breaking the circuit. [1 mark] 3
- On cooling, the bimetallic strip contracts and becomes straight again thus
making contact once again with the terminal connected to the battery and
switching on the lights. [1 mark]
(a) Explain how the difference in the connections affects the functioning of the Q.160 (a) 1 mark each for the following:
indicator light.
- In figure 1, the indicator light will go off and on as the thermostat controlling
(b) Does this difference change the heating of the iron? Justify your answer.
the heating of the coils cuts off and on.
(c) State the function of the earthing wire.
- In figure 2, the indicator light will go off only when the main switch is put off.
4
(b) The difference in the connections will not change the heating of the iron as
the thermostat will be controlling the heating of the coils by cutting off and on,
though the light remains on continuously.
(c) The earthing wire protects against electric shocks.
19. NATURAL RESOURCES
Q.No Question Marks
Q.161 Here is a solar light installed on the roof of a house in New Delhi (latitude of 1
28.70 ° N and longitude of 77.10 °E)
Based on the graph, which of the following is TRUE?
A. Species flourished before the industrial revolution.

B. Most species were extinct between the year 1500 to 1600
C. There was an increase in the number of species between the years 1800
to 2014
D. Reptiles, fish and amphibians are always fewer in number as compared to
other vertebrates.
Towards which direction is the solar panel likely to be tilted for maximum
conversion of solar energy to electricity in a day?
Q.163 Here is a schematic diagram of trees growing in monoculture (trees of the same 1
A. North species growing together) and polyculture (trees of different species growing
B. South together).
C. East
D. West
Q.162 The graph below shows the extinction rates of different vertebrate species from 1
the year 1500- 2014.
(Note: The extinction rate is the percentage of species that would go extinct over
a period of time.)
In monoculture, the trees have a uniform canopy while in polyculture the trees
have a species-specific canopy.
But now the forest areas are cleared to grow a single type of crop such as teak
year after year for the production of teakwood.
What can such a type of practice do?
A. Reduce global warming

B. Promote biodiversity
C. Amplify global warming
D. Impede biodiversity
Q.164 Shown below is a labelled diagram of a solar cooker. 1 Free response question/Subjective Question
Q.167 The diagram below represents a pyramid of numbers for a food chain. 3
Which is MOST likely the correct reason for covering the solar cooker with a
thick glass sheet?
(a) Why do successive trophic levels in this taper as we move from bottom to
top?
A. To reflect sunlight better
B. To reflect harmful uv rays (b) What is the average proportion of energy expected to be transferred from
C. To prevent heat from escaping one trophic level to the next?
D. To prevent the absorption of heat (c) Cite an example of an inverted pyramid of numbers.
Q.165 Compostable plastics are biodegradable in conditions conducive to composting. 1 Q.168 On an overnight train journey Varun found tea being served in various kinds of 2
Other biodegradable plastics degrade when buried in the soil (in landfills or cups as shown below:
anaerobic digestors).
Which of the following statements is likely to be true?
P) Compostable is always biodegradable.
Q) Biodegradable is not always compostable.
A. Only P
B. Only Q
C. Both P and Q
D. Neither P nor Q
Q.166 Diclofenac is a drug that is administered to cattle that undergoes the process of 1
biological magnification.
Which of the following is likely to have the highest amount of the drug in it?
A. Cheetah
B. Vultures
C. Goats
D. Foxes
(a) Which kind of tea cup is most harmful for the environment and why?
(b) Which one of the tea cups is made from the most environment friendly
material and why?
Q.169 The 10% law of energy transfer between trophic levels talks of only 10% of the 1
energy being transferred from one trophic level to the next.
In what form is this energy transferred from one trophic level to the next?
Q.170 Solar cell panels are used to generate electricity using solar energy. The energy 2
output of the solar cells is maximum when sunlight falls perpendicular to the
solar panels.
Given below is a schematic diagram of a setup of solar panels on a roof and a

diagram showing the tilt angle.
(a) How can the use of fuel non-compliant with emission standards contribute
to global warming and toxicity to the environment?
(b) Can a diesel vehicle purchased in the year 2014, with an engine that has
passed BS lll be used in the year 2020? Justify
(c)Petrol cars fitted with particulate filters are among the cleanest cars. How
does this satisfy the petrol emission norm?
Q.173 An image of a water reservoir belonging to the Dholavira civilization (3000 BCE 3
to 1700 BCE) is given below.
(a) In which hemisphere is this setup likely to be located?
(b) If the setup is located closer to the equator, how would the tilt angle change?
Q.171 Ritu bought two sets of single-use disposable cups. One of them is made of 1
Styrofoam (thermocol), which is obtained from petroleum products. The other
one is made of sugarcane waste.
Which of them is likely to remain in the environment or landfill longer? Why?
Q.172 India has adopted Bharat Stage (BS) Emission Standards since 2000, modelled 4
on Euro norms. The Bharat Stage emission standards regulate tailpipe emissions (a) How would this water reservoir system have helped in water conservation?
of air pollutants including particulate matter (PM), oxides of Nitrogen (NOx) as
(b) Give two examples of how water stored in the ground can help to reduce
well as carbon monoxide (CO), and hydrocarbons (HC).
water pollution.
Bharat stage standard lll (BS lll) was introduced in the year 2010, and Bharat
stage standard lV (BS lV) was introduced in the year 2017. Q.174 The drug Diclofenac was administered to the cattle as an anti-inflammatory drug 2
to ease pain and aches. When these animals died, the carcasses of dead cattle
Here is a comparison of petrol and diesel emission norms.
that were administered the drug were disposed off in the wastelands.
The graph given below gives information on the effect of the drug Diclofenac on
the population of vultures.
What direction should his windows face for maximum availability of sunlight
during the daytime?
Justify your answer.

Q.177 Both biogas and coal are fuels that can be used for energy production. 1
Write one advantage that biogas has over coal.
Q.178 In a solar furnace, the temperature at the focal point may reach 3,500 °C 4
(6,330 °F), and this heat can be used to generate electricity, melt steel and so
on.
(a) Which commonly used solar equipment works on a similar principle as that
of the solar furnace?
(b) Describe two features of the equipment mentioned in answer (a) that enable
it to gather and trap heat.
(a) How did the usage of such drugs impact the population of vultures? (c) Which of the places are best suited to use solar furnaces to generate
(b) What could be the effect on the vultures after the ban of the drug electricity?
Diclofenac?
Q.179 Most of the plastic articles that we use in our daily life are made from chemicals 1
Q.175 A food web consists of many interrelated food chains. It represents the feeding 2 obtained from petroleum. After use, most of this plastic ends up as waste in
relationship between many food chains. An aquatic food web is represented in landfills or the oceans. Nowadays, many products are made of plastic obtained
the image given below. from natural, plant-based products such as corn starch.
What is likely to be the main difference between these two types of plastics?
Q.180 Straws made from palm leaves are organic. These single-use drinking straws are 2
made of dried leaves that naturally fall to the ground.
Paper straws are made of food-grade paper and water-based adhesive or glue.
Both paper straws and palm leaf straws are biodegradable.
(a) State an advantage of palm leaf straws over paper straws.
(b) Why can single-use palm straws be recycled again?
Q.181 Tina is trying to make responsible choices by following the 5R's of waste 3
management.
She has categorised her activities in the table given below.
Consider that a dam is constructed across the river where this aquatic food web Activity
exists. The small fishes in the river generally travel upstream to lay eggs which
was not possible after the construction of the dam. Reduce use public transport
The population of which organism is MOST likely to increase due to the Reuse discoloured water bottle used to keep water in the refrigerator
construction of the dam? Justify.
Recycle a broken cup used as a planter
Q.176 Ratan stays in New Delhi, which is at a latitude of 28° N. He wants to design a 2
house such that maximum sunshine is obtained throughout the day. Repurpose old tyres made into stools
Refuse carry steel straw to drink tender coconut or juice outside Q.187 (a) Even though nuclear energy doesn't produce excess greenhouse gases like 3
other sources of energy, it is not considered a clean form of energy. Justify the
statement.
Which of the activities is placed under the wrong heading? Where should it (b) In TWO points explain how nuclear reactions help in the production of
placed and Why? energy in nuclear reactors.
Q.182 Forests and sanctuaries are usually rich in biodiversity and are biodiversity 1
hotspots.
Can man-made lakes be considered biodiversity hotspots? Justify the
statement.
Q.183 In a national park, domestic animals from the nearby villages were sent to graze 2
regularly. Over a period of time, the population of big cats or carnivores in the
national park were found to decline.
What is likely to have led to a decrease in the number of big cats in this national
park?
Q.184 Small ponds, created by building check dams across streams, dry up a few 2
months after the rainy season. This is due to loss of water by evaporation and
by seepage into the soil.
Loss of water by which of these methods could actually be beneficial to farmers
in the dry season? Justify your answer.
Q.185 Nuclear power plants are typically constructed away from densely populated 2
urban areas. Mention any TWO reasons why.
Q.186 Here's a schematic diagram of a biogas plant. 2
(a) What is the main product obtained at the end of the process of digestion?
(b) State one modification that can be made in the biogas plant which will
prevent the generation of the major product identified in (a). Justify your
answer.
Answer Key and Marking Scheme - Styrofoam is likely to remain in the environment or landfill longer.
- Styrofoam is not biodegradable.
Q.No Answers Marks Q.172 (a) 1 mark for each point 4
-A non-compliant fuel when burnt releases oxides of sulphur, nitrogen and

Q.161 B. South 1
carbon dioxide in high amounts. All three are greenhouse gases, and high
Q.162 A. Species flourished before the industrial revolution. 1 environmental concentration leads to increased global warming.
Q.163 D. Impede biodiversity 1 -Besides global warming, oxides of Nitrogen and Sulphur are toxic to the
environment by causing acid rain.
Q.164 C. To prevent heat from escaping 1
(accept any other valid answers)
Q.165 C. Both P and Q 1
(b) The vehicle can be used only if it fulfils the BS-IV diesel emission norms.
Q.166 B. Vultures 1
(c) Particulate filter would filter the particulate matter. Cars that have a
Q.167 (a) because the number of organisms in each level keeps reducing at successive 3 particulate filter eliminate particulate emissions into the environment.
trophic levels
Q.173 (a) Water reservoir system helps in recharging groundwater. As water seeps into 3
(b) 10% the ground, it recharges the wells and other groundwater sources.
(c) 1 mark any correct answer such as: (b) 1 mark for each point
- an ecosystem with parasites - As it is not stagnant open water, there won't be a breeding ground for
mosquitoes in the water.
- an ecosystem of saprophytes
- This water will not come in direct contact with human and animal waste.
Q.174 (a) The usage of drugs like Diclofenac impacted the population of vultures as the 2
Q.168 (a) 0.5 marks each for name and reason: 2 vultures fed on the carcass of the cattle, the drug administered in the cattle
affected the vultures, thus causing their death.
- plastic
(b) The ban on the drug Diclofenac, would possibly increase the population of
- because plastic is non-biodegradable
vultures
(b) 0.5 marks each for name and reason:
Q.175 1 mark for each of the following: 2
- earthen cups
- The population of zooplankton may increase.
- because they are made from naturally occurring material
- If small fish cannot lay eggs, their rate of reproduction will decline over time,
Q.169 chemical energy 1 leading to lower consumption of zooplankton.

Q.170 (a) This setup is likely to be located in the Northern Hemisphere. 2
(b) If the setup is located closer to the equator, the tilt angle would decrease. Q.176 Ratan's house windows should face South. 2
As Delhi is at 28° N latitude, the sun will always be towards the south of Delhi,
Q.171 (a) 0.5 marks for each of the following: 1 and the sunlight will enter the windows facing south throughout the day.
Q.177 - Biogas is 75% methane, and burns without creating smoke or particulate 1 (No marks are to be awarded without justification)
matter.
Q.183 1 mark for each of the following: 2
Q.178 (a) Solar cooker uses a similar principle as that of a solar furnace. 4 - Due to cattle grazing in the national park, the other wild herbivores would not
(b) 1 Mark for each point: get sufficient food/plants to graze on, which is likely to cause a decline in their
population.
- A solar cooker has mirrors that reflect light falling on it to a single focal point.
- A decline in the herbivore population directly impacts the population of big
- A solar cooker has blackened inner surfaces in the wooden box of the solar cats or carnivores.
cooker to absorb radiations from the beam of sunlight.
Q.184 - Seepage of water into the soil could be beneficial in the dry season. [1 mark] 2
(c) The places that are best suited to use solar furnaces to generate electricity
are the ones that receive steady sunlight throughout the year. - Seepage of water into the soil recharges the ground water which can be used
in the dry months. [1 mark]
(accept any other valid answer)
Q.185 [1 mark each for any two of the following points] 2
Q.179 -The plastic made from chemicals obtained from petroleum will be non- 1
biodegradable. The plastic obtained from natural, plant-based products is - Minimizes the risk of radiation exposure in densely populated areas.
biodegradable. [1 mark]
- Facilitates more efficient evacuation plans in case of emergencies.
OR
- Mitigates noise disturbances to nearby residents.
Only the plastics obtained from natural products is biodegradable. [1 mark]
- Nuclear plants require extensive land building facilities and safety buffers.
(Marks to be given for any other valid answer.)
Q.180 (a) The palm leaves are easily available and can be used directly in making palm- 2
leaf straws. To make paper straws, the paper needs to be manufactured first Q.186 (a) Methane is the main product obtained at the end of the process of digestion. 2
which involves the usage of a lot of water and chemicals that lead to pollution.
(b)
(b) Since palm leaves are made from a natural source, they are biodegradable
- Modification: Adding an inlet of air into the digester will prevent the
and can be recycled.
generation of methane. [0.5 marks]
Q.181 (1 mark for each point) 3 - Justification: Methane is produced by anaerobic bacteria in the absence of air,
so adding an inlet of air will allow air to enter, thus, eliminating the anaerobic
- A broken cup used as a planter is misplaced under the recycle column. condition inside the digester. [1 mark]
- This has to be placed under the repurpose column.

Q.187 (a) Nuclear energy produced does not pollute with greenhouse gases like other 3
-It is a new product, but it is not melted/remoulded, it is just used for a different sources of energy but used/spent fuel continues to release harmful radiations
purpose. which results in environmental contamination.
(b)1 mark each for the following points:

Q.182 - Yes. 1
- In nuclear fission, the nucleus of a heavy atom such as
- The man-made lakes have an ecosystem with many species of animals and uranium/plutonium/thorium is bombarded with low-energy neutrons and gets
plants in them. The range of different life forms represents a biodiversity split into lighter nuclei.
hotspot.
- An enormous amount of energy is released during the process which is used in
the production of steam and the generation of electricity.

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PREFACE

● give exposure to students to competency‐based items

● assist in classroom teaching and learning

● get inspiration to create more such competency‐based items

Competency Focused Practice Questions | Science | Grade 10

Answer Key & Marking Scheme.......................................................................................... 4 19. NATURAL RESOURCES ...................................................................................................... 85

2. CARBON COMPOUNDS ...................................................................................................... 6 Answer Key and Marking Scheme .................................................................................... 95

Answer Key & Marking Scheme.......................................................................................... 7

Q.4 A solution P is taken in a flask and two drops of phenolphthalein indicator is 3

Option Blue flowers Pink flowers

Q.3 The milk will form into curd faster in bowl P. 3

Q.4 (a) 0.5 marks each for the following: 3

Q.7 Combustion analysis of compound X revealed the ratio of its elements in a 2

Q.9 One mole of an alkane P is burned in an excess of oxygen to yield 6 moles of 3

Q. No Answers Marks Q. No Question Marks

Q. No Answers Marks Q. No Question Marks

Q.10 1 Multiple Choice Question

Answer Key & Marking Scheme

Q.No Answers Marks

Kishore constructs a simple circuit as shown below. The resistor is made of

Q.15 Priya has three resistors each of resistance 2 Ω. 1

The resistance of R is increased. What will happen to the voltmeter readings

Q. No Answers Marks Q. No Question Marks

Which diagram represents evolution of homologous organs?

Free Response Question/ Subjective Question

Q.19 B. They may grow up to have curly hair. 1

Q.21 Yes, he is right. [0.5 marks] 1

Q.23 (a) male. 23rd pair has X and Y chromosomes. 2

Q. No Question Marks Q. No Answers Marks

Free Response Question/ Subjective Question Q.24 (a) 2 spots 3

(c) 1 mark for any one of the following:

Free Response Question/ Subjective Question

A. left atrium and left ventricle

Q. No Answers Marks Q. No Question Marks

Q.25 B. capillaries 1 Multiple Choice Question

Q. No Answers Marks Q. No Question Marks

Best to avoid Good to eat

King mackerel Tilapia

Answer Key & Marking Scheme

Q.33 biomagnification of toxic substances in higher trophic levels 1

Q. No Question Marks Q. No Question Marks

Multiple Choice Question Multiple Choice Question

Answer Key & Marking

Q.No Answers Marks

Q.37 B. only the lens with power 4 D 1

Free Response Question/ Subjective Question

What could be reason for covering the pollinated flowers of plant X?

Q. No Answers Marks Q. No Question Marks

- sexual reproduction P) hydro-electricity

Free Response Question/ Subjective Question

Multiple Choice Question A. Blue litmus paper

(i) It has high ductility. A. Only P

Q.62 The molecular formulae of three carbon compounds are: 2

CH2O, C2H4O, C3H6O

(b) Write the structures of the two isomers.

25 °C (room temperature) 1.738 0.99

100 °C (boiling point of - 0.958

Copper sulphate blue Q.58 (a) Yes, it is. [0.5 marks] 4

Q.60 - The pH will be below 6.0. [1 mark] 2

Q.68 (a) A,D,E 4