SOSE DELHI GRADE PART TEST PCM 1

Test Code: SB-AT-08-24

Duration: 120 minutes Total Marks: 180

Physics
Q1: The surface charge density of a thin charged disc of radius R is σ. With respect to the field
at the centre, the electric field along the axis at a distance √3R from the centre of the disc :

A. reduce by 70% B. reduce by 29.3%

C. reduce by 86.6% D. reduce by 13.4%

Q2: A particle is placed at the origin and a force F = kx is acting on it (where k is a

positive constant). If U (0) = 0, the graph of U (x) versus x will be (where U is the potential
energy function)

A. B.

C. D.

Q3: Assertion: No work is done in moving an electric dipole translationally in uniform electric
field.
Reason: Net force on electric dipole in uniform electric field is zero.

A. If both Assertion and Reason are true and

B. If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
C. If Assertion is false but Reason is true. D. If both Assertion and Reason are false.

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Q4: Four charges are arranged at the corners of a square ABCD as shown in the figure. The
force on the charge kept at the centre O is

A. zero B. along the diagonal AC

C. along the diagonal BD D. along perpendicular to the side AB

Q5: Assertion: Two concentric charged spherical shells are given. The potential difference
between the shells depends on charge of inner shell.
Reason: Potential due to charge of outer shell remains same at every point inside the sphere.

A. Assertion is true, reason is true. Reason is a B. Assertion is true, reason is true. Reason is
correct explanation for assertion. not a correct explanation for assertion.
C. Assertion is true, reason is false. D. Assertion is false but reason is true.

Q6: All resistances shown in circuit are 2Ω each. The current in the resistance between D and E

is

A. 5A B. 2.5 A

C. 1A D. 7.5 A

Q7: In the circuit shown below, when the switch S is closed the reading of ammeter is changed
by

A. 3A B. 2A

C. 4A D. 1A

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Q8: Two non-ideal batteries are connected in series. Consider the following statements:

A. The equivalent emf is larger than either of the two EMFs irrespective even if battery is
reversed.
B. The equivalent internal resistance is smaller than either of the two internal resistances.

A. Each of A and B is correct. B. A is correct but B is wrong.

C. B is correct but A is wrong. D. Each of A and B is wrong.

Q9: A D.C. main supply of e.m.f. 220V is connected across a storage battery of e.m.f. 200V
through a resistance of 1Ω. The battery terminals are connected to an external resistance R. The
value of R out of the given options for which, a current passes through the battery to charge it is

A. 7Ω B. 9Ω

C. 11Ω D. 0.5Ω

Q10:
What is the equivalent resistance across the points A and B in the circuit given
below?

A. 8Ω B. 12Ω

C. 16Ω D. 32Ω

Q11: Consider a sphere of radius R which carries a uniform charge density ρ. If a sphere of
→
radius
|E |
is carved out of it, as shown, the ratio → of magnitude of electric field E
R A
→ A and E
→B,
2
|E | B

respectively, at points A and B due to the remaining portion is 17 , then x will be

x

Q12: A solid sphere of radius R has a charge Q distributed in its volume with a charge density
ρ = kra, where k and a are constants and r is the distance from its centre. If the electric field at

is 18 times that at r = R, find the value of a.

R
r =
2

→
Q13: An electric field is given by E = (y^
i + x^
j)N C
−1
. Find the work done (in J ) in moving a 1C

charge from r→A = (2^

i + 2^
j)m to r→B = (4^
i +^
j)m

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Q14: A battery of internal resistance 4Ω is connected to the network of resistances as shown. In

order that the maximum power can be delivered to the network, the value of R in Ω should be

Q15: A heater coil is rated 100 W , 200 V . It is cut into two identical parts. Both parts are
connected together in parallel, to the same source of 200 V . Calculate the energy liberated (in
watt) in the new combination

Chemistry
Q16: The vapor pressure of a liquid in a closed container depends on which of the following
factors?

1. Temperature of the liquid

2. Quantity of liquid
3. Surface area of the liquid

A. 1 only B. 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3

Q17: Which of the following solutions shows positive deviation from Raoult's law?

A. Acetone + Aniline B. Acetone + Ethanol

C. Water + Nitric acid D. Chloroform + Benzene

Q18: The mole fraction of the solute in one molal aqueous solution is

A. 0.027 B. 0.036

C. 0.018 D. 0.019

Q19: What happens when a solute crystal is added to a supersaturated solution?

A. It becomes a colloidal solution B. The solute dissolves in the solution

C. The solution desaturates D. The solute precipitates out of the solution

Q20: The osmotic pressure of molar solution of urea at 27 C

∘
is

A. 28 atm B. 30 atm
C. 40.5 atm D. 24.6 atm

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Q21: When 30g of a non-volatile solute having the empirical formula CH 2 O is dissolved in 800g
of water, the solution freezes at −1.16 ∘ C . Given that, value of K f = 1.86Kkgmol −1 what is the
molecular formula of the solute?

A. CH 2 O B. C2 H4 O2

C. C3 H6 O3 D. C4 H8 O8

Q22: The emf of the cell, Zn|Zn 2+ (0.01M )||F e 2+ (0.001M )|F e at 298K is 0.2905, the value of
equilibrium constant for the cell reaction is
0.32 0.32

A. 10 0.0295 B. e 0.0295

0.32 0.36

C. 10 0.0591
D. 10 0.0295

Q23: Given, standard electrode potentials

2+ −
Fe + 2e → F e, E° = −0.440V
3+ −
Fe + 3e → F e, E° = −0.036V

The standard electrode potential for

(E°) Fe
3+
+ e
−
→ Fe
2+
is

A. +0.771V B. −0.771V

C. +0.417V D. −0.417V

Q24: The conductivity of a 0.01N solution is found to be 0.005ohm

−1
cm
−1
. The equivalent
conductivity of the solution will be

A. 5×10
−2
ohm
−1 2
cm equiv
−1
B. 5.00×10
−3
ohm
−1
cm
2

C. 500ohm
−1 2
cm equiv
−1
D. 0.5ohm
−1 2
cm equiv
−1

Q25: How many electrons would be required to deposit 6.35g of copper at the cathode during
the electrolysis of an aqueous solution of copper sulphate? (Atomic mass of copper
= 63.5u, N A = Avogadro’s constant):

NA NA
A. 20
B. 10

C. D.
NA NA

5 2

Q26: Resistance of 0.2 M solution of an electrolyte is 50 Ω. The specific conductance of the

solution is 1.4 S m −1 . The resistance of 0.5 M solution of the same electrolyte is 280 Ω. The molar
conductivity of 0.5 M solution of the electrolyte is x × 10 −4 S m 2 mol −1 . Find the value of (x).

Q27: If mole fraction of a solution in 1 kg . of Benzene is 0.2 then molality of solute is____.[Write
answer in nearest integer form.]

Q28: A dilute solution contains 6 moles of solute X in 1 kg of solvent with molal elevation
constant 0.52 K kg mol −1 . The solute dimerises in solution as, 2X (aq) ⇌ X 2 (aq). If the elevation of
the boiling for the given solution is 2 ∘ C, and molarity and molarity values are equal. Then value
of equilibrium constant (K c )= X is in 100X?

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Q29: The resistance of a 0.01 N solution of an electrolyte was found to 210 ohm at 298 K using a
conductivity cell with a cell constant of 0.88 cm −1 . Calculate equivalent conductance of solution.

Q30: The specific conductance at 25 ∘ C of a saturated solution of SrSO 4 is

1.482 × 10
−4
ohm
−1
cm
−1
while that of water used is 1.5 × 10 −6 mho cm −1 . At 25 ∘ C the solubility
is x ⋅ 53 × 10 −2 gm/L of SrSO 4 in water. Molar ionic conductance of Sr +2 and SO 2− 4
ions at
infinite dilution are 59.46 and 79.8 ohm cm mol respectively. [Sr = 87.6, S = 32, O = 16] .If
−1 2 −1

gm/L then find the value of (X).

−2
S = X × 10

Maths
Q31: Let R1 and
be two relations defined as follows
R2

R 1 = {(a, b) ∈ R : a + b ∈ Q} and R 2 = {(a, b) ∈ R : , where is the set of all

2 2 2 2 2 2
a + b ∉ Q} Q

rational numbers. Then

[2020, 3 Sep. Shift - II]

A. R1 and R2 are both transitive. B. Neither R1 nor R2 is transitive.

C. R1 is transitive but R2 is not transitive. D. R2 is transitive but R1 is not transitive.

Q32: cosec
−1
(cosec11) − sec
−1
(sec 11) + cot
−1
(cot 11) =?

A. 3π − 11 B. 11 − 3π

C. 11π − 33 D. 33 − 11π

Q33: The domain of the function is:

−1 1+x
cosec ( )
x

A. (−1, −
1

2
] ∪ (0, ∞) B. [−
1

2
, 0) ∪ [1, ∞)

C. D.
1 1
(− , ∞) − {0} [− , ∞) ∪ {0}
2 2

Q34: f (x) =
cos x
2x 1
, where x is not an integral multiple of π and [⋅] denotes the greatest integer
[ ]+
π 2

function is

A. an odd function B. even function

C. neither odd nor even D. none of these

Q35: If y = tan
−1

1+x+x
1
2
+ tan
−1
2
1

x +3x+3
+ tan
−1
2
x +5x+5
1
+ ….+ upto 2n terms (∀x ≥ 0), then
y(0) is

A. tan
−1
(n) B. tan
−1
(2n)

C. 2 tan
−1
(n) D. 0

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Q36: The range of the function f (x) = sin

−1
[x
2
−
1

3
] − cos
−1
[x
2
+
2

3
] is (where, [x] represents
the greatest integer value of x)

A. [−π, 0] B. {−π, 0}

C. {0, −π} D. {0, −π, −π}

Q37: If the range of f (x) = tan

−1
x + 2sin
−1
x + cos
−1
x is [a, b], then

A. a =
π

4
B. a = −
π

C. b =
5π

4
D. b =
3π

Q38: 1 + cot (sin

2 −1
x) =

A. 1/2x B. x
2

C. 1/x
2
D. 2/x

n + 1 n ∈ odd integer
Q39: A function f : Z → Z is defined as f (n) = {
n
. If k ∈ odd integer and
n ∈ even integer
2

f (f (f (k))) = 33, then the sum of the digits of k is

A. 7 B. 5
C. 9 D. 8

Q40: If functions f : (1, 2, … , n) → {1995, 1996} satisfying f (1) + f (2) + … + f (n) = odd integer
are formed, then number of such functions can be:

A. 2
n
B. 2
n/2

C. n
2
D. 2
n−1

Q41: The function f (x) satisfies the functional equation for all real
x+59
3f (x) + 2f ( ) = 10x + 30
x−1

x ≠ 1. The value of f (7) is:

Q42: Let f : N ×N → N be a function such that f ((1, 1)) = 2 and

f ((m + 1, n)) = f ((m, n)) + 2(m + n) and f ((m, n + 1)) = f ((m, n)) + 2(m + n − 1), ∀m, n ∈ N ,
then find f (2, 2)

Q43: If the maximum value of x which satisfies the inequality sin

−1
(sin x) ≥ cos
−1
(sin x) for
, 2π) is λ, then is equal to πa then a is equal to
π 2λ
x ∈ (
2 3

Q44: Value of cos

−1
(cos
4π

3
) is

A. π/3 B. 4π/3

C. 2π/3 D. none of these

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4 2

Q45: If the range of f (x) =

2x −14x −8x+49
4 2
x −7x −4x+23
is , then
(a, b] (a + b) is

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