AIATS - ASSIGNMENT - 1

Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005,

Ph.011-47623456

MM : 200 Phy-Electric charges and fields Time : 60 Min.

Electric Charges and Fields

All questions are compulsory

1. Force between a proton and an electron 4. A metal cube of side 5 cm has a charge of 3
separated by a distance r is F, then force μC. The surface charge density of cube is
between two electrons separated by (1) 1 × 10–4 Cm–2
distance 2r will be
(2) 2 × 10–4 Cm–2
(1) 2F
(2) 4F (3) 1 × 10–2 Cm–2
(3) F (4) 2 × 10–2 Cm–2
8

(4) F

4
5. At what distance from the larger point charge
the electric field is zero?
2. A point charge 50 nC is located at the origin,
the electric field (in N/C) at point P (3 m, 4 m)
will be
(1) (10.8^ ^
i + 14.4 j )

(2) ^ ^
(14.4 i − 10.8 j ) (1) 11 cm
(3) ^ ^
(−10.8 i + 14.4 j ) (2) 110 cm
(4) ^ ^
(3) 101 cm
(−14.4 i − 10.8 j )
(4) 132 cm

3. A long line charge (linear charge density λ)

6. A charge q is placed at a point exactly above
is kept so that some part of it lies inside a
the centre of a square of side b at a distance
sphere as shown in the figure. The net flux b
passing the sphere is 2
. The flux through square will be
(1) q

2ε0

(2) q

12ε0

(3) q

4ε0

(4) q

6ε0

7. Two charge particles +4 μC and 9 μC are

(1) λR
fixed at A and B separated by a distance 20
ε0
cm. Where should be a third charge 1 μC
(2) λR
placed such that net electrostatic force on
2ε0
third charge becomes zero?
(3) λR

√2ε0
(1) 12 cm from +4 μC
(4) λ⋅R√2
(2) 8 cm from +4 μC
ε0 (3) 8 cm from +9 μC
(4) Mid point of the point A and B

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Phy-Electric charges and fields
AIATS - ASSIGNMENT - 1

8. A point charge of 10 mC is placed at origin. 13. A solid sphere of radius R has a charge q
The value of electric potential at point(3, 4) distributed in its volume with a charge
m is density ρ = 2r. (Where r is the distance from
(1) 1.8 × 106 V
R
its centre) the electric field at r = 2
is
(2) 9 × 107 V (1) 8R
2

ε0
(3) 9 × 106 V
(2) 2R
2

(4) 1.8 × 107 V ε0

(3) R
2

2ε0

9. A spherical conductor is placed near

(4) R
2

another positively charged conductor. The 8ε0

net charge acquired by spherical conductor
will be
(1) Either positive or negative 14. Find the force on uniformly charged rod by a
point charge P as shown in figure.
(2) Positive only
(3) Negative only
(4) Zero

10. Two charged particles having charge 4 μC (1) 36 × 109 N

and mass 8 × 10–3 kg each are joined by an (2) 4.5 × 109 N
insulating string of length 3 m and the
system is kept on a smooth horizontal table. (3) 18 × 109 N
If suddenly string is cut then the acceleration (4) 9 × 109 N
of each particle is
(1) 2 m/s2
15. Two identical charged spheres are
(2) 4 m/s2 suspended by strings of equal length. The
(3) 6 m/s2 strings make an angle of 30° with each
other. When suspended in a liquid of density
(4) 8 m/s2
0.9 g cm–3 , the angle remains the same. The
dielectric constant of liquid is (density of
11. The magnitude of electric field at a point 4 material of the sphere is 2.7 g cm–3 )
cm away from a line charge of density 2 × (1) 2
10–6 C/m is (2) 3
(1) 9 × 105 N/C (3) 1.5
(2) 9 × 10–5 N/C (4) 9
(3) 4.5 × 105 N/C
(4) 18 × 105 N/C 16. Two bodies X and Y carry charges –6.6 μC
and –5 μC. How many electrons should be
transferred from X to Y so that they acquire
12. In the given figure a cone lies in a uniform equal charges?
electric field E. The electric flux coming out (1) 2 × 1012
of the cone is
(2) 5 × 1013
(3) 5 × 1012
(4) 2 × 1013

(1) E Rh

(2) 2ERh
(3) ERh
(4) Zero

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Phy-Electric charges and fields
AIATS - ASSIGNMENT - 1

17. Consider the situation shown in the figure. 20. An electric dipole is placed at an angle of
The ratio
|q2 |
is 30° with an electric field intensity 2 × 105
|q1 |
N/C. It experiences a torque equal to 4 N m.
The charge on the dipole, if the dipole length
is 2 cm, is
(1) 8 mC
(2) 2 mC
(3) 5 mC
(4) 7 μC

21. A charge q is placed at the centre of the line

joining two equal charges Q. The system of
the three charges will be in equilibrium, if Q
is equal to
(1) ∞
(1) –q
(2) 18 (2) –2q
(3) 6 (3) –4q
(4) 3 (4) −q
2

18. Four charges are placed each at a distance 22. The number of electrons present in 2
a from origin. The dipole moment of coulomb of charge are
configuration is (1) 1.25 × 1017
(2) 1.25 × 1019
(3) 6.25 × 1018
(4) 6.25 × 1019

23. When an isolated metallic body is connected

to earth then electrons from the earth flows
into the body. This means that the body was
(1) Uncharged
(2) Positively charged
(3) Negatively charged
(1) ^
2qa j
(4) May be (2) or (3)
(2) ^
qa j
24. An electric dipole of dipole moment 1 nC-m
(3)
is placed in a uniform electric field 105 N/C
^ ^
2qa( i + j )

(4) ^ such that angle between them is 60°. Then

3qa j
the potential energy of the dipole is
(1) 5 μJ
19. In the figure a hemispherical bowl of radius (2) –50 μJ
R is shown. Electric field of intensity E is
(3) –25 μJ
present perpendicular to the circular cross
section of the hemisphere. The electric flux (4) 10 μJ
coming out through the hemisphere is
25. A hollow metallic shell of radius r = 3 m
contains charge of 3.0 μC. The electric field
strength on the surface of the sphere is
(1) 3.0 × 10–3 V/m
(2) 3.0 × 104 V/m
(1) 0 (3) 3.0 × 105 V/m
(2) EπR2 (4) 3.0 × 103 V/m
(3) E2πR2
(4) E3πR2

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Phy-Electric charges and fields
AIATS - ASSIGNMENT - 1

26. A charged particle of mass m and charge q 32. Electric field calculated by Gauss law is the
is released from rest in a uniform electric field due to the charges which
field E. The kinetic energy of the particle (1) Lie inside the Guassian surface
after time t is
(2) Lie outside the Guassian surface
(1) 2E t 2 2

mq
(3) Lie on the surface of the Guassian
surface
(2) Eq
2
m

2t
2 (4) Lie whether inside, outside or on the
(3) E
2
q
2 2
t
Guassian surface
2m

(4) E qm
33. In a region, a uniform electric field is given
2t
→
ˆ ˆ ˆ
by E = (2 i + 6 j + 8k) N/C
27. If an object contains n1 protons and n2 The electric flux through a sphere of radius 1
electrons, the net charge on the object is m, centered at the origin is
(1) (n1 + n2 )e (1) 8 N-m2 /C
(2) (n1 – n2 )e (2) Zero
(3) (n2 – n1 )e (3) 10 N-m2 /C
(4) Zero (4) 16 N-m2 /C

28. In a region of space, the electric field is

→
34. A hollow charged metal sphere has radius
given by E
ˆ ˆ ˆ
= (2 i + 10 j + 5k) units. R. If the potential difference between the
surface and a point at distance 3R from
The electric flux through a surface area of 50 centre is V, then the electric field intensity at
units in x–y plane is a distance 5R from surface is
(1) 100 units (1) V
6R
(2) 500 units
(2) V

(3) 250 units 12R

(4) 1500 units (3) V

24R

(4) V

29. If the electric field in a region is given by 36R

^ ^ ^
(5 i + 4 j + 9k)then electric flux through a
surface of area 20 unit lying in (y – z) plane 35. The effective capacitance of network, as
will be shown in the figure, between point A and B
(1) 100 unit is
(2) 80 unit
(3) 180 unit
(4) 20 unit

30. Consider a uniform electric field (1) 5 μF

→ (2) 10 μF
ˆ
E = 8 × 10 N/C . What is the flux
3
i
(3) 20 μF
through a square of side length 10 cm, if
normal to its plane makes an angle 60° with (4) 50 μF
x-axis?
(1) 40 Nm 2

(2) 80
Nm
2

(3) 20
Nm
2

(4) 10
Nm
2

31. The weight of a body which is charged by

rubbing
(1) Remain constant
(2) Decreases
(3) Increases
(4) May increase or may decrease

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Phy-Electric charges and fields
AIATS - ASSIGNMENT - 1

36. An electron with mass m enters between the 39. Four capacitors, each of capacitance C are
two parallel charged plates as shown in connected as shown in the figure. The ratio
figure with initial speed u. The angle of of capacitance between P and R to the
deviation (θ) of the path of electron is capacitance between P and Q is

(1) −1 2eE l
θ = tan ( )
2
mu

(2) −1 eEl
θ = tan ( )
2
mu

(3) −1 2mu
2

θ = tan ( )
El
(1) 1 : 1
(4) −1 mu
2
(2) 3 : 4
θ = tan ( )
El
(3) 2 : 3
(4) 1 : 4
37. Infinite number of charges are placed in a
line at distance 1 m, 4 m, 16 m, ...... from a
fixed point. All charges are equal in 40. There are two concentric conducting shells.
magnitude q. The electric potential at fixed The potential of outer shell is 8 V and that of
point is inner shell is 12 V, if the outer shell is
grounded, the potential of inner shell
(1) q
3πε0 becomes
(2) q (1) 20 V
5πε0
(2) 4 V
(3) q

(3) 12 V
4πε0

(4) q (4) 8 V
6πε0

41. An electric circuit with capacitor and cell is

38. Two concentric conducting hollow spheres shown below. Initially switch S is open. If
of radii a and b have equal surface charge switch is closed then charge that will flow
densities σ. The electric potential at the through the wire PQ is [Capacity of each
common centre is capacitance = 6 μF]
(1) σ ab
( )
ε0 a+b

(2) σ ab
( )
ε0 a−b

σ
(3) ε0
(b − a)

σ
(4) ε0
(a + b)

(1) 2 μC
(2) 4 μC
(3) 6 μC
(4) 8 μC

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Phy-Electric charges and fields
AIATS - ASSIGNMENT - 1

42. Figure shows the variation of electric field 45. If the given figure shows equipotential
intensity E versus distance x. The magnitude surfaces, then the magnitude of electric field
of potential difference between the points x = is
0 to x = 5 m is

(1) 30 volt
(2) 60 volt
(3) 40 volt (1) 50 N/C
(4) 50 volt (2) 100 N/C
(3) 200 N/C
(4) 400 N/C
43. Four capacitors are connected in a circuit as
shown in figure. The charge on capacitor of
1 μF is 46. The kinetic energy of a particle is decreased
by 20 J as it moves from a point at potential
50 V to a point at potential 100 V. Then
charge on particle is
(1) +0.2 C
(2) –0.2 C
(3) +0.4 C
(4) –0.4 C
(1) 300 μC
(2) 75 μC 47. The minimum value of effective capacitance
that can be obtained by combining three
(3) 150 μC
capacitors of capacitances 1 pF, 2 pF and 2
(4) 225 μC pF is
(1) 4 pF
5
44. What is the ratio of effective capacitance
between points A and B to the effective (2) 1
pF
2

capacitance between points X and Y? All (3) 6

pF
plates are identical, each of area A and 5

successive separation between plates is d. (4) 1 pF

48. A 600 pF capacitor is charged by a 200 V

supply. It is then disconnected from the
supply and is connected to another
uncharged 600 pF capacitor, the
electrostatic energy lost in this process is
(1) 3 × 10–6 J
(1) 4:1
(2) 4 × 10–6 J
(2) 1:4
(3) 9:1 (3) 2 × 10–6 J
(4) 1:1 (4) 6 × 10–6 J

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Phy-Electric charges and fields
AIATS - ASSIGNMENT - 1

49. The ratio of the energy stored inside and

outside the uniformly charged sphere of
radius R is
(1) 1 : 6
(2) 1 : 5
(3) 1 : 3
(4) 1 : 2

50. Capacity of an isolated sphere is increased

n times when it is enclosed by an earthed
concentric shell. The ratio of radii of shell to
the sphere is
(1) n 2

n–1

(2) n

n–1

(3) 2n

n +1

(4) 2n +1

n +1

Page 7
 AIATS - ASSIGNMENT - 1

Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005,

Ph.011-47623456

MM : 200 Phy-Electric Potential and Capacitance Time : 60 Min.

Electric Potential and Capacitance

All questions are compulsory

1. A charged particle of charge q and mass m 5. Charge –2q, Q and –3q are placed on a
is held fixed at the origin and another straight line as shown in figure. If the total
identical charge q of same mass is released potential energy of the system is zero then
at a distance x from origin, then its velocity at value of
Q
will be
a distance 2x will be q

q
(1)
√πε0 xm

q
(2)
√8πε0 xm

q
(3) (1) 1

√4πε0 xm 3

(4) Zero (2) 3

(3) 2

3
2. The external work required to reduce the
distance between two charge q1 = 4 μC and (4) 2

5
q2 = 20 μC from 2 m to 1 m will be
(1) 3.6 × 10–1 J 6. Two metallic spheres A and B of radius ‘a’
(2) 1.8 × 10–1 J and ‘b’ respectively are at same electric
potential. The ratio of the surface charge
(3) 36 J densities of sphere A and B is
(4) 3.8 J (1) b 2

2
a

3. The distance between two point charges is (2) b

a
made 4 times of its initial value. The new
(3) a
2

potential energy between them will become 2

b
(1) 1 times
4 (4) a

b
(2) 4 times
(3) 16 times 7. In the circuit shown in the figure, the ratio of
(4) 1 times charge on 5 μF to 2 μF capacitor is
16

4. 27 spherical drops of same capacitance C

are merged to form a big spherical drop.
Capacitance of bigger drop is
(1) 3C
(2) 2C
(3) C
2
(1) 5/40
(4) C

3 (2) 5/30
(3) 3/80
(4) 25/6

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Phy-Electric Potential and Capacitance
AIATS - ASSIGNMENT - 1

8. A capacitor of capacitance C1 = 1 μF can 12. A hollow charged metal sphere has radius
with stand maximum voltage V1 = 6 kV and R. If the potential difference between the
another capacitor of capacitance C2 = 3 μF surface and a point at distance 3R from
can with stand maximum voltage V2 = 4 kV. centre is V, then the electric field intensity at
a distance 5R from surface is
When the two capacitors are connected in
series, the combined system can with stand (1) V
6R
a maximum voltage of
(2) V

(1) 4 kV 12R

(2) 6 kV (3) V

24R
(3) 8 kV
(4) V

(4) 10 kV 36R

9. In the given circuit the electric potential of 13. The net capacitance between point A and B
point P is as shown in the figure is (A is plate area)

(1) 9.6 V
(2) 12 V
(3) 2.4 V
(1) K ε0 A

(4) 4.8 V d

(2) ε0 A

d
10. A point charge q0 is placed at a distance
R
(3) ε0 A(K+1)

2
from the centre O of an uncharged d

conducting spherical shell of radius R as (4) ε0 A(K+1)

shown in the figure. Electric potential at the 2d

centre of shell is
14. The electric potential along the X–axis in a
one dimensional electric field is changing as
shown in the graph. The electric intensity is

(1) Zero
q
(2) 0

π ε0 R

q
(3) 0

2πε0 R

q
(4) 0

4πε0 R

(1) 50 Vm–1 in the X–positive direction

11. A parallel plate capacitor has 2 μF (2) 50 Vm–1 in the X–negative direction
capacitance. One of its two plates is given
(3) 200 Vm–1 in the X–positive direction
+4 μC and the other plate –2 μC charge. The
potential difference developed across the (4) 200 Vm–1 in the X–negative direction
capacitor is
(1) 1 V
15. The effective capacitance of network, as
(2) 1.5 V shown in the figure, between point A and B
(3) 3 V is
(4) 4 V

(1) 5 μF
(2) 10 μF
(3) 20 μF
(4) 50 μF

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Phy-Electric Potential and Capacitance
AIATS - ASSIGNMENT - 1

16. The equivalent capacitance of the circuit as 20. What is the ratio of effective capacitance
shown in the figure, between points A and B between points A and B to the effective
is (all capacitors have capacitance C) capacitance between points X and Y? All
plates are identical, each of area A and
successive separation between plates is d.

(1) 2C
(2) 4C
(3) C

(4) C

2
(1) 4 : 1
(2) 1 : 4
17. A parallel plate capacitor with capacity C is (3) 9 : 1
charged to a potential difference V and then
(4) 1 : 1
battery is removed. If a dielectric of dielectric
constant k is inserted between the plates of
the capacitor, then which of the following is 21. Three concentric spherical shells have radii
correct? a, b and c ( a < b < c) and have surface
(1) Potential difference between plates charge densities σ, –σ and σ respectively. If
becomes k times VA, VB and VC denote the potential of the
(2) Potential difference between plates three shells, then for c = a + b, we have
becomes k2 times (1) VC = VA ≠ VB
(3) Potential difference between plates (2) VC = VB ≠ VA
1
becomes times (3) VC ≠ VB ≠ VA
k

(4) Potential difference between plates (4) VC = VB = VA

1
becomes times
2
k

22. Consider the following four arrangement of

spherical shells of radius 'a' and 'b' (a < < b)
18. A capacitor of capacitance C charged by the
battery of e.m.f V. Then after polarity of
battery reversed. The heat loss in complete
process is
(1) CV2
(2) 2CV2
(3) CV 2

(4) 4CV2

19. A 5 μF capacitor is charged to 12 V. The

positive plate of this capacitor is now
connected to the positive terminal of a 6 V
battery and vice versa. Calculate the heat
developed in the connecting wire.
(1) 90 μJ
(2) 20 μF Then which of the following holds good for
the value of their capacitances
(3) 50 μJ
(1) C3 > C2 > C1 = C4
(4) 150 μJ
(2) C3 > C1 = C4 > C2
(3) C2 > C3 > C1 > C4
(4) C2 > C1 = C4 > C3

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Phy-Electric Potential and Capacitance
AIATS - ASSIGNMENT - 1

23. Capacity of an isolated sphere is increased 26. Capacitance of a sphere A is 4 µF while for
n times when it is enclosed by an earthed another sphere B, it is 8 µF. If on sphere A,
concentric shell. The ratio of radii of shell to there is a charge 2 µC and on B the charge
the sphere is is 4 µC, then the ratio of potentials of the
(1) n 2
spheres is
n–1 (1) 6 : 1
(2) n
(2) 1 : 1
n–1
(3) 4 : 1
(3) 2n

n +1 (4) 2 : 1
(4) 2n +1

n +1 27. Four point charges are placed at the corner

of a square of side a as shown in the figure.
A charge q is displaced first from P1 to P2
24. Five charges of magnitude +2 μC is located
and then from P1 to P3 , then work done in
at corners of regular hexagon having side of
3 cm. The intensity of electric field at O will displacing the charge
be

(1) From P1 to P2 is less than that from P1

(1) Zero
to P3
(2) 2 × 10
7 N

C (2) From P1 to P3 is less than that from P1

(3) 4 × 10
4 N to P2
C
(3) From P1 to P2 is equal to work from P1
(4) 16 × 10
6 N

C to P3 and is non-zero
(4) From P1 to P2 is equal to work from P1
25. A parallel plate capacitor of plate area A and to P3 and equal to zero
separation d filled with three dielectric
materials as shown in figure. The dielectric
constants are K1 , K2 and K3 respectively. 28. For a point charge, the equipotential surface
The capacitance across AB will be is in shape of
(1) Sphere
(2) Paraboloid
(3) Ellipsoid
(4) Hyperboloid

29. Electric potential at the centre of uniformly

charged spherical shell, having charge q
and radius R is
(1) q

2
4πε0 R

(2) q

4πε0 R

(3) q

2
8πε0 R

(4) q

8πε0 R

(1) ε0 A
( K1 + K2 + K3 )
d

(2) ε0 A
( K1 + K2 + K3 )
3d

(3) 3ε0 A
( K1 + K2 + K3 )
2d

(4) ε0 A K1 K2 K3
( )
d K1 +K2 +K3

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Phy-Electric Potential and Capacitance
AIATS - ASSIGNMENT - 1

30. Four conducting plates are arranged as 33. The following diagram indicates electric field
shown in the figure. If each plate has the lines in a region. The correct relation among
area A and the separation between the the electric potential at points A, B and C is
plates is d, then the equivalent capacitance
between point a and b is

(1) 3ε0 A

(2) ε0 A

3d

(3) 2ε0 A

(4) ε0 A

'
d
(1) VA > VB > VC
(2) VC > VB = VA
31. ⃗
An electric dipole of dipole moment P is
(3) VA < VB < VC
placed in uniform electric field E⃗ , has
(4) VB > VC = VA
maximum potential energy when the angle
⃗ ⃗
between E and P will be
(1) 0° 34. →
An electric dipole of moment P placed in
(2) 90° →

(3) 120° uniform electric field E has minimum

potential energy. The work done by external
(4) 180° agent to rotate this dipole very slowly upto
which it has maximum potential energy.
32. Find the electric potential at the point O due (1) –PE
to segment of ring as shown in figure, whose (2) 2PE
linear charge density is 4 C/m
(3) P E
2

(4) Zero

35. Electric potential at any point on equatorial

line of electric dipole is
(1) Directly proportional to r
(1) 3.8 × 1012 V (2) Inversely proportional to r
(2) 3.8 × 1010 V (3) Inversely proportional to r2

(3) 4.8 × 1010 V (4) Zero

(4) 4.8 × 1012 V

36. The capacity of parallel plate condenser
depends on
(1) The separation between the plates
(2) The potential applied across the plates
(3) The amount of charge
(4) Both (2) and (3)

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Phy-Electric Potential and Capacitance
AIATS - ASSIGNMENT - 1

37. Equivalent capacitance of the combination 41. Charge stored in 1.5 μF capacitor shown in
between point A and B as shown in the figure, in steady state is
figure below is

(1) 6C
(2) 11C

6
(1) 5 μC
(3) C
(2) 7.5 μC
6

(4) 6C (3) 2.5 μC

11
(4) 0

38. While working on a physics project at school

42. The flux of electric field through a closed
physics lab, you require a 4μF capacitor in
surface is zero, then which of the following
a circuit across a potential difference of 1 kV.
statement(s) is/are correct?
Unfortunately, 4μF capacitors are out of
stock in your lab but 2μF capacitors which (1) The net charge inside the surface must
be zero
can withstand a potential difference of 300 V
are available in plenty. If you decide to use (2) The charge outside the surface must be
the 2μF capacitors in place of zero
4μF capacitor, minimum number of (3) The electric field on the surface must
capacitors required are be zero everywhere
(1) 16 (4) Both (A) and (C)
(2) 18
(3) 20 43. How much kinetic energy will be gained by
(4) 32 an α-particle which is going from a point 80
V to another point 40 V?
(1) 40 eV
39. A charged particle of mass m is projected
from large distance towards another (2) 60 eV
identical charge with speed v. Potential (3) 80 eV
energy of the system of the charges at the (4) 20 eV
instant of minimum separation is
(1) 0
(2) 1 mv2
4

(3) 1
mv
2

(4) 1
mv
2

40. As shown in figure initially S1 is closed and

S2 is open. Then S1 is opened, after that S2
is closed. Energy lost in the second process
is

(1) CE2
(2) 2CE2
(3) 3CE
2

(4) CE
2

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Phy-Electric Potential and Capacitance
AIATS - ASSIGNMENT - 1

44. In which of the following state the potential 47. In an electric field of magnitude 20 N/C
energy of an electric dipole is maximum? directed along x-axis (horizontal), a small
(1) metallic ball of mass 10 g is suspended by
insulating thread from a fixed point. If the
string is in equilibrium at angle 45° with
vertical after losing n number of electron by
falling ultraviolet light on it, then value of n
(2)
would be
(1) 0.312 × 1017
(2) 0.525 × 1011
(3) 0.435 × 1016
(4) 0.285 × 106
(3)

48. Two charges 2μC and –2μC are placed at

(10 cm, 0, 0) and (20 cm, 0, 0) respectively in
the presence of a uniform external electric
field of 2 × 104 V/m directed towards positive
x-axis. The total electrostatic energy of the
configuration will be
(4)
(1) –356 J
(2) –360 J
(3) –360 mJ
(4) –356 mJ
45. Two short dipoles of dipole moment p1 and
p2 along y-axis and x-axis respectively, such 49. A parallel plate capacitor with air as a
that their centres are separated by distance medium has capacitance of 12 μF. The
r. The potential energy of dipole 1 in the field capacitor is filled with three media of
of another dipole is [Where E1 and E2 are dielectric constant K1 = 2, K2 = 3 and K3 =
electric field due to dipole 1 and 2] 3
. The capacitance of the system will be
2
(1) –p1 E2
(2) –p2 E1
(3) Zero
(4) −p E1 2

46. In the given figure, find the potential of point (1) 12 μF

M
(2) 24 μF
(3) 36 μF
(4) 66 μF

50. Two hollow concentric spheres have radii a

and b (a < b) carrying charges +Q and –Q
respectively. The potential difference
between their surfaces is 5 V. Now the outer
sphere is given a charge of –2Q then the
(1) 5V potential difference between their surfaces
(2) –5 V will now be
(3) 10 V (1) 10 V
(4) –10 V (2) 2.5 V
(3) 5 V
(4) 20 V

Page 14
 AIATS - ASSIGNMENT - 1

Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005,

Ph.011-47623456

MM : 200 Che-Electrochemistry Time : 60 Min.

Electrochemistry

1. Standard electrode potential of three metals 5. The conductivity of a 0.25 M solution of NaCl
A, B and C are –0.49 V, –0.28 V and + 0.20 at 300 K is 0.025 S cm–1 . The molar
V respectively. The reducing power of these conductivity of the solution is (in S cm2 mol–
metals will be 1)
(1) A > B > C
(1) 10
(2) A > C > B
(2) 50
(3) C > A > B
(3) 100
(4) C > B > A
(4) 200

2. If 0.01 M CH3 COOH has molar conductance

6. For strong electrolytes, on dilution
19.5 ohm cm2 mol–1 then its degree of
º
(1) Λ m increases and κ decreases
dissociation will be [Given: λm ( H
+
) and λº
(2) Λm decreases and κ increases
(CH3 COO– ) as 349.1 and 40.9 S cm2 mol–1
(3) Λm and κ both decrease
respectively]
(1) 0.05 (4) Λm and κ both increase
(2) 0.08
(3) 0.02 7. How much electricity is required to produce
(4) 0.1 5.4 g of Al from Al2 O3 ?
(1) 0.6 F
3. (2) 1.2 F
Given E°Zn 2+
/Zn
= − 0.76 V,
(3) 3F
E°Fe 2+
/Fe
=– 0.44 V (4) 6F
E°Ni 2+
/Ni
= – 0.25 V and
E° = 0.34 V 8. Select the cathode reaction taking place in
2+
Cu /Cu dry cell.
Select the correct statement among the (1) Zn2+(aq) + 2e– → Zn(s)
following
(1) Zn2+ can oxidise all Fe, Ni and Cu (2) MnO2 (s) + NH4 + + e– → MnO(OH) +
NH3
(2) Fe2+ can oxidise Ni and Cu but not Zn
(3) HgO + H2 O + 2e– → Hg(l) + 2OH–
(3) Zn can reduce Fe2+ and Ni2+ but not
Cu2+ (4) ZnO(s) + H2 O + 2e– → Zn(Hg) + 2OH–
(4) Fe can reduce Ni2+and Cu2+ but not
Zn2+ 9. A solution of CuSO4 is electrolysed for 10
minutes with a current of 3 amperes. What is
the mass of copper deposited at the
4. In H2 –O2 fuel cell, the overall cell reaction is cathode? (Atomic mass of Cu = 63 g)
(1) H2 O(I) → H
+
(aq) + OH
−
(aq) (1) 0.15 g
(2) 2H2 (g) + O2 (g) → 2H2 O(l)
(2) 0.29 g
(3) (3) 0.59 g
2H2 O(l) → 2H2 (g) + O2 (g)
(4) 0.87 g
(4) H
+
(aq) + OH
−
(aq) → H2 O(l)

Page 15
Che-Electrochemistry
AIATS - ASSIGNMENT - 1

10. Three faradays of electricity were passed 15. The resistance of 0.5 M solution of Na2 SO4
through AgNO3 (l), CuSO4 (l) and AlCl3 (l) is 200 ohm. If the cell constant is 5 cm–1 , the
kept in three different vessels using Pt specific conductance of the solution is
electrodes. The ratio of the moles of Ag, Cu (1) 1.2 × 10−2
and Al deposited will be
(1) 2 : 3 : 6 (2) 2.5 × 10
−1

(2) 6 : 3 : 2 (3) 4.0 × 10

1

(3) 1 : 2 : 3 (4) 2.5 × 10

−2

(4) 3 : 2 : 1
16. If hydrogen electrodes having 1 atm
11. For the cell reaction pressure of H2 dipped in two solution of pH
Ni(s) + 2Ag+(aq) → Ni2+(aq) + 2Ag(s) = 3 and pH = 6 are connected by a salt
°
E cell = 1.05 V at 298 K. The standard bridge, the Ecell is
Gibbs energy (ΔrG°) of the cell reaction is (1) 0.059 V
[Given that Faraday Constant (F) = 96500 C (2) 0.104 V
mol–1 ] (3) 0.177 V
(1) –101.32 kJ mol–1 (4) 0.308 V
(2) 101.32 kJ mol–1
(3) 202.65 kJ mol–1 17. The limiting molar conductivity of which ion
is highest in water at 298 K?
(4) –202.65 kJ mol–1
(1) Na+
(2) K+
12. What is the product of electrolysis of
KNO3 (aq) using Pt electrodes? (3) Mg2+
(1) K, NO2 (4) H+
(2) H2 , NO2
(3) K, O2 18.
(4) H2 , O2

13. For strong electrolyte, variations of molar

conductivity with concentration is given by
equation
−
−
(1)
m = λm + A
√C
o
λ

−
−
(2) o
λm = λm + A√C
−
−
(3) o
λ
m = λ + A√C
3

m Which of the following electrolyte shows the

−
− 1

(4) o above variation of Λm vs ?

λ = λm + A√C
3
C 2

m
(1) NaCl
(2) MgCl2
14. If equilibrium constant of the given galvanic
(3) MgSO4
cell is 1 × 10100 at 25°C then standard
electrode potential of the cell will be M(s) + (4) CH3 COOH
N2+(aq) → M2+ (aq) + N(s)
(1) 1.5 V 19. If resistance of conductivity cell filled with 0.1
(2) 2.96 V M NaCl solution is 50 Ω and conductivity of
(3) 1.85 V the solution is 0.015 S cm–1 then the cell
(4) 2.50 V constant of the conductivity cell will be
(1) 1.25 cm–1
(2) 0.5 cm–1
(3) 0.75 cm–1
(4) 1.50 cm–1

Page 16
Che-Electrochemistry
AIATS - ASSIGNMENT - 1

20. On the electrolysis of acidified water the 25. Reduction potential of hydrogen electrode
mass of oxygen liberated at anode by which is placed in a solution of pH = 4, is
passing 9650 Faraday electricity is (1) 0.1 V
(1) 1.4 g (2) –0.24 V
(2) 4 g (3) –0.56 V
(3) 0.8 g (4) –0.48 V
(4) 32 g
26. During discharging of lead storage battery,
21. Ecell of Pt|H2 (1 atm)| H+ (1 M) || Au3+ (0.1 which of the following is/are true?
º
a. At cathode PbO2 is formed.
M)| Au, is (E
Au
3+
/Au
= 1.4 V )
b. Electrolyte solution becomes dilute.
(1) 1.2 V c. White precipitate of PbSO4 (s) will
disappear.
(2) 1.38 V
(3) 2.58 V (1) Only b
(4) 1.51 V (2) Only a and b
(3) Only a and c
22. The molar conductivity of 0.007 M acetic (4) a, b and c
acid is 20 S cm2 mol–1 . What is the
dissociation constant of acetic acid? Choose
the correct option. 27. For the given cell the emf of the cell at 25°C
∘ 2 −1 is
Λ +
= 350 S cm mol
H
[ ] (given E° 2+
= −0 .76 V ; E° 2+
= 0
∘ 2 −1 Zn / Zn Cu / Cu
Λ −
= 50 S cm mol
CH 3 COO

(1) 2.50 × 10–5 .34 V)

(2) 1.75 × 10–4 Zn(s) + Cu

2+
(0 .001 M)

(3) 2.50 × 10–4

2+
→ Zn (0 .01 M) + Cu(s)
(4) 1.75 × 10–5
(1) 0.91 V
23. If the molar conducitivities at infinite dilution (2) 1.07 V
of NH4 Cl, NaOH and NaCl respectively are (3) 1.21 V
120.8, 210.4 and 110 S cm2 mol–1 . Then the (4) 0.85 V
limiting molar conductivity of NH4 OH is
equal to
28. The electrode potentials
for
(1) 389.9 S cm2 mol−1
Fe
3+
+ 3e
−
→ Fe and
(2) 221.2 S cm
2
mol
−1
Fe
2+
+ 2e
−
→ F e are ­– 0.04 V and ­– 0.44

(3) 228.4 S cm
2
mol
−1 V respectively. The value of EFo e /F e will
3+ 2+

(4) 2 −1 be
199.6 S cm mol
(1) 0.41 V
(2) 0.52 V
24. 2
−1
Given : o
Λm ( H
+
) = x S cm mol (3) 1.00 V
o 3− 2 −1
(4) 0.76 V
Λm ( PO
4
) = y S cm mol

What is the equivalent conductivity of

29. Which of the following produces H2 (g) and
phosphoric acid at infinite dilution?
O2 (g) at cathode and anode respectively
(1) x + y
upon electrolysis?
(2) 3 x + 3 y
(1) NaCl (aqueous)
(3) 3x+y
3
(2) K2 SO4 (Dilute)
(3) CuCl2 (aq)
(4) x−3y
(4) AgNO3 (aq)
3

Page 17
Che-Electrochemistry
AIATS - ASSIGNMENT - 1

30. Given below are two statements : one is 34. When an electric current is passed through a
labelled as Assertion A and the other is cell having an electrolyte, then the cations
labelled as Reason R : and anions move to their respective
Assertion A : Metallic conduction increases electrodes. If the cathode is pulled out of the
with increase in temperature. solution then
Reasons R : Electrolytic conduction (1) Both cations and anions will move
decreases with increase in temperature. towards anode
In the light of the above statements, choose
(2) Cations will start moving towards
the correct answer from the options given
anode while anions will stop moving
below :
(3) Anions will continue to move towards
(1) Assertion & Reason are true and the
reason is the correct explanation of the anode while cations will stop moving
assertion (4) Both cations and anions will start
(2) Assertion & Reason are true but the moving randomly
reason is not the correct explanation of
the assertion 35. During electrolysis of H2 SO 4 (aq) with high
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason charge density, H2 S 2 O 8 is formed as by
is false product. In such electrolysis, 44.8L H2 (g)
(4) Assertion and Reason are false and 15 L O2 (g) are liberated at STP. Hence,
statements the moles of H2 S2 O8 formed is
approximately equal to
31. Standard electrode potential for (1) 0.25
4+ 2+
Sn /Sn couple is +0.15 V and that for (2) 0.66
3+
the Cr /Cr couple is –0.74 V. These two (3) 2
couples in their standard state are (4) 2.68
connected to make a cell. The cell potential
will be
36. At very low concentration of two electrolytes
(1) +1.83 V
A and B, molar conductance of A increases
(2) +1.19 V to 1.7 times whereas that of B increases to
(3) +0.89 V 27 times on dilution. Then,
(4) +0.18 V (1) A is a strong electrolyte and B is a
weak electrolyte
(2) Both A and B are weak electrolytes
32. Maximum limiting molar conductivity at 298
K among the following is of (3) A is a weak electrolyte and B is a
(1) Mg2+ strong electrolyte
(4) Both A and B are strong electrolytes
(2) Ca2+
(3) Na+
37. The standard reduction potential E° of the
(4) K+ following systems are:
E°
System
(volts)
33. Match the list of cell/battery given in Column-
I with the electrolyte present in them given in MnO– 4 + 8H+ + 5e– → Mn2+ +
Column-II (i) 1.51
4H2 O
Column-I Column-II
Cell/battery Electrolyte (ii) Sn4+ + 2e– → Sn2+ 0.15

Concentrated Cr2 O7 2– + 14H+ + 6e– →

a. Mercury cell (i) (iii) 1.33
aq.NaOH solution 2Cr3+ + 7H2 O
Lead
(iv) Ce4+ + e– → Ce3+ 1.61
b. storage (ii) 38% H2 SO4
battery The oxidising power of the various species
decreases in the order.
c. Dry cell (iii) ZnO + KOH (paste)
(1) Ce4+ > Cr2 O7 2– > Sn4+ > MnO4 –
MnO2 + C (touching
cathode) and paste of (2) Ce4+ > MnO4 – > Cr2 O7 2– > Sn4+
Fuel cell
d. (H – O ) (iv) NH4 Cl (3) Cr2 O7 2– > Sn4+ > Ce4+ > MnO4 –
2 2
+ZnCl2 (touching
anode) (4) MnO4 – > Ce4+ > Sn4+ > Cr2 O7 2–
(1) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv) d(i)
(2) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv) d(i)
(3) a(iii), b(ii), c(i) d(iv)
(4) a(ii), b(iii), c(i) d(iv)

Page 18
Che-Electrochemistry
AIATS - ASSIGNMENT - 1

38. Which of the following graph(s) is/are 43. Which of the following expression correctly
correct? represents the equivalent conductance of
(1) Al2 (SO4 )3 at infinite dilution? (Given that
λ
o
3+
and λ
o
are the molar 2−
Al SO
4

conductance at infinite dilution of the

respective ions)
(1) 3λo + 2λ
o
3+ 2−
Al SO
4

(2) (2) 1
λ
o
3+
+
1
λ
o
2−
6 Al 6 SO
4

(3) 1
λ
o
3+
+
1
λ
o
2−
3 Al 2 SO
4

(4) λ
o
3+
+λ
o
2−
Al SO
4

(3)
44. Given below are two statements. One is
labelled as Assertion (A) and other is
labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Mercury cell gives a
constant cell potential of 1.35 V.
Reason (R) : Electrolyte used in mercury
(4) Both (1) and (3) cell is paste of HgO and KOH.
In light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below.
39. The Nernst equation, (1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and
Ecell =
o
Ecell −
RT
ln Qc indicates that the Qc the reason is the correct explanation of
nF the assertion
will be equal to equilibrium constant Kc (2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
when the reason is not the correct
(1) o explanation of the assertion
Ecell = Ecell
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason
(2) RT/nF = 1 is false
(3) Ecell = zero (4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
(4) o
statements
Ecell = 1

45. Aqueous solution of which of the following is

40. Which of the following will increase the cell a non-electrolyte?
voltage for the following cell reaction (1) Hydrochloric acid
2Fe3+(aq) + 2I– (aq) ⟶ 2Fe2+(aq) + I2 (g) (2) Glucose
(1) Decreasing the concentration of I– (3) Sodium chloride
(2) Decreasing the concentration of Fe2+ (4) Sodium hydroxide

(3) Increasing the partial pressure of I2

46. Metal used to provide a sacrificial electrode
(4) Decreasing the concentration of Fe3+ to another metal is
(1) Hg
41. Which of the following metal has the highest (2) Zn
conductivity at room temperature? (3) Pt
(1) Na (4) Au
(2) Cu
(3) Ag 47. In lead storage battery, what happens to the
(4) Au mass of PbO2 on charging and discharging
respectively?
42. Faraday’s charge required for conversion of (1) Increases, decreases
0.2 mol Cr2 O7 2– into Cr3+ is (2) Decreases, increases
(1) 0.6 F (3) Increases, increases
(2) 0.3 F (4) Decreases, decreases
(3) 0.2 F
(4) 1.2 F

Page 19
Che-Electrochemistry
AIATS - ASSIGNMENT - 1

48. For a spontaneous reaction, ΔG°, Eocell and 50. Methods effective in preventing rusting of
equilibrium constant K will be respectively iron is/are
(1) ΔG° < 0, Eocell > 0, K < 1 (1) Surface coating
(2) ΔG° > 0, E
o
< 0, K > 1 (2) Antirust solutions
cell
(3) Galvanisation
(3) ΔG° < 0, E
o
> 0, K > 1
cell
(4) All of these
(4) ΔG° > 0, E
o
cell
> 0, K > 1

49. Current efficiency for an electrodeposition of

copper metal in which 1.58 g copper is
deposited by passage of 9.65 A current for
1000 s is
(1) 25.42%
(2) 49.76%
(3) 75.25%
(4) 95.82%

Page 20
 AIATS - ASSIGNMENT - 1

Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005,

Ph.011-47623456

MM : 200 Che-Solutions Time : 60 Min.

Solutions

1. Which one of the following is incorrect for 6. If 8 g of a non-electrolyte solute is dissolved

ideal solution? in 114 g of n-octane to reduce its vapour
(1) Δmix H = 0 pressure to 80%, the molar mass (in g mol–
1 ) of the solute is [Given that molar mass of
(2) Δmix U = 0
n-octane is 114 g mol–1 ]
(3) ΔP = Pobs – Pcalculated by Raoult's law = 0
(1) 20
(4) Δmix G = 0
(2) 40
(3) 60
2. Positive deviation from Raoult’s law is (4) 80
shown by the mixture
(1) Benzene + toluene
(2) Chloroform + acetone 7. If 0.2 molal aqueous solution of weak
monobasic acid is 40% ionised then the
(3) Ethanol + acetone freezing point of the solution will be (Kf for
(4) Phenol + aniline water is 1.86 K kg mol–1 )
(1) – 0.18°C
3. (2) – 0.65°C
Molality of 28% urea by (3) – 0.52°C
(4) – 0.37°C
mass is nearly
(1) 2.2 m
8. The gas used in tanks by scuba divers for
(2) 6.5 m
breathing contains
(3) 9.2 m
(1) 78% N2 , 21% O2 and 1% He
(4) 8.4 m
(2) 11.7% He, 58% N2 and 30.3% O2
(3) 32.1% O2 and 67.1% He
4. When 3 g of acetic acid is added to 500 g of
water, the freezing point of solution is (4) 11.7% He, 56.2% N2 and 32.1% O2
observed to be –0.24°C. The degree of
ionisation of acetic acid is (Kf (water) = 1.8 K
9. The temperature independent concentration
kg mol–1 ) term is
(1) 1/2 (1) Molarity
(2) 1/5 (2) Mole fraction
(3) 1/4 (3) Normality
(4) 1/3 (4) %(w/v)

5. The Osmotic pressure of 0.1 M solution of 10. If the mole fraction of acetone in ethyl
glucose at 27°C is alcohol is 0.2 then the molality of acetone in
(1) 1.5 atm the solution is
(2) 0.75 atm (1) 5.9 m
(3) 3.5 atm (2) 5.4 m
(4) 2.46 atm (3) 7.8 m
(4) 2.7 m

Page 21
Che-Solutions
AIATS - ASSIGNMENT - 1

11. Which of the following solutions has highest 16. A 10% aqueous solution (by mass) of urea
boiling point? has boiling point 374.11 K. The boiling point
(1) 0.1 m glucose in water of 10% glucose in water is (Boiling point of
water is 373.15 K)
(2) 0.1 m sucrose in water
(1) 373.47 K
(3) 0.1 m NaCl in water
(2) 375.25 K
(4) 0.1 m CaCl2 in water
(3) 374.91 K
(4) 373.15 K
12. Assertion (A) : At azeotropic point boiling
point of solution is constant.
Reason (R) : Azeotropic solutions may have 17. Aqueous solution of aluminium sulphate is
boiling points either greater than both the 20% dissociated. The van’t Hoff factor of
components or lesser than both the aluminium sulphate will be
components. (1) 1.8
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and (2) 2.4
the reason is the correct explanation of (3) 1.2
the assertion
(4) 2.5
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
the reason is not the correct
explanation of the assertion 18. The mixture that forms minimum boiling
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason azeotrope is
is false (1) Hydrochloric acid + Water
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false (2) Water + Nitric Acid
statements (3) Water + Ethanol
(4) Acetone + Aniline
13. For ideal solution which of the given relation
is incorrect?
19. If the molality of the solution is 0.70, then find
(1) ΔHmix < 0 relative lowering of the vapour pressure of
(2) ΔSmix > 0 an aqueous solution containing non-volatile
solute.
(3) ΔGmix < 0
(1) 0.01
(4) ΔVmix = 0
(2) 0.50
(3) 0.80
14. A: Molarity changes with change in (4) 0.40
temperature.
R: Molarity is equal to number of moles of
solute divided by mass of solvent (L). 20. Select the mixture which does not show
(1) Assertion and reason both are correct negative deviation from Raoult’s law.
statements and reason is correct (1) H2 O + HCl
explanation for assertion. (2) H2 O + HNO3
(2) Assertion and reason both are correct
statements but reason is not correct (3) Benzene + toluene
explanation for assertion. (4) Acetone + aniline
(3) Assertion is correct statement but
reason is wrong statement. 21. Which among the following is a colligative
(4) Assertion is wrong statement but property?
reason is correct statement. (1) Vapour pressure
(2) Boiling point
15. 1.02% solution of A and 2% solution of (3) Freezing point
glucose are isotonic. Find the molecular (4) Osmotic pressure
mass of A
(1) 91.8
22. Mass of a non-volatile solute (molar mass =
(2) 9.18
45 g mol–1 ) that should be dissolved in 90 g
(3) 183.6
water to reduce its vapour pressure to 75%
(4) 18.36 is
(1) 75 g
(2) 45 g
(3) 25 g
(4) 15 g

Page 22
Che-Solutions
AIATS - ASSIGNMENT - 1

23. C6 H5 –COOH (Benzoic acid) dimerises 50% 29. Among the following 0.10 m aqueous
in benzene and it ionises 20% in water. The solutions, which one will exhibit the largest
ratio of van’t Hoff factors in dimerisation freezing point depression?
verses ionisation is (1) KCl
(1) 5 : 8 (2) C6 H12 O6
(2) 8 : 5 (3) Al2 (SO4 )3
(3) 2 : 3
(4) K2 SO4
(4) 1 : 1

30. Which of the following statements is correct

24. Which of the following is used as antifreeze regarding a solution of two components A
in automobile? and B exhibiting positive deviation from
(1) Phenol ideal behaviour?
(2) Ethylene glycol (1) ΔmixV = 0 at constant T and P.
(3) Acetone (2) Intermolecular attractive forces
(4) Benzene between A-A and B-B are equal to
those between A-B.
(3) Intermolecular attractive forces
25. The best suited colligative property to study
between A-A and B-B are stronger than
the molecular mass of polyvinyl chloride is
those between A-B.
(1) Relative lowering of vapour pressure
(4) ΔmixH = 0 at constant T and P.
(2) Elevation in boiling point
(3) Depression in freezing point
31. The sum of mole fractions of all the
(4) Osmotic pressure
components of a mixture is equal to
(1) 0
26. 50 mL of 0.6 M HCl is mixed with 150 mL of (2) 1
0.4 M H2 SO4 , the molarity of H+ ion in the
(3) 2
resultant solution is
(4) 55.55
(1) 0.90 M
(2) 1.25 M
32. An ideal solution is made by mixing 10 mol
(3) 0.25 M
of x and 20 mol of y. The vapour pressure of
(4) 0.75 M the solution is [in torr]
o o
( Px = 200 torr, Py = 100 torr)

27. One molal solution of a carboxylic acid in (1) 100

benzene shows the elevation of boiling point
(2) 200
of 1.518 K. The degree of association for
dimerisation of the acid in benzene is (Kb for (3) 200
3

benzene is 2.53 K kg mol–1 ) (4) 400

(1) 60% 3

(2) 70%
(3) 75% 33. A solution contains 2 mole of n-pentane and
3 mole of n-hexane at 298 K. The vapour
(4) 80% pressure of the solution is (at 298 K vapour
pressure of n-pentane = 200 mm Hg and n-
28. Three gases X, Y and Z have their Henry's hexane = 150 mm Hg)
law constant values as 200 bar, 500 bar and (1) 155 mm Hg
900 bar respectively. The gas which will be (2) 185 mm Hg
most soluble in water is
(3) 170 mm Hg
(1) Gas X
(4) 350 mm Hg
(2) Gas Y
(3) Gas Z
34. At infinite dilution, the Van't Hoff factor for
(4) All these gases will show same HCN is
solubility
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) Infinite

Page 23
Che-Solutions
AIATS - ASSIGNMENT - 1

35. For an ideal solution, the correct option is : 41. If elevation in boiling point for aqueous
(1) Δmix S = 0 at constant T and P Na2 SO4 having α = 40% is ΔTb then its
depression in freezing point would be
(2) Δmix V ≠ 0 at constant T and P
(1) K b

(3) Δmix H = 0 at constant T and P Δ Tb ×Kf

(4) Δmix G = 0 at constant T and P (2) 1.8×Kb

Δ Tb ×Kf

(3) Δ Tb ×Kf

36. If pH of 'C' molar HA(weak acid) aqueous 1.8×Kb

solution is 2 and the van't Hoff factor is 1.01

(4) Δ Tb ×Kf
then value of C is Kb

(1) 1
(2) 2
42. The concentration of glucose solution which
(3) 4 shows an osmotic pressure of 8.21 atm at
(4) 8 27°C is,
(1) 0.081 M
37. The solubility of a gas in liquid increases (2) 0.062 M
with (3) 0.333 M
(1) Decrease of pressure (4) 0.358 M
(2) Increase of temperature
(3) Amount of liquid taken 43. For an aqueous solution of K4 [Fe(CN)6 ]
(4) Decrease of temperature and increase (strong electrolyte) the van't Hoff factor (i) will
of pressure be
(1) 4
38. A solution is prepared by adding 90 g (2) 1
glucose in 180 g water. The mole fraction of (3) 3
glucose in the solution is
(4) 5
(1) 1
21

(2) 1
44. The values of observed and calculated
15
molecular weights of silver nitrate are 90
(3) 1
and 170 respectively. The degree of
20
dissociation of silver nitrate is
(4) 1

16 (1) 80%
(2) 75.46%
39. If the degree of dissociation of HA is 0.3, (3) 95.73%
then the ratio of observed osmotic pressure (4) 88.89%
to calculated osmotic pressure is
(1) 1
45. If vapour pressure of two liquids A and B in
(2) 1.3 pure state are 400 and 500 mm of Hg
(3) 0.83 respectively then mole fraction of A in
(4) 0.6 vapour phase of solution obtained by mixing
equal moles of A and B is
(1) 1
40. At 2 atm partial pressure, mole of O2 (g) 2

dissolved in 10 moles water at 293 K is (2) 3

(Henry’s constant for O2 (g) in water is 0.3 × 5

5 (3) 4
10 atm) 9

(1) 6.67 × 10–3 (4) 2

3
(2) 6.67 × 10–5
(3) 6.67 × 10–4 46. Osmotic pressure of solution containing 3.6
(4) 6.67 × 10–6 g glucose and 1.2 g of urea in 250 ml at
27ºC approximately will be
(1) 2.8 atm
(2) 3.9 atm
(3) 4.2 atm
(4) 5.1 atm

Page 24
Che-Solutions
AIATS - ASSIGNMENT - 1

47. If the Henry's law constant for the solubility of 49. If 3% aqueous solution of urea is isotonic
O2 gas in water at 25°C is 5.0 × 106 atm. with 3% aqueous solution of a strong
The mole fraction of O2 in air is 0.2. The electrolyte AB. The molecular mass of the
salt AB would be
number of moles of O2 from air dissolved in
10 moles of water at 25°C and 4 atm (1) 45 u
pressure is (2) 90 u
(1) 1.6 × 10–6 (3) 180 u
(4) 120 u
(2) 2.4 × 10–5
(3) 5.2 × 10–3
50. The mass of urea to be dissolved in 100 g of
(4) 3.2 × 10–4
water (Kb = 0.52 K kg mol–1 ) to prepare a
solution having boiling point 101°C, is
48. Unit of Ebullioscopic constant is (1) 10.26 g
(1) K mol kg–1 (2) 4.2 g
(2) K kg mol–1 (3) 11.54 g
(3) kg mol–1 (4) 14.66 g

(4) kg mol g–1

Page 25
 AIATS - ASSIGNMENT - 1

23852

Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-

47623456

MM : 200 Bot-Sexual reproduction in flowering plants Time : 50 Min.

BOTANY

1. An ovary may have a single ovule as in (i) or many 6. Which of the following is not the floral reward for insects?
¯
¯¯¯¯
ovules as in (ii) . (1) Nectar
¯¯¯¯¯
Select the correct option to fill the blanks (i) and (ii). (2) Pollen
(1) (i) - Mango, (ii) - Wheat (3) Safe place to lay eggs
(2) (i) - Rice, (ii) - Mango (4) Fragrance of the flower
(3) (i) - Mango, (ii) - Orchid 7. In pollen grains, sporopollenin is a constituent of
(4) (i) - Orchid, (ii) - Papaya (1) Exine
2. A typical angiospermic female gametophyte at maturity (2) Intine
(1) Has an egg-apparatus in the large central cell (3) Vegetative cell
(2) Is 7-celled though 8-nucleate (4) Generative cell
Shows three cells at the micropylar end called 8. How many nuclei are involved in double fertilisation in an
(3)
antipodals angiospermic plant?
Is a two celled structure, one called the vegetative cell (1) Two
(4)
and other the generative cell
(2) Three
3. In an embryo sac, the largest cell is/are (3) Six
(1) Synergids (4) Five
(2) Antipodal cells
9. ______ is a type of outbreeding device in which
(3) Central cell maturation time of androecium and gynoecium is different
(4) Egg cell in the same flower.
Select the correct option to fill in the blank.
4. Consider the following statements and choose the
(1) Homogamy
correct option.
Statement A: Pollen grains lose viability within 30 (2) Dichogamy
minutes of their release in all the members of (3) Dioecy
Leguminosae, Rosaceae, and Solanaceae. (4) Cleistogamy
Statement B: Pollen grains can be stored in liquid
nitrogen at –196°C for years. 10. The innermost layer of anther wall which surrounds the
(1) Only Statement A is correct sporogenous tissue
(2) Only statement B is correct (1) Has α-cellulosic fibrous bands on its cells
(3) Both statements A and B are correct (2) Helps in dehiscence of anther
(4) Both statements A and B are incorrect (3) Nourishes the developing pollen grains
(4) Has cells which lack nucleus
5. Which of the following is not an example of water
pollinated plant?
(1) Vallisneria
(2) Water lily
(3) Hydrilla
(4) Zostera

Page 26
Bot-Sexual reproduction in flowering plants AIATS - ASSIGNMENT - 1

11. Below given structure is the figure of monocot seed. 17. Read the given statements and choose the correct
Select the correct labelling of A, B, C and D. option.
A. In apple, fruit develops from floral parts other than
ovary.
B. Dehydration and dormancy are the features of seeds
that form basis of storage.
(1) Only A is incorrect
(2) Only B is incorrect
(3) Both A and B are incorrect
(4) Both A and B are correct
A B C D 18. Integuments represent
(1) Micropyle Epithelium Coleoptile Plumule (1) Cells having nutritive function
(2) Pericarp Endosperm Coleorhiza Scutellum (2) Protective envelopes of ovule
(3) Pericarp Endosperm Coleoptile Scutellum (3) Basal part of the ovule
(4) Cotyledon Endosperm Radicle Epiblast (4) Small opening in the ovule
(1) 1
19. Shedding of pollen grains in over 60% of angiosperms
(2) 2 occurs at A celled stage.
(3) 3 ¯¯¯¯¯
Select the correct option for ‘A’.
(4) 4 (1) One
12. The correct sequence of different parts of an ovule from (2) Two
outside to inside is (3) Three
(1) Nucellus, Integument, Embryo sac (4) Four
(2) Integument, Nucellus, Embryo sac 20. The outer layer of sporoderm helps in fossilization of
(3) Nucellus, Funicle, Chalaza pollen grain due to
(4) Integument, Funicle, Nucellus (1) Cellulose
13. Endosperm persists in mature seeds of (2) Sporopollenin
(1) Groundnut (3) Pectin
(2) Castor (4) Chitin
(3) Bean 21. Below given structure is the figure of monocot seed.
(4) Pea Select the correct labelling for A, B, C and D.

14. In an embryo sac, the largest cell is

(1) Synergids
(2) Antipodal cells
(3) Central cell
(4) Egg cell

15. A typical angiosperm female gametophyte, at maturity

(1) Has an egg-apparatus in the large central cell
(2) Is 7-celled though 8-nucleate
Shows three cells at the micropylar end called
(3)
antipodals
Is a two celled structure, one called the vegetative cell
(4)
and other the generative cell
A B C D
16. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. pollen-pistil
interaction. (1) Micropyle Epithelium Coleoptile Plumule
Pollen tube grows through the tissues of the stigma (2) Pericarp Endosperm Coleorhiza Scutellum
(1)
and style and reaches the ovary (3) Pericarp Endosperm Coleoptile Scutellum
In the recent years, the botanists have been able to
(4) Cotyledon Endosperm Radicle Epiblast
identify some of the pollen and pistil components and
(2)
interactions leading to recognition, followed by (1) 1
acceptance or rejection (2) 2
Pollination guarantee the transfer of the right type of (3) 3
(3)
pollen on the stigma
(4) 4
All the events from pollen deposition on stigma until
(4) pollen tube enter the ovule constitute pollen pistil
interaction

Page 27
Bot-Sexual reproduction in flowering plants AIATS - ASSIGNMENT - 1

22. Which one is correct sequence of development of zygote 30. (i) of pollen grain has (ii) which is not degraded
into embryo? ¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯ ¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯
by any enzyme.
Pro-embryo → Heart shaped embryo → globular Select the correct option to fill in the blanks (i) and (ii)
(1)
embryo → Mature embryo (1) (i)-Intine, (ii) – Lignin
Pro-embryo → Globular embryo → Heart shaped (2) (i)-Exine, (ii) - Pectin
(2)
embryo → Mature embryo
(3) (i)-Exine, (ii) - Sporopollenin
Heart shaped embryo → Pro-embryo → Globular
(3) (4) (i)-Intine, (ii) - Chitin
embryo → Mature embryo
Globular embryo → Heart shaped embryo → Pro- 31. Read the following statements A and B and select the
(4)
embryo → Mature embryo correct option
A. Fruit developed without fertilization is called false fruit.
23. Which of the following steps would not be needed for B. In Lupine Seed viability is less than 2000 years.
artificial hybridisation involving dioecious plants?
(1) Only statement ‘A’ is incorrect
(1) Bagging of female flower
(2) Only statement ‘B’ is incorrect
(2) Dusting of pollen on stigma
(3) Both Statements A and B are incorrect
(3) Removal of anther, i.e., emasculation
(4) Both Statements A and B are correct
(4) Re-bagging of flower after pollen dusting
32. Assertion ( A) : Embryo development precedes
24. Transfer of pollen grains from anther to the stigma of a
endosperm development.
different plant is called
Reason ( R) : Early stages of embryogeny are different in
(1) Autogamy both monocots and dicots though seeds are similar.
(2) Geitonogamy In the light of the above statements, Select the correct
(3) Cleistogamy option
(4) Xenogamy Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is
(1)
the correct explanation of the assertion
25. Sporopollenin is a constituent of Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is
(2)
(1) Exine not the correct explanation of the assertion
(2) Intine (3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
(3) Vegetative cell (4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements
(4) Generative cell 33. In which of the given plants autogamy as well as
26. The inner-most layer of the four wall layers of a typical geitonogamy is prevented?
microsporangium, which nourishes the developing pollen (1) Castor
grains is (2) Maize
(1) Epidermis (3) Papaya
(2) Tapetum (4) Pea
(3) Exothecium
34. Shedding of pollen grains in 60% of angiosperms occurs
(4) Endothecium at A celled stage.
¯¯¯¯¯
27. Consider the following statements and choose the Select the correct option for ‘A’.
correct option (1) One
Statement A: Pollen grains lose viability within 30
(2) Two
minutes of their release in all the members of
Leguminosae, Rosaceae, and Solanaceae. (3) Three
Statement B: Pollen grains can be stored in liquid (4) Four
nitrogen at –196°C for years.
35. Mature female gametophyte of angiosperms is generally
(1) Only Statement A is correct
(1) 7-celled & 7-nucleated structure
(2) Only statement B is correct
(2) 8-celled & 7-nucleated structure
(3) Both statements A and B are correct
(3) 7-celled & 8-nucleated structure
(4) Both statements A and B are incorrect
(4) 3-celled & 3-nucleated structure
28. Outbreeding devices promote
36. Pericarp of a fruit is
(1) Self pollination
(1) Wall of ripened ovary
(2) Inbreeding depression
(2) Integument of mature ovule
(3) Xenogamy
(3) Fleshy corolla
(4) Loss of genetic variation
(4) Ripened thalamus
29. Removal of anther from bisexual flower buds before the
anther dehisces is called 37. The part of pistil which forms pericarp in true fruit is
(1) Bagging (1) Thalamus
(2) Anthesis (2) Outer integument of ovule
(3) Emasculation (3) Stalk
(4) Artificial hybridisation (4) Wall of ovary

Page 28
Bot-Sexual reproduction in flowering plants AIATS - ASSIGNMENT - 1

38. White kernel in coconut is 43. Identify the given figure and select the option that has all
(1) Endosperm the four parts (A, B, C & D) correctly labelled.
(2) Haploid tissue
(3) Endocarp
(4) Product of zygote

39. Most of the fruits are

(1) False fruit
(2) True fruit
(3) Parthenocarpic fruit
(4) Develop from floral parts other than ovary

40. Egg apparatus of embryo sac consists of

(1) Two egg cells and one synergid
(2) One egg cell and two synergids
(3) One egg cell and two antipodal cells
(4) One egg cell and one synergid
(A) (B) (C) (D)
41. Hilum represents the junction between
(1) Funicle and ovary wall Aleurone
(1) Endosperm Coleoptile Coleorhiza
(2) Ovule and funicle Layer
(3) Chalaza and integument (2) Endosperm Coleoptile Scutellum Coleorhiza
(4) Funicle and micropyle
(3) Endosperm Seed coat Scutellum Coleoptile
42. A typical angiospermic anther is
(4) Seed coat Endosperm Coleorhiza Coleoptile
(a) Bilobed
(b) Tetragonal (1) (1)
(c) Tetrasporangiate (2) (2)
The correct ones is/are
(3) (3)
(1) Only (a)
(4) (4)
(2) All (a), (b), (c)
(3) Only (a) and (c) 44. Find the odd one w.r.t. the anther wall layers.
(4) Only (a) and (b) (1) Epidermis
(2) Middle layers
(3) Aleurone layer
(4) Tapetum

45. The female reproductive organ of Papaver and Michelia

have respectively
Multicarpellary syncarpous pistil and monocarpellary
(1)
apocarpous gynoecium
Multicarpellary apocarpous pistil and multicarpellary
(2)
syncarpous pistil
Multicarpellary syncarpous pistil and multicarpellary
(3)
apocarpous gynoecium
Bicarpellary syncarpous gynoecium and bicarpellary
(4)
apocarpous pistil

46. Select the odd one with respect to ploidy.

(1) Microspore
(2) Nucellus
(3) Pollen
(4) Synergid

47. Water pollination is limited to about 30 genera, mostly

(1) Dicotyledons
(2) Monocotyledons
(3) Pteridophytes
(4) Gymnosperms

Page 29
Bot-Sexual reproduction in flowering plants AIATS - ASSIGNMENT - 1

48. All of the following are the features of flowers pollinated 50. Cleistogamy refers to the condition in which
by insects, except (1) Pollinators are not required
(1) Large sized (2) Flowers are absent
(2) Presence of nectaries (3) Flowers always remain open
(3) Colourful petals (4) Flowers are unisexual
(4) Non-sticky pollen grains

49. An angiospermic plant has 12 chromosomes in its

nucellus cell. What will be the number of chromosomes in
its endosperm cell, leaf cell and synergid respectively?
(1) 36, 18 and 9
(2) 18, 12 and 12
(3) 18, 12 and 6
(4) 36, 18 and 12

Page 30
 AIATS - ASSIGNMENT - 1

Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-

47623456

MM : 200 Zoo-Human reproduction Time : 60 Min.

Zoology Section-A

1. At least what percent of human male sperms must have 6. Estrogens are the dominant ovarian hormones during
normal shape and size and must show vigorous motility which phase of menstrual cycle?
for normal fertility per ejaculate? (1) Secretory phase
(1) 60% (2) Proliferative phase
(2) 40% (3) Luteal phase
(3) 72% (4) Bleeding phase
(4) 24%
7. Mammary ampulla is connected to ‘X’ through which
2. Hormone not released by placenta is milk is sucked out. This ‘X’ is known as
(1) hCG (1) Mammary duct
(2) hPL (2) Lactiferous duct
(3) ADH (3) Alveolar duct
(4) Progestogens (4) Mammary tubule
3. Study the four statements (a-d) given below. 8. Select the odd one w.r.t. post-fertilisation events.
a. Presence of hCG, hPL and relaxin in blood are (1) Development of blastocyst
indicators of pregnancy.
(2) Formation of placenta
b. During pregnancy, level of estrogens and
progestogens increase several folds in the maternal (3) Transfer of sperms into female genital tract
blood. (4) Delivery of the foetus
c. The level of hormones like cortisol, prolactin and
thyroxine decrease in maternal blood during pregnancy. 9. The wall of uterus is made up of (a) layers, (b) is the
d. Corpus luteum is the principal source of progesterone site of implantation and (c)
¯¯¯¯¯ ¯¯¯¯¯
undergoes contractions
after first trimester in a pregnant female. ¯¯¯¯¯
Select the option representing two correct statements. during delivery of baby.
Select the option that fills the blanks correctly.
(1) a and d
(1) (a) Two, (b) Myometrium, (c) Perimetrium
(2) b and c
(2) (a) Three, (b) Myometrium, (c) Endometrium
(3) a and b
(3) (a) Three, (b) Endometrium, (c) Myometrium
(4) c and d
(4) (a) Three, (b) Endometrium, (c) Perimetrium
4. The sex of embryo is determined by
10. Interstitial cells in human testes produce testosterone
(1) X-chromosome present in ovum under the direct influence of
(2) Only X-chromosome present in sperm (1) GH
(3) Only Y-chromosome present in sperm (2) LH
(4) The presence of X or Y chromosome in the sperms (3) hCG
5. Select the correct order of flow of milk secreted by alveoli (4) FSH
of mammary gland in humans.
11. Ovarian follicles are present in
Mammary tubule → Mammary alveoli → Mammary
(1) (1) Ovarian capsule
duct → Mammary ampulla → Lactiferous duct
(2) Cortex of ovarian stroma
Mammary alveoli → Mammary tubule → Mammary
(2) (3) Medulla of ovarian stroma
duct → Mammary ampulla → Lactiferous duct
Mammary alveoli → Mammary tubule → Mammary (4) Ovarian ligament
(3)
ampulla → Mammary duct → Lactiferous duct
Mammary ampulla → Mammary alveoli → Mammary
(4)
tubule → Mammary duct →Lactiferous duct

Page 31
Zoo-Human reproduction AIATS - ASSIGNMENT - 1

12. Rupture of Graafian follicle is induced by increase in 16. If the menstrual cycle of female is of 35 days then
secretion of ovulation takes place on
(1) Progesterone (1) 30th day
(2) Prolactin
(2) 16th day
(3) Luteinizing hormone
(4) Parathyroid hormone (3) 21st day
(4) 14th day
13. How many highly coiled, sperm producing tubules are
found approximately in a normal adult human male
17. Assertion: Lack of menstruation is a confirmatory
reproductive system? indicator of pregnancy.
(1) 250 - 500 Reason: Menstruation only occurs if the released ovum is
(2) 500 - 1500 fertilized.
In the light of above statements, choose the correct
(3) 250 - 750
answer from the options given below.
(4) 500 - 2000
Both Assertion and Reason are true and the reason is
(1)
14. Given diagram represents an ovum surrounded by few the correct explanation of the assertion
sperms Both Assertion and Reason are true but the reason is
(2)
not the correct explanation of the assertion
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements

18. The human male ejaculates about X sperms during

¯
¯¯¯
¯
coitus, out of which Y percent must have normal shape
¯
¯¯¯
¯
and size.
Select the option which correctly fills the blanks X and Y
respectively.
X Y

(1) 100 - 300 billion 60

(2) 200 - 300 million 60

(3) 200 - 300 million 40

(4) 60,000 - 80,000 60

(1) (1)
(2) (2)
(3) (3)
(4) (4)

19. Complete the analogy w.r.t. number of chromosomes.

Select the option which correctly describes the Haploid : Secondary spermatocyte :: Diploid : _____
structures (a), (b) and (c) respectively. (1) Spermatids
(a) (b) (c)
(2) Secondary oocyte
Cell of the corona Zona Perivitelline (3) Spermatogonium
(1)
radiata pellucida space
(4) Spermatozoa
Cell of the corona Perivitelline Zona
(2) 20. Which of the following cells provide nutrition to sperms?
radiata space pellucida
Follicular Corona (1) Germinal cells
(3) Zona pellucida
cells radiata (2) Mast cells
Corona (3) Sertoli cells
(4) Follicular cells Zona pellucida
radiata (4) Oocytes
(1) (1) 21. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. parturition.
(2) (2) Signals of parturition originate from fully developed
(3) (3) (1) foetus and placenta which induce mild uterine
(4) (4) contractions.
(2) It is a complex neuroendocrine mechanism.
15. Which set of structures share similar ploidy levels?
Foetal ejection reflex triggers release of oxytocin from
(1) Spermatogonia, ovum (3)
foetal pituitary.
(2) Spermatid, secondary oocyte The signal for parturition is called foetal ejection
(4)
(3) Ootid, primary oocyte reflex.
(4) Spermatozoa, primary spermatocyte

Page 32
Zoo-Human reproduction AIATS - ASSIGNMENT - 1

22. Choose the incorrect match w.r.t. homologous structures 28. How many primary follicles are left in each ovary at
in human reproductive system. puberty in human females?
(1) Labia minora – Scrotum (1) 60 – 80
(2) Clitoris – Penis (2) 6000 – 8000
(3) Skene’s gland – Prostate gland (3) 600 – 800
(4) Bartholin's gland – Bulbourethral glands (4) 60,000 – 80,000

23. Identify the structure marked ‘X’ in the figure given below. 29. The part of fallopian tube that is funnel shaped and closer
Select the correct option. to the ovary is
(1) Isthmus
(2) Ampulla
(3) Infundibulum
(4) Uterine fundus

30. Choose the incorrect statement.

Colostrum contains several antibodies essential to
(1)
provide resistance for the new-born babies
The signals for parturition originate from the fully
(2)
developed foetus and the placenta
Mammary glands differentiate during pregnancy and
(3)
secrete milk towards end of pregnancy
(1) Mitochondria Secondary oocyte is a diploid cell formed as a result
(2) Acrosome (4)
of meiosis-II.
(3) Neck
31. Not all copulations lead to fertilisation and pregnancy
(4) Middle piece because ovum
24. By the end of which week, during human embryonic Can undergo fertilisation only in isthmus region of
(1)
development, the body is covered with fine hair, eye-lids oviducts
are separated and eyelashes are formed? And sperms are not transported simultaneously to the
(2)
(1) 4 weeks ampullary region of fallopian tube
(2) 12 weeks (3) Degenerates just after ovulation
(3) 14 weeks (4) Membrane is not always penetrable
(4) 24 weeks 32. Fleshy folds of tissue which extend down the mons pubis
and surround vaginal opening are
25. The testes are situated in a pouch called A which
¯¯¯¯¯¯¯ (1) Labia minora
helps in maintaining a temperature which is B lower
¯¯¯¯¯¯ (2) Labia majora
than the normal body temperature. Choose the option
which represents ‘A’ and ‘B’ correctly (3) Hymen
(4) Clitoris
A B
(1) Epididymis 4-5°C 33. The milk produced during the initial few days of lactation
is called
(2) Seminal vesicle 3-4°C
(1) Lactalbumin
(3) Scrotum 2-2.5°C
(2) Colostrum
(4) Testicular lobules 2-3°C (3) Relaxin
(1) (1) (4) Lactogen
(2) (2)
34. The hormone which surges twice during the menstrual
(3) (3) cycle is
(4) (4) (1) Progesterone
26. In humans, meiosis I in female gametogenesis is (2) LH
completed in (3) FSH
(1) Primary oocyte within the Graafian follicle (4) Estrogen
(2) Secondary oocyte within the Graafian follicle
35. The major source of estrogen in a human female
(3) Primary oocyte within the tertiary follicle between day 7 to 12th day of the menstrual cycle is
(4) Secondary oocyte within the secondary follicle (1) Adrenal cortex
27. Shedding of endometrium is triggered by decline in (2) Ovarian follicle
(1) Estrogen (3) Corpus luteum
(2) FSH (4) Pituitary gland
(3) Progesterone
(4) hCG

Page 33
Zoo-Human reproduction AIATS - ASSIGNMENT - 1

36. Read the following statements and choose the correct 43. Greater vestibular glands are
option. (1) Paraurethral glands
Statement A: Oxytocin is known as milk let down
(2) Skene’s glands
hormone.
Statement B: It stimulates milk ejection in response to (3) Bartholin’s glands
suckling reflex. (4) Both (1) and (2)
(1) Statement A is incorrect
44. Which of the following is an example of monoestrous
(2) Statement B is incorrect animals?
(3) Both statements A and B are incorrect (1) Mouse
(4) Both statements A and B are correct (2) Squirrel
37. Hormones released exclusively in a pregnant female (3) Horse
include (4) Bat
(1) Estrogen, Progesterone, hCS, hPL
45. A pregnant lady went to the doctor for sonography. During
(2) hCG, hCS/hPL, Relaxin sonography, doctor told her that the foetus is showing
(3) Thyroxine, Cortisol, Oxytocin, hCG movements and there is appearance of hair on the head.
(4) Inhibin, hCG, hPL, Prolactin So, the lady is in which duration of gestation?
Choose the correct option.
38. Umbilical cord usually has A blood vessels. Among (1) End of first trimester
them B carry oxygenated blood to foetus.
(2) During the 5th month
A B
(3) End of third trimester
(1) Two Umbilical arteries
(4) End of the 2nd month
(2) Three Umbilical vein
(3) Four Umbilical vein 46. The mammary glands of human female undergo
differentiation
(4) Three Umbilical arteries
(1) After lactation
(1) (1)
(2) During menarche
(2) (2)
(3) During pregnancy
(3) (3)
(4) During menopause
(4) (4)
47. Interstitial spaces in our testis does not contain
39. In which of the following animals, placenta with only four
(1) Leydig cells
barriers are present?
(2) Small blood vessels
(1) Goat
(3) Sertoli cells
(2) Lion
(4) Immunologically competent cells
(3) Horse
(4) Rat 48. Ectopic pregnancies are best explained as
(1) Implantation of embryo at sites other than uterus
40. Which of the following events trigger the formation of
ootid? (2) Implantation of malformed embryo in the uterus
Binding of sperm head to receptors (ZP3) on zona (3) Pregnancy terminated due to hormonal imbalance
(1)
pellucida Pregnancies ending in premature parturition despite
(4)
(2) Entry of sperm into secondary oocyte fundic implantation
(3) Cortical reaction
(4) Entry of sperm into fallopian tube

41. Presence of which hormone is diagnosed in Gravindex

test?
(1) hCG
(2) hPL
(3) Chorionic thyrotropin
(4) Estrogen

42. In human males, tunica albuginea is the collagenous

covering of testis but in females
(1) It is outermost covering of ovaries
(2) It is outermost layer of ovarian follicles
It separates two zones i.e. medulla and cortex of
(3)
stroma in ovary
It is connective tissue which surrounds ovarian cortex
(4)
(stroma)

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Zoo-Human reproduction AIATS - ASSIGNMENT - 1

49. A new theca layer surrounds the layers of granulosa cells

and A follicle is now called B follicle. Choose the
¯¯¯¯¯¯ ¯¯¯¯¯¯
correct option for A and B.
(1) A – Primary; B – Secondary
(2) A – Secondary; B – Tertiary
(3) A – Tertiary; B – Graafian
(4) A – Graafian; B – Corpus luteum

50. Regulation of gonadal function during reproductive

phase of a human is given in following figure. Identify A,
B, C and D.

(1) (1)
(2) (2)
(3) (3)
(4) (4)

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