IOC PYQ 2020 21 22 - Final
IOC PYQ 2020 21 22 - Final
IOC PYQ 2020 21 22 - Final
1. The electron gain enthalpy (in kJ/mol) of fluorine, chlorine, bromine and iodine, respectively
are:
(1) – 333, – 349, – 325 and – 296 (2) –296, – 325, – 333 and – 349
(3) – 333, – 325, – 349 and – 296 (4) –349, – 333, – 325 and – 296
2. Within each pair of elements of F & Cl, S & Se, and Li & Na, respectively, the elements that
release more energy upon an electron gain are–
(1) F, Se and Na (2) F, S and Li (3) Cl, S and Li (4) Cl, Se and Na
3. The first ionization energy (in kJ/mol) of Na, Mg, Al and Si respectively, are:
(1) 496, 737, 577, 786 (2) 786, 737, 577, 496
(3) 496, 577, 737, 786 (4) 496, 577, 786, 737
4. The increasing order of the atomic radii of the following elements is:
(a) C (b) O (c) F (d) Cl (e) Br
(1) (b) < (c) < (d) < (a) < (e) (2) (a) < (b) < (c) < (d) < (e)
(3) (d) < (c) < (b) < (a) < (e) (4) (c) < (b) < (a) < (d) < (e)
5. B has a smaller first ionization enthalpy than Be. Consider the following statements:
(I) It is easier to remove 2p electron than 2s electron
(II) 2p electron of B is more shielded from the nucleus by the inner core of electrons than
the 2s electrons of Be.
(III) 2s electron has more penetration power than 2p electron.
(IV) atomic radius of B is more than Be
(Atomic number B = 5, Be = 4) The correct statements are:
(1) (I), (II) and (III) (2) (II), (III) and (IV)
(3) (I), (III) and (IV) (4) (I), (II) and (IV)
7. Lattice enthalpy and enthalpy of solution of NaCl are 788 kJ mol–1 and 4 kJ mol–1,
respectively. The hydration enthalpy of NaCl is:
(1) –780 kJ mol–1 (2) –784 kJ mol–1 (3) 780 kJ mol–1 (4) 784 kJ mol–1
9. The ionic radii of O2–, F–, Na+ and Mg2+ are in the order:
(1) F– > O2– > Na+ > Mg2+ (2) Mg2+ > Na+ > F– > O2–
(3) O2– > F– > Mg2+ > Na+ (4) O2– > F– > Na+ > Mg2+
10. The elements with atomic numbers 101 and 104 belong to, respectively:
(1) Group 11 and Group 4 (2) Actinoids and Group 4
(3) Actinoids and Group 6 (4) Group 6 and Actinoids
14. Three elements X, Y and Z are in the 3rd period of the periodic table. The oxides of X, Y and
Z, respectively, are basic, amphoteric and acidic. The correct order of the atomic numbers
of X, Y and Z is:
(1) Z < Y < X (2) X < Z < Y (3) X < Y < Z (4) Y < X < Z
15. In general, the property (magnitudes only) that shows an opposite trend in comparison to
other properties across a period is
(1) Electronegativity (2) Electron gain enthalpy
(3) Ionization enthalpy (4) Atomic radius
ANSWER KEY
1. Consider the elements Mg, Al, S, P and Si the correct increasing order of their first ionization
enthalpy is:
(1) Al < Mg < Si < S < P (2) Al < Mg < S < Si < P
(3) Mg < Al < Si < S < P (4) Mg < Al < Si < P < S
5. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion and the other is labelled as Reason
R.
Assertion A: In TlI3 isomorphous to CsI3 the metal is present in +1 oxidation state.
Reason R: Tl metals has fourteen f electrons in its electronic configuration.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options
given below:
(1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(2) A is not correct but R is correct
(3) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(4) A is correct but R is not correct
6. Identify the elements X and Y using the ionisation energy values given below:
Ionization energy (kJ/mol)
1st 2nd
X 495 4563
Y 731 1450
(1) X = Na; Y = Mg (2) X = Mg; Y = F (3) X = Mg; Y = Na (4) X = F; Y = Mg
7. The characteristics of elements X, Y and Z with atomic numbers, respectively, 33, 53 and 83
are:
(1) X and Y are metalloids and Z is a metal.
(2) X is a metalloid, Y is a non-metal and Z is a metal.
(3) X, Y and Z are metals.
(4) X and Z are non-metals and Y is a metalloid
10. The set of elements that differ in mutual relationship from those of the other sets is:
(1) Li −Mg (2) B – Si (3) Be – Al (4) Li – Na
11. The ionic radius of Na+ ions is 1.02\Å. The ionic radii (in\Å) of Mg2+ and Al3+, respectively, are
(1) 1.05 and 0.99 (2) 0.72 and 0.54 (3) 0.85 and 0.99 (4) 0.68 and 0.72
12. The first ionization energy of magnesium is smaller as compared to that of elements X and
Y, but higher than that of Z. the elements X, Y and Z, respectively, are:
(1) chlorine, lithium and sodium (2) argon, lithium and sodium
(3) argon, chlorine and sodium (4) neon, sodium and chlorine
13. Which one of the following statements for D.I. Mendeleef, is incorrect?
(1) He authored the textbook Principles of Chemistry.
(2) At the time, he proposed Periodic Table of elements structure of atom was known.
(3) Element with atomic number 101 is named after him.
(4) He invented accurate barometer.
ANSWER KEY
2. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason(R)
Assertion (A): The ionic radii of O2– and Mg2+ are same.
Reason (R): Both O2– and Mg2+ are isoelectronic species
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given
below
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true
6. The first ionization enthalpy of Na, Mg and Si, respectively, are: 496, 737 and 786 kJ mol–1.
The first ionization enthalpy (kJ mol–1) of Al is:
(1) 487 (2) 768 (3) 577 (4) 856
7. Metals generally melt at very high temperature. Amongst the following, the metal with the
highest melting point will be
(1) Hg (2) Ag (3) Ga (4) Cs
9. Element "E" belongs to the period 4 and group 16 of the periodic table. The valence shell
electron configuration of the element, which is just above 'E' in the group is
(1) 3s2 . 3p4 (2) 3d10. 4s2, 4p4
(3) 4d10. 5s2, 5p4 (4) 2s2, 2p4
11. Given below are two statements. One is labeled as Assertion A and other is labelled as
Reason R.
Assertion A: The first ionization enthalpy for oxygen is lower than that of nitrogen.
Reason R: The four electrons in 2p orbitals of oxygen experience more electron-electron
repulsion.
In the light of the above statements, choose correct answer from the options given below.
(1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(2) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is correct but R is not correct.
(4) A is not correct but R is correct
12. The IUPAC nomenclature of an element with electronic configuration [Rn]5f146d17s2 is:
(1) Unnilbium (2) Unnilunium (3) Unnilquadium (4) Unniltrium
13. The first ionization enthalpies of Be, B, N and O follow the order
(1) O < N < B < Be (2) Be < B < N < O (3) B < Be < N < O (4) B < Be < O < N
15. In which of the following gain enthalpies of constituent elements are nearly the same or
identical?
(A) Rb and Cs (B) Na and K (C) Ar and Kr (D) I and At
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) (A) and (B) only (2) (B) and (C) only (3) (A) and (C) only (4) (C) and (D) only
ANSWER KEY
5. Arrange the following bonds according to their average bond energies in descending order:
C–Cl, C–Br, C–F, C–I
(1) C–I > C–Br > C–Cl > C–F (2) C–Br > C–I > C–Cl > C–F
(3) C–F > C–Cl > C–Br > C–I (4) C–Cl > C–Br > C–I > C–F
6. 'X' melts at low temperature and is a bad conductor of electricity in both liquid and solid
state. X is:
(1) Carbon tetrachloride (2) Mercury
(3) Silicon carbide (4) Zinc sulphide
10. Among the sulphates of alkaline earth metals, the solubilities of BeSO4 and MgSO4 in water,
respectively, are:
(1) high and high (2) poor and poor (3) high and poor (4) poor and high
12. The increasing order of boiling points of the following compounds is:
OH OH OH OH
13. The compound that has the largest H—M—H bond angle (M=N, O, S, C), is:
(1) H2O (2) CH4 (3) NH3 (4) H2S
H3C
H3C
Cl
(3) HC (4) HC Cl
CH2 CH2
17. The reaction in which the hybridisation of the underlined atom is affected is:
H+
(1) NH3 → (2) XeF4 + SbF5 →
(3) H2SO4 + NaCl →
420K (4) H PO Disproportionation
→
3 2
18. Of the species, NO, NO+, NO2+, NO–, the one with minimum bond strength is:
(1) NO2+ (2) NO+ (3) NO (4) NO–
19. In a molecule of pyrophosphoric acid, the number of P–OH, P=O and P–O–P bonds/
moiety(ies) respectively are:
(1) 3, 3 and 3 (2) 2, 4 and 1
(3) 4, 2 and 0 (4) 4, 2 and 1
20. Match the type of interaction in List-I with the distance dependence of their interaction
energy in List-II:
List-I List-II
1
(I) ion -ion (a)
r
1
(II) dipole – dipole (b)
r2
1
(III) London dispersion (c)
r3
1
(d)
r6
(1) (I)-(a), (II)-(b), (III)-(c) (2) (I)-(a), (II)-(c), (III)-(d)
(3) (I)-(a), (II)-(b), (III)-(d) (4) (I)-(b), (II)-(d), (III)-(c)
21. The molecular geometry of SF6 is octahedral. What is the geometry of SF4 (including lone
pair(s) of electrons, if any)?
(1) Trigonal bipyramidal (2) Square planar
(3) Tetrahedral (4) Pyramidal
ANSWER KEY
3. The correct shape and I-I-I bond angles respectively in I3− ion is:
(1) Trigonal planar; 120° (2) Distorted trigonal planar; 135° and 90°
(3) Linear; 180° (4) T-shaped; 180° and 90°
4. According to molecular orbital theory, the species among the following that does not exist
is:
(1) He2− (2) He2+ (3) O22− (4) Be2
6. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R.
Assertion A: Dipole-dipole interactions are the only non-covalent interactions, resulting in
hydrogen bond formation
Reason R: Fluorine is the most electronegative element and hydrogen bonds in HF are
symmetrical.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options
given below:
(1) A is false but R is true
(4) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
8. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R:
Assertion A: The H − O − H bond angle in water molecule is 104.5°
Reason R: The lone pair − lone pair repulsion of electrons is higher than the bond pair -
bond pair repulsion.
(1) A is false but R is true
(2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
9. A central atom in a molecule has two lone pairs of electrons and forms three single bonds.
The shape of this molecule is:
(1) see-saw (2) planar triangular
(3) T-shaped (4) trigonal pyramidal
a
H3C
b c
C=C—O
H H
13. The number of species below that have two lone pairs of electrons in their central atom
is_______ (Round off to the Nearest integer)
SF4, BF4− CIF3, AsF3, PCl5, BrF5, XeF4, SF6
ANSWER KEY
2. Consider the species CH4, NH4+ and BH4–. Choose the correct option with respect to the there
species:
(1) They are isoelectronic and only two have tetrahedral structures
(2) They are isoelectronic and all have tetrahedral structures
(3) Only two are isoelectronic and all have tetrahedral structures
(4) Only two are isoelectronic and only two have tetrahedral structures
3. The total number of acidic oxides from the following list is:
NO, N2O, B2O3, N2O5, CO, SO3, P4O10
(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 6
4. Amongst the following the number of oxide(s) which are paramagnetic in nature is
Na2O, KO2, NO2, N2O, ClO2, NO, SO2, Cl2O
5. The number of molecule(s) or ion(s) from the following having non-planar structure is
NO3− , H2O2, BF3, PCl3, XeF4, SF4, XeO3, PH4+ , SO3, [Al(OH)4]–
6. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R
Assertion A: Zero orbital overlap is an out of phase overlap.
Reason: It results due to different orientation/direction of approach of orbitals.
In the light of the above statements. Choose the correct answer from the options given
below
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(2) Both A and Rare true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true
7. The correct order of bound orders of C22− ,N22− and O22− is, respectively.
(1) C22− < N22− < O22− (2) O22− < N22− < O22− (3) C22− < N22− < O22− (4) N22− < C22− < O22−
8. Bonding in which of the following diatomic molecule(s) become(s) stronger, on the basis of
MO Theory, by removal of an electron?
(A) NO (B) N2 (C) O2 (D) C2 (E) B2
(1) A, B, C (2) B, C, E (3) A, C (4) Only D
10. The oxide which contains an odd electron at the nitrogen atom is
(1) N2O (2) NO2 (3) N2O3 (4) N2O5
12. Based upon VSEPR theory, match the shape (geometry) of the molecules in List-I with the
molecules in List-II and select the most appropriate option
List-I List-II
(Shape) (Molecules)
(A) T-shaped (I) XeF4
(B) Trigonal planar (II) SF4
(C) Square planar (III) ClF3
(D) See-saw (IV) BF3
(1) (A) –(I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV) (2) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
(3) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (II), (D) - (I) (4) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
13. Identify the incorrect statement for PCl5 from the following.
(1) In this molecule, orbitals of phosphorous are assumed to undergo sp3d hybridization.
(2) The geometry of PCl5 is trigonal bipyramidal.
(3) PCl5 has two axial bonds stronger than three equatorial bonds.
(4) The three equatorial bonds of PCl5 lie in a plane.
16. In the structure of SF4, the lone pair of electrons on ‘S’ is in:
(1) equatorial position and there are two lone pairbond pair repulsions at 90°
(2) equatorial position and there are three lone pair-bond pair repulsions at 90°
(3) axial position and there are three lone pair - bond pair repulsion at 90°.
(4) axial position and there are two lone pair - bond pair repulsion at 90°.
17. Number of lone pair (s) of electrons on central atom and the shape of BrF3 olecule
respectively, are:
(1) 0, triangular planar. (2) 1, pyramidal.
(3) 2, bent T-shape. (4) 1, bent T -shape
18. Arrange the following in the decreasing order of their covalent character:
(A) LiCl (B) NaCl (C) KCl (D) CsCl
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) (A)> (C) > (B)> (D) (2) (B) >(A)> (C) > (D)
(3) (A)> (B) > (C) > (D) (4) (A)> (B) > (D) > (C)
19. Which of the following pair of molecules contain odd electron molecule and an expanded
octet molecule?
(1) BCl3 and SF6 (2) NO and H2SO4 (3) SF6 and H2SO4 (4) BCl3 and NO
20. The number of interhalogens from the following having square pyramidal structure is :
ANSWER KEY
4. The number of possible optical isomers for the complexes MA2B2 with sp3 and dsp2
hybridised metal atom, respectively, is:
Note: A and B are unidentate neutral and unidentate monoanionic ligands, respectively
(1) 0 and 0 (2) 0 and 2 (3) 0 and 1 (4) 2 and 2
6. The volume (in mL) of 0.125 M AgNO3 required to quantitatively precipitate chloride ions in
0.3 g of [Co(NH3)6]Cl3 is.
M = 267.46 g/mol
Co(NH3 ) Cl3
6
7. Among (a) – (d) the complexes that can display geometrical isomerism are:
(a) [Pt(NH3)3Cl]+ (b) [Pt(NH3)Cl5]– (c) [Pt(NH3)2Cl(NO2)] (d) [Pt(NH3)4ClBr]2+
(1) (d) and (a) (2) (a) and (b) (3) (b) and (c) (4) (c) and (d)
9. Complexes (ML5) of metals Ni and Fe have ideal square pyramidal and trigonal bipyramidal
grometries, respectively. The sum of the 90°, 120° and 180° L–M–L angles in the two
complexes is _____.
10. [Pd(F)(Cl)(Br)(I)]2– has n number of geometrical isomers. Then, the spin-only magnetic
moment and crystal field stabilisation energy [CFSE] of [Fe(CN)6]n–6, respectively, are:
[Note: Ignore the pairing energy]
(1) 2.84 BM and –1.6 ∆0 (2) 1.73 BM and –2.0 ∆0
(3) 0 BM and –2.4 ∆0 (4) 5.92 BM and 0
11. Complex X of composition Cr(H2O)6Cln has a spin only magnetic moment of 3.83 BM. It reacts
with AgNO3 and shows geometrical isomerism. The IUPAC nomenclature of X is:
(1) Tetraaquadichlorido chromium (III) chloride dihydrate
(2) Hexaaqua chromium (III) chloride
(3) Dichloridotetraaqua chromium (IV) chloride dihydrate
(4) Tetraaquadichlorido chromium (IV) chloride dihydrate
12. The correct order of the spin-only magnetic moments of the following complexes is:
(I) [Cr(H2O)6]Br2 (II) Na4[Fe(CN)6]
(III) Na3[Fe(C2O4)3] (∆0 > P) (IV) (Et4N)2[CoCl4]
(1) (III) > (I) > (II) > (IV) (2) (I) > (IV) > (III) > (II)
(3) (II) ≈ (I) > (IV) > (III) (4) (III) > (I) > (IV) > (II)
13. The isomer(s) of [Co(NH3)4Cl2] that has/have a Cl–Co–Cl angle of 90°, is/are:
(1) meridional and trans (2) cis and trans
(3) trans only (4) cis only
14. The species that has a spin only magnetic moment of 5.9 BM, is–
(1) Ni(CO)4(Td) (2) [MnBr4]2–(Td)
(3) [NiCl4]2–(Td) (4) [Ni(CN)4]2– (square planar)
15. For a d4 metal ion in an octahedral field, the correct electronic configuration is:
(1) t2g
4
e0
g
when ∆0 < P (2) t22g e2g when ∆0 < P
(3) t2g
3
eg1 when ∆0 < P (4) t2g
3
eg1 when ∆0 > P
16. Considering that ∆0 > P, the magnetic moment (in BM) of [Ru(H2O)6]2+ would be________.
17. Consider the complex ions, trans-[Co(en)2Cl2]+(A) and cis-[Co(en)2Cl2]+ (B). The correct
statement regarding them is:
(1) both (A) and (B) can be optically active
(2) both (A) and (B) cannot be optically active
(3) (A) can be optically active, but (B) cannot be optically active
(4) (A) cannot be optically active, but (B) can be optically active
19. The values of the crystal field stabilization energies for a high spin d6 metal ion in octahedral
and tetrahedral fields, respectively, are:
(1) –0.4 ∆0 and –0.27 ∆t (2) –1.6 ∆0 and –0.4 ∆t
(3) –0.4 ∆0 and –0.6 ∆t (4) –2.4 ∆0 and –0.6 ∆t
20. The molecule in which hybrid MOs involve only one d-orbital of the central atom is:
(1) [Ni(CN)4]2– (2) [CrF6]3– (3) BrF5 (4) XeF4
21. The one that can exhibit highest paramagnetic behaviour among the following is:
gly = glycinato; bpy = 2, 2'-bipyridine
(1) [Pd(gly)2] (2) [Ti(NH3)6]3+
(3) [Co(OX)2(OH)2]– (∆0 > P) (4) [Fe(en)(bpy)(NH3)2]2+
22. The crystal Field stabilization Energy (CFSE) of [CoF3(H2O)3] (∆0 < P) is:
(1) –0.8 ∆0 (2) –0.4 ∆0 + P (3) –0.8 ∆0 + 2P (4) –0.4 ∆0
23. The pair in which both the species have the same magnetic moment (spin only) is:
(1) [Mn(H2O)6]2+ and [Cr(H2O)]2+ (2) [Cr(H2O)6]2+ and [CoCl4]2–
(3) [Cr(H2O)6] and [Fe(H2O)6]
2+ 2+
(4) [Co(OH)4]2– and [Fe(NH3)6]2+
25. Complex A has a composition of H12O6Cl3Cr. If the complex on treatment with conc. H2SO4
loses 13.5% of its original mass, the correct molecular formula of A is:
[Given: atomic mass of Cr = 52 amu and Cl = 35 amu]
(1) [Cr(H2O)5Cl]Cl2 · H2O (2) [Cr(H2O)3Cl3] · 3H2O
(3) [Cr(H2O)4Cl2]Cl · 2H2O (4) [Cr(H2O)6]Cl3
27. The electronic spectrum of [Ti(H2O)6]3+ shows a single broad peak with a maximum at 20,300
cm–1. The crystal field stabilization energy (CFSE) of the complex ion, in kJ mol–1, is:
(1) 242.5 (2) 83.7 (3) 145.5 (4) 97
30. For octahedral Mn(II) and tetrahedral Ni(II) complexes, consider the following statements:
(I) both the complexes can be high spin
(II) Ni(II) complex can very rarely be low spin.
(III) with strong field ligands, Mn(II) complexes can be low spin.
(IV) aqueous solution of Mn(II) ions is yellow in color.
31. Consider that a d6 metal ion (M2+) forms a complex with aqua ligands, and the spin only
magnetic moment of the complex is 4.90 BM. The geometry and the crystal field stabilization
energy of the complex is:
(1) tetrahedral and –1.6 ∆t + 1P (2) tetrahedral and –0.6 ∆t
(3) octahedral and –1.6 ∆0 (4) octahedral and –2.4 ∆0 + 2P
32. The oxidation states of iron atoms in compounds (A), (B) and (C), respectively, are x, y and
z. The sum of x,y and z is.
Na4[Fe(CN)5NOS)] Na4[FeO4] [Fe2(CO)9]
(A) (B) (C)
33. Simplified absorption spectra of three complexes Mn+ ((i), (ii) and (iii)) of Mn+ ion are provided
below; their λmax values are marked as A, B and C respectively. The correct match between
the complexes and their λmax values is:
ANSWER KEY
2. The hybridization and magnetic nature of [Mn(CN)6]4− and [Fe(CN)6]3−, respectively are:
(1) d2sp3 and paramagnetic
(2) sp3d2 and paramagnetic
(3) d2sp3 and diamagnetic
(4) sp3d2 and diamagnetic
4. If which of the following order the given complex ions are arranged correctly with respect
to their decreasing spin only magnetic moment?
(i) [FeF6]3− (ii) [Co(NH3)6]3+ (iii) [NiCl4]2− (iv) [Cu(NH3)4]2+
(1) (ii) > (i) > (iii) > (iv) (2) (iii) > (iv) > (ii) > (i)
(3) (ii) > (iii) > (i) > (iv) (4) (i) > (iii) > (iv) > (ii)
5. The spin only magnetic moment of a divalent ion in aqueous solution (atomic number 29) is
____ BM.
7. The number of stereoisomers possible for [Co(Ox)2(Br) (NH3)]2− is ____ [Ox = oxalate]
8. The equivalents of ethylene diamine required to replace the neutral ligands from the
coordination sphere of the trans-complex of CoCl3·4NH3 is____.
(Round off to the Nearest Integer).
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
12. The total number of unpaired electrons present in the complex K3[Cr(oxalate)3] is____.
13. The secondary valency and the number of hydrogen bonded water molecule(s) in CuSO4 ⋅
5H2O, respectively, are
(1) 6 and 4 (2) 4 and 1 (3) 6 and 5 (4) 5 and 1
14. On complete reaction of FeCl3 with oxalic acid in aqueous solution containing KOH, resulted
in the formation of product A. The secondary valency of Fe in the product A is ____
ANSWER KEY
2. In the cobalt-carbonyl complex: [Co2(CO)8], number of Co–Co bonds is "X" and terminal CO
ligands is "Y". X + Y =__
3. Transition metal complex with highest value of crystal field splitting (∆0) will be
(1) [Cr(H2O)6]3+ (2) [Mo(H2O)6]3+ (3) [Fe(H2O)6]3+ (4) [Os(H2O)6]3+
4. White precipitate of AgCl dissolves in aqueous ammonia solution due to formation of:
(1) [Ag(NH3)4]Cl2 (2) [Ag(Cl)2(NH3)2] (3) [Ag(NH3)2]Cl (4) [Ag(NH3)Cl]Cl
6. Amongst FeCl3.3H2O, K3[Fe(CN)6] and [Co(NH3)6]Cl3, the spin-only magnetic moment value of
the inner-orbital complex that absorbs light at shortest wavelength is _____ B.M.
[nearest integer]
9. Reaction of [Co(H2O)6]2+ with excess ammonia and in the presence of oxygen results into a
diamagnetic product. Number of electrons present in t2g orbitals of the product is____.
10. Which of the following will have maximum stabilization due to crystal field?
(1) [Ti(H2O)6]3+ (2) [Co(H2O)6]2+ (3) [Co(CN)6]3– (4) [Cu(NH3)4]2+
11. Arrange the following coordination compounds in the increasing order of magnetic moments.
(Atomic numbers: Mn= 25; Fe= 26)
(A) [FeF6]3– (B) [Fe(CN)6]3– (C) [MnCl6]3– (high spin) (D) [Mn(CN)6]3–
Choose the correct answer from options given below
(1) A < B < D < C (2) B < D < C < A (3) A< C < D < B (4) B < D < A < C
13. Number of complexes which will exhibit synergic bonding amongst, [Cr(CO)6], [Mn(CO)5] and
[Mn2(CO)10] is______.
15. (a) CoCl3·4NH3 (b) CoCl3·5NH3 (c) COCl3·6NH3 and (d) COCl(NO3)2·5NH3
Number of complex(es) which will exist in cis trans is/are
17. Spin only magnetic moment of [MnBr6]4– is _____B.M. (round off to the closest integer)
19. The correct order of energy of absorption for the following metal complexes is
A: [Ni(en)3]2+, B: [Ni(NH3)6]2+, C: [Ni(H2O)6]2+
(1) C < B < A (2) B < C < A (3) C < A < B (4) A < C < B
20. The difference between spin only magnetic moment values of [Co(H2O)6]Cl2 and [Cr(H2O)6]Cl3
is.
23. Low oxidation state of metals in their complexes are common when ligands:
(1) have good π -accepting character (2) have good σ -donor character
(3) are havind good π -donating ability (4) are havind poor σ -donating ability
24. Fe3+ cation gives a prussian blue precipitate on addition of potassium ferrocyanide solution
due to the formation of:
(1) [Fe(H2O)6]2 [Fe(CN)6] (2) Fe2[Fe(CN)6]2
(3) Fe3[Fe(OH)2(CN)4]2 (4) Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3
25. The spin only magnetic moment of the complex present In Fehling' s reagent is _____ B.M.
(Nearest integer).
26. Total number of relatively more stable isomer(s) possible for octahedral complex
[Cu(en)2(SCN)2] will be______.
28. [Fe(CN)6]3– should be an inner orbital complex. Ignoring the pairing energy, the value of
crystal field stabilization energy for this complex is (—)____∆0- (Nearest integer)
29. Octahedral complexes of copper (II) undergo structural distortion (Jahn-Teller). Which one
of the given copper (II) complexes will show the maximum structural distortion?
(en-ethylenediamine; H2N—CH2—CH2—NH2)
(1) [Cu(H2O)6]SO4 (2) [Cu(en)(H2O)4]SO4
(3) cis-[Cu(en)2Cl2] (4) trans-[Cu(en)2Cl2]
30. Sum of oxidation state (magnitude) and coordination number of cobalt in Na[Co(bpy)Cl4]
is____.
(Given bpy = )
ANSWER KEY
2. The refining method used when the metal and the impurities have low and high melting
temperatures, respectively, is–
(1) zone refining (2) liquation
(3) vapour phase refining (4) distillation
3. Among the reactions (a) - (d), the reaction(s) that does/do not occur in the blast furnace
during the extraction of iron is/are:
(a) CaO + SiO2 → CaSiO3 (b) 3Fe2O3 + CO → 2Fe3O4 + CO2
1
(c) FeO + SiO2 → FeSiO3 (d) FeO → Fe + O2
2
(1) (c) and (d) (2) (a) and (d) (3) (d) (4) (a)
(3) the temperature dependence of the standard Gibbs energies of formation of some metal
oxides.
(4) the conditions of pH and potential under which a species is thermodynamically stable.
8. The processes of calcination and roasting in metallurgical industries, respectively, can lead
to:
(1) Global warming and acid rain
(2) Photochemical smog and ozone layer depletion
(3) Global warming and photochemical smog
(4) Photochemical smog and global warming
(1) (c) and (d) only (2) (a), (c) and (d) only
(3) (b), (c) and (d) only (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
2. Which of the following reduction reaction CANNOT be carried out with coke?
(1) Al2O3 → Al (2) ZnO → Zn
(3) Fe2O3 → Fe (4) Cu2O → Cu
3. The point of intersection and sudden increase in the slope, in the diagram given below,
respectively, indicates:
5. The chemical that is added to reduce the melting point of the reaction mixture during the
extraction of aluminium is:
(1) Cryolite (2) Bauxite
(3) Calamine (4) Kaolite Official
9. Al2O3 was leached with alkali to get X. The solution of X on passing of gas Y, forms Z. X , Y
and Z respectively are:
(1) X = Na [Al(OH)4] , Y = CO2, Z = Al2O3 ⋅ xH2O
(2) X = Na [Al(OH)4] , Y = SO2, Z = Al2O3
(3) X = Al(OH)3, Y = SO2, Z = Al2O3 ⋅ xH2O
(4) X = Al(OH)3, Y = CO2, Z = Al2O3
ANSWER KEY
List-I List-II
(A) Sphalerite (I) FeCO3
(B) Calamine (II) PbS
(C) Galena (III) ZnCO3
(D) Siderite (IV) ZnS
Choose the most appropriate answer form the options given below:
(1) (A) - (IV), (B)- (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I) (2) (A) - (IV), (B)- (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (III)
(3) (A) - (II), (B)- (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV) (4) (A) - (III), (B)- (IV), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)
3. (a) Baryte, (b) Galena, (c) Zinc blende and (d) Copper Pyrites. How many of these minerals
are sulphide based?
4. Leaching of gold with dilute aqueous solution of NaCN in presence of oxygen gives complex
[A], which on reaction with zinc forms the elemental gold and another complex [B]. [A] and
[B], respectively are:
(1) [Au(CN)4]– and [Zn(CN)2 (OH)2]2– (2) [Au(CN)2]– and [Zn(OH)4]2–
(3) [Au(CN)2]– and [Zn(CN)4]2– (4) [Au(CN)4]2– and [Zn(CN)6]4–
9. Statement I: Leaching of gold with cyanide ion in absence of air /O2 leads to cyano complex
of Au(III).
Statement II: Zinc is oxidized during the displacement reaction carried out gold extraction.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given
below.
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(3) statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(4) statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
12. In isolation of which one of the following metals from their ores, the use of cyanide salt is
not commonly involved?
(1) Zinc (2) Gold (3) Silver (4) Copper
14. The compound(s) that is(are) removed as slag during the extraction of copper is :
(1) CaO (2) FeO (3) Al2O3 (4) ZnO (5) NiO
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) (3) (4) Only (2) (1), (2), (5) Only (3) (1), (2) Only (4) (2) Only
16. Refining using liquation method is the suitable for metals with:
(1) Low melting point
(2) High boiling point
(3) High electrical conductivity
(4) Less tendency to be soluble in melts than impurities
JEE Mains (Previous Year Questions) 2020-21-22 27
17. The metal that is not extracted from its sulphide ore is:
(1) Aluminium (2) Lead (3) Iron (4) Zinc
18. Which of the following methods are not used to refine any metal?
(A) Liquation (B) Calcination
(C) Electrolysis (D) Leaching (E) Distillation
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) B and D only (2) B, D and E only
(3) A, B, D and E only (4) A, C and E only
19. Among the following ores Bauxite, Siderite, Cuprite, Calamine, Haematite, Kaolinite,
Malachite, Magnetite, Sphalerite, Limonite, Cryolite, the number of principal ores if (of) iron
is___
20. Which of the reaction is suitable for concentrating ore by leaching process?
(1) 2Cu2S + 302 → 2Cu2O + 2SO2 (2) Fe3O4 +CO → 3FeO+CO2
(3) Al2O3 + 2NaOH + 3H20 → 2Na[ Al(OH)4 (4) Al2O3 +6Mg → 6Mg0+4Al
2. The one that is NOT suitable for the removal of permanent hardness of water is:
(1) Treatment with sodium carbonate (2) Calgon's method
(3) Clark's method (4) Ion-exchange method
ANSWER KEY
1. (1) 2. (3)
4. Calgon is used for water treatment. Which of the following statement is NOT true about
calgon?
(1) Calgon contains the 2nd most abundant element by weight in the earth's crust.
(2) It is also known as Graham's salt.
(3) It is polymeric compound and is water soluble.
(4) It does not remove Ca+2 ion by precipitation.
ANSWER KEY
4. Hydrogen has three isotopes protium (1H), deuterium (2H or D) and tritium (3H or T). They
have nearly same chemical properties but different physical properties. They differ in
(1) number of protons (2) atomic number
(3) electronic configuration (4) atomic mass
5. Which one of the following reactions indicates the reducing ability of hydrogen peroxide in
basic medium?
(1) HOCl + H2O2 → H3O+ + Cl– + O2
(2) PbS + 4H2O2 → PbSO4 + 4H2O
(3) 2MnO4− +3H2O2 → 2MnO2 +3O2 +2H2O+2OH–
(4) Mn2+ + H2O2 → Mn4+ + 2OH–
ANSWER KEY
3. A metal (A) on heating in nitrogen gas gives compound B. B on treatment with H2O gives a
colourless gas which when passed through CuSO4 solution gives a dark blue-violet coloured
solution. A and B respectively, are:
(1) Mg and Mg3N2 (2) Na and NaNO3
(3) Mg and Mg(NO3)2 (4) Na and Na3N
(1) (I)-(D), (II)-(A), (III)-(C), (IV)-(B) (2) I)-(B), (II)-(C), (III)-(D), (IV)-(A)
(3) (I)-(C), (II)-(D), (III)-(B), (IV)-(A) (4) (I)-(B), (II)-(D), (III)-(A), (IV)-(C)
6. An alkaline earth metal 'M' readily forms water soluble sulphate and water insoluble
hydroxide. Its oxide MO is very stable to heat and does not have rock-salt structure. M is:
(1) Ca (2) Be (3) Mg (4) Sr
7. On combustion Li, Na and K in excess of air, the major oxides formed, respectively, are:
(1) Li2O, Na2O and K2O2 (2) Li2O, Na2O2 and K2O
(3) Li2O, Na2O2 and KO2 (4) Li2O2, Na2O2 and K2O2
8. If you spill a chemical toilet cleaning liquid on your hand, your first aid would be:
(1) aqueous NH3 (2) vinegar
(3) aqueous NaHCO3 (4) aqueous NaOH
10. Two elements A and B have similar chemical properties. They don't form solid hydrogen
carbonates, but react with nitrogen to form nitrides. A and B, respectively, are:
(1) Na and C (2) Li and Mg (3) Cs and Ba (4) Na and Rb
ANSWER KEY
3. The Correct set from the following in which both pairs are in correct order of melting point
is
(1) LiF > LiCl; NaCl > MgO (2) LiF > LiCl; MgO > NaCl
(3) LiCl > LiF; NaCl > MgO (4) LiCl > LiF; MgO > NaCl
4. Among the following, number of metal/s which can be used as electrodes in the
photoelectric cell is ____ (Integer answer).
(A) Li (B) Na (C) Rb (D) Cs
8. The functional groups that are responsible for the ion-exchange property of cation and anion
exchange resins, respectively, are:
(1) −SO3H and −NH2 (2) −SO3H and −COOH
(3) −NH2 and −COOH (4) −NH2 and −SO3H
9. One of the by-products formed during the recovery of NH3 from Solvay process is :
(1) Ca(OH)2 (2) NaHCO3 (3) CaCl2 (4) NH4Cl
ANSWER KEY
3. In the flame test of a mixture of salts, a green flame with blue centre was observed. Which
one of the following cations may be present?
(1) Cu2+ (2) Sr2+ (3) Ba2+ (4) Ca2+
4. Which one of the following alkaline earth metal ions has the highest ionic mobility in its
aqueous solution?
(1) Be2+ (2) Mg2+ (3) Ca2+ (4) Sr2+
9. BeO reacts with HF in presence of ammonia to give [A] which on thermal decomposition
produces [B] and ammonium fluorides. Oxidation state of Be in [A] is _________
11. Amongst baking soda, caustic soda and washing soda carbonate anion is present in:
(1) washing soda only.
(2) washing soda and caustic soda only.
(3) washing soda and baking soda only.
(4) baking soda, caustic soda and washing soda.
14. Which of the following can be used to prevent the decomposition of H2O2?
(1) Urea (2) Formaldehyde (3) Formic acid (4) Ethanol
15. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R.
Assertion A: LiF is sparingly soluble in water.
Reason R: The ionic radius of Li+ ion is smallest among its group members, hence has least
hydration enthalpy.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options
given below.
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true
18. The products obtained during treatment of hard water using Clark's method are:
(1) CaCO3 and MgCO3 (2) Ca(OH)2 and Mg(OH)2
(3) CaCO3 and Mg(OH)2 (4) Ca(OH)2 and MgCO3
19. Statement I: An alloy of lithium and magnesium is used to make aircraft plates.
Statement II: The magnesium ions are important for cell-membrane integrity.
In the light the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
20. Lithium nitrate and sodium nitrate, when heated separately, respectively, give:
(1) LiNO2 and NaNO2 (2) Li2O and Na2O
(3) Li2O and NaNO2 (4) LiNO2 and Na2O
21. Portland cement contains 'X' to enhance the setting time. What is 'X'?
1
(1) CaSO4. H2O (2) CaSO4.2H2O (3) CaSO4 (4) CaCO3
2
2 4 2 2
Determine total number of atoms in per unit formula of (A), (B) & (C)
3. Assertion: It has been found that for hydrogenation reaction the catalytic activity increases
from group- 5 to group-11 metals with maximum activity being shown by groups 7-9
elements of the periodic table.
Reason: For 7-9 group elements adsorption rate is maximum.
(1) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is not correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true & reason is false.
(4) Both are incorrect
4. Total number of Cr–O bonds in Chromate ion and dichromate ion is.
5. The oxidation states of transition metal atoms in K2Cr2O7, KMnO4 and K2FeO4, respectively,
are x, y and z. The sum of x, y and z is
8. The correct electronic configuration and spinonly magnetic moment (BM) of Gd3+ (Z = 64)
respectively, are
(1) [Xe]5f7 and 8.9 (2) [Xe]4f7 and 7.9 (3) [Xe]5f7 and 7.9 (4) [Xe]4f7 and 8.9
12. The sum of the total number of bonds between chromium and oxygen atoms in chromate
and dichromate ions is
ANSWER KEY
2. What is the correct order of the following elements with respect to their density?
(1) Cr < Fe < Co < Cu < Zn (2) Cr < Zn < Co < Cu < Fe
(3) Zn < Cu < Co < Fe < Cr (4) Zn < Cr < Fe < Co < Cu
3. In which of the following pairs, the outer most electronic configuration will be the same?
(1) Fe2+ and Co+ (2) Cr+ and Mn2+ (3) Ni2+ and Cu+ (4) V2+ and Cr+
4. On treating a compound with warm dil. H2SO4, gas X is evolved which turns K2Cr2O7 paper
acidified with dil. H2SO4 to a green compound Y. X and Y respectively are:
(1) X = SO2, Y = Cr2(SO4)3 (2) X = SO2, Y = Cr2O3
(3) X = SO3, Y = Cr2O3 (4) X = SO3, Y = Cr2(SO4)3
6. Dichromate ion is treated with base, the oxidation number of Cr in the product formed is :
7. Given below are two statement: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R:
Assertion A: Size of Bk3+ ion is less than Np3+ ion.
Reason R: The above is a consequence of the lanthanoid contraction.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given
below
(1) A is false but R is true
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(4) A is true but R is false
9. When 35 mL of 0.15M lead nitrate solution is mixed with 20 mL of 0.12M chromic sulphate
solution, ___ × 10–5 moles of lead sulphate precipitate out. (Round off to the Nearest Integer).
11. The common positive oxidation states for an element with atomic number 24 are:
(1) +2 to +6 (2) +1 and +3 to +6 (3) +1 and +3 (4) +1 to +6
ANSWER KEY
2. Manganese (VI) has ability to disproportionate in acidic solution. The difference in oxidation
states of two ions it forms in acidic solution is
3. Cerium (IV) has a noble gas configuration. Which of the following is correct statement about
it?
(1) It will not prefer to undergo redox reactions.
(2) It will prefer to gain electron and act as an oxidizing agent
(3) It will prefer to give away an electron and behave as reducing agent
(4) It acts as both, oxidizing and reducing agent.
5. The metal ion (in gaseous state) with lowest spin- only magnetic moment value is
(1) V2+ (2) Ni2+ (3) Cr2+ (4) Fe2+
7. The most common oxidation state of Lanthanoid elements is + 3. Which of the following is
likely to deviate easily from+ 3 oxidation state?
(1) Ce (At. No. 58) (2) La (At. No. 57) (3) Lu (At. No. 71) (4) Gd (At. No. 64)
8. The number of statement(s) correct from the following for copper (at no. 29) is/are ___
(1) Cu(II) complexes are always paramagnetic
(2) Cu(I) complexes are generally colourless
(3) Cu(I) is easily oxidized
(4) In Fehling solution, the active reagent has Cu(I)
9. Acidified potassium permanganate solution oxidises oxalic acid. The spin-only magnetic
moment of the manganese product formed from the above reaction is B.M. (Nearest Integer)
10. The 'f orbitals are half and completely filled, respectively in lanthanide ions
(Given: Atomic no. Eu, 63; Sm, 62; Tm, 69; Tb, 65; Yb, 70; Dy, 66]
(1) Eu2+ and Tm2+ (2) Tb4+ and Yb2+ (3) Sm2+ and Tm3+ (4) Dy3+ and Yb3+
12. Which one of the lanthanoids given below is the most stable in divalent form? :
(1) Ce (Atomic Number 58) (2) Sm (Atomic Number 62)
(3) Eu (Atomic Number 63) (4) Yb (Atomic Number 70)
13. The number of terminal oxygen atoms present in the product B obtained from the following
reaction is _____.
FeCr2O4 + Na2CO3+ O2 → A+ Fe2O3 + CO2 A + H+ → B + H2O + Na+
15. The reaction of H2O2 with potassium permanganate In acidic medium leads to the formation
of mainly:
(1) Mn2+ (2) Mn4+ (3) Mn3+ (4) Mn6+
16. Among Co3+, Ti2+, V2+ and Cr2+ ions, one if used as a reagent cannot liberate H2 from dilute
mineral acid solution, its spin-only magnetic moment in gaseous state is ...... B.M.
(Nearest integer)
17. The products obtained from a reaction of hydrogen peroxide and acidified potassium
permanganate are
(1) Mn4+, H2O only (2) Mn2+, H2O only
(3) Mn , H2O, O2 only
4+
(4) Mn2+, H2O, O2 only
18. The spin-only magnetic moment value of the compound with strongest oxidizing ability
among MnF4, MnF3 and MnF2 is B.M. [Nearest integer]
21. In the titration of KMnO4 and oxalic acid in acidic medium, the change in oxidation number
of carbon at the end point is_______
23. The oxidation state of manganese in the product obtained in a reaction of potassium
permanganate and hydrogen peroxide in basic medium is __________
24. Which of the following has least tendency to liberate H2 from mineral acids?
(1) Cu (2) Mn (3) Ni (4) Zn
25. The disproportionation of MnO24− in acidic medium resulted in the formation of two
manganese compounds A and B. If the oxidation state of Mn in B is smaller than that of A,
then the spin-only magnetic moment (μ) value of B in BM is ____________. (Nearest Integer)
27. The reaction of zinc with excess of aqueous alkali, evolves hydrogen gas and gives:
(1) Zn(OH)2 (2) ZnO (3) [Zn(OH)4]2– (4) [ZnO2]2–
28. In following pairs, the one in which both transition metal ions are colourless is:
(1) Sc3+, Zn2+ (2) Ti4+, Cu2+ (3) V2+, Ti3+ (1) Zn2+, Mn2+
29. In neutral or faintly alkaline medium, KMnO4 being a powerful oxidant can oxidize,
thiosulphate almost quantitatively, to sulphate. In this reaction overall change in oxidation
state of manganese will be:
(1) 5 (2) 1 (3) 0 (4) 3
30. Which of the following 3d-metal ion will give the lowest enthalpy of hydration (∆hydH) when
dissolved in water?
(1) Cr2+ (2) Mn2+ (3) Fe2+ (4) Co2+
4. The number of bonds between sulphur and oxygen atoms in S2O82– and the number of bonds
between sulphur and sulphur atoms in rhombic sulphur, respectively, are:
(1) 4 and 8 (2) 4 and 6 (3) 8 and 8 (4) 8 and 6
6. The reaction of H3N3B3Cl3 (A) with LiBH4 in tetrahydrofuran gives inorganic benzene (B).
Further, the reaction of (A) with (C) leads to H3N3B3(Me)3. Compounds (B) and (C) respectively,
are:
(1) Boron nitride and MeBr (2) Borazine and MeMgBr
(3) Borazine and MeBr (4) Diborane and MeMgBr
10. The equation that represents the water-gas shift reaction is:
673
(1) CO(g) + H2O(g)
Catalyst
→ CO2(g) + H2(g)
1270 K
(2) CH4(g) + H2O(g)
Ni
→ CO(g) + 3H2(g)
1270 K
(3) C(s) + H2O(g) → CO(g) + H2(g)
1273 K
(4) 2C(s) + O2(g) + 4N2(g) → 2CO(g) + 4N2(g)
11. On heating, lead(II) nitrate gives a brown gas (A). The gas (A) on cooling changes to a
colourless solid/liquid (B). (B) on heating with NO changes to a blue solid (C). The oxidation
number of nitrogen in solid (C) is:
(1) +5 (2) +2 (3) +4 (4) +3
13. On heating compound (A) gives a gas (B) which is constituent of air. This gas when treated
with H2 in the presence of a catalyst gives another gas (C) which is basic in nature.
(A) should not be:
(1) (NH4)2Cr2O7 (2) Pb(NO3)2 (3) NaN3 (4) NH4NO2
ANSWER KEY
5. A group 15 element, which is a metal and forms a hydride with strongest reducing power
among group 15 hydrides. The element is:
(1) Sb (2) P (3) As (4) Bi
6. The number of ionisable hydrogens present in the product obtained from a reaction of
phosphorus trichloride and phosphonic acid is:
(1) 3 (2) 0 (3) 2 (4) 1
11. The set that represents the pair of neutral oxides of nitrogen is:
(1) NO and N2O (B) N2O and N2O3 (3) N2O and NO2 (4) NO and NO2
13. The oxidation states of nitrogen in NO, NO2, N2O and NO3− are in the order of:
(1) NO3− > NO2 > NO > N2O (2) NO2 > NO3− > NO > N2O
(3) N2O > NO2 > NO > NO3− (4) NO > NO2 > N2O > NO3−
14. A xenon compound 'A' upon partial hydrolysis gives XeO2F2. The number of lone pair of
electrons present in compound A is________ (Round off to the Nearest integer)
16. Among the following allotropic forms of sulphur, the number of allotropic forms, which will
show paramagnetism is
(1) α -sulphur (2) β -sulphur (3) S2 -form
18. Among the following, the number of halide(s) which is/are inert to hydrolysis is
(A) BF3 (B) SiCl4 (C) PCl5 (D) SF3
20. Which of the following compound is added to the sodium extract before addition of silver
nitrate for testing of halogens?
(1) Nitric acid (2) Sodium hydroxide
(3) Hydrochloric acid (4) Ammonia
21. Compound A used as a strong oxidizing agent is amphoteric in nature. It is the part of lead
storage batteries compound is:
(1) Pb3O4 (2) PbO2 (3) PbSO4 (4) PbO
ANSWER KEY
2. The number of bridged oxygen atoms present in compound B formed from the following
reactions is
Pb(NO3)2
673 K
→ A+ PbO + O2
A
Dimerise
→ B
(1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 3
3. Aqueous solution of which of the following boron compounds will be strongly basic in
nature?
(1) NaBH4 (2) LiBH4 (3) B2H6 (4) Na2B4O7
4. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R.
Assertion A: Boric acid is a weak acid
Reason R: Boric acid is not able to release H+ ion on its own. It receives OH– ion from water
and releases H+ ion.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options
given below.
(1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(2) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(3) A is correct but R is not correct
(4) A is not correct but R is correct
7. On reaction with stronger oxidizing agent like KIO4, hydrogen peroxide oxidizes with the
evolution of O2. The oxidation number of I in KIO4 changes to_____.
9. The geometry around boron in the product 'B' formed from the following reaction is
BF3 + NaH
450K
→ A + NaF
A + NMe3 → B
(1) trigonal planar (2) tetrahedral (3) pyramidal (4) square planar
10. Borazine, also known as inorganic benzene, can be prepared by the reaction of 3-equivalents
of "X" with 6-equivalents of "Y". "X" and "Y", respectively are:
(1) B(OH)3 and NH3 (2) B2H6 and NH3 (3) B2H6 and HN3 (4) NH3 and B2O3
11. The metal that has very low melting point and its periodic position is closer to a metalloid
is:
(1) Al (2) Ga (3) Se (4) In
14. When borax is heated with CoO on a platinum loop, blue coloured bead formed is largely
due to:
(1) B2O3 (2) Co(BO2)2 (3) CoB4O7 (4) Co[B4O5(OH)4]
15. Number of electron deficient molecules among the following PH3, B2H6, CCl4, LiH and BCl3 is
(1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 3
16. Choose the correct stability order of group 13 elements in their +1-oxidation state.
(1) Al < Ga < In < Tl (2) Tl < In< Ga < Al
(3) Al < Ga< Tl < In (4) Al < Tl < Ga < In
18. The interhalogen compound formed from the reaction of bromine with excess of fluorine is a:
(1) hypohalite (2) halate (3) perhalate (4) halite
19. The number of non-ionisable protons present in the product B obtained from the following
reaction is. _______ C2H5OH + PCl3 → C2H5Cl + A
A + PCl3 → B
20. Which oxoacid of phosphorous has the highest number of oxygen atoms present in its
chemical formula?
(1) Pyrophosphorous acid (2) Hypophosphoric acid
(3) Phosphoric acid (4) Pyrophosphoric acid
22. Match List -I with List–II, match evolved during each reaction.
List-I List-II
(A) (NH4)2Cr2O7
→ ∆ (I) H2
(B) KMnO4 + HCl → (II) N2
(C) Al + NaOH + H2O → (III) O2
(D) NaNO3
→ ∆ (IV) Cl2
24. Dinitrogen and dioxygen. the main constituents of air do not react with each other in
atmosphere to form oxides of nitrogen because
(1) N2 is unreactive in the condition of atmosphere.
(2) Oxides of nitrogen are unstable.
(3) Reaction between them can occur in the presence of a catalyst.
(4) The reaction is endothermic and require very high temperature.
25. Dinitrogen is a robust compound, but reacts at high altitude to form oxides. The oxide of
nitrogen that can damage plant leaves and retard photosynthesis is :
(1) NO (2) NO3− (3) NO2 (4) NO2−
28. Identify the correct statement for B2H6 from those given below.
(A) In B2H6, all B-H bonds are equivalent.
(B) In B2H6 there are four 3-centre-2-electron bonds.
(C) B2H6 is a Lewis acid.
(D) B2H6 can be synthesized form both BF3 and NaBH4.
(E) B2H6 is a planar molecule.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) (A) and (E) only (3) (C) and (D) only
(2) (A), (C) and (E) only (4) (C) and (E) only
29. Which one of the following elemental forms is not present in the enamel of the teeth?
(1) Ca2+ (2) P3+ (3) F– (4) P5+
32. The correct order of melting points of hydrides of group 16 elements is:
(1) H2S < H2Se < H2Te < H2O (2) H2O < H2S < H2Se < H2Te
(3) H2S < H2Te < H2Se < H2O (4) H2Se < H2S < H2Te < H2O
36. Heating white phosphorus with conc. NaOH at solution gives mainly
(1) Na3P and H2O (2) H3PO and NaH
(3) P(OH)3 and NaH2PO4 (4) PH3 and NaH2PO2
37. The gas produced by treating an aqueous solution of ammonium chloride with sodium nitrite
is
(1) NH3 (2) N2 (3) N2O (4) Cl2
38. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R.
Assertion A: Flourine forms one oxoacid.
Reason R: Flourine has smallest size amongst all halogens and is highly electronegative
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options
given below.
(1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(2) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is correct but R is not correct.
(4) A is not correct but R is correct
JEE Mains (Previous Year Questions) 2020-21-22 49
39. On the surface of polar stratospheric clouds, hydrolysis of chlorine nitrate gives A and B
while its reaction with HCl produces B and C. A, B and C are, respectively
(1) HOCl, HNO3, Cl2 (2) Cl2, HNO3, HOCl
(3) HClO2, HNO2, HOCl (4) HOCl, HNO2, Cl2O
43. Among the given oxides of nitrogen; N2O, N2O3, N2O4 and N2O5, the number of compound/(s)
having N—N bond is:
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
44. Which of the following oxoacids of Sulphur contains "S" in two different oxidation states?
(1) H2S2O3 (2) H2S2O6 (3) H2S2O7 (4) H2S2O8
45. The oxoacid of phosphorus that is easily obtained from a reaction of alkali and white
phosphorus and has two P-H bonds, is:
(1) Phosphonic acid (2) Phosphinic acid
(3) Pyrophosphorus acid (4) Hypophosphoric acid
46. The acid that is believed to be mainly responsible for the damage of Taj Mahal is
(1) Sulfuric acid (2) Hydrofluoric acid (3) Phosphoric acid (4) Hydrochloric acid
ANSWER KEY
5. The incorrect statement(s) among (a) - (d) regarding acid rain is (are)
(a) It can corrode water pipes.
(b) It can damage structures made up of stone.
(c) It cannot cause respiratory ailments in animals.
(d) It is not harmful for trees
(1) (a), (c) and (d) (2) (a), (b) and (d) (3) (c) and (d) (4) (c) only
7. The presence of soluble fluoride ion upto 1 ppm concentration in drinking water, is
(1) safe for teeth (2) harmful to skin (3) harmful for teeth (4) harmful to bones
8. Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) is the amount of oxygen required (in ppm):
(1) For the photochemical breakdown of waste present in 1m3 volume of a water body.
(2) for sustaining life in a water body.
(3) by bacteria to break-down organic waste in a certain volume of a water sample.
(4) by anaerobic bacteria to breakdown inorganic waste present in a water body.
ANSWER KEY
6. The type of pollution that gets increased during the day time and in the presence O3 of is:
(1) Reducing smog (2) Oxidising smog (3) Global warming (4) Acid rain Official
ANSWER KEY
7. Sulphur dioxide is one of the components of polluted air. SO2 is also a major contributor to
acid rain. The correct and complete reaction to represent acid rain caused by SO2 is:
(1) 2SO2 + O2 → 2SO3 (2) SO2 + O3 → SO3 + O2
(3) SO2 + H2O2 → H2SO4 (4) 2SO2 + O2 + 2H2O → 2H2SO4
ANSWER KEY
1. (2) 2. (2)
2. What is the spin-only magnetic moment value (BM) of a divalent metal ion with atomic
number 25, in it's aqueous solution?
(1) 5.92 (2) 5 (3) zero (4) 5.26
3. In the ground state of atomic Fe(Z = 26), the spin-only magnetic moment is ____ ×10−1 BM.
(Round off to the Nearest Integer).
[Given: 3 = 1.73, 2 = 1.41]
ANSWER KEY
7. Given below are two statements. One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R.
Assertion A: Energy of 2s orbital of hydrogen atom is greater than that of 2s orbital of
lithium.
Reason R: Energies of the orbitals in the same subshell decrease with increase in the atomic
number.
In the light of the above statements,
choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) A is false but R is true.
8. The correct decreasing order of energy, for the orbitals having, following set of quantum
numbers:
(A) n = 3, l = 0, ml = 0 (B) n = 4, l = 0, ml = 0
(C) n = 3, l = 1, ml = 0 (D) n = 3, l = 2, ml = 1
(1) (D) > (B) > (C) > (A) (2) (B) > (D) > (C) > (A)
(3) (C) > (B) > (D) > (A) (4) (B) > (C) > (D) > (A)
ANSWER KEY
3. Chlorine reacts with hot and concentrated NaOH and produces compound (X) and (Y).
Compound (X) gives white precipitate with silver nitrate solution. The average bond order
between Cl and O atoms in (Y) is:
ANSWER KEY
3. Which of the following compound is added to the sodium extract before addition of silver
nitrate for testing of halogens?
(1) Nitric acid (2) Ammonia (3) Hydrochloric acid (4) Sodium hydroxide
4. Reagent, 1-naphthylamine and sulphanilic acid in acetic acid is used for the detection of:
ANSWER KEY
1. During the qualitative analysis of salt with cation y2+ , addition of a reagent (X) to alkaline
solution of the salt gives a bright red precipitate. The reagent (X) and the cation (y2+)
present respectively are:
(1) Dimethylglyoxime and Ni2+ (2) Dimethylglyoxime and Co2+
(3) Nessler‟s reagent and Hg2+ (4) Nessler‟s reagent and Ni2+
ANSWER KEY
1. (4) 2. (1)