MSMSS - 2023: (For Class 9th) Set: A

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MSMSS – 2023

(For Class 9th)


SET : A
cqdysV Øekad ,oa
vks0,e0vkj0 Øekad
vuqØekad ¼vadksa esa½ % Booklet Serial No. &
Roll No. (In Figures) O. M. R. Serial No.
vuqØekad ¼'kCnksa esa½ %
Roll No. (In Words)
ijh{kk dsUnz dk uke %
Name of Examination Centre
vH;FkhZ dk uke % vH;FkhZ ds gLrk{kj %
Name of Candidate Signature of the Candidate
bl iz'u-iqfLrdk esa i`"Bksa dh la[;k iz'uksa dh la[;k le;
24 70 2½ hours
No. of Pages in this Question Booklet No. of Questions Time

fujh{kd ds gLrk{kj@Signature of the Invigilator :


vH;FkhZ dks 10 feuV dk le; iz'u-iqfLrdk ij Nis funs'Z kksa dks i<+u]s iz'u-i= cqdysV esa fn, x, iz'uksa ds lhfj;y uEcj psd djus] C;kSjk Hkjus ds fy, ,oa
cqdysV ds lHkh i`"Bksa dk voyksdu djus] misprint psd djus ds fy, fn;k tk,xkA ;fn iz'u&i= cqdysV esa iz'uksa ds lhfj;y uEcj xyr Nis gSa] i`"B miss
gS ;k dksbZ i`"B misprint gS rks rqjUr dsUnz v/kh{kd ls fuosnu djds iz'u-i= cqdysV cny ysAa bu 10 feuV ds i'pkr~ ;k ijh{kk lekIr gksus ds i'pkr~ dksbZ
nkok Lohdkj ugha fd;k tk,xkA bu 10 feuVksa ds vfrfjDr] iz'uksa ds mÙkj nsus o vafdr djus ds fy, iwjs 2½?kaVs dk le; fn;k tk,xkA

vH;fFkZ
vH;fFkZ;ksa ds fy, funsZ'k % INSTRUCTIONS FOR THE CANDIDATES :

1. mÙkj i=d (OMR) bl iz'u iqfLrdk ds vUnj j[kk 1. The OMR Answer Sheet is inside this Test Booklet.
gSA tc vkidks iz'u iqfLrdk [kksyus dks dgk tk,] rks When you are directed to open the Test Booklet, take out
mÙkj i=d fudky dj /;ku ls dsoy dkys ckWy IokbaV the Answer Sheet and fill the particulars carefully with
isu ls fooj.k HkjsaA black ball point pen only.
2. ijh{kk dh vof/k 2½ ?kaVs gS ,oa iz'u iqfLrdk esa 70 iz’u 2. The test is of 2½ hours duration and consists of
gSaA izR;sd iz'u ,d vad dk gSA dksbZ _.kkRed vadu 70 questions. Each question carries one mark. There is no
ugha gSA negative marking.
3. bl i`"B ij fooj.k vafdr djus ,oa mÙkj i=d ij 3. Use Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on
fu’kku yxkus ds fy, dsoy dkys ckWy IokbaV isu dk this page/marking responses in the Answer Sheet. The
iz;ksx djsaA vH;FkhZ iz'u-iqfLrdk dk mi;ksx djus ,oa candidate should remain careful in handling the question
mÙkj i=d dks Hkjus esa lko/kkuh cjrsaA nwljh iz'u- paper and in marking the answers on the answer sheet.
iqfLrdk ls
lsV çnku ugha dh tk,xhA Another booklet set will not be given.
4. ;g Hkh lqfuf’pr dj ysa fd iz'u iqfLrdk Øekad vkSj 4. Also ensure that your Test Booklet Serial No. and
mÙkj i=d Øekad ,d gh gSaA vxj ;g fHkUu gksa ;k Answer Sheet Serial No. are the same. In case of
iz'u iqfLrdk esa dksbZ i`"B Miss ;k Misprint gks rks discrepancy or any page is Miss or Misprint in test
vH;FkhZ nwljh iz’u-iqfLrdk vkSj mÙkj i=d ysus ds booklet, the candidate should immediately report the
fy, fujh{kd dks rqjUr voxr djok,A matter to the Invigilator for replacement of both the Test
Booklet and the Answer Sheet.

uksV % bl iqfLrdk ds vUr esa fn, x, 'ks"k funsZ'kksa dks Note : Read other remaining instructions given on the last
i<+saA page of this Booklet.
(2)
jQ dk;Z ds fy, / FOR ROUGH WORK
(3) A

1. In the question which of the 1. iz’u esa mÙkj vkd`fr;k¡ (1), (2), (3)
answer figures (1), (2), (3) and (4) vkSj (4) esa ls dkSu&lh vkd`fr fp=
will complete the picture matrix ? vkO;wg ¼eSfVªDl½ dks iw.kZ djsxh \

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

2. If a solid cuboids of dimensions : 2. ;fn fdlh Bksl] ftldh lhek,¡


8 cm × 6 cm × 4 cm is cut into 8 cm × 6 cm × 4 cm gS] dks 2 cm
smaller cubes of side 2 cm each. Hkqtk okys NksVs&NksVs ?kuksa ds :i esa
What is the number of small cubes dkVk tkrk gSA bl izdkj NksVs ?kuksa
thus obtained ? dh la[;k fdruh gS \
(1) 24 (2) 48 (1) 24 (2) 48

(3) 96 (4) 192 (3) 96 (4) 192

Direction (Question No. 3) Select the funsZ’k % ¼iz’u la[;k 3½ vaxzsth o.kZekyk
water image of the given combination of vkSj la[;kvksa ds fn, x, la;kstu dk ty
English alphabet and number. izfrfcac pqfu,A

3. 3.

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

MSMSS/9–2023 P. T. O.
A (4)

4. Vijay is 18th from the left in the 4. fot; ,d iafDr esa ck,¡ ls 18osa
row. He came 5 places to the left. LFkku ij gSA og ik¡p LFkku ck,¡
If there are 34 students in the rrow, vk;kA ;fn iafDr esa 34 Nk= gSa] rks
then what is his position from the mldk vc nk,¡ ls dkSu&lk LFkku
right now ? gS \
(1) 22nd (2) 16th (1) 22ok¡ (2) 16ok¡
(3) 23rd (4) 24th (3) 23ok¡ (4) 24ok¡

5. If all the vowels are removed from 5. ;fn lHkh Lojksa dks vaxzsth o.kZekyk
the English alphabets, then which ls gVk fn;k tk,] rks ck,¡ ls ik¡posa
will be the eighth letter to the v{kj ds nk,¡ vkBok¡ v{kj dkSu&lk
right
ht of the fifth letter from the gksxk \
left ?
(1) M (2) N (1) M (2) N
(3) P (4) Q (3) P (4) Q

6. Four friends A, B, C and D are 6. pkj nksLr A, B, C vkSj D rk’k


playing cards. A and B are [ksy jgsa gSaA A vkSj B vkil esa
partners. D is facing North. If A is tksM+hnkj gSaA D dk eq[k mÙkj dh
sitting to the left of D, then who is vksj gSA ;fn A, D dh ck;ha vksj
facing South ? cSBk gS] rks fdldk eq[k nf{k.k dh
vksj gS \
(1) B (2) C (1) B (2) C
(3) A (4) D (3) A (4) D

7. Select the water image of the 7. nh xbZ vkd`fr (X) dk ty izfrfcac


given figure (X) : pqfu, %

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

MSMSS/9–2023
(5) A
Direction : (Question No. 8 and 9) In funsZ’k % ¼iz’u la[;k 8 ,oa 9½ uhps nh xbZ
each of the following figures numbers izR;sd vkd`fr esa ,d fuf’pr Øe vuqlkj
are written according to some patterns. dqN la[;k,¡ fy[kh xbZ gSaA buesa ls ,d
One number is missing. Find the la[;k yqIr gSA yqIr la[;k Kkr djs]a tks
missing number that replaces the iz’u fpg~u ¼\½½ ds LFkku ij mi;qDr gksA
question mark (?).

8. 8.

(1) 23 (2) 27 (1) 23 (2) 27

(3) 29 (4) 25 (3) 29 (4) 25

9. 9.

(1) 32 (2) 34 (1) 32 (2) 34


(3) 14 (4) 24 (3) 14 (4) 24

Direction : (Question No. 10 and 11) funsZ’k % ¼iz’u la[;k 10 ,oa 11½
In the following questions a figure (X) is fuEufyf[kr iz’uksa esa vkd`fr (X) nh xbZ gSA
given. Select the option which resembles vki ml fodYi dk p;u djsa] tks vkd`fr
the mirror image of the figure (X). (X) ds niZ.k izfrfcac tSlk fn[krk gSA

10. 10.

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

MSMSS/9–2023 P. T. O.
A (6)

11. 11.

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

12. If in a year the Republic Day was 12. ;fn fdlh o”kZ x.kra= fnol eghus ds
celebrated on the 4th Saturday of a pkSFks ‘kfuokj dks euk;k x;k Fkk] rks
month, then what was the day of ml eghus dh igyh rkjh[k dks
the week on the 1st of that month ? lIrkg dk dkSu&lk fnu Fkk \
(1) Monday (2) Tuesday (1) lkseokj (2) eaxyokj
(3) Wednesday (4) Sunday (3) cq/kokj (4) jfookj

13. Which figure best represents the 13. Qy] yky vkSj deht ds chp ds
relationship between Fruit, Red laca/k dks dkSu&lh vkd`fr iznf’kZr
and Shirt ? djrh gS \

(1) (1)

(2) (2)

(3) (3)

(4) (4)

MSMSS/9–2023
(7) A

14. At the time ............ between 3:00 14. 3 vkSj 4 cts ds chp fdl le;
and 4:00, both the hands will cover nksuksa lqbZ;k¡ ,d nwljs dks <d ysx
a h \
each other.

4 7 4 7
(1) 3 : 16 (2) 3 : 15 (1) 3 : 16 (2) 3 : 15
11 11 11 11
4 5 4 5
(3) 3 : 10 (4) 3 : 05 (3) 3 : 10 (4) 3 : 05
11 11 11 11

15. Which figure best represents the 15. iatkc] gfj;k.kk vkSj fglkj ds chp
relationship between Punjab, ds lac/a k dks dkSu&lh vkd`fr iznf’kZr
Haryana and Hisar ? djrh gS \

(1) (1)

(2) (2)

(3) (3)

(4) (4)

Direction : (Question No. 16 and 17) funsZ’k % ¼iz’u la[;k 16 ,oa 17½ uhps fn,
In the questions given below the question x, iz’uksa esa iz’u vkd`fr dh A vkSj B esa
figure is that a special relationship exists ,d fo’ks”k lac/a k LFkkfir gSA ;g lEca/k
between A and B. This relationship is vkd`fr C vkSj oSdfYid vkd`fr;ksa esa ls
established in figure C and one of the ,d esa LFkkfir gSA ml oSdfYid vkd`fr dk
alternatives figures. Select the p;u djsa] tks vkd`fr D esa iz’u fpg~u ¼\½
alternative figure that should replace the dk LFkku ys ldrh gSA
question mark (?) in figure D.

MSMSS/9–2023 P. T. O.
A (8)

16. 16.

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

17. 17.

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

Direction : (Question No. 18


1 to 20) In funsZ’k % ¼iz’u la[;k 18 ls 20½ bu iz’uksa
these questions a number/letter series is esa ,d la[;k@v{kj Ük`a[kyk nh xbZ gS
given. In which one term is missing. ftlesa ,d in yqIr gSA yqIr la[;k@v{kj
Find the missing number/letter, which Kkr djsa] tks iz’u fpg~u ¼\½ ¼ ds LFkku ij
when placed at question mark (?), will j[kus ij Ük``a[kyk dks iw.kZ djrk gksA
complete the series.

18. 4, 7, 12, 21, ? , 71 18. 4, 7, 12, 21, ? , 71


(1) 29 (2) 40 (1) 29 (2) 40
(3) 44 (4) 38 (3) 44 (4) 38

19. 5, 5, 15 , ? , 525 19. 5, 5, 15 , ? , 525


(1) 35 (2) 225 (1) 35 (2) 225
(3) 75 (4) 105 (3) 75 (4) 105
MSMSS/9–2023
(9) A

20. PAL, NZN, LBP, JYR, ? 20. PAL, NZN, LBP, JYR, ?
(1) HCT (2) KCQ (1) HCT (2) KCQ
(3) GCT (4) ICS (3) GCT (4) ICS

21. The four major components of 21. i;kZoj.k ds pkj ize[q k ?kVd uhps
environment are given below. fn, x, gSaA fuEufyf[kr dks muds
Match the following with their lVhd lacf/kr ls lqesfyr dhft,A
exact relation. ?kVd lac/a k
Component Relation 1. LFkyeaMy i. ok;q
1. Lithosphere i. Air 2. tyeaMy ii. thou
2. Hydrosphere ii. Life 3. ok;qeM
a y iii. ty
3. Atmosphere iii. Water 4. tSoeaMy iv. Bksl] pV~Vkus]a
4. Biosphere iv. Solid Rocks, i`Foh dh lcls
Outermost ckgjh ijr ftls
layer of earth ØLV dgk tkrk
called crust gS
(1) 1-iii, 2-i, 3-ii, 4-iv (1) 1-iii, 2-i, 3-ii, 4-iv
(2) 1-ii, 2-iii, 3-i, 4-iv (2) 1-ii, 2-iii, 3-i, 4-iv
(3) 1-iv, 2-iii, 3-i, 4-ii (3) 1-iv, 2-iii, 3-i, 4-ii
(4) 1-iv, 2-ii, 3-i, 4-iii (4) 1-iv, 2-ii, 3-i, 4-iii

22. If SYSTEM is written as OVQIBR 22. ;fn fdlh lkadfs rd Hkk”kk esa SYSTEM
in a certain code language, how dks OVQIBR fy[kk tkrk gS] rks mlh
will NEARER be written in that lkadfs rd Hkk”kk esa NEARER dks fdl
code language ? izdkj fy[kk tk,xk \
(1) LBPNBP (2) WBLNBP (1) LBPNBP (2) WBLNBP
(3) PGTTGP (4) MCNOCQ (3) PGTTGP (4) MCNOCQ

23. M is the wife of S. Q is the wife of 23. M, S dh iRuh gSA Q, R dh iRuh gSA
R. S is the son of Q. P is the son of S, Q dk iq= gSA P, M dk iq= gSA
M. How is R related to P ? R dk P ls D;k lac/a k gS \
(1) Father (2) Brother (1) firk (2) HkkbZ
(3) Grandfather (4) Uncle (3) nknk (4) pkpk
MSMSS/9–2023 P. T. O.
A ( 10 )

24. Which of the following statements 24. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk dFku
correctly describes the organic tSfod [kkn~; dk lgh O;k[;ku djrk
food ? gS \
(1) Food crop grown without using (1) moZjdksa dk mi;ksx fd, fcuk
fertilizers is organic food. mxkbZ tkus okyh [kkn~; Qly
tSfod Hkkstu gSA
(2) Food crop grown without using (2) fcuk [kjirokjuk’kdksa ds mxkbZ
weedicides is organic food. tkus okyh [kkn~; Qly tSfod
Hkkstu gSA
(3) Food crop grown without using (3) dhVuk’kdksa ds mi;ksx ds fcuk
pesticides is organic food. mxkbZ tkus okyh [kkn~; Qly
tSfod Hkkstu gSA
(4) All of the above. (4) mijksDr lHkhA

25. When did Nepal become 25. usiky jktrU= dks [kRe djus ds ckn
democratic after abolition of yksdrU= dc cuk \
Monarchy ?
(1) 2006 (2) 2007 (1) 2006 (2) 2007
(3) 2008 (4) 2009 (3) 2008 (4) 2009

26. Which of the statements is/are 26. Hkwe/; js[kk ds lac/a k esa dkSu lk@ls
true in relation to equator ? dFku lR; gS \
i. The equator passes through i. Hkwe/; js[kk nf{k.k vesfjdk]
the continents of South vÝhdk vkSj vkWLVªsfy;k egk}hiksa
America, Africa and Australia. ls gksdj xqtjrh gSA
ii. The equator passes through ii. Hkwe/; js[kk rsjg ns’kksa ls gksdj
thirteen countries. xqtjrh gSA
iii. There is only one major river iii. dsoy ,d izeq[k unh gS tks
which crosses the equator Hkwe/; js[kk dks nks ckj ikj
twice. djrh gSA
(1) Only iii (1) dsoy iii
(2) Both i and ii (2) i vkSj ii nksuksa
(3) All i, ii, iii (3) lHkh i, ii, iii
(4) Both ii and iii (4) ii vkSj iii nksuksa
MSMSS/9–2023
( 11 ) A

27. The period of maturity of 27. iztuu vaxksa dh ifjiDork dh vof/k


reproductive organs is called : dgykrh gS %

(1) Adolescence period (1) fd’kksjkoLFkk dky

(2) Menstrual period (2) vkrZo pØ dky


(3) Gestation period (3) iDoukofn
(4) None of these (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

28. The force of 50 newton acting on 28. ;fn 50 U;wVu cy] 50 lsaVhehVj oxZ
area of 50 cm2 will exert a ds {ks=Qy ij yxk;k tk;s] rks ;g
pressure of : fdruk nkc yxk,xk \
(1) 100 Pa (1) 100 Pa

(2) 1000 Pa (2) 1000 Pa

(3) 10000 Pa (3) 10000 Pa

(4) 1 Pa (4) 1 Pa

29. First World War started in : 29. izFke fo’o ;q) izkjEHk gqvk %
(1) 1915 AD (1) 1915 bZ0 esa
(2) 1916 AD (2) 1916 bZ0 esa
(3) 1918 AD (3) 1918 bZ0 esa
(4) 1914 AD (4) 1914 bZ0 esa

30. Which of the following created 30. Hkkjrh; lafo/kku fdlds }kjk cuk;k
Indian Constitution ? x;k \
(1) Indian Parliament (1) Hkkjrh; laln }kjk
(2) Constitutional Assembly (2) lafo/kku lHkk }kjk
(3) Dr. Ambedkar (3) MkW0 vEcsMdj }kjk
(4) British Parliament (4) fczfV’k laln }kjk
MSMSS/9–2023 P. T. O.
A ( 12 )

31. Global warming can result in 31. Xykscy okfe±x ds ifj.kkeLo:i


many serious alterations to the i;kZoj.k esa dbZ xaHkhj ifjorZu gks
environment. Which of the ldrs gSaA Xykscy okfeZx
a ds laca/k esa
statements is/are wrong in dkSu&lk@ls dFku xyr gSA
relation to global warming ?

i. Adverse Impact on health i. LokLF; ij cqjk izHkko


ii. low sea level ii. fuEu leqnz Lrj
iii. Threats to biodiversity iii. tSo fofo/krk ds fy, [krjk
(1) Only ii (1) dsoy ii
(2) Both i and iii (2) i vkSj iii nksuksa
(3) All i, ii, iii (3) lHkh i, ii, iii
(4) Both ii and iii (4) ii vkSj iii nksuksa

32. The process of artificially 32. fdlh le:i dksf’kdk ;k fdlh


producing an identical cell or any thfor Hkkx vFkok laiw.kZ tho dks
other living part or whole d`f=e :i esa mRiUu djus dh izfØ;k
organism is called : dgykrh gS %
(1) Tissue culture (1) Ård lao/kZu
(2) Cell biology (2) dksf’kdk foKku
(3) Cloning (3) Dyksfuax
(4) Biotechnology (4) tSo izknS ;
~ ksfxdh

33. Which of the following set of 33. fuEufyf[kr esa ls v{kjksa dk dkSu&lk
letters will look the same in the lewg niZ.k esa leku fn[kkbZ nsxk \
mirror ?

(1) OSMIMOM (1) OSMIMOM

(2) VHRTRVH (2) VHRTRVH


(3) HIMOSTA (3) HIMOSTA

(4) AOVIVOA (4) AOVIVOA

MSMSS/9–2023
( 13 ) A

34. Which of the following is an 34. buesa ls dkSu&lk FkeksZIykfLVd dk


example of Thermoplastic ? mnkgj.k gS \
(1) Nylon (1) ukbykWu
(2) Bakelite (2) cSdsykbV
(3) Melamine (3) esykekbu
(4) Vulcanized Rubber (4) osYdsukbTM jcj

35. Who is the chairperson of Rajya 35. jkT;lHkk dk lHkkifr dkSu gksrk gS \
Sabha ?

(1) Governor (1) jkT;iky


(2) Vice-President (2) mijk”Vªifr
(3) Prime Minister (3) iz/kkuea=h
(4) President (4) jk”Vªifr

36. The amounts of these resources 36. izd`fr esa ftu lalk/kuksa dh ek=k
are less and will not be lhfer gS vkSj izkd`frd izfØ;kvksa
replenished by natural methods, }kjk iquLFkkZiu ugha gks ldrk gS]
are .............. . mUgsa .............. dgrs gSAa
(1) Biodegradable Resources (1) fuEuhdj.k lalk/ku
(2) Non-Biodegradable Resources (2) vfuEuhdj.k lalk/ku
(3) Renewable Resources (3) uohdj.kh; lalk/ku
(4) Non-Renewable Resources (4) vuohdj.kh; lalk/ku

37. Who established Shantiniketan ? 37. ‘kkafrfudsru dh LFkkiuk fdlus dh \


(1) Ravindra Nath Tagore (1) jfoUnzukFk VSxksj
(2) Devendra Nath Tagore (2) nsosUnzukFk VSxksj
(3) Satendra Nath Tagore (3) lrsUnzukFk VSxksj
(4) Willian Jones (4) fofy;e tksUl

MSMSS/9–2023 P. T. O.
A ( 14 )

Direction : (Question No. 38 and 39) funsZ’k % ¼iz’u la[;k 38 ,oa 39½ ;fn iz’u
Which one of the answer figure would vkd`fr leku Øe esa cnys rks vxys Øe
occupy the next position in the question ij mÙkj vkd`fr;ksa esa ls dkSu&lh vkd`fr
figure, if they continue to change in mfpr LFkku ik,xh \
same order ?

38. Question Figures : 38. iz'u vkd`fr;k¡ %

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

39. Question Figures : 39. iz'u vkd`fr;k¡ %

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

40. The perimeter of a rectangular 40. ,d vk;rkdkj QksVksÝe s dk ifjeki


photo frame is 20 cm. If its length 20 lseh
eh gSA ;fn bldh yEckbZ 6 lseh
is 6 cm then its breadth will be : gks] rks bldh pkSM+kbZ gksxh %
(1) 4 cm (2) 6 cm (1) 4 lseh (2) 6 lseh
(3) 10 cm (4) 14 cm (3) 10 lseh (4) 14 lseh

MSMSS/9–2023
( 15 ) A

41. Number 1 to 10 are written on ten 41. ,d ls 10 rd dh la[;kvksa dks nl


separate slips (one number on one vyx&vyx ifpZ;ksa ij fy[kdj ,d
slip) kept in a box and mixed well. fMCcs esa Mkyk x;k o vPNh rjg
One slip is chosen from the box feyk fn;k x;kA fMCcs esa ls fcuk
without looking into it what is the ns[ks ,d iphZ fudkyh xbZA ,d vad
probability of getting a 1-digit dh la[;k fudyus dh D;k izkf;drk
number ? gksxh \
(1) 1 (2) 0 (1) 1 (2) 0
(3) 1\10 (4) 9\10 (3) 1\10 (4) 9\10

42. According to you what is a Hen’s 42. vkids vuqlkj fn;s fodYiksa esa ls
egg in the given options ? eqxhZ dk vaMk D;k gS \
(1) Tissue (1) Ård
(2) Organ (2) vax
(3) Organ system (3) vax iz.kkyh
(4) Cell (4) dksf’kdk

43. The value of 992 is : 43. 992 dk eku gS %


(1) (90)2 + 2(90) (9) + (9)2 (1) (90)2 + 2(90) (9) + (9)2

(2) (90)2 – (90) (9) + (9)2 (2) (90)2 – (90) (9) + (9)2

(3) (90)2 + (9)2 (3) (90)2 + (9)2


(4) None of these (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

44. With respect to zones of candle 44. eksecÙkh dh Tokyk ds lanHkZ esa] lgh
flame, choose the correct option : fodYi pqusa %
(1) Outer zone of complete (1) iw.kZ ngu dk ckg~; {ks= & ihyk
combustion – Yellow
(2) Innermost zone of unburnt (2) fcuk tyh eksecÙkh dk lcls
Candle wax – Black vkarfjd {ks= & dkyk
(3) Middle zone of partial (3) vkaf’kd ngu okyk e/; Hkkx &
combustion – Blue uhyk
(4) Hottest Part – Black (4) lcls xeZ Hkkx & dkyk

MSMSS/9–2023 P. T. O.
A ( 16 )

45. In which Article of the Indian 45. Hkkjrh; lafo/kku ds fdl vuqPNsn esa
Constitution every citizen has izR;sd ukxfjd dks thou dk ekSfyd
been given fundamental right to vf/kdkj fn;k x;k gS \
life ?
(1) Article 21 (2) Article 22 (1) vuqPNsn 21 (2) vuqPNsn 22
(3) Article 19 (4) Article 18 (3) vuqPNsn 19 (4) vuqPNsn 18

46. The ratio of speed of a motorbike 46. ,d eksVjckbd ftldh xfr 50 fdeh
50 km per hour and speed of cycle izfr ?kaVk gS o ,d lkbZfdy ftldh
20 km per hour is : xfr 20 fdeh izfr ?kaVk gS] dk
vuqikr gS %
(1) 2 : 5 (2) 5 : 1 (1) 2 : 5 (2) 5 : 1
(3) 5 : 2 (4) 1 : 2 (3) 5 : 2 (4) 1 : 2

47. The first English Factory was 47. izFke bafXy’k QSDVjh 1651 bZ0 esa
established on the banks of which fdl unh ds fdukjs LFkkfir gqbZ \
river in 1651 AD ?
(1) Narmada (2) Hugli (1) ueZnk (2) gqxyh
(3) Tapti (4) Satluj (3) rkIrh (4) lryqt

48. A rabbit walks 1 kilometer in 2 48. ,d [kjxks’k 2 ?kaVs esa ,d fdyksehVj


hours. After every kilometer he pyrk gSA izR;sd fdyksehVj ds ckn
rests for 20 minutes. How much og 20 feuV foJke djrk gSA 3.5
time will it take to cover a fdyksehVj dh nwjh r; djus esa mls
distance of 3.5 kilometers ? fdruk le; yxsxk \
(1) 8 hours (2) 7 hours (1) 8 ?kaVs (2) 7 ?kaVs
(3) 6 hours (4) 5 hours (3) 6 ?kaVs (4) 5 ?kaVs

49. Voice of which of the following is 49. fuEu esa ls fdl okd~ /ofu dh vko`fÙk
likely to have minimum frequency ? U;wure gksus dh lEHkkouk gS \
(1) Baby Girl (1) NksVh yM+dh dh
(2) Baby Boy (2) NksVs yM+ds dh
(3) A Man (3) iq#”k dh
(4) A Woman (4) L=h dh

MSMSS/9–2023
( 17 ) A

50. Which metal is used to galvanize 50. yksgs dk ;’knysiu fdl /kkrq }kjk
Iron ? fd;k tkrk gS \
(1) Chromium (2) Magnesium (1) Øksfe;e (2) eSXuhf’k;e
(3) Zinc (4) Copper (3) ftad (4) rk¡ck

Direction : (Question No. 51 and 52) funsZ’k % ¼iz’u la[;k 51 ,oa


,oa 52½ uhps nh
Read the information given below and xbZ tkudkjh dks i<+dj ml ij vk/kkfjr
answer the questions based on it. iz’uksa ds mÙkj nhft,A
P, Q, R, S, T and U are six friends sitting P, Q, R, S, T vkSj U N% nksLr ,d nwljs ds
in a circle facing each other. P sits vkeus&lkeus ,d xksy ?ksjs esa cSBsa gSaA P, S
between S and Q and U sits between R vkSj Q ds chp rFkk U, R vkSj T ds chp
and T. R is third to the left of Q. esa cSBk gSA R, Q ds ck;ha vksj rhljk gSA

51. Who is sitting between P and R ? 51. P vkSj R ds chp dkSu cSBk gS \
(1) T (2) Q (1) T (2) Q
(3) S (4) U (3) S (4) U

52. Who is sitting between Q and U ? 52. Q vkSj U ds chp dkSu cSBk gS \
(1) T (2) R (1) T (2) R
(3) P (4) S (3) P (4) S

53. The angle of incidence is equal to 53. vkiru dks.k] ijkorZu dks.k ds
angle of reflection : cjkcj gksrk gS %
(1) Always (1) lnSo
(2) Sometimes (2) dHkh&dHkh
(3) Under Special Conditions (3) fo’ks”k ifjfLFkfr;ksa esa
(4) Never (4) dHkh ugha

54. One of the following is not a basic 54. fuEufyf[kr esa ls ,d o”kkZ ty
component of a rainwater lap;u iz.kkyh dk ewy ?kVd
harvesting system. ugha gSA
(1) Catchment (1) tyxzg
(2) Delivery system (2) forj.k iz.kkyh
(3) Storage reservoir (3) tyk’k;
(4) River system (4) unh iz.kkyh

MSMSS/9–2023 P. T. O.
A ( 18 )

55. Which of the parallelogram has all 55. dkSu&ls lekUrj prqHkqZt dh lHkh
sides equal and diagonals bisect Hkqtk,¡ cjkcj gSa o mlds fod.kZ ,d
each other at right angle ? nwljs dks 90° ij lef}HkkfTkr djrs
gSa \
(1) Square (1) oxZ
(2) Rectangle (2) vk;r
(3) Rhombus (3) leprqHkqZt
(4) Trapezium (4) leyEc prqHkqZt

56. Which of the following is not a 56. fuEu esa ls dkSu lkSj ifjokj dk
member of solar system ? lnL; ugha gS \
(1) An asteroid (1) {kqnzxgz
(2) A Satellite (2) mixzg
(3) A Constellation (3) rkjke.My
(4) A Comet (4) /kwedsrq

57. For which of the following is 57. fuEu esa ls fdlds fy, m dk eku
m=8? 8 gS \
(1) (5m × 5–3)/52 = 53 (1) (5m × 5–3)/52 = 53
(2) –(5m × 5–3)/53 = 52 (2) –(5m × 5–3)/53 = 52
(3) (5m × 52)/52 = 53 (3) (5m × 52)/52 = 53
(4) (5 × 5–2)/52 = 53 (4) (5 × 5–2)/52 = 53

58. Which of the following can not be 58. fuEufyf[kr esa fdls ?k”kZ.k }kjk
charged easily by friction ? vklkuh ls vkosf’kr ugha fd;k tk
ldrk \
(1) A Plastic Scale (1) IykfLVd dk iSekuk
(2) A Copper Rod (2) rkacs dh NM+
(3) An Inflated Ballon (3) Qwyk gqvk xqCckjk
(4) A Woollen Cloth (4) Åuh oL=

MSMSS/9–2023
( 19 ) A

59. Which of the following statement 59. jkbtksfc;e ds ckjs esa fuEufyf[kr esa
about Rhizobium is true ? ls dkSu lk dFku lR; gS \
(1) Rhizobia are bacteria that can (1) jkbtksfc;k thok.kq gSa tks feV~Vh
live in the soil esa jg ldrs gSaA
(2) Rhizobia are bacteria live in (2) jkbtksfc;k thok.kq gSa tks nkyksa dh
nodules formed on the roots of tM+ksa ij cuh xk¡Bksa esa jgrs gSaA
legumes.
(3) Rhizobia are bacteria (3) jkbtksfc;k thok.kq gSa tks ikS/kksa ls
obtaining nutrients from the iks”kd rRo izkIr djrs gSa vkSj
plant and producing nitrogen tSfod ukbVªkstu fLFkjhdj.k
in a process called biological uked izfØ;k ds n~okjk ukbVªkstu
nitrogen fixation. dk mRiknu djrs gSaA
(4) All of the above statements (4) jkbtksfc;e ds ckjs esa mijksDr
about Rhizobium are true. lHkh dFku lR; gSaA
60. Who wrote the book 'Gulamgiri' ? 60. ^xqykefxjh* iqLrd dh jpuk fdlus
dh \
(1) Savitri Phule (1) lkfo=h Qqys
ys
(2) Jyotirao Phule (2) T;ksfrjko Q
Qqys
(3) Mahatma Gandhi (3) egkRek xk¡/kh
(4) Ramabai (4) jekckbZ

61. How many parallelograms are in 61. nh xbZ vkd`fr esa fdrus lekarj
the given figure ? prqHkqZt gSa \

(1) 11 (2) 12 (1) 11 (2) 12


(3) 16 (4) 18 (3) 16 (4) 18

62. Which one number is wrong in 62. la[;k Ük``a[kyk esa dkSu&lh ,d la[;k
the number series ? xyr gS \
5 , 13 , 39 , 160 , 805 5 , 13 , 39 , 160 , 805
(1) 5 (2) 39 (1) 5 (2) 39
(3) 160 (4) 13 (3) 160 (4) 13
MSMSS/9–2023 P. T. O.
A ( 20 )

Direction : (Question No. 63 and 64) funsZ’k % ¼iz’u la[;k 63 ,oa


,oa 64½ fn;k x;k
The given figure (X) is followed by four fp= (X) pkj fp=ksa (1), (2), (3) vkSj (4) esa
figures (1) , (2) ,(3) and (4) , such that (X) ls ,d dk ifj.kke gS] bl rjg (X) buesa
is embedded in one of them. Trace out ls fdlh ,d esa fufgr gSA lgh fodYi dh
the correct alternatives. igpku djsaA

63. 63.

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

64. 64.

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

MSMSS/9–2023
( 21 ) A

65. A person is trying to climb a pole 65. ,d O;fDr 60 QhV Å¡ps [kEcs ij
60 feet high. He climbs 6 feet in p<+us dk iz;Ru dj jgk gSA og ,d
one minute, but slips and comes feuV esa 6 QhV p<+ tkrk gS] ysfdu
down 4 feet, then how many fQly dj 4 QhV uhps vk tkrk gS]
minutes will it take him to reach rks Åij rd igq¡pus esa mls fdrus
the top ? feuV yxsaxs \
(1) 32 (2) 28 (1) 32 (2) 28
(3) 27 (4) 34 (3) 27 (4) 34

66. In which year did the Permanent 66. caxky esa LFkk;h cUnkscLr dc ykxw
Settlement come into force in gqvk \
Bengal ?
(1) 1796 AD (1) 1796 bZ0
(2) 1794 AD (2) 1794 bZ0
(3) 1793 AD (3) 1793 bZ0
(4) 1795 AD (4) 1795 bZ0

Direction : (Question No. 67 and 68) funsZ’k % ¼iz’u la[;k 67 ,oa


,oa 68½ fuEufyf[kr
In the following questions, choose a iz’u esa pkj fodYiksa esa ls ,d vkd`fr
figures amongst the four alternatives pqusa] ftls tc vkd`fr (X) esa iz’u fpUg
which when placed in question mark (?) (?) ds LFkku ij j[kk tk, rks iSVuZ iw.kZ gks
space of figure (X) will complete the tk,A
pattern.

67. 67.

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

MSMSS/9–2023 P. T. O.
A ( 22 )

68. 68.

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

69. Ozone depletion is caused due to 69. vkst+ksu fjfDrdj.k


Drdj.k ds Lrj esa o`f)
increase in level of : dk dkj.k gksrk gS %

(1) Carbon monoxide (1) dkcZu eksuksvkkWDlkbM

(2) Chlorofluorocarbon (2) Dyksjks¶yksjksdkcZu

(3) Water vapour (3) ty ok”i

(4) Oxygen (4) vkWDlhtu

70. When the square of a number is 70. tc ,d la[;k ds oxZ dks mlh la[;k
subtracted from the cube of the ds ?ku esa ls ?kVk;k tkrk gS] rks 100
same number, it becomes 100. izkIr gksrk gSA la[;k Kkr djsa %
Find the number :

(1) 1 (1) 1

(2) 2 (2) 2

(3) 4 (3) 4

(4) 5 (4) 5

MSMSS/9–2023
( 23 )
jQ dk;Z ds fy, / FOR ROUGH WORK
5. iz'uksa ds mÙkj] mÙkj i=d esa fu/kkZfjr [kkuksa dks dkys 5. Answers to questions in answer sheet are to be
ckWy IokbaV iSu ls iw.kZr;k dkyk djuk gS] tSlk fd given by darkening complete circle using black ball
uhps fn[kk;k x;k gS % point pen as shown below :
1  3 4 1  3 4
vki }kjk fn;k x;k mÙkj xyr ekuk tk,xk] ;fn The answer will be treated wrong, if it is marked, as given
mÙkj okys [kkus dks fuEu izdkj ls Hkjrs gSa % below :

    
   
;fn ,d ls T;knk [kkuksa dks Hkj nsrs gSa rks vkidk If you fill more than one circle it will be treated as a
mÙkj xyr ekuk tk,xkA wrong answer.
6. jQ dk;Z iz'u iqfLrdk esa bl iz;kstu ds fy, nh xbZ 6. Rough work should be done only in the space provided
[kkyh txg ij gh djsaA in the Test Booklet for the same.
7. lHkh mÙkj dsoy mÙkj i=d (OMR) ij gh vafdr 7. The answers are to be recorded on the OMR Answer
djsAa vius mÙkj /;kuiwoZd vafdr djsAa mÙkj cnyus Sheet only. Mark your responses carefully. No whitener
gsrq 'osr jatd ¼lQsn ¶Y;wM½ dk iz;ksx fuf"k) gSA (white fluid) is allowed for changing answers.
8. izR;sd iz’u ds fy, fn, x, pkj fodYiksa esa ls mfpr 8. Out of the four alternatives for each question, only one
fodYi ds fy, mÙkj i=d (OMR) ij dsoy ,d gh circle for the most appropriate answer is to be darkened
o`Ùk dks iwjh rjg dkys ckWy IokbaV iSu ls HkjsaA ,d completely with Black Ball Point Pen on the OMR
ckj mÙkj vafdr djus ds ckn mls cnyk ugha tk Answer Sheet. The answer once marked is not allowed
ldrk gSA to be changed.
9. vH;FkhZ lqfuf’pr djsa fd bl mÙkj i=d dks eksMk+ u 9. The candidate should ensure that the Answer Sheet is
tk, ,oa ml ij dksbZ vU; fu’kku u yxk,¡A not folded. Do not make any stray mark on Answer
vH;FkhZ viuk vuqØekad mÙkj i=d esa fu/kkZfjr Sheet. Do not write your Roll No. anywhere else except
LFkku ds vfrfjDr vU;= u fy[ksAa in the specified space in the Answer Sheet.
10. iz'u iqfLrdk ,oa mÙkj i=d dk /;kuiwod Z iz;ksx djs]a 10. Handle the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet with care, as
D;ksfa d fdlh Hkh ifjfLFkfr esa ¼dsoy iz'u iqfLrdk ,oa under no circumstances (except for discrepancy in Test
mÙkj i=d ds Øekad esa fHkUurk dh fLFkfr dks NksMd + j½ Booklet and Answer Sheet Serial No.), another set of
nwljh iz'u iqfLrdk lSV miyC/k ugha djokbZ tk,xhA Test Booklet will not be provided.
11. iz'u iqfLrdk@mÙkj i=d esa fn, x, Øekad dks 11. The candidate will write the correct Number as given in
vH;FkhZ lgh rjhds ls gkftjh i= esa fy[ksaA the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet in the Attendance Sheet.
12. vH;FkhZ dks ijh{kk gkWy@d{k esa izos’k dkMZ ds 12. Candidate is not allowed to carry any textual material,
vfrfjDr fdlh izdkj dh ikB~; lkexzh] eqfnzr ;k printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone,
gLrfyf[kr dkxt dh ifpZ;k¡] istj] eksckby Qksu] electronic device or any other material except the Admit
bysDVªkWfud midj.k ;k fdlh vU; izdkj dh lkexzh Card inside the examination hall/room.
dks ys tkus ;k mi;ksx djus dh vuqefr ugha gSA
13. fujh{kd }kjk iwNs tkus ij izR;sd vH;FkhZ viuk 13. Each candidate must show on demand his/her Admit
izos’k&i= ¼jksy ua0½ fn[kk,¡A Card (Roll No.) to the Invigilator.
14. dsUnz v/kh{kd ;k fujh{kd dh fo’ks"k vuqefr ds fcuk 14. No candidate, without special permission of the
dksbZ vH;FkhZ viuk LFkku u NksMa+sA Superintendent or Invigilator, should leave his/her seat.
15. bysDVªkWfud@gLrpkfyr ifjdyd dk mi;ksx oftZr gSA 15. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.
16. fdlh gkyr esa iz'u&iqfLrdk ,oa mÙkj&i=d dk dksbZ 16. No part of test Booklet and Answer-sheet shall be
Hkkx vyx u djsaA detached under any circumstances.
17. ijh{kk lEiUu gksus ij] vH;FkhZ ijh{kk d{k@gkWy 17. On completion of the test, candidate must hand over the
NksM+us ls iwoZ mÙkj i=d d{k&i;Zos{kd dks vo’; Answer Sheet to the Invigilator in the Room/Hall. The
lkSai nsAa vH;FkhZ vius lkFk iz'u iqfLrdk dks ys tk candidate is allowed to take away this Test Booklet with
ldrs gSaA them.
MSMSS – 2023
(For Class 9th)
SET : B
cqdysV Øekad ,oa
vks0,e0vkj0 Øekad
vuqØekad ¼vadksa esa½ % Booklet Serial No. &
Roll No. (In Figures) O. M. R. Serial No.
vuqØekad ¼'kCnksa esa½ %
Roll No. (In Words)
ijh{kk dsUnz dk uke %
Name of Examination Centre
vH;FkhZ dk uke % vH;FkhZ ds gLrk{kj %
Name of Candidate Signature of the Candidate
bl iz'u-iqfLrdk esa i`"Bksa dh la[;k iz'uksa dh la[;k le;
24 70 2½ hours
No. of Pages in this Question Booklet No. of Questions Time

fujh{kd ds gLrk{kj@Signature of the Invigilator :


vH;FkhZ dks 10 feuV dk le; iz'u-iqfLrdk ij Nis funs'Z kksa dks i<+u]s iz'u-i= cqdysV esa fn, x, iz'uksa ds lhfj;y uEcj psd djus] C;kSjk Hkjus ds fy, ,oa
cqdysV ds lHkh i`"Bksa dk voyksdu djus] misprint psd djus ds fy, fn;k tk,xkA ;fn iz'u&i= cqdysV esa iz'uksa ds lhfj;y uEcj xyr Nis gSa] i`"B miss
gS ;k dksbZ i`"B misprint gS rks rqjUr dsUnz v/kh{kd ls fuosnu djds iz'u-i= cqdysV cny ysAa bu 10 feuV ds i'pkr~ ;k ijh{kk lekIr gksus ds i'pkr~ dksbZ
nkok Lohdkj ugha fd;k tk,xkA bu 10 feuVksa ds vfrfjDr] iz'uksa ds mÙkj nsus o vafdr djus ds fy, iwjs 2½?kaVs dk le; fn;k tk,xkA

vH;fFkZ
vH;fFkZ;ksa ds fy, funsZ'k % INSTRUCTIONS FOR THE CANDIDATES :

1. mÙkj i=d (OMR) bl iz'u iqfLrdk ds vUnj j[kk 1. The OMR Answer Sheet is inside this Test Booklet.
gSA tc vkidks iz'u iqfLrdk [kksyus dks dgk tk,] rks When you are directed to open the Test Booklet, take out
mÙkj i=d fudky dj /;ku ls dsoy dkys ckWy IokbaV the Answer Sheet and fill the particulars carefully with
isu ls fooj.k HkjsaA black ball point pen only.
2. ijh{kk dh vof/k 2½ ?kaVs gS ,oa iz'u iqfLrdk esa 70 iz’u 2. The test is of 2½ hours duration and consists of
gSaA izR;sd iz'u ,d vad dk gSA dksbZ _.kkRed vadu 70 questions. Each question carries one mark. There is no
ugha gSA negative marking.
3. bl i`"B ij fooj.k vafdr djus ,oa mÙkj i=d ij 3. Use Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on
fu’kku yxkus ds fy, dsoy dkys ckWy IokbaV isu dk this page/marking responses in the Answer Sheet. The
iz;ksx djsaA vH;FkhZ iz'u-iqfLrdk dk mi;ksx djus ,oa candidate should remain careful in handling the question
mÙkj i=d dks Hkjus esa lko/kkuh cjrsaA nwljh iz'u- paper and in marking the answers on the answer sheet.
iqfLrdk ls
lsV çnku ugha dh tk,xhA Another booklet set will not be given.
4. ;g Hkh lqfuf’pr dj ysa fd iz'u iqfLrdk Øekad vkSj 4. Also ensure that your Test Booklet Serial No. and
mÙkj i=d Øekad ,d gh gSaA vxj ;g fHkUu gksa ;k Answer Sheet Serial No. are the same. In case of
iz'u iqfLrdk esa dksbZ i`"B Miss ;k Misprint gks rks discrepancy or any page is Miss or Misprint in test
vH;FkhZ nwljh iz’u-iqfLrdk vkSj mÙkj i=d ysus ds booklet, the candidate should immediately report the
fy, fujh{kd dks rqjUr voxr djok,A matter to the Invigilator for replacement of both the Test
Booklet and the Answer Sheet.

uksV % bl iqfLrdk ds vUr esa fn, x, 'ks"k funsZ'kksa dks Note : Read other remaining instructions given on the last
i<+saA page of this Booklet.
(2)
jQ dk;Z ds fy, / FOR ROUGH WORK
(3) B

1. Global warming can result in 1. Xykscy okfe±x ds ifj.kkeLo:i


many serious alterations to the i;kZoj.k esa dbZ xaHkhj ifjorZu gks
environment. Which of the ldrs gSaA Xykscy okfeZx
a ds la
lca/k esa
statements is/are wrong in dkSu&lk@ls
lk@ls dFku xyr gSA
relation to global warming ?
i. Adverse Impact on health i. LokLF; ij cqjk izHkko
ii. low sea level ii. fuEu leqnz Lrj
iii. Threats to biodiversity iii. tSo fofo/krk ds fy, [krjk
(1) Only ii (1) dsoy ii
(2) Both i and iii (2) i vkSj iii nksuksa
(3) All i, ii, iii (3) lHkh i, ii, iii
(4) Both ii and iii (4) ii vkSj iii nksuksa

Direction : (Question No. 2 and 3) In funsZ’k % ¼iz’u la[;k 2 ,oa 3½ fuEufyf[kr


the following questions a figure (X) is iz’uksa esa vkd`fr (X) nh xbZ gSA vki ml
given. Select the option which resembles fodYi dk p;u djsa] tks vkd`fr (X) ds
the mirror image of the figure (X). niZ.k izfrfcac tSlk fn[krk gSA

2. 2.

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

3. 3.

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

MSMSS/9–2023 P. T. O.
B (4)

4. If in a year the Republic Day was 4. ;fn fdlh o”kZ x.kra= fnol eghus ds
celebrated on the 4th Saturday of a pkSFks ‘kfuokj dks euk;k x;k Fkk] rks
month, then what was the day of ml eghus dh igyh rkjh[k dks
the week on the 1st of that month ? lIrkg dk dkSu&lk fnu Fkk \
(1) Monday (2) Tuesday (1) lkseokj (2) eaxyokj
(3) Wednesday (4) Sunday (3) cq/kokj (4) jfookj

5. First World War started in : 5. izFke fo’o ;q) izkjEHk gqvk %


(1) 1915 AD (2) 1916 AD (1) 1915 bZ0 esa (2) 1916 bZ0 esa
(3) 1918 AD (4) 1914 AD (3) 1918 bZ0 esa (4) 1914 bZ0 esa

6. If a solid cuboids of dimensions : 6. ;fn fdlh Bksl] ftldh lhek,¡


8 cm × 6 cm × 4 cm is cut into 8 cm × 6 cm × 4 cm gS] dks 2 cm
smaller cubes of side 2 cm each. Hkqtk okys NksVs&NksVs ?kuksa ds :i esa
What is the number of small cubes dkVk tkrk gSA bl izdkj NksVs ?kuksa
thus obtained ? dh la[;k fdruh gS \
(1) 24 (2) 48 (1) 24 (2) 48
(3) 96 (4) 192 (3) 96 (4) 192

7. Ozone depletion is caused due to 7. vkst+ksu fjfDrdj.k ds Lrj esa o`f)


increase in level of : dk dkj.k gksrk gS %
(1) Carbon monoxide (1) dkcZu eksuksvkWDlkbM
(2) Chlorofluorocarbon (2) Dyksjks¶yksjksdkcZu
(3) Water vapour (3) ty ok”i
(4) Oxygen (4) vkWDlhtu

Direction : (Question No. 8 and 9) In funsZ’k % ¼iz’u la[;k 8 ,oa


,oa 9½ fuEufyf[kr
the following questions, choose a figures iz’u esa pkj fodYiksa esa ls ,d vkd`fr
amongst the four alternatives which pqusa] ftls tc vkd`fr (X) esa iz’u fpUg
when placed in question mark (?) space (?) ds LFkku ij j[kk tk, rks iSVuZ iw.kZ gks
of figure (X) will complete the pattern. tk,A

MSMSS/9–2023
(5) B

8. 8.

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

9. 9.

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

10. Which of the following created 10. Hkkjrh; lafo/kku fdlds }kjk cuk;k
Indian Constitution ? x;k \
(1) Indian Parliament (1) Hkkjrh; laln }kjk
(2) Constitutional Assembly (2) lafo/kku lHkk }kjk
(3) Dr. Ambedkar (3) MkW0 vEcsMdj }kjk
(4) British Parliament (4) fczfV’k laln }kjk

11. In which year did the Permanent 11. caxky esa LFkk;h cUnkscLr dc ykxw
Settlement come into force in gqvk \
Bengal ?
(1) 1796 AD (2) 1794 AD (1) 1796 bZ0 (2) 1794 bZ0
(3) 1793 AD (4) 1795 AD (3) 1793 bZ0 (4) 1795 bZ0

MSMSS/9–2023 P. T. O.
B (6)

12. The four major components of 12. i;kZoj.k ds pkj ize[q k ?kVd uhps
environment are given below. fn, x, gSaA fuEufyf[kr dks muds
Match the following with their lVhd lacf/kr ls lqesfyr dhft,A
exact relation. ?kVd lac/a k
Component Relation 1. LFkyeaMy i. ok;q
1. Lithosphere i. Air 2. tyeaMy ii. thou
2. Hydrosphere ii. Life 3. ok;qeM
a y iii. ty
3. Atmosphere iii. Water 4. tSoeaMy iv. Bksl] pV~Vkus]a
4. Biosphere iv. Solid Rocks, i`Foh dh lcls
Outermost ckgjh ijr ftls
layer of earth ØLV dgk tkrk
called crust gS
(1) 1-iii, 2-i, 3-ii, 4-iv (1) 1-iii, 2-i, 3-ii, 4-iv
(2) 1-ii, 2-iii, 3-i, 4-iv (2) 1-ii, 2-iii, 3-i, 4-iv
(3) 1-iv, 2-iii, 3-i, 4-ii (3) 1-iv, 2-iii, 3-i, 4-ii
(4) 1-iv, 2-ii, 3-i, 4-iii (4) 1-iv, 2-ii, 3-i, 4-iii

13. When did Nepal become 13. usiky jktrU= dks [kRe djus ds ckn
democratic after abolition of yksdrU= dc cuk \
Monarchy ?
(1) 2006 (1) 2006
(2) 2007 (2) 2007
(3) 2008 (3) 2008
(4) 2009 (4) 2009

14. Which of the following is not a 14. fuEu esa ls dkSu lkSj ifjokj dk
member of solar system ? lnL; ugha gS \
(1) An asteroid (1) {kqnzxgz
(2) A Satellite (2) mixzg
(3) A Constellation (3) rkjke.My
(4) A Comet (4) /kwedsrq

MSMSS/9–2023
(7) B

15. If SYSTEM is written as OVQIBR 15. ;fn fdlh lkadfs rd Hkk”kk esa SYSTEM
in a certain code language, how dks OVQIBR fy[kk tkrk gS] rks mlh
will NEARER be written in that lkadfs rd Hkk”kk esa NEARER dks fdl
code language ? izdkj fy[kk tk,xk \
(1) LBPNBP (1) LBPNBP
(2) WBLNBP (2) WBLNBP

(3) PGTTGP (3) PGTTGP

(4) MCNOCQ (4) MCNOCQ

16. M is the wife of S. Q is the wife of 16. M, S dh iRuh gSA Q, R dh iRuh gSA
R. S is the son of Q. P is the son of S, Q dk iq= gSA P, M dk iq= gSA
M. How is R related to P ? R dk P ls D;k lac/a k gS \
(1) Father (1) firk
(2) Brother (2) HkkbZ
(3) Grandfather (3) nknk
(4) Uncle (4) pkpk

17. If all the vowels are removed from 17. ;fn lHkh Lojksa dks vaxzsth o.kZekyk
the English alphabets, then which ls gVk fn;k tk,] rks ck,¡ ls ik¡posa
will be the eighth letter to the v{kj ds nk,¡ vkBok¡ v{kj dkSu&lk
right of the fifth letter from the gksxk \
left ?
(1) M (2) N (1) M (2) N
(3) P (4) Q (3) P (4) Q

18. Which of the following is an 18. buesa ls dkSu&lk FkeksZIykfLVd dk


example of Thermoplastic ? mnkgj.k gS \
(1) Nylon (1) ukbykWu
(2) Bakelite (2) cSdsykbV
(3) Melamine (3) esykekbu
(4) Vulcanized Rubber (4) osYdsukbTM jcj
MSMSS/9–2023 P. T. O.
B (8)

Direction : (Question No. 19 and 20) funsZ’k % ¼iz’u la[;k 19 ,oa


,oa 20½ fn;k x;k
The given figure (X) is followed by four fp= (X) pkj fp=ksa (1), (2), (3) vkSj (4) esa
figures (1) , (2) ,(3) and (4) , such that (X) ls ,d dk ifj.kke gS] bl rjg (X) buesa
is embedded in one of them. Trace out ls fdlh ,d esa fufgr gSA lgh fodYi dh
the correct alternatives. igpku djsaA
19. 19.

(1) (1)

(2) (2)

(3) (3)

(4) (4)

20. 20.

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

MSMSS/9–2023
(9) B

21. A person is trying to climb a pole 21. ,d O;fDr 60 QhV Å¡ps [kEcs ij
60 feet high. He climbs 6 feet in p<+u+ s dk iz;Ru dj jgk gSA og ,d
one minute, but slips and comes feuV esa 6 QhV p<+ tkrk gS] ysfdu
down 4 feet, then how many fQly dj 4 QhV uhps vk tkrk gS]
minutes will it take him to reach rks Åij rd igq¡pus esa mls fdrus
the top ? feuV yxsaxs \
(1) 32 (2) 28 (1) 32 (2) 28
(3) 27 (4) 34 (3) 27 (4) 34

22. Which figure best represents the 22. Qy] yky vkSj deht ds chp ds
relationship between Fruit, Red laca/k dks dkSu&lh vkd`fr iznf’kZr
and Shirt ? djrh gS \

(1) (1)

(2) (2)

(3) (3)

(4) (4)

23. A rabbit walks 1 kilometer in 2 23. ,d [kjxks’k 2 ?kaVs esa ,d fdyksehVj


hours. After every kilometer he pyrk gSA izR;sd fdyksehVj ds ckn
rests for 20 minutes. How much og 20 feuV foJke djrk gSA 3.5
time will it take to cover a fdyksehVj dh nwjh r; djus esa mls
distance of 3.5 kilometers ? fdruk le; yxsxk \
(1) 8 hours (2) 7 hours (1) 8 ?kaVs (2) 7 ?kaVs
(3) 6 hours (4) 5 hours (3) 6 ?kaVs (4) 5 ?kaVs

MSMSS/9–2023 P. T. O.
B ( 10 )

24. The angle of incidence is equal to 24. vkiru dks.k] ijkorZu dks.k ds
angle of reflection : cjkcj gksrk gS %
(1) Always (1) lnSo
(2) Sometimes (2) dHkh&dHkh
(3) Under Special Conditions (3) fo’ks”k ifjfLFkfr;ksa esa
(4) Never (4) dHkh ugha

25. Four friends A, B, C and D are 25. pkj nksLr A, B, C vkSj D rk’k
playing cards. A and B are [ksy jgsa gSaA A vkSj B vkil esa
partners. D is facing North. If A is tksM+hnkj gSaA D dk eq[k mÙkj dh
sitting to the left of D, then who is vksj gSA ;fn A, D dh ck;ha vksj
facing South ? cSBk gS] rks fdldk eq[k nf{k.k dh
vksj gS \
(1) B (2) C (1) B (2) C
(3) A (4) D (3) A (4) D

26. Select the water image of the 26. nh xbZ vkd`fr (X) dk ty izfrfcac
given figure (X) : pqfu, %

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

Direction : (Question No. 27 and 28) funsZ’k % ¼iz’u la[;k 27 ,oa 28½ uhps nh
In each of the following figures numbers xbZ izR;sd vkd`fr esa ,d fuf’pr Øe
are written according to some patterns. vuqlkj dqN laa[;k,¡ fy[kh xbZ gSaA buesa ls
One number is missing. Find the ,d la[;k yqIr gSA yqIr la[;k Kkr djsa]
missing number that replaces the tks iz’u fpg~u ¼\½½ ds LFkku ij mi;qDr
question mark (?). gksA
MSMSS/9–2023
( 11 ) B

27. 27.

(1) 23 (2) 27 (1) 23 (2) 27


(3) 29 (4) 25 (3) 29 (4) 25

28. 28.

(1) 32 (2) 34 (1) 32 (2) 34


(3) 14 (4) 24 (3) 14 (4) 24

29. At the time ............ between 3:00 29. 3 vkSj 4 cts ds chp fdl le;
and 4:00, both the hands will cover nksuksa lqbZ;k¡ ,d nwljs dks <d ysx
a h \
each other.
4 7 4 7
(1) 3 : 16 (2) 3 : 15 (1) 3 : 16 (2) 3 : 15
11 11 11 11
4 5 4 5
(3) 3 : 10 (4) 3 : 05 (3) 3 : 10 (4) 3 : 05
11 11 11 11

30. Which one number is wrong in 30. la[;k Ük``a[kyk esa dkSu&lh ,d la[;k
the number series ? xyr gS \
5 , 13 , 39 , 160 , 805 5 , 13 , 39 , 160 , 805
(1) 5 (2) 39 (1) 5 (2) 39
(3) 160 (4) 13 (3) 160 (4) 13

31. Which metal is used to galvanize 31. yksgs dk ;’knysiu fdl /kkrq }kjk
Iron ? fd;k tkrk gS \
(1) Chromium (1) Øksfe;e
(2) Magnesium (2) eSXuhf’k;e
(3) Zinc (3) ftad
(4) Copper (4) rk¡ck
MSMSS/9–2023 P. T. O.
B ( 12 )

32. Number 1 to 10 are written on ten 32. ,d ls 10 rd dh la[;kvksa dks nl


separate slips (one number on one vyx&vyx ifpZ;ksa ij fy[kdj ,d
slip) kept in a box and mixed well. fMCcs esa Mkyk x;k o vPNh rjg
One slip is chosen from the box feyk fn;k x;kA fMCcs esa ls fcuk
without looking into it what is the ns[ks ,d iphZ fudkyh xbZA ,d vad
probability of getting a 1-digit dh la[;k fudyus dh D;k izkf;drk
number ? gksxh \
(1) 1 (2) 0 (1) 1 (2) 0
(3) 1\10 (4) 9\10 (3) 1\10 (4) 9\10
33. Who is the chairperson of Rajya 33. jkT;lHkk dk lHkkifr dkSu gksrk gS \
Sabha ?
(1) Governor (1) jkT;iky
(2) Vice-President (2) mijk”Vªifr
(3) Prime Minister (3) iz/kkuea=h
(4) President (4) jk”Vªifr
34. Who established Shantiniketan ? 34. ‘kkafrfudsru dh LFkkiuk fdlus dh \
(1) Ravindra Nath Tagore (1) jfoUnzukFk VSxksj
(2) Devendra Nath Tagore (2) nsosUnzukFk VSxksj
(3) Satendra Nath Tagore (3) lrsUnzukFk VSxksj
(4) Willian Jones (4) fofy;e tksUl
35. Which of the following statement 35. jkbtksfc;e ds ckjs esa fuEufyf[kr esa
about Rhizobium is true ? ls dkSu lk dFku lR; gS \
(1) Rhizobia are bacteria that can (1) jkbtksfc;k thok.kq gSa tks feV~Vh
live in the soil esa jg ldrs gSaA
(2) Rhizobia are bacteria live in (2) jkbtksfc;k thok.kq gSa tks nkyksa dh
nodules formed on the roots of tM+ksa ij cuh xk¡Bksa esa jgrs gSaA
legumes.
(3) Rhizobia are bacteria (3) jkbtksfc;k thok.kq gSa tks ikS/kksa ls
obtaining nutrients from the iks”kd rRo izkIr djrs gSa vkSj
plant and producing nitrogen tSfod ukbVªkstu fLFkjhdj.k
in a process called biological uked izfØ;k ds n~okjk ukbVªkstu
nitrogen fixation. dk mRiknu djrs gSaA
(4) All of the above statements (4) jkbtksfc;e ds ckjs esa mijksDr
about Rhizobium are true. lHkh dFku lR; gSaA
MSMSS/9–2023
( 13 ) B

Direction : (Question No. 36 and 37) funsZ’k % ¼iz’u la[;k 36 ,oa 37½ uhps nh
Read the information given below and xbZ tkudkjh dks i<+dj ml ij vk/kkfjr
answer the questions based on it. iz’uksa ds mÙkj nhft,A
P, Q, R, S, T and U are six friends sitting P, Q, R, S, T vkSj U N% nksLr ,d nwljs ds
in a circle facing each other. P sits vkeus&lkeus ,d xksy ?ksjs esa cSBsa gSaA P, S
between S and Q and U sits between R vkSj Q ds chp rFkk U, R vkSj T ds chp
and T. R is third to the left of Q. esa cSBk gSA R, Q ds ck;ha vksj rhljk gSA
36. Who is sitting between P and R ? 36. P vkSj R ds chp dkSu cSBk gS \
(1) T (2) Q (1) T (2) Q
(3) S (4) U (3) S (4) U

37. Who is sitting between Q and U ? 37. Q vkSj U ds chp dkSu cSBk gS \
(1) T (2) R (1) T (2) R
(3) P (4) S (3) P (4) S

38. In which Article of the Indian 38. Hkkjrh; lafo/kku ds fdl vuqPNsn esa
Constitution every citizen has izR;sd ukxfjd dks thou dk ekSfyd
been given fundamental right to vf/kdkj fn;k x;k gS \
life ?
(1) Article 21 (1) vuqPNsn 21
(2) Article 22 (2) vuqPNsn 22
(3) Article 19 (3) vuqPNsn 19
(4) Article 18 (4) vuqPNsn 18

39. Which of the following set of 39. fuEufyf[kr esa ls v{kjksa dk dkSu&lk
letters will look the same in the lewg niZ.k esa leku fn[kkbZ nsxk \
mirror ?
(1) OSMIMOM (1) OSMIMOM
(2) VHRTRVH (2) VHRTRVH
(3) HIMOSTA (3) HIMOSTA
(4) AOVIVOA (4) AOVIVOA

MSMSS/9–2023 P. T. O.
B ( 14 )

40. Voice of which of the following is 40. fuEu esa ls fdl okd~ /ofu dh vko`fÙk
likely to have minimum frequency ? U;wure gksus dh lEHkkouk gS \
(1) Baby Girl (1) NksVh yM+dh dh
(2) Baby Boy (2) NksVs yM+ds dh
(3) A Man (3) iq#”k dh
(4) A Woman (4) L=h dh

41. The force of 50 newton acting on 41. ;fn 50 U;wVu cy] 50 lsaVhehVj oxZ
area of 50 cm2 will exert a ds {ks=Qy ij yxk;k tk;s] rks ;g
pressure of : fdruk nkc yxk,xk \
(1) 100 Pa (2) 1000 Pa (1) 100 Pa (2) 1000 Pa
(3) 10000 Pa (4) 1 Pa (3) 10000 Pa (4) 1 Pa

42. The perimeter of a rectangular 42. ,d vk;rkdkj QksVksÝe s dk ifjeki


photo frame is 20 cm. If its length 20 lseh gSA ;fn bldh yEckbZ 6 lseh
is 6 cm then its breadth will be : gks] rks bldh pkSM+kbZ gksxh %
(1) 4 cm (2) 6 cm (1) 4 lseh (2) 6 lseh
(3) 10 cm (4) 14 cm (3) 10 lseh (4) 14 lseh

43. One of the following is not a basic 43. fuEufyf[kr esa ls ,d o”kkZ ty
component of a rainwater lap;u iz.kkyh dk ewy ?kVd
harvesting system. ugha gSA
(1) Catchment (1) tyxzg
(2) Delivery system (2) forj.k iz.kkyh
(3) Storage reservoir (3) tyk’k;
(4) River system (4) unh iz.kkyh

Direction : (Question No. 44 and 45) funsZ’k % ¼iz’u la[;k 44 ,oa 45½ uhps fn,
In the questions given below the question x, iz’uksa esa iz’u vkd`fr dh A vkSj B esa
figure is that a special relationship exists ,d fo’ks”k lac/a k LFkkfir gSA ;g lEca/k
between A and B. This relationship is vkd`fr C vkSj oSdfYid vkd`fr;ksa esa ls
established in figure C and one of the ,d esa LFkkfir gSA ml oSdfYid vkd`fr dk
alternatives figures. Select the p;u djs]a tks vkd`fr D esa iz’u fpg~u ¼\½
alternative figure that should replace the dk LFkku ys ldrh gSA
question mark (?) in figure D.
MSMSS/9–2023
( 15 ) B

44. 44.

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

45. 45.

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

46. How many parallelograms are in 46. nh xbZ vkd`fr esa fdrus lekarj
the given figure ? prqHkqZt gSa \

(1) 11 (2) 12 (1) 11 (2) 12

(3) 16 (4) 18 (3) 16 (4) 18

MSMSS/9–2023 P. T. O.
B ( 16 )

47. The ratio of speed of a motorbike 47. ,d eksVjckbd ftldh xfr 50 fdeh
50 km per hour and speed of cycle izfr ?kaVk gS o ,d lkbZfdy ftldh
20 km per hour is : xfr 20 fdeh izfr ?kaVk gS] dk
vuqikr gS %
(1) 2 : 5 (2) 5 : 1 (1) 2 : 5 (2) 5 : 1
(3) 5 : 2 (4) 1 : 2 (3) 5 : 2 (4) 1 : 2

48. Which of the following can not be 48. fuEufyf[kr esa fdls ?k”kZ.k }kjk
charged easily by friction ? vklkuh ls vkosf’kr ugha fd;k tk
ldrk \
(1) A Plastic Scale (1) IykfLVd dk iSekuk
(2) A Copper Rod (2) rkacs dh NM+
(3) An Inflated Ballon (3) Qwyk gqvk xqCckjk
(4) A Woollen Cloth (4) Åuh oL=

49. Which of the parallelogram has all 49. dkSu&ls lekUrj prqHkqZt dh lHkh
sides equal and diagonals bisect Hkqtk,¡ cjkcj gSa o mlds fod.kZ ,d
each other at right angle ? nwljs dks 90° ij lef}HkkfTkr djrs
gSa \
(1) Square (1) oxZ
(2) Rectangle (2) vk;r
(3) Rhombus (3) leprqHkqZt
(4) Trapezium (4) leyEc prqHkqZt

50. The amounts of these resources 50. izd`fr esa ftu lalk/kuksa dh ek=k
are less and will not be lhfer gS vkSj izkd`frd izfØ;kvksa
replenished by natural methods, }kjk iquLFkkZiu ugha gks ldrk gS]
are .............. . mUgsa .............. dgrs gSAa
(1) Biodegradable Resources (1) fuEuhdj.k lalk/ku
(2) Non-Biodegradable Resources (2) vfuEuhdj.k lalk/ku
(3) Renewable Resources (3) uohdj.kh; lalk/ku
(4) Non-Renewable Resources (4) vuohdj.kh; lalk/ku
MSMSS/9–2023
( 17 ) B

51. Who wrote the book 'Gulamgiri' ? 51. ^xqykefxjh* iqLrd dh jpuk fdlus
dh \
(1) Savitri Phule (1) lkfo=h Qqys
(2) Jyotirao Phule (2) T;ksfrjko Qqys
(3) Mahatma Gandhi (3) egkRek xk¡/kh
(4) Ramabai (4) jekckbZ

52. For which of the following is 52. fuEu esa ls fdlds fy, m dk eku
m=8? 8 gS \
(1) (5m × 5–3)/52 = 53 (1) (5m × 5–3)/52 = 53
(2) –(5m × 5–3)/53 = 52 (2) –(5m × 5–3)/53 = 52
(3) (5m × 52)/52 = 53 (3) (5m × 52)/52 = 53
(4) (5 × 5–2)/52 = 53 (4) (5 × 5–2)/52 = 53

53. According to you what is a Hen’s 53. vkids vuqlkj fn;s fodYiksa esa ls
egg in the given options ? eqxhZ dk vaMk D;k gS \
(1) Tissue (1) Ård
(2) Organ (2) vax
(3) Organ system (3) vax iz.kkyh
(4) Cell (4) dksf’kdk

54. Which of the following statements 54. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk dFku
correctly describes the organic tSfod [kkn~; dk lgh O;k[;ku djrk
food ? gS \
(1) Food crop grown without using (1) moZjdksa dk mi;ksx fd, fcuk
fertilizers is organic food. mxkbZ tkus okyh [kkn~; Qly
tSfod Hkkstu gSA
(2) Food crop grown without using (2) fcuk [kjirokjuk’kdksa ds mxkbZ
weedicides is organic food. tkus okyh [kkn~; Qly tSfod
Hkkstu gSA
(3) Food crop grown without using (3) dhVuk’kdksa ds mi;ksx ds fcuk
pesticides is organic food. mxkbZ tkus okyh [kkn~; Qly
tSfod Hkkstu gSA
(4) All of the above. (4) mijksDr lHkhA
MSMSS/9–2023 P. T. O.
B ( 18 )

55. The value of 992 is : 55. 992 dk eku gS %


(1) (90)2 + 2(90) (9) + (9)2 (1) (90)2 + 2(90) (9) + (9)2
(2) (90)2 – (90) (9) + (9)2 (2) (90)2 – (90) (9) + (9)2
(3) (90)2 + (9)2 (3) (90)2 + (9)2
(4) None of these (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
56 Select the
Direction (Question No. 56) funsZ’k % ¼iz’u la[;k 56½ vaxzsth o.kZekyk
water image of the given combination of vkSj la[;kvksa ds fn, x, la;kstu dk ty
English alphabet and number. izfrfcac pqfu,A
56. 56.
(1) (2) (1) (2)
(3) (4) (3) (4)

57. In the question which of the 57. iz’u esa mÙkj vkd`fr;k¡ (1), (2), (3)
answer figures (1), (2), (3) and (4) vkSj (4) esa ls dkSu&lh vkd`fr fp=
will complete the picture matrix ? vkO;wg ¼eSfVªDl½ dks iw.kZ djsxh \

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

58. When the square of a number is 58. tc ,d la[;k ds oxZ dks mlh la[;k
subtracted from the cube of the ds ?ku esa ls ?kVk;k tkrk gS] rks 100
same number, it becomes 100. izkIr gksrk gSA la[;k Kkr djsa %
Find the number :
(1) 1 (2) 2 (1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 4 (4) 5 (3) 4 (4) 5
MSMSS/9–2023
( 19 ) B

59. The period of maturity of 59. iztuu vaxksa dh ifjiDork dh vof/k


reproductive organs is called : dgykrh gS %
(1) Adolescence period (1) fd’kksjkoLFkk dky
(2) Menstrual period (2) vkrZo pØ dky
(3) Gestation period (3) iDoukofn
(4) None of these (4) bues
esa ls dksbZ ugha

60. With respect to zones of candle 60. eksecÙkh dh Tokyk ds lanHkZ esa] lgh
flame, choose the correct option : fodYi pqusa %
(1) Outer zone of complete (1) iw.kZ ngu dk ckg~; {ks= & ihyk
combustion – Yellow
(2) Innermost zone of unburnt (2) fcuk tyh eksecÙkh dk lcls
Candle wax – Black vkarfjd {ks= & dkyk
(3) Middle zone of partial (3) vkaf’kd ngu okyk e/; Hkkx &
combustion – Blue uhyk
(4) Hottest Part – Black (4) lcls xeZ Hkkx & dkyk

Direction : (Question No. 61 and 62) funsZ’k % ¼iz’u la[;k 61 ,oa 62½ ;fn iz’u
Which one of the answer figure would vkd`fr leku Øe esa cnys rks vxys Øe
occupy the next position in the question ij mÙkj vkd` d`fr;ksa esa ls dkSu&lh vkd`fr
figure, if they continue to change in mfpr LFkku ik,xh \
same order ?

61. Question Figures : 61. iz'u vkd`fr;k¡ %

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

MSMSS/9–2023 P. T. O.
B ( 20 )

62. Question Figures : 62. iz'u vkd`fr;k¡ %

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

63. Which of the statements is/are 63. Hkwe/; js[kk ds lac/a k esa dkSu lk@ls
true in relation to equator ? dFku lR; gS \
i. The equator passes through i. Hkwe/; js[kk nf{k.k vesfjdk]
the continents of South vÝhdk vkSj vkWLVªsfy;k egk}hiksa
America, Africa and Australia. ls gksdj xqtjrh gSA
ii. The equator passes through ii. Hkwe/; js[kk rsjg ns’kksa ls gksdj
thirteen countries. xqtjrh gSA
iii. There is only one major river iii. dsoy ,d izeq[k unh gS tks
which crosses the equato
equator Hkwe/; js[kk dks nks ckj ikj
twice. djrh gSA
(1) Only iii (1) dsoy iii
(2) Both i and ii (2) i vkSj ii nksuksa
(3) All i, ii, iii (3) lHkh i, ii, iii
(4) Both ii and iii (4) ii vkSj iii nksuksa
MSMSS/9–2023
( 21 ) B

64. The first English Factory was 64. izFke bafXy’k QSDVjh 1651 bZ0 esa
established on the banks of which fdl unh ds fdukjs LFkkfir gqbZ \
river in 1651 AD ?
(1) Narmada (1) ueZnk
(2) Hugli (2) gqxyh
(3) Tapti (3) rkIrh
(4) Satluj (4) lryqt
65. Which figure best represents the 65. iatkc] gfj;k.kk vkSj fglkj ds chp
relationship between Punjab, ds lac/a k dks dkSu&lh vkd`fr iznf’kZr
Haryana and Hisar ? djrh gS \

(1) (1)

(2) (2)

(3) (3)

(4) (4)

Direction : (Question No. 66 to 68) In funsZ’k % ¼iz’u la[;k 66 ls 68½ bu iz’uksa


these questions a number/letter series is esa ,d la[;k@v{kj Ük`a[kyk nh xbZ gS
given. In which one term is missing. ftlesa ,d in yqIr gSA yqIr la[;k@v{kj
Find the missing number/letter, which Kkr djsa] tks iz’u fpg~u ¼\½ ¼ ds LFkku ij
when placed at question mark (?), will j[kus ij Ük``a[kyk dks iw.kZ djrk gksA
complete the series.

66. 4, 7, 12, 21, ? , 71 66. 4, 7, 12, 21, ? , 71


(1) 29 (2) 40 (1) 29 (2) 40
(3) 44 (4) 38 (3) 44 (4) 38

MSMSS/9–2023 P. T. O.
B ( 22 )

67. 5, 5, 15 , ? , 525 67. 5, 5, 15 , ? , 525


(1) 35 (1) 35
(2) 225 (2) 225
(3) 75 (3) 75
(4) 105 (4) 105

68. PAL, NZN, LBP, JYR, ? 68. PAL, NZN, LBP, JYR, ?
(1) HCT (1) HCT
(2) KCQ (2) KCQ
(3) GCT (3) GCT
(4) ICS (4) ICS

69. Vijay is 18th from the left in the 69. fot; ,d iafDr esa ck,¡ ls 18osa
row. He came 5 places to the left. LFkku ij gSA og ik¡p LFkku ck,¡
If there are 34 students in the row, vk;kA ;fn iafDr esa 34 Nk= gSa] rks
then what is his position from the mldk vc nk,¡ ls dkSu&lk LFkku
right now ? gS \
(1) 22nd (1) 22ok¡
(2) 16th (2) 16ok¡
(3) 23rd (3) 23ok¡
(4) 24th (4) 24ok¡

70. The process of artificially 70. fdlh le:i dksf’kdk ;k fdlh


producing an identical cell or any thfor Hkkx vFkok laiw.kZ tho dks
other living part or whole d`f=e :i esa mRiUu djus dh izfØ;k
organism is called : dgykrh gS %
(1) Tissue culture (1) Ård lao/kZu
(2) Cell biology (2) dksf’kdk foKku
(3) Cloning (3) Dyksfuax
(4) Biotechnology (4) tSo izknS ;
~ ksfxdh

MSMSS/9–2023
( 23 )
jQ dk;Z ds fy, / FOR ROUGH WORK
5. iz'uksa ds mÙkj] mÙkj i=d esa fu/kkZfjr [kkuksa dks dkys 5. Answers to questions in answer sheet are to be
ckWy IokbaV iSu ls iw.kZr;k dkyk djuk gS] tSlk fd given by darkening complete circle using black ball
uhps fn[kk;k x;k gS % point pen as shown below :
1  3 4 1  3 4
vki }kjk fn;k x;k mÙkj xyr ekuk tk,xk] ;fn The answer will be treated wrong, if it is marked, as given
mÙkj okys [kkus dks fuEu izdkj ls Hkjrs gSa % below :

    
   
;fn ,d ls T;knk [kkuksa dks Hkj nsrs gSa rks vkidk If you fill more than one circle it will be treated as a
mÙkj xyr ekuk tk,xkA wrong answer.
6. jQ dk;Z iz'u iqfLrdk esa bl iz;kstu ds fy, nh xbZ 6. Rough work should be done only in the space provided
[kkyh txg ij gh djsaA in the Test Booklet for the same.
7. lHkh mÙkj dsoy mÙkj i=d (OMR) ij gh vafdr 7. The answers are to be recorded on the OMR Answer
djsAa vius mÙkj /;kuiwoZd vafdr djsAa mÙkj cnyus Sheet only. Mark your responses carefully. No whitener
gsrq 'osr jatd ¼lQsn ¶Y;wM½ dk iz;ksx fuf"k) gSA (white fluid) is allowed for changing answers.
8. izR;sd iz’u ds fy, fn, x, pkj fodYiksa esa ls mfpr 8. Out of the four alternatives for each question, only one
fodYi ds fy, mÙkj i=d (OMR) ij dsoy ,d gh circle for the most appropriate answer is to be darkened
o`Ùk dks iwjh rjg dkys ckWy IokbaV iSu ls HkjsaA ,d completely with Black Ball Point Pen on the OMR
ckj mÙkj vafdr djus ds ckn mls cnyk ugha tk Answer Sheet. The answer once marked is not allowed
ldrk gSA to be changed.
9. vH;FkhZ lqfuf’pr djsa fd bl mÙkj i=d dks eksMk+ u 9. The candidate should ensure that the Answer Sheet is
tk, ,oa ml ij dksbZ vU; fu’kku u yxk,¡A not folded. Do not make any stray mark on Answer
vH;FkhZ viuk vuqØekad mÙkj i=d esa fu/kkZfjr Sheet. Do not write your Roll No. anywhere else except
LFkku ds vfrfjDr vU;= u fy[ksAa in the specified space in the Answer Sheet.
10. iz'u iqfLrdk ,oa mÙkj i=d dk /;kuiwod Z iz;ksx djs]a 10. Handle the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet with care, as
D;ksfa d fdlh Hkh ifjfLFkfr esa ¼dsoy iz'u iqfLrdk ,oa under no circumstances (except for discrepancy in Test
mÙkj i=d ds Øekad esa fHkUurk dh fLFkfr dks NksMd + j½ Booklet and Answer Sheet Serial No.), another set of
nwljh iz'u iqfLrdk lSV miyC/k ugha djokbZ tk,xhA Test Booklet will not be provided.
11. iz'u iqfLrdk@mÙkj i=d esa fn, x, Øekad dks 11. The candidate will write the correct Number as given in
vH;FkhZ lgh rjhds ls gkftjh i= esa fy[ksaA the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet in the Attendance Sheet.
12. vH;FkhZ dks ijh{kk gkWy@d{k esa izos’k dkMZ ds 12. Candidate is not allowed to carry any textual material,
vfrfjDr fdlh izdkj dh ikB~; lkexzh] eqfnzr ;k printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone,
gLrfyf[kr dkxt dh ifpZ;k¡] istj] eksckby Qksu] electronic device or any other material except the Admit
bysDVªkWfud midj.k ;k fdlh vU; izdkj dh lkexzh Card inside the examination hall/room.
dks ys tkus ;k mi;ksx djus dh vuqefr ugha gSA
13. fujh{kd }kjk iwNs tkus ij izR;sd vH;FkhZ viuk 13. Each candidate must show on demand his/her Admit
izos’k&i= ¼jksy ua0½ fn[kk,¡A Card (Roll No.) to the Invigilator.
14. dsUnz v/kh{kd ;k fujh{kd dh fo’ks"k vuqefr ds fcuk 14. No candidate, without special permission of the
dksbZ vH;FkhZ viuk LFkku u NksMa+sA Superintendent or Invigilator, should leave his/her seat.
15. bysDVªkWfud@gLrpkfyr ifjdyd dk mi;ksx oftZr gSA 15. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.
16. fdlh gkyr esa iz'u&iqfLrdk ,oa mÙkj&i=d dk dksbZ 16. No part of test Booklet and Answer-sheet shall be
Hkkx vyx u djsaA detached under any circumstances.
17. ijh{kk lEiUu gksus ij] vH;FkhZ ijh{kk d{k@gkWy 17. On completion of the test, candidate must hand over the
NksM+us ls iwoZ mÙkj i=d d{k&i;Zos{kd dks vo’; Answer Sheet to the Invigilator in the Room/Hall. The
lkSai nsAa vH;FkhZ vius lkFk iz'u iqfLrdk dks ys tk candidate is allowed to take away this Test Booklet with
ldrs gSaA them.
MSMSS – 2023
(For Class 9th)
SET : C
cqdysV Øekad ,oa
vks0,e0vkj0 Øekad
vuqØekad ¼vadksa esa½ % Booklet Serial No. &
Roll No. (In Figures) O. M. R. Serial No.
vuqØekad ¼'kCnksa esa½ %
Roll No. (In Words)
ijh{kk dsUnz dk uke %
Name of Examination Centre
vH;FkhZ dk uke % vH;FkhZ ds gLrk{kj %
Name of Candidate Signature of the Candidate
bl iz'u-iqfLrdk esa i`"Bksa dh la[;k iz'uksa dh la[;k le;
24 70 2½ hours
No. of Pages in this Question Booklet No. of Questions Time

fujh{kd ds gLrk{kj@Signature of the Invigilator :


vH;FkhZ dks 10 feuV dk le; iz'u-iqfLrdk ij Nis funs'Z kksa dks i<+u]s iz'u-i= cqdysV esa fn, x, iz'uksa ds lhfj;y uEcj psd djus] C;kSjk Hkjus ds fy, ,oa
cqdysV ds lHkh i`"Bksa dk voyksdu djus] misprint psd djus ds fy, fn;k tk,xkA ;fn iz'u&i= cqdysV esa iz'uksa ds lhfj;y uEcj xyr Nis gSa] i`"B miss
gS ;k dksbZ i`"B misprint gS rks rqjUr dsUnz v/kh{kd ls fuosnu djds iz'u-i= cqdysV cny ysAa bu 10 feuV ds i'pkr~ ;k ijh{kk lekIr gksus ds i'pkr~ dksbZ
nkok Lohdkj ugha fd;k tk,xkA bu 10 feuVksa ds vfrfjDr] iz'uksa ds mÙkj nsus o vafdr djus ds fy, iwjs 2½?kaVs dk le; fn;k tk,xkA

vH;fFkZ
vH;fFkZ;ksa ds fy, funsZ'k % INSTRUCTIONS FOR THE CANDIDATES :

1. mÙkj i=d (OMR) bl iz'u iqfLrdk ds vUnj j[kk 1. The OMR Answer Sheet is inside this Test Booklet.
gSA tc vkidks iz'u iqfLrdk [kksyus dks dgk tk,] rks When you are directed to open the Test Booklet, take out
mÙkj i=d fudky dj /;ku ls dsoy dkys ckWy IokbaV the Answer Sheet and fill the particulars carefully with
isu ls fooj.k HkjsaA black ball point pen only.
2. ijh{kk dh vof/k 2½ ?kaVs gS ,oa iz'u iqfLrdk esa 70 iz’u 2. The test is of 2½ hours duration and consists of
gSaA izR;sd iz'u ,d vad dk gSA dksbZ _.kkRed vadu 70 questions. Each question carries one mark. There is no
ugha gSA negative marking.
3. bl i`"B ij fooj.k vafdr djus ,oa mÙkj i=d ij 3. Use Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on
fu’kku yxkus ds fy, dsoy dkys ckWy IokbaV isu dk this page/marking responses in the Answer Sheet. The
iz;ksx djsaA vH;FkhZ iz'u-iqfLrdk dk mi;ksx djus ,oa candidate should remain careful in handling the question
mÙkj i=d dks Hkjus esa lko/kkuh cjrsaA nwljh iz'u- paper and in marking the answers on the answer sheet.
iqfLrdk ls
lsV çnku ugha dh tk,xhA Another booklet set will not be given.
4. ;g Hkh lqfuf’pr dj ysa fd iz'u iqfLrdk Øekad vkSj 4. Also ensure that your Test Booklet Serial No. and
mÙkj i=d Øekad ,d gh gSaA vxj ;g fHkUu gksa ;k Answer Sheet Serial No. are the same. In case of
iz'u iqfLrdk esa dksbZ i`"B Miss ;k Misprint gks rks discrepancy or any page is Miss or Misprint in test
vH;FkhZ nwljh iz’u-iqfLrdk vkSj mÙkj i=d ysus ds booklet, the candidate should immediately report the
fy, fujh{kd dks rqjUr voxr djok,A matter to the Invigilator for replacement of both the Test
Booklet and the Answer Sheet.

uksV % bl iqfLrdk ds vUr esa fn, x, 'ks"k funsZ'kksa dks Note : Read other remaining instructions given on the last
i<+saA page of this Booklet.
(2)
jQ dk;Z ds fy, / FOR ROUGH WORK
(3) C

Direction (Question No. 1) Select the funsZ’k % ¼iz’u la[;k 1½ vaxzsth o.kZekyk
water image of the given combination of vkSj la[;kvksa ds fn, x, la;kstu dk ty
English alphabet and number. izfrfcac pqfu,A

1. 1.
(1) (2) (1) (2)
(3) (4) (3) (4)

2. In the question which of the 2. iz’u esa mÙkj vkd`fr;k¡ (1), (2), (3)
answer figures (1), (2), (3) and (4) vkSj (4) esa ls dkSu&lh vkd`fr fp=
will complete the picture matrix ? vkO;wg ¼eSfVªDl½ dks iw.kZ djsxh \

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

3. The angle of incidence is equal to 3. vkiru dks.k] ijkorZu dks.k ds


angle of reflection : cjkcj gksrk gS %

(1) Always (1) lnSo


(2) Sometimes (2) dHkh&dHkh
(3) Under Special Conditions (3) fo’ks”k ifjfLFkfr;ksa esa

(4) Never (4) dHkh ugha


MSMSS/9–2023 P. T. O.
C (4)

Direction : (Question No. 4 and 5) funsZ’k % ¼iz’u la[;k 4 ,oa 5½ uhps nh xbZ
Read the information given below and tkudkjh dks i<+dj ml ij vk/kkfjr iz’uksa
answer the questions based on it. ds mÙkj nhft,A
P, Q, R, S, T and U are six friends sitting P, Q, R, S, T vkSj U N% nksLr ,d nwljs ds
in a circle facing each other. P sits vkeus&lkeus ,d xksy ?ksjs esa cSBsa gSaA P, S
between S and Q and U sits between R vkSj Q ds chp rFkk U, R vkSj T ds chp
and T. R is third to the left of Q. esa cSBk gSA R, Q ds ck;ha vksj rhljk gSA

4. Who is sitting between P and R ? 4. P vkSj R ds chp dkSu cSBk gS \


(1) T (2) Q (1) T (2) Q
(3) S (4) U (3) S (4) U

5. Who is sitting between Q and U ? 5. Q vkSj U ds chp dkSu cSBk gS \


(1) T (2) R (1) T (2) R
(3) P (4) S (3) P (4) S

6. First World War started in : 6. izFke fo’o ;q) izkjEHk gqvk %


(1) 1915 AD (2) 1916 AD (1) 1915 bZ0 esa (2) 1916 bZ0 esa
(3) 1918 AD (4) 1914 AD (3) 1918 bZ0 esa (4) 1914 bZ0 esa

7. The four major components of 7. i;kZoj.k ds pkj ize[q k ?kVd uhps


environment are given below. fn, x, gSaA fuEufyf[kr dks muds
Match the following with their lVhd lacf/kr ls lqesfyr dhft,A
exact relation.
Component Relation ?kVd lac/a k
1. Lithosphere i. Air 1. LFkyeaMy i. ok;q
2. Hydrosphere ii. Life 2. tyeaMy ii. thou
3. Atmosphere iii. Water 3. ok;qeM
a y iii. ty
4. Biosphere iv. Solid Rocks, 4. tSoeaMy iv. Bksl] pV~Vkus]a
Outermost i`Foh dh lcls
layer of earth ckgjh ijr ftls
called crust ØLV dgk tkrk
gS
(1) 1-iii, 2-i, 3-ii, 4-iv (1) 1-iii, 2-i, 3-ii, 4-iv
(2) 1-ii, 2-iii, 3-i, 4-iv (2) 1-ii, 2-iii, 3-i, 4-iv
(3) 1-iv, 2-iii, 3-i, 4-ii (3) 1-iv, 2-iii, 3-i, 4-ii
(4) 1-iv, 2-ii, 3-i, 4-iii (4) 1-iv, 2-ii, 3-i, 4-iii

MSMSS/9–2023
(5) C

8. Global warming can result in 8. Xykscy okfe±x ds ifj.kkeLo:i


many serious alterations to the i;kZoj.k esa dbZ xaHkhj ifjorZu gks
environment. Which of the ldrs gSaA Xykscy okfeZx
a ds laca/k esa
statements is/are wrong in dkSu&lk@ls dFku xyr gSA
relation to global warming ?
i. Adverse Impact on health i. LokLF; ij cqjk izHkko
ii. low sea level ii. fuEu leqnz Lrj
iii. Threats to biodiversity iii. tSo fofo/krk ds fy, [krjk
(1) Only ii (1) dsoy ii
(2) Both i and iii (2) i vkSj iii nksuksa
(3) All i, ii, iii (3) lHkh i, ii, iii
(4) Both ii and iii (4) ii vkSj iii nksuksa

9. Which of the parallelogram has all 9. dkSu&ls lekUrj prqHkqZt dh lHkh


sides equal and diagonals bisect Hkqtk,¡ cjkcj gSa o mlds fod.kZ ,d
each other at right angle ? nwljs dks 90° ij lef}HkkfTkr djrs
gSa \
(1) Square (1) oxZ
(2) Rectangle (2) vk;r
(3) Rhombus (3) leprqHkqZt
(4) Trapezium (4) leyEc prqHkqZt

10. Which of the following can not be 10. fuEufyf[kr esa fdls ?k”kZ.k }kjk
charged easily by friction ? vklkuh ls vkosf’kr ugha fd;k tk
ldrk \
(1) A Plastic Scale (1) IykfLVd dk iSekuk
(2) A Copper Rod (2) rkacs dh NM+
(3) An Inflated Ballon (3) Qwyk gqvk xqCckjk
(4) A Woollen Cloth (4) Åuh oL=
MSMSS/9–2023 P. T. O.
C (6)

Direction : (Question No. 11 and 12) funsZ’k % ¼iz’u la[;k 11 ,oa


,oa 12½ fuEufyf[kr
In the following questions, choose a iz’u esa pkj fodYiksa esa ls ,d vkd`fr
figures amongst the four alternatives pqusa] ftls tc vkd`fr (X) esa iz’u fpUg
which when placed in question mark (?) (?) ds LFkku ij j[kk tk, rks iSVuZ iw.kZ gks
space of figure (X) will complete the tk,A
pattern.

11. 11.

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

12. 12.

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

13. Who wrote the book 'Gulamgiri' ? 13. ^xqykefxjh* iqLrd dh jpuk fdlus
dh \
(1) Savitri Phule (1) lkfo=h Qqys
ys
(2) Jyotirao Phule (2) T;ksfrjko Q
Qqys
(3) Mahatma Gandhi (3) egkRek xk¡/kh
(4) Ramabai (4) jekckbZ
MSMSS/9–2023
(7) C

14. Who established Shantiniketan ? 14. ‘kkafrfudsru dh LFkkiuk fdlus dh \


(1) Ravindra Nath Tagore (1) jfoUnzukFk VSxksj
(2) Devendra Nath Tagore (2) nsosUnzukFk VSxksj
(3) Satendra Nath Tagore (3) lrsUnzukFk VSxksj
(4) Willian Jones (4) fofy;e tksUl

15. Voice of which of the following is 15. fuEu esa ls fdl okd~ /ofu dh vko`fÙk
likely to have minimum frequency ? U;wure gksus dh lEHkkouk gS \
(1) Baby Girl (1) NksVh yM+dh dh
(2) Baby Boy (2) NksVs yM+ds dh
(3) A Man (3) iq#”k dh
(4) A Woman (4) L=h dh
16. At the time ............ between 3:00 16. 3 vkSj 4 cts ds chp fdl le;
and 4:00, both the hands will cover nksuksa lqbZ;k¡ ,d nwljs dks <d ysx
a h \
each other.
4 4
(1) 3 : 16 (1) 3 : 16
11 11
7 7
(2) 3 : 15 (2) 3 : 15
11 11
4 4
(3) 3 : 10 (3) 3 : 10
11 11
5 5
(4) 3 : 05 (4) 3 : 05
11 11

17. When the square of a number is 17. tc ,d la[;k ds oxZ dks mlh la[;k
subtracted from the cube of the ds ?ku esa ls ?kVk;k tkrk gS] rks 100
same number, it becomes 100. izkIr gksrk gSA la[;k Kkr djsa %
Find the number :
(1) 1 (2) 2 (1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 4 (4) 5 (3) 4 (4) 5

MSMSS/9–2023 P. T. O.
C (8)

18. Which figure best represents the 18. Qy] yky vkSj deht ds chp ds
relationship between Fruit, Red laca/k dks dkSu&lh vkd`fr iznf’kZr
and Shirt ? djrh gS \

(1) (1)

(2) (2)

(3) (3)

(4) (4)

19. The process of artificially 19. fdlh le:i dksf’kdk ;k fdlh


producing an identical cell or any thfor Hkkx vFkok laiw.kZ tho dks
other living part or whole d`f=e :i esa mRiUu djus dh izfØ;k
organism is called : dgykrh gS %
(1) Tissue culture (1) Ård
d lao/kZu
(2) Cell biology (2) dksf’kdk foKku
(3) Cloning (3) Dyksfuax
(4) Biotechnology (4) tSo izknS ;
~ ksfxdh

20. If all the vowels are removed from 20. ;fn lHkh Lojksa dks vaxzsth o.kZekyk
the English alphabets, then which ls gVk fn;k tk,] rks ck,¡ ls ik¡posa
will be the eighth letter to the v{kj ds nk,¡ vkBok¡ v{kj dkSu&lk
right of the fifth letter from the gksxk \
left ?
(1) M (2) N (1) M (2) N
(3) P (4) Q (3) P (4) Q

MSMSS/9–2023
(9) C

21. The perimeter of a rectangular 21. ,d vk;rkdkj QksVksÝe s dk ifjeki


photo frame is 20 cm. If its length 20 lseh
eh gSA ;fn bldh yEckbZ 6 lseh
is 6 cm then its breadth will be : gks] rks bldh pkSM+kbZ gksxh %
(1) 4 cm (2) 6 cm (1) 4 lseh (2) 6 lseh
(3) 10 cm (4) 14 cm (3) 10 lseh (4) 14 lseh

22. A rabbit walks 1 kilometer in 2 22. ,d [kjxks’k 2 ?kaVs esa ,d fdyksehVj


hours. After every kilometer he pyrk gSA izR;sd fdyksehVj ds ckn
rests for 20 minutes. How much og 20 feuV foJke djrk gSA 3.5
time will it take to cover a fdyksehVj dh nwjh r; djus esa mls
distance of 3.5 kilometers ? fdruk le; yxsxk \
(1) 8 hours (2) 7 hours (1) 8 ?kaVs (2) 7 ?kaVs
(3) 6 hours (4) 5 hours (3) 6 ?kaVs (4) 5 ?kaVs

23. Four friends A, B, C and D are 23. pkj nksLr A, B, C vkSj D rk’k
playing cards. A and B are [ksy jgsa gSaA A vkSj B vkil esa
partners. D is facing North. If A is tksM+hnkj gSaA D dk eq[k mÙkj dh
sitting to the left of D, then who is vksj gSA ;fn A, D dh ck;ha vksj
facing South ? cSBk gS] rks fdldk eq[k nf{k.k dh
vksj gS \
(1) B (2) C (1) B (2) C
(3) A (4) D (3) A (4) D

24. Select the water image of the 24. nh xbZ vkd`fr (X) dk ty izfrfcac
given figure (X) : pqfu, %

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

MSMSS/9–2023 P. T. O.
C ( 10 )

Direction : (Question No. 25 and 26) funsZ’k % ¼iz’u la[;k 25 ,oa 26½ uhps nh
In each of the following figures numbers xbZ izR;sd vkd`fr esa ,d fuf’pr Øe
are written according to some patterns. vuqlkj dqN la[;k,¡ fy[kh xbZ gSaA buesa ls
One number is missing. Find the ,d la[;k yqIr gSA yqIr la[;k Kkr djsa]
missing number that replaces the tks iz’u fpg~u ¼\½½ ds LFkku ij mi;qDr
question mark (?). gksA
25. 25.

(1) 23 (2) 27 (1) 23 (2) 27

(3) 29 (4) 25 (3) 29 (4) 25

26. 26.

(1) 32 (2) 34 (1) 32 (2) 34


(3) 14 (4) 24 (3) 14 (4) 24

27. Who is the chairperson of Rajya 27. jkT;lHkk dk lHkkifr dkSu gksrk gS \
Sabha ?
(1) Governor (1) jkT;iky
(2) Vice-President (2) mijk”Vªifr
(3) Prime Minister (3) iz/kkuea=h
(4) President (4) jk”Vªifr

28. Which one number is wrong in 28. la[;k Ük``a[kyk esa dkSu&lh ,d la[;k
the number series ? xyr gS \
5 , 13 , 39 , 160 , 805 5 , 13 , 39 , 160 , 805
(1) 5 (2) 39 (1) 5 (2) 39
(3) 160 (4) 13 (3) 160 (4) 13

MSMSS/9–2023
( 11 ) C

Direction : (Question No. 29 and 30) funsZ’k % ¼iz’u la[;k 29 ,oa 30½ uhps fn,
In the questions given below the question x, iz’uksa esa iz’u vkd`fr dh A vkSj B esa
figure is that a special relationship exists ,d fo’ks”k lac/a k LFkkfir gSA ;g lEca/k
between A and B. This relationship is vkd`fr C vkSj oSdfYid vkd`fr;ksa esa ls
established in figure C and one of the ,d esa LFkkfir gSA ml oSdfYid vkd`fr dk
alternatives figures. Select the p;u djsa] tks vkd`fr D esa iz’u fpg~u ¼\½
alternative figure that should replace the dk LFkku ys ldrh gSA
question mark (?) in figure D.

29. 29.

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

30. 30.

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

MSMSS/9–2023 P. T. O.
C ( 12 )

31. How many parallelograms are in 31. nh xbZ vkd`fr esa fdrus lekarj
the given figure ? prqHkqZt gSa \

(1) 11 (2) 12 (1) 11 (2) 12


(3) 16 (4) 18 (3) 16 (4) 18

32. The first English Factory was 32. izFke bafXy’k QSDVjh 1651 bZ0 esa
established on the banks of which fdl unh ds fdukjs LFkkfir gqbZ \
river in 1651 AD ?

(1) Narmada (2) Hugli (1) ueZnk (2) gqxyh


(3) Tapti (4) Satluj (3) rkIrh (4) lryqt

33. Which of the statements is/are 33. Hkwe/; js[kk ds lac/a k esa dkSu lk@ls
true in relation to equator ? dFku lR; gS \
i. The equator passes through i. Hkwe/; js[kk nf{k.k vesfjdk]
the continents of South vÝhdk vkSj vkWLVªsfy;k egk}hiksa
America, Africa and Australia. ls gksdj xqtjrh gSA
ii. The equator passes through ii. Hkwe/; js[kk rsjg ns’kksa ls gksdj
thirteen countries. xqtjrh gSA
iii. There is only one major river iii. dsoy ,d izeq[k unh gS tks
which crosses the equator Hkwe/; js[kk dks nks ckj ikj
twice. djrh gSA
(1) Only iii (1) dsoy iii
(2) Both i and ii (2) i vkSj ii nksuksa
(3) All i, ii, iii (3) lHkh i, ii, iii
(4) Both ii and iii (4) ii vkSj iii nksuksa
MSMSS/9–2023
( 13 ) C
34. The amounts of these resources 34. izd`fr esa ftu lalk/kuksa dh ek=k
are less and will not be lhfer
fer gS vkSj izkd`frd izfØ;kvksa
replenished by natural methods, }kjk iquLFkkZiu ugha gks ldrk gS]
are .............. . mUgsa .............. dgrs gSAa
(1) Biodegradable Resources (1) fuEuhdj.k lalk/ku
(2) Non-Biodegradable
Biodegradable Resources (2) vfuEuhdj.k lalk/ku
(3) Renewable Resources (3) uohdj.kh; lalk/ku
(4) Non-Renewable
Renewable Resources (4) vuohdj.kh; lalk/ku
35. In which Article of the Indian 35. Hkkjrh; lafo/kku ds fdl vuqPNsn esa
Constitution every citizen has been izR;sd ukxfjd dks thou dk ekSfyd
given fundamental right to life ? vf/kdkj fn;k x;k gS \
(1) Article 21 (2) Article 22 (1) vuqPNsn 21 (2) vuqPNsn 22
(3) Article 19 (4) Article 18 (3) vuqPNsn 19 (4) vuqPNsn 18
36. One of the following is not a basic 36. fuEufyf[kr esa ls ,d o”kkZ ty
component of a rainwater lap;u iz.kkyh dk ewy ?kVd
harvesting system. ugha gSA
(1) Catchment (1) tyxzg
(2) Delivery system (2) forj.k iz.kkyh
(3) Storage reservoir (3) tyk’k;
(4) River system (4) unh iz.kkyh
37. Which figure best represents the 37. iatkc] gfj;k.kk vkSj fglkj ds chp
relationship between Punjab, ds lac/a k dks dkSu&lh vkd`fr iznf’kZr
Haryana and Hisar ? djrh gS \

(1) (1)

(2) (2)

(3) (3)

(4) (4)

MSMSS/9–2023 P. T. O.
C ( 14 )

38. Number 1 to 10 are written on ten 38. ,d ls 10 rd dh la[;kvksa dks nl


separate slips (one number on one vyx&vyx ifpZ;ksa ij fy[kdj ,d
slip) kept in a box and mixed well. fMCcs esa Mkyk x;k o vPNh rjg
One slip is chosen from the box feyk fn;k x;kA fMCcs esa ls fcuk
without looking into it what is the ns[ks ,d iphZ fudkyh xbZA ,d vad
probability of getting a 1-digit dh la[;k fudyus dh D;k izkf;drk
number ? gksxh \
(1) 1 (2) 0 (1) 1 (2) 0
(3) 1\10 (4) 9\10 (3) 1\10 (4) 9\10

39. The value of 992 is : 39. 992 dk eku gS %


(1) (90)2 + 2(90) (9) + (9)2 (1) (90)2 + 2(90) (9) + (9)2
(2) (90)2 – (90) (9) + (9)2 (2) (90)2 – (90) (9) + (9)2
(3) (90)2 + (9)2 (3) (90)2 + (9)2
(4) None of these (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
40. Which of the following is not a 40. fuEu esa ls dkSu lkSj ifjokj dk
member of solar system ? lnL; ugha gS \
(1) An asteroid (1) {kqnzxg
z
(2) A Satellite (2) mixzg
(3) A Constellation (3) rkjke.My
(4) A Comet (4) /kwedsrq

Direction : (Question No. 41 to 43) In funsZ’k % ¼iz’u la[;k 41 ls 43½ bu iz’uksa


these questions a number/letter series is esa ,d la[;k@v{kj Ük`a[kyk nh xbZ gS
given. In which one term is missing. ftlesa ,d in yqIr gSA yqIr la[;k@v{kj
Find the missing number/letter, which Kkr djsa] tks iz’u fpg~u ¼\½ ds LFkku ij
when placed at question mark (?), will j[kus ij Ük`a[kyk dks iw.kZ djrk gksA
complete the series.

41. 4, 7, 12, 21, ? , 71 41. 4, 7, 12, 21, ? , 71


(1) 29 (2) 40 (1) 29 (2) 40
(3) 44 (4) 38 (3) 44 (4) 38

MSMSS/9–2023
( 15 ) C

42. 5, 5, 15 , ? , 525 42. 5, 5, 15 , ? , 525


(1) 35 (2) 225 (1) 35 (2) 225
(3) 75 (4) 105 (3) 75 (4) 105

43. PAL, NZN, LBP, JYR, ? 43. PAL, NZN, LBP, JYR, ?
(1) HCT (2) KCQ (1) HCT (2) KCQ
(3) GCT (4) ICS (3) GCT (4) ICS

44. Vijay is 18th from the left in the 44. fot; ,d iafDr esa ck,¡ ls 18osa
row. He came 5 places to the left. LFkku ij gSA og ik¡p LFkku ck,¡
If there are 34 students in the row, vk;kA ;fn iafDr esa 34 Nk= gSa] rks
then what is his position from the mldk vc nk,¡ ls dkSu&lk LFkku
right now ? gS \
(1) 22nd (2) 16th (1) 22ok¡ (2) 16ok¡
(3) 23rd (4) 24th (3) 23ok¡ (4) 24ok¡

45. Which of the following set of 45. fuEufyf[kr esa ls v{kjksa dk dkSu&lk
letters will look the same in the lewg niZ.k esa leku fn[kkbZ nsxk \
mirror ?
(1) OSMIMOM (1) OSMIMOM
(2) VHRTRVH (2) VHRTRVH
(3) HIMOSTA (3) HIMOSTA
(4) AOVIVOA (4) AOVIVOA

46. For which of the following is 46. fuEu esa ls fdlds fy, m dk eku
m=8? 8 gS \

(1) (5m × 5–3)/52 = 53 (1) (5m × 5–3)/52 = 53

(2) –(5m × 5–3)/53 = 52 (2) –(5m × 5–3)/53 = 52

(3) (5m × 52)/52 = 53 (3) (5m × 52)/52 = 53

(4) (5 × 5–2)/52 = 53 (4) (5 × 5–2)/52 = 53

MSMSS/9–2023 P. T. O.
C ( 16 )

Direction : (Question No. 47 and 48) funsZ’k % ¼iz’u la[;k 47 ,oa 48½
In the following questions a figure (X) is fuEufyf[kr iz’uksa esa vkd`fr (X) nh xbZ gSA
given. Select the option which resembles vki ml fodYi dk p;u djsa] tks vkd`fr
the mirror image of the figure (X). (X) ds niZ.k izfrfcac tSlk fn[krk gSA

47. 47.

(1) (1)

(2) (2)

(3) (3)

(4) (4)

48. 48.

(1) (1)

(2) (2)

(3) (3)

(4) (4)

MSMSS/9–2023
( 17 ) C

49. If in a year the Republic Day was 49. ;fn fdlh o”kZ x.kra= fnol eghus ds
celebrated on the 4th Saturday of a pkSFks ‘kfuokj dks euk;k x;k Fkk] rks
month, then what was the day of ml eghus dh igyh rkjh[k dks
the week on the 1st of that month ? lIrkg dk dkSu&lk fnu Fkk \
(1) Monday (2) Tuesday (1) lkseokj (2) eaxyokj
(3) Wednesday (4) Sunday (3) cq/kokj (4) jfookj

50. With respect to zones of candle 50. eksecÙkh dh Tokyk ds lanHkZ esa] lgh
flame, choose the correct option : fodYi pqusa %
(1) Outer zone of complete (1) iw.kZ ngu dk ckg~; {ks= & ihyk
combustion – Yellow
(2) Innermost zone of unburnt (2) fcuk tyh eksecÙkh dk lcls
Candle wax – Black vkarfjd {ks= & dkyk
(3) Middle zone of partial (3) vkaf’kd ngu okyk e/; Hkkx &
combustion – Blue uhyk
(4) Hottest Part – Black (4) lcls xeZ Hkkx & dkyk

Direction : (Question No. 51 and 52) funsZ’k % ¼iz’u la[;k 51 ,oa 52½ ;fn iz’u
Which one of the answer figure would vkd`fr leku Øe esa cnys rks vxys Øe
occupy the next position in the question ij mÙkj vkd`fr;ksa esa ls dkSu&lh vkd`fr
figure, if they continue to change in mfpr LFkku ik,xh \
same order ?

51. Question Figures : 51. iz'u vkd`fr;k¡ %

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

MSMSS/9–2023 P. T. O.
C ( 18 )

52. Question Figures : 52. iz'u vkd`fr;k¡ %

(1) (1)

(2) (2)

(3) (3)

(4) (4)

53. The period of maturity of 53. iztuu vaxksa dh ifjiDork dh vof/k


reproductive organs is called : dgykrh gS %
(1) Adolescence period (1) fd’kksjkoLFkk dky
(2) Menstrual period (2) vkrZo pØ dky
(3) Gestation period (3) iDoukofn
(4) None of these (4) bues
esa ls dksbZ ugha

54. According to you what is a Hen’s 54. vkids vuqlkj fn;s fodYiksa esa ls
egg in the given options ? eqxhZ dk vaMk D;k gS \
(1) Tissue (1) Ård
(2) Organ (2) vax
(3) Organ system (3) vax iz.kkyh
(4) Cell (4) dksf’kdk
MSMSS/9–2023
( 19 ) C

55. Which of the following statement 55. jkbtksfc;e ds ckjs esa fuEufyf[kr esa
about Rhizobium is true ? ls dkSu lk dFku lR; gS \
(1) Rhizobia are bacteria that can (1) jkbtksfc;k thok.kq gSa tks feV~Vh
live in the soil esa jg ldrs gSaA
(2) Rhizobia are bacteria live in (2) jkbtksfc;k thok.kq gSa tks nkyksa dh
nodules formed on the roots of tM+ksa ij cuh xk¡Bksa esa jgrs gSaA
legumes.
(3) Rhizobia are bacteria (3) jkbtksfc;k thok.kq gSa tks ikS/kksa ls
obtaining nutrients from the iks”kd rRo izkIr djrs gSa vkSj
plant and producing nitrogen tSfod ukbVªkstu fLFkjhdj.k
in a process called biological uked izfØ;k ds n~okjk ukbVªkstu
nitrogen fixation. dk mRiknu djrs gSaA
(4) All of the above statements (4) jkbtksfc;e ds ckjs esa mijksDr
about Rhizobium are true. lHkh dFku lR; gSaA

56. Which of the following is an 56. buesa ls dkSu&lk FkeksZIykfLVd dk


example of Thermoplastic ? mnkgj.k gS \
(1) Nylon (1) ukbykWu
(2) Bakelite (2) cSdsykbV
(3) Melamine (3) esykekbu
(4) Vulcanized Rubber (4) osYdsukbTM jcj

57. Which metal is used to galvanize 57. yksgs dk ;’knysiu fdl /kkrq }kjk
Iron ? fd;k tkrk gS \
(1) Chromium (1) Øksfe;e
(2) Magnesium (2) eSXuhf’k;e
(3) Zinc (3) ftad
(4) Copper (4) rk¡ck

58. The force of 50 newton acting on 58. ;fn 50 U;wVu cy] 50 lsaVhehVj oxZ
area of 50 cm2 will exert a ds {ks=Qy ij yxk;k tk;s] rks ;g
pressure of : fdruk nkc yxk,xk \
(1) 100 Pa (2) 1000 Pa (1) 100 Pa (2) 1000 Pa
(3) 10000 Pa (4) 1 Pa (3) 10000 Pa (4) 1 Pa
MSMSS/9–2023 P. T. O.
C ( 20 )

59. In which year did the Permanent 59. caxky esa LFkk;h cUnkscLr dc ykxw
Settlement come into force in gqvk \
Bengal ?
(1) 1796 AD (2) 1794 AD (1) 1796 bZ0 (2) 1794 bZ0
(3) 1793 AD (4) 1795 AD (3) 1793 bZ0 (4) 1795 bZ0

60. Which of the following statements 60. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk dFku
correctly describes the organic tSfod [kkn~; dk lgh O;k[;ku djrk
food ? gS \
(1) Food crop grown without using (1) moZjdksa dk mi;ksx fd, fcuk
fertilizers is organic food. mxkbZ tkus okyh [kkn~; Qly
tSfod Hkkstu gSA
(2) Food crop grown without using (2) fcuk [kjirokjuk’kdksa ds mxkbZ
weedicides is organic food. tkus okyh [kkn~; Qly tSfod
Hkkstu gSA
(3) Food crop grown without using (3) dhVuk’kdksa ds mi;ksx ds fcuk
pesticides is organic food. mxkbZ tkus okyh [kkn~; Qly
tSfod Hkkstu gSA
(4) All of the above. (4) mijksDr lHkhA

61. Which of the following created 61. Hkkjrh; lafo/kku fdlds }kjk cuk;k
Indian Constitution ? x;k \
(1) Indian Parliament (1) Hkkjrh; laln }kjk
(2) Constitutional Assembly (2) lafo/kku lHkk }kjk
(3) Dr. Ambedkar (3) MkW0 vEcsMdj }kjk
(4) British Parliament (4) fczfV’k laln }kjk

62. If SYSTEM is written as OVQIBR 62. ;fn fdlh lkadfs rd Hkk”kk esa SYSTEM
in a certain code language, how dks OVQIBR fy[kk tkrk gS] rks mlh
will NEARER be written in that lkadfs rd Hkk”kk esa NEARER dks fdl
code language ? izdkj fy[kk tk,xk \
(1) LBPNBP (2) WBLNBP (1) LBPNBP (2) WBLNBP

(3) PGTTGP (4) MCNOCQ (3) PGTTGP (4) MCNOCQ

MSMSS/9–2023
( 21 ) C

63. M is the wife of S. Q is the wife of 63. M, S dh iRuh gSA Q, R dh iRuh gSA
R. S is the son of Q. P is the son of S, Q dk iq= gSA P, M dk iq= gSA
M. How is R related to P ? R dk P ls D;k lac/a k gS \
(1) Father (2) Brother (1) firk (2) HkkbZ
(3) Grandfather (4) Uncle (3) nknk (4) pkpk

Direction : (Question No. 64 and 65) funsZ’k % ¼iz’u la[;k 64 ,oa


,oa 65½ fn;k x;k
The given figure (X) is followed by four fp= (X) pkj fp=ksa (1), (2), (3) vkSj (4) esa
figures (1) , (2) ,(3) and (4) , such that (X) ls ,d dk ifj.kke gS] bl rjg (X) buesa
is embedded in one of them. Trace out ls fdlh ,d esa fufgr gSA lgh fodYi dh
the correct alternatives. igpku djsaA

64. 64.

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

65. 65.

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

MSMSS/9–2023 P. T. O.
C ( 22 )

66. A person is trying to climb a pole 66. ,d O;fDr 60 QhV Å¡ps [kEcs ij
60 feet high. He climbs 6 feet in p<+us dk iz;Ru dj jgk gSA og ,d
one minute, but slips and comes feuV esa 6 QhV p<+ tkrk gS] ysfdu
down 4 feet, then how many fQly dj 4 QhV uhps vk tkrk gS]
minutes will it take him to reach rks Åij rd igq¡pus esa mls fdrus
the top ? feuV yxsaxs \
(1) 32 (2) 28 (1) 32 (2) 28
(3) 27 (4) 34 (3) 27 (4) 34
67. If a solid cuboids of dimensions : 67. ;fn fdlh Bksl] ftldh lhek,¡
8 cm × 6 cm × 4 cm is cut into 8 cm × 6 cm × 4 cm gS] dks 2 cm
smaller cubes of side 2 cm each. Hkqtk okys NksVs&NksVs ?kuksa ds :i esa
What is the number of small cubes dkVk tkrk gSA bl izdkj NksVs ?kuksa
thus obtained ? dh la[;k fdruh gS \
(1) 24 (2) 48 (1) 24 (2) 48
(3) 96 (4) 192 (3) 96 (4) 192

68. Ozone depletion is caused due to 68. vkst+ksu fjfDrdj.k ds Lrj esa o`f)
increase in level of : dk dkj.k gksrk gS %
(1) Carbon monoxide (1) dkcZu eksuksvkWDlkbM
(2) Chlorofluorocarbon (2) Dyksjks¶yksjksdkcZu
(3) Water vapour (3) ty ok”i
(4) Oxygen (4) vkWDlhtu
69. The ratio of speed of a motorbike 69. ,d eksVjckbd ftldh xfr 50 fdeh
50 km per hour and speed of cycle izfr ?kaVk gS o ,d lkbZfdy ftldh
20 km per hour is : xfr 20 fdeh izfr ?kaVk gS] dk
vuqikr gS %
(1) 2 : 5 (2) 5 : 1 (1) 2 : 5 (2) 5 : 1
(3) 5 : 2 (4) 1 : 2 (3) 5 : 2 (4) 1 : 2

70. When did Nepal become 70. usiky jktrU= dks [kRe djus ds ckn
democratic after abolition of yksdrU= dc cuk \
Monarchy ?
(1) 2006 (2) 2007 (1) 2006 (2) 2007
(3) 2008 (4) 2009 (3) 2008 (4) 2009

MSMSS/9–2023
( 23 )
jQ dk;Z ds fy, / FOR ROUGH WORK
5. iz'uksa ds mÙkj] mÙkj i=d esa fu/kkZfjr [kkuksa dks dkys 5. Answers to questions in answer sheet are to be
ckWy IokbaV iSu ls iw.kZr;k dkyk djuk gS] tSlk fd given by darkening complete circle using black ball
uhps fn[kk;k x;k gS % point pen as shown below :
1  3 4 1  3 4
vki }kjk fn;k x;k mÙkj xyr ekuk tk,xk] ;fn The answer will be treated wrong, if it is marked, as given
mÙkj okys [kkus dks fuEu izdkj ls Hkjrs gSa % below :

    
   
;fn ,d ls T;knk [kkuksa dks Hkj nsrs gSa rks vkidk If you fill more than one circle it will be treated as a
mÙkj xyr ekuk tk,xkA wrong answer.
6. jQ dk;Z iz'u iqfLrdk esa bl iz;kstu ds fy, nh xbZ 6. Rough work should be done only in the space provided
[kkyh txg ij gh djsaA in the Test Booklet for the same.
7. lHkh mÙkj dsoy mÙkj i=d (OMR) ij gh vafdr 7. The answers are to be recorded on the OMR Answer
djsAa vius mÙkj /;kuiwoZd vafdr djsAa mÙkj cnyus Sheet only. Mark your responses carefully. No whitener
gsrq 'osr jatd ¼lQsn ¶Y;wM½ dk iz;ksx fuf"k) gSA (white fluid) is allowed for changing answers.
8. izR;sd iz’u ds fy, fn, x, pkj fodYiksa esa ls mfpr 8. Out of the four alternatives for each question, only one
fodYi ds fy, mÙkj i=d (OMR) ij dsoy ,d gh circle for the most appropriate answer is to be darkened
o`Ùk dks iwjh rjg dkys ckWy IokbaV iSu ls HkjsaA ,d completely with Black Ball Point Pen on the OMR
ckj mÙkj vafdr djus ds ckn mls cnyk ugha tk Answer Sheet. The answer once marked is not allowed
ldrk gSA to be changed.
9. vH;FkhZ lqfuf’pr djsa fd bl mÙkj i=d dks eksMk+ u 9. The candidate should ensure that the Answer Sheet is
tk, ,oa ml ij dksbZ vU; fu’kku u yxk,¡A not folded. Do not make any stray mark on Answer
vH;FkhZ viuk vuqØekad mÙkj i=d esa fu/kkZfjr Sheet. Do not write your Roll No. anywhere else except
LFkku ds vfrfjDr vU;= u fy[ksAa in the specified space in the Answer Sheet.
10. iz'u iqfLrdk ,oa mÙkj i=d dk /;kuiwod Z iz;ksx djs]a 10. Handle the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet with care, as
D;ksfa d fdlh Hkh ifjfLFkfr esa ¼dsoy iz'u iqfLrdk ,oa under no circumstances (except for discrepancy in Test
mÙkj i=d ds Øekad esa fHkUurk dh fLFkfr dks NksMd + j½ Booklet and Answer Sheet Serial No.), another set of
nwljh iz'u iqfLrdk lSV miyC/k ugha djokbZ tk,xhA Test Booklet will not be provided.
11. iz'u iqfLrdk@mÙkj i=d esa fn, x, Øekad dks 11. The candidate will write the correct Number as given in
vH;FkhZ lgh rjhds ls gkftjh i= esa fy[ksaA the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet in the Attendance Sheet.
12. vH;FkhZ dks ijh{kk gkWy@d{k esa izos’k dkMZ ds 12. Candidate is not allowed to carry any textual material,
vfrfjDr fdlh izdkj dh ikB~; lkexzh] eqfnzr ;k printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone,
gLrfyf[kr dkxt dh ifpZ;k¡] istj] eksckby Qksu] electronic device or any other material except the Admit
bysDVªkWfud midj.k ;k fdlh vU; izdkj dh lkexzh Card inside the examination hall/room.
dks ys tkus ;k mi;ksx djus dh vuqefr ugha gSA
13. fujh{kd }kjk iwNs tkus ij izR;sd vH;FkhZ viuk 13. Each candidate must show on demand his/her Admit
izos’k&i= ¼jksy ua0½ fn[kk,¡A Card (Roll No.) to the Invigilator.
14. dsUnz v/kh{kd ;k fujh{kd dh fo’ks"k vuqefr ds fcuk 14. No candidate, without special permission of the
dksbZ vH;FkhZ viuk LFkku u NksMa+sA Superintendent or Invigilator, should leave his/her seat.
15. bysDVªkWfud@gLrpkfyr ifjdyd dk mi;ksx oftZr gSA 15. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.
16. fdlh gkyr esa iz'u&iqfLrdk ,oa mÙkj&i=d dk dksbZ 16. No part of test Booklet and Answer-sheet shall be
Hkkx vyx u djsaA detached under any circumstances.
17. ijh{kk lEiUu gksus ij] vH;FkhZ ijh{kk d{k@gkWy 17. On completion of the test, candidate must hand over the
NksM+us ls iwoZ mÙkj i=d d{k&i;Zos{kd dks vo’; Answer Sheet to the Invigilator in the Room/Hall. The
lkSai nsAa vH;FkhZ vius lkFk iz'u iqfLrdk dks ys tk candidate is allowed to take away this Test Booklet with
ldrs gSaA them.
MSMSS – 2023
(For Class 9th)
SET : D
cqdysV Øekad ,oa
vks0,e0vkj0 Øekad
vuqØekad ¼vadksa esa½ % Booklet Serial No. &
Roll No. (In Figures) O. M. R. Serial No.
vuqØekad ¼'kCnksa esa½ %
Roll No. (In Words)
ijh{kk dsUnz dk uke %
Name of Examination Centre
vH;FkhZ dk uke % vH;FkhZ ds gLrk{kj %
Name of Candidate Signature of the Candidate
bl iz'u-iqfLrdk esa i`"Bksa dh la[;k iz'uksa dh la[;k le;
24 70 2½ hours
No. of Pages in this Question Booklet No. of Questions Time

fujh{kd ds gLrk{kj@Signature of the Invigilator :


vH;FkhZ dks 10 feuV dk le; iz'u-iqfLrdk ij Nis funs'Z kksa dks i<+u]s iz'u-i= cqdysV esa fn, x, iz'uksa ds lhfj;y uEcj psd djus] C;kSjk Hkjus ds fy, ,oa
cqdysV ds lHkh i`"Bksa dk voyksdu djus] misprint psd djus ds fy, fn;k tk,xkA ;fn iz'u&i= cqdysV esa iz'uksa ds lhfj;y uEcj xyr Nis gSa] i`"B miss
gS ;k dksbZ i`"B misprint gS rks rqjUr dsUnz v/kh{kd ls fuosnu djds iz'u-i= cqdysV cny ysAa bu 10 feuV ds i'pkr~ ;k ijh{kk lekIr gksus ds i'pkr~ dksbZ
nkok Lohdkj ugha fd;k tk,xkA bu 10 feuVksa ds vfrfjDr] iz'uksa ds mÙkj nsus o vafdr djus ds fy, iwjs 2½?kaVs dk le; fn;k tk,xkA

vH;fFkZ
vH;fFkZ;ksa ds fy, funsZ'k % INSTRUCTIONS FOR THE CANDIDATES :

1. mÙkj i=d (OMR) bl iz'u iqfLrdk ds vUnj j[kk 1. The OMR Answer Sheet is inside this Test Booklet.
gSA tc vkidks iz'u iqfLrdk [kksyus dks dgk tk,] rks When you are directed to open the Test Booklet, take out
mÙkj i=d fudky dj /;ku ls dsoy dkys ckWy IokbaV the Answer Sheet and fill the particulars carefully with
isu ls fooj.k HkjsaA black ball point pen only.
2. ijh{kk dh vof/k 2½ ?kaVs gS ,oa iz'u iqfLrdk esa 70 iz’u 2. The test is of 2½ hours duration and consists of
gSaA izR;sd iz'u ,d vad dk gSA dksbZ _.kkRed vadu 70 questions. Each question carries one mark. There is no
ugha gSA negative marking.
3. bl i`"B ij fooj.k vafdr djus ,oa mÙkj i=d ij 3. Use Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on
fu’kku yxkus ds fy, dsoy dkys ckWy IokbaV isu dk this page/marking responses in the Answer Sheet. The
iz;ksx djsaA vH;FkhZ iz'u-iqfLrdk dk mi;ksx djus ,oa candidate should remain careful in handling the question
mÙkj i=d dks Hkjus esa lko/kkuh cjrsaA nwljh iz'u- paper and in marking the answers on the answer sheet.
iqfLrdk ls
lsV çnku ugha dh tk,xhA Another booklet set will not be given.
4. ;g Hkh lqfuf’pr dj ysa fd iz'u iqfLrdk Øekad vkSj 4. Also ensure that your Test Booklet Serial No. and
mÙkj i=d Øekad ,d gh gSaA vxj ;g fHkUu gksa ;k Answer Sheet Serial No. are the same. In case of
iz'u iqfLrdk esa dksbZ i`"B Miss ;k Misprint gks rks discrepancy or any page is Miss or Misprint in test
vH;FkhZ nwljh iz’u-iqfLrdk vkSj mÙkj i=d ysus ds booklet, the candidate should immediately report the
fy, fujh{kd dks rqjUr voxr djok,A matter to the Invigilator for replacement of both the Test
Booklet and the Answer Sheet.

uksV % bl iqfLrdk ds vUr esa fn, x, 'ks"k funsZ'kksa dks Note : Read other remaining instructions given on the last
i<+saA page of this Booklet.
(2)
jQ dk;Z ds fy, / FOR ROUGH WORK
(3) D

1. Which of the following is not a 1. fuEu esa ls dkSu lkSj ifjokj dk


member of solar system ? lnL; ugha gS \
(1) An asteroid (1) {kqnzxg
z
(2) A Satellite (2) mixzg
(3) A Constellation (3) rkjke.My
(4) A Comet (4) /kwedsrq

2. The process of artificially 2. fdlh le:i dksf’kdk ;k fdlh


producing an identical cell or any thfor Hkkx vFkok laiw.kZ tho dks
other living part or whole d`f=e :i esa mRiUu djus dh izfØ;k
organism is called : dgykrh gS %
(1) Tissue culture (1) Ård d lao/kZu
(2) Cell biology (2) dksf’kdk foKku
(3) Cloning (3) Dyksfuax
(4) Biotechnology (4) tSo izkn
S ;
~ ksfxdh

3. When did Nepal become 3. usiky jktrU= dks [kRe djus ds ckn
democratic after abolition of yksdrU= dc cuk \
Monarchy ?
(1) 2006 (1) 2006
(2) 2007 (2) 2007
(3) 2008 (3) 2008
(4) 2009 (4) 2009

Direction (Question No. 4) Select the funsZ’k % ¼iz’u la[;k 4½ vaxzsth o.kZekyk
water image of the given combination of vkSj la[;kvksa ds fn, x, la;kstu dk ty
English alphabet and number. izfrfcac pqfu,A
4. 4.
(1) (2) (1) (2)
(3) (4) (3) (4)

MSMSS/9–2023 P. T. O.
D (4)

5. In the question which of the 5. iz’u esa mÙkj vkd`fr;k¡ (1), (2), (3)
answer figures (1), (2), (3) and (4) vkSj (4) esa ls dkSu&lh vkd`fr fp=
will complete the picture matrix ? vkO;wg ¼eSfVªDl½ dks iw.kZ djsxh \

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

Direction : (Question No. 6 to 8) In funsZ’k % ¼iz’u la[;k 6 ls 8½ bu iz’uksa esa


these questions a number/letter series is ,d la[;k@v{kj Ük`a[kyk nh xbZ xb gS ftlesa
given. In which one term is missing. ,d in yqIr gSA yqIr la[;k@v{kj Kkr
Find the missing number/letter, which djsa] tks iz’u fpg~u ¼\½
¼ ds LFkku ij j[kus
when placed at question mark (?), will ij Ük`a[kyk dks iw.kZ djrk gksA
complete the series.

6. 4, 7, 12, 21, ? , 71 6. 4, 7, 12, 21, ? , 71


(1) 29 (2) 40 (1) 29 (2) 40
(3) 44 (4) 38 (3) 44 (4) 38

7. 5, 5, 15 , ? , 525 7. 5, 5, 15 , ? , 525
(1) 35 (2) 225 (1) 35 (2) 225
(3) 75 (4) 105 (3) 75 (4) 105

8. PAL, NZN, LBP, JYR, ? 8. PAL, NZN, LBP, JYR, ?


(1) HCT (2) KCQ (1) HCT (2) KCQ
(3) GCT (4) ICS (3) GCT (4) ICS

MSMSS/9–2023
(5) D

9. Vijay is 18th from the left in the 9. fot; ,d iafDr esa ck,¡ ls 18osa
row. He came 5 places to the left. LFkku ij gSA og ik¡p LFkku ck,¡
If there are 34 students in the rrow, vk;kA ;fn iafDr esa 34 Nk= gSa] rks
then what is his position from the mldk vc nk,¡ ls dkSu&lk LFkku
right now ? gS \
(1) 22nd (2) 16th (1) 22ok¡ (2) 16ok¡
(3) 23rd (4) 24th (3) 23ok¡ (4) 24ok¡

10. The period of maturity of 10. iztuu vaxksa dh ifjiDork dh vof/k


reproductive organs is called : dgykrh gS %
(1) Adolescence period (1) fd’kksjkoLFkk dky
(2) Menstrual period (2) vkrZo pØ dky
(3) Gestation period (3) iDoukofn
(4) None of these (4) bues
esa ls dksbZ ugha
11. Which figure best represents the 11. Qy] yky vkSj deht ds chp ds
relationship between Fruit, Red laca/k dks dkSu&lh vkd`fr iznf’kZr
and Shirt ? djrh gS \

(1) (1)

(2) (2)

(3) (3)

(4) (4)

MSMSS/9–2023 P. T. O.
D (6)

12. Which of the following set of 12. fuEufyf[kr esa ls v{kjksa dk dkSu&lk
letters will look the same in the lewg niZ.k esa leku fn[kkbZ nsxk \
mirror ?
(1) OSMIMOM (2) VHRTRVH (1) OSMIMOM (2) VHRTRVH
(3) HIMOSTA (4) AOVIVOA (3) HIMOSTA (4) AOVIVOA

13. In which year did the Permanent 13. caxky esa LFkk;h cUnkscLr dc ykxw
Settlement come into force in gqvk \
Bengal ?
(1) 1796 AD (2) 1794 AD (1) 1796 bZ0 (2) 1794 bZ0
(3) 1793 AD (4) 1795 AD (3) 1793 bZ0 (4) 1795 bZ0

Direction : (Question No. 14 and 15) funsZ’k % ¼iz’u la[;k 14 ,oa 15½ uhps nh
Read the information given below and xbZ tkudkjh dks i<+dj ml ij vk/kkfjr
answer the questions based on it. iz’uksa ds mÙkj nhft,A
P, Q, R, S, T and U are six friends sitting P, Q, R, S, T vkSj U N% nksLr ,d nwljs ds
in a circle facing each other. P sits vkeus&lkeus ,d xksy ?ksjs esa cSBsa gSaA P, S
between S and Q and U sits between R vkSj Q ds chp rFkk U, R vkSj T ds chp
and T. R is third to the left of Q. esa cSBk gSA R, Q ds ck;ha vksj rhljk gSA
14. Who is sitting between P and R ? 14. P vkSj R ds chp dkSu cSBk gS \
(1) T (2) Q (1) T (2) Q
(3) S (4) U (3) S (4) U

15. Who is sitting between Q and U ? 15. Q vkSj U ds chp dkSu cSBk gS \
(1) T (2) R (1) T (2) R
(3) P (4) S (3) P (4) S

16. If a solid cuboids of dimensions : 16. ;fn fdlh Bksl] ftldh lhek,¡
8 cm × 6 cm × 4 cm is cut into 8 cm × 6 cm × 4 cm gS] dks 2 cm
smaller cubes of side 2 cm each. Hkqtk okys NksVs&NksVs ?kuksa ds :i esa
What is the number of small cubes dkVk tkrk gSA bl izdkj NksVs ?kuksa
thus obtained ? dh la[;k fdruh gS \
(1) 24 (2) 48 (1) 24 (2) 48
(3) 96 (4) 192 (3) 96 (4) 192
MSMSS/9–2023
(7) D

Direction : (Question No. 17 and 18) funsZ’k % ¼iz’u la[;k 17 ,oa 18½ ;fn iz’u
Which one of the answer figure would vkd`fr leku Øe esa cnys rks vxys Øe
occupy the next position in the question ij mÙkj vkd`fr;ksa esa ls dkSu&lh vkd`fr
figure, if they continue to change in mfpr LFkku ik,xh \
same order ?

17. Question Figures : 17. iz'u vkd`fr;k¡ %

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

18. Question Figures : 18. iz'u vkd`fr;k¡ %

(1) (1)

(2) (2)

(3) (3)

(4) (4)

MSMSS/9–2023 P. T. O.
D (8)

Direction : (Question No. 19 and 20) In funsZ’k % ¼iz’u la[;k 19 ,oa


,oa 20½ fuEufyf[kr
the following questions, choose a figures iz’u esa pkj fodYiksa esa ls ,d vkd`fr
amongst the four alternatives which when pqusa] ftls tc vkd`fr (X) esa iz’u fpUg
placed in question mark (?) space of figure (?) ds LFkku ij j[kk tk, rks iSVuZ iw.kZ gks
(X) will complete the pattern. tk,A

19. 19.

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

20. 20.

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

21. If all the vowels are removed from 21. ;fn lHkh Lojksa dks vaxzsth o.kZekyk
the English alphabets, then which ls gVk fn;k tk,] rks ck,¡ ls ik¡posa
will be the eighth letter to the right v{kj ds nk,¡ vkBok¡ v{kj dkSu&lk
of the fifth letter from the left ? gksxk \
(1) M (2) N (1) M (2) N
(3) P (4) Q (3) P (4) Q
MSMSS/9–2023
(9) D

22. Which figure best represents the 22. iatkc] gfj;k.kk vkSj fglkj ds chp
relationship between Punjab, ds lac/a k dks dkSu&lh vkd`fr iznf’kZr
Haryana and Hisar ? djrh gS \

(1) (1)

(2) (2)

(3) (3)

(4) (4)

23. Which of the following created 23. Hkkjrh; lafo/kku fdlds }kjk cuk;k
Indian Constitution ? x;k \
(1) Indian Parliament (1) Hkkjrh; laln }kjk
(2) Constitutional Assembly (2) lafo/kku lHkk }kjk
(3) Dr. Ambedkar (3) MkW0 vEcsMdj }kjk
(4) British Parliament (4) fczfV’k laln }kjk

24. Which one number is wrong in 24. la[;k Ük``a[kyk esa dkSu&lh ,d la[;k
the number series ? xyr gS \
5 , 13 , 39 , 160 , 805 5 , 13 , 39 , 160 , 805
(1) 5 (2) 39 (1) 5 (2) 39
(3) 160 (4) 13 (3) 160 (4) 13

25. If SYSTEM is written as OVQIBR 25. ;fn fdlh lkadfs rd Hkk”kk esa SYSTEM
in a certain code language, how dks OVQIBR fy[kk tkrk gS] rks mlh
will NEARER be written in that lkadfs rd Hkk”kk esa NEARER dks fdl
code language ? izdkj fy[kk tk,xk \
(1) LBPNBP (2) WBLNBP (1) LBPNBP (2) WBLNBP
(3) PGTTGP (4) MCNOCQ (3) PGTTGP (4) MCNOCQ

MSMSS/9–2023 P. T. O.
D ( 10 )

26. M is the wife of S. Q is the wife of 26. M, S dh iRuh gSA Q, R dh iRuh gSA
R. S is the son of Q. P is the son of S, Q dk iq= gSA P, M dk iq= gSA
M. How is R related to P ? R dk P ls D;k lac/a k gS \
(1) Father (2) Brother (1) firk (2) HkkbZ
(3) Grandfather (4) Uncle (3) nknk (4) pkpk

Direction : (Question No. 27 and 28) funsZ’k % ¼iz’u la[;k 27 ,oa


,oa 28½ fn;k x;k
The given figure (X) is followed by four fp= (X) pkj fp=ksa (1), (2), (3) vkSj (4) esa
figures (1) , (2) ,(3) and (4) , such that (X) ls ,d dk ifj.kke gS] bl rjg (X) buesa
is embedded in one of them. Trace out ls fdlh ,d esa fufgr gSA lgh fodYi dh
the correct alternatives. igpku djsaA

27. 27.

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

28. 28.

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

MSMSS/9–2023
( 11 ) D

29. A person is trying to climb a pole 29. ,d O;fDr 60 QhV Å¡ps [kEcs ij
60 feet high. He climbs 6 feet in p<+us dk iz;Ru dj jgk gSA og ,d
one minute, but slips and comes feuV esa 6 QhV p<+ tkrk gS] ysfdu
down 4 feet, then how many fQly dj 4 QhV uhps vk tkrk gS]
minutes will it take him to reach rks Åij rd igq¡pus esa mls fdrus
the top ? feuV yxsaxs \
(1) 32 (2) 28 (1) 32 (2) 28
(3) 27 (4) 34 (3) 27 (4) 34

30. First World War started in : 30. izFke fo’o ;q) izkjEHk gqvk %
(1) 1915 AD (2) 1916 AD (1) 1915 bZ0 esa (2) 1916 bZ0 esa
(3) 1918 AD (4) 1914 AD (3) 1918 bZ0 esa (4) 1914 bZ0 esa

31. Four friends A, B, C and D are 31. pkj nksLr A, B, C vkSj D rk’k
playing cards. A and B are [ksy jgsa gSaA A vkSj B vkil esa
partners. D is facing North. If A is tksM+hnkj gSaA D dk eq[k mÙkj dh
sitting to the left of D, then who is vksj gSA ;fn A, D dh ck;ha vksj
facing South ? cSBk gS] rks fdldk eq[k nf{k.k dh
vksj gS \
(1) B (2) C (1) B (2) C
(3) A (4) D (3) A (4) D

32. Select the water image of the 32. nh xbZ vkd`fr (X) dk ty izfrfcac
given figure (X) : pqfu, %

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

MSMSS/9–2023 P. T. O.
D ( 12 )

Direction : (Question No. 33 and 34) funsZ’k % ¼iz’u la[;k 33 ,oa 34½ uhps nh
In each of the following figures numbers xbZ izR;sd vkd`fr esa ,d fuf’pr Øe
are written according to some patterns. vuqlkj dqN laa[;k,¡ fy[kh xbZ gSaA buesa ls
One number is missing. Find the ,d la[;k yqIr gSA yqIr la[;k Kkr djsa]
missing number that replaces the tks iz’u fpg~u ¼\½½ ds LFkku ij mi;qDr
question mark (?). gksA
33. 33.

(1) 23 (2) 27 (1) 23 (2) 27


(3) 29 (4) 25 (3) 29 (4) 25

34. 34.

(1) 32 (2) 34 (1) 32 (2) 34


(3) 14 (4) 24 (3) 14 (4) 24

35. With respect to zones of candle 35. eksecÙkh dh Tokyk ds lanHkZ esa] lgh
flame, choose the correct option : fodYi pqusa %
(1) Outer zone of complete (1) iw.kZ ngu dk ckg~; {ks= & ihyk
combustion – Yellow
(2) Innermost zone of unburnt (2) fcuk tyh eksecÙkh dk lcls
Candle wax – Black vkarfjd {ks= & dkyk
(3) Middle zone of partial (3) vkaf’kd ngu okyk e/; Hkkx &
combustion – Blue uhyk
(4) Hottest Part – Black (4) lcls xeZ Hkkx & dkyk

36. The perimeter of a rectangular 36. ,d vk;rkdkj QksVksÝe s dk ifjeki


photo frame is 20 cm. If its length 20 lseh
eh gSA ;fn bldh yEckbZ 6 lseh
is 6 cm then its breadth will be : gks] rks bldh pkSM+kbZ gksxh %
(1) 4 cm (2) 6 cm (1) 4 lseh (2) 6 lseh
(3) 10 cm (4) 14 cm (3) 10 lseh (4) 14 lseh
MSMSS/9–2023
( 13 ) D

37. Which of the following statement 37. jkbtksfc;e ds ckjs esa fuEufyf[kr esa
about Rhizobium is true ? ls dkSu lk dFku lR; gS \
(1) Rhizobia are bacteria that can (1) jkbtksfc;k thok.kq gSa tks feV~Vh
live in the soil esa jg ldrs gSaA
(2) Rhizobia are bacteria live in (2) jkbtksfc;k thok.kq gSa tks nkyksa dh
nodules formed on the roots of tM+ksa ij cuh xk¡Bksa esa jgrs gSaA
legumes.
(3) Rhizobia are bacteria (3) jkbtksfc;k thok.kq gSa tks ikS/kksa ls
obtaining nutrients from the iks”kd rRo izkIr djrs gSa vkSj
plant and producing nitrogen tSfod ukbVªkstu fLFkjhdj.k
in a process called biological uked izfØ;k ds n~okjk ukbVªkstu
nitrogen fixation. dk mRiknu djrs gSaA
(4) All of the above statements (4) jkbtksfc;e ds ckjs esa mijksDr
about Rhizobium are true. lHkh dFku lR; gSaA

38. Which metal is used to galvanize 38. yksgs dk ;’knysiu fdl /kkrq }kjk
Iron ? fd;k tkrk gS \
(1) Chromium (2) Magnesium (1) Øksfe;e (2) eSXuhf’k;e
(3) Zinc (4) Copper (3) ftad (4) rk¡ck

39. Which of the following is an 39. buesa ls dkSu&lk FkeksZIykfLVd dk


example of Thermoplastic ? mnkgj.k gS \
(1) Nylon (1) ukbykWu
(2) Bakelite (2) cSdsykbV
(3) Melamine (3) esykekbu
(4) Vulcanized Rubber (4) osYdsukbTM jcj

40. For which of the following is 40. fuEu esa ls fdlds fy, m dk eku
m=8? 8 gS \
(1) (5m × 5–3)/52 = 53 (1) (5m × 5–3)/52 = 53
(2) –(5m × 5–3)/53 = 52 (2) –(5m × 5–3)/53 = 52
(3) (5m × 52)/52 = 53 (3) (5m × 52)/52 = 53
(4) (5 × 5–2)/52 = 53 (4) (5 × 5–2)/52 = 53

MSMSS/9–2023 P. T. O.
D ( 14 )

41. Who wrote the book 'Gulamgiri' ? 41. ^xqykefxjh* iqLrd dh jpuk fdlus
dh \
(1) Savitri Phule (1) lkfo=h Qqys
ys
(2) Jyotirao Phule (2) T;ksfrjko Q
Qqys
(3) Mahatma Gandhi (3) egkRek xk¡/kh
(4) Ramabai (4) jekckbZ

42. Who established Shantiniketan ? 42. ‘kkafrfudsru dh LFkkiuk fdlus dh \


(1) Ravindra Nath Tagore (1) jfoUnzukFk VSxksj
(2) Devendra Nath Tagore (2) nsosUnzukFk VSxksj
(3) Satendra Nath Tagore (3) lrsUnzukFk VSxksj
(4) Willian Jones (4) fofy;e tksUl

Direction : (Question No. 43 and 44) funsZ’k % ¼iz’u la[;k 43 ,oa 44½ uhps fn,
In the questions given below the question x, iz’uksa esa iz’u vkd`fr dh A vkSj B esa
figure is that a special relationship exists ,d fo’ks”k lac/a k LFkkfir gSA ;g lEca/k
between A and B. This relationship is vkd`fr C vkSj oSdfYid vkd`fr;ksa esa ls
established in figure C and one of the ,d esa LFkkfir gSA ml oSdfYid vkd`fr dk
alternatives figures. Select the p;u djsa] tks vkd`fr D esa iz’u fpg~u ¼\½
alternative figure that should replace the dk LFkku ys ldrh gSA
question mark (?) in figure D.

43. 43.

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

MSMSS/9–2023
( 15 ) D

44. 44.

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

45. Number 1 to 10 are written on ten 45. ,d ls 10 rd dh la[;kvksa dks nl


separate slips (one number on one vyx&vyx ifpZ;ksa ij fy[kdj ,d
slip) kept in a box and mixed well. fMCcs esa Mkyk x;k o vPNh rjg
One slip is chosen from the box feyk fn;k x;kA fMCcs esa ls fcuk
without looking into it what is the ns[ks ,d iphZ fudkyh xbZA ,d vad
probability of getting a 1-digit
1 dh la[;k fudyus dh D;k izkf;drk
number ? gksxh \
(1) 1 (2) 0 (1) 1 (2) 0
(3) 1\10 (4) 9\10
9 (3) 1\10 (4) 9\10

46. The value of 992 is : 46. 992 dk eku gS %


(1) (90)2 + 2(90) (9) + (9)2 (1) (90)2 + 2(90) (9) + (9)2
(2) (90)2 – (90) (9) + (9)2 (2) (90)2 – (90) (9) + (9)2
(3) (90)2 + (9)2 (3) (90)2 + (9)2
(4) None of these (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

47. Which of the parallelogram has all 47. dkSu&ls lekUrj prqHkqZt dh lHkh
sides equal and diagonals bisect Hkqtk,¡ cjkcj gSa o mlds fod.kZ ,d
each other at right angle ? nwljs dks 90° ij lef}HkkfTkr djrs
gSa \
(1) Square (1) oxZ
(2) Rectangle (2) vk;r
(3) Rhombus (3) leprqHkqZt
(4) Trapezium (4) leyEc prqHkqZt
MSMSS/9–2023 P. T. O.
D ( 16 )

48. The angle of incidence is equal to 48. vkiru dks.k] ijkorZu dks.k ds
angle of reflection : cjkcj gksrk gS %
(1) Always (1) lnSo
(2) Sometimes (2) dHkh&dHkh
(3) Under Special Conditions (3) fo’ks”k ifjfLFkfr;ksa esa
(4) Never (4) dHkh ugha

49. The amounts of these resources 49. izd`fr esa ftu lalk/kuksa dh ek=k
are less and will not be lhfer gS vkSj izkd`frd izfØ;kvksa
replenished by natural methods, }kjk iquLFkkZiu ugha gks ldrk gS]
are .............. . mUgsa .............. dgrs gSAa
(1) Biodegradable Resources (1) fuEuhdj.k lalk/ku
(2) Non-Biodegradable Resources (2) vfuEuhdj.k lalk/ku
(3) Renewable Resources (3) uohdj.kh; lalk/ku
(4) Non-Renewable Resources (4) vuohdj.kh; lalk/ku

50. Who is the chairperson of Rajya 50. jkT;lHkk dk lHkkifr dkSu gksrk gS \
Sabha ?
(1) Governor (1) jkT;iky
(2) Vice-President (2) mijk”Vªifr
(3) Prime Minister (3) iz/kkuea=h
(4) President (4) jk”Vªifr

51. When the square of a number is 51. tc ,d la[;k ds oxZ dks mlh la[;k
subtracted from the cube of the ds ?ku esa ls ?kVk;k tkrk gS] rks 100
same number, it becomes 100. izkIr gksrk gSA la[;k Kkr djsa %
Find the number :

(1) 1 (2) 2 (1) 1 (2) 2

(3) 4 (4) 5 (3) 4 (4) 5


MSMSS/9–2023
( 17 ) D

52. How many parallelograms are in 52. nh xbZ vkd`fr esa fdrus lekarj
the given figure ? prqHkqZt gSa \

(1) 11 (2) 12 (1) 11 (2) 12


(3) 16 (4) 18 (3) 16 (4) 18

53. In which Article of the Indian 53. Hkkjrh; lafo/kku ds fdl vuqPNsn esa
Constitution every citizen has been izR;sd ukxfjd dks thou dk ekSfyd
given fundamental right to life ? vf/kdkj fn;k x;k gS \
(1) Article 21 (2) Article 22 (1) vuqPNsn 21 (2) vuqPNsn 22
(3) Article 19 (4) Article 18 (3) vuqPNsn 19 (4) vuqPNsn 18

54. The first English Factory was 54. izFke bafXy’k QSDVjh 1651 bZ0 esa
established on the banks of which fdl unh ds fdukjs LFkkfir gqbZ \
river in 1651 AD ?
(1) Narmada (2) Hugli (1) ueZnk (2) gqxyh
(3) Tapti (4) Satluj (3) rkIrh (4) lryqt

55. Which of the statements is/are 55. Hkwe/; js[kk ds lac/a k esa dkSu lk@ls
true in relation to equator ? dFku lR; gS \
i. The equator passes through i. Hkwe/; js[kk nf{k.k vesfjdk]
the continents of South vÝhdk vkSj vkWLVªsfy;k egk}hiksa
America, Africa and Australia. ls gksdj xqtjrh gSA
ii. The equator passes through ii. Hkwe/; js[kk rsjg ns’kksa ls gksdj
thirteen countries. xqtjrh gSA
iii. There is only one major river iii. dsoy ,d izeq[k unh gS tks
which crosses the equator Hkwe/; js[kk dks nks ckj ikj
twice. djrh gSA
(1) Only iii (1) dsoy iii
(2) Both i and ii (2) i vkSj ii nksuksa
(3) All i, ii, iii (3) lHkh i, ii, iii
(4) Both ii and iii (4) ii vkSj iii nksuksa
MSMSS/9–2023 P. T. O.
D ( 18 )

56. A rabbit walks 1 kilometer in 2 56. ,d [kjxks’k 2 ?kaVs esa ,d fdyksehVj


hours. After every kilometer he pyrk gSA izR;sd fdyksehVj ds ckn
rests for 20 minutes. How much og 20 feuV foJke djrk gSA 3.5
time will it take to cover a fdyksehVj dh nwjh r; djus esa mls
distance of 3.5 kilometers ? fdruk le; yxsxk \
(1) 8 hours (2) 7 hours (1) 8 ?kaVs (2) 7 ?kaVs
(3) 6 hours (4) 5 hours (3) 6 ?kaVs (4) 5 ?kaVs

57. At the time ............ between 3:00 57. 3 vkSj 4 cts ds chp fdl le;
and 4:00, both the hands will cover nksuksa lqbZ;k¡ ,d nwljs dks <d ysx
a h \
each other.
4 4
(1) 3 : 16 (1) 3 : 16
11 11
7 7
(2) 3 : 15 (2) 3 : 15
11 11
4 4
(3) 3 : 10 (3) 3 : 10
11 11
5 5
(4) 3 : 05 (4) 3 : 05
11 11

58. Voice of which of the following is 58. fuEu esa ls fdl okd~ /ofu dh vko`fÙk
likely to have minimum frequency ? U;wure gksus dh lEHkkouk gS \
(1) Baby Girl (1) NksVh yM+dh dh
(2) Baby Boy (2) NksVs yM+ds dh
(3) A Man (3) iq#”k dh
(4) A Woman (4) L=h dh

59. One of the following is not a basic 59. fuEufyf[kr esa ls ,d o”kkZ ty
component of a rainwater lap;u iz.kkyh dk ewy ?kVd
harvesting system. ugha gSA
(1) Catchment (1) tyxzg
(2) Delivery system (2) forj.k iz.kkyh
(3) Storage reservoir (3) tyk’k;
(4) River system (4) unh iz.kkyh
MSMSS/9–2023
( 19 ) D

60. The force of 50 newton acting on 60. ;fn 50 U;wVu cy] 50 lsaVhehVj oxZ
area of 50 cm2 will exert a ds {ks=Qy ij yxk;k tk;s] rks ;g
pressure of : fdruk nkc yxk,xk \
(1) 100 Pa (1) 100 Pa
(2) 1000 Pa (2) 1000 Pa
(3) 10000 Pa (3) 10000 Pa
(4) 1 Pa (4) 1 Pa

Direction : (Question No. 61 and 62) funsZ’k % ¼iz’u la[;k 61 ,oa 62½
In the following questions a figure (X) is fuEufyf[kr iz’uksa esa vkd`fr (X) nh xbZ gSA
given. Select the option which resembles vki ml fodYi dk p;u djsa] tks vkd`fr
the mirror image of the figure (X). (X) ds niZ.k izfrfcac tSlk fn[krk gSA

61. 61.

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

62. 62.

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

MSMSS/9–2023 P. T. O.
D ( 20 )

63. If in a year the Republic Day was 63. ;fn fdlh o”kZ x.kra= fnol eghus ds
celebrated on the 4th Saturday of a pkSFks ‘kfuokj dks euk;k x;k Fkk] rks
month, then what was the day of ml eghus dh igyh rkjh[k dks
the week on the 1st of that month ? lIrkg dk dkSu&lk fnu Fkk \
(1) Monday (1) lkseokj
(2) Tuesday (2) eaxyokj
(3) Wednesday (3) cq/kokj
(4) Sunday (4) jfookj

64. According to you what is a Hen’s 64. vkids vuqlkj fn;s fodYiksa esa ls
egg in the given options ? eqxhZ dk vaMk D;k gS \
(1) Tissue (1) Ård
(2) Organ (2) vax
(3) Organ system (3) vax iz.kkyh
(4) Cell (4) dksf’kdk

65. Ozone depletion is caused due to 65. vkst+ksu fjfDrdj.k ds Lrj esa o`f)
increase in level of : dk dkj.k gksrk gS %
(1) Carbon monoxide (1) dkcZu eksuksvkWDlkbM
(2) Chlorofluorocarbon (2) Dyksjks¶yksjksdkcZu
(3) Water vapour (3) ty ok”i
(4) Oxygen (4) vkWDlhtu

66. Which of the following can not be 66. fuEufyf[kr esa fdls ?k”kZ.k }kjk
charged easily by friction ? vklkuh ls vkosf’kr ugha fd;k tk
ldrk \
(1) A Plastic Scale (1) IykfLVd dk iSekuk
(2) A Copper Rod (2) rkacs dh NM+
(3) An Inflated Ballon (3) Qwyk gqvk xqCckjk
(4) A Woollen Cloth (4) Åuh oL=
MSMSS/9–2023
( 21 ) D

67. The ratio of speed of a motorbike 67. ,d eksVjckbd ftldh xfr 50 fdeh
50 km per hour and speed of cycle izfr ?kaVk gS o ,d lkbZfdy ftldh
20 km per hour is : xfr 20 fdeh izfr ?kaVk gS] dk
vuqikr gS %
(1) 2 : 5 (1) 2 : 5

(2) 5 : 1 (2) 5 : 1

(3) 5 : 2 (3) 5 : 2

(4) 1 : 2 (4) 1 : 2

68. The four major components of 68. i;kZoj.k ds pkj ize[q k ?kVd uhps
environment are given below. fn, x, gSaA fuEufyf[kr dks muds
Match the following with their lVhd lacf/kr ls lqesfyr dhft,A
exact relation.

Component Relation ?kVd lac/a k


1. Lithosphere i. Air 1. LFkyeaMy i. ok;q
2. Hydrosphere ii. Life 2. tyeaMy ii. thou
3. Atmosphere iii. Water 3. ok;qeM
a y iii. ty
4. Biosphere iv. Solid Rocks, 4. tSoeaMy iv. Bksl] pV~Vkus]a
Outermost i`Foh dh lcls
layer of earth ckgjh ijr ftls
called crust ØLV dgk tkrk
gS
(1) 1-iii, 2-i, 3-ii, 4-iv (1) 1-iii, 2-i, 3-ii, 4-iv

(2) 1-ii, 2-iii, 3-i, 4-iv (2) 1-ii, 2-iii, 3-i, 4-iv

(3) 1-iv, 2-iii, 3-i, 4-ii (3) 1-iv, 2-iii, 3-i, 4-ii

(4) 1-iv, 2-ii, 3-i, 4-iii (4) 1-iv, 2-ii, 3-i, 4-iii

MSMSS/9–2023 P. T. O.
D ( 22 )

69. Global warming can result in 69. Xykscy okfe±x ds ifj.kkeLo:i


many serious alterations to the i;kZoj.k esa dbZ xaHkhj ifjorZu gks
environment. Which of the ldrs gSaA Xykscy okfeZx
a ds laca/k esa
statements is/are wrong in dkSu&lk@ls dFku xyr gSA
relation to global warming ?

i. Adverse Impact on health i. LokLF; ij cqjk izHkko


ii. low sea level ii. fuEu leqnz Lrj
iii. Threats to biodiversity iii. tSo fofo/krk ds fy, [krjk
(1) Only ii (1) dsoy ii
(2) Both i and iii (2) i vkSj iii nksuksa
(3) All i, ii, iii (3) lHkh i, ii, iii
(4) Both ii and iii (4) ii vkSj iii nksuksa

70. Which of the following statements 70. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk dFku
correctly describes the organic tSfod [kkn~; dk lgh O;k[;ku djrk
food ? gS \
(1) Food crop grown without using (1) moZjdksa dk mi;ksx fd, fcuk
fertilizers is organic food. mxkbZ tkus okyh [kkn~; Qly
tSfod Hkkstu gSA
(2) Food crop grown without using (2) fcuk [kjirokjuk’kdksa ds mxkbZ
weedicides is organic food. tkus okyh [kkn~; Qly tSfod
Hkkstu gSA
(3) Food crop grown without using (3) dhVuk’kdksa ds mi;ksx ds fcuk
pesticides is organic food. mxkbZ tkus okyh [kkn~; Qly
tSfod Hkkstu gSA
(4) All of the above. (4) mijksDr lHkhA

MSMSS/9–2023
( 23 )
jQ dk;Z ds fy, / FOR ROUGH WORK
5. iz'uksa ds mÙkj] mÙkj i=d esa fu/kkZfjr [kkuksa dks dkys 5. Answers to questions in answer sheet are to be
ckWy IokbaV iSu ls iw.kZr;k dkyk djuk gS] tSlk fd given by darkening complete circle using black ball
uhps fn[kk;k x;k gS % point pen as shown below :
1  3 4 1  3 4
vki }kjk fn;k x;k mÙkj xyr ekuk tk,xk] ;fn The answer will be treated wrong, if it is marked, as given
mÙkj okys [kkus dks fuEu izdkj ls Hkjrs gSa % below :

    
   
;fn ,d ls T;knk [kkuksa dks Hkj nsrs gSa rks vkidk If you fill more than one circle it will be treated as a
mÙkj xyr ekuk tk,xkA wrong answer.
6. jQ dk;Z iz'u iqfLrdk esa bl iz;kstu ds fy, nh xbZ 6. Rough work should be done only in the space provided
[kkyh txg ij gh djsaA in the Test Booklet for the same.
7. lHkh mÙkj dsoy mÙkj i=d (OMR) ij gh vafdr 7. The answers are to be recorded on the OMR Answer
djsAa vius mÙkj /;kuiwoZd vafdr djsAa mÙkj cnyus Sheet only. Mark your responses carefully. No whitener
gsrq 'osr jatd ¼lQsn ¶Y;wM½ dk iz;ksx fuf"k) gSA (white fluid) is allowed for changing answers.
8. izR;sd iz’u ds fy, fn, x, pkj fodYiksa esa ls mfpr 8. Out of the four alternatives for each question, only one
fodYi ds fy, mÙkj i=d (OMR) ij dsoy ,d gh circle for the most appropriate answer is to be darkened
o`Ùk dks iwjh rjg dkys ckWy IokbaV iSu ls HkjsaA ,d completely with Black Ball Point Pen on the OMR
ckj mÙkj vafdr djus ds ckn mls cnyk ugha tk Answer Sheet. The answer once marked is not allowed
ldrk gSA to be changed.
9. vH;FkhZ lqfuf’pr djsa fd bl mÙkj i=d dks eksMk+ u 9. The candidate should ensure that the Answer Sheet is
tk, ,oa ml ij dksbZ vU; fu’kku u yxk,¡A not folded. Do not make any stray mark on Answer
vH;FkhZ viuk vuqØekad mÙkj i=d esa fu/kkZfjr Sheet. Do not write your Roll No. anywhere else except
LFkku ds vfrfjDr vU;= u fy[ksAa in the specified space in the Answer Sheet.
10. iz'u iqfLrdk ,oa mÙkj i=d dk /;kuiwod Z iz;ksx djs]a 10. Handle the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet with care, as
D;ksfa d fdlh Hkh ifjfLFkfr esa ¼dsoy iz'u iqfLrdk ,oa under no circumstances (except for discrepancy in Test
mÙkj i=d ds Øekad esa fHkUurk dh fLFkfr dks NksMd + j½ Booklet and Answer Sheet Serial No.), another set of
nwljh iz'u iqfLrdk lSV miyC/k ugha djokbZ tk,xhA Test Booklet will not be provided.
11. iz'u iqfLrdk@mÙkj i=d esa fn, x, Øekad dks 11. The candidate will write the correct Number as given in
vH;FkhZ lgh rjhds ls gkftjh i= esa fy[ksaA the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet in the Attendance Sheet.
12. vH;FkhZ dks ijh{kk gkWy@d{k esa izos’k dkMZ ds 12. Candidate is not allowed to carry any textual material,
vfrfjDr fdlh izdkj dh ikB~; lkexzh] eqfnzr ;k printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone,
gLrfyf[kr dkxt dh ifpZ;k¡] istj] eksckby Qksu] electronic device or any other material except the Admit
bysDVªkWfud midj.k ;k fdlh vU; izdkj dh lkexzh Card inside the examination hall/room.
dks ys tkus ;k mi;ksx djus dh vuqefr ugha gSA
13. fujh{kd }kjk iwNs tkus ij izR;sd vH;FkhZ viuk 13. Each candidate must show on demand his/her Admit
izos’k&i= ¼jksy ua0½ fn[kk,¡A Card (Roll No.) to the Invigilator.
14. dsUnz v/kh{kd ;k fujh{kd dh fo’ks"k vuqefr ds fcuk 14. No candidate, without special permission of the
dksbZ vH;FkhZ viuk LFkku u NksMa+sA Superintendent or Invigilator, should leave his/her seat.
15. bysDVªkWfud@gLrpkfyr ifjdyd dk mi;ksx oftZr gSA 15. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.
16. fdlh gkyr esa iz'u&iqfLrdk ,oa mÙkj&i=d dk dksbZ 16. No part of test Booklet and Answer-sheet shall be
Hkkx vyx u djsaA detached under any circumstances.
17. ijh{kk lEiUu gksus ij] vH;FkhZ ijh{kk d{k@gkWy 17. On completion of the test, candidate must hand over the
NksM+us ls iwoZ mÙkj i=d d{k&i;Zos{kd dks vo’; Answer Sheet to the Invigilator in the Room/Hall. The
lkSai nsAa vH;FkhZ vius lkFk iz'u iqfLrdk dks ys tk candidate is allowed to take away this Test Booklet with
ldrs gSaA them.

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