MSMSS - 2023: (For Class 9th) Set: A
MSMSS - 2023: (For Class 9th) Set: A
MSMSS - 2023: (For Class 9th) Set: A
vH;fFkZ
vH;fFkZ;ksa ds fy, funsZ'k % INSTRUCTIONS FOR THE CANDIDATES :
1. mÙkj i=d (OMR) bl iz'u iqfLrdk ds vUnj j[kk 1. The OMR Answer Sheet is inside this Test Booklet.
gSA tc vkidks iz'u iqfLrdk [kksyus dks dgk tk,] rks When you are directed to open the Test Booklet, take out
mÙkj i=d fudky dj /;ku ls dsoy dkys ckWy IokbaV the Answer Sheet and fill the particulars carefully with
isu ls fooj.k HkjsaA black ball point pen only.
2. ijh{kk dh vof/k 2½ ?kaVs gS ,oa iz'u iqfLrdk esa 70 iz’u 2. The test is of 2½ hours duration and consists of
gSaA izR;sd iz'u ,d vad dk gSA dksbZ _.kkRed vadu 70 questions. Each question carries one mark. There is no
ugha gSA negative marking.
3. bl i`"B ij fooj.k vafdr djus ,oa mÙkj i=d ij 3. Use Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on
fu’kku yxkus ds fy, dsoy dkys ckWy IokbaV isu dk this page/marking responses in the Answer Sheet. The
iz;ksx djsaA vH;FkhZ iz'u-iqfLrdk dk mi;ksx djus ,oa candidate should remain careful in handling the question
mÙkj i=d dks Hkjus esa lko/kkuh cjrsaA nwljh iz'u- paper and in marking the answers on the answer sheet.
iqfLrdk ls
lsV çnku ugha dh tk,xhA Another booklet set will not be given.
4. ;g Hkh lqfuf’pr dj ysa fd iz'u iqfLrdk Øekad vkSj 4. Also ensure that your Test Booklet Serial No. and
mÙkj i=d Øekad ,d gh gSaA vxj ;g fHkUu gksa ;k Answer Sheet Serial No. are the same. In case of
iz'u iqfLrdk esa dksbZ i`"B Miss ;k Misprint gks rks discrepancy or any page is Miss or Misprint in test
vH;FkhZ nwljh iz’u-iqfLrdk vkSj mÙkj i=d ysus ds booklet, the candidate should immediately report the
fy, fujh{kd dks rqjUr voxr djok,A matter to the Invigilator for replacement of both the Test
Booklet and the Answer Sheet.
uksV % bl iqfLrdk ds vUr esa fn, x, 'ks"k funsZ'kksa dks Note : Read other remaining instructions given on the last
i<+saA page of this Booklet.
(2)
jQ dk;Z ds fy, / FOR ROUGH WORK
(3) A
1. In the question which of the 1. iz’u esa mÙkj vkd`fr;k¡ (1), (2), (3)
answer figures (1), (2), (3) and (4) vkSj (4) esa ls dkSu&lh vkd`fr fp=
will complete the picture matrix ? vkO;wg ¼eSfVªDl½ dks iw.kZ djsxh \
Direction (Question No. 3) Select the funsZ’k % ¼iz’u la[;k 3½ vaxzsth o.kZekyk
water image of the given combination of vkSj la[;kvksa ds fn, x, la;kstu dk ty
English alphabet and number. izfrfcac pqfu,A
3. 3.
MSMSS/9–2023 P. T. O.
A (4)
4. Vijay is 18th from the left in the 4. fot; ,d iafDr esa ck,¡ ls 18osa
row. He came 5 places to the left. LFkku ij gSA og ik¡p LFkku ck,¡
If there are 34 students in the rrow, vk;kA ;fn iafDr esa 34 Nk= gSa] rks
then what is his position from the mldk vc nk,¡ ls dkSu&lk LFkku
right now ? gS \
(1) 22nd (2) 16th (1) 22ok¡ (2) 16ok¡
(3) 23rd (4) 24th (3) 23ok¡ (4) 24ok¡
5. If all the vowels are removed from 5. ;fn lHkh Lojksa dks vaxzsth o.kZekyk
the English alphabets, then which ls gVk fn;k tk,] rks ck,¡ ls ik¡posa
will be the eighth letter to the v{kj ds nk,¡ vkBok¡ v{kj dkSu&lk
right
ht of the fifth letter from the gksxk \
left ?
(1) M (2) N (1) M (2) N
(3) P (4) Q (3) P (4) Q
MSMSS/9–2023
(5) A
Direction : (Question No. 8 and 9) In funsZ’k % ¼iz’u la[;k 8 ,oa 9½ uhps nh xbZ
each of the following figures numbers izR;sd vkd`fr esa ,d fuf’pr Øe vuqlkj
are written according to some patterns. dqN la[;k,¡ fy[kh xbZ gSaA buesa ls ,d
One number is missing. Find the la[;k yqIr gSA yqIr la[;k Kkr djs]a tks
missing number that replaces the iz’u fpg~u ¼\½½ ds LFkku ij mi;qDr gksA
question mark (?).
8. 8.
9. 9.
Direction : (Question No. 10 and 11) funsZ’k % ¼iz’u la[;k 10 ,oa 11½
In the following questions a figure (X) is fuEufyf[kr iz’uksa esa vkd`fr (X) nh xbZ gSA
given. Select the option which resembles vki ml fodYi dk p;u djsa] tks vkd`fr
the mirror image of the figure (X). (X) ds niZ.k izfrfcac tSlk fn[krk gSA
10. 10.
MSMSS/9–2023 P. T. O.
A (6)
11. 11.
12. If in a year the Republic Day was 12. ;fn fdlh o”kZ x.kra= fnol eghus ds
celebrated on the 4th Saturday of a pkSFks ‘kfuokj dks euk;k x;k Fkk] rks
month, then what was the day of ml eghus dh igyh rkjh[k dks
the week on the 1st of that month ? lIrkg dk dkSu&lk fnu Fkk \
(1) Monday (2) Tuesday (1) lkseokj (2) eaxyokj
(3) Wednesday (4) Sunday (3) cq/kokj (4) jfookj
13. Which figure best represents the 13. Qy] yky vkSj deht ds chp ds
relationship between Fruit, Red laca/k dks dkSu&lh vkd`fr iznf’kZr
and Shirt ? djrh gS \
(1) (1)
(2) (2)
(3) (3)
(4) (4)
MSMSS/9–2023
(7) A
14. At the time ............ between 3:00 14. 3 vkSj 4 cts ds chp fdl le;
and 4:00, both the hands will cover nksuksa lqbZ;k¡ ,d nwljs dks <d ysx
a h \
each other.
4 7 4 7
(1) 3 : 16 (2) 3 : 15 (1) 3 : 16 (2) 3 : 15
11 11 11 11
4 5 4 5
(3) 3 : 10 (4) 3 : 05 (3) 3 : 10 (4) 3 : 05
11 11 11 11
15. Which figure best represents the 15. iatkc] gfj;k.kk vkSj fglkj ds chp
relationship between Punjab, ds lac/a k dks dkSu&lh vkd`fr iznf’kZr
Haryana and Hisar ? djrh gS \
(1) (1)
(2) (2)
(3) (3)
(4) (4)
Direction : (Question No. 16 and 17) funsZ’k % ¼iz’u la[;k 16 ,oa 17½ uhps fn,
In the questions given below the question x, iz’uksa esa iz’u vkd`fr dh A vkSj B esa
figure is that a special relationship exists ,d fo’ks”k lac/a k LFkkfir gSA ;g lEca/k
between A and B. This relationship is vkd`fr C vkSj oSdfYid vkd`fr;ksa esa ls
established in figure C and one of the ,d esa LFkkfir gSA ml oSdfYid vkd`fr dk
alternatives figures. Select the p;u djsa] tks vkd`fr D esa iz’u fpg~u ¼\½
alternative figure that should replace the dk LFkku ys ldrh gSA
question mark (?) in figure D.
MSMSS/9–2023 P. T. O.
A (8)
16. 16.
17. 17.
20. PAL, NZN, LBP, JYR, ? 20. PAL, NZN, LBP, JYR, ?
(1) HCT (2) KCQ (1) HCT (2) KCQ
(3) GCT (4) ICS (3) GCT (4) ICS
21. The four major components of 21. i;kZoj.k ds pkj ize[q k ?kVd uhps
environment are given below. fn, x, gSaA fuEufyf[kr dks muds
Match the following with their lVhd lacf/kr ls lqesfyr dhft,A
exact relation. ?kVd lac/a k
Component Relation 1. LFkyeaMy i. ok;q
1. Lithosphere i. Air 2. tyeaMy ii. thou
2. Hydrosphere ii. Life 3. ok;qeM
a y iii. ty
3. Atmosphere iii. Water 4. tSoeaMy iv. Bksl] pV~Vkus]a
4. Biosphere iv. Solid Rocks, i`Foh dh lcls
Outermost ckgjh ijr ftls
layer of earth ØLV dgk tkrk
called crust gS
(1) 1-iii, 2-i, 3-ii, 4-iv (1) 1-iii, 2-i, 3-ii, 4-iv
(2) 1-ii, 2-iii, 3-i, 4-iv (2) 1-ii, 2-iii, 3-i, 4-iv
(3) 1-iv, 2-iii, 3-i, 4-ii (3) 1-iv, 2-iii, 3-i, 4-ii
(4) 1-iv, 2-ii, 3-i, 4-iii (4) 1-iv, 2-ii, 3-i, 4-iii
22. If SYSTEM is written as OVQIBR 22. ;fn fdlh lkadfs rd Hkk”kk esa SYSTEM
in a certain code language, how dks OVQIBR fy[kk tkrk gS] rks mlh
will NEARER be written in that lkadfs rd Hkk”kk esa NEARER dks fdl
code language ? izdkj fy[kk tk,xk \
(1) LBPNBP (2) WBLNBP (1) LBPNBP (2) WBLNBP
(3) PGTTGP (4) MCNOCQ (3) PGTTGP (4) MCNOCQ
23. M is the wife of S. Q is the wife of 23. M, S dh iRuh gSA Q, R dh iRuh gSA
R. S is the son of Q. P is the son of S, Q dk iq= gSA P, M dk iq= gSA
M. How is R related to P ? R dk P ls D;k lac/a k gS \
(1) Father (2) Brother (1) firk (2) HkkbZ
(3) Grandfather (4) Uncle (3) nknk (4) pkpk
MSMSS/9–2023 P. T. O.
A ( 10 )
24. Which of the following statements 24. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk dFku
correctly describes the organic tSfod [kkn~; dk lgh O;k[;ku djrk
food ? gS \
(1) Food crop grown without using (1) moZjdksa dk mi;ksx fd, fcuk
fertilizers is organic food. mxkbZ tkus okyh [kkn~; Qly
tSfod Hkkstu gSA
(2) Food crop grown without using (2) fcuk [kjirokjuk’kdksa ds mxkbZ
weedicides is organic food. tkus okyh [kkn~; Qly tSfod
Hkkstu gSA
(3) Food crop grown without using (3) dhVuk’kdksa ds mi;ksx ds fcuk
pesticides is organic food. mxkbZ tkus okyh [kkn~; Qly
tSfod Hkkstu gSA
(4) All of the above. (4) mijksDr lHkhA
25. When did Nepal become 25. usiky jktrU= dks [kRe djus ds ckn
democratic after abolition of yksdrU= dc cuk \
Monarchy ?
(1) 2006 (2) 2007 (1) 2006 (2) 2007
(3) 2008 (4) 2009 (3) 2008 (4) 2009
26. Which of the statements is/are 26. Hkwe/; js[kk ds lac/a k esa dkSu lk@ls
true in relation to equator ? dFku lR; gS \
i. The equator passes through i. Hkwe/; js[kk nf{k.k vesfjdk]
the continents of South vÝhdk vkSj vkWLVªsfy;k egk}hiksa
America, Africa and Australia. ls gksdj xqtjrh gSA
ii. The equator passes through ii. Hkwe/; js[kk rsjg ns’kksa ls gksdj
thirteen countries. xqtjrh gSA
iii. There is only one major river iii. dsoy ,d izeq[k unh gS tks
which crosses the equator Hkwe/; js[kk dks nks ckj ikj
twice. djrh gSA
(1) Only iii (1) dsoy iii
(2) Both i and ii (2) i vkSj ii nksuksa
(3) All i, ii, iii (3) lHkh i, ii, iii
(4) Both ii and iii (4) ii vkSj iii nksuksa
MSMSS/9–2023
( 11 ) A
28. The force of 50 newton acting on 28. ;fn 50 U;wVu cy] 50 lsaVhehVj oxZ
area of 50 cm2 will exert a ds {ks=Qy ij yxk;k tk;s] rks ;g
pressure of : fdruk nkc yxk,xk \
(1) 100 Pa (1) 100 Pa
(4) 1 Pa (4) 1 Pa
29. First World War started in : 29. izFke fo’o ;q) izkjEHk gqvk %
(1) 1915 AD (1) 1915 bZ0 esa
(2) 1916 AD (2) 1916 bZ0 esa
(3) 1918 AD (3) 1918 bZ0 esa
(4) 1914 AD (4) 1914 bZ0 esa
30. Which of the following created 30. Hkkjrh; lafo/kku fdlds }kjk cuk;k
Indian Constitution ? x;k \
(1) Indian Parliament (1) Hkkjrh; laln }kjk
(2) Constitutional Assembly (2) lafo/kku lHkk }kjk
(3) Dr. Ambedkar (3) MkW0 vEcsMdj }kjk
(4) British Parliament (4) fczfV’k laln }kjk
MSMSS/9–2023 P. T. O.
A ( 12 )
33. Which of the following set of 33. fuEufyf[kr esa ls v{kjksa dk dkSu&lk
letters will look the same in the lewg niZ.k esa leku fn[kkbZ nsxk \
mirror ?
MSMSS/9–2023
( 13 ) A
35. Who is the chairperson of Rajya 35. jkT;lHkk dk lHkkifr dkSu gksrk gS \
Sabha ?
36. The amounts of these resources 36. izd`fr esa ftu lalk/kuksa dh ek=k
are less and will not be lhfer gS vkSj izkd`frd izfØ;kvksa
replenished by natural methods, }kjk iquLFkkZiu ugha gks ldrk gS]
are .............. . mUgsa .............. dgrs gSAa
(1) Biodegradable Resources (1) fuEuhdj.k lalk/ku
(2) Non-Biodegradable Resources (2) vfuEuhdj.k lalk/ku
(3) Renewable Resources (3) uohdj.kh; lalk/ku
(4) Non-Renewable Resources (4) vuohdj.kh; lalk/ku
MSMSS/9–2023 P. T. O.
A ( 14 )
Direction : (Question No. 38 and 39) funsZ’k % ¼iz’u la[;k 38 ,oa 39½ ;fn iz’u
Which one of the answer figure would vkd`fr leku Øe esa cnys rks vxys Øe
occupy the next position in the question ij mÙkj vkd`fr;ksa esa ls dkSu&lh vkd`fr
figure, if they continue to change in mfpr LFkku ik,xh \
same order ?
MSMSS/9–2023
( 15 ) A
42. According to you what is a Hen’s 42. vkids vuqlkj fn;s fodYiksa esa ls
egg in the given options ? eqxhZ dk vaMk D;k gS \
(1) Tissue (1) Ård
(2) Organ (2) vax
(3) Organ system (3) vax iz.kkyh
(4) Cell (4) dksf’kdk
(2) (90)2 – (90) (9) + (9)2 (2) (90)2 – (90) (9) + (9)2
44. With respect to zones of candle 44. eksecÙkh dh Tokyk ds lanHkZ esa] lgh
flame, choose the correct option : fodYi pqusa %
(1) Outer zone of complete (1) iw.kZ ngu dk ckg~; {ks= & ihyk
combustion – Yellow
(2) Innermost zone of unburnt (2) fcuk tyh eksecÙkh dk lcls
Candle wax – Black vkarfjd {ks= & dkyk
(3) Middle zone of partial (3) vkaf’kd ngu okyk e/; Hkkx &
combustion – Blue uhyk
(4) Hottest Part – Black (4) lcls xeZ Hkkx & dkyk
MSMSS/9–2023 P. T. O.
A ( 16 )
45. In which Article of the Indian 45. Hkkjrh; lafo/kku ds fdl vuqPNsn esa
Constitution every citizen has izR;sd ukxfjd dks thou dk ekSfyd
been given fundamental right to vf/kdkj fn;k x;k gS \
life ?
(1) Article 21 (2) Article 22 (1) vuqPNsn 21 (2) vuqPNsn 22
(3) Article 19 (4) Article 18 (3) vuqPNsn 19 (4) vuqPNsn 18
46. The ratio of speed of a motorbike 46. ,d eksVjckbd ftldh xfr 50 fdeh
50 km per hour and speed of cycle izfr ?kaVk gS o ,d lkbZfdy ftldh
20 km per hour is : xfr 20 fdeh izfr ?kaVk gS] dk
vuqikr gS %
(1) 2 : 5 (2) 5 : 1 (1) 2 : 5 (2) 5 : 1
(3) 5 : 2 (4) 1 : 2 (3) 5 : 2 (4) 1 : 2
47. The first English Factory was 47. izFke bafXy’k QSDVjh 1651 bZ0 esa
established on the banks of which fdl unh ds fdukjs LFkkfir gqbZ \
river in 1651 AD ?
(1) Narmada (2) Hugli (1) ueZnk (2) gqxyh
(3) Tapti (4) Satluj (3) rkIrh (4) lryqt
49. Voice of which of the following is 49. fuEu esa ls fdl okd~ /ofu dh vko`fÙk
likely to have minimum frequency ? U;wure gksus dh lEHkkouk gS \
(1) Baby Girl (1) NksVh yM+dh dh
(2) Baby Boy (2) NksVs yM+ds dh
(3) A Man (3) iq#”k dh
(4) A Woman (4) L=h dh
MSMSS/9–2023
( 17 ) A
50. Which metal is used to galvanize 50. yksgs dk ;’knysiu fdl /kkrq }kjk
Iron ? fd;k tkrk gS \
(1) Chromium (2) Magnesium (1) Øksfe;e (2) eSXuhf’k;e
(3) Zinc (4) Copper (3) ftad (4) rk¡ck
51. Who is sitting between P and R ? 51. P vkSj R ds chp dkSu cSBk gS \
(1) T (2) Q (1) T (2) Q
(3) S (4) U (3) S (4) U
52. Who is sitting between Q and U ? 52. Q vkSj U ds chp dkSu cSBk gS \
(1) T (2) R (1) T (2) R
(3) P (4) S (3) P (4) S
53. The angle of incidence is equal to 53. vkiru dks.k] ijkorZu dks.k ds
angle of reflection : cjkcj gksrk gS %
(1) Always (1) lnSo
(2) Sometimes (2) dHkh&dHkh
(3) Under Special Conditions (3) fo’ks”k ifjfLFkfr;ksa esa
(4) Never (4) dHkh ugha
54. One of the following is not a basic 54. fuEufyf[kr esa ls ,d o”kkZ ty
component of a rainwater lap;u iz.kkyh dk ewy ?kVd
harvesting system. ugha gSA
(1) Catchment (1) tyxzg
(2) Delivery system (2) forj.k iz.kkyh
(3) Storage reservoir (3) tyk’k;
(4) River system (4) unh iz.kkyh
MSMSS/9–2023 P. T. O.
A ( 18 )
55. Which of the parallelogram has all 55. dkSu&ls lekUrj prqHkqZt dh lHkh
sides equal and diagonals bisect Hkqtk,¡ cjkcj gSa o mlds fod.kZ ,d
each other at right angle ? nwljs dks 90° ij lef}HkkfTkr djrs
gSa \
(1) Square (1) oxZ
(2) Rectangle (2) vk;r
(3) Rhombus (3) leprqHkqZt
(4) Trapezium (4) leyEc prqHkqZt
56. Which of the following is not a 56. fuEu esa ls dkSu lkSj ifjokj dk
member of solar system ? lnL; ugha gS \
(1) An asteroid (1) {kqnzxgz
(2) A Satellite (2) mixzg
(3) A Constellation (3) rkjke.My
(4) A Comet (4) /kwedsrq
57. For which of the following is 57. fuEu esa ls fdlds fy, m dk eku
m=8? 8 gS \
(1) (5m × 5–3)/52 = 53 (1) (5m × 5–3)/52 = 53
(2) –(5m × 5–3)/53 = 52 (2) –(5m × 5–3)/53 = 52
(3) (5m × 52)/52 = 53 (3) (5m × 52)/52 = 53
(4) (5 × 5–2)/52 = 53 (4) (5 × 5–2)/52 = 53
58. Which of the following can not be 58. fuEufyf[kr esa fdls ?k”kZ.k }kjk
charged easily by friction ? vklkuh ls vkosf’kr ugha fd;k tk
ldrk \
(1) A Plastic Scale (1) IykfLVd dk iSekuk
(2) A Copper Rod (2) rkacs dh NM+
(3) An Inflated Ballon (3) Qwyk gqvk xqCckjk
(4) A Woollen Cloth (4) Åuh oL=
MSMSS/9–2023
( 19 ) A
59. Which of the following statement 59. jkbtksfc;e ds ckjs esa fuEufyf[kr esa
about Rhizobium is true ? ls dkSu lk dFku lR; gS \
(1) Rhizobia are bacteria that can (1) jkbtksfc;k thok.kq gSa tks feV~Vh
live in the soil esa jg ldrs gSaA
(2) Rhizobia are bacteria live in (2) jkbtksfc;k thok.kq gSa tks nkyksa dh
nodules formed on the roots of tM+ksa ij cuh xk¡Bksa esa jgrs gSaA
legumes.
(3) Rhizobia are bacteria (3) jkbtksfc;k thok.kq gSa tks ikS/kksa ls
obtaining nutrients from the iks”kd rRo izkIr djrs gSa vkSj
plant and producing nitrogen tSfod ukbVªkstu fLFkjhdj.k
in a process called biological uked izfØ;k ds n~okjk ukbVªkstu
nitrogen fixation. dk mRiknu djrs gSaA
(4) All of the above statements (4) jkbtksfc;e ds ckjs esa mijksDr
about Rhizobium are true. lHkh dFku lR; gSaA
60. Who wrote the book 'Gulamgiri' ? 60. ^xqykefxjh* iqLrd dh jpuk fdlus
dh \
(1) Savitri Phule (1) lkfo=h Qqys
ys
(2) Jyotirao Phule (2) T;ksfrjko Q
Qqys
(3) Mahatma Gandhi (3) egkRek xk¡/kh
(4) Ramabai (4) jekckbZ
61. How many parallelograms are in 61. nh xbZ vkd`fr esa fdrus lekarj
the given figure ? prqHkqZt gSa \
62. Which one number is wrong in 62. la[;k Ük``a[kyk esa dkSu&lh ,d la[;k
the number series ? xyr gS \
5 , 13 , 39 , 160 , 805 5 , 13 , 39 , 160 , 805
(1) 5 (2) 39 (1) 5 (2) 39
(3) 160 (4) 13 (3) 160 (4) 13
MSMSS/9–2023 P. T. O.
A ( 20 )
63. 63.
64. 64.
MSMSS/9–2023
( 21 ) A
65. A person is trying to climb a pole 65. ,d O;fDr 60 QhV Å¡ps [kEcs ij
60 feet high. He climbs 6 feet in p<+us dk iz;Ru dj jgk gSA og ,d
one minute, but slips and comes feuV esa 6 QhV p<+ tkrk gS] ysfdu
down 4 feet, then how many fQly dj 4 QhV uhps vk tkrk gS]
minutes will it take him to reach rks Åij rd igq¡pus esa mls fdrus
the top ? feuV yxsaxs \
(1) 32 (2) 28 (1) 32 (2) 28
(3) 27 (4) 34 (3) 27 (4) 34
66. In which year did the Permanent 66. caxky esa LFkk;h cUnkscLr dc ykxw
Settlement come into force in gqvk \
Bengal ?
(1) 1796 AD (1) 1796 bZ0
(2) 1794 AD (2) 1794 bZ0
(3) 1793 AD (3) 1793 bZ0
(4) 1795 AD (4) 1795 bZ0
67. 67.
MSMSS/9–2023 P. T. O.
A ( 22 )
68. 68.
70. When the square of a number is 70. tc ,d la[;k ds oxZ dks mlh la[;k
subtracted from the cube of the ds ?ku esa ls ?kVk;k tkrk gS] rks 100
same number, it becomes 100. izkIr gksrk gSA la[;k Kkr djsa %
Find the number :
(1) 1 (1) 1
(2) 2 (2) 2
(3) 4 (3) 4
(4) 5 (4) 5
MSMSS/9–2023
( 23 )
jQ dk;Z ds fy, / FOR ROUGH WORK
5. iz'uksa ds mÙkj] mÙkj i=d esa fu/kkZfjr [kkuksa dks dkys 5. Answers to questions in answer sheet are to be
ckWy IokbaV iSu ls iw.kZr;k dkyk djuk gS] tSlk fd given by darkening complete circle using black ball
uhps fn[kk;k x;k gS % point pen as shown below :
1 3 4 1 3 4
vki }kjk fn;k x;k mÙkj xyr ekuk tk,xk] ;fn The answer will be treated wrong, if it is marked, as given
mÙkj okys [kkus dks fuEu izdkj ls Hkjrs gSa % below :
;fn ,d ls T;knk [kkuksa dks Hkj nsrs gSa rks vkidk If you fill more than one circle it will be treated as a
mÙkj xyr ekuk tk,xkA wrong answer.
6. jQ dk;Z iz'u iqfLrdk esa bl iz;kstu ds fy, nh xbZ 6. Rough work should be done only in the space provided
[kkyh txg ij gh djsaA in the Test Booklet for the same.
7. lHkh mÙkj dsoy mÙkj i=d (OMR) ij gh vafdr 7. The answers are to be recorded on the OMR Answer
djsAa vius mÙkj /;kuiwoZd vafdr djsAa mÙkj cnyus Sheet only. Mark your responses carefully. No whitener
gsrq 'osr jatd ¼lQsn ¶Y;wM½ dk iz;ksx fuf"k) gSA (white fluid) is allowed for changing answers.
8. izR;sd iz’u ds fy, fn, x, pkj fodYiksa esa ls mfpr 8. Out of the four alternatives for each question, only one
fodYi ds fy, mÙkj i=d (OMR) ij dsoy ,d gh circle for the most appropriate answer is to be darkened
o`Ùk dks iwjh rjg dkys ckWy IokbaV iSu ls HkjsaA ,d completely with Black Ball Point Pen on the OMR
ckj mÙkj vafdr djus ds ckn mls cnyk ugha tk Answer Sheet. The answer once marked is not allowed
ldrk gSA to be changed.
9. vH;FkhZ lqfuf’pr djsa fd bl mÙkj i=d dks eksMk+ u 9. The candidate should ensure that the Answer Sheet is
tk, ,oa ml ij dksbZ vU; fu’kku u yxk,¡A not folded. Do not make any stray mark on Answer
vH;FkhZ viuk vuqØekad mÙkj i=d esa fu/kkZfjr Sheet. Do not write your Roll No. anywhere else except
LFkku ds vfrfjDr vU;= u fy[ksAa in the specified space in the Answer Sheet.
10. iz'u iqfLrdk ,oa mÙkj i=d dk /;kuiwod Z iz;ksx djs]a 10. Handle the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet with care, as
D;ksfa d fdlh Hkh ifjfLFkfr esa ¼dsoy iz'u iqfLrdk ,oa under no circumstances (except for discrepancy in Test
mÙkj i=d ds Øekad esa fHkUurk dh fLFkfr dks NksMd + j½ Booklet and Answer Sheet Serial No.), another set of
nwljh iz'u iqfLrdk lSV miyC/k ugha djokbZ tk,xhA Test Booklet will not be provided.
11. iz'u iqfLrdk@mÙkj i=d esa fn, x, Øekad dks 11. The candidate will write the correct Number as given in
vH;FkhZ lgh rjhds ls gkftjh i= esa fy[ksaA the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet in the Attendance Sheet.
12. vH;FkhZ dks ijh{kk gkWy@d{k esa izos’k dkMZ ds 12. Candidate is not allowed to carry any textual material,
vfrfjDr fdlh izdkj dh ikB~; lkexzh] eqfnzr ;k printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone,
gLrfyf[kr dkxt dh ifpZ;k¡] istj] eksckby Qksu] electronic device or any other material except the Admit
bysDVªkWfud midj.k ;k fdlh vU; izdkj dh lkexzh Card inside the examination hall/room.
dks ys tkus ;k mi;ksx djus dh vuqefr ugha gSA
13. fujh{kd }kjk iwNs tkus ij izR;sd vH;FkhZ viuk 13. Each candidate must show on demand his/her Admit
izos’k&i= ¼jksy ua0½ fn[kk,¡A Card (Roll No.) to the Invigilator.
14. dsUnz v/kh{kd ;k fujh{kd dh fo’ks"k vuqefr ds fcuk 14. No candidate, without special permission of the
dksbZ vH;FkhZ viuk LFkku u NksMa+sA Superintendent or Invigilator, should leave his/her seat.
15. bysDVªkWfud@gLrpkfyr ifjdyd dk mi;ksx oftZr gSA 15. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.
16. fdlh gkyr esa iz'u&iqfLrdk ,oa mÙkj&i=d dk dksbZ 16. No part of test Booklet and Answer-sheet shall be
Hkkx vyx u djsaA detached under any circumstances.
17. ijh{kk lEiUu gksus ij] vH;FkhZ ijh{kk d{k@gkWy 17. On completion of the test, candidate must hand over the
NksM+us ls iwoZ mÙkj i=d d{k&i;Zos{kd dks vo’; Answer Sheet to the Invigilator in the Room/Hall. The
lkSai nsAa vH;FkhZ vius lkFk iz'u iqfLrdk dks ys tk candidate is allowed to take away this Test Booklet with
ldrs gSaA them.
MSMSS – 2023
(For Class 9th)
SET : B
cqdysV Øekad ,oa
vks0,e0vkj0 Øekad
vuqØekad ¼vadksa esa½ % Booklet Serial No. &
Roll No. (In Figures) O. M. R. Serial No.
vuqØekad ¼'kCnksa esa½ %
Roll No. (In Words)
ijh{kk dsUnz dk uke %
Name of Examination Centre
vH;FkhZ dk uke % vH;FkhZ ds gLrk{kj %
Name of Candidate Signature of the Candidate
bl iz'u-iqfLrdk esa i`"Bksa dh la[;k iz'uksa dh la[;k le;
24 70 2½ hours
No. of Pages in this Question Booklet No. of Questions Time
vH;fFkZ
vH;fFkZ;ksa ds fy, funsZ'k % INSTRUCTIONS FOR THE CANDIDATES :
1. mÙkj i=d (OMR) bl iz'u iqfLrdk ds vUnj j[kk 1. The OMR Answer Sheet is inside this Test Booklet.
gSA tc vkidks iz'u iqfLrdk [kksyus dks dgk tk,] rks When you are directed to open the Test Booklet, take out
mÙkj i=d fudky dj /;ku ls dsoy dkys ckWy IokbaV the Answer Sheet and fill the particulars carefully with
isu ls fooj.k HkjsaA black ball point pen only.
2. ijh{kk dh vof/k 2½ ?kaVs gS ,oa iz'u iqfLrdk esa 70 iz’u 2. The test is of 2½ hours duration and consists of
gSaA izR;sd iz'u ,d vad dk gSA dksbZ _.kkRed vadu 70 questions. Each question carries one mark. There is no
ugha gSA negative marking.
3. bl i`"B ij fooj.k vafdr djus ,oa mÙkj i=d ij 3. Use Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on
fu’kku yxkus ds fy, dsoy dkys ckWy IokbaV isu dk this page/marking responses in the Answer Sheet. The
iz;ksx djsaA vH;FkhZ iz'u-iqfLrdk dk mi;ksx djus ,oa candidate should remain careful in handling the question
mÙkj i=d dks Hkjus esa lko/kkuh cjrsaA nwljh iz'u- paper and in marking the answers on the answer sheet.
iqfLrdk ls
lsV çnku ugha dh tk,xhA Another booklet set will not be given.
4. ;g Hkh lqfuf’pr dj ysa fd iz'u iqfLrdk Øekad vkSj 4. Also ensure that your Test Booklet Serial No. and
mÙkj i=d Øekad ,d gh gSaA vxj ;g fHkUu gksa ;k Answer Sheet Serial No. are the same. In case of
iz'u iqfLrdk esa dksbZ i`"B Miss ;k Misprint gks rks discrepancy or any page is Miss or Misprint in test
vH;FkhZ nwljh iz’u-iqfLrdk vkSj mÙkj i=d ysus ds booklet, the candidate should immediately report the
fy, fujh{kd dks rqjUr voxr djok,A matter to the Invigilator for replacement of both the Test
Booklet and the Answer Sheet.
uksV % bl iqfLrdk ds vUr esa fn, x, 'ks"k funsZ'kksa dks Note : Read other remaining instructions given on the last
i<+saA page of this Booklet.
(2)
jQ dk;Z ds fy, / FOR ROUGH WORK
(3) B
2. 2.
3. 3.
MSMSS/9–2023 P. T. O.
B (4)
4. If in a year the Republic Day was 4. ;fn fdlh o”kZ x.kra= fnol eghus ds
celebrated on the 4th Saturday of a pkSFks ‘kfuokj dks euk;k x;k Fkk] rks
month, then what was the day of ml eghus dh igyh rkjh[k dks
the week on the 1st of that month ? lIrkg dk dkSu&lk fnu Fkk \
(1) Monday (2) Tuesday (1) lkseokj (2) eaxyokj
(3) Wednesday (4) Sunday (3) cq/kokj (4) jfookj
MSMSS/9–2023
(5) B
8. 8.
9. 9.
10. Which of the following created 10. Hkkjrh; lafo/kku fdlds }kjk cuk;k
Indian Constitution ? x;k \
(1) Indian Parliament (1) Hkkjrh; laln }kjk
(2) Constitutional Assembly (2) lafo/kku lHkk }kjk
(3) Dr. Ambedkar (3) MkW0 vEcsMdj }kjk
(4) British Parliament (4) fczfV’k laln }kjk
11. In which year did the Permanent 11. caxky esa LFkk;h cUnkscLr dc ykxw
Settlement come into force in gqvk \
Bengal ?
(1) 1796 AD (2) 1794 AD (1) 1796 bZ0 (2) 1794 bZ0
(3) 1793 AD (4) 1795 AD (3) 1793 bZ0 (4) 1795 bZ0
MSMSS/9–2023 P. T. O.
B (6)
12. The four major components of 12. i;kZoj.k ds pkj ize[q k ?kVd uhps
environment are given below. fn, x, gSaA fuEufyf[kr dks muds
Match the following with their lVhd lacf/kr ls lqesfyr dhft,A
exact relation. ?kVd lac/a k
Component Relation 1. LFkyeaMy i. ok;q
1. Lithosphere i. Air 2. tyeaMy ii. thou
2. Hydrosphere ii. Life 3. ok;qeM
a y iii. ty
3. Atmosphere iii. Water 4. tSoeaMy iv. Bksl] pV~Vkus]a
4. Biosphere iv. Solid Rocks, i`Foh dh lcls
Outermost ckgjh ijr ftls
layer of earth ØLV dgk tkrk
called crust gS
(1) 1-iii, 2-i, 3-ii, 4-iv (1) 1-iii, 2-i, 3-ii, 4-iv
(2) 1-ii, 2-iii, 3-i, 4-iv (2) 1-ii, 2-iii, 3-i, 4-iv
(3) 1-iv, 2-iii, 3-i, 4-ii (3) 1-iv, 2-iii, 3-i, 4-ii
(4) 1-iv, 2-ii, 3-i, 4-iii (4) 1-iv, 2-ii, 3-i, 4-iii
13. When did Nepal become 13. usiky jktrU= dks [kRe djus ds ckn
democratic after abolition of yksdrU= dc cuk \
Monarchy ?
(1) 2006 (1) 2006
(2) 2007 (2) 2007
(3) 2008 (3) 2008
(4) 2009 (4) 2009
14. Which of the following is not a 14. fuEu esa ls dkSu lkSj ifjokj dk
member of solar system ? lnL; ugha gS \
(1) An asteroid (1) {kqnzxgz
(2) A Satellite (2) mixzg
(3) A Constellation (3) rkjke.My
(4) A Comet (4) /kwedsrq
MSMSS/9–2023
(7) B
15. If SYSTEM is written as OVQIBR 15. ;fn fdlh lkadfs rd Hkk”kk esa SYSTEM
in a certain code language, how dks OVQIBR fy[kk tkrk gS] rks mlh
will NEARER be written in that lkadfs rd Hkk”kk esa NEARER dks fdl
code language ? izdkj fy[kk tk,xk \
(1) LBPNBP (1) LBPNBP
(2) WBLNBP (2) WBLNBP
16. M is the wife of S. Q is the wife of 16. M, S dh iRuh gSA Q, R dh iRuh gSA
R. S is the son of Q. P is the son of S, Q dk iq= gSA P, M dk iq= gSA
M. How is R related to P ? R dk P ls D;k lac/a k gS \
(1) Father (1) firk
(2) Brother (2) HkkbZ
(3) Grandfather (3) nknk
(4) Uncle (4) pkpk
17. If all the vowels are removed from 17. ;fn lHkh Lojksa dks vaxzsth o.kZekyk
the English alphabets, then which ls gVk fn;k tk,] rks ck,¡ ls ik¡posa
will be the eighth letter to the v{kj ds nk,¡ vkBok¡ v{kj dkSu&lk
right of the fifth letter from the gksxk \
left ?
(1) M (2) N (1) M (2) N
(3) P (4) Q (3) P (4) Q
(1) (1)
(2) (2)
(3) (3)
(4) (4)
20. 20.
MSMSS/9–2023
(9) B
21. A person is trying to climb a pole 21. ,d O;fDr 60 QhV Å¡ps [kEcs ij
60 feet high. He climbs 6 feet in p<+u+ s dk iz;Ru dj jgk gSA og ,d
one minute, but slips and comes feuV esa 6 QhV p<+ tkrk gS] ysfdu
down 4 feet, then how many fQly dj 4 QhV uhps vk tkrk gS]
minutes will it take him to reach rks Åij rd igq¡pus esa mls fdrus
the top ? feuV yxsaxs \
(1) 32 (2) 28 (1) 32 (2) 28
(3) 27 (4) 34 (3) 27 (4) 34
22. Which figure best represents the 22. Qy] yky vkSj deht ds chp ds
relationship between Fruit, Red laca/k dks dkSu&lh vkd`fr iznf’kZr
and Shirt ? djrh gS \
(1) (1)
(2) (2)
(3) (3)
(4) (4)
MSMSS/9–2023 P. T. O.
B ( 10 )
24. The angle of incidence is equal to 24. vkiru dks.k] ijkorZu dks.k ds
angle of reflection : cjkcj gksrk gS %
(1) Always (1) lnSo
(2) Sometimes (2) dHkh&dHkh
(3) Under Special Conditions (3) fo’ks”k ifjfLFkfr;ksa esa
(4) Never (4) dHkh ugha
25. Four friends A, B, C and D are 25. pkj nksLr A, B, C vkSj D rk’k
playing cards. A and B are [ksy jgsa gSaA A vkSj B vkil esa
partners. D is facing North. If A is tksM+hnkj gSaA D dk eq[k mÙkj dh
sitting to the left of D, then who is vksj gSA ;fn A, D dh ck;ha vksj
facing South ? cSBk gS] rks fdldk eq[k nf{k.k dh
vksj gS \
(1) B (2) C (1) B (2) C
(3) A (4) D (3) A (4) D
26. Select the water image of the 26. nh xbZ vkd`fr (X) dk ty izfrfcac
given figure (X) : pqfu, %
Direction : (Question No. 27 and 28) funsZ’k % ¼iz’u la[;k 27 ,oa 28½ uhps nh
In each of the following figures numbers xbZ izR;sd vkd`fr esa ,d fuf’pr Øe
are written according to some patterns. vuqlkj dqN laa[;k,¡ fy[kh xbZ gSaA buesa ls
One number is missing. Find the ,d la[;k yqIr gSA yqIr la[;k Kkr djsa]
missing number that replaces the tks iz’u fpg~u ¼\½½ ds LFkku ij mi;qDr
question mark (?). gksA
MSMSS/9–2023
( 11 ) B
27. 27.
28. 28.
29. At the time ............ between 3:00 29. 3 vkSj 4 cts ds chp fdl le;
and 4:00, both the hands will cover nksuksa lqbZ;k¡ ,d nwljs dks <d ysx
a h \
each other.
4 7 4 7
(1) 3 : 16 (2) 3 : 15 (1) 3 : 16 (2) 3 : 15
11 11 11 11
4 5 4 5
(3) 3 : 10 (4) 3 : 05 (3) 3 : 10 (4) 3 : 05
11 11 11 11
30. Which one number is wrong in 30. la[;k Ük``a[kyk esa dkSu&lh ,d la[;k
the number series ? xyr gS \
5 , 13 , 39 , 160 , 805 5 , 13 , 39 , 160 , 805
(1) 5 (2) 39 (1) 5 (2) 39
(3) 160 (4) 13 (3) 160 (4) 13
31. Which metal is used to galvanize 31. yksgs dk ;’knysiu fdl /kkrq }kjk
Iron ? fd;k tkrk gS \
(1) Chromium (1) Øksfe;e
(2) Magnesium (2) eSXuhf’k;e
(3) Zinc (3) ftad
(4) Copper (4) rk¡ck
MSMSS/9–2023 P. T. O.
B ( 12 )
Direction : (Question No. 36 and 37) funsZ’k % ¼iz’u la[;k 36 ,oa 37½ uhps nh
Read the information given below and xbZ tkudkjh dks i<+dj ml ij vk/kkfjr
answer the questions based on it. iz’uksa ds mÙkj nhft,A
P, Q, R, S, T and U are six friends sitting P, Q, R, S, T vkSj U N% nksLr ,d nwljs ds
in a circle facing each other. P sits vkeus&lkeus ,d xksy ?ksjs esa cSBsa gSaA P, S
between S and Q and U sits between R vkSj Q ds chp rFkk U, R vkSj T ds chp
and T. R is third to the left of Q. esa cSBk gSA R, Q ds ck;ha vksj rhljk gSA
36. Who is sitting between P and R ? 36. P vkSj R ds chp dkSu cSBk gS \
(1) T (2) Q (1) T (2) Q
(3) S (4) U (3) S (4) U
37. Who is sitting between Q and U ? 37. Q vkSj U ds chp dkSu cSBk gS \
(1) T (2) R (1) T (2) R
(3) P (4) S (3) P (4) S
38. In which Article of the Indian 38. Hkkjrh; lafo/kku ds fdl vuqPNsn esa
Constitution every citizen has izR;sd ukxfjd dks thou dk ekSfyd
been given fundamental right to vf/kdkj fn;k x;k gS \
life ?
(1) Article 21 (1) vuqPNsn 21
(2) Article 22 (2) vuqPNsn 22
(3) Article 19 (3) vuqPNsn 19
(4) Article 18 (4) vuqPNsn 18
39. Which of the following set of 39. fuEufyf[kr esa ls v{kjksa dk dkSu&lk
letters will look the same in the lewg niZ.k esa leku fn[kkbZ nsxk \
mirror ?
(1) OSMIMOM (1) OSMIMOM
(2) VHRTRVH (2) VHRTRVH
(3) HIMOSTA (3) HIMOSTA
(4) AOVIVOA (4) AOVIVOA
MSMSS/9–2023 P. T. O.
B ( 14 )
40. Voice of which of the following is 40. fuEu esa ls fdl okd~ /ofu dh vko`fÙk
likely to have minimum frequency ? U;wure gksus dh lEHkkouk gS \
(1) Baby Girl (1) NksVh yM+dh dh
(2) Baby Boy (2) NksVs yM+ds dh
(3) A Man (3) iq#”k dh
(4) A Woman (4) L=h dh
41. The force of 50 newton acting on 41. ;fn 50 U;wVu cy] 50 lsaVhehVj oxZ
area of 50 cm2 will exert a ds {ks=Qy ij yxk;k tk;s] rks ;g
pressure of : fdruk nkc yxk,xk \
(1) 100 Pa (2) 1000 Pa (1) 100 Pa (2) 1000 Pa
(3) 10000 Pa (4) 1 Pa (3) 10000 Pa (4) 1 Pa
43. One of the following is not a basic 43. fuEufyf[kr esa ls ,d o”kkZ ty
component of a rainwater lap;u iz.kkyh dk ewy ?kVd
harvesting system. ugha gSA
(1) Catchment (1) tyxzg
(2) Delivery system (2) forj.k iz.kkyh
(3) Storage reservoir (3) tyk’k;
(4) River system (4) unh iz.kkyh
Direction : (Question No. 44 and 45) funsZ’k % ¼iz’u la[;k 44 ,oa 45½ uhps fn,
In the questions given below the question x, iz’uksa esa iz’u vkd`fr dh A vkSj B esa
figure is that a special relationship exists ,d fo’ks”k lac/a k LFkkfir gSA ;g lEca/k
between A and B. This relationship is vkd`fr C vkSj oSdfYid vkd`fr;ksa esa ls
established in figure C and one of the ,d esa LFkkfir gSA ml oSdfYid vkd`fr dk
alternatives figures. Select the p;u djs]a tks vkd`fr D esa iz’u fpg~u ¼\½
alternative figure that should replace the dk LFkku ys ldrh gSA
question mark (?) in figure D.
MSMSS/9–2023
( 15 ) B
44. 44.
45. 45.
46. How many parallelograms are in 46. nh xbZ vkd`fr esa fdrus lekarj
the given figure ? prqHkqZt gSa \
MSMSS/9–2023 P. T. O.
B ( 16 )
47. The ratio of speed of a motorbike 47. ,d eksVjckbd ftldh xfr 50 fdeh
50 km per hour and speed of cycle izfr ?kaVk gS o ,d lkbZfdy ftldh
20 km per hour is : xfr 20 fdeh izfr ?kaVk gS] dk
vuqikr gS %
(1) 2 : 5 (2) 5 : 1 (1) 2 : 5 (2) 5 : 1
(3) 5 : 2 (4) 1 : 2 (3) 5 : 2 (4) 1 : 2
48. Which of the following can not be 48. fuEufyf[kr esa fdls ?k”kZ.k }kjk
charged easily by friction ? vklkuh ls vkosf’kr ugha fd;k tk
ldrk \
(1) A Plastic Scale (1) IykfLVd dk iSekuk
(2) A Copper Rod (2) rkacs dh NM+
(3) An Inflated Ballon (3) Qwyk gqvk xqCckjk
(4) A Woollen Cloth (4) Åuh oL=
49. Which of the parallelogram has all 49. dkSu&ls lekUrj prqHkqZt dh lHkh
sides equal and diagonals bisect Hkqtk,¡ cjkcj gSa o mlds fod.kZ ,d
each other at right angle ? nwljs dks 90° ij lef}HkkfTkr djrs
gSa \
(1) Square (1) oxZ
(2) Rectangle (2) vk;r
(3) Rhombus (3) leprqHkqZt
(4) Trapezium (4) leyEc prqHkqZt
50. The amounts of these resources 50. izd`fr esa ftu lalk/kuksa dh ek=k
are less and will not be lhfer gS vkSj izkd`frd izfØ;kvksa
replenished by natural methods, }kjk iquLFkkZiu ugha gks ldrk gS]
are .............. . mUgsa .............. dgrs gSAa
(1) Biodegradable Resources (1) fuEuhdj.k lalk/ku
(2) Non-Biodegradable Resources (2) vfuEuhdj.k lalk/ku
(3) Renewable Resources (3) uohdj.kh; lalk/ku
(4) Non-Renewable Resources (4) vuohdj.kh; lalk/ku
MSMSS/9–2023
( 17 ) B
51. Who wrote the book 'Gulamgiri' ? 51. ^xqykefxjh* iqLrd dh jpuk fdlus
dh \
(1) Savitri Phule (1) lkfo=h Qqys
(2) Jyotirao Phule (2) T;ksfrjko Qqys
(3) Mahatma Gandhi (3) egkRek xk¡/kh
(4) Ramabai (4) jekckbZ
52. For which of the following is 52. fuEu esa ls fdlds fy, m dk eku
m=8? 8 gS \
(1) (5m × 5–3)/52 = 53 (1) (5m × 5–3)/52 = 53
(2) –(5m × 5–3)/53 = 52 (2) –(5m × 5–3)/53 = 52
(3) (5m × 52)/52 = 53 (3) (5m × 52)/52 = 53
(4) (5 × 5–2)/52 = 53 (4) (5 × 5–2)/52 = 53
53. According to you what is a Hen’s 53. vkids vuqlkj fn;s fodYiksa esa ls
egg in the given options ? eqxhZ dk vaMk D;k gS \
(1) Tissue (1) Ård
(2) Organ (2) vax
(3) Organ system (3) vax iz.kkyh
(4) Cell (4) dksf’kdk
54. Which of the following statements 54. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk dFku
correctly describes the organic tSfod [kkn~; dk lgh O;k[;ku djrk
food ? gS \
(1) Food crop grown without using (1) moZjdksa dk mi;ksx fd, fcuk
fertilizers is organic food. mxkbZ tkus okyh [kkn~; Qly
tSfod Hkkstu gSA
(2) Food crop grown without using (2) fcuk [kjirokjuk’kdksa ds mxkbZ
weedicides is organic food. tkus okyh [kkn~; Qly tSfod
Hkkstu gSA
(3) Food crop grown without using (3) dhVuk’kdksa ds mi;ksx ds fcuk
pesticides is organic food. mxkbZ tkus okyh [kkn~; Qly
tSfod Hkkstu gSA
(4) All of the above. (4) mijksDr lHkhA
MSMSS/9–2023 P. T. O.
B ( 18 )
57. In the question which of the 57. iz’u esa mÙkj vkd`fr;k¡ (1), (2), (3)
answer figures (1), (2), (3) and (4) vkSj (4) esa ls dkSu&lh vkd`fr fp=
will complete the picture matrix ? vkO;wg ¼eSfVªDl½ dks iw.kZ djsxh \
58. When the square of a number is 58. tc ,d la[;k ds oxZ dks mlh la[;k
subtracted from the cube of the ds ?ku esa ls ?kVk;k tkrk gS] rks 100
same number, it becomes 100. izkIr gksrk gSA la[;k Kkr djsa %
Find the number :
(1) 1 (2) 2 (1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 4 (4) 5 (3) 4 (4) 5
MSMSS/9–2023
( 19 ) B
60. With respect to zones of candle 60. eksecÙkh dh Tokyk ds lanHkZ esa] lgh
flame, choose the correct option : fodYi pqusa %
(1) Outer zone of complete (1) iw.kZ ngu dk ckg~; {ks= & ihyk
combustion – Yellow
(2) Innermost zone of unburnt (2) fcuk tyh eksecÙkh dk lcls
Candle wax – Black vkarfjd {ks= & dkyk
(3) Middle zone of partial (3) vkaf’kd ngu okyk e/; Hkkx &
combustion – Blue uhyk
(4) Hottest Part – Black (4) lcls xeZ Hkkx & dkyk
Direction : (Question No. 61 and 62) funsZ’k % ¼iz’u la[;k 61 ,oa 62½ ;fn iz’u
Which one of the answer figure would vkd`fr leku Øe esa cnys rks vxys Øe
occupy the next position in the question ij mÙkj vkd` d`fr;ksa esa ls dkSu&lh vkd`fr
figure, if they continue to change in mfpr LFkku ik,xh \
same order ?
MSMSS/9–2023 P. T. O.
B ( 20 )
63. Which of the statements is/are 63. Hkwe/; js[kk ds lac/a k esa dkSu lk@ls
true in relation to equator ? dFku lR; gS \
i. The equator passes through i. Hkwe/; js[kk nf{k.k vesfjdk]
the continents of South vÝhdk vkSj vkWLVªsfy;k egk}hiksa
America, Africa and Australia. ls gksdj xqtjrh gSA
ii. The equator passes through ii. Hkwe/; js[kk rsjg ns’kksa ls gksdj
thirteen countries. xqtjrh gSA
iii. There is only one major river iii. dsoy ,d izeq[k unh gS tks
which crosses the equato
equator Hkwe/; js[kk dks nks ckj ikj
twice. djrh gSA
(1) Only iii (1) dsoy iii
(2) Both i and ii (2) i vkSj ii nksuksa
(3) All i, ii, iii (3) lHkh i, ii, iii
(4) Both ii and iii (4) ii vkSj iii nksuksa
MSMSS/9–2023
( 21 ) B
64. The first English Factory was 64. izFke bafXy’k QSDVjh 1651 bZ0 esa
established on the banks of which fdl unh ds fdukjs LFkkfir gqbZ \
river in 1651 AD ?
(1) Narmada (1) ueZnk
(2) Hugli (2) gqxyh
(3) Tapti (3) rkIrh
(4) Satluj (4) lryqt
65. Which figure best represents the 65. iatkc] gfj;k.kk vkSj fglkj ds chp
relationship between Punjab, ds lac/a k dks dkSu&lh vkd`fr iznf’kZr
Haryana and Hisar ? djrh gS \
(1) (1)
(2) (2)
(3) (3)
(4) (4)
MSMSS/9–2023 P. T. O.
B ( 22 )
68. PAL, NZN, LBP, JYR, ? 68. PAL, NZN, LBP, JYR, ?
(1) HCT (1) HCT
(2) KCQ (2) KCQ
(3) GCT (3) GCT
(4) ICS (4) ICS
69. Vijay is 18th from the left in the 69. fot; ,d iafDr esa ck,¡ ls 18osa
row. He came 5 places to the left. LFkku ij gSA og ik¡p LFkku ck,¡
If there are 34 students in the row, vk;kA ;fn iafDr esa 34 Nk= gSa] rks
then what is his position from the mldk vc nk,¡ ls dkSu&lk LFkku
right now ? gS \
(1) 22nd (1) 22ok¡
(2) 16th (2) 16ok¡
(3) 23rd (3) 23ok¡
(4) 24th (4) 24ok¡
MSMSS/9–2023
( 23 )
jQ dk;Z ds fy, / FOR ROUGH WORK
5. iz'uksa ds mÙkj] mÙkj i=d esa fu/kkZfjr [kkuksa dks dkys 5. Answers to questions in answer sheet are to be
ckWy IokbaV iSu ls iw.kZr;k dkyk djuk gS] tSlk fd given by darkening complete circle using black ball
uhps fn[kk;k x;k gS % point pen as shown below :
1 3 4 1 3 4
vki }kjk fn;k x;k mÙkj xyr ekuk tk,xk] ;fn The answer will be treated wrong, if it is marked, as given
mÙkj okys [kkus dks fuEu izdkj ls Hkjrs gSa % below :
;fn ,d ls T;knk [kkuksa dks Hkj nsrs gSa rks vkidk If you fill more than one circle it will be treated as a
mÙkj xyr ekuk tk,xkA wrong answer.
6. jQ dk;Z iz'u iqfLrdk esa bl iz;kstu ds fy, nh xbZ 6. Rough work should be done only in the space provided
[kkyh txg ij gh djsaA in the Test Booklet for the same.
7. lHkh mÙkj dsoy mÙkj i=d (OMR) ij gh vafdr 7. The answers are to be recorded on the OMR Answer
djsAa vius mÙkj /;kuiwoZd vafdr djsAa mÙkj cnyus Sheet only. Mark your responses carefully. No whitener
gsrq 'osr jatd ¼lQsn ¶Y;wM½ dk iz;ksx fuf"k) gSA (white fluid) is allowed for changing answers.
8. izR;sd iz’u ds fy, fn, x, pkj fodYiksa esa ls mfpr 8. Out of the four alternatives for each question, only one
fodYi ds fy, mÙkj i=d (OMR) ij dsoy ,d gh circle for the most appropriate answer is to be darkened
o`Ùk dks iwjh rjg dkys ckWy IokbaV iSu ls HkjsaA ,d completely with Black Ball Point Pen on the OMR
ckj mÙkj vafdr djus ds ckn mls cnyk ugha tk Answer Sheet. The answer once marked is not allowed
ldrk gSA to be changed.
9. vH;FkhZ lqfuf’pr djsa fd bl mÙkj i=d dks eksMk+ u 9. The candidate should ensure that the Answer Sheet is
tk, ,oa ml ij dksbZ vU; fu’kku u yxk,¡A not folded. Do not make any stray mark on Answer
vH;FkhZ viuk vuqØekad mÙkj i=d esa fu/kkZfjr Sheet. Do not write your Roll No. anywhere else except
LFkku ds vfrfjDr vU;= u fy[ksAa in the specified space in the Answer Sheet.
10. iz'u iqfLrdk ,oa mÙkj i=d dk /;kuiwod Z iz;ksx djs]a 10. Handle the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet with care, as
D;ksfa d fdlh Hkh ifjfLFkfr esa ¼dsoy iz'u iqfLrdk ,oa under no circumstances (except for discrepancy in Test
mÙkj i=d ds Øekad esa fHkUurk dh fLFkfr dks NksMd + j½ Booklet and Answer Sheet Serial No.), another set of
nwljh iz'u iqfLrdk lSV miyC/k ugha djokbZ tk,xhA Test Booklet will not be provided.
11. iz'u iqfLrdk@mÙkj i=d esa fn, x, Øekad dks 11. The candidate will write the correct Number as given in
vH;FkhZ lgh rjhds ls gkftjh i= esa fy[ksaA the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet in the Attendance Sheet.
12. vH;FkhZ dks ijh{kk gkWy@d{k esa izos’k dkMZ ds 12. Candidate is not allowed to carry any textual material,
vfrfjDr fdlh izdkj dh ikB~; lkexzh] eqfnzr ;k printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone,
gLrfyf[kr dkxt dh ifpZ;k¡] istj] eksckby Qksu] electronic device or any other material except the Admit
bysDVªkWfud midj.k ;k fdlh vU; izdkj dh lkexzh Card inside the examination hall/room.
dks ys tkus ;k mi;ksx djus dh vuqefr ugha gSA
13. fujh{kd }kjk iwNs tkus ij izR;sd vH;FkhZ viuk 13. Each candidate must show on demand his/her Admit
izos’k&i= ¼jksy ua0½ fn[kk,¡A Card (Roll No.) to the Invigilator.
14. dsUnz v/kh{kd ;k fujh{kd dh fo’ks"k vuqefr ds fcuk 14. No candidate, without special permission of the
dksbZ vH;FkhZ viuk LFkku u NksMa+sA Superintendent or Invigilator, should leave his/her seat.
15. bysDVªkWfud@gLrpkfyr ifjdyd dk mi;ksx oftZr gSA 15. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.
16. fdlh gkyr esa iz'u&iqfLrdk ,oa mÙkj&i=d dk dksbZ 16. No part of test Booklet and Answer-sheet shall be
Hkkx vyx u djsaA detached under any circumstances.
17. ijh{kk lEiUu gksus ij] vH;FkhZ ijh{kk d{k@gkWy 17. On completion of the test, candidate must hand over the
NksM+us ls iwoZ mÙkj i=d d{k&i;Zos{kd dks vo’; Answer Sheet to the Invigilator in the Room/Hall. The
lkSai nsAa vH;FkhZ vius lkFk iz'u iqfLrdk dks ys tk candidate is allowed to take away this Test Booklet with
ldrs gSaA them.
MSMSS – 2023
(For Class 9th)
SET : C
cqdysV Øekad ,oa
vks0,e0vkj0 Øekad
vuqØekad ¼vadksa esa½ % Booklet Serial No. &
Roll No. (In Figures) O. M. R. Serial No.
vuqØekad ¼'kCnksa esa½ %
Roll No. (In Words)
ijh{kk dsUnz dk uke %
Name of Examination Centre
vH;FkhZ dk uke % vH;FkhZ ds gLrk{kj %
Name of Candidate Signature of the Candidate
bl iz'u-iqfLrdk esa i`"Bksa dh la[;k iz'uksa dh la[;k le;
24 70 2½ hours
No. of Pages in this Question Booklet No. of Questions Time
vH;fFkZ
vH;fFkZ;ksa ds fy, funsZ'k % INSTRUCTIONS FOR THE CANDIDATES :
1. mÙkj i=d (OMR) bl iz'u iqfLrdk ds vUnj j[kk 1. The OMR Answer Sheet is inside this Test Booklet.
gSA tc vkidks iz'u iqfLrdk [kksyus dks dgk tk,] rks When you are directed to open the Test Booklet, take out
mÙkj i=d fudky dj /;ku ls dsoy dkys ckWy IokbaV the Answer Sheet and fill the particulars carefully with
isu ls fooj.k HkjsaA black ball point pen only.
2. ijh{kk dh vof/k 2½ ?kaVs gS ,oa iz'u iqfLrdk esa 70 iz’u 2. The test is of 2½ hours duration and consists of
gSaA izR;sd iz'u ,d vad dk gSA dksbZ _.kkRed vadu 70 questions. Each question carries one mark. There is no
ugha gSA negative marking.
3. bl i`"B ij fooj.k vafdr djus ,oa mÙkj i=d ij 3. Use Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on
fu’kku yxkus ds fy, dsoy dkys ckWy IokbaV isu dk this page/marking responses in the Answer Sheet. The
iz;ksx djsaA vH;FkhZ iz'u-iqfLrdk dk mi;ksx djus ,oa candidate should remain careful in handling the question
mÙkj i=d dks Hkjus esa lko/kkuh cjrsaA nwljh iz'u- paper and in marking the answers on the answer sheet.
iqfLrdk ls
lsV çnku ugha dh tk,xhA Another booklet set will not be given.
4. ;g Hkh lqfuf’pr dj ysa fd iz'u iqfLrdk Øekad vkSj 4. Also ensure that your Test Booklet Serial No. and
mÙkj i=d Øekad ,d gh gSaA vxj ;g fHkUu gksa ;k Answer Sheet Serial No. are the same. In case of
iz'u iqfLrdk esa dksbZ i`"B Miss ;k Misprint gks rks discrepancy or any page is Miss or Misprint in test
vH;FkhZ nwljh iz’u-iqfLrdk vkSj mÙkj i=d ysus ds booklet, the candidate should immediately report the
fy, fujh{kd dks rqjUr voxr djok,A matter to the Invigilator for replacement of both the Test
Booklet and the Answer Sheet.
uksV % bl iqfLrdk ds vUr esa fn, x, 'ks"k funsZ'kksa dks Note : Read other remaining instructions given on the last
i<+saA page of this Booklet.
(2)
jQ dk;Z ds fy, / FOR ROUGH WORK
(3) C
Direction (Question No. 1) Select the funsZ’k % ¼iz’u la[;k 1½ vaxzsth o.kZekyk
water image of the given combination of vkSj la[;kvksa ds fn, x, la;kstu dk ty
English alphabet and number. izfrfcac pqfu,A
1. 1.
(1) (2) (1) (2)
(3) (4) (3) (4)
2. In the question which of the 2. iz’u esa mÙkj vkd`fr;k¡ (1), (2), (3)
answer figures (1), (2), (3) and (4) vkSj (4) esa ls dkSu&lh vkd`fr fp=
will complete the picture matrix ? vkO;wg ¼eSfVªDl½ dks iw.kZ djsxh \
Direction : (Question No. 4 and 5) funsZ’k % ¼iz’u la[;k 4 ,oa 5½ uhps nh xbZ
Read the information given below and tkudkjh dks i<+dj ml ij vk/kkfjr iz’uksa
answer the questions based on it. ds mÙkj nhft,A
P, Q, R, S, T and U are six friends sitting P, Q, R, S, T vkSj U N% nksLr ,d nwljs ds
in a circle facing each other. P sits vkeus&lkeus ,d xksy ?ksjs esa cSBsa gSaA P, S
between S and Q and U sits between R vkSj Q ds chp rFkk U, R vkSj T ds chp
and T. R is third to the left of Q. esa cSBk gSA R, Q ds ck;ha vksj rhljk gSA
MSMSS/9–2023
(5) C
10. Which of the following can not be 10. fuEufyf[kr esa fdls ?k”kZ.k }kjk
charged easily by friction ? vklkuh ls vkosf’kr ugha fd;k tk
ldrk \
(1) A Plastic Scale (1) IykfLVd dk iSekuk
(2) A Copper Rod (2) rkacs dh NM+
(3) An Inflated Ballon (3) Qwyk gqvk xqCckjk
(4) A Woollen Cloth (4) Åuh oL=
MSMSS/9–2023 P. T. O.
C (6)
11. 11.
12. 12.
13. Who wrote the book 'Gulamgiri' ? 13. ^xqykefxjh* iqLrd dh jpuk fdlus
dh \
(1) Savitri Phule (1) lkfo=h Qqys
ys
(2) Jyotirao Phule (2) T;ksfrjko Q
Qqys
(3) Mahatma Gandhi (3) egkRek xk¡/kh
(4) Ramabai (4) jekckbZ
MSMSS/9–2023
(7) C
15. Voice of which of the following is 15. fuEu esa ls fdl okd~ /ofu dh vko`fÙk
likely to have minimum frequency ? U;wure gksus dh lEHkkouk gS \
(1) Baby Girl (1) NksVh yM+dh dh
(2) Baby Boy (2) NksVs yM+ds dh
(3) A Man (3) iq#”k dh
(4) A Woman (4) L=h dh
16. At the time ............ between 3:00 16. 3 vkSj 4 cts ds chp fdl le;
and 4:00, both the hands will cover nksuksa lqbZ;k¡ ,d nwljs dks <d ysx
a h \
each other.
4 4
(1) 3 : 16 (1) 3 : 16
11 11
7 7
(2) 3 : 15 (2) 3 : 15
11 11
4 4
(3) 3 : 10 (3) 3 : 10
11 11
5 5
(4) 3 : 05 (4) 3 : 05
11 11
17. When the square of a number is 17. tc ,d la[;k ds oxZ dks mlh la[;k
subtracted from the cube of the ds ?ku esa ls ?kVk;k tkrk gS] rks 100
same number, it becomes 100. izkIr gksrk gSA la[;k Kkr djsa %
Find the number :
(1) 1 (2) 2 (1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 4 (4) 5 (3) 4 (4) 5
MSMSS/9–2023 P. T. O.
C (8)
18. Which figure best represents the 18. Qy] yky vkSj deht ds chp ds
relationship between Fruit, Red laca/k dks dkSu&lh vkd`fr iznf’kZr
and Shirt ? djrh gS \
(1) (1)
(2) (2)
(3) (3)
(4) (4)
20. If all the vowels are removed from 20. ;fn lHkh Lojksa dks vaxzsth o.kZekyk
the English alphabets, then which ls gVk fn;k tk,] rks ck,¡ ls ik¡posa
will be the eighth letter to the v{kj ds nk,¡ vkBok¡ v{kj dkSu&lk
right of the fifth letter from the gksxk \
left ?
(1) M (2) N (1) M (2) N
(3) P (4) Q (3) P (4) Q
MSMSS/9–2023
(9) C
23. Four friends A, B, C and D are 23. pkj nksLr A, B, C vkSj D rk’k
playing cards. A and B are [ksy jgsa gSaA A vkSj B vkil esa
partners. D is facing North. If A is tksM+hnkj gSaA D dk eq[k mÙkj dh
sitting to the left of D, then who is vksj gSA ;fn A, D dh ck;ha vksj
facing South ? cSBk gS] rks fdldk eq[k nf{k.k dh
vksj gS \
(1) B (2) C (1) B (2) C
(3) A (4) D (3) A (4) D
24. Select the water image of the 24. nh xbZ vkd`fr (X) dk ty izfrfcac
given figure (X) : pqfu, %
MSMSS/9–2023 P. T. O.
C ( 10 )
Direction : (Question No. 25 and 26) funsZ’k % ¼iz’u la[;k 25 ,oa 26½ uhps nh
In each of the following figures numbers xbZ izR;sd vkd`fr esa ,d fuf’pr Øe
are written according to some patterns. vuqlkj dqN la[;k,¡ fy[kh xbZ gSaA buesa ls
One number is missing. Find the ,d la[;k yqIr gSA yqIr la[;k Kkr djsa]
missing number that replaces the tks iz’u fpg~u ¼\½½ ds LFkku ij mi;qDr
question mark (?). gksA
25. 25.
26. 26.
27. Who is the chairperson of Rajya 27. jkT;lHkk dk lHkkifr dkSu gksrk gS \
Sabha ?
(1) Governor (1) jkT;iky
(2) Vice-President (2) mijk”Vªifr
(3) Prime Minister (3) iz/kkuea=h
(4) President (4) jk”Vªifr
28. Which one number is wrong in 28. la[;k Ük``a[kyk esa dkSu&lh ,d la[;k
the number series ? xyr gS \
5 , 13 , 39 , 160 , 805 5 , 13 , 39 , 160 , 805
(1) 5 (2) 39 (1) 5 (2) 39
(3) 160 (4) 13 (3) 160 (4) 13
MSMSS/9–2023
( 11 ) C
Direction : (Question No. 29 and 30) funsZ’k % ¼iz’u la[;k 29 ,oa 30½ uhps fn,
In the questions given below the question x, iz’uksa esa iz’u vkd`fr dh A vkSj B esa
figure is that a special relationship exists ,d fo’ks”k lac/a k LFkkfir gSA ;g lEca/k
between A and B. This relationship is vkd`fr C vkSj oSdfYid vkd`fr;ksa esa ls
established in figure C and one of the ,d esa LFkkfir gSA ml oSdfYid vkd`fr dk
alternatives figures. Select the p;u djsa] tks vkd`fr D esa iz’u fpg~u ¼\½
alternative figure that should replace the dk LFkku ys ldrh gSA
question mark (?) in figure D.
29. 29.
30. 30.
MSMSS/9–2023 P. T. O.
C ( 12 )
31. How many parallelograms are in 31. nh xbZ vkd`fr esa fdrus lekarj
the given figure ? prqHkqZt gSa \
32. The first English Factory was 32. izFke bafXy’k QSDVjh 1651 bZ0 esa
established on the banks of which fdl unh ds fdukjs LFkkfir gqbZ \
river in 1651 AD ?
33. Which of the statements is/are 33. Hkwe/; js[kk ds lac/a k esa dkSu lk@ls
true in relation to equator ? dFku lR; gS \
i. The equator passes through i. Hkwe/; js[kk nf{k.k vesfjdk]
the continents of South vÝhdk vkSj vkWLVªsfy;k egk}hiksa
America, Africa and Australia. ls gksdj xqtjrh gSA
ii. The equator passes through ii. Hkwe/; js[kk rsjg ns’kksa ls gksdj
thirteen countries. xqtjrh gSA
iii. There is only one major river iii. dsoy ,d izeq[k unh gS tks
which crosses the equator Hkwe/; js[kk dks nks ckj ikj
twice. djrh gSA
(1) Only iii (1) dsoy iii
(2) Both i and ii (2) i vkSj ii nksuksa
(3) All i, ii, iii (3) lHkh i, ii, iii
(4) Both ii and iii (4) ii vkSj iii nksuksa
MSMSS/9–2023
( 13 ) C
34. The amounts of these resources 34. izd`fr esa ftu lalk/kuksa dh ek=k
are less and will not be lhfer
fer gS vkSj izkd`frd izfØ;kvksa
replenished by natural methods, }kjk iquLFkkZiu ugha gks ldrk gS]
are .............. . mUgsa .............. dgrs gSAa
(1) Biodegradable Resources (1) fuEuhdj.k lalk/ku
(2) Non-Biodegradable
Biodegradable Resources (2) vfuEuhdj.k lalk/ku
(3) Renewable Resources (3) uohdj.kh; lalk/ku
(4) Non-Renewable
Renewable Resources (4) vuohdj.kh; lalk/ku
35. In which Article of the Indian 35. Hkkjrh; lafo/kku ds fdl vuqPNsn esa
Constitution every citizen has been izR;sd ukxfjd dks thou dk ekSfyd
given fundamental right to life ? vf/kdkj fn;k x;k gS \
(1) Article 21 (2) Article 22 (1) vuqPNsn 21 (2) vuqPNsn 22
(3) Article 19 (4) Article 18 (3) vuqPNsn 19 (4) vuqPNsn 18
36. One of the following is not a basic 36. fuEufyf[kr esa ls ,d o”kkZ ty
component of a rainwater lap;u iz.kkyh dk ewy ?kVd
harvesting system. ugha gSA
(1) Catchment (1) tyxzg
(2) Delivery system (2) forj.k iz.kkyh
(3) Storage reservoir (3) tyk’k;
(4) River system (4) unh iz.kkyh
37. Which figure best represents the 37. iatkc] gfj;k.kk vkSj fglkj ds chp
relationship between Punjab, ds lac/a k dks dkSu&lh vkd`fr iznf’kZr
Haryana and Hisar ? djrh gS \
(1) (1)
(2) (2)
(3) (3)
(4) (4)
MSMSS/9–2023 P. T. O.
C ( 14 )
MSMSS/9–2023
( 15 ) C
43. PAL, NZN, LBP, JYR, ? 43. PAL, NZN, LBP, JYR, ?
(1) HCT (2) KCQ (1) HCT (2) KCQ
(3) GCT (4) ICS (3) GCT (4) ICS
44. Vijay is 18th from the left in the 44. fot; ,d iafDr esa ck,¡ ls 18osa
row. He came 5 places to the left. LFkku ij gSA og ik¡p LFkku ck,¡
If there are 34 students in the row, vk;kA ;fn iafDr esa 34 Nk= gSa] rks
then what is his position from the mldk vc nk,¡ ls dkSu&lk LFkku
right now ? gS \
(1) 22nd (2) 16th (1) 22ok¡ (2) 16ok¡
(3) 23rd (4) 24th (3) 23ok¡ (4) 24ok¡
45. Which of the following set of 45. fuEufyf[kr esa ls v{kjksa dk dkSu&lk
letters will look the same in the lewg niZ.k esa leku fn[kkbZ nsxk \
mirror ?
(1) OSMIMOM (1) OSMIMOM
(2) VHRTRVH (2) VHRTRVH
(3) HIMOSTA (3) HIMOSTA
(4) AOVIVOA (4) AOVIVOA
46. For which of the following is 46. fuEu esa ls fdlds fy, m dk eku
m=8? 8 gS \
MSMSS/9–2023 P. T. O.
C ( 16 )
Direction : (Question No. 47 and 48) funsZ’k % ¼iz’u la[;k 47 ,oa 48½
In the following questions a figure (X) is fuEufyf[kr iz’uksa esa vkd`fr (X) nh xbZ gSA
given. Select the option which resembles vki ml fodYi dk p;u djsa] tks vkd`fr
the mirror image of the figure (X). (X) ds niZ.k izfrfcac tSlk fn[krk gSA
47. 47.
(1) (1)
(2) (2)
(3) (3)
(4) (4)
48. 48.
(1) (1)
(2) (2)
(3) (3)
(4) (4)
MSMSS/9–2023
( 17 ) C
49. If in a year the Republic Day was 49. ;fn fdlh o”kZ x.kra= fnol eghus ds
celebrated on the 4th Saturday of a pkSFks ‘kfuokj dks euk;k x;k Fkk] rks
month, then what was the day of ml eghus dh igyh rkjh[k dks
the week on the 1st of that month ? lIrkg dk dkSu&lk fnu Fkk \
(1) Monday (2) Tuesday (1) lkseokj (2) eaxyokj
(3) Wednesday (4) Sunday (3) cq/kokj (4) jfookj
50. With respect to zones of candle 50. eksecÙkh dh Tokyk ds lanHkZ esa] lgh
flame, choose the correct option : fodYi pqusa %
(1) Outer zone of complete (1) iw.kZ ngu dk ckg~; {ks= & ihyk
combustion – Yellow
(2) Innermost zone of unburnt (2) fcuk tyh eksecÙkh dk lcls
Candle wax – Black vkarfjd {ks= & dkyk
(3) Middle zone of partial (3) vkaf’kd ngu okyk e/; Hkkx &
combustion – Blue uhyk
(4) Hottest Part – Black (4) lcls xeZ Hkkx & dkyk
Direction : (Question No. 51 and 52) funsZ’k % ¼iz’u la[;k 51 ,oa 52½ ;fn iz’u
Which one of the answer figure would vkd`fr leku Øe esa cnys rks vxys Øe
occupy the next position in the question ij mÙkj vkd`fr;ksa esa ls dkSu&lh vkd`fr
figure, if they continue to change in mfpr LFkku ik,xh \
same order ?
MSMSS/9–2023 P. T. O.
C ( 18 )
(1) (1)
(2) (2)
(3) (3)
(4) (4)
54. According to you what is a Hen’s 54. vkids vuqlkj fn;s fodYiksa esa ls
egg in the given options ? eqxhZ dk vaMk D;k gS \
(1) Tissue (1) Ård
(2) Organ (2) vax
(3) Organ system (3) vax iz.kkyh
(4) Cell (4) dksf’kdk
MSMSS/9–2023
( 19 ) C
55. Which of the following statement 55. jkbtksfc;e ds ckjs esa fuEufyf[kr esa
about Rhizobium is true ? ls dkSu lk dFku lR; gS \
(1) Rhizobia are bacteria that can (1) jkbtksfc;k thok.kq gSa tks feV~Vh
live in the soil esa jg ldrs gSaA
(2) Rhizobia are bacteria live in (2) jkbtksfc;k thok.kq gSa tks nkyksa dh
nodules formed on the roots of tM+ksa ij cuh xk¡Bksa esa jgrs gSaA
legumes.
(3) Rhizobia are bacteria (3) jkbtksfc;k thok.kq gSa tks ikS/kksa ls
obtaining nutrients from the iks”kd rRo izkIr djrs gSa vkSj
plant and producing nitrogen tSfod ukbVªkstu fLFkjhdj.k
in a process called biological uked izfØ;k ds n~okjk ukbVªkstu
nitrogen fixation. dk mRiknu djrs gSaA
(4) All of the above statements (4) jkbtksfc;e ds ckjs esa mijksDr
about Rhizobium are true. lHkh dFku lR; gSaA
57. Which metal is used to galvanize 57. yksgs dk ;’knysiu fdl /kkrq }kjk
Iron ? fd;k tkrk gS \
(1) Chromium (1) Øksfe;e
(2) Magnesium (2) eSXuhf’k;e
(3) Zinc (3) ftad
(4) Copper (4) rk¡ck
58. The force of 50 newton acting on 58. ;fn 50 U;wVu cy] 50 lsaVhehVj oxZ
area of 50 cm2 will exert a ds {ks=Qy ij yxk;k tk;s] rks ;g
pressure of : fdruk nkc yxk,xk \
(1) 100 Pa (2) 1000 Pa (1) 100 Pa (2) 1000 Pa
(3) 10000 Pa (4) 1 Pa (3) 10000 Pa (4) 1 Pa
MSMSS/9–2023 P. T. O.
C ( 20 )
59. In which year did the Permanent 59. caxky esa LFkk;h cUnkscLr dc ykxw
Settlement come into force in gqvk \
Bengal ?
(1) 1796 AD (2) 1794 AD (1) 1796 bZ0 (2) 1794 bZ0
(3) 1793 AD (4) 1795 AD (3) 1793 bZ0 (4) 1795 bZ0
60. Which of the following statements 60. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk dFku
correctly describes the organic tSfod [kkn~; dk lgh O;k[;ku djrk
food ? gS \
(1) Food crop grown without using (1) moZjdksa dk mi;ksx fd, fcuk
fertilizers is organic food. mxkbZ tkus okyh [kkn~; Qly
tSfod Hkkstu gSA
(2) Food crop grown without using (2) fcuk [kjirokjuk’kdksa ds mxkbZ
weedicides is organic food. tkus okyh [kkn~; Qly tSfod
Hkkstu gSA
(3) Food crop grown without using (3) dhVuk’kdksa ds mi;ksx ds fcuk
pesticides is organic food. mxkbZ tkus okyh [kkn~; Qly
tSfod Hkkstu gSA
(4) All of the above. (4) mijksDr lHkhA
61. Which of the following created 61. Hkkjrh; lafo/kku fdlds }kjk cuk;k
Indian Constitution ? x;k \
(1) Indian Parliament (1) Hkkjrh; laln }kjk
(2) Constitutional Assembly (2) lafo/kku lHkk }kjk
(3) Dr. Ambedkar (3) MkW0 vEcsMdj }kjk
(4) British Parliament (4) fczfV’k laln }kjk
62. If SYSTEM is written as OVQIBR 62. ;fn fdlh lkadfs rd Hkk”kk esa SYSTEM
in a certain code language, how dks OVQIBR fy[kk tkrk gS] rks mlh
will NEARER be written in that lkadfs rd Hkk”kk esa NEARER dks fdl
code language ? izdkj fy[kk tk,xk \
(1) LBPNBP (2) WBLNBP (1) LBPNBP (2) WBLNBP
MSMSS/9–2023
( 21 ) C
63. M is the wife of S. Q is the wife of 63. M, S dh iRuh gSA Q, R dh iRuh gSA
R. S is the son of Q. P is the son of S, Q dk iq= gSA P, M dk iq= gSA
M. How is R related to P ? R dk P ls D;k lac/a k gS \
(1) Father (2) Brother (1) firk (2) HkkbZ
(3) Grandfather (4) Uncle (3) nknk (4) pkpk
64. 64.
65. 65.
MSMSS/9–2023 P. T. O.
C ( 22 )
66. A person is trying to climb a pole 66. ,d O;fDr 60 QhV Å¡ps [kEcs ij
60 feet high. He climbs 6 feet in p<+us dk iz;Ru dj jgk gSA og ,d
one minute, but slips and comes feuV esa 6 QhV p<+ tkrk gS] ysfdu
down 4 feet, then how many fQly dj 4 QhV uhps vk tkrk gS]
minutes will it take him to reach rks Åij rd igq¡pus esa mls fdrus
the top ? feuV yxsaxs \
(1) 32 (2) 28 (1) 32 (2) 28
(3) 27 (4) 34 (3) 27 (4) 34
67. If a solid cuboids of dimensions : 67. ;fn fdlh Bksl] ftldh lhek,¡
8 cm × 6 cm × 4 cm is cut into 8 cm × 6 cm × 4 cm gS] dks 2 cm
smaller cubes of side 2 cm each. Hkqtk okys NksVs&NksVs ?kuksa ds :i esa
What is the number of small cubes dkVk tkrk gSA bl izdkj NksVs ?kuksa
thus obtained ? dh la[;k fdruh gS \
(1) 24 (2) 48 (1) 24 (2) 48
(3) 96 (4) 192 (3) 96 (4) 192
68. Ozone depletion is caused due to 68. vkst+ksu fjfDrdj.k ds Lrj esa o`f)
increase in level of : dk dkj.k gksrk gS %
(1) Carbon monoxide (1) dkcZu eksuksvkWDlkbM
(2) Chlorofluorocarbon (2) Dyksjks¶yksjksdkcZu
(3) Water vapour (3) ty ok”i
(4) Oxygen (4) vkWDlhtu
69. The ratio of speed of a motorbike 69. ,d eksVjckbd ftldh xfr 50 fdeh
50 km per hour and speed of cycle izfr ?kaVk gS o ,d lkbZfdy ftldh
20 km per hour is : xfr 20 fdeh izfr ?kaVk gS] dk
vuqikr gS %
(1) 2 : 5 (2) 5 : 1 (1) 2 : 5 (2) 5 : 1
(3) 5 : 2 (4) 1 : 2 (3) 5 : 2 (4) 1 : 2
70. When did Nepal become 70. usiky jktrU= dks [kRe djus ds ckn
democratic after abolition of yksdrU= dc cuk \
Monarchy ?
(1) 2006 (2) 2007 (1) 2006 (2) 2007
(3) 2008 (4) 2009 (3) 2008 (4) 2009
MSMSS/9–2023
( 23 )
jQ dk;Z ds fy, / FOR ROUGH WORK
5. iz'uksa ds mÙkj] mÙkj i=d esa fu/kkZfjr [kkuksa dks dkys 5. Answers to questions in answer sheet are to be
ckWy IokbaV iSu ls iw.kZr;k dkyk djuk gS] tSlk fd given by darkening complete circle using black ball
uhps fn[kk;k x;k gS % point pen as shown below :
1 3 4 1 3 4
vki }kjk fn;k x;k mÙkj xyr ekuk tk,xk] ;fn The answer will be treated wrong, if it is marked, as given
mÙkj okys [kkus dks fuEu izdkj ls Hkjrs gSa % below :
;fn ,d ls T;knk [kkuksa dks Hkj nsrs gSa rks vkidk If you fill more than one circle it will be treated as a
mÙkj xyr ekuk tk,xkA wrong answer.
6. jQ dk;Z iz'u iqfLrdk esa bl iz;kstu ds fy, nh xbZ 6. Rough work should be done only in the space provided
[kkyh txg ij gh djsaA in the Test Booklet for the same.
7. lHkh mÙkj dsoy mÙkj i=d (OMR) ij gh vafdr 7. The answers are to be recorded on the OMR Answer
djsAa vius mÙkj /;kuiwoZd vafdr djsAa mÙkj cnyus Sheet only. Mark your responses carefully. No whitener
gsrq 'osr jatd ¼lQsn ¶Y;wM½ dk iz;ksx fuf"k) gSA (white fluid) is allowed for changing answers.
8. izR;sd iz’u ds fy, fn, x, pkj fodYiksa esa ls mfpr 8. Out of the four alternatives for each question, only one
fodYi ds fy, mÙkj i=d (OMR) ij dsoy ,d gh circle for the most appropriate answer is to be darkened
o`Ùk dks iwjh rjg dkys ckWy IokbaV iSu ls HkjsaA ,d completely with Black Ball Point Pen on the OMR
ckj mÙkj vafdr djus ds ckn mls cnyk ugha tk Answer Sheet. The answer once marked is not allowed
ldrk gSA to be changed.
9. vH;FkhZ lqfuf’pr djsa fd bl mÙkj i=d dks eksMk+ u 9. The candidate should ensure that the Answer Sheet is
tk, ,oa ml ij dksbZ vU; fu’kku u yxk,¡A not folded. Do not make any stray mark on Answer
vH;FkhZ viuk vuqØekad mÙkj i=d esa fu/kkZfjr Sheet. Do not write your Roll No. anywhere else except
LFkku ds vfrfjDr vU;= u fy[ksAa in the specified space in the Answer Sheet.
10. iz'u iqfLrdk ,oa mÙkj i=d dk /;kuiwod Z iz;ksx djs]a 10. Handle the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet with care, as
D;ksfa d fdlh Hkh ifjfLFkfr esa ¼dsoy iz'u iqfLrdk ,oa under no circumstances (except for discrepancy in Test
mÙkj i=d ds Øekad esa fHkUurk dh fLFkfr dks NksMd + j½ Booklet and Answer Sheet Serial No.), another set of
nwljh iz'u iqfLrdk lSV miyC/k ugha djokbZ tk,xhA Test Booklet will not be provided.
11. iz'u iqfLrdk@mÙkj i=d esa fn, x, Øekad dks 11. The candidate will write the correct Number as given in
vH;FkhZ lgh rjhds ls gkftjh i= esa fy[ksaA the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet in the Attendance Sheet.
12. vH;FkhZ dks ijh{kk gkWy@d{k esa izos’k dkMZ ds 12. Candidate is not allowed to carry any textual material,
vfrfjDr fdlh izdkj dh ikB~; lkexzh] eqfnzr ;k printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone,
gLrfyf[kr dkxt dh ifpZ;k¡] istj] eksckby Qksu] electronic device or any other material except the Admit
bysDVªkWfud midj.k ;k fdlh vU; izdkj dh lkexzh Card inside the examination hall/room.
dks ys tkus ;k mi;ksx djus dh vuqefr ugha gSA
13. fujh{kd }kjk iwNs tkus ij izR;sd vH;FkhZ viuk 13. Each candidate must show on demand his/her Admit
izos’k&i= ¼jksy ua0½ fn[kk,¡A Card (Roll No.) to the Invigilator.
14. dsUnz v/kh{kd ;k fujh{kd dh fo’ks"k vuqefr ds fcuk 14. No candidate, without special permission of the
dksbZ vH;FkhZ viuk LFkku u NksMa+sA Superintendent or Invigilator, should leave his/her seat.
15. bysDVªkWfud@gLrpkfyr ifjdyd dk mi;ksx oftZr gSA 15. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.
16. fdlh gkyr esa iz'u&iqfLrdk ,oa mÙkj&i=d dk dksbZ 16. No part of test Booklet and Answer-sheet shall be
Hkkx vyx u djsaA detached under any circumstances.
17. ijh{kk lEiUu gksus ij] vH;FkhZ ijh{kk d{k@gkWy 17. On completion of the test, candidate must hand over the
NksM+us ls iwoZ mÙkj i=d d{k&i;Zos{kd dks vo’; Answer Sheet to the Invigilator in the Room/Hall. The
lkSai nsAa vH;FkhZ vius lkFk iz'u iqfLrdk dks ys tk candidate is allowed to take away this Test Booklet with
ldrs gSaA them.
MSMSS – 2023
(For Class 9th)
SET : D
cqdysV Øekad ,oa
vks0,e0vkj0 Øekad
vuqØekad ¼vadksa esa½ % Booklet Serial No. &
Roll No. (In Figures) O. M. R. Serial No.
vuqØekad ¼'kCnksa esa½ %
Roll No. (In Words)
ijh{kk dsUnz dk uke %
Name of Examination Centre
vH;FkhZ dk uke % vH;FkhZ ds gLrk{kj %
Name of Candidate Signature of the Candidate
bl iz'u-iqfLrdk esa i`"Bksa dh la[;k iz'uksa dh la[;k le;
24 70 2½ hours
No. of Pages in this Question Booklet No. of Questions Time
vH;fFkZ
vH;fFkZ;ksa ds fy, funsZ'k % INSTRUCTIONS FOR THE CANDIDATES :
1. mÙkj i=d (OMR) bl iz'u iqfLrdk ds vUnj j[kk 1. The OMR Answer Sheet is inside this Test Booklet.
gSA tc vkidks iz'u iqfLrdk [kksyus dks dgk tk,] rks When you are directed to open the Test Booklet, take out
mÙkj i=d fudky dj /;ku ls dsoy dkys ckWy IokbaV the Answer Sheet and fill the particulars carefully with
isu ls fooj.k HkjsaA black ball point pen only.
2. ijh{kk dh vof/k 2½ ?kaVs gS ,oa iz'u iqfLrdk esa 70 iz’u 2. The test is of 2½ hours duration and consists of
gSaA izR;sd iz'u ,d vad dk gSA dksbZ _.kkRed vadu 70 questions. Each question carries one mark. There is no
ugha gSA negative marking.
3. bl i`"B ij fooj.k vafdr djus ,oa mÙkj i=d ij 3. Use Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on
fu’kku yxkus ds fy, dsoy dkys ckWy IokbaV isu dk this page/marking responses in the Answer Sheet. The
iz;ksx djsaA vH;FkhZ iz'u-iqfLrdk dk mi;ksx djus ,oa candidate should remain careful in handling the question
mÙkj i=d dks Hkjus esa lko/kkuh cjrsaA nwljh iz'u- paper and in marking the answers on the answer sheet.
iqfLrdk ls
lsV çnku ugha dh tk,xhA Another booklet set will not be given.
4. ;g Hkh lqfuf’pr dj ysa fd iz'u iqfLrdk Øekad vkSj 4. Also ensure that your Test Booklet Serial No. and
mÙkj i=d Øekad ,d gh gSaA vxj ;g fHkUu gksa ;k Answer Sheet Serial No. are the same. In case of
iz'u iqfLrdk esa dksbZ i`"B Miss ;k Misprint gks rks discrepancy or any page is Miss or Misprint in test
vH;FkhZ nwljh iz’u-iqfLrdk vkSj mÙkj i=d ysus ds booklet, the candidate should immediately report the
fy, fujh{kd dks rqjUr voxr djok,A matter to the Invigilator for replacement of both the Test
Booklet and the Answer Sheet.
uksV % bl iqfLrdk ds vUr esa fn, x, 'ks"k funsZ'kksa dks Note : Read other remaining instructions given on the last
i<+saA page of this Booklet.
(2)
jQ dk;Z ds fy, / FOR ROUGH WORK
(3) D
3. When did Nepal become 3. usiky jktrU= dks [kRe djus ds ckn
democratic after abolition of yksdrU= dc cuk \
Monarchy ?
(1) 2006 (1) 2006
(2) 2007 (2) 2007
(3) 2008 (3) 2008
(4) 2009 (4) 2009
Direction (Question No. 4) Select the funsZ’k % ¼iz’u la[;k 4½ vaxzsth o.kZekyk
water image of the given combination of vkSj la[;kvksa ds fn, x, la;kstu dk ty
English alphabet and number. izfrfcac pqfu,A
4. 4.
(1) (2) (1) (2)
(3) (4) (3) (4)
MSMSS/9–2023 P. T. O.
D (4)
5. In the question which of the 5. iz’u esa mÙkj vkd`fr;k¡ (1), (2), (3)
answer figures (1), (2), (3) and (4) vkSj (4) esa ls dkSu&lh vkd`fr fp=
will complete the picture matrix ? vkO;wg ¼eSfVªDl½ dks iw.kZ djsxh \
7. 5, 5, 15 , ? , 525 7. 5, 5, 15 , ? , 525
(1) 35 (2) 225 (1) 35 (2) 225
(3) 75 (4) 105 (3) 75 (4) 105
MSMSS/9–2023
(5) D
9. Vijay is 18th from the left in the 9. fot; ,d iafDr esa ck,¡ ls 18osa
row. He came 5 places to the left. LFkku ij gSA og ik¡p LFkku ck,¡
If there are 34 students in the rrow, vk;kA ;fn iafDr esa 34 Nk= gSa] rks
then what is his position from the mldk vc nk,¡ ls dkSu&lk LFkku
right now ? gS \
(1) 22nd (2) 16th (1) 22ok¡ (2) 16ok¡
(3) 23rd (4) 24th (3) 23ok¡ (4) 24ok¡
(1) (1)
(2) (2)
(3) (3)
(4) (4)
MSMSS/9–2023 P. T. O.
D (6)
12. Which of the following set of 12. fuEufyf[kr esa ls v{kjksa dk dkSu&lk
letters will look the same in the lewg niZ.k esa leku fn[kkbZ nsxk \
mirror ?
(1) OSMIMOM (2) VHRTRVH (1) OSMIMOM (2) VHRTRVH
(3) HIMOSTA (4) AOVIVOA (3) HIMOSTA (4) AOVIVOA
13. In which year did the Permanent 13. caxky esa LFkk;h cUnkscLr dc ykxw
Settlement come into force in gqvk \
Bengal ?
(1) 1796 AD (2) 1794 AD (1) 1796 bZ0 (2) 1794 bZ0
(3) 1793 AD (4) 1795 AD (3) 1793 bZ0 (4) 1795 bZ0
Direction : (Question No. 14 and 15) funsZ’k % ¼iz’u la[;k 14 ,oa 15½ uhps nh
Read the information given below and xbZ tkudkjh dks i<+dj ml ij vk/kkfjr
answer the questions based on it. iz’uksa ds mÙkj nhft,A
P, Q, R, S, T and U are six friends sitting P, Q, R, S, T vkSj U N% nksLr ,d nwljs ds
in a circle facing each other. P sits vkeus&lkeus ,d xksy ?ksjs esa cSBsa gSaA P, S
between S and Q and U sits between R vkSj Q ds chp rFkk U, R vkSj T ds chp
and T. R is third to the left of Q. esa cSBk gSA R, Q ds ck;ha vksj rhljk gSA
14. Who is sitting between P and R ? 14. P vkSj R ds chp dkSu cSBk gS \
(1) T (2) Q (1) T (2) Q
(3) S (4) U (3) S (4) U
15. Who is sitting between Q and U ? 15. Q vkSj U ds chp dkSu cSBk gS \
(1) T (2) R (1) T (2) R
(3) P (4) S (3) P (4) S
16. If a solid cuboids of dimensions : 16. ;fn fdlh Bksl] ftldh lhek,¡
8 cm × 6 cm × 4 cm is cut into 8 cm × 6 cm × 4 cm gS] dks 2 cm
smaller cubes of side 2 cm each. Hkqtk okys NksVs&NksVs ?kuksa ds :i esa
What is the number of small cubes dkVk tkrk gSA bl izdkj NksVs ?kuksa
thus obtained ? dh la[;k fdruh gS \
(1) 24 (2) 48 (1) 24 (2) 48
(3) 96 (4) 192 (3) 96 (4) 192
MSMSS/9–2023
(7) D
Direction : (Question No. 17 and 18) funsZ’k % ¼iz’u la[;k 17 ,oa 18½ ;fn iz’u
Which one of the answer figure would vkd`fr leku Øe esa cnys rks vxys Øe
occupy the next position in the question ij mÙkj vkd`fr;ksa esa ls dkSu&lh vkd`fr
figure, if they continue to change in mfpr LFkku ik,xh \
same order ?
(1) (1)
(2) (2)
(3) (3)
(4) (4)
MSMSS/9–2023 P. T. O.
D (8)
19. 19.
20. 20.
21. If all the vowels are removed from 21. ;fn lHkh Lojksa dks vaxzsth o.kZekyk
the English alphabets, then which ls gVk fn;k tk,] rks ck,¡ ls ik¡posa
will be the eighth letter to the right v{kj ds nk,¡ vkBok¡ v{kj dkSu&lk
of the fifth letter from the left ? gksxk \
(1) M (2) N (1) M (2) N
(3) P (4) Q (3) P (4) Q
MSMSS/9–2023
(9) D
22. Which figure best represents the 22. iatkc] gfj;k.kk vkSj fglkj ds chp
relationship between Punjab, ds lac/a k dks dkSu&lh vkd`fr iznf’kZr
Haryana and Hisar ? djrh gS \
(1) (1)
(2) (2)
(3) (3)
(4) (4)
23. Which of the following created 23. Hkkjrh; lafo/kku fdlds }kjk cuk;k
Indian Constitution ? x;k \
(1) Indian Parliament (1) Hkkjrh; laln }kjk
(2) Constitutional Assembly (2) lafo/kku lHkk }kjk
(3) Dr. Ambedkar (3) MkW0 vEcsMdj }kjk
(4) British Parliament (4) fczfV’k laln }kjk
24. Which one number is wrong in 24. la[;k Ük``a[kyk esa dkSu&lh ,d la[;k
the number series ? xyr gS \
5 , 13 , 39 , 160 , 805 5 , 13 , 39 , 160 , 805
(1) 5 (2) 39 (1) 5 (2) 39
(3) 160 (4) 13 (3) 160 (4) 13
25. If SYSTEM is written as OVQIBR 25. ;fn fdlh lkadfs rd Hkk”kk esa SYSTEM
in a certain code language, how dks OVQIBR fy[kk tkrk gS] rks mlh
will NEARER be written in that lkadfs rd Hkk”kk esa NEARER dks fdl
code language ? izdkj fy[kk tk,xk \
(1) LBPNBP (2) WBLNBP (1) LBPNBP (2) WBLNBP
(3) PGTTGP (4) MCNOCQ (3) PGTTGP (4) MCNOCQ
MSMSS/9–2023 P. T. O.
D ( 10 )
26. M is the wife of S. Q is the wife of 26. M, S dh iRuh gSA Q, R dh iRuh gSA
R. S is the son of Q. P is the son of S, Q dk iq= gSA P, M dk iq= gSA
M. How is R related to P ? R dk P ls D;k lac/a k gS \
(1) Father (2) Brother (1) firk (2) HkkbZ
(3) Grandfather (4) Uncle (3) nknk (4) pkpk
27. 27.
28. 28.
MSMSS/9–2023
( 11 ) D
29. A person is trying to climb a pole 29. ,d O;fDr 60 QhV Å¡ps [kEcs ij
60 feet high. He climbs 6 feet in p<+us dk iz;Ru dj jgk gSA og ,d
one minute, but slips and comes feuV esa 6 QhV p<+ tkrk gS] ysfdu
down 4 feet, then how many fQly dj 4 QhV uhps vk tkrk gS]
minutes will it take him to reach rks Åij rd igq¡pus esa mls fdrus
the top ? feuV yxsaxs \
(1) 32 (2) 28 (1) 32 (2) 28
(3) 27 (4) 34 (3) 27 (4) 34
30. First World War started in : 30. izFke fo’o ;q) izkjEHk gqvk %
(1) 1915 AD (2) 1916 AD (1) 1915 bZ0 esa (2) 1916 bZ0 esa
(3) 1918 AD (4) 1914 AD (3) 1918 bZ0 esa (4) 1914 bZ0 esa
31. Four friends A, B, C and D are 31. pkj nksLr A, B, C vkSj D rk’k
playing cards. A and B are [ksy jgsa gSaA A vkSj B vkil esa
partners. D is facing North. If A is tksM+hnkj gSaA D dk eq[k mÙkj dh
sitting to the left of D, then who is vksj gSA ;fn A, D dh ck;ha vksj
facing South ? cSBk gS] rks fdldk eq[k nf{k.k dh
vksj gS \
(1) B (2) C (1) B (2) C
(3) A (4) D (3) A (4) D
32. Select the water image of the 32. nh xbZ vkd`fr (X) dk ty izfrfcac
given figure (X) : pqfu, %
MSMSS/9–2023 P. T. O.
D ( 12 )
Direction : (Question No. 33 and 34) funsZ’k % ¼iz’u la[;k 33 ,oa 34½ uhps nh
In each of the following figures numbers xbZ izR;sd vkd`fr esa ,d fuf’pr Øe
are written according to some patterns. vuqlkj dqN laa[;k,¡ fy[kh xbZ gSaA buesa ls
One number is missing. Find the ,d la[;k yqIr gSA yqIr la[;k Kkr djsa]
missing number that replaces the tks iz’u fpg~u ¼\½½ ds LFkku ij mi;qDr
question mark (?). gksA
33. 33.
34. 34.
35. With respect to zones of candle 35. eksecÙkh dh Tokyk ds lanHkZ esa] lgh
flame, choose the correct option : fodYi pqusa %
(1) Outer zone of complete (1) iw.kZ ngu dk ckg~; {ks= & ihyk
combustion – Yellow
(2) Innermost zone of unburnt (2) fcuk tyh eksecÙkh dk lcls
Candle wax – Black vkarfjd {ks= & dkyk
(3) Middle zone of partial (3) vkaf’kd ngu okyk e/; Hkkx &
combustion – Blue uhyk
(4) Hottest Part – Black (4) lcls xeZ Hkkx & dkyk
37. Which of the following statement 37. jkbtksfc;e ds ckjs esa fuEufyf[kr esa
about Rhizobium is true ? ls dkSu lk dFku lR; gS \
(1) Rhizobia are bacteria that can (1) jkbtksfc;k thok.kq gSa tks feV~Vh
live in the soil esa jg ldrs gSaA
(2) Rhizobia are bacteria live in (2) jkbtksfc;k thok.kq gSa tks nkyksa dh
nodules formed on the roots of tM+ksa ij cuh xk¡Bksa esa jgrs gSaA
legumes.
(3) Rhizobia are bacteria (3) jkbtksfc;k thok.kq gSa tks ikS/kksa ls
obtaining nutrients from the iks”kd rRo izkIr djrs gSa vkSj
plant and producing nitrogen tSfod ukbVªkstu fLFkjhdj.k
in a process called biological uked izfØ;k ds n~okjk ukbVªkstu
nitrogen fixation. dk mRiknu djrs gSaA
(4) All of the above statements (4) jkbtksfc;e ds ckjs esa mijksDr
about Rhizobium are true. lHkh dFku lR; gSaA
38. Which metal is used to galvanize 38. yksgs dk ;’knysiu fdl /kkrq }kjk
Iron ? fd;k tkrk gS \
(1) Chromium (2) Magnesium (1) Øksfe;e (2) eSXuhf’k;e
(3) Zinc (4) Copper (3) ftad (4) rk¡ck
40. For which of the following is 40. fuEu esa ls fdlds fy, m dk eku
m=8? 8 gS \
(1) (5m × 5–3)/52 = 53 (1) (5m × 5–3)/52 = 53
(2) –(5m × 5–3)/53 = 52 (2) –(5m × 5–3)/53 = 52
(3) (5m × 52)/52 = 53 (3) (5m × 52)/52 = 53
(4) (5 × 5–2)/52 = 53 (4) (5 × 5–2)/52 = 53
MSMSS/9–2023 P. T. O.
D ( 14 )
41. Who wrote the book 'Gulamgiri' ? 41. ^xqykefxjh* iqLrd dh jpuk fdlus
dh \
(1) Savitri Phule (1) lkfo=h Qqys
ys
(2) Jyotirao Phule (2) T;ksfrjko Q
Qqys
(3) Mahatma Gandhi (3) egkRek xk¡/kh
(4) Ramabai (4) jekckbZ
Direction : (Question No. 43 and 44) funsZ’k % ¼iz’u la[;k 43 ,oa 44½ uhps fn,
In the questions given below the question x, iz’uksa esa iz’u vkd`fr dh A vkSj B esa
figure is that a special relationship exists ,d fo’ks”k lac/a k LFkkfir gSA ;g lEca/k
between A and B. This relationship is vkd`fr C vkSj oSdfYid vkd`fr;ksa esa ls
established in figure C and one of the ,d esa LFkkfir gSA ml oSdfYid vkd`fr dk
alternatives figures. Select the p;u djsa] tks vkd`fr D esa iz’u fpg~u ¼\½
alternative figure that should replace the dk LFkku ys ldrh gSA
question mark (?) in figure D.
43. 43.
MSMSS/9–2023
( 15 ) D
44. 44.
47. Which of the parallelogram has all 47. dkSu&ls lekUrj prqHkqZt dh lHkh
sides equal and diagonals bisect Hkqtk,¡ cjkcj gSa o mlds fod.kZ ,d
each other at right angle ? nwljs dks 90° ij lef}HkkfTkr djrs
gSa \
(1) Square (1) oxZ
(2) Rectangle (2) vk;r
(3) Rhombus (3) leprqHkqZt
(4) Trapezium (4) leyEc prqHkqZt
MSMSS/9–2023 P. T. O.
D ( 16 )
48. The angle of incidence is equal to 48. vkiru dks.k] ijkorZu dks.k ds
angle of reflection : cjkcj gksrk gS %
(1) Always (1) lnSo
(2) Sometimes (2) dHkh&dHkh
(3) Under Special Conditions (3) fo’ks”k ifjfLFkfr;ksa esa
(4) Never (4) dHkh ugha
49. The amounts of these resources 49. izd`fr esa ftu lalk/kuksa dh ek=k
are less and will not be lhfer gS vkSj izkd`frd izfØ;kvksa
replenished by natural methods, }kjk iquLFkkZiu ugha gks ldrk gS]
are .............. . mUgsa .............. dgrs gSAa
(1) Biodegradable Resources (1) fuEuhdj.k lalk/ku
(2) Non-Biodegradable Resources (2) vfuEuhdj.k lalk/ku
(3) Renewable Resources (3) uohdj.kh; lalk/ku
(4) Non-Renewable Resources (4) vuohdj.kh; lalk/ku
50. Who is the chairperson of Rajya 50. jkT;lHkk dk lHkkifr dkSu gksrk gS \
Sabha ?
(1) Governor (1) jkT;iky
(2) Vice-President (2) mijk”Vªifr
(3) Prime Minister (3) iz/kkuea=h
(4) President (4) jk”Vªifr
51. When the square of a number is 51. tc ,d la[;k ds oxZ dks mlh la[;k
subtracted from the cube of the ds ?ku esa ls ?kVk;k tkrk gS] rks 100
same number, it becomes 100. izkIr gksrk gSA la[;k Kkr djsa %
Find the number :
52. How many parallelograms are in 52. nh xbZ vkd`fr esa fdrus lekarj
the given figure ? prqHkqZt gSa \
53. In which Article of the Indian 53. Hkkjrh; lafo/kku ds fdl vuqPNsn esa
Constitution every citizen has been izR;sd ukxfjd dks thou dk ekSfyd
given fundamental right to life ? vf/kdkj fn;k x;k gS \
(1) Article 21 (2) Article 22 (1) vuqPNsn 21 (2) vuqPNsn 22
(3) Article 19 (4) Article 18 (3) vuqPNsn 19 (4) vuqPNsn 18
54. The first English Factory was 54. izFke bafXy’k QSDVjh 1651 bZ0 esa
established on the banks of which fdl unh ds fdukjs LFkkfir gqbZ \
river in 1651 AD ?
(1) Narmada (2) Hugli (1) ueZnk (2) gqxyh
(3) Tapti (4) Satluj (3) rkIrh (4) lryqt
55. Which of the statements is/are 55. Hkwe/; js[kk ds lac/a k esa dkSu lk@ls
true in relation to equator ? dFku lR; gS \
i. The equator passes through i. Hkwe/; js[kk nf{k.k vesfjdk]
the continents of South vÝhdk vkSj vkWLVªsfy;k egk}hiksa
America, Africa and Australia. ls gksdj xqtjrh gSA
ii. The equator passes through ii. Hkwe/; js[kk rsjg ns’kksa ls gksdj
thirteen countries. xqtjrh gSA
iii. There is only one major river iii. dsoy ,d izeq[k unh gS tks
which crosses the equator Hkwe/; js[kk dks nks ckj ikj
twice. djrh gSA
(1) Only iii (1) dsoy iii
(2) Both i and ii (2) i vkSj ii nksuksa
(3) All i, ii, iii (3) lHkh i, ii, iii
(4) Both ii and iii (4) ii vkSj iii nksuksa
MSMSS/9–2023 P. T. O.
D ( 18 )
57. At the time ............ between 3:00 57. 3 vkSj 4 cts ds chp fdl le;
and 4:00, both the hands will cover nksuksa lqbZ;k¡ ,d nwljs dks <d ysx
a h \
each other.
4 4
(1) 3 : 16 (1) 3 : 16
11 11
7 7
(2) 3 : 15 (2) 3 : 15
11 11
4 4
(3) 3 : 10 (3) 3 : 10
11 11
5 5
(4) 3 : 05 (4) 3 : 05
11 11
58. Voice of which of the following is 58. fuEu esa ls fdl okd~ /ofu dh vko`fÙk
likely to have minimum frequency ? U;wure gksus dh lEHkkouk gS \
(1) Baby Girl (1) NksVh yM+dh dh
(2) Baby Boy (2) NksVs yM+ds dh
(3) A Man (3) iq#”k dh
(4) A Woman (4) L=h dh
59. One of the following is not a basic 59. fuEufyf[kr esa ls ,d o”kkZ ty
component of a rainwater lap;u iz.kkyh dk ewy ?kVd
harvesting system. ugha gSA
(1) Catchment (1) tyxzg
(2) Delivery system (2) forj.k iz.kkyh
(3) Storage reservoir (3) tyk’k;
(4) River system (4) unh iz.kkyh
MSMSS/9–2023
( 19 ) D
60. The force of 50 newton acting on 60. ;fn 50 U;wVu cy] 50 lsaVhehVj oxZ
area of 50 cm2 will exert a ds {ks=Qy ij yxk;k tk;s] rks ;g
pressure of : fdruk nkc yxk,xk \
(1) 100 Pa (1) 100 Pa
(2) 1000 Pa (2) 1000 Pa
(3) 10000 Pa (3) 10000 Pa
(4) 1 Pa (4) 1 Pa
Direction : (Question No. 61 and 62) funsZ’k % ¼iz’u la[;k 61 ,oa 62½
In the following questions a figure (X) is fuEufyf[kr iz’uksa esa vkd`fr (X) nh xbZ gSA
given. Select the option which resembles vki ml fodYi dk p;u djsa] tks vkd`fr
the mirror image of the figure (X). (X) ds niZ.k izfrfcac tSlk fn[krk gSA
61. 61.
62. 62.
MSMSS/9–2023 P. T. O.
D ( 20 )
63. If in a year the Republic Day was 63. ;fn fdlh o”kZ x.kra= fnol eghus ds
celebrated on the 4th Saturday of a pkSFks ‘kfuokj dks euk;k x;k Fkk] rks
month, then what was the day of ml eghus dh igyh rkjh[k dks
the week on the 1st of that month ? lIrkg dk dkSu&lk fnu Fkk \
(1) Monday (1) lkseokj
(2) Tuesday (2) eaxyokj
(3) Wednesday (3) cq/kokj
(4) Sunday (4) jfookj
64. According to you what is a Hen’s 64. vkids vuqlkj fn;s fodYiksa esa ls
egg in the given options ? eqxhZ dk vaMk D;k gS \
(1) Tissue (1) Ård
(2) Organ (2) vax
(3) Organ system (3) vax iz.kkyh
(4) Cell (4) dksf’kdk
65. Ozone depletion is caused due to 65. vkst+ksu fjfDrdj.k ds Lrj esa o`f)
increase in level of : dk dkj.k gksrk gS %
(1) Carbon monoxide (1) dkcZu eksuksvkWDlkbM
(2) Chlorofluorocarbon (2) Dyksjks¶yksjksdkcZu
(3) Water vapour (3) ty ok”i
(4) Oxygen (4) vkWDlhtu
66. Which of the following can not be 66. fuEufyf[kr esa fdls ?k”kZ.k }kjk
charged easily by friction ? vklkuh ls vkosf’kr ugha fd;k tk
ldrk \
(1) A Plastic Scale (1) IykfLVd dk iSekuk
(2) A Copper Rod (2) rkacs dh NM+
(3) An Inflated Ballon (3) Qwyk gqvk xqCckjk
(4) A Woollen Cloth (4) Åuh oL=
MSMSS/9–2023
( 21 ) D
67. The ratio of speed of a motorbike 67. ,d eksVjckbd ftldh xfr 50 fdeh
50 km per hour and speed of cycle izfr ?kaVk gS o ,d lkbZfdy ftldh
20 km per hour is : xfr 20 fdeh izfr ?kaVk gS] dk
vuqikr gS %
(1) 2 : 5 (1) 2 : 5
(2) 5 : 1 (2) 5 : 1
(3) 5 : 2 (3) 5 : 2
(4) 1 : 2 (4) 1 : 2
68. The four major components of 68. i;kZoj.k ds pkj ize[q k ?kVd uhps
environment are given below. fn, x, gSaA fuEufyf[kr dks muds
Match the following with their lVhd lacf/kr ls lqesfyr dhft,A
exact relation.
(2) 1-ii, 2-iii, 3-i, 4-iv (2) 1-ii, 2-iii, 3-i, 4-iv
(3) 1-iv, 2-iii, 3-i, 4-ii (3) 1-iv, 2-iii, 3-i, 4-ii
(4) 1-iv, 2-ii, 3-i, 4-iii (4) 1-iv, 2-ii, 3-i, 4-iii
MSMSS/9–2023 P. T. O.
D ( 22 )
70. Which of the following statements 70. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk dFku
correctly describes the organic tSfod [kkn~; dk lgh O;k[;ku djrk
food ? gS \
(1) Food crop grown without using (1) moZjdksa dk mi;ksx fd, fcuk
fertilizers is organic food. mxkbZ tkus okyh [kkn~; Qly
tSfod Hkkstu gSA
(2) Food crop grown without using (2) fcuk [kjirokjuk’kdksa ds mxkbZ
weedicides is organic food. tkus okyh [kkn~; Qly tSfod
Hkkstu gSA
(3) Food crop grown without using (3) dhVuk’kdksa ds mi;ksx ds fcuk
pesticides is organic food. mxkbZ tkus okyh [kkn~; Qly
tSfod Hkkstu gSA
(4) All of the above. (4) mijksDr lHkhA
MSMSS/9–2023
( 23 )
jQ dk;Z ds fy, / FOR ROUGH WORK
5. iz'uksa ds mÙkj] mÙkj i=d esa fu/kkZfjr [kkuksa dks dkys 5. Answers to questions in answer sheet are to be
ckWy IokbaV iSu ls iw.kZr;k dkyk djuk gS] tSlk fd given by darkening complete circle using black ball
uhps fn[kk;k x;k gS % point pen as shown below :
1 3 4 1 3 4
vki }kjk fn;k x;k mÙkj xyr ekuk tk,xk] ;fn The answer will be treated wrong, if it is marked, as given
mÙkj okys [kkus dks fuEu izdkj ls Hkjrs gSa % below :
;fn ,d ls T;knk [kkuksa dks Hkj nsrs gSa rks vkidk If you fill more than one circle it will be treated as a
mÙkj xyr ekuk tk,xkA wrong answer.
6. jQ dk;Z iz'u iqfLrdk esa bl iz;kstu ds fy, nh xbZ 6. Rough work should be done only in the space provided
[kkyh txg ij gh djsaA in the Test Booklet for the same.
7. lHkh mÙkj dsoy mÙkj i=d (OMR) ij gh vafdr 7. The answers are to be recorded on the OMR Answer
djsAa vius mÙkj /;kuiwoZd vafdr djsAa mÙkj cnyus Sheet only. Mark your responses carefully. No whitener
gsrq 'osr jatd ¼lQsn ¶Y;wM½ dk iz;ksx fuf"k) gSA (white fluid) is allowed for changing answers.
8. izR;sd iz’u ds fy, fn, x, pkj fodYiksa esa ls mfpr 8. Out of the four alternatives for each question, only one
fodYi ds fy, mÙkj i=d (OMR) ij dsoy ,d gh circle for the most appropriate answer is to be darkened
o`Ùk dks iwjh rjg dkys ckWy IokbaV iSu ls HkjsaA ,d completely with Black Ball Point Pen on the OMR
ckj mÙkj vafdr djus ds ckn mls cnyk ugha tk Answer Sheet. The answer once marked is not allowed
ldrk gSA to be changed.
9. vH;FkhZ lqfuf’pr djsa fd bl mÙkj i=d dks eksMk+ u 9. The candidate should ensure that the Answer Sheet is
tk, ,oa ml ij dksbZ vU; fu’kku u yxk,¡A not folded. Do not make any stray mark on Answer
vH;FkhZ viuk vuqØekad mÙkj i=d esa fu/kkZfjr Sheet. Do not write your Roll No. anywhere else except
LFkku ds vfrfjDr vU;= u fy[ksAa in the specified space in the Answer Sheet.
10. iz'u iqfLrdk ,oa mÙkj i=d dk /;kuiwod Z iz;ksx djs]a 10. Handle the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet with care, as
D;ksfa d fdlh Hkh ifjfLFkfr esa ¼dsoy iz'u iqfLrdk ,oa under no circumstances (except for discrepancy in Test
mÙkj i=d ds Øekad esa fHkUurk dh fLFkfr dks NksMd + j½ Booklet and Answer Sheet Serial No.), another set of
nwljh iz'u iqfLrdk lSV miyC/k ugha djokbZ tk,xhA Test Booklet will not be provided.
11. iz'u iqfLrdk@mÙkj i=d esa fn, x, Øekad dks 11. The candidate will write the correct Number as given in
vH;FkhZ lgh rjhds ls gkftjh i= esa fy[ksaA the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet in the Attendance Sheet.
12. vH;FkhZ dks ijh{kk gkWy@d{k esa izos’k dkMZ ds 12. Candidate is not allowed to carry any textual material,
vfrfjDr fdlh izdkj dh ikB~; lkexzh] eqfnzr ;k printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone,
gLrfyf[kr dkxt dh ifpZ;k¡] istj] eksckby Qksu] electronic device or any other material except the Admit
bysDVªkWfud midj.k ;k fdlh vU; izdkj dh lkexzh Card inside the examination hall/room.
dks ys tkus ;k mi;ksx djus dh vuqefr ugha gSA
13. fujh{kd }kjk iwNs tkus ij izR;sd vH;FkhZ viuk 13. Each candidate must show on demand his/her Admit
izos’k&i= ¼jksy ua0½ fn[kk,¡A Card (Roll No.) to the Invigilator.
14. dsUnz v/kh{kd ;k fujh{kd dh fo’ks"k vuqefr ds fcuk 14. No candidate, without special permission of the
dksbZ vH;FkhZ viuk LFkku u NksMa+sA Superintendent or Invigilator, should leave his/her seat.
15. bysDVªkWfud@gLrpkfyr ifjdyd dk mi;ksx oftZr gSA 15. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.
16. fdlh gkyr esa iz'u&iqfLrdk ,oa mÙkj&i=d dk dksbZ 16. No part of test Booklet and Answer-sheet shall be
Hkkx vyx u djsaA detached under any circumstances.
17. ijh{kk lEiUu gksus ij] vH;FkhZ ijh{kk d{k@gkWy 17. On completion of the test, candidate must hand over the
NksM+us ls iwoZ mÙkj i=d d{k&i;Zos{kd dks vo’; Answer Sheet to the Invigilator in the Room/Hall. The
lkSai nsAa vH;FkhZ vius lkFk iz'u iqfLrdk dks ys tk candidate is allowed to take away this Test Booklet with
ldrs gSaA them.