Full VST 09 (Question)

1 Think NEET Think TORQUE
FULL VST - 09
PHYSICS (a) 12 m/sec2 (b) 4 m/sec2
(c) 10 m/sec2 (d) Zero
(SECTION - A)
06. Adjacent figure shows the force-displacement
01. What is the unit vector perpendicular to the
graph of a moving body, the work done in
following vectors 2iˆ  2jˆ  kˆ and 6iˆ  3jˆ  2kˆ ? displacing body from x = 0 to x = 35 m is equal
to
iˆ  10ˆj  18kˆ iˆ  10ˆj  18kˆ
(a) (b)
5 17 5 17
ˆi  10ˆj  18kˆ ˆi  10ˆj  18kˆ

(c) (d)
5 17 5 17
02. The average acceleration vector for a particle
having a uniform circular motion is
(a) 50 J (b) 25 J
v2 (c) 287.5 J (d) 200 J
(a) a constant vector of magnitude
r 07. 0
1 gm of ice at 0 C is mixed with 1 gm of water
2
v at 1000 C, the resulting temperature will be
(b) a vector of magnitude directed normal
r (a) 50 C (b) 00 C
to the plane of the given uniform circular
(c) 100 C (d) 
motion
08. Two metal cubes A and B of same size are
(c) equal to the instantaneous acceleration
arranged as shown in the figure. The extreme
vector at the start of the motion
ends of the combination are maintained at the
(d) a null vector indicated temperatures. The arrangement is
03. A ball is projected with kinetic energy E at an thermally insulated. The coefficients of thermal
angle of 450 to the horizontal. At the highest point conductivity of A and B are 300 W/m0 C and
during its flight, its kinetic energy will be 200 W/m0 C, respectively. After steady state is
E reached, the temperature of the interface will
(a) Zero (b) be
2
E
(c) (d) E
2
04. A person is sitting in a travelling train and facing
the engine. He tosses up a coin and the coin
falls behind him. It can be concluded that the (a) 450 C (b) 900 C
train is (c) 300 C (d) 600 C
(a) moving forward and gaining speed 09. In the P-V diagram shown in figure ABC is a
(b) moving forward and losing speed semicircle. The work done in the process ABC
is
(c) moving forward with uniform speed
(d) moving backward with uniform speed
05. The masses 10 kg and 20 kg are connected by a
massless spring as shown in figure. A force of
200 N acts on the 20 kg mass. At the instant
shown, the 10 kg mass has acceleration 12m/
sec2. What is the acceleration of 20 kg mass ?

(a) Zero (b) atm-lt
2

(c)  atm-lt (d) 4-atm-lt
2
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10. A jar has a mixture of hydrogen and oxygen gas

in the ratio of 1:5. The ratio of mean kinetic
energies of hydrogen and oxygen molecules is
(a) 1 : 16 (b) 1 : 4
(c) 1 : 5 (d) 1 : 1
11. Two wires A and B same length, same area of
cross section having the same Young’s modulus
are heated to the same range of temperature. If (a) 2.5 volt/m (b) –2.5 volt/m
the coefficient of linear expansion of A is 3/2 (c) 2/5 volt/m (d) –2/5 volt/m
times of that of wire B, the ratio of the forces 17. Four charges are arranged at the corners of a
produced in two wires will be square ABCD, as shown in the adjoining figure.
(a) 2/3 (b) 9/4 The force on the charge kept at the centre O is
(c) 4/9 (d) 3/2
12. Surface tension of soap solution is 2 ×10–2N/m.
The work done in producing a soap bubble of
radius 2 cm is :
(a) 64 × 10–6 J (b) 32 × 10–6 J
(c) 16× 10–6 J (d) 8× 10–6 J (a) zero
13. Three identical vessles are filled to the same (b) along the diagonal AC
height with three different liquids A, B and C (c) along the diagonal BD
(A  B  C ) . The pressure at the base will (d) perpendicular to side AB
be 18. A parallel plate capacitor has plate are A and
(a) equal in all vessels separation d. It is charged to a potential
difference V 0 . The charging battery is
(b) maximum in vessel A
disconnected and the plates are pulled apart to
(c) maximum in vessel B three times the initial separation. The work
(d) maximum in vessel C required to separate the plates is
14. Suppose that the force of earth’s gravity 3 0 AV02 0 AV02
(a) (b)
suddenly disappears, choose the correct answer d 2d
out of the following statements.
0 AV02 0 AV02
(a) The weight of the body will become zero (c) (d)
3d d
but mass remains the same 19. A wheel has angular acceleration of 3.0 rad/s2
(b) The mass of the body will become zero but and an initial angular speed of 2.0 rad/s. In a
the weight remains the same time of 2s it has roated through an angle
(c) Both the mass and weight will be the same (in radian) of
(a) 6 (b) 10
(d) Mass and weight will remain the same
(c) 12 (d) 4
15. The equation of stationary wave along a
20. The current in the given circuit is
x
stretched string is given by y  5sin cos40t
3
where x and y are in centimetre and t in second.
The separation between two adiacent nodes is :
(a) 6 cm (b) 4 cm
(c) 3 cm (d) 1.5 cm
16. The variation of potential with distance R from
a fixed point is as shown below. The electric (a) 0.1 A (b) 0.2 A
field at R=5m is : (c) 0.3 A (d) 0.4 A
21. Two bulbs X and Y having same voltage rating 24. A copper disc of radius 0.1 m is rotated about its
and of powers 40 watt and 60 watt respectively centre with 10 revolutions per second in a
are connected in series across a potential uniform magnetic field of 0.1 Tesla with its plane
difference of 300 volt, then perpendicular to the field. The e.m.f. induced
across the radius of disc is
 
(a) V (b) V
10 10
(c)  102 V (d) 2  102 V
25. Two conducting circular loops of radii R1 and R2
are placed in the same plane with their centres
(a) X will glow brighter coinciding. If R1 > R2, the mutual inductance M
(b) resistance of Y is greater than X between them will be directly proportional to
(c) heat produced in Y will be greater than X (a) R1 /R2 (b) R2 /R1
(d) voltage drop in Y will be greater than X (c) R12 / R 2 (d) R 22 / R1
22. A circular current carrying coil has a radius R. 26. Read the following assertion and reason carefully
The distance from the centre of the coil on the and choose the correct option :
Assertion: The value of acceleration due to
1
axis where the magnetic induction will be th gravity does not depend upon mass of the body
8 on which is applied.
to its value at the centre of the coil, is Reason : Acceleration due to gravity is a
R constant quantity.
(a) (b) R 3 (a) If both assertion and reason are true and
3
reason is the correct explanation of the
2 assertion.
(c) 2 3R (d) R (b) If both assertion and reason are true but
3
reason is not the correct explanation of the
23. Considering the earth to be a homogeneous assertion.
sphere but keeping in mind its spin, match the (c) If assertion it true but reason is false
following : (d) If both assertion and reason are false
Column I Column II 27. Given below are two statements :
i. Acceleration due a. may change from Statement- I : Path of a projectile, seen from
to gravity point to point another projectile is straight line.
ii. Orbital angular b. does not depend Statement II : If relative acceleration is zero
then relative velocity will be constant.
momentum of on directed of
In the light of the above statements, choose the
the earth as projection correct answer from the options given below:
seen from a (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are
distant star correct
iii. Escape velocity c. remains constant (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are
incorrect
from the earth
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
iv. Gravitational d. depend on incorrect
potential due direction of (d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
to earth at a projection correct
particular point 28. Electromagnetic wave travel in a medium which
(a) i  a, b; ii  c; iii  a, b; iv  c has relative permeability 1.3 and relative
permittivity 2.14. Then the speed of the
(b) i  a; ii  b, c; iii  a, c;iv  b, c, d electronmagnetic wave in medium will be
(c) i  b, c; ii  a, c; iii  a, b; iv  c, d (a) 13.6×106m/s (b) 1.8 ×102 m/s
(d) i  b; ii  c; iii  b; iv  d (c) 3.6 × 108 m/s (d) 1.8 × 108 m/s
29. The plane faces of two identical plano convex 34. In a series LCR circuit, resistance R = 10 and
lenses, each with focal length f are pressed the impedance Z = 20. The phase difference
against each other using an optical glue to form between the current and the voltage is
a usual convex lens. The distance from the optical (a) 300 (b) 450
centre at which an object must be placed to obtain
(c) 600 (d) 900
the image same as the size of object is
35. Coefficient of friction between A and B is .
f f The minimum force F with which A will be
(a) (b)
4 2 pushed such that B will not slip down is
(c) f (d) 2f
30. The radius of the Borh orbit in the ground state
o
of hydrogen atom is 0.5 A . The radius of the
orbit of the electron in the third excited state of
He+ will be Mg mg
(a) (b)
o o  
(a) 8 A (b) 4 A
o o (M  m)g (M  m)g
(c) 0.5 A (d) 0.25 A (c) (d)
o  
31. Monochrome light of wavelength 3000 A is
incident on a surface area 4 cm2. If intensity of (SECTION - B)
light is 150 mW/m2, then rate at which photons 36. Two balls of equal mass undergo head on collision
strike the target is while each was moving with speed 6 m/s. If the
(a) 3 × 1010/sec (b) 9 ×1013/sec 1
coefficient of restitution is , the speed of each
(c) 7 ×1015/sec (d) 6 × 1019/sec 3
32. The combination of gates shown below produces ball after impact will be
(a) 18 m/s (b) 2 m/s
(c) 6 m/s (d) 4 m/s
37. The variation of force F acting on a body moving
along x-axis varies with its position (x) as shown
in figure.
(a) AND gate (b) XOR gate

(c) NOR gate (d) NAND gate
33. For the given circuit of PN-junction diode, which
of the following statement is correct ?
The body is in stable equilibrium state at

(a) P (b) Q
(a) In forward biasing the voltage across R is (c) R (d) Both P & Q
V. 38. The bob of simple pendulum having length l, is
displaced from mean position to an angular
(b) In forward biasing the voltage across R is position  with respect to vertical. If it is released,
2V. then velocity of bob at equilibrium position
(c) In reverse biasing the voltage across R is V
(a) 2gl (1  cos ) (b) 2gl (1  cos )
(d) In reverse biasing the voltage across R is
2V. (c) 2gl cos  (d) 2gl
39. Two equal and opposite forces are applied

tangentially to a uniform disc of mass M and
radius R as shown in the figure. If the disc is
pivoted at its centre and free to rotate in its plane,
the angular acceleration of the disc is
(a) 0.8 gcc–1 (b) 1.2 gcc–1

(c) 1.4 gcc–1 (d) 1.6 gcc–1
44. Figure shows the isotherms of a fixed mass of
an ideal gas at three temperature TA, TB and TC,
F 2F then
(a) MRg (b)
3MR
4F
(c) (d) Zero
MR
40. A bomb of mass m is projected from the ground
with speed v at angle  with the horizontal. At
the maximum height from the ground it explodes
into two fregments of equal mass. If one fragment (a) TA > TB > TC (b) TA < TB < TC
comes to rest immediately after explosion, then (c) TB < TA < TC (d) TA = TB = TC
the horizontal range of centre of mass is 45. An ideal gas expands according to the law
v 2 sin 2  v2 sin  P2V=constant. The internal energy of the gas
(a) (b) (a) Increases continuously
g g
(b) Decreases continously
v2 sin  v 2 sin 2 (c) Remain constant
(c) (d)
2g g (d) First increases and then decreases
41. A hot solid sphere is rotating about a diameter at 46. A flat horizontal board moves up and down
an angular velocity 0. If it cools so that its radius under S.H.M. vertically with amplitude A. The
1 shortest permissible time period of the vibration
reduces to of its original value, its angular such that an object placed on the board may not

velocity becomes lose contact with the board is
0 g A
(a) 0 (b) (a) 2 (b) 2
 A g
0 2A  A
(c) (d) 2 0 (c) 2 (d)
2 g 2 g
42. Water flows in a stream line manner through a 47. A point source emits sound equally in all direction
capillary tube of radius a. The pressure in a non-absorbing medium. Two points P and
difference being P and the rate of flow is Q. If Q are at distances of 2m and 3m respectively
from the sources. The ratio of the intensities of
a
the radius is reduced to and the pressure is the waves at P and Q is
4 (a) 3 : 2 (b) 2 : 3
increased to 4P, then the rate of flow becomes.
(c) 9 : 4 (d) 4 : 9
Q 48. Two thin lenses of focal lengths f1 and f2 are in
(a) 4Q (b)
2 contact and coaxial. The power of the
Q combination is :
(c) Q (d)
64 f1  f 2 f1
(a) (b)
43. A liquid X of density 3.36 g cm–3 is poured in a f1f 2 f2
U-tube, which contains Hg. Another liquid Y is
f2 f1  f 2
poured in left arm with height 8 cm, upper levels (c) (d)
of X and Y are same What is density of Y ? f1 2
49. A plot between the angle of deviation and angle CH

of incidence is shown in figure. From the graph 55. reacts with acetic acid in the presence of
one can say that the prism angle is CH
Hg2+ to give
CH3 CH(CH3COO)2
(a) (b)
CH(CH3COO)2 CH(CH3COO)2
CH3
(c) (d) None of these
CH2(CH3COO)
56. The treatment of benzene with iso-butene in the

presence of sulphuric acid gives.
(a) 470 (b) 460
(c) 450 (d) 600 (a) iso-butyl benzene (b) tert-butyl benzene
50. In Young’s double slit experiment carried out (c) n-butyl benzene (d) No reaction
o 57. Assertion (A): Friedel-Craft’s reaction is used
with light of wavelength 5000 A , the distance
between the slit is 0.2 mm and the screen is at to introduce an alkyl or acyl group in benzene
200 cm from the plane of slits. The central nucleus.
maximum at at x = 0. The third maximum will be Reason (R): Benzene is a solvent for the Friedel-
at x equal to Craft’s alkylation of bromobenzene.
(a) 1.5 cm (b) 1.67 cm (a) Both A and R are correct and R is the
(c) 0.5 cm (d) 5.0 cm correct explanation of A
CHEMISTRY (b) Both A and R are correct but R is not the
correct explanation of A
(SECTION - A)
(c) A is true but R is incorect
51. The compounds formed at anode in the
electrolysis of an aqueous solution of potassium (d) Both A and R are incorrect
acetate, are 58. The hydrocarbon which does not decolourise
(a) C2H6 and CO2 (b) C2H4 and CO2 alkaline KMnO4 solution and also does not give
(c) C2H6 and H2 (d) CO2 and H2 any precipitate with ammoniacal silver nitrate is
52. Ethylene combine with sulphur monochloride to (a) Benzene (b) Acetylene
form (c) Propyne (d) Butyne-1
(a) Phosgene
59. The electronegativity difference between N and
(b) Mustard gas F is greater than that between N and H yet the
(c) Methyl isocyanate (MIC) dipole moment of NH3 (1.5 D) is larger than that
(d) Lewisite of NF3 (0.2 D).
53. When subjected to acid catalysed hydration, the This is because
order of reactivity of the alkenes; (a) In NH3 as well as in NF3, the atomic dipole
I. (CH3 )2 C=CH2 II. CH3 CH=CH2 and bond dipole are in the same direction.
III. CH2=CH2 is (b) In NH3, the atomic dipole and bond dipole
(a) III > II > I (b) I > III > II are in the same direction whereas in NF3,
(c) I > II > III (d) II > I > III these are in opposite directions
54. With ammonical cuprous chloride solution a (c) In NH3 as well as in NF3, the atomic dipole
reddish brown precipitiate is obtained on treating and bond dipole are in opppsite directions.
with
(d) In NH3, the atomic dipole and bond dipole
(a) CH 4 (b) C2 H 4 are in the opposite directions whereas in NF3,
(c) C2 H 2 (d) C3 H 6 these are in the same directions.
60. Match the following columns. 66. The product ‘Y’ in the following reaction
Column I Column II sequence is
A. BCl3 1. Linear
Conc.HNO3 LiAlH 4
2 
Conc.H 2SO 4
 X  Y
B. PdBr 4
2. Planar triangular
C. SF6 3. Tetrahedral
 NH2 NHOH
D. I 3
4. Octahedral
5. Square planar (a) (b)
Codes
(a) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1 (b) A-5, B-3, C-2, D-1
(c) A-2, B-5, C-4, D-1 (d) A-5, B-4, C-3, D-2 (c) N N
61. Assertion (A): First ionisation energy for (d) None of the above
nitrogen is lower than oxygen.
67. Nitrobenzene gives N-phenylhydroxylamine by
Reason (R): A cross a period, effective nuclear
charge decreases. (a) Sn/HCl (b) H2 /Pd-C
(c) Zn/NaOH (d) Zn/NH4Cl
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the
correct explanation of A 68. Assertion (A): Anilinium chloride is more acidic
than ammonium chloride.
(b) Both A and R are correct but R is not the
correct explanation of A Reason (R): Anilinium ion is resonance-
stabilised
(d) Both A and R are incorrect correct explanation of A
62. Which of the following species has the highest (b) Both A and R are correct but R is not the
electron affinity ? correct explanation of A
(a) F (b) O (c) A is true but R is incorect
– +
(c) O (d) Na (d) Both A and R are incorrect
63. When Cl2 gas reacts with hot and concentrated X
69. CH3 CH2C N CH3CH 2CHO
sodium hydroxide solution, the oxidation number
of chlorine changes from The compound X is
(a) zero to +1 and zero to –5 (a) SnCl2/HCl/H2O, boil
(b) zero to –1 and zero to +5 (b) H2 /Pd-BaSO4
(c) zero to –1 and zero to +3 (c) LiAlH4/ether
(d) zero to +1 and zero to –3 (d) NaBH4/ether/H3O +
64. The hydrolysis of NCl3 by water produces 70. Among the following which one does not act as
an intermediate in Hofmann rearrangement ?
(a) NH2OH and HOCl
(a) RNCO (b) RCON
(b) NH2NH2 and HCl
(c) NH4OH and HOCl (c) RCONHBr (d) RNC
(d) NH2Cl and HOCl 71. The correct set of four quantum number for the
65. The composition of duralumin is valence electrons of rubidium atm (Z = 37) is
(a) Al 94%, Mg 6% 1 1
(a) 5,0,0,  (b) 5,1,0, 
(b) Cu 56%, Zn 24%, Ni 20% 2 2
(c) Cu 95%, Al 5% 1 1
(c) 5,1,1,  (d) 5,0,1, 
(d) Al 95%, Cu 4%, Mn 0.5%, Mg 0.5% 2 2
72. How many grams of concentrated nitric acid 79. Which of the following pairs constitutes a buffer?
solution should be used to prepare 250 mL of (a) HNO2 and NaNO2
2.0 M HNO3? The concentrated acid is 70% (b) NaOH and NaCl
HNO 3 .
(c) HNO3 and NH4NO3
(a) 45.0 g conc. HNO3
(d) HCl and KCl
(b) 90.0 g conc. HNO3
80. A first order reaction has a specific reaction rate
(c) 70.0 g conc. HNO3 of 10–2 s–1. How much time will it take for 20 g
(d) 54.0 g conc. HNO3 of the reactant to reduce to 5 g ?
73. Which order of compounds in according to the (a) 238.6 s (b) 138.6 s
decreasing order of the oxidation state of nitrogen ? (c) 346.5 s (d) 693.0 s
(a) HNO3, NO, NH4Cl, N2 81. Mechanism of a hypothetical reaction
(b) HNO3, NO, N2, NH4Cl X2 + Y2  2XY is given below
(c) HNO3, NO, NH4Cl, N2 i. X 2  X  X(fast)
(d) HNO3, NH4Cl, N2, NO ii. X  Y2  XY  Y(slow)
74. The ground state energy of hydrogen atom is iii. X  Y  XY(fast)
–13.6 eV. The energy of 2nd excited state of
He+ ion in eV is The overall order of the reaction will be
(a) –27.2 (b) –54.4 (a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 0 (d) 1.5
(c) –3.4 (d) –6.04
82. The temperature dependence of rate constant
75. pH of a saturated solution of Ba(OH)2 is 12.
(k) of a chemical reaction is written in terms of
The value of solubility product Ksp of Ba(OH)2
is Arrhenius equation, k  Ae E* /RT . Activation
energy (E*) of the reaction can be calculated by
(a) 3.3  107 (b) 5.0  107 plotting
(c) 4.0  106 (d) 5.0  106 1 1
(a) log k vs (b) log k vs log T
76. Equal volumes of three acid solutions of pH 3, 4 T
and 5 are mixed in a vessel. What will be the H+ 1
ion concentration in the mixture ? (c) k vs T (d) k vs log T
(a) 1.11 104 M (b) 3.7  104 M 83. From the following bond energies
H–H bond energy : 431.37 kJ mol–1
(c) 3.7  103 M (d) 1.11 103 M
C=C bond energy : 606.10 kJ mol–1
77. Using the Gibbs energy change, C–C bond energy : 336.49 kJ mol–1
G o  63.3 kJ for the following reaction, C–H bond energy : 410.50 kJ mol–1
Ag 2 CO3 (s)  2Ag  (aq)  CO32  (aq) the K sp Enthalpy for the reaction,
of Ag2CO3(s) in water at 25oC is
H H H H
[R = 8.314 JK–1 mol–1]
C C H H H C C H
(a) 3.2  1026 (b) 8.0  1012
H H H H
(c) 2.9  103 (d) 7.9  102
will be
78. Considering entropy (S) as a thermodynamic (a) 1523.6 kJ mol–1 (b) –243.6 kJ mol–1
parameter, the criterion for the spontaneity of
(c) –120.0 kJ mol–1 (d) 553.0 kJ mol–1
any process is
84. Standard electrode potential for Sn4+/Sn2+ couple
(a) Ssystem  Ssurrounding  0 is +0.15 V and that for the Cr3+/Cr couple is
–0.74. These two couples in their standard state
(b) Ssystem  Ssurrounding  0 are connected to make a cell. The cell potential
will be
(c) Ssystem  0
(a) +0.89 V (b) +0.18 V
(d) Ssurrounding  0 (c) +1.83 V (d) +1.199 V
M 93. If heavy water is taken as solvent instead of

85. The equivalent conductance of solution of a normal water while performing Cannizaro
32
weak monobasic acid is 8.0 mho cm2 and at reaction, the products of the reaction are
infinite dilution is 400 mho cm2. The dissociation (a) RCOO– + RCH2OH
constant of this acid is (b) RCOO– + RCH2OD
(a) 1.25  105 (b) 1.25  106 (c) RCOOD + RCD2OD
(c) 6.25  104 (d) 1.25  104 (d) RCOO– + RCD2OD
94. In which of the following reactions, the product
(SECTION - B) obtained is tert-bytyl methyl ether ?
86. The pressure of H 2 required to make the (a) CH3HO + HO CH2 CH3 Conc, H2SO4
potential of H2-electrode zero in pure water at
CH3
298 K is OH–Na+
CH3 C Br + CH3OH
(a) 10–12 atm (b) 10–10 atm (b)
CH3
(c) 10–4 atm (d) 10–14 atm
CH3
87. At 100oC the vapour pressure of a solution of + –
6.5 g of a solute in 100 g water is 732 mm. If (c) CH3Br + Na O C CH3
Kb = 0.52, the boiling point of this solution will be CH3
(a) 100oC (b) 120oC CH3
(c) 103oC (d) 101oC CH3 O–Na+ CH3 C Br
(d)
88. Equivalent conductance of NaCl, HCl and CH3
C2 H5 COONa at infinete dilution are 126.45, 95. Iso-propylbenzene on air oxidation in the
426.16 and 91 1 cm 2 , respectively. The presence of dilute acid gives.
equivalent conductance of C2H5COOH is (a) C6 H5 COOH (b) C6 H5 COCH 3
(c) C6 H 5CHO (d) C6 H5 OH
(a) 201.28 1 cm 2 (b) 390.71 1 cm2
96. Chlorobenzene is prepared commercially by
(c) 698.28  cm 1 2
(d) 540.48  cm 1 2 (a) Dow’s process (b) Dacon’s process
(c) Raschig process (d) Etard’s process
89. Which of the following aqueous solutions has
97. In alkaline hydrolysis of a tertiary halide by
minimum freezing point ?
aqueous solution of alkali if concentration of alkali
(a) 0.01 m NaCl (b) 0.005 m Mgl2 is doubled, then the reaction
(c) 0.005 m C2H5OH (d) 0.005 m MgSO4 (a) Will be doubled
90. At 25 o C, the highest osmotic pressure is (b) Will be halved
exhibited by 0.1 M solution of (c) Will remain constant
(a) CaCl2 (b) KCl (d) None of these
(c) glucose (d) urea 98. The correct order for the wavelength of
91. Assertion (A): B2 molecule is diamagnetic absorption in the visible region is
(a) [Ni(NO2)6]4– < [Ni(NH3)6]2+ < [Ni(H2O)6]2+
Reason (R): The highest occupied molecule
orbital is of  type. (b) [Ni(NO2)6]4– < [Ni(H2O)6]2+ < [Ni(NH3)6]2+
(c) [Ni(H2O)6]2+ < [Ni(NH3)6]2+ < [Ni(NO2)6]4–
correct explanation of A (d) [Ni(NH3)6]2+ < [Ni(H2O)6]2+ < [Ni(NO2)6]4–
99. Assertion (A): The ionic size of Mg2+ > Al3+.
(b) Both A and R are correct but R is not the
correct explanation of A Reason (R): In isoelectronic species, greater
the nuclear charge, less is the size.
(d) Both A and R are incorrect correct explanation of A
92. At higher temperature, iodofoem reaction is given (b) Both A and R are correct but R is not the
by the dilute solution of correct explanation of A
(a) CH3 CO 2 CH 3 (b) CH3 CO 2 C2 H 5 (c) A is true but R is incorect
(c) C6 H5 CO 2 CH 3 (d) CH3 CO 2 C6 H 5 (d) Both A and R are incorrect
100. The number of possible isomers of an octahedral 106. Read the following statements and answer the
complex [Co(C2O4)2(NH3)2]– is questions.
(a) 1 (b) 2 (i) Some members are saprophytes or parasites
while a large number of them are
(c) 3 (d) 4 decomposers of litter and help in mineral
cycling.
BOTANY
(ii) They reproduce only by asexual spores
(SECTION - A) known as conidia
101. Which of the following glucose transporters is (iii) Mycelium is septate and branched.
insulin dependent ? (iv) Alternaria, Colletotrichum and
(a) GLUT 1 (b) GLUT 2 Trichoderma are examples of this class.
(c) GLUT 3 (d) GLUT 4 (v) Commonly known as imperfect fungi.
102. Given below are two statements : Which of the following class of fungi is being
Statement I : Low temperature preserves the described by the above statements ?
enzyme in a temporarily inactive state whereas (a) Phycomycetes (b) Deuteromycetes
high temperature destroys enzymatic activity (c) Basidiomycetes (d) Ascomycetes
because proteins are denatured by heat.
107. Match the column I and II
Statement II : When the inhibitor closely Column I Column II
resembles the substrate in its molecular structure
A. Edible delicacies I. Pencillium,
and inhibits the activity of the enzyme, it is known
as competitive inhibitor. Streptomyces
In the light of the above statements, choose the B. Experimental II. Neurospora
correct answer from the options given below: genetics crassa
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true C. Source of III. Puccinia,
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are false antibiotics Ustilago
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false D. Rust and smut IV. Morels and
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true diseases truffles
103. Double fertilization is (a) A-IV;B-II;C-III;D-I
(a) Fusion of two male gametes of a pollen tube (b) A-III; B-I; C-II; D-IV
with two different eggs. (c) A-IV; B-II; C-I; D-III
(b) Fusion of one male gamete with two polar (d) A-IV; B-III; C-II; D-I
nuclei 108. The heterosporous pteridophyte belonging to the
(c) Syngamy and triple fusion class lycopsida is
(d) Fusion of two male gametes with one egg. (a) Selaginella (b) Psilotum
104. Large, colourful, fragrant flowers with nectar are (c) Equisetum (d) Pteris
seen in 109. Statement I : Chromosomal aberrations are
(a) Insect pollinated plants commonly observed in cancer cells.
(b) Bird pollinated plants Statement II : The alteration in chromosome
(c) Bat pollinated plants results due to loss of segment of DNA and gain
of a segment of DNA.
(d) Wind pollinated plants
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are
105. As we go from species to kingdom in a incorrect
taxonomic hierarchy, the number of common
(b) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
characteristics.
incorrect
(a) will decrease
(c) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
(b) will increase correct
(c) remain same (d) Both Statement I and Statement II are
(d) may increase or decrease correct
110. Which of the following occurs due to the 117. Endosperm, a product of double fertization in
presence of autosome linked dominant trait ? angiosperms is absent in the seeds of
(a) Myotonic dystrophy (a) gram (b) pea
(b) Haemophilia (c) castor (d) both(a) & (b)
(c) Thalassemia 118. Identify the different types of aestivation(A, B,
(d) Sickle cell anaemia C and D) in corolla and select the correct option.
111. Which one of the following is an incorrect
statement regarding mutations ?
(a) Deletion and insertion of base pairs cause
(a) A-Valvate, B-Twisted, C-Imbricate,
frameshift mutations
D-Vexillary
(b) Cancer cells commonly show chromosomal
(b) A-Vexillary, B-Valvate, C- Twisted,
aberrations.
D-Imbricate
(c) UV and gamma rays are mutagens. (c) A-Imbricate, B-Vexillary, C-Valvate,
(d) Change in a single base pair of DNA does D-Twisted
not cause mutation. (d) A-Twisted, B-Imbricate, C-Vexillary,
112. Histones are rich in D-Valvate
(a) alanine and glycine 119. Cells of this tissue are living and show angular
(b) lysine and arginine wall thickening. They also provide mechanical
support. The tissue is
(c) histidine and serine
(a) Xylem (b) Sclerenchyma
(d) cysteine and tyrosine
(c) Collenchyma (d) epidermis
113. Which one among the following was the first
120. Statement I : Moiosis involves pairing of
genetic material ?
homologous chromosomes and recombination
(a) DNA (b) RNA between them.
(c) Protein (d) Nuclein Statement II : Meiosis involves two sequential
114. Which of the following correctly assigns the cycle of nuclear and cell division called meiosis
codons for glycine ? I and meiosis II, but only a single cycle of DNA
(a) GGG, GGC, GGA (b) AAA, AAG, AAC replication.
(c) AUG, AUA, AUC (d) CCC, CCG, CGA (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are
incorrect
115. Assertion : A transcription unit in DNA is
(b) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
defined primarily by three regions in the DNA
incorrect
viz, a promoter, the structural gene and a
terminator. (c) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
correct
Reason : The promoter is located towards 5’
(d) Both Statement I and Statement II are
end of the structural gene and it is a DNA
correct
sequence that provide binding site for RNA
polymerase. 121. Which range of wavelength (in nm) is called
photosynthetically Active Radiation (PAR) ?
(a) Both(A) and (R) are correct but(R) is not
(a) 100-390 (b) 390-430
the correct explanation of (A).
(c) 400-700 (d) 760-100,00
(b) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
122. Terminal cytochrome of respiratory chain which
(c) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct donates electrons to oxygen is :
(d) Both(A) and(R) are correct and (R) is the (a) cyt.b (b) cyt.c
correct explanation of (A). (c) cyt.a (d) cyt.a 3
116. The human chromosome with the highest and 123. Microbe used for biocontrol of pest butterfly
least number of genes in them are respectively. caterpillars is
(a) Chromosome 21 and Y (a) Trichoderma sp
(b) Chromosome 1 and X (b) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
(c) Chromosome 1 and Y (c) Bacillus thuringiensis
(d) Chromosome X and Y (d) Streptococcus sp
124. Which one of the following alcoholic drinks is 131. In some children, ADA deficiency can be cured
produced without distillation ? by
(a) Wine (b) Whisky (a) bone marrow transplantation
(c) Rum (d) Brandy (b) enzyme replacement thereapy
125. Statement I : In a sewage treatment plant, the (c) both(a) and (b)
primary sludge is obtained by sequential filtration
(d) none of the above
and sedimentation.
132. Which variety of rice was patented by a U.S.
Statement II : Methanogenic bacteria are found
in anaerobic sludge digesters. company even though the highest number of
varieties of this rice is found in India ?
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are
incorrect (a) Sharbati Sonara (b) Co-667
(b) Statement I is correct but Statement II is (c) Basmati (d) Lerma Roja
incorrect 133. Match the following and choose the correct
(c) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is combination from the options given below:
correct Column I Column II
(d) Both Statement I and Statement II are A. Escherichia coli I. RNAi
correct
B. Bacillus II. Insulin
126. Which of the following is commonly used as a
thuringiensis
vector for introducing a DNA fragment in human
lymphocytes ? C. Meloidegyne III. Bt toxin
(a) Retrovirus (b) Ti plasmid incognitia
(c) pBR 322 (d)  phage D. Agrobacterium IV. Vector
127. During the purification process for recombinant tumefaciens
DNA technology, addition of chilled ethanol (a) A-II; B-I; C-IV; D-III
precipitates out :
(b) A-II; B-I; C-III; D-IV
(a) Polysaccharides (b) RNA
(c) A-II; B-III; C-I; D-IV
(c) DNA (d) Histones
128. Match column I with column II and select the (d) A-IV; B-I; C-II; D-III
correct 134. In tissue culture experiments, leaf mesophyll cells
Column I Column II are put in a culture medium to form callus. This
R
A. amp gene I. Artificial plasmid phenomenon may be called as
B. Separation of II. Selectable marker (a) Differentiation (b) Dedifferentiation
DNA fragments (c) Development (d) Senescence
C. HindIII III. Electrophoresis 135. Which of the following is responsible for
D. pBR322 IV. Heomophilius synthesis of enzyme in seed germination ?
influenzae (a) IAA (b) Gibberellin
(a) A-III; B-II; C-I; D-IV (c) Cytokinin (d) Ethylene
(b) A-IV; B-I; C-III; D-II
(SECTION - B)
(c) A-II; B-III; C-IV; D-I
(d) A-II; B-IV; C-I; D-III 136. Which one of the following population
129. The number of substrate level phosphorylations interactions is widely used in medical science
in one turn of citric acid cycle is for the production of antibiotics ?
(a) One (b) Two (a) Commensalism (b) Mutualism
(c) Three (d) Zero (c) Amensalism (d) Parasitism
130. In Kreb’s cycle, the conversion of succinyl CoA 137. If ‘8’ Drosophila in a laboratory population of
to succinic acid requires: ‘80’ died during a week, the death rate in the
(a) Acetyl CoA+GDP+iP population of individuals per Drosophila per
(b) CoA+GTP+iP week.
(c) Acetyl CoA+GTP+iP (a) 10 (b) 1.0
(d) GDP +iP (c) zero (d) 0.1
138. Which of the following ecosystems is most 144. During replication of a bacterial chromosome
productive in terms of net primary production ? DNA synthesis starts from a origin of replication
(a) Deserts (b) Tropical rain forests site and :
(c) Oceans (d) Estuaries (a) RNA primers are involved.
139. Which one of the following process help the (b) is facilitated by telomerase
water soluble inorganic nutrients go down into (c) moves in one direction of the site
the soil horizon and get precipitated as (d) moves in bi-directional way
unavailable salts ? 145. The following events occur during the process
(a) Fragmentation (b) Leaching of meiosis. Arrange the following events of
(c) Catabolism (d) Humification meiosis in the correct sequence.
140. Mark the correct statement I. Terminalization II. Crossing over
(a) Amazon rain forest has greatest biodiversity III. Synapsis IV. Disjunction of
on earth. genomes
(b) According to Robert May estimates, the (a) I, II, III, IV (b) II, III, IV, I
global species diversity is 7 million. (c) III, II, I, IV (d) IV, I, II, III
(c) Biodiversity is greatest in tropics. 146. Which of the following statement is wrong
(d) All of the above regarding chitin ?
141. Which of the following characteristics would (a) It is a storage polysaccharide
cause a country to be considered a high-priority (b) it is a complex polysaccharide
region for conservation efforts ? (c) It is a constiuent of arthropods and fungal
(a) A high degree of endemism cell wall
(b) Having low species richness (d) They have amino-sugars
(c) Having little natural habitat remaining 147. Synthesis of lipids & carbohydrates is regulated
by
(d) All of the above
(a) SER (b) RER
142. The historic convention on Biological Diversity
held in Rio de Janeiro in 1992 is known as (c) Riboomes (d) Lysosomes
(a) CITES Convention (b) The Earth Summit 148. Ustillago causes plant disease known as
(c) G-16 Summit (d) MAB Programme (a) rust
143. Match column-I with column II and choose the (b) Bovine spongiform encephalopathy
correct option. (c) Cr-Jacob disease
Column I Column II (d) Black smut
A. Nile Perch in I. Obvious reasons 149. Which of the following organisms are known as
chief producers in the oceans ?
Lake Victoria for biodiversity
(a) Dinoflagellates
conservation
(b) Diatoms
B. Narrowly utilitarian II Habitat
(c) Euglenoids
destruction
(d) Cyanobacteria
C. Main cause for III. High endemism
150. Mosses are of great ecological importance
biodiversity loss
because of
D. Hotspots IV. Alien species (a) its contribution to prevent soil erosion
(a) A-II; B-I; C-IV; D-III (b) its contribution in ecological succession
(b) A-IV; B-I; C-II; D-III (c) its capability to remove CO from the
(c) A-I; B-III; C-II; D-IV atmosphere.
(d) A-II; B-I; C-III; D-IV (d) both(a) and (b)
ZOOLOGY (c) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct

(SECTION - A) (d) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
156. The tendency of the body to manifest a
151. Which of the following conditions cause
characteristic and unpleasant withdrawal
erythroblastosis fetalis ?
syndrome if regular dose of drugs/ alcohol is
(a) Both mother and foetus Rh+ve
abruptly discontinued is called :
(b) Mother Rh+ve and foetus Rh-ve
(c) Mother Rh-ve and foetus Rh+ve (a) Syncope (b) Dependence
(d) Both mother and foetus Rh–ve (c) Seizure (d) Hallucinogen
152. The phenomenon of evolution of different species 157. Which of the following protects non-infected
in a given geographical area starting from a point cells from further viral infection?
and spreading to other habitats is called (a) E-cadherin (b) Interferon
(a) Adaptive radiation (b) Saltation
(c) Interleukin (d) Transferrin
(c) Co-evolution (d) Natural selection
153. The yellowish fluid “colostrum” secreted by 158. The figure shows an axon terminal and synapse.
mammary glands of mother during the initial days Select the option giving correct identifications of
of lactation have abundant antibodies (IgA) to labels A-D.
protect the infant. This type of immunity is called
as
(a) Autoimmunity
(b) Passive immunity
(c) Active immunity
(d) Acquired immunity
154. Match List-I with List-II, and choose the correct (a) A-Action potential (b) N-Neurotrans-
option among the following. C-Neurotransmitter mitter D-Receptor
List-I List-I capsules
1. Serum i. Heart stops
(c) A-Receptor (d) A-Axon terminal
beating
2. Lymph ii. Plasma without C-Synaptic B-Serotonin
clotting factor vesicles complex
3. Cardiac iii. Heart is not 159. NaCl is returned to the interstitium by the
arrest pumping blood (a) Ascending portion of vasa recta
effectively (b) Descending portion of vasa recta
4. Heart failure iv. Blood-RBCs
(c) Ascending portion of Henle’s loop
and some proteins
(d) Descending limb of Henle’s loop
(a) 1-iv, 2-ii, 3-i, 4-iii
(b) 1-ii, 2-iv, 3-i, 4-iii 160. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct
(c) 1-ii, 2-iv, 3-iii, 4-i option among the following :
(d) 1-iv, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-i List I List II
155. Assertion (A): In England, during post- (a) Typhoid (I) Protozoan
industrialisation period, the tree trunks became (b) Elephantiasis (II) Salmonella
dark due to industrial smoke and soots.
(c) Ringworm (III) Aschelminthes
Reason (R): Under this condition the white-
winged moth or melanised moth did not survive (d) Malaria (IV)Microsporum
due to predators. Choose the correct answer from the options
In the light of above statements, choose the most given below :
appropriate answer from the options given below: (a) A-(II), B-(III), C-(IV), D-(I)
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
(b) A-(II), B-(IV), C-(III), D-(I)
correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not (c) A-(I), B-(IV), C-(III), D-(II)
the correct explanation of (A) (d) A-(I), B-(III), C-(IV), D-(II)
161. Match List-I with List-II 164. Match List-I with List-II
List I List-II List I List II
(A) Eosinophils (I) 6-8% (a) Multipolar (i) Somatic neural
(B) Lymphocytes (II) 2-3% neuron system
(C) Neutrophils (III) 20-25% (b) Bipolar neuron (ii) Cerebral cortex
(c) Myelinated Nerve (iii) Retina of Eye
(D) Monocytes (IV) 60-65%
fibre
Choose the correct answer from options given
(d) Unmyelinated (iv) Spinal nerves
below:
Nerve fibre
(a) A-(II), B-(III), C-(IV), D-(I)
Choose the correct answer from the options
(b) A-(II), B-(III), C-(I), D-(IV) given below:
(c) A-(IV), B-(I), C-(II), D-(III) (a) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
(d) A-(IV), B-(I), C-(III), D-(II) (b) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
162. Arrange the sequence of different hormones for (c) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
their role during gametogenesis. (d) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
(A) Gonadotropin LH stimulates synthesis and 165. Coca alkaloid has a potent stimulating action on
secretion of androgen. (a) Cardiovascular system
(B) Gonadotropin releasing hormone from (b) Central nervous system
hypothalamus. (c) Gastrointestinal system
(C) Androgen stimulates spermatogenesis. (d) Renal system
(D) Gonadotropin FSH helps in the process of 166. Match List-I with List-II
spermiogenesis. List I List II
(E) Gonadotropins from anterior pituitary gland. 1. Juxtaglomerular i. Interstitial cells
Choose the correct answer from the options cells
given below: 2. Pancreas ii. Master gland
(a) (B), (E), (A), (C), (D) 3. Leydig cells iii. Composite gland
(b) (D), (B), (A), (C), (E) 4. Pituitary gland iv. Erythropoietin
(c) (E), (A), (D), (B), (C) (a) 1-iv, 2-iii, 3-i, 4-ii (b) 1-iv, 2-ii, 3-i, 4-iii
(d) (C), (A), (D), (E),(B) (c) 1-i, 2-iii, 3-iv, 4-ii (d) 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iv, 4-iii
167. Metameric segmentations are found in
163. Match List-I with List-II regarding the organs
of Cockroach : (a) Annelida, Arthropoda, and Chordata
(b) Annelida, Arthropoda, and Mollusca
List I List II
(c) Platyhelminthes, Hemichordata and
(a) Crop (i) grinding the
Chordata
food particles (d) Annelida, Arthropoda and Hemichordata
(b) Proventriculus (ii) secretion of 168. Select the correct statements from the following:
digestive juice A. Platyhelminthes have dorso-ventrally
(c) Hepatic caecae (iii) removal of flattened body, hence are called
nitrogeneous roundworms.
waste B. Platyhelminthes are mostly endoparasites
found in animals including human beings.
(d) Malpighian (iv) storage of food
C. In platyhelminthes, development is direct.
D. In platyhelminthes, neural system consists
given below :
of paired ganglia.
(a) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii) Choose the correct answer from the options
(b) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv) given below:
(c) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii) (a) B only (b) A, C only
(d) (a)-(i), (b)-(iv),(c)-(iii), (d)-(ii) (c) C, D only (d) B, C only
169. Hormones produce their effects on target tissues D. With the help of several ommatidia, a
by binding to specific proteins called cockroach can receive several images of
(a) Enzyme receptors an object.
(b) Hormone receptors Choose the correct answer from the options
given below:
(c) Cytokinin
(a) A, B, C (b) A, B, D
(d) Cytochromes
(c) B, C (d) C
170. Read the following statements and choose the
174. Select the correct statements from the following:
incorrect option.
A. Frogs have a lymphatic system also.
(a) Hormone receptors located in the target
tissues only. B. In frog, kidney is situated a little anteriorly
in the body cavity on both sides of vertebral
(b) Cumulative biochemical actions result in
column.
physiological and developmental effects.
C. In frog, air enters through the nostrils into
(c) Thyroid hormones are steroids in nature.
the buccal cavity and then to lungs.
(d) Hormones which interact with intracellular D. Frogs respire on land and in the water by
receptors mostly regulate gene expression two different methods.
or chromosome function by the interaction
of hormone-receptor complex with the
given below:
genome.
(a) A, C, D only (b) B, C, D only
171. Wuchereria, Pheretima and Planaria are the
members of (c) A, B, C only (d) A, B, D only
175. In the alveoli, which of the following factors
(a) Aschelminthes, Platyhelminthes and
ar e favour able for the formation of
Annelids respectively
oxyhaemoglobin ?
(b) Platyhelminthes, Aschelminthes, and
1. High pO2
Annelids respectively
2. High pCO2
(c) Aschelminthes, Annelids, and Platyhelminthes
respectively 3. Low pCO2
4. Lesser H+ concentration
(d) Platyhelminthes, Annelids, and Aschelminthes
respectively 5. High H+ concentration 6. Higher temperature
7. Lower temperature 8. Low pH
172. Match the following columns and choose the
correct option. (a) 1,3, 4 and 7 (b) 1,2, 5 and 8
Column I Column II (c) 1, 3, 5, 7 and 8 (d) 1, 2, 4, 6 and 8
176. Match the following columns and choose the
1. Flatworm a. Paired ganglia
correct option:
2. Round worm b. Pseudocoelomates
Column I Column II
3. Earthwrom c. Bioluminescence
1. Occupational a. Proliferation of
4. Sea walnuts d. Flame cells
Respiratory fibrous tissues
(a) 1-d, 2-b, 3-a, 4-c (b) 1-b, 2-d, 3-a, 4-c
Disorders
(c) 1-d, 2-a, 3-b, 4-c (d) 1-c, 2-b, 3-a, 4-d
2. Asthma b. Alveolar walls
173. Select the correct statements from the following: are damaged
A. The development of P. americana is 3. Emphysema c. Grinding or stone
paurometabolous, meaning there is
breaking industries
development through nymphal stage.
4. Fibrosis d. Inflammation of
B. Ootheca are dropped or glued to a suitable
surface, usually in a crack or crevice of high bronchi and
relative humidity near a food source. bronchioles
C. Male gonapophyses or phallomere (a) 1-c, 2-b, 3-d, 4-a (b) 1-b, 2-c, 3-a, 4-d
surrounds the female gonopore. (c) 1-c, 2-d, 3-b, 4-a (d) 1-b, 2-c, 3-d, 4-a
177. Read the following statements and choose the 182. Given below are, two statements.
incorrect option. Statement I: Insulin promotes conversion of
(a) Cyclic menstruation extends between glucose to glycogen.
menarche and menopause. Statement II :Insulin is secreted by -(alpha)
(b) In the presence of fertilisation, the corpus cells of islets of langerhans of pancreas.
luteum degenerates In the light of the above statements, choose the
(c) Degeneration of corpus luteum causes correct answer from the options given below.
disintegration of the endometrium leading to (a) Statement I is incorrect, but statement II is
menstruation, marking a new cycle. correct
(d) The reproductive cycle in the female (b) Both statement I and statement II are
primates (e.g., monkeys, apes and human correct
beings) is called menstrual cycle. (c) Both statement I and statement II are
178. Read the following statements and choose the incorrect
incorrect option. (d) Statement I is correct, but statement II is
(a) The morula continues to divide and incorrect
transforms into blastocyst as it moves further 183. Given below are two statements; one is labelled
into the uterus. as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
(b) Implantation cleads to pregnancy. Reason (R).
Assertion (A) Spermicides are effective when
(c) The second meiotic division in secondary
used along with condom or diaphragm.
oocyte is unequal.
Reason (R) They have low contraception
(d) The first meiotic division in primary oocyte
efficiency if used on their own.
is equal.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
179. Which of the following organisms has been
correct answer form the options given below.
commercially utilised as blood cholesterol
(a) A is false, but R is true
lowering agent?
(b) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(a) Clostridium butylicum
explanation of A
(b) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
(c) Both A and R are true, but R is not the
(c) Monascus purpureus correct explanation of A
(d) Pseudomonas putida (d) A is true, but R is false
180. Darwinism explain all the following, except that 184. Given below are two statements; one is labelled
(a) within each species, there are variations Assertion (A) and the other is labelled Reason
(R).
(b) organism tend to produce more number of
offspring that can survive Assertion (A) The length of Henle’s loop is
proportional to the concentration of urine.
(c) offspring with better traits that over come
Reason (R) The length of Henle’s loop is
competition are best suited for the
inversely proportional to the concentration of
environment:
urine.
(d) variations are inherited from parents to
In the light of the above statement, choose the
offspring through genes
correct answer from the options given below.
181. The corpus callosum is a
(a) A is false, but R is true
(a) source of hypothalamic hormones (b) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(b) neural pathway that connects the right and explanation of A
left hemispheres (c) Both A and R are true, but R is not the
(c) part of the neocortex correct explanation of A
(d) structure in the cerebellum (d) A is true, but R is false
185. Match List I and List II 189. Given below are two statements; one is labelled
List List II as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R).
A. pO2 of alveoli 1. 159 mm Hg
Assertion (A) Cilia facilitates the passage of
B. pO2 of atmospheric 2. 40 mm Hg ova through the female reproductive tract.
air Reason (R) Ciliary movement helps us in
C. pO2 of blood 3. 95 mm Hg removing waste substances inhaled.
(dexygenated) In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer form the options given below.
D. pO2 of blood 4. 104 mm Hg (a) A is false, but R is true
(oxygenated) (b) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
Choose the correct answer from the options explanation of A
given below. (c) Both A and R are true, but R is not the
A B C D A B C D correct explanation of A
(d) A is true, but R is false
(a) 4 2 1 3 (b) 1 2 3 4 190. Find the odd one out in the given list.
(c) 4 1 3 2 (d) 4 1 2 3 I. Multiload 375 II. LNG-20
III. Lippes loop IV. Cervical cap
SECTION - B
V. Progestasert
186. Identify the incorrect statement. Choose the correct option.
(a) In Arthropoda, jointed appendages help in (a) Only V (b) Only IV
locomotion (c) IV and V (d) III, IV and V
(b) Radula for feeding are present in mollusca 191. Read the following statements carefully and
identify the correct statements.
(c) Water vascular system is present in
I. Whales, bats, cheetah share similarities in
Echinodermata
the pattern of bones of forelimbs.
(d) Roundworm is an example of II. Analogous structures are a result of
Platyhelminthes divergent evolution.
187. Immunity is a state of protection from foreign III. Karl Ernst von Baer noted that embryos
molecules. It is of two types, i.e. innate and never pass through the adult stages of other
adaptive immunity. Specificity, diversity, memory animals
are characteristics of IV. Homology indicates common ancestry.
(a) innate immunity V. Sweet potato and potato is an example of
homology.
(b) non-specific immunity Choose the correct answer from the options
(c) acquired immunity given below.
(d) external defence (a) I, II and IV (b) I, II and V
188. Given below are two statements; one is labelled (c) I, II, IV and V (d) I, III and IV
as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled Reason 192. Read the following statements.
(R). I. Expiration occurs due to external intercostal
muscles.
Assertion (A) During inspiration abdominal II. intrapulmonary pressure is higher than the
muscles relax and the diaphragm is contracted. atmospheric pressure during inspiration.
Reason (R) External intercostal muscles III. Inspiration occurs when atmospheric
contract to move ribs in upward and outward pressure is less than intrapulmonary
direction. pressure.
In the light of the above statements, choose the IV. Expiration is initiated due to contraction of
correct answer form the options given below. diaphragm.
(a) A is false, but R is true V. To increase the strength of inspiration,
abdominal muscle relax, allowing further
(b) Both A and R are true and R is the correct compression of abdominal organs by
explanation of A diaphragm.
(c) Both A and R are true, but R is not the Which of the above statements is /are correct?
correct explanation of A (a) I, II and III (b) V only
(d) A is true, but R is false (c) II and III (d) I, IV and V
193. Which of the following correctly defines In the light of the above statements, choose the
amphibian heart? correct answer from the options given below.
(a) Two auricles and one ventricle (a) Statement I is incorrect, but statement II is
(b) Two auricles and two ventricles correct
(c) One auricle and two ventricles
(b) Both statement I and statement II are
(d) One auricle and one ventricle. correct
194. A women with blood group ‘A’ marries a man
(c) Both statement I and statement II are
with, blood group ‘B’. The possibility of blood
incorrect
group AB in their children will be
(a) 0% (b) 50% (d) Statement I is correct, but statement II is
(c) 75% (d) 25% incorrect
195. Match List I and List II 198. Which statement is correct about passive
List I List II immunity?
A. Trichoderma 1. Citric acid (a) Acquired through first exposure to the
Polysporum disease
B. Aspergillus niger 2. Ethanol (b) Achieved directly through readymade
C. Clostridium 3. Cyclosporin-A antibodies
butylicium (c) Inherited from parents
D. Yeast 4. Butyric acid (d) Achieved through vaccination
199. Which of the following pairs are incorrectly
given below:
matched ?
A B C D A B C D
(a) Corpus luteum - Progesterone
(a) 3 1 4 2 (b) 1 2 3 4
(c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 2 4 1 3 (b) Morula - Transforms into blastocyst
(c) Ovum - Acrosomal reaction
196. 
x
CO2  H 2O  H 2 CO3
Carbon Carbonic acid (d) Colostrum - Mammary gland
dioxid
200. Match List I with List II
The above reaction is successfully accomplished
by the presence of enzyme ‘X’. Identify X. List I List II
(a) Carbonic hydrolase A. Grave’s disease 1. -cells(pancreas)
(b) Carbonic anhydrase B. Irregular menstrual 2. Hypothyroidism
(c) Lyases cycle
(d) Transferases
C. Type 1 diabetes 3. Thyroid cells
197. Given below are two statements.
mellitus
Statement I The opening between the right
atrium and right ventricle is guarded by a valve D. Addison’s disease 4. Adrenal cortex
formed of two muscular flaps/cusps, the bicuspid Choose the correct answer from the options
valve. given below:
Statement II The valves in the heart allow the
A B C D A B C D
flow of blood only in one direction, i.e. from the
atria to the ventricles and from the ventricles to (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 3 2 1 4
the pulmonary artery or aorta. (c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 2 1 4 3


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