Three Yr CRP427RWFour Yr CRP327RW - PT 15 - 22 6 24 - MATSAT

Three Yr CRP427(R&W) & Four Yr CRP327(R&W)_PT-1&5_MAT & SAT-1
FIITJEE INTERNAL TEST

BATCHES: Three Yr CRP427(R&W) & Four Yr
CRP327(R&W)_PT-1&5
PHASE TEST – 1 & 5
(MAT & SAT)
QP CODE: 100691
Time: 3 hours 20 Minutes Maximum Marks: 200
Please read the instructions carefully.
INSTRUCTIONS
A: General :
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue/Black Ball point pen.
2. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on Side-1 and Side-2 of the Answer Sheet.
Use of pencil is strictly prohibited.
3. Darken the appropriate bubbles with HB Pencil only.
4. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers and electronic gadgets
in any form are not allowed.
5. The answer sheet, a machine-gradable Objective Response Sheet (ORS) is provided separately.
6. Do not Tamper/mutilate the ORS or this booklet.
7. No additional sheets will be provided for rough work
8. On completion of this test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the
Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
B: Questions paper format and Marking Scheme:
1. This paper contains two parts:

Part I: Section – I (MAT) Q.1 – 100 questions
Part II: SAT: 100 questions
Section – II (Physics) Q.1 – Q.13, Section – III (Chemistry) Q.1 – Q. 13, Section – IV (Biology) Q. 1 –
Q.14, Section – V (Mathematics) Q. 1 – Q. 20 & Section – VI (Social Science) Q. 1 – Q. 40.
2. For each question you will be awarded +1 mark if you darken the bubble corresponding to the correct
answer and zero mark if no bubbles is darkened. There will be no Negative marking.
Enrollment No. : Batch :
Name :
Candidate’s Signature Invigilator’s Signature:
FIITJEE Ltd., Punjabi Bagh Centre, 31-32-33, Central Market, West Avenue Road, Punjabi Bagh (West), New Delhi - 110026, Ph: 011-45634000
Part – I (MAT)
SECTION – I
(1 – 100)
Directions (Questions 1 – 3): Select the combination of numbers so that letters arranged
accordingly will form a meaningful word.
1. TAEWR
12 3 4 5
(A) 5 2 1 3 4 (B) 3 1 5 2 4
(C) 2 4 1 3 5 (D) 4 2 1 3 5
2. YPPHA
12 3 45
(A) 4 5 2 3 1 (B) 2 1 5 3 4
(C) 4 1 2 3 5 (D) 3 5 2 1 4
3. URBN EM
1 2 34 5 6
(A) 6 4 3 5 1 2 (B) 4 1 6 3 5 2
(C) 5 3 1 2 4 6 (D) 3 5 1 2 4 6
Directions (Questions 4 – 5): In each of the following questions, arrange the given words in the
sequence in which they occur in the dictionary and then choose the correct sequence.
4. 1. Protein 2. Problem 3. Proverb 4. Property 5. Project

(A) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 (B) 2, 1, 4, 3, 5
(C) 2, 5, 4, 1, 3 (D) 3, 4, 5, 2, 1
5. 1. Pestle 2. Pestilence 3. Pester 4. Pest 5. Pessimist

(A) 5, 4, 3, 2, 1 (B) 4, 3, 1, 5, 2
(C) 3, 4, 2, 5, 1 (D) 4, 5, 1, 2, 3
Directions (Questions 6 – 7): In each of the following questions, a word has been given, followed
by four other words, one of which cannot be formed by using the letters of the given word. Find that
word.
6. CONSTRUCTION
(A) SUCTION (B) COINS (C) CAUTION (D) NOTION
7. INTELLIGENCE
(A) TILLAGE (B) INCITE (C) GENTLE (D) NEGLECT
Space For Rough Work
8. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ENTHUSIASTIC each of which has as
many letters between them in the word as there are between them in the English alphabet?
(A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 4 (D) More than 4
9. How many pairs of letters are there in the word ‘SPONTANEOUS’ which have number of
letters between them in the word one less than the number of letters between them in
English alphabet.
(A) 5 (B) 1
(C) 4 (D) 2
10. If it is possible to make a meaningful word from the second, the third, the fourth, the fifth and
the eight letters of the word MANGROVES, the first letter of the word is your answer, if more
than one such word can be formed, your answer is X and if no such word can be formed,
your answer is Z.
(A) A (B) R
(C) Z (D) X
11. This question is based on the following alphabet series:

ABCDEFGHIJKLMNOPQRSTUVWXYZ
If the letters of the given alphabet interchange positions, so that A takes the place of Z and Z
takes the place of A; B takes the place of Y and Y takes the place of B and so on, what will
be the thirteenth letter from the right?
(A) M (B) N
(C) O (D) L
12. How many B’s are there in the following alphabet series each of which is immediately
followed by D but not immediately preceded by A?
ABCDBDEFBDADBDCABZABDBDN
(A) Six (B) Four
(C) Three (D) Five
13. A man walks 1 km towards East and then he turns to South and walks 5 km. Again he turns
to East and walks 2km, after this he turns to North and walks 9km. Now, how far is he from
his starting point :
(A) 3 km (B) 4 km
(C) 5 km (D) 7 km
14. P, Q, R and S are playing a game of carrom. P, R and S, Q are partners. S is to the right of
R who is facing west. Then, Q is facing :
(A) North (B) South
(C) East (D) West
15. Going 50 m to the South of her house, Radhika turns left and goes another 20 m. Then,
turning to the North, she goes 30 m and then starts walking to her house. In which direction
is she walking now :
(A) North-west (B) North (C) South-east (D) East
16. K is a place which is located 2 km away in the North – West direction from the capital P, R is
another place and is located 2 km away in the South – West direction from K. M is another
place and that is located 2 km away in the North – West direction from R. T is yet another
place that is located 2 km away in the South – West direction from M. In which direction is T
located in relation to P?
(A) South – West (B) North – West
(C) West (D) North
17. Shekhar facing North and moves 20 km, then he turned to his right and moves 20 km and
then he moves 10 km in North – East, then he turned to his right and moves 20 km and then
he turned to his right and moves 20 km, and again he turned to his left and moves 20 km.
now in which direction he is facing?
(A) South – East (B) North – East
(C) South – West (D) North – West
18. Aditya moves to his North – West side for 2 km. From there he turned 90o clockwise and
moved 2 km. From there he turned 90o clockwise and travelled 2 km then he would be in
which direction from the original position?
(A) South East region (B) North East region
(C) South West region (D) Western region
19. P and Q are two friends separated by a distance of 20 meter. They starts walking away from
each other and after travelling 5 meter each they turn right and left respectively and walks 10
meter more. Now they turn to their left and walk 10 meter more. Find the distance between P
and Q now?
(A) 20 m (B) 30 m (C) 40 m (D) 45 m
20. One morning after sunrise, Vimal started to walk. During this walking he met Stephen who
was coming from opposite direction. Vimal watch that the shadow of Stephen to the right of
him (Vimal). To Which direction Vimal was facing?
(A) East (B) West
(C) South (D) Data inadequate
21. One evening before sunset Rekha and Hema were talking to each other face to face. If
Hema's shadow was exactly to the right of Hema, which direction was Rekha facing?
(A) North (B) South
(C) East (D) Data is inadequate
22. Laxman travels 7km towards south and then 5km towards his left. He further travels 5km
towards south. How far is he from the starting point?
(A) 13km (B) 9km
(C) 146km (D) 119km
23. Village Chimur is 20 km to the North of village Rewa. Village Rahate is 18 km to the East of
village Rewa. Village Angne is 12 km to the West of Chimur. If Sanjay starts from village
Rehate and goes to village Angne, in which direction is he from his starting point?
(A) North (B) North-West (C) South (D) South-East
Directions (Questions 24 – 28): In these questions, relationship between different elements is

shown in the statements. These statements are followed by two conclusions. Give answer.
(A) If only conclusion I follows.
(B) If only conclusion II follows.
(C) If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
(D) If both conclusion I and II follows.
24. Statements: A ≤ D < C ≥ B < E

Conclusion:
I. C > A
II. A ≥ C
25. Statements: P > L ≤ M < N > Q

Conclusion:
I. P > Q
II. Q > M
26. Statement: S ≥ T = U < V ≥ X

Conclusions:
I. V > S
II. V > T
27. Statement: M ≤ N > O ≥ P = Q

Conclusions:
I. M ≥ O
II. Q < M
28. Statement: U ≤ V < W =X < Y

Conclusions:
I. Y > V
II. W > U
Directions (Questions 29 – 31): Read the statements carefully and answer the following questions.
29 In which of the following expressions will the expression ‘H < J’ be definitely true?
(A) G < H ≥ I = J (B) H > G ≥ I = J
(C) J = I ≥ G > H (D) H ≥ G > I < J
30 Which of the following expressions will be true if the expression ‘K ≥ L > M ≥ N’ is definitely
true?
(A) N ≤ K (B) K = M
(C) K < N (D) None is true
31. Which of the following expressions will be true if the expression ‘M ≥ K < T = Q’ is definitely
true?
(A) Q < K (B) M ≥ T
(C) K < Q (D) T = M
Directions (Questions 32 – 33): In each question, four statements showing relationship have been
given, which are followed by three conclusions I, II and III. Assuming that the given statements are
true, find out which conclusion(s) is/are definitely true.
32. Statements: F ≥ M, M > A, R < A, E > R

Conclusions: I. M > E
II. F ≥ E
III. F < A
(A) Only I follows (B) Only I & II follow
(C) Only II and III follow (D) none follows
33. Statements: A ≥ B, M > B, D < M, F = D

Conclusions: I. B > D
II. B < A
III. M > F
(A) All follow (B) Only I & II follow
(C) Only II and III follow (D) Only III follows
Directions (Questions 34 – 37): In the following questions, the symbols @, #, $, %, * are used with
the following meanings as illustrated below:
A @ B means A is not greater than B.
A # B means A is greater than or equal to B.
A $ B means A is neither greater than nor less than B.
A % B means A is less than B.
A * B means A is neither less than nor equal to B.
Now, in each of the following questions, assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the
three conclusions I, II and III given below them is / are definitely true.
34. Statements: K @ L, L % N, E # N
Conclusions: I. K % E II. E * L III. N * K
(A) Only I and II are true (B) Only II and III are true
(C) Only I and III are true (D) All are true
35. Statements: D $ T, T * P, M @ P
Conclusions: I. D * M II. M % T III. D # P
(A) Only I is true (B) Only I and II are true
(C) All are true (D) Only I and III are true
36. Statements: T # R, R % L, L * K
Conclusions: I. T % L II. K * R III. T # K
(A) Only I is true (B) Only I and II are true
(C) All are true (D) None of these
37. Statements: N % S, S # U, U * M
Conclusions: I. M % S II. N % U III. N * M
(A) Only I is true (B) Only II is true
(C) All are true (D) Only II and III are true
38. If ‘rain’ is ‘water’, ‘water’ is ‘road’, ‘road’ is ‘cloud’, ‘cloud’ is ‘sky’, ‘sky’ is ‘sea’ and ‘sea’ is
‘path’, where do aeroplanes fly?
(A) Road (B) Sea
(C) Cloud (D) Water
39. If ‘water’ is called ‘food’, ‘food’ is called ‘tree’ , ‘tree’ is called ‘sky’, ‘sky’ is called ‘wall’, on
which of the following grows a fruit?
(A) Water (B) Food
(C) Sky (D) Tree
40. In a certain code, RAIN is written 8$%6 and MORE is written as 7#8@. How would REMAIN
be written in that code?
(A) 8@7$86 (B) 8@$7%6
(C) 8@7$%6 (D) 8%76$@
41. In a certain code, ROAD is written is URDG. How is SWAN written in that code?
(A) VXDQ (B) VZDQ (C) VZCP (D) UXDQ
42. In a certain code, BASIC is written as DDULE. How is LEADER written in that code?
(A) NGCFGT (B) NHCGGU (C) OGDFHT (D) OHDGHU
43. In a certain code language, THANKS is written as SKNTHA. How is STUPID written in that
code language?
(A) DIPUTS (B) DISPUT (C) DIPUST (D) DIPSTU
44. If in a certain language ‘MIRACLE’ is coded as ‘NKUEHRL’, then how ‘GAMBLE’ codes in
that same language?
(A) JDOCMF (B) CLEMNK
(C) HCPFQK (D) AELGMN
45. If ‘ZEBRA’ is written as ‘2652181’, then how can ‘COBRA’ be written?

(A) 302181 (B) 3152181
(C) 31822151 (D) 1182153
Directions (Questions 46 – 48): In each of the questions below, a group of numerals is given
followed by four groups of symbol / letter combinations labelled (A), (B), (C) and (D). Numerals are
to be coded as per the codes and conditions given below. You have to find out which of the
combinations (A), (B), (C) and (D) is correct and indicate your answer accordingly.
Numerals 3 5 7 4 2 6 8 1 0 9
Letters/ Symbol code * B E A @ F K % R M
Following conditions apply:

(i) In the first digit as well as the last digit is odd, both are to be coded as ‘X’.
(ii) If the first digit as well as the last digit is even, both are to be codes as ‘$’.
(iii) If the last digit is 0, it is to be coded as ‘#’.
46. 546839
(A) XAFK*M (B) BAFK*M
(C) XAFK*X (D) BAFK*K
47. 713540
(A) E%*BA# (B) X%*BA#
(C) X%*BAR (D) E%*BAR
48. 765082
(A) XFBRK@ (B) EFB#K@
(C) EFBR#K (D) EFBRK@
49. In a certain code language, ‘123’ means ‘Green is Red’, ‘24’ means ‘Red colour’, and ‘326’
means ‘Green and Red’, then what is the code for ‘Colour is Green’?
(A) 146 (B) 632
(C) 134 (D) 462
50. If tree means mountain, mountain means water, water means jungle, jungle means bus, bus
means truck and truck means house, then where do the fish live?
(A) water (B) jungle
(C) mountain (D) bus
51. In a certain code language, the word AMASSED is written as JUHYXIG. How will the word
KNOBBLY be written in that language?
(A) TVVHGPB (B) SUTGFOA (C) TTUVPQC (D) TVUHHOB
52. If in any code language NATIONAL is written as MZGRLMZO than how is JAIPUR written in
that language?
(A) QZRKFI (B) PZRKFI (C) QZRIFK (D) QARKFI
Directions (Questions 53 – 57) : Read and following information carefully and answer the
questions given below it:
In a family, there are six members A, B, C, D, E and F. A and B are a married couple, A, being the
male member. D is the only son of C, who is the brother of A. E is the sister of D. B is the
daughter – in – law of F, whose husband has dies.
53. How is F related to A?

(A) Mother (B) Sister – in – law
(C) Sister (D) Mother – in – law
54. How is E related to C?

(A) Sister (B) Daughter
(C) Cousin (D) Aunt
55. Who is C to B?
(A) Brother (B) Brother – in – law
(C) Nephew (D) Son – in – law
56. How many male members are there in the family?

(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4
57. How is F related to C?

(A) Mother – in – law (B) Sister – in – law
(C) Mother (D) Aunt
58. A, B and C are sisters. D is the brother of E and E is the daughter of B. How is A related to
D?
(A) Sister (B) Cousin
(C) Niece (D) Aunt
59. A and B are married couple. X and Y are brothers. X is the brother of A. How is Y related to
B?
(A) Brother in law (B) Brother
(C) Cousin (D) None of these
60. Deepak has a brother Anil. Deepak is the son of Prem. Bimals is Prem’s father. In terms of
relationship, what is Anil of Bimal?
(A) Son (B) Grandson
(C) Brother (D) Grandfather
Directions (Questions 61 – 64): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions
given below:
A, B, D, F, G, H and K are seven members of a family. They belong to three generations. There are
two married couples belonging to two different generations. D is son of H and is married to K. F is
granddaughter of B and daughter of K. G’s father is grandfather of A. B’s husband is father in law of
K. H has only one son.
61. How is F related to G?

(A) Son (B) Nephew (C) Niece (D) None of these
62. How is H related to B?

(A) Father (B) Father-in-law (C) Uncle (D) Husband
63. Which of the following is the pair of married ladies?

(A) BK (B) HD (C) KF (D) HK
64. How many female members are there among them?

(A) Two (B) Three (C) Four (D) Data Inadequate
65. Introducing a man, a woman said, “He is the only son of my mother’s mother.” How is the
woman related to the man?
(A) Mother (B) Aunt (C) Sister (D) Niece
66. On what date of October, 1975 did 3rd Tuesday fall :

(A) 17/10/75 (B) 18/10/75 (C) 21/10/75 (D) 23/10/75
67. My brother is 562 days older to me while my sister is 75 weeks older to him. If my sister was
born on Tuesday, on which day was I born :
(A) Sunday (B) Monday (C) Thursday (D) Tuesday
68. What was the day on 18th November 1633 :

(A) Thursday (B) Friday (C) Sunday (D) Monday
69. How many leap years are there from 1701 to 1900 (both are included) :
(A) 50 (B) 49 (C) 48 (D) None of these
70. The calendar for the year 1250 was the same as the year:
(A) 1256 (B) 1261 (C) 1262 (D) none of these
71. The calendar for the year 2005 is the same as for the year:
(A) 2010 (B) 2011
(C) 2032 (D) 2013
72. The last day of a century cannot be:

(A) Monday (B) Wednesday
(C) Friday (D) Tuesday
73. Find the day of the week on 17th July, 1776.

(A) Tuesday (B) Wednesday
(C) Monday (D) Thursday
74. The year next to 2000 having the same calendar as that or 2000:
(A) 2020 (B) 2040
(C) 2028 (D) 2012
75. Which year will have same calendar as 1984?

(A) 2020 (B) 2008
(C) 2012 (D) 2004
76 If 1st January 2012 is a Sunday, then which day of the week will the new year be celebrated
in 2016?
(A) Friday (B) Sunday
(C) Wednesday (D) Saturday
77. If 14th November 2006 is a Sunday, then 14th November 2706 is a

(A) Sunday (B) Friday
(C) Tuesday (D) Monday
78. If the first day of the years 2012 and 2023 are Mondays, which day of the week will the last
days of years be respectively?
(A) Tuesday, Thursday (B) Tuesday, Monday
(C) Monday, Tuesday (D) Sunday, Monday
79. Imagine that in a calendar year, there were 436 days and 9 days in a week, then how many
odd days will be there in that year?
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4
80. If you write down all the numbers from 1 to 100, then how many times do you write 3?
(A) 11 (B) 18 (C) 20 (D) 21
81. In a parking lot there are two types of vehicles, two wheelers and four wheelers. The total
number of the vehicles in the parking lot is 200. When the number of the wheels of all the
vehicles is counted it is counted to be 580. Find the total number of the four wheeler vehicles
in the parking lot?
(A) 110 (B) 90 (C) 100 (D) 180
82. A group of 1200 persons consisting of captains and soldiers is travelling in a train. For every
15 soldiers there is one captain. The number of captains in the group is
(A) 70 (B) 75 (C) 85 (D) 80
83. Mukesh left home for the bus stop 10 minutes earlier than usual. It takes 10 minutes to reach
the stop. He reached the stop at 1.45 a.m. What time does he usually leave home for the
bus stop ?
(A) 1.40 a.m. (B) 1.45 a.m. (C) 1.55 a.m. (D) 1.50 a.m.
84. A tortoise walks 1 km in 4h. He takes rest of 20 min after every kilometer. So, you have to
find out, how much time would be taken by tortoise to complete 3.5 km journey?
(A) 14h (B) 13h (C) 15h (D) 12h
85. Everybody in a room shakes hands with each other. The total number of handshakes is 66.
The total number of person in the room is
(A) 10 (B) 11
(C) 12 (D) 13
86. The average length of first 3 fingers is 3 inches and the average length of the other 2 fingers
i..e, thumb and the index finger is 2.8 inches. If the length of the index fingers is 3 inches
then the length of the thumb is:
(A) 2 inches (B) 2.6 inches
(C) 3 inches (D) none of these
87. The average rainfall in the months of January and February is 6 cm and in the months of
March to June is 5 cm and July to October is 10 cm and in the November and December, is
it 6 cm. The average rainfall for the whole year is:
(A) 7 (B) 5.5
(C) 7.5 (D) none of these
88. On an average 300 people watch the movie in PVR cinema hall on Monday, Tuesday and
Wednesday and the average number of visitors on Thursday, and Friday is 250. If the
average number of visitors per day in the week be 400, then the average number of people
who watch the movie in weekends (i..e, on Saturday and Sunday) is
(A) 500 (B) 600
(C) 700 (D) none of these
89. Sumit’s average expenditure for the January to June is Rs 4200 and he spends Rs 1200 in
January and Rs 1500 is July. The average expenditure for the months of February to July is:
(A) Rs 4250 (B) Rs 4520
(C) Rs 4060 (D) none of these
90. In the first 10 overs of a cricket game, the run rate was only 3.2. What should be the run rate
in the remaining 40 overs to reach the target of 282 runs?
(A) 6.25 (B) 6.5 (C) 6.75 (D) 7
91. The average weight of 8 person's increases by 2.5 kg when a new person comes in place of
one of them weighing 65 kg. What might be the weight of the new person?
(A) 76 kg (B) 76.5 kg (C) 85 kg (D) Data inadequate
92. The average weight of 16 boys in a class is 50.25 kg and that of the remaining 8 boys is
45.15 kg. Find the average weights of all the boys in the class.
(A) 47.45 kg (B) 48 kg (C) 48.55 kg (D) 49.25 kg
93. A certain number of man can do a piece of work in 40 days. If there had been 8 men more it
could have been finished in 5 days less. Find the number of men.
(A) 48 men (B) 56 men (C) 60 men (D) 72 men
94. A can finish a work in 18 days and B can do the same work in half the time taken by A. Then
working together what part of the same work they can finish in a day?
1 2
(A) (B)
6 5
1 2
(C) (D)
9 7
95. 2 men and 3 boys can do a piece of work in 10 days while 3 men and 2 boys can do the
same work in 8 days. In how many days can 2 men and 1 boys do the work?
(A) 8 days (B) 7 days
1
(C) 12 days (D) 2 days
2
96. Shekhar and Suman can do a work in 16 days and 28 days respectively. They start the work
together and Suman leaves after 7 days. In how many days can Shekhar do the remaining
work?
(A) 6 (B) 4
(C) 3 (D) 5
97. 42 women can do a piece of work in 18 days. How many women would be required do the
same work in 21 days?
(A) 36 (B) 24
(C) 30 (D) 44
98. Two taps A and B can fill a tank in 12 min and 15 min respectively. If both are opened and A
is closed after 3 min, then how long will it take for B to fill the rest of the tank?
(A) 7 min 45 sec (B) 7 min 15 sec
(C) 8 min 5 sec (D) 8 min 15 sec
99. A can do a piece of work in 20 days and B can do the same work in 30 days. They finished
the work with the help of C in 8 days. If they earned a total of Rs 5550, then what is the
share of C?
(A) Rs 1800 (B) Rs 1850
(C) Rs 1900 (D) Rs 1950
100. A cistern has two taps which fill it in 12 minutes and 15 minutes respectively. There is also a
waste pipe in the cistern. When all the three are opened. The empty cistern is full in 20
minutes. How long will the waste pipe take to empty the full cistern?
(A) 10 min (B) 20 min
(C) 15 min (D) 25 min
Part – II (SAT)
SECTION – II (Physics)
1. An object is placed symmetrically between the two plane mirrors inclined at an angle of 300,
then the total number of images formed is
(A) 12 (B) 2 (C) 11 (D) infinite
2. If the incident ray and the reflected ray from a mirror are mutually perpendicular to each
other then the angle of incidence is :
(A) 45° (B) 55°
(C) 65° (D) 75°
3. A plane mirror is inclined at an angle  with horizontal. If a ray inclined from 20° above
horizontal becomes vertical after reflection from mirror, then find .
(A) 50° (B) 55° (C) 60° (D) 65°
4. In order to obtain a magnification of, −1.5 with a concave mirror of focal length 16cm, the
object will have to be placed at a distance
(A) between 6cm and 16cm (B) between 32cm and 16cm
(C) between 48cm and 32cm (D) beyond 64cm.
5. Two plane mirrors M 1 and M 2 each have length 1 m M2

and are separated by 1 cm. A ray of light is incident
on one end of mirror M 1 at an angle is 450 . How many 450
reflections will the ray have before going out from the
other end? M1
(A) 100 (B) 101
(C) 99 (D) 81
6. A thin rod of length 6 cm lies along the principal axis of the concave mirror of focal length
15 cm in such a way that the end closer to the pole is 30 cm away from it. Then the length
of the image is
(A) 4.29 cm (B) 1.75 cm (C) 3.75 cm (D) 4.5 cm
7. Light with wavelength 4500 Å in water is travelling in water of refractive index 4/3. What is
the frequency of the light? (Given speed of light = 3 × 108 m/s), 1 A = 10–10
(A) 4 × 1014 Hz (B) 5 × 1014 Hz (C) 1.33 × 1014 Hz (D) 4.5 × 1014 Hz
8. If light cross a glass slab of refractive index 1.5 in 3 × 10–8 millisecond then thickness of the
glass slab is (given that speed of light in vacuum = 3 × 108 m/s)
(A) 6 cm (B) 3 cm (C) 6 mm (D) 4 mm
9. In which case the image formed by a convex lens is virtual.

(A) 0 < u < f (B) f < u < 2f (C) 2f < u <  (D) none of these
10. The lateral shift of light ray while is passes through a parallel glass slab of thickness 5 cm
placed in air. The angle of incidence in air is 60° and angle of refraction in glass is 45°.
(A) 5 sin 15° (B) 10 sin 15° (C) 5 2 sin15 (D) 10 2 sin15
11. A point source s is placed at distance of 15 cm from a converging lens of focal length 10 cm.
Where should a concave mirror of focal length 12 cm be placed so that real image is formed
on object itself?
(A) 6 cm (B) 18 cm (C) 36 cm (D) 54 cm
12. A plane mirror is approaching you at 25ms−1. At what speed will your image approach you?
(A) 10ms−1 (B) 5 ms−1 (C) 20 ms−1 (D) 50 ms−1
13. A convex lens of focal length 40 cm is in contact with concave lens of focal length 25 cm.
The power of the combination is
(A) –1.5 D (B) –6.5 D (C) + 6.5 D (D) +6.67 D
SECTION – III (Chemistry)
1. What type of salt is Mohr’s salt (NH4 )2 SO4  FeSO4  6H2O

(A) Double salt (B) Mixed salt
(C) Normal salt (D) Basic salt
2. Identify the correct representation of reaction occurring during chloralkali process:

(A) 2NaCl ( ) + 2H2O(l) ⎯⎯→2NaOH(l) + Cl2 ( g) + H2 ( g)
(B) 2NaCl (aq) + 2H2O(aq) ⎯⎯
→2NaOH(aq) + Cl2 ( g) + H2 (g)
(C) 2NaCl (aq) + 2H2O(l) ⎯⎯
→2NaOH(aq) + Cl2 (aq) + H2 (aq)
(D) 2NaCl (aq) + 2H2O (l) ⎯⎯
→2NaOH(aq) + Cl2 (g) + H2 (g)
3. In reaction 5SO2 + 2MnO4− + 2H2O ⎯⎯→ 5SO42− + 2Mn2+ + 4H+

Oxidation number of Mn changes from:
(A) +14 to +4 (B) +6 to +2 (C) −7 to −2 (D) + 7 to +2
4. The conjugate acid of NH2− is:

(A) NH3 (B) NH2OH (C) NH4+ (D) N2H4
5. Which of the statements about the reaction below are incorrect?

Fe2O3 + 3C 2Fe + 3CO
(A) Ferric oxide is getting reduced (B) Carbon is getting oxidized
(C) Ferric oxide is the oxidizing agent (D) Carbon is the oxidizing agent
6. Which of the following has setting property with water?

(A) Burnt plaster (B) Plaster of Paris
(C) Monoclininc gypsum (D) Orthorhombic gypsum
7. The pH of neutral water is 6.5. Then the temperature of water is

(A) 25°C (B) more than 25°C
(C) less than 25°C (D) 0°C
8. According to Lewis acid-base concept, which is a correct statement?

(A) Species in which central atom has completed octet cannot act as acid
(B) All negative charged ions are acids
(C) Molecules in which the central atom has vacant ‘d’ orbitals acts as acid
(D) All positive charged ions are bases
9. Rancidity of fats and oils is caused by

(A) aerial oxidation (B) aerial reduction
(C) the presence of impurities (D) None of these
10. Number of peroxide linkages in CrO5

(A) 2 (B) 0
(C) 1 (D) 3
11. Which among the following statement(s) is (are) true? Exposure of silver chloride to sunlight
for a long duration turns grey due to
(i) the formation of silver by decomposition of silver chloride
(ii) sublimation of silver chloride
(iii) formation of chlorine gas
(iv) oxidation of silver chloride
(A) (i) only (B) (ii) and (iii)
(C) (i) and (iv) (D) (iv) only
12. A compound whose aqueous solution will have the highest pH is

(A) NaCl (B) Na2CO3
(C) NH4Cl (D) NaNO3
1
13. Plaster of Paris (CaSO4. H2O) on mixing with water sets to form
2
1
(A) CaSO4.H2O (B) CaSO4. 1 H2O
2
1
(C) CaSO4.2H2O (D) CaSO4. 2 H2O
2
SECTION – IV (Biology)
1. Which component present in blood helps in the transport of oxygen as well as carbon
dioxide?
(A) Haemoglobin (B) Plasma (C) Cytoplasm (D) Heparin
2. What is the form in which oxygen gas is transported from lungs to the bloodstream?
(A) Carboamino-haemoglobin (B) Bicarbonate ions
(C) Oxyhaemoglobin (D) Glucose
3. During inspiration, the diaphragm:

(A) Reflexes to become dome-shaped (B) Contracts and flattens
(C) Expands (D) Shows on change
4. Source of liberated O2 in photosynthesis

(A) CO2 (B) H2O
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these
5. Lungs are covered by:

(A) Pleural membrane (B) Peritoneum
(C) Pericardium (D) None of these
6. A gland not associated with the alimentary canal is:

(A) Pancreas (B) Adrenal
(C) Liver (D) Salivary glands
7. Saprotrophic and parasitic modes of nutrition are found in ______.

(A) Bacteria (B) Viruses
(C) Fungi (D) Both (A) and (C)
8. Salivary amylase is also known as:

(A) Gastrin (B) Ptyalin
(C) Glyoxylase (D) Pepsin
9. Red blood cells are also known as _______.

(A) Leucocytes (B) Erythrocytes
(C) Platelets (D) None of these
10. Which of the following is a fat-soluble vitamin and its related deficiency disease?
(A) Calciferol – Pellagra
(B) Ascorbic acid – Scurvy
(C) Retinol – Xerophthalmia
(D) Cobalamine – Beri-beri
11. Blood clotting vitamin is:

(A) Vitamin-K (B) Vitamin-A (C) Vitamin-B12 (D) Vitamin-B16
12. Carbohydrate digestion first occurs in:

(A) Mouth (B) Intestine
(C) Stomach (D) Liver
13. Which one of the following is the correct matching of the site of action on the given
substrate, the enzyme acting upon it and the end product?
(A) Small intestine – Proteins ⎯⎯⎯
Pepsin
⎯→ Amino acids
(B) Stomach – Fats ⎯⎯⎯→

Lipase
Micelles
(C) Duodenum – Triglycerides ⎯⎯⎯⎯
Trypsin
→Monoglycerides
(D) Small intestine – Maltose ⎯⎯⎯⎯

Maltases
→ Glucose + Glucose
14. In which of the following groups of organisms, are food materials broken down outside the
body and absorbed?
(A) Mushroom, Green plants, Amoeba (B) Yeast, Mushroom, Bread mould
(C) Paramecium, Amoeba, Cuscuta (D) Cuscuta, Lice, Tapworm
SECTION – V (Mathematics)
1. What will be the remainder if the number 72015 is divided by 25?

(A) 1 (B) 7
(C) 18 (D) 24
2. The remainder when 1523 + 2323 is divided by 19, is:

(A) 4 (B) 15
(C) 0 (D) 18
3. How many positive integers N give a remainder 8 when 2008 is divided by N.

(A) 12 (B) 13
(C) 14 (D) 15
The value of k such that the polynomial x − ( k + 6 ) x + 2 ( 2k − 1) has sum of its zeroes
2
4.
equal to half of their product is
(A) –4 (B) 4
(C) –7 (D) 7
5. For a railway journey from New Delhi to Calcutta two full tickets (with reservation charges)
cost Rs. 1020 where as three full tickets and a half – ticket together (with reservation
charges) cost Rs. 1815. If half ticket costs half the full fare and the reservation charges is the
same on half – ticket as on full ticket, find the reservation charges per ticket.
(A) Rs. 30 (B) Rs. 40
(C) Rs. 50 (D) Rs. 60
1 1 1
6. The equation x3 − 9x 2 + 8x + 2 = 0 has three real roots p, q, r. Find 2
+ 2+ 2.
p q r
1
(A) 25 (B)
81
(C) 16 (D) None of these
If  and  are zeroes of the polynomial x − p ( x + 1) + c such that (  + 1)(  + 1) = 0, then

2
7.
the value of c is
(A) –2 (B) 2
(C) –1 (D) 1
8. If the lines given by 3x + 2ky = 2 and 2x + 5y = 1 are parallel, then the value of k is
5 2 15 3
(A) − (B) (C) (D)
4 5 4 2
9. The number formed when 5 is subtracted after multiplying by 8 to the sum of digits of a two
digit number is equal to the number formed when 3 is added after multiplying by 16 to the
difference of digits in a number. What is the number?
(A) 83 (B) 84
(C) 85 (D) 78
 1  1
10. Let a and b be the roots of the equation x 2 − mx + 2 = 0 . Suppose that a +   and b +  
b a
are the roots of the equation x − px + q = 0 . What is q?
2
5 7
(A) (B)
2 2
9
(C) 4 (D)
2
11. If 2 is the root of x 2 + bx + 12 = 0 and the equation x2 + bx + q = 0 has equal roots, then q =
(A) 8 (B) – 8
(C) 16 (D) –16
The unit digit of (17 )

103
12. is
(A) 3 (B) 7
(C) 9 (D) 2
13. The unit digit of (1 + 9 + 92 + 93 + .... + 9 2005 ) is

(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) 9 (D) 4
14. Find the largest number which divides 245 and 1029 leaving remainder 5 in each case.
(A) 7 (B) 12
(C) 16 (D) 19
15. If  and  are the zeroes of the polynomial f(x) = x2 – 5x + k such that  -  = 1, the value of
K is :
(A) 8 (B) 6
13
(C) (D) 4
2
x +a x +b x +c
16. If + + + 3 = 0 . a > 0, b > 0, c > 0, then the value of x is :
b+c c +a a+b
(A) −(a2 + b2 + c2) (B) (a + b + c)
(C) −(a + b + c) (D) a + b + c
17. Sum of the roots of the equation 4 x − 3 ( 2x +3 ) + 128 = 0 , is

(A) 0 (B) 7
(C) 5 (D) 8
18. If a number x is divided by 13 the remainder is 4. What will be remainder when x3 is

divided by 13?
(A) 4 (B) 7
(C) 8 (D) 12
19. Find the value of 132 − 132 − 132 − ....

(A) 10 (B) 11
20. The sum of 18 consecutive positive integers is a perfect square. What is the smallest
possible value of this sum?
(A) 169 (B) 225
(C) 289 (D) 361
SECTION – VI (Social Science)
1. Where does the clear expression of nationalism emerge from?

(A) Russian revolution (B) Japanese revolution
(C) French revolution (D) German revolution
2. Who ruled France in 1789?

(A) Fredrik Wihelm (B) Louis XVI
(C) Victor Emannuel (D) None of them
3. What does the word ‘la patrie’ stand for?

(A) The father land (B) The mother land
(C) The native land (D) None of these
4. By whom the Estates General was elected?

(A) All citizens (B) Passive citizens
(C) Active citizens (D) Only Aristocrats
5. Who established / set up the Jacobin clubs?

(A) The Nobility (B) The Aristocrats
(C) The Peasants and Farmers (D) The Educated Middle Class
6. When was the Napoleonic code implemented?

(A) 1789 (B) 1804
7. By whom was Austria – Hungry ruled over?

(A) Habsburg Empire (B) Bourbon Empire
(C) Ottoman Empire (D) None of them
8. What was the measurement of cloth in France?

(A) Metre (B) Bailey
(C) Elle (D) None of these
9. When was Napoleon defeated?

(A) 1804 (B) 1815
(C) 1811 (D) 1817
10. After defeat of Napoleon, who was stored to power in France?

(A) Ottoman Empire (B) Habsburg Empire
(C) Bourbon Empire (D) None of these
11. How many states were confederated in Germany?

(A) 36 (B) 37
(C) 38 (D) 39
12. In which age Giuseppe Mazzini was sent into exile?

(A) 24 (B) 26
(C) 28 (D) 29
13. Which country was considered the cradle of European civilisation?

(A) France (B) Germany
(C) Poland (D) Greece
14. Which is not a Biotic resource?

(A) Livestock (B) Flora
(C) Rock (D) Fauna
15. What is considered essential for being a resource?

(A) Technologically accessible (B) Economically feasible
(C) Culturally acceptable (D) All of these
16. Which of the following is a non – renewable resource?

(A) Minerals (B) Solar energy
(C) Wind energy (D) Forests
17. How much distance from the coast is considered as territorial water and resources of the
country?
(A) 10 nautical miles (B) 12 nautical miles
(C) 14 nautical miles (D) 16 nautical miles
18. Where did the first International Earth Summit take place?
(A) USA (B) Russia
(C) Brazil (D) China
19. The resources which are found in a region but have not utilized are called
(A) Renewable (B) Non-renewable
(C) National (D) Potential
20. Who said ‘There is enough for everybody’s need and not for anybody’s greed’?
(A) Mahatma Gandhi (B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(C) Subhash Chandra Bose (D) Swami Vivekanand
21. Which institution advocated for resource conservation for the first time?
(A) Club of USA (B) Club of Rome
(C) Club of China (D) Club of Russia
22. How much India land in plain?

(A) 43% (B) 37%
(C) 34% (D) 73%
23. By whom the water tank in Hauz Khas, Delhi was constructed?
(A) Shahjahan (B) Jahangir
(C) Iltutmish (D) Aurangzeb
24. Which river is linked with ‘Hirakund’ project?

(A) Mahanadi (B) Satluj
(C) Yamuna (D) Ganga
25. Who proudly proclaimed the dams as the ‘temples of modern India’?
(A) Sardar Patel (B) Jawaharlal Nehru
(C) Mahatma Gandhi (D) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
26. Which river is associated with Sardar Sarovar Dam?

(A) Godavari (B) Tapti
(C) Krishna (D) Narmada
27. In which state rooftop rain water harvesting was practised to store drinking water?
(A) Bihar (B) UP
(C) Rajasthan (D) None of these
28. What is Palar pani?

(A) Rain water (B) Sea water
(C) Underground water (D) None of these
29. Where is the highest rain fall in the world?

(A) Bhopal (B) Mawsynram
(C) Kerala (D) Calcutta
30. Which is the first Indian state, that has made rooftop rainwater harvesting structure
compulsory?
(A) Kerala (B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Rajasthan (D) Tamil Nadu
31. Which was the third kind of government in Belgium?

(A) Communist government (B) Socialist government
(C) Community government (D) Super government
32. Where is the headquarter of the European Union?

(A) Paris (B) London
(C) Berlin (D) Brussels
33. Empowering village panchayats is an example of ___

(A) Vertical division of power (B) Horizontal division of power
(C) Community government (D) None of these
34. What is the ratio of French and Dutch speaking people in the capital of Belgium?
(A) 40:60 (B) 30:70
(C) 80:20 (D) 30:50
35. What is the full form of LTTE?

(A) Liberty of Tamil Tiger Eelam (B) Liberation Tigers of Tamil Eelam
(C) Liberation of total Tamil Eelam (D) None of these
36. In which of the Indian state IMR is the lowest?

(A) Punjab (B) Haryana
(C) Kerala (D) Andhra Pradesh
37. Which is also known as average income?

(A) Per capita income (B) Gross income
(C) National income (D) None of these
38. Which one of the following has prepared human development report?
(A) UNO (B) WHO
(C) IMF (D) UNDP
39. In which part of world, there is the largest reserve of crude oil?
(A) Russia (B) Middle east
(C) Africa (D) USA
40. What is the development goal for landless rural labourers?

(A) Highest MSP (B) More hospitals
(C) Raised wages (D) Better schools
FIITJEE INTERNAL TEST

BATCHES: Three Yr CRP427(R&W) & Four Yr
CRP327(R&W)_PT-1&5
PHASE TEST – 1 & 5
(MAT & SAT)
QP CODE: 100691
Answers
SECTION – I (MAT)
1. D 2. A 3. B 4. C
5. A 6. C 7. A 8. B
9. A 10. D 11. A 12. B
13. C 14. A 15. A 16. C
17. A 18. B 19. B 20. C
21. B 22. A 23. B 24. A
25. C 26. B 27. C 28. D
29 C 30. D 31. C 32. D
33. D 34. D 35. B 36. D
37. A 38. B 39. C 40. C
41. B 42. B 43. D 44. C
45. B 46. C 47. A 48. D
49. C 50. C 51. A 52. A
53. A 54. B 55. B 56. C
57. C 58. D 59. A 60. B
61. C 62. D 63. A 64. D
65. D 66. C 67. C 68. B
69. C 70. B 71. B 72. D
73. B 74. C 75. C 76. A
77. D 78. B 79. D 80. C
81. B 82. B 83. B 84. C
85. C 86. B 87. A 88. C
89. A 90. A 91. C 92. C
93. B 94. A 95. C 96. D
97. A 98. D 99. B 100. A
1. C 2. A 3. B 4. B
5. B 6. A 7. B 8. C
9. A 10. C 11. D 12. D
13. A
1. A 2. D 3. D 4. A
5. D 6. B 7. B 8. C
9. A 10. A 11. A 12. B
13. C
1. A 2. C 3. B 4. B
5. A 6. B 7. D 8. B
9. B 10. C 11. A 12. A
13. D 14. B
1. C 2. C 3. D 4. D
5. D 6. A 7. C 8. C
9. A 10. D 11. C 12. A
13. A 14. C 15. B 16. C
17. B 18. D 19. B 20. B
SECTION – VI (Social Science)

1. C 2. B 3. A 4. C
5. D 6. B 7. A 8. C
9. B 10. C 11. D 12. A
13. D 14. C 15. D 16. A
17. B 18. C 19. D 20. A
21. B 22. A 23. C 24. A
25. B 26. D 27. C 28. A
29. B 30. D 31. C 32. D
33. A 34. C 35. B 36. C
37. A 38. D 39. B 40. C
Answers & Solutions

Part – I (MAT)
SECTION – I
1. D
Sol. WATER
4 2 13 5
When the given words are arranged, we get the word WATER from the combination 42135.
2. A
Sol. HAPPY
4 52 31
When the given words are arranged using the combination 45231, we get word HAPPY.
3. B
Sol. NUMBER
4 1 63 5 2
Words when arranged, using the combination 416352, we get the word NUMBER.
4. C
Sol. Problem, Project, Property, Protein, Proverb
5. A
Sol. Pessimist, Pest, Pester, Pestilence, Pestle
6. C
Sol. CAUTION
7. A
Sol. TILLAGE
8. B
Sol. From the given word :
5 14 20 8 21 19 9 1 19 20 9 3
E N T H U S I A S T I C
We find that:
E (N T) H N (T H U S) I and S ( ) T
Are the pairs having two letters, four letters and no letter respectively between them as in the
alphabetical order. Therefore, there are three such pairs Viz.
EH, NI and ST
9. A
Sol. Total 5 pairs are P & T, T & O, N & S, N & U and U & S.
10. D
Sol. The second, third, fourth, fifth and eight letters of the word
M A N G R O V E S
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
Are A, N, G, R and E respectively
Words formed using these letters are as follows:
ANGER, RANGE
11. A
Sol. The new arrangement will be Z Y X W ……..N…M……D C B A
Hence thirteenth element from right is M.
12. B
Sol. ABCDBDEFBDADBDCABZABDBDN
13. C
Sol. x2 = 42 + 32
= 25
= 25
=5
14. A
Sol. So Q is facing toward North.
15. A
Sol. N –
W
16. C
N
Sol. M K
2 km
W E
T R P
T is towards the west of P.
17. A
N
Sol. 10km
20km
20km
W E
20km
20km 20km
S
Shekhar is facing towards South – East.
18. B
N
Sol. 2km
2km
W E
2km
He is in the North – East direction from his starting point.
19. B
Sol.
20 + 10 = 30 m
20. C
Sol. Sun rises in the east. So the shadow of a man will always falls towards the west. Since the
shadow of Stephen is to the right of Vimal. Hence Vimal is facing towards South.
21. B
Sol. Rekha
N
Hema’s W E
Shadow
Hema S
In the evening sun sets in West. Hence then any shadow fall in the East. Since Hema’s
shadow was to the right of Hema. Hence Rekha was facing towards South.
22. A
S
Sol.
7km
5km
W E
5km
S
O E
He starts at S and reached E. Now we have to find SE.

 SOE
SE = SO2 + OE2 = 13 km
23. B
Sol. From the figure it is clear that A and B denote the starting and
finishing points respectively. B is to the North-West of Point A.
24. A
Sol. Conclusion:
I. C > A (True)
II. A ≥ C (Not True)
25. C
Sol. Conclusion:
I. P > Q (Not True)
II. Q > M (Not True)
26. B
Sol. Conclusions:
I. V > S (Not True)
II. V > T (True )
27. C
Sol. Conclusions:
I. M ≥ Q (Not True )
II. Q < M (Not True )
28. D
Sol. Conclusions:
I. Y > V (True)
II. W > U (True)
29 C
Sol. J = I ≥ G > H is definitely true.
30. D
Sol. None is true.
31. C
Sol. K < Q is definitely true.
32. D
Sol . I. M > E (false) II. F ≥ E (false) III. F < E (false)
33. D
Sol. I. B > D (false) II. B < A (false) III. M > F (True)
34. D
Sol. K % E – True
E * L – True
N * K – True
35. B
Sol. D * M – True
M % T – True
D # P – False
36. D
Sol. T % L – False
K * R – False
T # K – False
37. A
Sol. M % S – True
N % U – False
N * M – False
38. (B)
Sol. The aeroplanes fly in the ‘sky’ and the ‘sky’ is called ‘sea’. So, the aeroplanes fly in the ‘sea’.
39. (C)
Sol. A fruit grows on a ‘tree’ and ‘tree’ is called ‘sky’. So a fruit grows on the sky.
40. C
Sol. R 8 M 7
Similarly
A $ O #
I % R 8
N 6 E @
Similarly R 8
E @
M 7
A $
T
I %
N 6
41. B
Sol. Each letter in the word is moved three steps forward to obtain the corresponding letter of the
code.
42. B
Sol. The letters at the odd-numbered positions in the word are each moved two steps forward
while those at the even-numbered positions are each moved three steps forward to obtain
the corresponding letters of the code.
43. D
Sol. The code is formed by first writing the last three letters of the word in a reverse order,
followed by the first three letters in the same order. So, the code for STUPID should be
DIPSTU.
44. C
Sol. As,
M ⎯⎯+1
→N +1
Similarly G ⎯⎯ →H
+2
I ⎯⎯→ K +2
A ⎯⎯→ C
+3
R ⎯⎯→ U +3
M ⎯⎯→ P
+4
A ⎯⎯→ E +4
B ⎯⎯→ F
+5 +5
C ⎯⎯→ H L ⎯⎯→ Q
+6
L ⎯⎯→ R +6
E ⎯⎯→ K
+7
E ⎯⎯→ L
45. B
Sol. Z 26 Similarly C 3
E 5 O 15
E
B 2 B 2
R 18 R 18
A 1 A 1
46. C
Sol. Clearly, the given number group, both the first and last digits are odd number. So, each of
them is to be coded as ‘X’. The remaining numerals are to be codes with their respective
codes from the given table. So, the required code is XAFK*X.
47. A
Sol. The last digit in the given number group is 0, which shall thus be coded as #. Choosing the
individual codes for the remaining digits from the given table, we obtain the code for 713540
as E%*BA#.
48. D
Sol. Clearly, each digit of the given number group is to be coded by its individual letter / symbol
code.
So, the required code is EFBRK@.
49. C
Sol.
Word Red Colour And Green is
Code 2 4 6 3 1
 From the box, ‘Colour is green’ will be ‘134’
50. C
Sol. Fish live in water.
But according to the question
Mountain → Water
Therefore, fish live in Mountain
51. A
Sol. The letters are code as nine, eight, seven, …….., three letters forward as in English alphabet
respectively. Thus K + 9, N + 8, O + 7, B + 6, B + 5, L + 4 and Y + 3, ie TVVHGPB.
52. A
Sol.
53. A
Sol. F
C A B
D E
F is the mother of A.
54. B
Sol. E is the daughter of C.
55. B
Sol. C is the Brother – in – law of B.
56. C
Sol. 3 male members are there (A, C, D)
57. C
Sol. F is the mother of C.
58. D
Sol. E is the daughter of B and D is the brother of E. So, D is the son of B. Also, A is the sister of
B. Thus, A is D’s aunt.
59. A
Sol. A and B are husband and wife. Since, X and Y are brothers and X is the brother of A, so, Y
is also the brother of A. Thus, Y is the brother in law of B.
60. B
Sol. Anil is the brother of Deepak and Deepak is the son of Prem. So, Anil is the son of Prem.
Now, Bimal is the father of Prem. Thus, Anil is the grandson of Bimal.
61. C
Sol. 1st Generation – H (Male) B (Female). H and B are married couples.
2nd Generation – D (Male) K (Female) G (Female). D and K are married couples. D and G
are son and daughter of H and B.
3rd Generation – F is the daughter of D and K. A is the grandchild of H and B. Neither gender
of A is not defined nor who are the parents of A.
62. D
63. A
64. D
65. D
Sol. Woman’s mother’s mother = Woman’s maternal grandmother
And woman’s maternal grandmother’s only son = Woman’s uncle
So, Woman is the niece of the man.
66. C
Sol. First we will calculate the day of 1st oct 1975
Part–1 : No of odd days in 1974
1974
1900 74
74 = 18
L.Y. =
L.Y.
N.L.Y. 4
No. of Odd Days = 1 18×2 56×1

= 1 + 36 + 56
= 93
= 2 (Remainder after dividing by 7)
Part-2 : No. of odd days in 1975

No. of odd days = J + F + M + A + M + J + J + A + S + O
=3+0+3+2+3+2+3+3+2+1
= 22
Total number of odd days = 2 + 1
=3
Ist oct will be Wednesday
First Tuesday will be on 7th oct.
so third Tuesday will be on 21st oct.
67. C
Sol. Day on which my sister was born was Tuesday
Day on which my brother was born was Tuesday
Day on which I was born = Tuesday + 2 odd days
= Thursday
68. B
Sol. Part-1 : No of odd days will be calculated in the year 1632.
 32 
1600 32 L.Y. = 4 = 8 
N.L.Y.  
L.Y.
8×2 24×1
No. of odd days = 0O
= 16 + 24
= 40
Part-2 : Number of odd days will be calculated in the year 1633 upto 18th November.
No. of odd days = Jan + Feb + March + April + May + June + July + Aug + Sept + Oct + Nov
= 3 + 0 + 3 + 2 + 3 +2 + 3 + 3 + 2 + 3 + 18
= 42
so total odd days = 5
so day will be Friday
69. C
Sol. Total years = 200
200
Number of leap years =
4
= 50
but year 1800 & 1900 are not leap years

so 50 – 2 = 48 will be total number of L.Y.
70. B
Sol. 1250 + 11 = 1261 is same
71. B
Sol. Counting number of days from 2005 onwards to get 0 odd day.
Years 2005 2006 2007 2008 2009 2010 2011
Odd 1 1 1 2 1 1 1
days
=7 or 0 odd day.
Calendar for the year 2005 is the same as that for the year 2011.
72. D
Sol. 100 years contain 5 odd days. So, last day of 1st century is ‘Friday’.
200 years contain (5 × 2) = 10 odd days = 3 odd days.
So, last day of 2nd centaury is ‘Wednesday’.
300 years contain (5 × 3) = 15 odd days = 1 odd days.
Last day of 3rd centaury is ‘Monday’.
400 years contain 0 odd day.
Last day of 4th centaury is ‘Sunday’
Since the order is continually keep in successive cycle, we see that the last day of centaury
cannot be Tuesday, Thursday or Saturday.
73. B
Sol. 17th July, 1776 mean (1775 years + 6 months + 17 days).
Now, 1600 years have 0 odd days
100 years have 5 odd days
75 years contain 18 leap years and 57 ordinary years and thereof, (36 + 57) or 93 or 2 odd
days.
1775 years given 0 + 5 + 2 = 7 and so 0 odd days.
Also number of days from 1st Jan. 1776 to 17th July,
1776.
Jan. Feb. March April May June July
31 + 29 + 31 + 30 + 31 + 30 + 17 = 199 days
= 28 weak + 3 days = 3 odd days
Total number of odd days = 0 + 3 = 3
Hence the day on 17th July, 1776 was Wednesday.
74. C
Sol. We go on counting the odd days from 2000 onwards till the sum is divisible by 7. The
number of such days are 28 upto the year 2028. So, the calendar for 2000 will be exactly
repeated in the years 2028.
75. C
Sol. A leap year repeats after 28 years.
Hence, 1984 + 28 = 2012 will have the same calendar as that of 1984.
76. A
Sol. The total number of years from 2012 to 2016 is four, out of which 2013, 2014 and 2015 are
non leap years, hence there is 1 odd day in each of these years, 2012 is a leap year, hence
it has 2 odd days.
 The total number of odd days in these four years is 5. 1st January 2016 is five days to
Sunday i.e., Friday.
77. D
Sol. Number of years from 2006 to 2706 is 700 years.

700 years (400 + 300) have 1 odd day.
Hence, 14th November 2706 is one day after Sunday i.e., Monday.
78. B
Sol. 2012 is leap year, so it will have two odd days.
Hence 1st Jan 2013 is two days after Monday i.e. Wednesday.
So, 31st Dec 2012 is a Tuesday. 2023 is a non leap year and have 1 odd day.
So, 1st Jan 2024 is Tuesday. Hence, 31st Dec 2023 is Monday.
79. D
 436 
Sol. Number of odd days = remainder of  =4
 9 
80. C
Sol. Clearly from 1 to 100, there are ten numbers with 3 as unit digit (3, 13, 23, 33, 43, 53, 63, 73,
83, 93) and ten numbers with 3 as tens digit (30, 31, 32, 33, 34, 35, 36, 37, 38, 39). So
required number is 20.
81. B
Sol. Let number of 2 wheelers be 'x' and 4 wheelers be 'y'
Given total number of vehicles = 200
i.e, x + y = 200 ....(1)
Given total number of wheels = 580
i.e, 2x + 4y = 580 ...(2)
By solving (1)&(2), we get y = 90
=> x = 110
Therefore, number of two wheelers = 110 number of four wheelers = 90
82. B
Sol. Total Persons= 1200
Soldiers = 15 and captain = 1. So a group contains of 16 members. Therefore, the total
number of groups = 1200/16=75. Hence, 75 captain will be there.
83. B
Sol. He takes 10 minutes to reach and he left 10 minutes earlier. So, usually he leave home at
1:45 am.
84. C
Sol. Total time taken by tortoise
= (4 + 4 + 4 + 2) h and (20 + 20 + 20) min
= 14h + 60min = 15h
85. C
Sol. One handshake involves 2 person. So, if there are 66 handshakes in total, Then n C2 = 66
Where n is the number of persons in the room.
n! n ( n − 1)
= 66  = 66
2! ( n − 2 ) ! 2
 n2 − n = 132  n2 − n − 132 = 0
 (n – 12) (n+ 11) = 0, so, n = 12
86. B
Sol. The only useful data is that the average length of the thumb and index finger is 2.8 and the
length of index finger is 3 inches.
Now the total length of index finger and thumb
= 2.8 x 2 = 5.6 inches
87. A
2  6 + 4  5 + 4 10 + 2  6
Sol. Average rainfall = =7
12
88. C
Sol. 400  7 = ( 300  2 ) + ( 250  2 ) + ( n  2 ) = 700
89. A
Sol. Sumit’s total expenditure for Jan – June = 4200 x 6 = 25200
Expenditure for February – June = 25200 – 1200 = 24000
Expenditure for the months of February – July
= 24000 + 1500 = 25, 500
25,500
The average expenditure = = 4250
6
90. A
 282 − ( 3.2  10 )  250
Sol. Required run rate :  = = 6.25
 40  40
91. C
Sol. Total weight increased = (8 x 2.5) kg = 20 kg.
Weight of new person = (65 + 20) kg = 85 kg.
92. C
 50.25  16 + 45.15  8 
Sol. Required average =  
 16 + 8 
 804 + 361.20 
= 
 24 
1165.20
=
24
= 48.55
93. B
Sol. Let the total number of men be x.
1
Then one man’s 1 day’s work =
40x
If there were 8 more men
1
Then one men’s day’s work =
35 ( x + 8 )
Now, 35 (x + 8) = 40x.
Or, 35x + 280 = 40x
280
x = = 56
5
94. A
Sol. A’s 1 day’s work = 1/18
B’s 1 day’s work = 1/9
 (A + B)’s 1 day’s work
1 1 1+ 2 3 1
= + = = =
18 9 18 18 6
95. C
Sol. According to the question,
20 men + 30 boys = 24 men + 16 boys

 4 men = 14 boys
 2 men = 7 boys
 2 men + 1 boy = 8 boys
2 men + 3 boys = 10 boys
 M1 D1 = M2 D2
 10 x 10 = 8 x D2
10  10 25
 D2 = =
8 2
1
= 12
2
96. D
 1 1  11
Sol. Work done in first seven days = 7  + =
 16 28  16
5  1
= (N) [where N = days required to complete the remaining work]
16  16 
So,
N=5
97. A
Sol. Days Women
 
18 42
21 x
 21 : 18 : :42 : x
42  18
x= = 36
21
98. D
1 1 9
Sol. In 1 min (A + B) fill + = part of the tank
12 15 60
9 9
In 3 min, they fill 3 = part of the tank.
60 20
9 11
 Rest of the tank = 1 − =
20 20
So, B will fill the rest of the tank in
11 15 33
 = = 8 min 15 sec.
20 1 4
99. B
Sol. Given, A competes the work in 20 days
1
 A completes of the work in one day.
20
B completes the work in 30 days
1
 B completes of the work in one day
30
1 1 1
In one day A and B together can do + = of the work in one day.
20 30 12
Given A, B and C together completed the work in 8 days.
1
 They can completed of the work in one day
8
1 1 1
The work done by C in one day = − = of the work.
8 12 24
1 1
Employment done by C in 8 days = 8 x = of the work
24 3
1
 Share of C = of the total earnings
3
1
i.e.,  5550 = 1850
3
100. A
Sol. Work done by the waste pipe in 1 min
1 1 1 1
= − +  = − [– ve sign means emptying]
20  12 15  10
 Waste pipe will empty the full cistern in 10 minutes.
Part – II (SAT)
1. C
360
Sol. − 1 = 11
30
2. A
Sol. i + r = 90 ; i = r
So, i = 45
N
3. B
Sol. From figure, OQ || MB 90°–
A
 90° –  + 20° = 
O 20° Q
i
2 = 110° ;  = 55° 90°–

r
 B
M
4. B
−v f −16
Sol. m= = −1.5 ; m = =
u f − 4 −16 − 4
−40
24 +1.5 u = – 16 ; u = = 26.67
1.5
So, object between 32 cm and 16 cm.
5. B
0.01
Sol. tan 45 =
x
x = 0.01 m
1
Total number of reflection = = 100 + 1 = 101
0.01
6. A
Sol. f = −15 ; u = −36
1 1 1
= + : v = 25.71
f v u
Image length = 30 – 25.71 = 4.29 cm
7. B
c 3  108 9  108
Velocity of light (v) in water = = = m/s.
 4/3 4
9  108
v 4 9  108 1
Frequency of light (f) = = −10
Hz =  Hz
 4500  10 4 4500  10−10
1
1016
100  10 14
= = Hz = 5 × 1014 Hz.
20 20
8. C
speed of light in vacuum
Sol. Speed of light in glass =
refractive index of glass
c
v=

Thickness of glass slab = time taken by light to cross the glass slab × speed of light in glass
c 3  108 90
Thickness (x) = t × v = t  = 3  10−8  10−3  m=  10−11+8 m = 6 × 10–3 m = 6 mm.
 1.5 15
9. A
Sol. When distance of object is less than focal length, image formed is virtual.
10. C
t sin (i − r ) 5 sin15
Sol. d=  = 5 2 sin15
cosr cos 45
11. D
1 1 1
Sol. u = −15 : f = +10 : = −  v =30 cm
f v u
Distance of concave mirror (x) = v + 2f = 30 + 24 = 54 cm
12. D
Sol. vi = 2 vm = 50 m/s
13. A
Sol. f1 = + 40 cm f2 = –25 cm
1 1 100 100
P= + = − = 2.5 − 4 = –1.5 D
f1 f2 40 25

1. A
Sol. Double salt is Mohr’s salt (NH4 )2 SO4  FeSO4  6H2O .
2. D
Sol. It is correct because physical states of the reactants and products are correctly represented.
3. D
Sol. Oxidation of number of Mn in MnO4− = +7 and in Mn2+ = +2
4. A
Sol. NH2− + H+ ⎯⎯→ NH3
5. D
Sol. Carbon is reducing agent
6. B
Sol. Plaster of Paris has setting property
7. B
Sol. The pH of neutral water is 6.5. Then the temperature of water is more than 25°C
8. C
Sol. Molecules in which the central atom has vacant ‘d’ orbitals acts as acid – is the correct
statement.
9. A
Sol. Rancidity of fats and oils is caused by aerial oxidation.
10. A
Sol. Number of peroxide linkage are 2.
11. A
Sol. AgCl(s) ⎯⎯⎯⎯
sunlight
→ Ag(s)+ Cl2 (g)
grey
12. B
Sol. It is the salt of weak acid and strong base.
13. C
1 1
Sol. CaSO4. H 2O + 1. H 2O → CaSO 4 . 2H 2O
2 2
1. A
Sol. Hemoglobin (Heme + Globin), the protein hemoglobin is a molecule which is responsible for
carrying almost all of the oxygen in the blood.
2. C
Sol. In the form of Oxyhaemoglobin oxygen gas is transported from lungs to the bloodstream.
3. B
Sol. During inspiration, the diaphragm contracts and flattens.
4. B
Sol. Source of liberated O2 in photosynthesis is H2O.
5. A
Sol. Lungs are covered by Pleural membrane.
6. B
Sol. The adrenal gland located at the top of each kidney help to control blood sugar level and is
not associated with the digestive system directly.
7. D
Sol. Bacteria and fungi both show saprotrophic and parasitic modes of nutrition.
8. B
Sol. Ptyalin is an enzyme found in saliva that breaks down the insoluble starch found in foods
into smaller, soluble sugar fragments. This is another name for the 'amylase' found in saliva,
known as salivary amylase.
9. B
Sol. Red blood cells, also known as erythrocytes, deliver oxygen to the tissues in your body.
Oxygen turns into energy and your tissues release carbon dioxide. Your red blood cells also
transport carbon dioxide to your lungs for you to exhale.
10. C
Sol. Retinol – Xerophthalmia
11. A
Sol. Vitamin K is a nutrient that the body needs to stay healthy. It's important for blood clotting
and healthy bones and also has other functions in the body.
12. A
Sol. The process of digesting carbs begins the moment the food enters your mouth. As you eat,
saliva from your salivary glands hydrates the meal. The glucose in the carbohydrates you're
eating is broken down by an enzyme called amylase, which is released by saliva.
13. D
Sol. Small intestine – Maltose ⎯⎯⎯⎯
Maltases
→ Glucose + Glucose
14. B
Sol. Yeast, Mushroom, Bread mould are groups of organisms that breaks down food outside the
body and absorbs.
1. C
( ) ( )
1007
Sol. 72015 = 7. 72014 = 7 72
= 7. ( 50 − 1)
1007
Remainder when divided by 25

= 7. ( −1)
1007
= –7
= −7 + 25
= 18
2. C
Sol. If n is odd then an + bn is divisible by a + b.
So remainder is zero.
3. D
Sol. 2008 = NQ1 + 8
 NQ1 = 2000
 N = number of factors of 2000 which are > 8.
= number of factors of 24  53 which are > 8
= ( 4 + 1)( 3 + 1) − 5
= 20 − 5 = 15
4. D
Let  and  are the roots of given quadratic equation x − ( k + 6 ) x + 2 ( 2k − 1) = 0
2
Sol.
Now, sum of roots =  + 
 − ( k + 6 ) 
= − =k+6
 1 
2 ( 2k − 1)
Product of roots =  = = 2 ( 2k − 1)
1
According to question,
1
Sum of roots (zeroes) =  products of roots (zeroes)
2
 k + 6 = 2k − 1
 6 + 1 = 2k − k  k = 7
5. D
Sol. Let reservation charges per ticket = Rs. x and basic fare of a ticket = Rs. y
In 1st Case :
Total cost of 2 tickets = reservation charges of 2 tickets + basic fare of two tickets
= Rs. ( 2x + 2y )
 2x + 2y = 1020
 x + y = 510 ……….(1)
nd
In 2 Case:
1 1
Total cost of 3 tickets = reservation charges for 4 tickets + basic fare of 3 tickets
2 2
 1 
= Rs  4x + 3 y 
 2 
7
 4x + y = 1815
2
 8x + 7y = 3630 ……….(2)
On solving equations (1) and (2), we get
x = 60 and y = 450
 Reservation charge per ticket = Rs. 60 and the basic fare of a ticket = Rs. 450
6. A
Sol. we have p + q + r = 9, pq + qr + pr = 8 and pqr = −2 .
1 1 ( pq + qr + rp ) − 2pqr (p + q + r ) 8 − 2.9. ( −2 )
2 2
1
So 2 + 2 + 2 = = = 25
(pqr ) ( −2 )
2 2
p q r
7. C
Sol. Given,  and  are the zeroes of polynomial
x 2 − p ( x + 1) + c which can be written as x2 − px + c − p .
So, sum of zeroes,  +  = p …………….(i)
and product of zeroes,  = c − p …..(ii)
Also, (  + 1)( + 1) = 0 [given]

 c −p + p +1= 0 [From Equation (I) and (ii)]
 c = –1
8. C
a1 b1 c1
Sol. Condition for parallel lines is =  …………(i)
a2 b2 c 2
Given lines, 3x + 2ky − 2 = 0 and 2x + 5y − 1 = 0

Here, a1 = 3, b1 = 2k, c1 = −2 and a2 = 2, b2 = 5, c 2 = −1
3 2k
From equation (i), =
2 5
15
 k=
4
9. A
Sol. Let number is ab
So 8 ( a + b ) − 5 = 16 ( a − b ) + 3
 3b − a = 1
Only 83 is satisfying the above condition
10. D
Sol. Because a and b are roots of x 2 − mx + 2 = 0 , we have ab = 2 .
In a similar manner, product of roots of x2 − px + q is q
 1 1 1 9
 q =  a +   b +  = ab + 1 + 1 + = .
b a   ab 2
11. C
Sol. 2 is root of equation x 2 + bx + 12 = 0
 ( 2 ) + 2b + 12 = 0  b = −8
2
x2 + bx + q = 0
 x2 − 8x + q = 0 has equal roots.
D = 0
64 − 4q = 0
q = 16
12. A
Unit digit of (17 ) = Unit digit of 7103
103
Sol.
Since cyclicity of 7 = 4
 Unit digit of 7103 = 73 = 3
13. A
Sol. Each sum of pairs 90 and 91,92 and 93 …….. 92004 and 92005 will give unit digit 0
 unit digit of whole sum = 0
14. C
Sol. Required number = HCF of ( 245 − 5 ) and (1029 − 5 )  = 16
15. B
(  − ) = (  +  ) − 4
2 2
Sol.
 1 = 25 – 4k  k = 6
16. C
x+a x+b x+c
Sol. +1 + +1 + + 1= 0
b+c c+a a+b
( x + a + b + c ) 
1 1 1 
+ + =0
b + c c + a a + b 
as a > 0, b > 0, c > 0

so, x = −(a + b + c)
17. B
Sol. Put 2x = t
Then t 2 − 24t + 128 = 0  t = 16,8
 x = 4, 3
18. D
Sol. Required remainder = remainder when 43 divided by 13 = 12
19. B
Sol. Let y = 132 − 132 − 132 − ....
y 2 = 132 − 132 − 132 − ....
y2 = 132 − y
y2 + y − 132 = 0
( y + 12)( y − 11) = 0
y = −12 (not possible) or y = 11
 y = 11
20. B
Sol. Let n, n + 1,…….n + 17 be the 18 consecutive integers. Then the sum is
17.18
18n + (1 + 2 + ......17 ) = 18n + = 9 ( 2n + 17 ) .
2
Since 9 is a perfect square, 2n + 17 must also be a perfect square. The smallest value of n
for which this occurs is n = 4, so 9 (2n + 17) = 9 . 25 = 225.

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Three Yr CRP427(R&W) & Four Yr CRP327(R&W)_PT-1&5_MAT & SAT-1

FIITJEE INTERNAL TEST

Please read the instructions carefully.

1. This paper contains two parts:

Enrollment No. : Batch :

Candidate’s Signature Invigilator’s Signature:

4. 1. Protein 2. Problem 3. Proverb 4. Property 5. Project

5. 1. Pestle 2. Pestilence 3. Pester 4. Pest 5. Pessimist

Space For Rough Work

11. This question is based on the following alphabet series:

Directions (Questions 24 – 28): In these questions, relationship between different elements is

24. Statements: A ≤ D < C ≥ B < E

25. Statements: P > L ≤ M < N > Q

26. Statement: S ≥ T = U < V ≥ X

27. Statement: M ≤ N > O ≥ P = Q

28. Statement: U ≤ V < W =X < Y

32. Statements: F ≥ M, M > A, R < A, E > R

33. Statements: A ≥ B, M > B, D < M, F = D

45. If ‘ZEBRA’ is written as ‘2652181’, then how can ‘COBRA’ be written?

Following conditions apply:

53. How is F related to A?

54. How is E related to C?

56. How many male members are there in the family?

57. How is F related to C?

61. How is F related to G?

62. How is H related to B?

63. Which of the following is the pair of married ladies?

64. How many female members are there among them?

66. On what date of October, 1975 did 3rd Tuesday fall :

68. What was the day on 18th November 1633 :

72. The last day of a century cannot be:

73. Find the day of the week on 17th July, 1776.

75. Which year will have same calendar as 1984?

77. If 14th November 2006 is a Sunday, then 14th November 2706 is a

Space For Rough Work

Space For Rough Work

Space For Rough Work

5. Two plane mirrors M 1 and M 2 each have length 1 m M2

9. In which case the image formed by a convex lens is virtual.

SECTION – III (Chemistry)

1. What type of salt is Mohr’s salt (NH4 )2 SO4  FeSO4  6H2O

2. Identify the correct representation of reaction occurring during chloralkali process:

3. In reaction 5SO2 + 2MnO4− + 2H2O ⎯⎯→ 5SO42− + 2Mn2+ + 4H+

4. The conjugate acid of NH2− is:

5. Which of the statements about the reaction below are incorrect?

6. Which of the following has setting property with water?

7. The pH of neutral water is 6.5. Then the temperature of water is

8. According to Lewis acid-base concept, which is a correct statement?

9. Rancidity of fats and oils is caused by

10. Number of peroxide linkages in CrO5

12. A compound whose aqueous solution will have the highest pH is

3. During inspiration, the diaphragm:

4. Source of liberated O2 in photosynthesis

5. Lungs are covered by:

6. A gland not associated with the alimentary canal is:

7. Saprotrophic and parasitic modes of nutrition are found in ______.

8. Salivary amylase is also known as:

9. Red blood cells are also known as _______.

11. Blood clotting vitamin is: