Polity Test

This test is a part of Rau’s IAS Test series f or Preliminary Exam 202 4
Test ID
GENERAL STUDIES (PAPER–I)
0257
CURRENT AFFAIRS
CA: OCTOBER 2023
Time Allowed: 1 Hour Maximum Marks: 100
INSTRUCTIONS
1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK

THAT THIS TEST BBOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN or MISSING PAGES
OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.
2. This Test Booklet contains 50 items (questions). Each item is printed in English Only. Each item
comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the
Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response
which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
3. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet (OMR sheet) provided.
Read the directions in the Answer Sheet.
4. All items carry equal marks.
5. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test booklet,
you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions contained therein.
6. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has
concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to
take away with you the Test Booklet.
7. Penalty for wrong answers:

THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE
OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a
wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that
question will be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of
the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that
question.
(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for
that question.
This test is a part of Rau’s IAS Test series for Preliminary Exam 202 4
1. Consider the following statements with 2. Attosecond pulses can be used to study
reference to Bluewalker 3 satellite: molecular-level changes in blood to
1. It is among the largest commercial identify diseases.
antenna systems ever deployed in Which of the statements given above is/are
geostationary orbit. correct?
2. The satellite’s bright reflective surfaces (a) 1 only
could interfere with astronomical
(b) 2 only
observations.
(c) Both 1 and 2
Which of the statements given above is/are
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only 5. Consider the following statements about
the m-RNA Vaccines:
(c) Both 1 and 2
1. These vaccines have no live pathogens.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. These vaccines harness cellular
machinery.
2. Which among the following statements best
describe Picoflare jets? 3. These vaccines have no side effects and
(a) Dense remnants of supermassive stars cause no allergic reactions.
that have exploded as supernovae. 4. The vaccines are stable at higher
(b) Slow and gradual emissions of radio temperatures.
waves from pulsars. How many of the statements given above
(c) Small jets of charged particles expelled are correct?
intermittently from sun’s corona. (a) Only one
(d) Intense bursts of gamma rays from (b) Only two
distant galaxies. (c) Only three
(d) All four
3. Which among the following are the
applications of Quantum dots?
6. With reference to stem cells, consider the
1. Biosensors
following statements:
2. Flexible electronics
1. Stem cells are unique cells that have
3. Targeted Cancer treatment the potential to develop into specialised
4. High-quality visual display cell types.
Select the correct answer using the code 2. Stem cell therapy can be utilised for
given below: bone marrow transplant to treat blood-
(a) 1 and 3 only related disorders and cancers.
(b) 2 and 3 only 3. The therapy can also be used to create
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only disease-specific cell models and
(d) 1,2,3 and 4 personalised medicines.
How many of the statements given above
4. Consider the following statements: are correct?
1. Attosecond pulses are extremely short (a) Only one
pulses of light that can be used to (b) Only two
measure the rapid processes at which
(c) All three
electrons operate.
(d) None
RAUSIAS-0257 1
7. The OSIRIS-REx Mission, recently in news, Which of the statements given above is/are
is related to which among the following? correct?
(a) To search for signs of life on Europa, (a) 1 only
one of Jupiter's moons. (b) 2 only
(b) To explore the outermost region of the (c) Both 1 and 2
Sun and solar atmosphere.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) To find the presence of liquid water in
the poles of Earth’s Moon.
11. With reference to the Credit Guarantee
(d) To collect soil sample from near-Earth
asteroid Bennu and bring it to Earth. Scheme for the livestock sector, consider
the following statements:
1. The Scheme will provide credit
8. With reference to the Startups in India,
guarantee coverage upto 75% of the
consider the following statements:
credit facilities, extended to the MSMEs
1. The Startups can conclude their
by the lending institutions.
operations within 180 days, under the
expedited exit for the Startups initiative. 2. The maximum ceiling of the credit
2. The Startup India Seed Fund Scheme guarantee coverage under this Scheme
(SISFS) provides financial assistance to is Rs. 25 crores.
the Startups for prototype development 3. It has been established under the
only. Animal Husbandry Infrastructure
Which of the statements given above is/are Development Fund (AHIDF).
correct? How many of the above statements are
(a) 1 only correct?
(b) 2 only (a) Only one
(c) Both 1 and 2 (b) Only two
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) All three
(d) None
9. Which of the following statements does not
reflect the benefits of the Digital Public 12. With reference to the Corporate Debt
Infrastructure (DPI)? Market Development Fund (CDMDF),
(a) It has helped the government reduce its consider the following statements:
overall subsidy expenditures.
1. It has been launched as a close-ended
(b) It has resulted in greater credit scheme with an initial tenure that
availability for smaller businesses.
cannot be extended under any
(c) It has reduced the cost of internet circumstances.
access and digital devices.
2. The CDMDF will buy only the listed
(d) It has contributed to the formalization investment-grade securities from the
of the economy and workforce.
secondary markets.
3. The Fund will be regulated by the
10. With reference to online gaming, consider Reserve Bank of India.
the following statements:
How many of the above statements are
1. Online gaming refers to the games that
correct?
can be played with an internet
connection only. (a) Only one
2. The GST Council has imposed a (b) Only two

differentiated tax regime on online (c) All three
games, based on skills versus chance. (d) None
RAUSIAS-0257 2
https://upscmaterial.online/
13. Which of the following statements reflects How many of the above pairs are correctly
the benefits of the inclusion of the Indian matched?
Government Bonds in the global indices? (a) Only one
(a) Reduction of volatility in the Indian (b) Only two
bond market. (c) All three
(b) Promoting the use of the US dollars for (d) None
government borrowings.
(c) Vacating domestic market space for the 16. With reference to Gross Domestic Product
corporate bonds. (GDP) of India, consider the following pairs:
(d) Making Indian exports competitive in Method of

S.N. Description
the foreign markets. Calculation
1. Production Considers
Method components of factors
14. With reference to the Central Bank Digital
of production
Currency (CBDC), consider the following
generated within
statements:
domestic territory.
1. It is treated as a legal tender issued by
2. Income Measures the sum of
the Reserve Bank of India in digital
Method value added of all
form. economic activities
2. It can be freely converted against within domestic
commercial bank money and cash. territory.
Which of the statements given above is/are 3. Expenditure Considers spendings
correct? Method on consumption,
(a) 1 only investment, and
expenditures made by
(b) 2 only
the government.
(c) Both 1 and 2
How many of the above pairs are correctly
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
matched?
(a) Only one
15. With reference to the currencies, consider (b) Only two
the following pairs: (c) All three
Type of (d) None
S.N. Value
Currency
1. Fiat Currency It has no value in 17. Consider the following statements with
its individual reference to the Association of Southeast
capacity. Asian Nations (ASEAN):
1. It is an intergovernmental organization
2. Cryptocurrency Its value is pegged
of eight Southeast Asian countries.
to other
2. In 2023, Maldives became a full-time
currencies, such member of the ASEAN.
as Diem, TruelNR.
3. India is a free trading partner of the
3. Stable Coin Derives its value ASEAN.
from the 4. The ASEAN Catalytic Green Finance
guarantee Facility supports the environmentally
provided by the sustainable projects managed by the
Central Bank. World Bank.
RAUSIAS-0257 3
https://t.me/visioniastestseries2024
How many of the above statements are 1. It is an intergovernmental organization

correct? formed after replacing the Organization
(a) Only one of African Unity (OAU).
(b) Only two 2. It launched the Great Green Wall
(c) Only three Initiative to restore Africa’s degraded
landscapes.
(d) All four
3. Its secretariat is located at Addis Ababa
(Ethiopia).
18. With reference to India-Middle East-Europe
Economic Corridor (IMEC), consider the
correct?
(a) Only one
1. It was launched at the 15th BRICS
Summit, which was hosted by South (b) Only two
Africa. (c) All three
2. The project forms a part of the (d) None
Partnership for Global Infrastructure
and Investment. 21. Consider the following countries:
Which of the statements given above is/are 1. Australia
correct? 2. New Zealand
(a) 1 only 3. The United Kingdom
(b) 2 only 4. The United States of America
(c) Both 1 and 2 5. France
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 6. Germany
How many of the above are part of ‘Five
19. With reference to G20, consider the Eyes’ intelligence alliance?
following statements: (a) Only three
1. It was founded after the Asian financial (b) Only four
crisis, as a forum of the Finance
(c) Only five
Ministers and the Central Bank
(d) All six
Governors.
2. The African Union has been made a full
member of the G20 during the Delhi 22. With reference to the World Intellectual
Summit. Property Organization (WIPO), consider the
3. The Joint Capital Markets Initiative was
launched by the G20 members to 1. It is a self-funded agency of the United
finance the infrastructure projects in Nations.
the developing nations. 2. The United Nations Economic and
How many of the above statements are Social Council is its parent
correct? organization.
(a) Only one 3. Its headquarter is situated at Geneva

(Switzerland).
(b) Only two
(c) All three
correct?
(d) None
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
20. Consider the following statements with
(c) All three
reference to the African Union (AU):
(d) None
RAUSIAS-0257 4
23. With reference to the Global Biofuel 26. With reference to the National Education
Alliance, consider the following statements: Policy (NEP) 2020, consider the following
1. India, Brazil and the US are the statements:
founding members of the Alliance. 1. It proposes reforms in school education,
2. It is an alliance of the governments, as well as technical education.
international organizations and 2. It aims at increasing the Gross
industry to facilitate adoption of Enrolment Ratio in higher education to
biofuels. 50% by 2035.
Which of the statements given above is/are 3. The Higher Education Commission of
correct? India (HECI) will be set up under it.
(a) 1 only How many of the above statements are
(b) 2 only correct?
(c) Both 1 and 2 (a) Only one
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) Only two
(c) All three
24. With reference to the Global Innovation (d) None
Index 2023, consider the following
statements: 27. With reference to the Pradhan Mantri
1. The Index is released biannually by the Vishwakarma Scheme, consider the
United Nations Development following statements:
Programme (UNDP). 1. It will provide collateral free ‘Enterprise
2. Singapore is the most innovative Development Loans’ of upto Rs. 5 lakhs
economy in the 2023 Index. in two tranches to the beneficiaries.
Which of the statements given above is/are 2. It is jointly implemented by the Ministry
correct? of Micro, Small & Micro Enterprises and
(a) 1 only the Ministry of Skill Development and
(b) 2 only Entrepreneurship.
(c) Both 1 and 2 Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
25. With reference to the United Nations
Population Fund, consider the following (c) Both1 and 2
statements: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. It aims at improving the maternal
health worldwide. 28. With reference to the Registration of Births
2. The UNPF is a founding member of the and Deaths (Amendment) Act, 2023,
United Nations Development Group. consider the following statements:
3. Its headquarter is located in 1. Birth Certificate will be considered as
Washington, D.C., United States. single document for availing several
How many of the above statements are social services.
correct? 2. The Act grants authority to
(a) Only one the Registrar General of India to oversee
a national registry of births and deaths.
(b) Only two
3. Under the Act, it will be compulsory for
(c) All three
the States to register births and deaths
(d) None
on the Civil Registration System portal.
RAUSIAS-0257 5
How many of the above statements are 3. The Parliament, through an Act, has
correct? codified all the privileges of the
(a) Only one legislators in India.
(b) Only two How many of the above statements are
correct?
(c) All three
(a) Only one
(d) None
(b) Only two
(c) All three
29. With reference to the Civil Registration
System (CRS), consider the following (d) None
statements:
1. It falls under the Concurrent List of the 32. Consider the following statements about
Constitution of India. the languages in India:
2. The Registrar General of India comes 1. There are more classical languages in
under the Ministry of Health and Family India, than the languages mentioned in
Welfare. the Eighth Schedule.
2. The National Education Policy, 2020,
Which of the statements given above is/are
provides for a “Three Language
correct?
Formula”.
(a) 1 only
3. The Legislature of a State may, by law,
(b) 2 only
adopt any one or more of the languages
(c) Both1and 2 in use in the State.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 How many of the above statements are
correct?
30. Consider the following statements about (a) Only one
the Constitution (One Hundred and Sixth (b) Only two
Amendment) Act, 2023: (c) All three
1. It aims at reserving one-third of the (d) None
seats for women in the Lok Sabha, the
State Legislative Assemblies,
33. Consider the following statements about
Panchayats and the Municipalities.
the Press and Registration of Periodicals
2. The Act provides reservation for 10 Act, 2023:
years, after which it expires. 1. The Act allows for registering
Which of the above statements is/are newspapers, periodicals and books, and
correct? cataloguing books.
(a) 1 only 2. To encourage the freedom of press, the
(b) 2 only Act mandates that both foreign and
(c) Both 1 and 2 national periodicals do not need any
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 prior approval before publication in
India.
3. Any person may appeal against the
31. With reference to the Parliamentary
refusal to issue a registration certificate
Privileges, consider the following
or imposition of penalty.
statements:
1. The purpose of the Parliamentary correct?
Privileges is to safeguard the freedom,
(a) Only one
authority and dignity of the Parliament.
(b) Only two
2. The Constitution of India states that
(c) All three
they should be defined by law.
(d) None
RAUSIAS-0257 6
34. According to the Constitution of India, How many of the above statements are
consider the following statements: correct?
1. Any section of the citizens residing in (a) Only one
the territory of India, having a distinct (b) Only two
language of its own, has the right to (c) All three
conserve the same. (d) None
2. Only the religious minorities have been
given the right to establish and 37. Consider the following statements with
administer educational institutions of reference to the art and architecture during
their choice. the period of the imperial Cholas:
Which of the statements given above is/are 1. The ‘Madhu Uchchishtta Vidhana’
correct? technique was employed for crafting the
(a) 1 only Nataraja sculptures.
(b) 2 only 2. The Nataraja sculpture portrays Lord
(c) Both 1 and 2 Shiva in 'Abhayamudra' gesture.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Which of the statements given above is/are

correct?
(a) 1 only
35. Consider the following statements about
(b) 2 only
the reservation system in India:
(c) Both 1 and 2
1. The seats in the Rajya Sabha are
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
reserved for the Schedule Castes in
proportion to their population.
38. Consider the following statements:
2. There is a fifty percent limit on the
reservation in public employment that 1. The Chennakeshava temple, situated in
the State can provide. Belur, was built during the reign of the
Chalukyas of Badami.
3. The Constitution reserves one-third of
2. The Kesava temple, dedicated to Lord
the seats in the Panchayats and the
Krishna, is built in the Trikuta
Municipalities for the Other Backward
architectural style.
Classes.
3. The Hoysaleshwara temple of Halebid
was built during the reign of Narasimha
correct?
I (1152-1173).
(a) Only one How many of the above statements are
(b) Only two incorrect?
(c) All three (a) Only one
(d) None (b) Only two
(c) All three
36. With reference to the imperial Cholas, (d) None
1. Parantaka Chola I established the city 39. With reference to the medieval history of
of Thanjavur to mark the victory over India, consider the following statements:
the Cheras. 1. The Chalukyas of Kalyani were the
2. Rajendra Chola I is accredited with feudatories of the Hoysalas.
uniting the kingdom of Vengi with the 2. In the Battle of Talakadu, the Cholas
Chola empire. defeated the Hoysala ruler
3. Rajaraja Chola I was defeated by the Vishnuvardhana.
Rashtrakutas in the Battle of Takkolam.
RAUSIAS-0257 7
3. Leelavati and Harishchandracharite 42. With reference to Adi Shankara, consider

were written during the period of the the following statements:
Hoysala empire. 1. Adi Shankara propounded the Doctrine
How many of the above statements are of Advaita.
correct? 2. He was opposed to Buddhist
(a) Only one philosophers.
(b) Only two Which of the above statements is/are
(c) All three correct?
(d) None (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
40. With reference to the freedom struggle (c) Both 1 and 2
movement of India, consider the following (d) Neither 1 nor 2
statements:
1. Bhagat Singh actively participated in
43. With respect to “Air quality life index”,
the protest movement against the Canal
Colonization Bill.
1. It is released by UNDP.
2. Sachindranath Sanyal and Bhagat
2. It measures the impact of particulate
Singh founded the Hindustan
pollution on life expectancy.
Republican Association.
3. Naujavan Bharat Sabha aimed to 3. As per this index, the acceptable limit
mobilize the peasants and the workers for PM 2.5 is 10 micrograms per cubic
against the colonial rule. meter.
How many of the above statements are How many of the above statements are
incorrect? correct?
(a) Only one (a) Only one
(b) Only two (b) Only two
(c) All three (c) All three
(d) None (d) None
41. Consider the following statements: 44. With respect to “Stump-tailed macaque”,
1. Pandharpur temple is situated on the consider the following statements:
banks of the Sukapaika River. 1. It is a species of macaque native to
2. Vithoba temple serves as the primary South Asia and Southeast Asia.
centre of worship for Vithoba, a 2. In India it is found only in western
manifestation of Lord Shiva. Ghats.
3. The Warkari community is associated 3. It is listed as endangered on the IUCN
with Vithoba temple. Red List of species.
How many of the above statements are How many of the above statements are
correct? correct?
(a) Only one (a) Only one
(b) Only two (b) Only two
(c) All three (c) All three
(d) None (d) None
RAUSIAS-0257 8
45. Consider the following pairs: 48. With respect to the “wetlands (conservation
and management) rules, 2017”, consider
S.N. Waterfall State the following statements:
1. Kunchikal Karnataka 1. These rules mandate the establishment
2. Barehipani Odisha of a State Wetland Authority in each
state and union territory, presided over
3. Kynrem Kerala
by the Chief Minister of the state.
How many of the above pairs are correctly 2. The rules introduce the concept of
matched? “smart use” as the guiding principle for
(a) Only one pair wetland management.
(b) Only two pairs 3. National Wetland Committee (NWC) has
(c) All three pairs replaced the Central Wetlands
(d) None of the pairs Regulatory Authority.
46. With respect to “Vaquita porpoise”, correct?
consider the following statements: (a) Only one
1. It is a small porpoise found only in the (b) Only two
northern Gulf of Guinea around Gabon. (c) All three
2. It is a toothed whale like dolphins and (d) None
sperm whales.
3. It is listed as least concern on the IUCN
49. Consider the following statements:
Red List of species.
1. Morocco is a country in the Maghreb
correct? Region of Western North Africa.
(a) Only one 2. The Rif Mountains dominate the

central part of the Morocco.
(b) Only two
(c) All three 3. Jebel Toubkal is the highest point in
Morocco.
(d) None
correct?
47. With reference to the Montreux record,
consider the following statements: (a) Only one
1. It was adopted in Brisbane during the (b) Only two
Conference of the Contracting Parties in (c) All three
1996. (d) None
2. Loktak Lake, Keoladeo National Park
and Chilika Lake are the prominent 50. The word 'Tharosaurus indicus' is
Montreux Record sites in India. sometimes mentioned in media in reference
3. Wetlands under Montreux record have to
either undergone, are undergoing, or
(a) fossils of a kind of dinosaurs.
are anticipated to experience changes in
their ecological character. (b) an early human species.
How many of the above statements are (c) a cave system found in North-East
correct? India.
(a) Only one (d) a geological period in the history of
(b) Only two Indian subcontinent.
(c) All three
(d) None
RAUSIAS-0257 9
Answers &
Explanations
of
TEST ID: 0257

GENERAL STUDIES (PAPER–I)
CA: October 2023
ANSWERS & EXPLANATIONS OF

CA: October 2023
GS Paper-I: (0257)
1. Answer: (b) 3. Answer: (d)

Explanation: Explanation:
● BlueWalker 3 is a prototype satellite, a ● Quantum dots are tiny particles or
part of a planned constellation of over a nanocrystals of semiconducting
hundred similar satellites intended to material made from a semiconductor
deliver mobile or broadband services such as Silicon with a diameter in the
anywhere in the world. range of 2–10 nm (10–50 atoms).
● It is considered the largest commercial ● They behave like artificial atoms, as
antenna system ever deployed in low- they can have a fixed number of
Earth orbit, launched by AST
electrons in a confined space, leading to
SpaceMobile, a US-based company.
unique properties that are size-
● The satellite is among the brightest dependent.
objects in the sky resulting from a
Important applications of QDs:
massive phased-array antenna.
Bluewalker 3’s large size and bright ● Bioimaging: QDs are 20 times brighter
reflective surfaces could interfere with and 100 times more stable than
astronomical observations, as its light traditional fluorescent dyes, are
could be mistaken for stars or interfere photostable and can be used in
with the ability to detect dimmer bioimaging.
objects. It actively transmits at radio ● Bio-sensors: QD sensors can detect
frequencies that are close to bands presence of pathogens in food or water,
reserved for radio astronomy, which or monitor levels of pollutants in the
may hamper radio telescope environment.
observations.
● Targeted Cancer treatment: QDs
exhibit specific optoelectronic properties
2. Answer: (c) which can be utilised for targeted
Explanation: cancer treatment. Because of their nano
● Picoflare jets are relatively small jets of size; they possess large surface area
charged particles expelled intermittently ensuring higher drug loading capacity
from the sun’s corona at supersonic and can tag nanocarriers in biological
speeds for 20 to 100 seconds. These systems.
charged jets are a source of the solar ● Optical applications: QDs could be
wind. used to make smaller and more efficient
● These jets from the sun are named so image sensors like CMOS sensors.
because they carry approximately one- QLEDs are capable of emitting all
trillionth energy of the largest flares the colours depending on their size. Thus,
sun is capable of producing. “Pico” is an
they provide high-definition, brighter
order of magnitude that denotes 10-12 or
and more colourful displays.
one trillionth of a unit.
● Flexible electronics: Quantum-dot
● It has significant effects on the large-
logic circuits layout building blocks for
scale solar system as well as on Earth’s
innovative devices, including printable
magnetic field and poses risks to
electronics and flexible display screens.
satellites.
RAUSIAS-0257 1
4. Answer: (c) introduced by the vaccine, it can

Explanation: respond more rapidly and effectively
● The 2023 Nobel Prize in Physics has if exposed to the same antigen in
been awarded to Pierre Agostini, Ferenc future.
Krausz and Anne L’Huillier for ○ No Live Pathogen: Making them
experimental methods that generate safer for individuals with weakened
attosecond pulses of light (10-18 immune systems or other health
seconds) that can be used to measure conditions in comparison to other
the rapid processes at which electrons vaccines.
operate. ○ No Risk of Insertional
● Potential Applications: Mutagenesis: As mRNA does not get
○ Helps to understand and control into the genetic material of the host
how electrons behave in a material genome.
which aids in designing more ● Potential Risk: They are not as stable
efficient electronic gadgets. at high temperatures, making
○ In medical diagnostics, Attosecond packaging and distribution difficult.
pulses can be used to identify Also, the long-term effects of the
different molecules and study vaccines are still unknown.
molecular-level changes in blood to
identify diseases. 6. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
5. Answer: (b) ● Stem cells are unique cells with the
Explanation: potential to develop into specialised
● In mRNA vaccines, the focus shifts from cell types in the body. They can self-
introducing pathogens or their proteins renew which makes them valuable for
into the body to harnessing the cellular therapeutic applications. Stem cell
machinery directly. mRNA serves as the therapy or treatment utilises stem cells
messenger, instructing cells to to promote the repair, regeneration, or
synthesise specific proteins, which in replacement of damaged or diseased
turn, trigger immune responses. tissues within the body.
● Advantages of mRNA vaccine: ● Uses of Stem Cell Therapy:
○ Large-scale adaptability and ○ Cell-based Therapies: Stem cells
speedy development: mRNA can be used to create specialised
vaccines are based on sequences of cells for transplantation. E.g.,
viral proteins, making a new vaccine Hematopoietic stem cells are used in
could simply involve changing the bone marrow transplants to treat
mRNA sequence if one knows what blood-related disorders and cancers.
protein one wants to make. ○ Regenerative Medicine: The
○ Specificity: mRNA vaccines can be technology can replace or regenerate
designed to target specific antigens, damaged or diseased tissues and
such as viral proteins. This allows organs. This could revolutionise
for highly targeted immune treatments for conditions like spinal
responses against particular cord injuries, heart diseases,
pathogens or diseases. Parkinson and diabetes.
○ Immunological Memory: Once the ○ Personalised Medicine: Potential to
immune system has encountered create patient-specific therapies by
the antigen through mRNA using patients own cells to generate
RAUSIAS-0257 2
replacement tissues reducing risk of 8. Answer: (d)

immune rejection and need for Explanation:
organ donation. The Government’s Initiatives for the
○ Drug Testing/Disease Modeling: Startup Ecosystem –
Used to create disease-specific cell ● Startup India: This Initiative aims to
models, enabling researchers to create a robust and all-encompassing
better understand diseases and environment for innovation and
develop new drugs. entrepreneurship.
● As per the National Guidelines for ● The Credit Guarantee Scheme for
Stem Cell Research (NGSCR) 2017, Startups (CGSS): It offers guarantees
only bone marrow/hematopoietic stem upto a specified limit on the loans
cell transplantation for blood disorders extended by the Member Institutions
(including blood cancers and (MIs).
thalassemia) is permitted use of stem ● Support for Intellectual Property
cells. At present, stem cell therapy other Protection (SIPP): This Initiative
than bone marrow transplant or facilitates the Startups in filing
hematopoietic stem cell transplant for applications for patents, designs and
conditions listed in the NGSCR 2017 is trademarks through registered
neither available nor permissible. facilitators at the appropriate IP offices,
with payment limited to the statutory
fees.
7. Answer: (d)
● Expedited Exit for the Startups: The
Explanation: Startups can conclude their
● Origins, Spectral Interpretation, operations within 90 days, in
Resources Identification and Security- contrast to 180 days allowed for
Regolith Explorer (OSIRIS REx) is an other companies.
asteroid study and sample return ● The Startup India Seed Fund Scheme
mission by NASA. The spacecraft set (SISFS): It provides financial
out in 2016 to study asteroid Bennu (a assistance to the Startups for
carbon-rich near-Earth asteroid) and activities, such as proof of concept,
returned to Earth with a sample for prototype development, product
detailed analysis in 2023. trials, market entry and
● Bennu is a small asteroid, a little less commercialization.
than 500 metres in depth and is more
than 4.5 billion years old. It is classified 9. Answer: (c)
as a “near-Earth object” because it Explanation:
passes relatively close to our planet India’s Digital Public Infrastructure –
every six years. (a) JAM (Jan Dhan, Aadhaar and Mobile):
● For a mission like OSIRIS-REx, the Aadhaar provided the first identity
most accessible asteroids are document for 65-70 million individuals.
somewhere between 0.08 –1.6 AU. ● It has furthered the financial
Researchers believe that this pristine inclusion, with the percentage of the
space dirt will reveal clues about the population having bank accounts
birth of our solar system (4.5 billion increasing from 53% in 2015-16 to
years ago) and the genesis of life on 78% in 2019-21, as per the National
Earth. Family Health Survey (NFHS).
RAUSIAS-0257 3
● Additionally, the direct benefit individuals from adopting digital

transfer of the subsidies has helped technologies, especially when dealing
the government reduce its overall with sensitive personal information.
subsidy expenditure by plugging the ● Insufficient Infrastructure
leakages. Accessibility: Many regions,
(b) Digital Public Goods (DPGs): particularly the rural and the remote
● The notable examples include digital areas, face issues related to unreliable
verification (e-KYC), digital internet access and a lack of digital
signatures, Digital Repository (Digi infrastructure. This problem is further
Locker), Digital Payments (UPI), exacerbated by limited access to
ONDC (The Open Network for Digital electricity and a shortage of essential
Commerce) and the Account digital devices, such as computers and
Aggregator Framework. smartphones.
● These have resulted in greater ● Affordability Issues: Even when the
financial inclusion, access to credit, digital infrastructure is available, the
increased economic growth, access cost of internet access and digital
to e-commerce markets and credit devices can be a significant barrier
availability for smaller businesses. for numerous individuals and
(c) Digital Finance Architecture: families, especially in the low-income
communities.
● These include the digitalized GST
system, digital identities (Aadhaar, ● Language and Content Barriers: The
eShram Portal, SVANidhi, Udayam prevalence of content in a few dominant
Portal), and UPI. languages can exclude the non-English
speakers or those not proficient in the
● These have formalized the business
primary language. The absence of
transactions, simplified access to
localized and relevant content can
formal credit and contributed to the
obstruct access to essential information
formalization of the economy and
and services.
workforce.
● Challenges for the Persons with
(d) Unified Digital Interfaces for
Disabilities: They may encounter
Simplified Governance:
difficulties in accessing and using the
● The notable examples are the
digital technologies due to limited
National Single Window System for
accessibility features and design
business approvals, JanSamarth
considerations in digital platforms.
portal for credit-linked Central
Government schemes, the UMANG
app for access to the government 10. Answer: (a)
services and PM Gati Shakti, a GIS- Explanation:
based platform facilitating integrated About Online Gaming: Online gaming
infrastructure connectivity projects. refers to the games that can only be played
● These initiatives enhance the ease of with an internet connection. Different
doing business, reduce logistics types of online games are –
costs and streamline governance ● E-sports: Well organized electronic
through system integration. sports which include professional
Challenges: players.
● Privacy and Security Apprehensions: ● Fantasy sports: Choosing real life
Concerns about privacy breaches and sports players and winning points
data security issues can discourage the
RAUSIAS-0257 4
based on the players’ performance in a ceiling of Rs. 25 crores), extended to

match. the MSMEs by the eligible lending
● Skill-based: Mental skill. institutions.
● Chance-based: Based on random ● This Fund will be managed by the
activity, like roll of a dice online games. NABSanrakshan Trustee Private
Tax on Online Gaming: Limited, a Trustee Company and a
wholly owned subsidiary of the National
● The GST Council has imposed 28%
Bank for Agriculture and Rural
GST on online gaming, casinos and
Development (NABARD).
horse racing on the full face value.
● It is established under the Prime
● Earlier, the GST regime differentiated
Minister’s AtmaNirbhar Bharat Abhiyan
online games, based on skills versus
stimulus package of Rs. 15,000 crores
chance. For a game of skills, such as e-
“Animal Husbandry Infrastructure
sports, puzzles and some card games,
Development Fund” (AHIDF).
an 18% GST was chargeable. Whereas,
for a game of chance, including
gambling at the casinos, a 28% GST 12. Answer: (a)
was chargeable. Explanation:
● The GST Law was amended to include About the Corporate Debt Market
online gaming under its scope, as Development Fund (CDMDF):
currently it falls under actionable ● Regulated by: The Securities and
claims. Exchange Board of India (SEBI).
● It is an ‘alternative investment fund’
11. Answer: (b) (AIF), which will act as a backstop
Explanation: facility for the purchase of investment
The Features of the Credit Guarantee grade corporate debt securities.
Scheme for the Livestock Sector: ● The Corporate Debt Market
● The Scheme aims to strengthen the Development Fund (CDMDF) is
credit delivery system and facilitate launched as a close-ended scheme,
smooth flow of credit to the Micro, with an initial tenure of 15 years
Small and Medium Enterprises (extendable) from the date of its
(MSMEs), engaged in the livestock initial closing.
sector. ● During the normal times, the CDMDF
● It also facilitates access to finance for will deal in low duration government
the un-served and under-served securities (G-sec), treasury bills, tri-
livestock sector, from the lenders to party repo on G-secs and guaranteed
mainly the first-generation corporate bond repo, with maturity not
entrepreneurs and underprivileged exceeding seven days.
sections of the society, who lack ● The corporate debt securities to be
collateral security for supporting their bought by the CDMDF during market
ventures. dislocation include listed money market
● For operationalizing the scheme, the instruments, for which the long-term
Department of Animal Husbandry and rating of the issuers will be considered.
Dairying (DAHD), has established a ● Hence, the CDMDF will buy only the
Credit Guarantee Fund Trust of Rs. investment-grade securities from the
750.00 crores, which will provide secondary markets, listed and having
credit guarantee coverage upto 25% residual maturity of upto five years.
of the credit facilities (maximum
RAUSIAS-0257 5
● It will not buy any unlisted, below- the Indian Government Bonds (IGBs)
investment grade or defaulted debt in the global indices will enable the
securities, or securities in respect of government to vacate domestic
which there is a material possibility of market space for the corporate
default or adverse credit news or views. bonds, thereby deepening the
● The facility will help instil confidence corporate bond market in India.
amongst the participants in the ● Internationalization of Currency: This
corporate debt market during the times move will boost the confidence of the
of stress and to generally enhance investors over our currency and will
secondary market liquidity by creating a help in achieving the goal of
permanent institutional framework for internationalization of the Indian rupee.
activation in the times of market stress. Potential Risks:
● Currency Appreciation: Increased
13. Answer: (c) foreign inflows, as a result of the
Explanation: inclusion of the Indian Bonds in the
JP Morgan announced that the Indian global index, may appreciate the Indian
Government Bonds will be a part of its currency, thereby making Indian
Government Bond Index-Emerging Markets exports uncompetitive.
(GBIEM) global index suite from June, ● Vulnerability to External Factors:
2024. During globally uncertain times, there
Advantages: could be volatility in the Indian bond
market or in the currency because of
● Reduces the Cost of Borrowing: The
the holding of the Indian G-Secs by the
inclusion of the Indian Government
foreigners.
Bonds in this global index will broaden
its bond market and help in mobilizing ● Monetary Policy Priorities: With the
resources at cheaper cost. growing demand for the G-secs from the
foreign investors, the monetary policy
● Reduces Interest Rates in the
may need to control the volatility of the
Domestic Market: Since market
yield of the G-secs, which may come in
interest rates in India are benchmarked
conflict with its objective of inflation
to the G-secs, any reduction in the G-
control.
sec interest rates will eventually be
translated into reduction in the interest
rates of the banks. 14. Answer: (c)
● Accumulation of Forex Reserves: It is Explanation:
expected that around $30 billion are ● The Reserve Bank of India defines the
going to be pumped into India’s Central Bank Digital Currency (CBDC)
sovereign bond market within a year, as the legal tender issued by a central
and it will help India in building a huge bank in a digital form. It is the same as
forex reserve base. a sovereign currency and is
● Deepening of the Corporate Bond exchangeable one-to-one at par with the
Market: During the phases of fiat currency.
expansionary fiscal policies, the ● While money in digital form is
government resorts to aggressive predominant in India—for example, in
borrowing from the domestic market, the bank accounts recorded as the book
leaving little space for the corporates, entries on the commercial bank
and it often results in crowding-out of ledgers—a CBDC would differ from the
private investment. The inclusion of existing digital money available to the
RAUSIAS-0257 6
public, because a CBDC would be a territory (sum interest and for goods and
of output total profit services. The
liability of the Reserve Bank of India,
minus This formula to
and not of a commercial bank. approach calculate GDP
intermediate covers only under this
Features of the CBDC: consumption) the incomes method is
● The CBDC is a sovereign currency plus indirect generated GDP = C + I +
taxes minus within the
issued by the central banks in G + NX
subsidies on domestic
alignment with their monetary policy. economy.
products.
● It appears as a liability on the central
bank’s balance sheet.
17. Answer: (a)
● It must be accepted as a medium of
payment, legal tender and a safe store Explanation:
of value by all citizens, enterprises and  The Association of Southeast Asian
government agencies. Nations, or ASEAN, was established in
● Freely convertible against commercial 1967 in Bangkok (Thailand), with the
bank money and cash. signing of the ASEAN Declaration (The
● Fungible legal tender for which the Bangkok Declaration) by the Founding
holders need not have a bank account. Fathers of the ASEAN: Indonesia,
Malaysia, the Philippines, Singapore
● Expected to lower the cost of issuance
and Thailand. (Maldives is not a
of money and transactions.
member state).
 Brunei Darussalam joined the ASEAN
15. Answer: (d)
in 1984, followed by Viet Nam
Explanation: in1995, Lao PDR and Myanmar in
● Fiat Currency derives its value from 1997, and Cambodia in 1999, making
the guarantee provided by the Central up what is today the ten Member
Bank. States of the ASEAN.
● Cryptocurrency has no value in its  ASEAN Catalytic Green Finance
individual capacity. (ACGF) Facility: It is an ASEAN
● Stable Coin’s value is pegged to other Infrastructure Fund initiative
currencies, such as Diem, TruelNR. supporting the governments in South-
east Asia to prepare and finance the
16. Answer: (a) infrastructure projects that promote
Explanation: environmental sustainability and
contribute to climate change goals. The
GDP refers to the total value of final goods
ACGF is owned by the ASEAN
and services produced within the
governments and the ADB (Asian
geographical territory of an economy during
Development Bank), and managed by
a specific year, normally a year. It is
the ADB.
calculated under three methods:
Note: India is a free trade partner of the
GDP
ASEAN.
Production Income Expenditure
Method Method method
Adding This approach 18. Answer: (b)
This approach
measures the together the takes into Explanation:
income consideration
sum of value  At a special event on the sidelines of
components the total
added of all that make up expenditure the recently concluded G20 Summit
economic the value incurred by all
added-rents, individuals in in New Delhi, a memorandum of
activities within
the country's wages, one economy understanding (MoU) was signed to
RAUSIAS-0257 7
establish the ‘India-Middle East-  It is an intergovernmental organization.

Europe Economic Corridor’ (IMEC).  It was officially launched in 2002 as a
 Other than the two co-chairs of the successor to the Organization of African
event, the Indian Prime Minister Unity (OAU).
Narendra Modi and the US President  Launched in 2007 by the African Union,
Joe Biden, the signatories included the the game-changing African-led Great
leaders of Saudi Arabia, the United Green Wall Initiative aims to restore the
Arab Emirates (UAE), the European continent’s degraded landscapes and
Union (EU), Italy, France and Germany. transform millions of lives in the Sahel.
 The proposed IMEC will consist of  The African Union Commission (AUC) is
railroad, ship-to-rail networks (road and the AU's secretariat and undertakes the
sea) and road transport routes (and day to day activities of the Union. It is
networks) extending across the two based in Addis Ababa, Ethiopia.
corridors, that is, the east corridor –
connecting India to the Gulf, and the
21. Answer: (b)
northern corridor – connecting the Gulf
Explanation:
to Europe.
 The ‘Five Eyes’ is a multilateral
 The project, which forms part of the
intelligence sharing network of five
Partnership for Global Infrastructure
countries, Australia, Canada, New
and Investment (PGII), may also serve
Zealand, the United Kingdom and the
as a counter to China’s economic
United States of America.
influence in the Eurasian region.
 It is both surveillance-based and tracks
signals intelligence (SIGINT).
19. Answer: (b)
 In 1946, the alliance was formalized
Explanation:
through an agreement for cooperation
 The G20 was founded in 1999 after the
in signals intelligence.
Asian financial crisis, as a forum for the
 The arrangement was later extended to
Finance Ministers and the Central Bank
‘second party’ countries – Canada
Governors to discuss global economic
joined in 1948, while Australia and
and financial issues.
New Zealand became part of the
 The African Union became a full
alliance in 1956.
member of the G20 during the 18th G20
 The Five Eyes have become involved in
Summit at Delhi.
ocean and maritime surveillance, and
Note: Together with the IFC, the World
the continuous sharing of intelligence
Bank launched the Joint Capital Markets
products via a secret collective
Initiative. It promotes capital market
database, known as the ‘Stone Ghost’.
development in the emerging countries by
supporting liquid, diverse, long-tenor
financing and well-regulated local capital 22. Answer: (c)
markets. Explanation:
The World Intellectual Property
20. Answer: (c) Organization (WIPO):
Explanation:  It is the global forum for intellectual
property (IP) services, policy,
 The African Union (AU) is a continental
information and cooperation, which was
body, consisting of 55 member states,
established in 1967.
that make up the countries of the
African continent.
RAUSIAS-0257 8
 It is a self-funded agency of the United  The different metrics that the GII offers
Nations, with 193 member states. help to monitor performance and
 Its mission is to lead the development of benchmark developments against the
a balanced and effective international IP economies within the same region or
system, that enables innovation and income group.
creativity for the benefit of all.  Switzerland is the most innovative
 Headquarters: Geneva (Switzerland). economy in 2023 followed by Sweden,
 Parent Organization: The United the United States, the United Kingdom
Nations Economic and Social Council. and Singapore.
Note: India retained its 40th position on the
annual Global Innovation Index (GII) 2023,
23. Answer: (c)
due to its vibrant start-up ecosystem,
Explanation:
knowledge capital and the work done by
The Global Biofuel Alliance: the public and the private research
 The Global Biofuel Alliance is an organizations.
initiative by India, as the chair of G20
that aims to serve as a catalytic 25. Answer: (b)
platform, fostering global collaboration
Explanation:
for the advancement and widespread
The United Nations Population Fund: It
adoption of biofuels.
is formerly the United Nations Fund for
 India, Brazil and the US are the
Population Activities, and is a UN agency
founding members of the Alliance.
aimed at improving reproductive and
 It is an alliance of the governments, maternal health worldwide. Its work
international organizations and includes developing national healthcare
industry to facilitate adoption of strategies and protocols, increasing access
biofuels. to birth control, and leading campaigns
 It brings together the biggest consumers against child marriage, gender-based
and producers of biofuels, aiming to violence, obstetric fistula and female genital
drive biofuels development and mutilation.
deployment, and position biofuels as a It is a founding member of the United
key to energy transition and economic Nations Development Group, a collection of
growth. the UN agencies and programmes focused
on fulfilling the Sustainable Development
24. Answer: (d) Goals.
Explanation: The agency began operations in 1969 as
The Global Innovation Index (GII) 2023: the United Nations Fund for Population
Activities and the name was changed to
 The Index is released annually by the
United Nations Population Fund in 1987.
World Intellectual Property Organization
(WIPO) to rank 132 economies on the Its headquarter is located in New York
Innovation Index. City, United States.
 Envisioned to capture as complete a

picture of innovation as possible, the 26. Answer: (c)
Index comprises around 80 indicators, Explanation:
including measures on the political The National Education Policy (NEP) 2020
environment, education, infrastructure proposes various reforms in school
and knowledge creation of each education, as well as higher education,
economy. including technical education. A number of
RAUSIAS-0257 9
action points/activities for implementation Education Regulatory Council

in school education, as well as higher (NHERC).
education are mentioned in the National  Creation of an autonomous body, the
Education Policy 2020. National Educational Technology
Salient features of the NEP 2020 are as Forum (NETF) to provide a platform for
follows: the free exchange of ideas on the use
 Ensuring universal access at all levels of technology to enhance learning,
of schooling from pre-primary school assessment, planning and
to Grade 12. administration. Appropriate
 Ensuring quality early childhood care integration of technology into all levels
and education for all children between of education.
3-6 years.  Achieving 100% youth and adult
 Establishing the National Mission on literacy.
Foundational Literacy and Numeracy.  The NEP 2020 aims to increase the
 Emphasis on promoting GER to 100% in pre-school to
multilingualism and Indian languages; secondary level by 2030, whereas the
The medium of instruction until at GER in higher education, including
least Grade 5, but preferably till Grade vocational education, from 26.3%
8 and beyond, will be the home (2018) to 50% by 2035.
language/mother tongue/local
language/regional language. 27. Answer: (b)
 Equitable and inclusive education: Explanation:
Special emphasis given on Socially and
Economically Disadvantaged Groups
(SEDGs).
 A separate Gender Inclusion Fund and
Special Education Zones for the
disadvantaged regions and groups.
 Increasing the Gross Enrolment Ratio
(GER) in higher education to 50%.
 Establishment of Academic Bank of
Credit: Setting up of Multidisciplinary
Education and Research Universities
(MERUs).
 Single overarching umbrella body for
the promotion of higher education
sector, including teacher education
and excluding medical and legal
Pradhan Mantri Vishwakarma Scheme has
education - the Higher Education
been launched in 2023. It is a Central
Commission of India (HECI) - with
Sector Scheme to provide end-to-end
independent bodies for standard
support to the artisans and the
setting - the General Education
craftspeople who work with their hands
Council; Funding-Higher Education
and tools. To support the artisans in
Grants Council (HEGC); accreditation-
accessing both domestic and global value
National Accreditation Council (NAC);
chains, thereby increasing their market
and regulation- National Higher
opportunities, and to preserve and promote
RAUSIAS-0257 10
India's traditional crafts, while also  Earlier, there was a requirement for
assisting the artisans in transitioning to certain persons to report births and
the formal economy and integrating them deaths to the Registrar.
into the global value chains.  It will be compulsory for the States to
The Nodal Ministry is the Ministry of Micro, register births and deaths on the
Small and Micro Enterprises (MoMSME). It Centre’s Civil Registration System
is jointly implemented by the MoMSME, the (CRS) portal and share the data with
Ministry of Skill Development & the RGI.
Entrepreneurship and the Department of  It makes it mandatory for all medical
Financial Services, Ministry of Finance, institutions to provide a certificate as to
Government of India. the cause of death to the Registrar and
Collateral free ‘Enterprise Development a copy of the same to the nearest
Loans’ of upto Rs. 3 lakhs in two relative.
tranches of Rs. 1 lakh and Rs. 2 lakhs,
with tenures of 18 months and 30
29. Answer: (a)
months, respectively, at a concessional
Explanation:
rate of interest fixed at 5%, with interest
subvention of upto 8% provided by the The Civil Registration System (CRS) is
Government of India. the unified process of continuous,
permanent, compulsory and universal
recording of births and deaths.
28. Answer: (c)
The Civil Registration System (CRS) is
Explanation:
popularly known as the ‘birth and death
The Provisions of the Registration of registration system’. It is the recording of
Births and Deaths (Amendment) Act, vital events, i.e., births, deaths and still
2023: births, under the statutory provisions on
 Birth Certificate will be considered as continuous and permanent basis.
single document for availing several The CRS falls under the Concurrent
crucial services, including admission to List of the Constitution of India. Vital
an educational institution, issuance of a statistics generated from Civil Registration
driving licence, preparation of the voter significantly contribute to the formulation
list, Aadhaar number, registration of of effective and efficient evidence-based
marriage, appointment to a government policy across multiple sectors.
job etc.
The Registrar General of India: It was
 Create database of registered births founded in 1961 by the Government of
and deaths, which eventually would India, under the Ministry of Home
ensure efficient and transparent Affairs. It organizes, carries out and
delivery of public services and social analyses the outcomes of demographic
benefits and digital registration. surveys in India, which encompass the
 The Act grants authority to Census of India and the Linguistic Survey
the Registrar General of India (RGI) to of India. The position of the Registrar is
oversee a national registry of births and usually held by a Civil Servant, holding the
deaths. Chief Registrars (appointed by rank of a Joint Secretary.
the States) and Registrars (appointed
by the States for local areas) will be
30. Answer: (d)
obligated to contribute data to this
Explanation:
national database, while the Chief
Registrars maintain similar databases  Various Bills amending the
at the State level. Constitution to reserve the seats for
RAUSIAS-0257 11
women in the Lok Sabha and the Policy (NEP) (2020) recommends that all
State Legislative Assemblies have students will learn three languages in
been introduced in 1996, 1998, 1999 their school under the ‘formula’. At least
and 2008. two of the three languages should be
 The 73rd and the 74th Constitutional native to India.
Amendment Acts, 1992 provided for the  Article 345: The Legislature of a State
reservation of women in the local may, by law, adopt any one or more of
bodies. The 106th Amendment to the the languages in use in the State.
Constitution provides reservation for
women in the Lok Sabha and every
33. Answer: (b)
State Legislative Assembly.
Explanation:
 The Act has a ‘sunset clause’, which
means that the reservation for  Registration of periodicals: The Press
women will be in effect for a period of and Registration of Periodicals Act,
15 years from the commencement of 2023, allows for registering newspapers,
the Act. periodicals and books, and cataloguing
books.
31. Answer: (b)  Foreign periodicals: An exact

Explanation: reproduction of a foreign periodical
may be printed in India only with the
 The purpose of the Parliamentary
prior approval of the Central
Privileges is to safeguard the freedom,
Government. The manner of
authority and dignity of the Parliament.
They are necessary for the proper registration of such periodicals will
exercise of the functions entrusted to be prescribed.
the Parliament by the Constitution.  Appeal: Any person may appeal against
 The Constitution of India states that the the refusal to issue a registration
privileges of the Parliament and the certificate, suspension/cancellation of
State Legislatures should be defined by registration or imposition of penalty.
law. Such appeals may be filed before the
 Currently, there is no law that Press and Registration Appellate Board
codifies all the privileges of the within 60 days.
legislators in India.
34. Answer: (a)
32. Answer: (b) Explanation:
Explanation:  Article 29:
 The 2011 Linguistic Census accounts o Any section of the citizens, residing
for 121 mother tongues, including 22 in the territory of India or any part
languages listed in the 8th Schedule to thereof, having a distinct language,
the Constitution. script, or culture of its own, shall
 Currently, six languages enjoy the have the right to conserve the same.
‘Classical’ status: Tamil (declared in o No citizen shall be denied admission
2004), Sanskrit (2005), Kannada (2008),
into any educational institution
Telugu (2008), Malayalam (2013) and
maintained by the State or receiving
Odia (2014).
aid out of the State funds on the
 The ‘Three Language Formula’ under grounds only of religion, race, caste,
the National Education Policy (NEP), language, or any of them.
2020: The new National Education
RAUSIAS-0257 12
 Article 30: governance reforms. He faced a

o All minorities, whether based on significant setback in the famous
religion or language, shall have Battle of Takkolam against the
the right to establish and Rashtrakutas.
administer educational  Rajaraja I achieved victory in naval
institutions of their choice. expeditions along the West Coast, Sri
o The State shall not, in granting aid Lanka and the Maldives. His conquests
to the educational institutions, extended the Chola authority over
discriminate against any northern and eastern Sri Lanka.
educational institution on the Notably, he defeated the Cheras in the
ground that it is under the Battle of Kandanur Salai. In 1010 AD,
management of a minority, whether he constructed the iconic Rajarajeswara
based on religion or language. temple in Tanjore.
 Rajendra Chola I led remarkable
35. Answer: (d) military campaigns, including the defeat
Explanation: of Mahipala I of Bengal. He founded the
city of Gangaikondacholapuram and
 The Fourth Schedule to the
built the renowned Rajesvaram temple.
Constitution of India provides for the
 Kulathunga Chola I, upheld the Chola
seats allocated to each State. But there
legacy by abolishing taxes, promoting
is no provision regarding reservation
trade with China, and unifying the
in the Rajya Sabha in the
Constitution. Vengi kingdom with the Chola
empire.
 In the 'Economically Weaker
 The decline of the Chola empire was
Sections' (EWS) judgement, the
marked by Rajendra III, the last Chola
Supreme Court said that the 50%
limit is flexible and applies only to king, who was defeated by Jatavarman
Sundarapandya II.
the Socially Economic Backward
Classes (SEBCs).
 The 73rd and the 74th Constitutional 37. Answer: (c)
Amendment Acts provide reservation for Explanation:
the SC/STs, but State Legislature by  The portrayal of Shiva as Nataraja has
law can provide for reservation for its origins in the fifth century AD, but it
OBCs in the States with respect to was during the rule of the Chola
Panchayats and Municipalities. dynasty that this form of Shiva achieved
its iconic status as the Lord of Dance.
36. Answer: (d)  Shiva, a multifaceted deity within the
Explanation: Puranic pantheon, has evolved from the
The Chola dynasty's political history can Vedic deity Rudra. Renowned Indologist
be outlined as follows: A. L. Basham, in his work 'The Wonder
that was India' (1954), described Shiva
 Vijayalaya, through his conquest of
as embodying 'death and time'
the Kaveri delta from the
(Mahakala). He is a deity who both
Muttaraiyar, marked the resurgence
destroys all things and serves as a
of the Chola dynasty. He founded the
patron of ascetics.
city of Thanjavur and established the
Chola kingdom in 850 CE.  Nataraja's upper right hand holds a
Damru, a hand drum, the sound of
 Parantaka I initiated territorial
which draws all beings into his
expansion and introduced
RAUSIAS-0257 13
rhythmic motion. The upper left arm o Construction of the Chennakeshava

holds Agni, symbolizing fire, which temple commenced in 1117 AD, and
brings about the destruction of the it is dedicated to Lord Vishnu.
universe. Beneath one of Nataraja's feet, o The temple's distinctive feature is its
a dwarf-like figure lies crushed, intricately sculpted exterior,
symbolizing illusion, which misleads depicting stories from Lord Vishnu's
humanity. Nataraja also offers life, his divine incarnations, and epic
reassurance, depicting Shiva as the tales from the Ramayana and the
Protector. With his front right hand, he Mahabharata.
makes the 'Abhayamudra,' a gesture o These carvings also include the
that allays fear, and with his raised feet, representations of Lord Shiva,
he points to his feet, urging his devotees reflecting the harmonious
to seek refuge there. coexistence of the deities within the
 The bronze sculptures during the Chola Hindu pantheon.
period were crafted using the artistic o The Chennakeshava temple remains
technique, known as Cire Perdue or a significant pilgrimage site for the
Madhu Uchchishtta Vidhana. Vaishnavite devotees.
 The method involved mixing beeswax, a  The Hoysaleshwara temple, situated
type of camphor called Kungilium, and on the banks of the Dwarasamudra
a small amount of oil. tank in Halebid, was constructed in
 The wax model was then coated with 1121 CE during the reign of king
clay, dried and placed in an oven to Vishnuvardhana Hoysaleshwara.
melt or evaporate the wax. o This temple is dedicated to Lord
 Pancha Loham, a bronze alloy, was Shiva and was made possible
melted and poured into the clay mould, through the generous patronage and
filling every crevice and detail. financial support of the prosperous
 After cooling and solidifying, the clay citizens and merchants of
mould was broken, leaving only the Dorasamudra.
bronze sculpture. o What distinguishes the
Hoysaleshwara temple is its more
38. Answer: (b) than 240 exquisite wall sculptures
adorning its exterior.
Explanation:
o Beyond the temple, Halebid also
The Hoysala temples, built during the
houses three Jaina Basadi (temples)
12th and the 13th centuries, under the
from the Hoysala era, illustrating
patronage of the Hoysala kings, are
religious diversity and peaceful
devoted to the worship of the deities
coexistence of various faiths in the
Shiva and Vishnu. Notable among these
region.
temples are:
 The Kesava temple, located at the heart
 The Chennakeshava temple, located in
of Somanathapura village in Mysore
Belur within the Hassan district, is an
district, boasts a Trikuta architecture. It
architectural marvel.
is dedicated to Lord Krishna in three
o It sits along the banks of the
distinct forms: Janardhana, Keshava
Yagachi river and follows a
and Venugopala. These three deities
rectangular layout, enclosed by four
offer a multifaceted spiritual experience,
straight streets, facilitating the
embodying various facets of the divine.
traditional circumambulation of the
deity.
RAUSIAS-0257 14
39. Answer: (a)  To commemorate this triumph, he

Explanation: commissioned the construction of the
The Hoysala empire, a prominent Kirtinarayana temple in Talakadu and
Kannadiga dynasty hailing from the Indian the Chennakesava temple in Beluru.
sub-continent, exerted control over a  The Hoysala era marked a flourishing of
substantial part of what is now Karnataka literature in both Kannada and
during the period spanning from the 10th Sanskrit. Noteworthy literary works
to the 14th centuries. from this period include "Harihara" and
 Originally, the Hoysala empire emerged "Raghavanka's Harishchandracharite"
in the picturesque landscapes of in Kannada, as well as "Nemichandra's
Malenadu, a region nestled within the Leelavati Prabhanda" in Sanskrit.
Western Ghats.
 Nevertheless, the 12th century 40. Answer: (b)
witnessed the Hoysalas capitalizing on Explanation:
the internal strife between the Western  Bhagat Singh, a renowned figure in
Chalukya empire and the Kalachuris of India's struggle for independence, was
Kalyani. born on September 28, 1907, in
 This strategic manoeuvre enabled them Lyallpur (now in Pakistan).
to annex territories in the present-day  His early education took place at the
Karnataka and the fertile lands to the Dayanand Anglo Vedic High School and
north of the Kaveri delta, which are now the National College in Lahore.
part of Tamil Nadu. By the 13th  The spirit of activism ran in his
century, their dominion expanded to
family, as his uncle, Ajit Singh,
encompass most of Karnataka, actively participated in progressive
significant portions of north-western politics, notably in events such as
Tamil Nadu, and segments of western the Canal Colonization Bill agitation
Andhra Pradesh within the Deccan
in 1907 and the Ghadar Movement of
Plateau. 1914-1915.
 In terms of their political history, the
 In 1924, Bhagat Singh joined the
Hoysalas initially served as the
Hindustan Republican Association,
vassals or feudatories of the
which was founded by Sachindranath
Chalukyas of Kalyani. Sanyal.
 Their capital was situated in
 His unwavering dedication to the cause
Dwarasamudra (Halebeedu). The
prompted him to establish the
dynasty's origins were accredited to Naujawan Bharat Sabha in 1926, with
Sala, with successors like Vinayaditya the goal of mobilizing the peasants and
and Balalla I. the workers to oppose the British rule.
 However, the zenith of the Hoysala  Two years later, in 1928, Bhagat Singh,
power was reached under the rule of along with comrades like Sukhdev and
Vishnuvardhana, also known as Chandrashekhar Azad, formed the
Bittideva. Vishnuvardhana's
Hindustan Socialist Republican
exceptional military prowess was Association (HSRA).
exemplified by his decisive victory
 In addition to his direct actions, he
over the Cholas in the Battle of
made significant contributions to the
Talakadu, earning him the title
monthly magazine "Kirti," published by
"Talkadugonda."
the 'Workers and Peasants Party.'
RAUSIAS-0257 15
41. Answer: (a) 43. Answer: (a)

Explanation: Explanation:
Pandharpur, a prominent pilgrimage town Explanation: Annually, the Energy Policy
is situated on the banks of the Institute at the University of Chicago
Chandrabhaga River in Maharashtra, India. (EPIC) releases the Air Quality Life Index
The Warkari community is a distinct sect (AQLI), which serves as a pollution index
hailing from the state of Maharashtra, that translates particulate air pollution
deeply rooted in the bhakti spiritual into a crucial metric: its impact on life
tradition of Hinduism, with a history expectancy.
tracing back to the 13th century CE. Their To create this index, the research findings
prominent saints include Dnyaneshwar, are combined with highly localized global
Namdev, Chokhamela, Eknath, and measurements of particulate matter.
Tukaram.  It has incorporated the revised
The central focus of Warkari devotion is guidelines set forth by the World Health
around Bhagwan Vitthal or Vithoba, Organization (WHO).
perceived as a manifestation of Lord  The WHO had updated its
Vishnu. recommendations, lowering the
acceptable limit for PM 2.5 from 10
42. Answer: (c) micrograms per cubic meter to 5
Explanation: micrograms per cubic meter.
ADI SHANKARA  The Air Quality Life Index (AQLI) gauges
 He was also known as Shankaracharya. the potential increase in life expectancy
that communities could experience if
 Born in Kaladi, Kerala in 788 CE.
they were to reduce air pollution levels
 Propounded the Doctrine of Advaita in line with either the World Health
(Monism) and wrote many Organization’s recommended guideline
commentaries on the Vedic canon or their own national standards.
(Upanishads, Brahma Sutras and
Bhagavad Gita) in Sanskrit.
 His major works included
Brahmasutrabhasya (Bhashya or
commentary on the Brahma Sutra),
Bhajagovinda Stotra and Nirvana
Shatakam.
 He was responsible to revive Hindu
philosophy at a time when Buddhism
was gaining momentum in India.
 He is said to have established four
Mathas (Hindu Monastaries) at
Shingeri, Puri, Dwaraka and Badrinath–
for propagation of Sanathana Dharma
in four corners of India.
 Adi Shankaracharya was opposed to 44. Answer: (a)
Buddhist philosophers. Explanation:
 Philosophy of Adi Shankara is part of Stump-tailed macaque: is also called the
Vedanta (One of the six schools of bear macaque, is a species of macaque
Aastik Hindu Philosophy). native to South Asia and Southeast Asia.
RAUSIAS-0257 16
In India, it found in evergreen forests in Vaquita Porpoise are the smallest species of
South Asia, including parts of Northeast cetacean order which also includes marine
India in forests south of the mammals like whales, dolphins and
Brahmaputra. Its range in India extends porpoises.
from Assam and Meghalaya to eastern IUCN Status: Critically Endangered
Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Manipur,
Mizoram and Tripura.
47. Answer: (b)
It is primarily frugivorous, but eats many
Explanation:
types of vegetation, such as seeds, leaves
The Montreux Record serves as a register of
and roots, but also hunts freshwater crabs,
wetland sites within the List of Wetlands of
frogs, bird eggs and insects. It is listed as
International Importance. These sites
vulnerable on the IUCN Red List of
have either undergone, are undergoing,
species.
or are anticipated to experience changes
in their ecological character due to
45. Answer: (b)
factors like technological advancements,
Explanation: pollution, or human interference.
 Kunchikal Falls: Located in the  Adopted in Brisbane during the
Shimoga district of Karnataka, Conference of the Contracting Parties
Kunchikal Falls is the highest waterfall in 1996, the Montreux Record operates
in India. It is formed by the Varahi River as an adjunct to the Montreux Record
and falls down a series of rocky Operating Guidelines.
outcrops.
 This database plays a pivotal role within
 Barehipani Falls: Found in the core the Ramsar Convention by continuously
area of Simlipal National Park in monitoring and documenting changes
Odisha, the Barehipani Falls are India’s in designated wetland sites, ensuring
second-highest waterfall. This two- their protection.
tiered waterfall is a major attraction in
 Two prominent Montreux Record
the national park.
sites in India include Loktak Lake in
 Kynrem Falls: Located in the East Manipur and Keoladeo National Park
Khasi Hills district of Meghalaya, the in Rajasthan. Chilika Lake, another
Kynrem Falls is a three-tiered waterfall significant Indian wetland, was added
and the seventh-highest in India. The to the Montreux Record in 1993 but
waterfall is part of the Thangkharang later removed from the list in 2002,
Park. showcasing the dynamic nature of
these designations.
46. Answer: (a)
Explanation: 48. Answer: (b)
Vaquita is a small porpoise found only in Explanation:
the northern Gulf of California around The Wetlands (Conservation and
Mexico in the shallow waters bordering Management) Rules, 2017, have been
the Colorado estuary. Vaquita is a officially promulgated by the Ministry of
toothed whale like dolphins and sperm Environment, Forests, and Climate Change
whales and different from baleen whales (MoEF&CC), in accordance with the
such as blue whale. provisions of the Environment (Protection)
Currently, only about 10 Vaquita Porpoise Act, 1986.
are believed to be surviving in the world.
RAUSIAS-0257 17
Salient Features of the Wetlands  The south-eastern region of the country

(Conservation and Management) Rules, is blanketed by the Sahara Desert, the
2017: world’s third-largest desert. It is
 State Wetland Authority (SWA): These bordered by the two countries of
rules mandate the establishment of a Western Sahara to the south and
State Wetland Authority in each state Algeria to the east. It has coastlines on
and union territory, presided over by the Atlantic Ocean to the west and the
the state’s environment minister. Mediterranean Sea to the north.
 Principles of Sustainable Use: The
rules introduce the concept of “smart 50. Answer: (a)
use” as the guiding principle for wetland Explanation:
management. Fossils of a plant-eating dinosaur
 National Wetland Committee (NWC): Tharosaurus indicus from the Middle
Replacing the Central Wetlands Jurassic period, found in the Thar desert
Regulatory Authority, the NWC is near the Jaisalmer Basin by the
established, with the MoEFCC secretary Geological Survey of India.
leading it.  The name “Tharosaurus indicus”
reflects its origin, with “Thar” referring
49. Answer: (b) to the Thar Desert and “indicus”
Explanation: indicating its origin in India.
Morocco is a country in the Maghreb  It is a long-necked, plant-eating
Region of Western North Africa that lies dinosaur species.
directly across the Strait of Gibraltar The dicraeosaurid dinosaur had previously
from Spain. been found in the North and South
 The Atlas Mountains dominate the Americas, Africa, and China. This is the
central part of the country, while the first instance of such fossils being
Rif Mountains make up the northern discovered in India.
edge.
 The Imperial Cities of Morocco are the
four historical capital cities of Morocco:
Fez, Marrakesh, Meknes, and Rabat.
Rabat is the current capital of Morocco.
 Jebel Toubkal is the highest point in
Morocco and is also the highest peak
of the Atlas Mountains.
RAUSIAS-0257 18

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This test is a part of Rau’s IAS Test series f or Preliminary Exam 202 4

1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK

4. All items carry equal marks.

7. Penalty for wrong answers:

2. The GST Council has imposed a (b) Only two

(d) Making Indian exports competitive in Method of

How many of the above statements are 1. It is an intergovernmental organization

(a) Only one 3. Its headquarter is situated at Geneva

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Which of the statements given above is/are

3. Leelavati and Harishchandracharite 42. With reference to Adi Shankara, consider

(a) Only one 2. The Rif Mountains dominate the

TEST ID: 0257

CA: October 2023

ANSWERS & EXPLANATIONS OF

1. Answer: (b) 3. Answer: (d)

4. Answer: (c) introduced by the vaccine, it can

replacement tissues reducing risk of 8. Answer: (d)

● Additionally, the direct benefit individuals from adopting digital

based on the players’ performance in a ceiling of Rs. 25 crores), extended to

establish the ‘India-Middle East-  It is an intergovernmental organization.

 Envisioned to capture as complete a

action points/activities for implementation Education Regulatory Council

31. Answer: (b)  Foreign periodicals: An exact

 Article 30: governance reforms. He faced a

rhythmic motion. The upper left arm o Construction of the Chennakeshava

39. Answer: (a)  To commemorate this triumph, he

41. Answer: (a) 43. Answer: (a)

Salient Features of the Wetlands  The south-eastern region of the country

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