(1) A Project Manager is at the project kick-off meeting.

He confidently states the vision and mission for the project. This PM is exhibiting the following lead ership style: 1. Hierarchal 2. Authoritarian 3. Charismatic 4. Associative Answer:C (2) You are in charge of developing a new product for an organization. Your qual ity metrics are based on the 80th percentile of each of the last three products developed. This is an example of: 1. Statistical sampling 2. Metrics 3. Benchmarking 4. Operational definitions Answer: C (3) The two closing procedures are called: 1. Contract close out and scope verification 2. Contract close out and Close Project 3. Project closure and product verification 4. Project closure and lessons learned Answer: B (4) During the schedule development process the Project Manager may have to go t hrough several iterations of the schedule before establishing the schedule basel ine. All of the following are tools and techniques that may be used during this process: 1. Critical Path Method, GERT, Resource Requirements 2. Resource Leveling Heuristics, Mathematical Analysis, Calendars 3. Duration compression, Resource Leveling Heuristics, PERT 4. GERT, PERT, Leads and Lags Answer:C (5) Which of the following models of conflict resolution allows a cooling off pe riod, but seldom resolves the issue in the long term? 1. Problem solving 2. Withdrawal 3. Forcing 4. Smoothing Answer:B (6) The receiver filters messages based on all but the following: 1. Culture 2. Semantics 3. Language 4. Distance 5. Knowledge Answer: D (7) How much time does the typical project manager spend communicating both form ally and informally? 1. 40-60% 2. 50-70% 3. 60-80% 4. 75-90% Answer: D (8) Group brainstorming encourages all of the following except: 1. Team building 2. Analysis of alternatives 3. Convergent thinking 4. Uninhibited verbalization Answer: C (9) The critical element in a project's communication system is the: 1. Progress report

2. Project directive 3. Project manager 4. Customer Answer: C (10) System integration consists of: 1. Assuring that the pieces of a project come together at the right time 2. Planning for contingencies that may occur throughout the life cycle of t he project 3. The pieces of the project function as an integration unit 4. a and c Answer: D (11) Performance reviews are held to: 1. Correct the project manager's mistakes. 2. Provide for answers for upper levels of management 3. To assess project status or progress 4. To apprise the project costs and cost trends of the project Answer: C (12) A complex project will fit best in what type of organization? 1. Functional 2. Cross-functional 3. Matrix 4. Balanced Answer:C (13) Which of the following could be an appropriate WBS code for a work package at the fourth level in a WBS where the top level code is 1.0? 1. 1.4 2. 1.1.1.1 3. 1.2.3.4 4. a and c 5. b and c Answer:E (14) Which of the following Project Scope Management processes involves subdivid ing the major project deliverables into smaller, more manageable components? 1. Scope Planning 2. Initiation 3. Scope Change Control 4. Scope Definition 5. Create WBS Answer:E (15) The review of key deliverables and project performance at the conclusion of a project phase is called: 1. phase exit 2. kill point 3. stage gate 4. a and c 5. all of the above Answer:E (16) Project scope is: 1. The work that must be done in order to deliver a product with the specif ied features and functions. 2. The features and functions that are to be included in a product or servi ce. 3. A narrative description of work to be performed under contract. 4. a and b 5. all of the above Answer:A (17)The unique identifiers assigned to each item of a WBS are often known collec tively as: 1. The work package codes 2. The project identifiers

3. The code of accounts 4. The element accounts Answer:C (18) The sender of a message is responsible for: 1. Confirming the message is understood 2. Ensuring the receiver agrees with the message 3. Scheduling communication exchange 4. Presenting the message in the most agreeable manner Answer: A (19) What are the best uses of PERT: 1. Used in the planning phase to do " what if for the project. 2. Assist in the controlling of changes to the project. 3. Is used in the process of preparing a WBS for the project. 4. To measure future consequences of activities. 5. a and d. Answer: E (20) Change requests can occur due to: 1. An external event such as a change in government regulation. 2. An error or omission in defining the scope of the product. 3. An error or omission in defining the scope of the project. 4. a and c 5. all of the above Answer:E (21) A project plan is: 1. A formal, approved document used to guide both project execution and pro ject control. 2. A document issued by senior management that provides the project manager with the authority to apply organizational resources to project activities. 3. A narrative description of products or services to be supplied. 4. A document describing the organizational breakdown structure of the comp any. Answer:A (22) Which of the following is NOT an example of a type of schedule report? 1. Gantt chart 2. Milestone chart 3. Fishbone diagram 4. Network diagram Answer:C (23) The most important criteria in selecting project selection method is: 1. Ease of use 2. Cost of using it 3. Available expertise 4. Capability 5. Realism Answer:E (24) What is Team Development? 1. Setting up a team of people with the skills set that are required 2. Sending you project team to a PMI seminar 3. Motivating your project team members 4. Enhancing the ability of stakeholders to contribute as individuals 5. Enhancing the ability of the team to function as a team Answer:D&E (25) 3 major processes in Project HRM: 1. Staff recruitment, project staff planning and team building 2. HR planning, Acquire Project Team and Develop Project Team 3. Rewarding, salary reviews and penalties 4. Staff acquisition, staff training, staff deployment Answer:B (26) A project is defined as: 1. A process of considerable scope that implements a plan.

2. An endeavor, which is planned, executed, and controlled; performed by pe ople; and constrained by limited resources. 3. A temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product or service. 4. An objective based effort of temporary nature. Answer:C (27) General management encompasses: 1. Planning, organizing, staffing, executing, and controlling the operation s of an ongoing enterprise. 2. Business policy, financial management, business economics, contract admi nistration, and legal services necessary for operating an enterprise. 3. Business strategy, planning and controlling, organizational behavior, pr ocurement, and personnel administration required for managing the ongoing aspect of a business venture. 4. Organizational development, staffing, marketing and sales, procurement, and contract administration as part of an ongoing organization. Answer:A (28) Project management processes can be organized into: 1. Initiating, planning, contracting, executing, and administration 2. Designing, developing, testing, and implementing 3. Initiating, designing, planning, executing, controlling, and implementat ion 4. Initiating, planning, executing, controlling, and closing Answer:D (29) ___________ must be measured regularly to identify variance from the plan. 1. Stakeholder requirements 2. Project performance 3. Schedule progress 4. Cost and schedule Answer:B (30) A project kick off meeting is usually conducted to: 1. Setup project team and announce the PM assignment 2. To draft project charter 3. Build up team spirit 4. Define project scope and develop WBS Answer:A (31) Which of the following is not an external-unpredictable risk? 1. Changes in government regulations 2. Natural hazards 3. Unexpected environmental side effects 4. Inflation Answer:D (32) Maslow ranked Human needs from the highest to lowest: 1. Self actualization; self promotion; social; security and physiological n eeds 2. Self esteem; self actualization; social; security and physiological 3. Self actualization; self esteem; social; security and physiological 4. Self fulfillment; self esteem; social; security and physiological Answer:C (33) Which of the following statements concerning contract type is correct? 1. A fixed price contract contains the most risk for the buyer. 2. Cost reimbursable contracts offer sellers the highest profit potential. 3. Lump sum contracts offer sellers the greatest profit potential. 4. Unit price contracts are illegal in many jurisdictions. Answer:C (34) Herzberg identified factors, which, if present, will lead to increased moti vation. A typical factor would be: 1. Good supervision 2. Job security 3. Regular promotions 4. Good salary

5. A dental plan Answer:C (35) Your customer ask for a small change in the project, which was not budgeted in the project. It is a small effort as compared to the total project and you n eed the goodwill for a multimillion dollar on the pipeline. You will 1. Refuse to do the work 2. Agree to do the work at no charge 3. Do the work and bill him later 4. Assess the cost and schedule impact and tell them you will decide later Answer:D (36) You are responsible for ensuring that your seller's performance meets contr actual requirements. For effective contract administration, you should: 1. Hold a bidders conference 2. Establish the appropriate contract type 3. Implement the contract change control system 4. Develop a statement of work Answer:C (37) The three major causes of change on a project are: 1. Replacement of the project manager or key project team members; changes in priorities by senior management; and contractual difficulties. 2. Changes in the relative importance of time, resources, or cost ; new kno wledge about the deliverable; and technological uncertainty 3. Errors in the initial assessment of how to achieve the goal of the proje ct; new information about the project deliverable; and a new mandate 4. Unavailability of resources promised by the functional managers; cost ov erruns; and changes in customer requirements Answer:C (38) The purpose of the review of deliverables and project performance at the co nclusion of a project phase is to: 1. Determine how many resources are required to complete the project accord ing to the project baseline 2. Adjust the schedule and cost baselines based on past performance 3. Obtain customer acceptance of project deliverables 4. Determine whether the project should continue to the next phase Answer:D (39) Your project is in the final test stage, the user acceptance test. It meets all the product specs and is under planned costs. In term of schedule, this pro ject is ahead. Your customer meet you and requested that he will not accept the product unless you make several changes. What you should do is: 1. Get the list of the changes and estimate all of them. If the total cost is still within the baseline, you just do it 2. Estimate the costs and send this to your customer requesting contract mo dification 3. Ask the customer to file a Change request 4. Sit with the customer to review the product specs and tell him/her that you have completed the project. Answer:C (40) The delphi Method is best suited for: 1. Decision-making 2. Cost Control 3. Overhead rate estimating 4. Team discussions Answer:A (41) Which of the following methods is least likely to be used for explaining pr oject planning guidelines to the team? 1. Project Office Memo 2. Project office directive 3. Project team meeting 4. Formal project report Answer:D

(42) Projects are initiated in response of: 1. Stakeholder's pressure 2. Business needs 3. Technological obsolescence 4. All of the above Answer:D (43) The party that needs the change resulting from the project, and who will be its custodian on completion is the: 1. Owner 2. Sponsor 3. Customer 4. Client Answer:A (44) A document or tool which describes when and how human resources will be bro ught onto and taken off the project team is called a: 1. Staffing Management Plan 2. Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM ). 3. Organizational Breakdown Structure (OBS). 4. Resource Assignment Chart Answer:A (45) In which type of organization is team building likely to be most difficult? 1. Functional 2. Projectized 3. Matrix 4. Project expediter 5. Project coordinator Answer:C (46) A tool which links the project roles and responsibilities to the project sc ope definition is called: 1. Scope Definition Matrix 2. Responsibility Assignment Matrix 3. Roles Assignment Matrix 4. Project Scope and Roles Matrix Answer:B (47) Which of the following are outputs from the Communications Planning process ? 1. Project records 2. Communications management plan 3. Performance reports 4. Formal acceptance 5. b and c Answer:B (48) The receiver filters messages based on all but the following: 1. Culture 2. Semantics 3. Language 4. Distance 5. Knowledge Answer:D (49) The sending or conveying of information from one place to another is the pr ocess of: 1. Networking 2. Transmitting 3. Encrypting 4. Promoting Answer:B (50) The three major types of communication are: 1. Written, verbal, and non-verbal. 2. Verbal, formal documentation, informal documentation. 3. Verbal, written, and graphic.

4. Verbal, written, and electronic. Answer:A (51) All of the following are communication tools EXCEPT: 1. Memos 2. Verbal circulation of a rumor 3. Videos 4. Body language 5. Inputting data into a spreadsheet Answer:E (52) Communication is the PRIME responsibility of a Project: 1. Manager in a weak matrix 2. Manager in a projectized environment 3. Coordinator 4. Expeditor Answer:D (53) What are the four parts of the communications model? 1. Sending, Receiving, Decoding, and Comprehending 2. Sender, Message, Medium, Receiver 3. Communicator, Message, Receiver, Decoder 4. Communicating, Transmitting, Receiving, Comprehending Answer:B (54) In negotiating with functional department managers, project managers often find themselves using what two-party conflict management approach? 1. Win-Lose 2. Win-Win 3. Lose-Lose 4. None of the above Answer:C (55) A leadership style in which the project manager shares problems with team m embers and formulates solutions as a group is called: 1. Autocratic 2. Consultation in a group 3. Consensus 4. One-to-one consultation Answer:C (56) A type of organization in which the project manager has little formal autho rity and basically acts as a staff assistant to an executive who is ultimately r esponsible for the project is called: 1. Functional 2. Weak matrix 3. Project coordinator 4. Project expediter Answer:D (57) Create WBS process belongs to: 1. Initiation Process Group 2. Planning Process Group 3. Executing Process Group 4. Monitoring & Controlling Process Group Answer: B (58) In which of the following organizations is the project manager role likely to be part-time? 1. Weak matrix 2. Functional 3. Balanced matrix 4. a and b 5. All of the above Answer:C (59) Project Risk Management includes all of the following processes except: 1. Risk Quantification 2. Risk Identification

3. Risk Analysis 4. Risk Response Development 5. Risk Response Control Answer:E (60) Using the PMBOK definition of contingency reserve, which of the following s tatements about contingency reserves is false? 1. A contingency reserve is a separately planned quantity used to allow for future situations which may be planned for only in part. 2. Contingency reserves may be set aside for known unknowns. 3. Contingency reserves may be set aside for unknown unknowns. 4. Contingency reserves are normally included in the project's cost and sch edule baselines. Answer:C (61) Which of the following is true about pure risk? 1. The risk can be deflected or transferred to another party through a cont ract or insurance policy. 2. Pure risks involve the chance of both a profit and a loss. 3. No opportunities are associated with pure risk, only losses. 4. a and c 5. a and b Answer:D (62) A contingency plan is: 1. A planned response that defines the steps to be taken if an identified r isk event should occur. 2. A workaround 3. A reserve used to allow for future situations which may be planned for o nly in part. 4. a and c 5. a and b Answer:A (63) Deflection or transfer of a risk to another party is part of which of the f ollowing risk response categories? 1. Mitigation 2. Acceptance 3. Avoidance 4. Analysis Answer:A (64) Management reserves are used to handle which type of risk? 1. Unknown unknowns 2. Known unknowns 3. business risks 4. pure risks Answer:A (65) Which of the following is considered during the Procurement Planning Proces s? 1. Whether to procure 2. How to procure and how much to procure 3. What and when to procure 4. b and c 5. all of the above Answer:E (66) From a buyer's standpoint, which of the following is true? 1. Procurement planning should include consideration of potential subcontra cts 2. Procurement planning does not include consideration of potential subcont racts since this is the duty of the contractor. 3. Subcontractors are first considered during the Solicitation Process 4. none of the above Answer:A (67) Which of the following is true about procurement documents?

1. Procurement documents are used to solicit proposals from prospective sel lers. 2. Invitation for Bid and Request for Proposal are two examples of procurem ent documents. 3. Procurement documents should be structured to facilitate accurate and co mplete responses from prospective sellers. 4. b and c 5. all of the above Answer:E (68) Which of the following is a method for quantifying qualitative data in orde r to minimize the effect of personal prejudice on source selection? 1. Weighting system 2. Screening system 3. Selecting system 4. none of the above 5. all of the above Answer:A (69) Which of the following are examples of indirect costs? 1. Salaries of corporate executives 2. Salaries of full-time project staff 3. Overhead costs 4. a and b 5. a and c Answer:E (70) Which of the following contract types places the greatest risk on the selle r? 1. Cost-plus-fixed-fee contract 2. Cost plus-incentive-fee contract 3. Fixed-price-incentive contract 4. Firm-fixed-price contract Answer:D (71) In which of the following contract types is the seller's profit limited? 1. Cost-plus-percentage-cost contract 2. Cost-plus-fixed-fee contract 3. Fixed-price-plus-incentive 4. b and c 5. none of the above Answer:D (72) A cost-plus-percentage-cost (CPPC. contract has an estimated cost of $120,0 00 with an agreed profit of 10% of the costs. The actual cost of the project is $130,000. What is the total reimbursement to the seller? 1. $143,000 2. $142,000 3. $140,000 4. $132,000 Answer:A (73) A fixed-price-plus-incentive-fee (FPI. contract has a target cost of $130,0 00, a target profit of $15,000, a target price of $145,000, a ceiling price of $ 160,000, and a share ratio of 80/20. The actual cost of the project was $150,000 . How much profit does the seller make? 1. $10,000 2. $15,000 3. $0 4. $5,000 Answer:A (74) Under what circumstances is it better for a contractor to subcontract? 1. The subcontractor possesses special technical and engineering skills tha t the contractor does not have. 2. The work to be subcontracted represents almost all of the overall work e ffort.

3. The subcontractor can perform the work at a lower cost than the contract or. 4. all the above 5. a and c Answer:E (75) Which type of bilateral contract is used for high dollar, standard items? 1. Purchase order 2. Request for proposal (RFP. 3. Invitation for bid (IFB. 4. Request for quotation (RFQ. 5. all of them are appropriate Answer:C (76) In which stage of the negotiation meeting are points of concession identifi ed? 1. Probing 2. Closure 3. Agreement 4. Scratch bargaining Answer:D (77) Which of the following is NOT a method of government procurement? 1. Assistance 2. Sealed Bidding 3. Competitive proposals 4. Acquisition 5. Small purchases 6. No answer provided Answer:D (78) The "rule of seven" as applied to process control charts means that : 1. If there are seven points on one side of mean, then an assignable cause must be found. 2. Seven consecutive points are ascending, descending, or the same. 3. At least seven inspectors should be in place for every thousand employee s. 4. A process is not out of control even though seven measurements fall outs ide the lower and upper control limits. Answer:A (79) There is project with CPI of 0.81 and TCPI=1.00001 this project is: 1. Overbudget and cannot recover 2. Underbudget 3. Overbudget and early in its evolution 4. No interference cam be made Answer:D (80) A collection of generally sequential project phases whose name and number a re determined by the control needs of the organization or organizations involved in the project, is called: 1. Project life cycle 2. Product life cycle 3. Project life event 4. All of the above Answer: A (81) What does RDU stand for? 1. Really Dumb User 2. Ready for Download Use 3. Remaining Duration unassisted 4. Remaining Duration Answer: D (82) Who is responsible for risk identification, risk quantification, risk respo nse development, risk Monitor and Control? 1. Project Communications Management 2. Project human resource Management

3. Project Procurement Management 4. Project Risk Management Answer: D (83) Three Point Statistical Estimating Formula Group. Expected Value = 1. (Optimistic + (4 X Most Likely) + Pessimistic ) x 6 2. (Optimistic + (4 X Most Likely) + Pessimistic ) divided by 6 3. (Optimistic + (4 X Most Likely) x Pessimistic ) divided by 6 4. (Optimistic + (4 + Most Likely) + Pessimistic ) divided by 6 Answer: B (84) Two Point Delphi Estimate, The Best and Worst Case effort calculation: 1. Calculate (Best + Worst) / 2 2. Calculate (Best +2 ) / Worst 3. Calculate (2 + Worst) / Best 4. none of the above Answer: A (85) What does TQM stand for? 1. Time Quality Managed 2. Target Quality Management 3. Total Quality Management 4. Time Quote Management ANSWER: C (86) Examples of Projects include: 1. Implementing a new business procedure or process 2. Constructing a building or facility 3. Designing a new transportation vehicle 4. All of the Above ANSWER: D (87) Projects are undertaken at all levels of the organization? 1. True 2. False 3. Both True and False 4. Neither true nor false ANSWER: A (88) 7. ________ means that every project has a definite beginning and a definit e end. 1. Overall 2. Project Chart 3. Temporary 4. Duration ANSWER: C (89) The smallest unit of time used in scheduling the project is known as: 1. Calendar Unit 2. Scope unit 3. Time Measurement 4. All of the Above ANSWER: A (90) Who should be involved in the project planning phase? 1. The Project Manager. 2. The customer. 3. The Sub-contractors/vendors. 4. The project team members. 5. All of the above. Answer: E (91) The successful project managers spend most of their time: 1. Planning with their personnel. 2. Planning with top management. 3. Talking with personnel. 4. Studying project results. Answer: C (92) Cost Plus Percentage of Cost (CPPC) contracts provide:

1. A reimbursement of allowable cost of services performed plus an agreed u pon percentage of the estimated cost as profit. 2. A reimbursement of allowable costs plus a fixed fee which is paid propor tionately as the contract progresses. 3. The supplier with a fixed price for a delivered performance plus a prede termined fee for superior performance. 4. None of the above. Answer: A (93) Project success depends on a no. of interrelated factors, including time, c ost and scope control. The success of any project depends primarily on: 1. Customer acceptance. 2. Customer satisfaction. 3. Customer compromise in defining its needs. 4. Exceeding customer requirements through gold plating. Answer: B (94) Which of the following is the most efficient means of product quality inspe ction: 1. Acceptance sampling. 2. 100% inspection. 3. Variable lot inspection. 4. A and C. Answer: A (95) Constructive Team Role includes : 1. Investigates, clarifier and closer. 2. Compromise, blocker and closer. 3. Initiate, encourage and gate keeper. 4. Investigates, recognize and summary. Answer: C (96) Pareto Analysis, cause and effect diagrams and flow charts are used in qual ity. 1. Control. 2. Assurances. 3. Planning. 4. Verification. Answer: A (97) In a multi-cultural environment, it is critical to establish a corporate cu lture that facilitates: 1. Problem-solving through different approaches. 2. Learning and communication. 3. Partnerships, strong alliances and joint ventures. 4. Negotiations. Answer: B (98) A condition which will lead an organization towards conflict is: 1. Conflict of interest. 2. Differentiation in organization 3. Resolved prior conflicts. 4. Both A and B. 5. All of the above. Answer: D (99) The contemporary view of conflict is that: 1. Conflict is bad. 2. Conflict is caused by trouble makers. 3. Conflict should be avoided. 4. Conflict is often beneficial. 5. A, B and C. Answer: D (100) In general a project charter covers: 1. Project justification, background, scope, objectives, available resource s, organizational responsibilities, a project schedule, estimates, procurement s chedule, and any imitations that top management wants to apply.

2. Project justification, background, scope, objectives, available resource s, organizational responsibilities, detailed project schedules, estimates, and d etailed procurement schedules responsibilities, a project schedule, and any limi tations that top management wants to apply. 3. Project justification, background, scope, objectives, available resource s, organizational apply. 4. Project scope, objectives, available resources, responsibilities, a proj ect schedule, estimates, procurement schedules, and any limitations that top man agement wants to apply. Answer: D (101) A project manager has increased project costs by US $75,000, but completed the project six weeks earlier than planned. What tool is best described here? 1. Resource leveling 2. Duration compression 3. Crashing 4. Fast tracking Answer: C (102) Which of the following is most true? 1. Lag is the maximum amount of time a task can be delayed without delaying the early start of its successor. 2. Lag may be determined by making a forward pass. 3. Lag is waiting time. 4. Lag is the maximum amount of time a task can be delayed without delaying the project. Answer: C (103) As project manager you should dedicate a primary focus to: 1. Managing changes immediately as they surface. 2. Formally documenting all changes. 3. Communicating authorized changes to senior management and key stakeholde rs. 4. Preventing unnecessary changes. Answer: D (104) The behavioral responsibilities of a project manager may also include deal ing with: 1. Regulatory Personnel 2. The legal environment 3. Environmental Issues 4. All of the above Answer: D (105) The major purpose of project status reports is to: 1. Organize and summarize the information so that all stakeholders were inf ormed 2. Inform upper management of the project problems 3. Inform the client about the changes that have completed 4. Provide information to management and client Answer: A (106) Most project management leadership theories focus on all of the following except : 1. Personal characteristics of the project manager 2. Personal traits of the subordinates 3. Behavioral styles of the project manager 4. Usefulness of authority and power and leadership Answer: B (107) Preliminary Cost estimates are developed during the______ phase of the pro ject: 1. Conceptual 2. Planning 3. Implementation 4. Execution Answer: A

(108) Historical records during close-out are useful to __________ and _________ ___ for future projects: 1. Predict trends, highlight problems. 2. Analyze successes, shortfalls 3. Analyze strengths, document results 4. Justify results, set standards Answer: A (109) Your client informs that his company has a problem with the current design specs of your product and how it will interface with the existing systems. If t his occurs, it could be a major problem for your project. The client is coming t o your office in one week to discuss the problem and to see what your team can d o to overcome this setback. All previous meetings were informal with this client , but now he wants a formal meeting. What should you do to prepare for this meet ing 1. Update the schedules and assume an active role since the client has not given you the specifics of the potential problem 2. Make sure that the team has increased productivity so the client can see how efficient your team is performing 3. Assemble the team and ask them to prepare an agenda for topics to discus s 4. Make sure that each team member has his assignment in preparation for an y handouts and needed plans Answer: C (110) The definitive terms of a contract are written during which of the followi ng contract phases? 1. Contract phase 2. Post award phase 3. Award phase 4. Pre award phase 5. Requirement phase Answer: C (111) A document that formally recognizes the existence of a project is a : 1. Gantt Chart 2. WBS 3. Project Charter 4. Scope statement Answer: C (112) Some organizations are now using 6 Sigma for quality control compared to t he usual: 1. 2 sigma 2. 3 sigma 3. 4 sigma 4. 5 sigma Answer: B (113) Reducing the impact of a risk event by reducing the possibility of its occ urrence is: 1. Risk avoidance 2. Risk acceptance 3. Risk mitigation 4. Contingency planning Answer: A (114) In which of the following project management process groups are the most t ime and money typically spent? 1. Initiating 2. Planning 3. Executing 4. Controlling Answer: C (115) ______ recognizes that a project or phase should begin and commits the org anization to do so:

1. Initiation Process 2. Solicitation Process 3. Scoping Process 4. Planning process Answer: A (116) A supplier has withdrawn from your project. A new supplier has been retain ed. His labor forces are due to arrive at the job site tomorrow. You should : 1. Meet with the supplier and his forces and establish yourself as the auth ority in charge. 2. Bring your team in for introductions and establish a communications exch ange 3. Bring out the communication management plan 4. Bring out the project plan. Answer: A (117) A new project manager is about to begin creating the project's scope of wo rk. One stakeholder wants to add many items to the scope of work. Another stakeh older only wants to describe the functional requirements. The project is importa nt for the project manager's company but a seller will do the work. Which of the following would you advise the project manager to do? 1. The scope of work should be general to allow the seller to make its own decisions. 2. The scope of work should be general to allow clarification later. 3. The scope of work should be detailed to allow clarifications later. 4. The scope of work should be as detailed as necessary for the type of pro ject. Answer: D (118) After the kickoff meeting, two team members engage in a casual conversatio n about the project objectives and deliverables. It is clear they heard differen t messages during the meeting. One member is so adamant that the other member gi ves up arguing the point. After talking to the project manager, the second membe r confirms that the first member is mistaken. At this point, what is the BEST co urse of action? 1. The second team member should send the other team member an e-mail descr ibing what he discovered. 2. At the next project meeting, the team member should ask the mistaken tea m member to describe his interpretation so the project manager can get everyone on the same page. 3. The project manager should send out an e-mail to the team restating the project objectives and deliverables. 4. At the next project meeting, the project manager should spend time revie wing a documented scope statement with the goal of identifying this and other fa lse assumptions. Answer: D (119) During project execution, a project team delivers a project deliverable to the customer. However, the customer neither acknowledges the deliverable nor sa ys if it is acceptable, although an approval is required. What is the BEST thing to do? 1. Continue with the project 2. Document the situation 3. Contact management for help 4. Call a meeting of the team Answer: C (120) You are managing a six months project and have held bi-weekly meetings wit h your project sponsors. After five-and-a-half months of work, the project is on schedule and budget, but the sponsors are not satisfied with the deliverables. This situation will delay the project completion by one month. The MOST importan t process that could have prevented this situation is: 1. Risk monitoring and control. 2. Schedule control. 3. Scope planning.

4. Scope change control. Answer: C (121) When you are closing out a project, what must you do? 1. Perform project feedback on the team 2. Obtain sign off from the customer 3. Review project documentation for completeness 4. Update the project plans Answer: B (122) Financial controls that need to be considered for project plan development do not include: 1. Time reporting 2. Standard contract provisions 3. Process audits 4. Accounting codes Answer: C (123) A project manager has been working on a project for six months with the sa me team yet the team still shows a lack of support for the project. The best thi ng for the project manager to do would be to? 1. Re-evaluate the effectiveness of the reward system the project manager h as put in place 2. talk to each team member's boss 3. Re-plan the project 4. Tell the team he needs its support Answer: A (124) A project has several teams. Team C has repeatedly missed several deadline s in the past causing Team D to have to crash the critical path several times. A s the project leader for Team D, what should you do? 1. Meet with management alone 2. Meet with the project manager alone 3. Meet with the project manager and management 4. Meet with the project manager and the team C leader Answer: D (125) The current update to the schedule performance report shows no schedule va riance. Based upon the reporting, you have told the client that the project is o n time. However, your team members know that a major milestone has just been mis sed and that the project will not meet its startup date. This is an indication o f poor? 1. Communication management planning 2. Scope management planning 3. Team trust 4. Schedule planning Answer: A (126) A project manager is assigned a project with a team that has already been selected. The first thing the project manager should find out about the team is? 1. What is each team member's favorite color 2. Each team member's objectives for working on the project 3. A list of each team member's tasks 4. Each team member's role in the project plan Answer: D (127) An advisor to a new project manager tells the project manager to create le ssons learned at the end of a project. A lessons learned includes? 1. Any variances and the causes of the variances 2. Reports from the customer 3. Reports from management 4. A list of all the plans Answer: A (128) A project management professional can compare earned value performance dat a to all of the following project management tools EXCEPT: 1. Critical path analysis

2. Technical performance metrics 3. Risk mitigation plans 4. Forecasted final costs and schedule estimates Answer: D (129) The project is completed and the final deliverable given to the customer b ut the customer refuses to take any action to give final acceptance on the proje ct. The project manager should? 1. Repeatedly ask for final acceptance 2. Ask the team for assistance 3. Document the situation 4. Do nothing because there is nothing that can be done Answer: C (130) Your new product development project has resulted in a highly successful n ew product. The property, equipment, materials, and personnel of your project ar e now being integrated into the functional organization. Your project is being t erminated by: 1. Extinction 2. Addition 3. Integration 4. Starvation Answer: C (131) The Precedence Diagramming Method : 1. has finish-to-start task relationships and provides the flexibility of l ead and lag time to the activities; 2. has the activity on the node; Answer: A (132) Gantt charts are great for: 1. Showing tasks relationships 2. Tracking actual vs planned 3. Good communications with customer, management and project teams 4. b and c Answer: D (133) Ultimate responsibility for quality management in the project rests with t he? 1. Project engineer 2. Purchasing agent 3. Quality manager 4. Team members Answer: D (134) Design of experiments? 1. identifies which variables have the most influence on a quality outcome 2. identifies which variables have the least influence on a quality outcome 3. determines what a quality outcome is 4. is a method for research and development Answer: A (135) You are a project manager for a major information systems project. Someone from the quality department comes to see you about beginning a quality audit of your project. The team, already under pressure to complete the project as soon as possible, takes objection to the audit. You should explain to the team that t he purpose of a quality audit is? 1. part of an ISO 9000 investigation 2. to check if the customer is following its quality process 3. to identify lessons learned that can improve performance on the project 4. to check the accuracy of the costs submitted by the team Answer: C (136) You manage a project whose team members have diverse skills and expertise. You want to encourage your staff to pool its knowledge on project issues to mak e the best decisions possible. The most appropriate management style to use is: 1. Laissez-faire

2. Democratic 3. Autocratic 4. Directive Answer: A (137) The types of power that have substantial influence on both subordinates an d upper management are: 1. Formal & expert 2. Reward & penalty 3. Expert & referent 4. Formal & referent Answer: C (138) Your preferred resource is not available at the time needed. What is the b est thing to do? 1. Negotiate with management to get the resource 2. Assess your alternatives 3. Begin the task early 4. Use reserves to increase resources assigned to those tasks. Answer:B (139) An important piece of hardware will be late. What is the first thing to do ? 1. Discuss with team 2. Use schedule reserves 3. Use alternate vendor 4. Go to customer or management Answer: A (140) A project has experienced significant delays due to equipment problems, st aff attrition, and slow client reviews. The project is 40% complete and has used 60% of the available calendar time. What is the FIRST thing you should do? 1. Re-baseline the schedule to reflect the new date 2. Analyze the critical path activities for potential to fast track or cras h the schedule 3. Document the lack of progress and associated issues to management 4. Identify tasks that have required more time than planned Answer: D (141) A functional manager wants to make a change to the time associated with a task, but there is not enough reserve to accommodate the change. Who should auth orize the change? 1. Senior management 2. The functional manager 3. The project manager 4. The team member performing the work Answer: C (142) During the course of a project you have motivated team members, managed co nflict, performed personnel administrative functions and negotiated for more res ources. These are examples of: 1. General Management 2. Project Human Resource Management 3. Project Execution 4. A Projectized organization Answer:A (143) You have been promoted to Manager, Continuous Process Improvement. Your ne w position: 1. Is a project because the work will be performed by people 2. Is not a project because Continuous Process Improvement will continue in definitely 3. Is a project because it is constrained by limited resources 4. Is a project because improvements must be planned, executed, and control led Answer:B (144) Which of the following is not a Project Management knowledge area?

1. Project Quality Management 2. Project Procurement Management 3. Project Configuration Management 4. Project Risk Management Answer: C (145) The state of being totally answerable for the satisfactory completion of a specific assignment is called: 1. Authority 2. Accountability 3. Responsibility 4. Fiduciary Answer:B (146) You are responsible for the communication controls for the Genesis series of satellites. Your current assignment is: 1. Project management 2. Functional management 3. Facility management 4. Program management Answer:D (147) Work packages are used to : 1. Represent units of work at a level where work is performed. 2. Distinguish one package from all others assigned to a single functional group. 3. Limit work to be performed to relatively short periods of time. 4. All of the above. Answer: D (148) Network planning methods(PERT/CPM/PDM): 1. Are usually too complicated for practical use on most projects 2. Require highly trained specialists for effective use 3. Always require computer support to be practical 4. Are based on flow charts and they allow observation of what happens to t he project schedule when changes occur to a task's start and stop dates Answer: D (149) Earned value can be described as: 1. The value of the equipment that has been installed as of the current dat e 2. The sum of the labor costs that have been incurred on the project date 3. A method of measuring project performance 4. A method of measuring the amount of money that has been spent to date Answer: C (150) A role of the change control board is to: 1. issue change requests 2. represent top management interests in initiating innovation 3. review the impact of change requests on project costs, schedule, and spe cifications 4. schedule changes into PERT networks 5. identify new areas of project work Answer: C (151) Quality control is: 1. identifying which quality standards are relevant to the project and dete rmining how to satisfy them 2. monitoring specific project results to determine if they comply with rel evant quality standards and identifying ways to eliminate causes of unsatisfacto ry performance 3. evaluating overall project performance on a regular basis to provide con fidence that the project will satisfy the relevant quality standards 4. taking action to increase the effectiveness and efficiency of the projec t so as to provide added benefits to both the performing organization and the pr oject customer 5. assuming the production of goods that meet the highest standards of luxu

ry Answer: B (152) Cost of quality is a concept that includes: 1. the cost necessary for ensuring conformance to requirements 2. the life cycle cost of the project 3. all research and development costs related to the project 4. only the cost of the quality control function 5. A and B Answer: A (153) The pillars) of quality is (are) : 1. Quality is free 2. Doing it right the first time 3. Zero defects 4. Process improvement 5. B and C Answer: E (154) Quality assurance is: 1. top management's intention regarding quality 2. functions determining implementation of the quality policy 3. actions to provide confidence of satisfying quality requirements 4. responsibilities and processes which implement quality management 5. all of the above Answer: C (155) The zero defects concept: 1. is a performance standard for management 2. is a motivational technique that promotes "doing it right the first time " 3. is used by management to communicate to all employees that everyone shou ld do things right the first time 4. A and C 5. B and C Answer: D (156) When appointed, a project manager has the inherent forms of legitimate pow er conveyed to him. The three forms of legitimate power are: 1. absolute, direct, and indict 2. direction, coordination, and liaison 3. formal, informal, and persuasive 4. formal, reward, and direct 5. formal, reward, and penalty Answer: E (157) The five types of conflict resolution are listed below and represent, in g eneral order of importance, the methods a project manager should use to manage c onflict. The one used most often by project managers to resolve conflict is: 1. confrontation 2. compromise 3. smoothing 4. forcing 5. withdrawal Answer: A (158) The process of getting a group of diverse individuals to work effectively together as a team is the definition of 1. leadership 2. project management 3. the project manager's responsibilities 4. implementation 5. team building Answer: E (159) Which contract type should be used by the owner on a high risk project? 1. Cost plus percentage of cost 2. Cost plus incentive fee

3. Lump sum 4. Fixed price plus incentive fee 5. C and D Answer: C (160) PMI suggests which of the following behaviors as part of contract negotiat ions? 1. Probing, scratching, and small bites 2. Sniffing and smelling (olfactory) 3. Touching and caressing (tactile) 4. Mind-reading and extra-sensory perception 5. None of the above Answer: A (161) Project risk is characterized by three factors: 1. Severity of impact, duration of impact and cost of impact 2. Identification, type of risk category and probability of impact 3. Risk event, risk probability and the amount at stake 4. Occurrence, frequency and cost Answer: C (162) Name the ethical code you'll be required to adhere to as a PMP: 1. Project Management Policy of Ethics 2. Project Management Professional Standards 3. Project Management Code of Professional Ethics & Standards 4. Project Management Professional Code of Professional Conduct Answer: D (163) Which is not another term for contract? 1. Agreement 2. Purchase Order 3. Proposal 4. Memorandum of Understanding Answer: C (164) Which of the following situations describes a violation of the PMP. Profes sional Code of Conduct? 1. Accepting a gift that is within the customary guidelines of the country or province you are currently working in. 2. Use of confidential information to advance your position or influence a critical decision. 3. Complying with laws and regulations of the state or province in which pr oject management services are provided 4. Disclosing information to a customer about a situation that may have an appearance of impropriety. Answer: B (165) You are working in a country where it is customary to exchange gifts betwe en contractor and customer. Your company code of conduct clearly states that you cannot accept gifts from any client. Failure to accept the gift from this clien t may result in termination of the contract. The action to take in this case wou ld be: 1. Provide the customer with a copy of your company code of conduct and ref use the gifts. 2. Exchange gifts with the customer and keep the exchange confidential 3. Contact your project sponsor and /or your legal office for assistance. 4. Ask the project sponsor or project executive to exchange gifts. Answer: C (166) An example of a conflict of interest would be: 1. As a public official you make a decision about a contract award that wil l benefit you personally 2. You and a functional manager disagree with a task cost estimate 3. Your sponsor decides to cancel your project because it no longer support s the company strategy 4. Your personality conflicts with that of a key member of your project tea m.

Answer: A (167) Your project is running out of cash and significant work remains. You are directed by senior management to instruct your people to use another project's c harge numbers while working on your project. You should: 1. Follow instructions 2. Inform the corporate auditors 3. Understand the background of management's instructions before taking any action 4. Try to close down the project Answer: C (168) Project Managers can contribute to their organization's knowledge base and to the profession of project management most effectively by: 1. Developing and implementing a project review and lessons learned process 2. Establishing strict guidelines for protecting intellectual property 3. Promote the use of ad hoc project management 4. Ensuring that all project plans are developed before the project team is formed Answer: A (169) For a festival, you give your government client a leather brief case. You are in violation of the responsibility to: 1. Comply with the law. 2. Comply with regulations. 3. Provide accurate information. 4. Protect conflict of interest. Answer: B (170) You have just changed jobs and discovered that your new employer routinely violates OSHA/EPA and affirmative action requirements on projects. You should: 1. Do nothing; it's not your problem 2. Start by asking management if they are aware that regulations are being violated 3. Talk to the corporate legal department 4. Inform the appropriate government agencies about the violations Answer: B (171) During your assignment as project manager you add a new member to your pro ject team. This new team member was recently hired from a competitor and offers to share a substantial amount of proprietary information from his previous compa ny. This information could put you and your team in a very strong position for f uture business. You are aware of a non-compete clause in the new hire's conditio n of employment. You should: 1. Accept the information and agree to keep it confidential between you and the new hire. 2. Review the condition of employment with the new hire and advise her to r econsider the offer. 3. Review the information and only accept only what may have a direct impac t on the project's financial status. 4. Ignore the offer to share and move forward with the project Answer: B (172) Before reporting a perceived violation of an established rule or policy th e project manager should: 1. Determine the risks associated with the violation 2. Ensure there is a reasonably clear and factual basis for reporting the v iolation 3. Ignore the violation until it actually affects the project results 4. Convene a committee to review the violation and determine the appropriat e response Answer: B (173) A response to a negative risk event is known as a: 1. Work Item 2. Work Package

3. Workaround 4. Work breakdown structure Answer: C (174) Qualitative Risk Analysis will be performed under : 1. Initiation Process Group 2. Planning Process Group 3. Executing Process Group 4. Monitoring & Controlling Process Group Answer: B (175) Acquire Project team process will be performed under: 1. Initiation Process Group 2. Planning Process Group 3. Executing Process Group 4. Monitoring & Controlling Process Group Answer: C (176) The terms "Facilitating Processes" and "Core Processes" are no longer used in new PMBOK. These terms have been eliminated to ensure that all project manag ement processes in the Project Management Process Groups have the same level of importance. 1. True 2. False Answer: A (177) In a group of 4 members, 1 member has been added. How many communication c hannels are there now : 1. 5 2. 3 3. 10 4. 20 Answer: C (178) Which statement is correct : 1. There are some core processes and some facilitating processes. 2. PMI is not any more responsible form PMBOK. 3. PMBOK will be changed every year in December. 4. New PMBOK has 9 process groups and 42 processes. Answer: D (179) Which of the following is not an input to Develop Project Charter: 1. Contract 2. Project Statement of Work 3. Enterprise Environmental Factors 4. Organizational Process Assets 5. Project Management Information System Answer: E (180) Which of the following is a tool used to Create WBS: 1. Organizational Process Assets 2. Work Breakdown Structure Templates 3. WBS Dictionary 4. Configuration Management System Answer: B (181) Which of the following is not an input to Activity Definition process: 1. WBS Dictionary 2. Organizational Process Assets 3. Project Scope Statement 4. Work Breakdown Structure 5. Schedule Network Templates Answer: E (182 ) Which of the following is not an output of Activity Resource Estimating: 1. Activity Resource Requirements 2. Resource Breakdown Structure 3. Requested Changes 4. Resource Management Plan

Answer: D (183) Which of the following is a tool used in Activity Duration Estimating: 1. Analogous Estimating 2. Work Breakdown Structure Templates 3. Critical Path Method 4. Schedule Network Templates Answer: A (184) Crashing, and Fast tracking are techniques used in the following process: 1. Schedule Development 2. Activity Definition 3. Create WBS 4. Resource Allocation Answer: A (185) Which is not a technique used for cost estimation : 1. Analogous Estimating 2. Bottom-up Estimating 3. Parametric Estimating 4. Vendor Bid Analysis 5. Resource Leveling Answer: E (186) Which is not a tool used in Quality Planning process : 1. Cost-Benefit Analysis 2. Benchmarking 3. Design of Experiments 4. Cost of Quality (COQ) 5. Process Analysis Answer: E (187) What are three tools used in Quality Control Process: 1. Benchmarking, Cost of Quality (COQ) and Cause and Effect Diagram 2. Cost of Quality (COQ), Cause and Effect Diagram and Control Charts 3. Control Charts, Flowcharting and Process Analysis 4. Pareto Chart, Control Charts and Cause and Effect Diagram Answer: D (188) Which of the following Human Resource process generates Roles & Responsibi lities : 1. Human Resource Planning 2. Acquire Project Team 3. Develop Project Team 4. Manage Project Team Answer: A (189) Co-Location is a techniques which means: 1. Placing many or all of the most active project team members in the same physical location to enhance their ability to perform as a team. 2. Placing many or all of the most active project team members in the same physical location to reduce the cost of the project 3. Performing a complete project at a single location 4. Performing a project at various locations. Answer: B (190) Manage Stakeholders is a part which of the following process group: 1. Human Resource Management 2. Project Time Management 3. Project Cost Management 4. Project Communications Management 5. Project Risk Management Answer: D (191) Which is not correct about Communications Management Plan document: 1. It contains Stakeholder communication requirements 2. It contains Person responsible for communicating the information 3. It contains Frequency of the communication, such as weekly 4. It contains Methods or technologies used to convey the information, such

as memoranda, e-mail, and/or press releases 5. It contains total cost required for performing communication. Answer: E (192) Which is not a tool used for Risk Response Planning: 1. Risk Audits 2. Avoidance 3. Transfer 4. Mitigate 5. Exploit Answer: A (193) Advertising is a technique used in which of the following process: 1. Select Sellers 2. Request Seller Responses 3. Contract Administration 4. Contract Closure Answer: B (194) Which of the following definition is not correct: 1. Human Resource Planning - Identifying and documenting project roles, res ponsibilities, and reporting relationships, as well as creating the staffing man agement plan. 2. Acquire Project Team - Obtaining the human resources needed to complete the project 3. Develop Project Team - Improving the competencies and interaction of tea m members to enhance project performance 4. Manage Project Team - Tracking team member performance, providing feedba ck, resolving issues, and coordinating changes to enhance project performance. 5. Team Building - Forming a team from scratch for a new project. Answer: E (195) Which of the following definition is not correct: 1. Contract Closure - completing and settling each contract, including the resolution of any open items, and closing each contract. 2. Plan Purchases and Acquisitions - selecting a buyer to purchase any prod uct or service. 3. Select Sellers - reviewing offers, choosing from among potential sellers , and negotiating a written contract with a seller. 4. Request Seller Responses - obtaining information, quotations, bids, offe rs, or proposals, as appropriate 5. Plan Contracting - documenting products, services, and results requireme nts and identifying potential sellers Answer: B (196) Which of the following is not correct: 1. PMO - Program Management Office 2. RBS - Resource Breakdown Structure 3. RAM - Resource Assignment Matrix 4. RFP - Request for Proposal 5. TQM - Total Quality Management Answer: C (197) Which of the following is not correct : 1. Cost of Quality (COQ): Determining the costs incurred to ensure quality 2. Crashing: A specific type of project schedule compression technique perf ormed by taking action to decrease the total project schedule duration. 3. Total Quality Management: A common approach to implementing a quality im provement program within an organization 4. Risk Register: The risk register details all identified risks, including description, category, cause, probability of occurring, impact(s) on objectives , proposed responses, owners, and current status. 5. Simulation: prototyping of a project to check if proposed design will wo rk or not. Answer: E (198) Most schedule simulations are based on some form of which of the following

? 1. Delphi 2. PERT 3. CPM 4. Monte Carlo Analysis Answer: D (199) What is critical path? 1. The shortest path through the network, which represents the longest amou nt of time in which a project can be completed. 2. The path with zero float. 3. The longest path through the network, which represents the shortest amou nt of time in which a project can be completed. 4. The path with the most activities with the longest durations. 5. b and c Answer: C (200) In the communication process, "noise" is the word used to describe factors and forces inhibiting the exchange of information between two or more parties. Noise includes all of the following but __________ 1. Culture 2. Behavior 3. Language 4. Traditional way of doing things 5. Loud talking Answer: E