Pre-Entrance Test and Science Coaching Ansari Muhalla Larkana

Excellent Coaching By Experienced Teachers

Class: Intermediate Test No: 5th Date: 11/02/2024

“BIOLOGY”
1. Which of the following has 23 chromosomes?
A) Spermatogonia B) zygote C) secondary oocyte D) oogonia
2. In human female, meiosis II is not completed until?
A) Fertilization B) uterine implantation C) birth D) puberty
3. The shared terminal duct of the reproductive and urinary duct in human male is-------
A) Urethra B) ureter C) vas deferens D) ejaculatory duct
4. Which of the facts is true about menstruation?
A) It occurs only when the released ovum is not fertilized
B) It occurs due to the breakdown of endometrium lining
C) Menstrual flow lasts for 3 to 5 days
D) All the above facts are true
5. How many sperm cells are there in an average human ejaculation?
A) 200 to 300 billion B) 200 to 300 million C) 200 to 300 trillion D) 200 to 300 lacs
6. Match the following correctly
COLUMN—I COLUMN-II
1. Gestation A. Fusion of male and female gametes
2 fertilization B Formation of gametes
3 Gametogenesis C Attachement to the uterine wall
4 implantation D Embryonic development
A) 1:A, 2:C, 3:B, 4:D B) 1:B, 2:D, 3:A, 4:C
C) 1:D 2:A, 3:B, 4:C D) 1:C, 2:D, 3:A, 4:B
7. The function of acrosome in sperm is---------------
A) Stimulates synthesis of ovum B) stimulates release of ovum
C) Stimulates fertilization of ovum D) stimulates degradation of ovum
8. From the period of birth till puberty, which cells degenerate in ovary?
A) oogonia B) ova C) secondary follicle D) primary follicle
9. Which of the following duct stores sperms?
A) Vas deference B) epididymis C) urethra D) both a and b
10. Which of the following is odd regarding male reproductive system?
A) Seminal vesicles B) testicles C) prostrate gland D) bulbourethral glands
11. Fructose production as nutritional component for sperms is the function of
A) Bulbourethral gland B) prostrate gland C) seminal vesicles D) seminiferous tubules
12. Endometrium shows maximum thickness during
A) Start of proliferative phase B) end of proliferative phase
C) Secretory phase D) menstruation
13. Only Graffin follicle grows with egg. Rest of the follicles are destroyed by a process
A) Follicle atresia B) osteoporesia C) ovulation D) both a and c
14. FSH stimulates the production of estrogen hormone which has two targets-------&---------
A) Uterus and posterior pituitary B) uterus and anterior pituitary
C) Ovaries and uterus D) ovaries and hypothalamus
15. On which date is a women likely ovulate if the first day of menstrual loss was 14th feb:?
A) 27th feb: B) 28th feb: C) 1st march D) 2nd march
16. Which type of cell division occurs in gonads?
A) Mitosis only B) meiosis only
C) Both mitosis and meiosis D) amitosis and meiosis
17. Phase of menstrual cycle involved in production of progesterone is
A) Menstruation phase B) proliferative phase C) secretory phase D) all of these
18. Which of the following is a potential cause of female infertility?
A) Polycystic ovary syndrome/PCOS B) endometriosis
C) Fallopian tube blockage D) all of these
19. In-Vitro fertilization/IVF is a method used to
A) Treat infertility B) enhance hormones C) prevent STD D) none of above
20. Syphilis is a sexually transmitted disease caused by?
A) Bacteria B) virus C) protozoan D) yeast
21. What is the medical term for miscarriage?
A) Spontaneous abortion B) induced abortion C) ectopic pregnancy D) both a & b
22. Ovarian cycle includes changes in ovarian follicles to secondary follicle and finally to-----
A) Graafian follicle B) primary follicle C) vesicular follicle D) both a and c
23. In males, FSH promotes the development and maturation of?
A) Testosterone B) sperm cells C) egg cells D) polar cells
24. When is the sex of a baby determined?
A) Before ovulation B) between ovulation and fertilization
C) At the movement of fertilization D) after the first division of the zygote
25. The diagram shows a man’s reproductive system, which structure produces the fluid pat of
Semen?
A) Labeled b and c B) labeled b-c and d C) labeled a-b-c-d D) labeled a-b-c

26. The opening of vagina is often covered partially by----------

A) mons pubis B) labia majora C) labia minora D) hymen
27. Menstrual flow occurs due to the lack of----------------
A) Progesterone B) FSH C) oxytocin D) vasopressin
28. The fallopian tube is about-----------long
A) 8cm B) 10cm C) 14 cm D) 16cm
29. The time required to convert primary follicle into mature follicle is---------------
A) 4 days B) 9 to 11 days C) 18 to 20 days D) 2 days
30. The secretory phase in the human menstrual cycle is also called
A) Follicular phase lasting for about 6 days B) Luteal phase and lasts for about 14 days
C) Follicular phase and lasts for about 13 days D) Luteal phase and lasts for about 6 days
 “CHEMISTRY XII”
31. In Wolff Kishner reaction, aldehyde and ketones are converted into _____.
A) Hydrocarbons B) Alcohols C) Carboxylic acids D) Esters
32. The cyanohydrin is formed from ketone by
A) Electrophilic addition B) Nucleophilic addition
C) Nucleophilic substitution D) Electrophilic substitution
33. Sodium ethanoate and soda lime are heated together to give
A) Calcium benzoate B) Benzene C) Sodium benzoate D) Methane
34. Ketone is formed by
A) Oxidation of primary alcohols B) Oxidation of secondary alcohols
C) Dehydrogenation of tertiary alcohols D) Dehydrogenation of primary alcohols
35. Grignard's reagent reacts with all aldehydes except formaldehyde to produce:
A) Tertiary alcohols B) Secondary alcohols C) Primary alcohols D) Carboxylic acids
36. The Aldehydes and ketones commonly undergoe nucleophilic addition with reagent,known as
A) A Grignard’s reagent B) Tollen’s reagent Option
C) Hydrocyanic acid D) Sodium hydrogen sulphite
37. All of the following are derivative of carboxylic acid except
A) Amides B) Aldehyde C) Anhydride D) Acid halides
38. Aldehydes and ketones are distinguished by
A) Lucas test B) Tollen’s test C) Baeyer’s test D) Bromine water test
39. Rochelle salt is used as a reagent in
A) Tollen's test B) Fehling’s test C) Wolff kishner reduction D) Benedict’s test
40. The general formula of homologous series of both aldehydes and ketones is
A) CnH2n-2O B) CnHnO C) CnH2nO D) CnH2n+2O
41. In Fehling’s test
i. aldehyde is oxidizing agent ii. Fehling solution is oxidizing agent
iii. Aldehyde is reducing agent. iv. Fehling’s solution is reducing agent
A) I,ii are correct B) ii,iii are correct
C) I,iii are correct D) I,iv are correct
42. Which one of the following does not have a carboxylic group?
A) Benzoic acid B) Ethanoic acid C) oxalic acid D) Picric acid
43. Fehling’s solution is mixture of _________
A) Solution of CuSO4 and solution NH4OH
B) Solution of CuSO4 and solution of sodium potassium tartrate.
C) Solution of CuSO4 and solution of sodium bezoate.
D) Solution of CuSO4 and solution of KOH
44. Which reducing agent can be used to reduce ketones?
A) LiAIH4 B) C2H5OH C) Zn/Hg D) HCHO
45. The red precipitates of ----------- are obtained in Fehling’s test.
A) Cu (OH)2 B) CuO C) Cu2O D) CuSO4
46. The ethanal is reacted with C2H5MgI and then hydrolysed , the product obtained is
A) 2,2-dimethyl propanol B) tertiary buty alcohol C) Butan - 2 – ol D) Butan – 2-one
47. The formic acid reacts with PCl5 to form:
A) Acetyl chloride B) Methanoyl chloride C) Methyl chloride D) propanoyl chloride
48. Acetyl chloride can be prepared by reaction of:
A) Ethanoic acid with thionyl chloride (SOCl2)
B) Formic acid with phosphorus trichloride (PCl3)
C) Sodium acetate with phosphorus trichloride (PCl3)
D) Sodium formate with phosphorus trichloride (PCl3)
49. Benzoic acid reacts with conc: HNO3 and conc: H2SO4 to give
A) o-nitrobenzoic acid B) p-nitrobenzoic acid
C) m-nitrobenzoic acid D) o,p-dinitrobenzoic acid
50. A reaction in which a carboxylic acid loses CO2 is known as _______ .
A) Carbonation B) Carboxylation C) dehydration D) Decarboxylation
51. Hydrolysis of alkane nitriles with aqueous acid or alkali yields
A) Carboxylic acids B) Ketones C) Alcohols D) Aldehydes
52. Carbonation of ethyl magnesium chloride produces.
A) Acet aldehyde B) Ethyl methyl Ketone C) Propanoic acid D) Ethanoic acid
53. Which group will increase the acidity, if substituted in carboxylic acid?
A)-CI B)-CN C)-OH D) all of these
54. The acetic acid can be reduced by strong reducing agent into
A) Acetone B) formic acid C) Ethanol D) Methyl acetate
55. The product obtained by reaction between aldehyde and hydroxyl amine is
A) Acetal B) Hemiacetal C) Oxime D) Aldol
56. Dimethyl ketones undergo reduction to form __________
A) Ethyl alcohols B) Isopropyl alcohol C) 2-butanol D) 2-butene
57. All of the following methods produce aldehyde except
A) Oxidation of primary alcohols
B) Dehydrogenation of secondary alcohols
C) Ozonolysis of alkenes
D) Hydration of ethyne
58. What is the correct order of boiling points of the following?
A) HCOOH > CH3COOH > C2H5COOH
B) C2H5COOH > CH3COOH > HCOOH
C) HCOOH > C2H5COOH > CH3COOH
D) CH3COOH > HCOOH > C2H5COOH
59. Which of the following compounds has highest solubility in water?
A) Pentanone B) Butanone C) Formaldehyde D) Propanone
60. Propanone reacts with hydrazine in the presence of KOH to produce
A) Ppropanal B) Propanol C) Propene D) Propane
 “PHYSICS XII”
61. What is the phenomenon where a changing magnetic field induces an electromotive force
(EMF) in a coil?
A) Faraday's Law of Induction B) Ohm's Law C) Coulomb's Law
D) Newton's Law of Motion E) None of these
62. In a magnetic field, the force experienced by a charged particle is maximum when:
A) The velocity is parallel to the magnetic field
B) The velocity is antiparallel to the magnetic field
C) The velocity is perpendicular to the magnetic field
D) The velocity is at a 45-degree angle to the magnetic field
63. The right-hand rule can be used to determine the direction of the magnetic field around a
current-carrying wire. In which direction does the thumb point in this rule?
A) Along the current B) Opposite to the current C) Perpendicular to the current
D) Towards the wire E) None of these
64. How does the magnetic force on a charged particle change when the particle's velocity is
parallel to the magnetic field?
A) Maximum B) Minimum C) Zero D) Indeterminate E) NOT
65. According to the right-hand rule, if the index finger points in the direction of the magnetic field
and the middle finger in the direction of the charged particle's velocity, where does the thumb
point?
A) Opposite to the palm B) In the direction of the force C) Perpendicular to the palm
D) Parallel to the palm E) None of these
66. In a DC motor, what part of the motor experiences a force due to the interaction between the
current and the magnetic field?
A) Armature B) Commutator C) Stator D) Brushes E) NOT
67. What is the function of the slip rings in an AC generator?
A) To reverse the direction of current in the coil
B) To regulate the speed of the generator
C) To provide continuous electrical contact with the rotating coil
D) To control the voltage applied to the generator
68. What happens to the induced EMF during self-induction if the current in the coil is steady and
constant?
A) Increases B) Decreases C) Remains constant D) Becomes zero
69. In a DC generator, what component is responsible for changing alternating current to direct
current?
A) Commutator B) Rotor C) Stator D) Slip rings
70. What does Lenz's Law state regarding the direction of an induced electromotive force
(EMF) in a circuit?
A) It is in the same direction as the change in magnetic flux.
B) It is opposite to the change in magnetic flux.
C) It is perpendicular to the change in magnetic flux.
D) It is independent of the change in magnetic flux.
71. Which of the following statements is true regarding the sources of electric and magnetic fields?
A) Electric fields have both static and moving charge sources, while magnetic fields only have
moving charge sources.
B) Electric fields are only created by static charges, while magnetic fields are only created
by moving charges.
C) Both electric and magnetic fields are created by moving charges.
D) Electric fields are only created by moving charges, while magnetic fields are only created by
static charges.
72. How is mutual induction different from self-induction?
A) Mutual induction involves a single coil, while self-induction involves two or more coils.
B) Mutual induction involves the induction of EMF in one coil due to a changing current in another,
while self-induction involves the induction of EMF in the same coil.
C) Mutual induction only occurs in non-metallic materials, while self-induction occurs in metallic
materials.
D) There is no difference; the terms are used interchangeably.
73. In a transformer, what is the primary coil responsible for, in terms of mutual induction?
A) Inducing EMF in the secondary coil B) Increasing the efficiency of mutual induction
C) Reducing the rate of change of magnetic flux D) Acting as an insulator
74. What is the role of the iron core in a transformer regarding mutual induction?
A) To increase resistance
B) To decrease mutual inductance
C) To provide a magnetic path and enhance mutual induction
D) To shield the coils from external interference
75. How does a non-inductive winding affect the magnetic field produced when current flows
through it?
A) Enhances the magnetic field B) Reduces the magnetic field
C) Has no effect on the magnetic field D) Reverses the magnetic field
76. What is the purpose of the magnetic field in an AC generator?
A) To produce electrical resistance
B) To convert mechanical energy into electrical energy
C) To induce a voltage in the rotating coil
D) To control the frequency of the generated current
77. What is the role of the armature in a DC generator?
A) It provides a stationary magnetic field
B) It rotates within a magnetic field, inducing a voltage in the coil.
C) It connects the generator to the electrical grid
D) It controls the direction of current flow.
78. What is the primary function of a transformer?
A) To convert mechanical energy into electrical energy
B) To convert electrical energy into mechanical energy
C) To change the voltage of alternating current
D) To change the frequency of direct current
79. In an ideal transformer, what is the relationship between the input power and the output
power?
A) Input power is greater than output power B) Input power is less than output power
C) Input power is equal to output power D) Input power is unrelated to output power
80. Which of the following contributes to copper losses in a transformer?
A) Magnetization of the core B) Resistance of the windings
C) Eddy currents in the core D) Hysteresis in the core
81. What is the primary source of iron losses in a transformer?
A) Eddy current losses B) Hysteresis losses C) Copper losses D) Leakage losses
82. Which of the following is responsible for energy losses due to the continuous reversal of
magnetization in the transformer core?
A) Copper losses B) Hysteresis losses C) Eddy current losses D) Resistance losses
83. In the context of power distribution, what is the primary purpose of step-up transformers?
A) To increase voltage for long-distance transmission
B) To decrease voltage for long-distance transmission
C) To generate electrical energy
D) To control frequency in power grids
84. A proton (charge e), traveling perpendicular to a magnetic field, experiences the same force as
an alpha particle (charge 2e) which is also traveling perpendicular to the same field The ratio
of their speeds, vproton/valpha, is:
A) 0.5 B) 1 C) 2 D) 4 E) 8
85. A solenoid 15cm long has 300 turns of wire. A current of 5 A flows through. What is magnitude
of magnetic field inside the solenoid?
A) 1.3x10-2 wbm-2 B) 1.3x102 wb m-2 C) 13x10-2 web m-2
D) 13x102 web m-2 E) None of these
86. Two parallel long wires carry the same current and repel each other with a force F per unit
length. If both these currents are doubled and the wire separation tripled, the force per unit
length becomes:
A) 2F/9 B) 4F/9 C) 2F/3 D) 4F/3 E) 6F
87. The magnetic field a distance 2 cm from a long straight current-carrying wire is 2.0 × 10−5 T.
The current in the wire is:
A) 0.16A B) 1.0A C) 2.0A D) 4.0A E) 25A
88. Find the mutual induction of the coil when electric current 1.2 ampere in one of the coils is
reduced to 0.4 ampere in 0.05 second causes an induced e.m.f of 4.8 volts in the other coil.
A) 100mH B) 200mH C) 300mH D) 400mH E) NOT
89. Find the magnitude of induced e.m.f in a conductors of 5H in which current falls from
3 ampere to 1 ampere in 2 millisecond
A) 100KV B) 2KV C) 3KV D) 4KV E) 5KV
90. A transformer setup 220 volt to 2200 volt. If the secondary coil of a transformer has 200 turns.
The number of turns in the primary coil is
A) 20 B) 32 C) 110 D) 550 E) NOT
 “ENGLISH XII”
91. Identify the verb in the following sentence.
The printer has been out of ink all week.
A) Transitive B) Intransitive C) Ambitransitive D) linking verb E) NOT
92. It doesn’t seem true I’m not believing it.
A) Seem B) true C) I’m D) believing E) no error
93. Neha is being very nice to me at the moment. I wonder why.
A) Being B) nice C) me D) wonder E) no error
94. Identify the finite verb in the following sentence.
They are learning how to swim
A) Are B) learning C) swim D) NOT E) no error
95. Find the correct statement.
This soup taste very good
This soup tastes very good
This soup is tasting very good
All of these
96. Calm down! take a deep breath and tell me what happened
A) Calm B) take C) tell D) happened E) no error
97. Find the correct statement.
She had have a great time during the holiday.
She have had a great time during the holiday.
She has have a great time during the holiday.
She has had a great time during the holiday
C&D
98. Find the transitive verb in the following.
She rarely laughed
They laughed at us.
She gave a loud laugh.
He laughed with pleasure
99. Find the appropriate statement.
They did a dance at the wedding
They had a dance at the wedding
They danced at the wedding.
They took a dance at the wedding.
B &C
100. Find the appropriate statement.
I find horror films terrifying.
I find horror films as terrifying.
I find at horror films terrifying.
I find horror films of terrifying.
NOT
PRE-ENTRANCE TEST AND SCIENCE COACHING ANSARI MUHALLA LARKANA
EXCELLENT COACHING BY EXPERIENCED TEACHERS

Answers Key Intermediate

Test 5th Coaching 2023-24
Test Held on: Sunday 11 February 2024

Q# ANS Q # ANS Q # ANS Q # ANS Q # ANS

1 C 21 A 41 B 61 A 81 A
2 A 22 D 42 D 62 C 82 B
3 A 23 B 43 B 63 A 83 A
4 D 24 C 44 A 64 C 84 C
5 B 25 B 45 C 65 B 85 A
6 C 26 D 46 C 66 A 86 D
7 C 27 A 47 B 67 C 87 C
8 D 28 B 48 A 68 D 88 C
9 D 29 B 49 C 69 A 89 E
10 Cancel 30 B 50 D 70 B 90 A
11 C 31 A 51 A 71 A 91 D
12 C 32 B 52 C 72 B 92 D
13 A 33 D 53 Cancel 73 A 93 E
14 B 34 B 54 C 74 C 94 A
15 A 35 B 55 C 75 D 95 B
16 C 36 A 56 B 76 C 96 E
17 C 37 B 57 B 77 B 97 D
18 D 38 B 58 B 78 C 98 C
19 A 39 B 59 C 79 C 99 E
20 A 40 C 60 D 80 B 100 A

www.sumacademy.net
www.facebook.com/sumlarkana/