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6
TABLE OF CONTENTS
Reproduction in Organisms
Chapter at a Glance ............................................................................................................................................ 10
Exercise - 1 : Basic Subjective Questions .......................................................................................................... 12
Exercise - 2 : Basic Objective Questions ........................................................................................................... 14
Exercise - 3 : Previous Year Questions ............................................................................................................. 18
Answer Key ........................................................................................................................................................ 191
Sexual reproduction in flowering plants

Answer Key ........................................................................................................................................................ 192
Human Reproduction
Answer Key ........................................................................................................................................................ 193
Reproductive Health
Answer Key ........................................................................................................................................................ 194
7
Principles of Inheritance and Variation

Answer Key ........................................................................................................................................................ 195
Molecular Basis of Inheritance

Answer Key ........................................................................................................................................................ 196
Evolution
Exercise - 2 : Basic Objective Questions ............................................................................................................ 85
Answer Key ........................................................................................................................................................ 197
Human Health and Disease

Answer Key ........................................................................................................................................................ 198
8
Strategies for Enhancement in Food production

Answer Key ........................................................................................................................................................ 199
Microbes in Human Welfare

Answer Key ........................................................................................................................................................ 200
Biotechnology: Principles and Processes

Answer Key ........................................................................................................................................................ 201
Biotechnology and its Applications

Answer Key ........................................................................................................................................................ 202
9
Organisms and Populations

Answer Key ........................................................................................................................................................ 203
Ecosystem
Answer Key ........................................................................................................................................................ 204
Biodiversity
Answer Key ........................................................................................................................................................ 205
Environmental Issues
Answer Key ........................................................................................................................................................ 206
10 REPRODUCTION IN ORGANISMS
01
REPRODUCTION IN ORGANISMS
REPRODUCTION IN ORGANISMS 11
Chapter 01
Reproduction in Organisms
Chapter at a Glance
 Organisms may be bisexual or unisexual.

 Sexuality in plants is varied, particularly in angiosperms, due to the production of diverse types of flowers. Plants are defined
as monoecious and dioecious. Flowers may be bisexual or unisexual flowers.
 Gametes are haploid in nature and usually a direct product of meiotic division except in haploid organisms where gametes are
formed by mitosis.
 Transfer of male gametes is an essential event in sexual reproduction. It is relatively easy in bisexual organisms. In unisexual
animals it occurs by copulation or simultaneous release. In angiosperms, a special process called pollination ensures transfer
of pollen grains which carry the pollen grains to the stigma.
 Pollination is of two types: Self-pollination and Cross-pollination.
 Based on the source of fusing gametes, syngamy (fertilization) is of two types: Self-fertilization (Endogamy) and Cross-
fertilization (Exogamy).
 In flowering plants, after fertilization, ovary develops into fruit and ovules mature into seeds. Inside the mature seed is the
progenitor of the next generation, the embryo.
 The development of an egg (ovum) into a complete individual without fertilization by a sperm is known as parthenogenesis.
It is of two main types: Natural and artificial.
EXERCISE – 1: Basic Subjective Questions

Section–A (1 Mark Questions) 13. In higher plants and higher animals, the number of
1. Name the organism that produces gemmule as an taxa exhibiting asexual reproduction is drastically
asexual reproductive structure? reduced as compared to the lower groups of plants
and animals. Explain.
2. “The offsprings produced by asexual reproduction
are referred to as clones”. Why? OR
3. Among the annual and the perennial plants, which 13. What are the changes that take place in an
one has a shorter juvenile period. Explain. angiosperm after pollination and fertilization have
occurred?
4. Rearrange the following events in the sequence in
which they occur in the sexual reproduction of 14. Answer the following questions:
flowering plants: embryogenesis, fertilization, (a) What is the complete process of sexual
gametogenesis, pollination. reproduction?
5. Write the names of vegetative propagules in the (b) Define Pollination.
following: 15. Differentiate between a zoospore and a zygote.
(i) Agave 16. Why are the seeds scattered in the juicy pulp of
(ii) Byophyllum tomato and arranged in a row in a pea pod?
17. Differentiate between Asexual reproduction and
Sexual Reproduction.
Section–B (2 Mark Questions) 18. Name the plant known as the "Terror of Bengal".
6. What are the two inherent characteristics of Amoeba Why is it called so?
and yeast that favor asexual reproduction in them?
19. How does yeast reproduce asexually? Show it
7. Why is potato tuber considered as a stem though it is diagramatically.
an underground part? Give two reasons in support of
20. Answer the following questions:
your answer.
(a) Is sexual reproduction hindered by the presence
8. Define fragmentation and vegetative propagation.
of a large number of chromosomes in an
9. Explain by giving two examples if there is a organism? Support your answer with a suitable
relationship between the size and the lifespan of an example.
organism.
(b) Where is a zygote formed in a flowering/seed
OR plant?
9. Give the chromosome number in the gametes of the (c) What is a meiocyte?
following if the number of chromosomes in their
21. Define Asexual Reproduction. What are the different
meiocyte is as follows:
types of asexual reproduction?
(i) Dog - 78, (ii) Housefly - 12, (iii) Rice - 24,
22. Is vegetative propagation considered a type of
(iv) Onion - 16 asexual reproduction? Give reasons.
10. What is Gametogenesis? Support your answer with a
suitable example.
Section–D (4 Mark Questions)
23. Rohit visited a poultry farm. He observed hens sitting
Section–C (3 Mark Questions) on eggs and incubating them. He went to a nearby
11. Define: pond and observed tadpoles hatching out of a cluster
(a) Juvenile phase of eggs. Then he saw a dog feeding its puppies. He
(b)Reproductive phase left wondering on how some animals lay eggs and
(c)Senescent phase some directly give birth to their young ones.
12. Differentiate between gametogenesis and (a) What are the terms for animals that lay eggs and
embryogenesis. the animals that directly give birth to their young
ones?
REPRODUCTION IN ORGANISMS 13
(b) Why are the chances of survival higher in the 25. Write a note on sexuality in organisms.
latter? OR
(c) What kind of eggs (fertilized or unfertilized) are 25. Answer the following questions:
laid by frogs and hen? (a) Write the modes of asexual reproduction in the
(d) Why do frogs and fishes lay hundreds of eggs at following organisms: Potato, Penicillium.
a time but why do hens lay eggs only one at a (b) Which plant blooms once in 12 years?
time?
(c) What is special about flowering in bamboo?
(d) Illustrate the process of binary fission in Amoeba
Section–E (5 Mark Questions) with a diagram.
24. Differentiate between: (e) Why is reproduction essential for organisms?
(a) External fertilization and Internal fertilization
(b) Oviparous animals and Viviparous animals
OR
24. Describe the different phases of life cycle in an
organism.
Section–B 25. Assertion: Isogametes are formed in the majority of

sexually reproducing organisms.
(Assertion & Reason Type Questions)
Reason: Morphologically distinct types of gametes
21. Assertion: Reproduction enables the continuity of the
are called isogametes.
species generation after generation.
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and the
Reason: Reproduction is a biological process in
Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion
which an organism gives rise to young ones similar
to itself. (b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but the
Reason is not the correct explanation of the
Assertion
(c) Assertion is true, but Reason is false
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but the
Reason is not the correct explanation of the (d) Both Assertion and Reason are false
Assertion 26. Assertion: The zygote developed from sexual
(c) Assertion is true, but Reason is false reproduction is diploid.
(d) Both Assertion and Reason are false Reason: In sexual reproduction, haploid gametes fuse
22. Assertion: Asexual reproduction involves the and form a zygote.
formation of clones of an organism. (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and the
Reason: Clones are morphologically and genetically Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion
similar individuals. (b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but the
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and the Reason is not the correct explanation of the
Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion Assertion
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but the (c) Assertion is true, but Reason is false
Assertion 27. Assertion: Embryogenesis is the development of an
(c) Assertion is true, but Reason is false embryo from the zygote.
(d) Both Assertion and Reason are false Reason: Cell divisions increase the number of cells
23. Assertion: Water hyacinth is an invasive aquatic in the developing embryo.
plant that spreads all over the water in a short period (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and the
of time Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion
Reason: Water hyacinth can reproduce vegetatively. (b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but the
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and the Reason is not the correct explanation of the
Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion Assertion
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but the (c) Assertion is true, but Reason is false
Assertion
(d) Both Assertion and Reason are false Section–C (Case Study Questions)
24. Assertion: In perennial plant species, it is difficult to Case Study – 1
define vegetative, reproductive, and senescent 28. Read the following passage and answer the questions
phases. given below.
Reason: Perennial plants have a very short life span. Each and every organism can live only for a certain
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and the period of time. The period from birth to the natural
Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion death of an organism represents its life span. It may
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but the be as short as a few days or as long as a few thousand
Reason is not the correct explanation of the years. Between these two extremes are the life spans
Assertion of most other living organisms. Life spans of
(c) Assertion is true, but Reason is false organisms are not necessarily correlated with their
sizes.
(d) Both Assertion and Reason are false
REPRODUCTION IN ORGANISM 17
(i) Life span of an organism usually includes (ii) The sequential events in sexual reproduction may be
(a) Juvenility (b) Maturity grouped into
(c) Senescence and death (d) All of the above (a) Two stages-gametogenesis and gamete transfer
(ii) Select the option which arranges the given organisms (b) Three stages-gametogenesis and gamete transfer
in ascending order of their life span. and fertilization
(a) Parrot < Crow < Butterfly < Banyan tree (c) Two stages-gametogenesis and embryogenesis
(b) Butterfly < Crow < Parrot < Crocodile (d) Three stages-pre-fertilization, fertilization, and
(c) Fruit fly < Crocodile < Parrot < Banyan tree post-fertilization events
(d) Parrot < Tortoise < Dog < Crow (iii) Sexual reproduction is considered more beneficial
(iii) Whatever be the life span, the death of every than asexual reproduction because
individual organism is a certainty, i.e., no individual (a) It is not affected by adverse environmental
is immortal except conditions
(a) Human beings (b) Fertilization is a chance factor
(b) Amoeba and Paramecium (c) It rapidly multiplies the population
(c) Single-celled organisms (d) It assists in evolution by producing variations
(d) Both B and C (iv) The most vital and critical event of the sexual
(iv) Single-celled animals are said to be immortal because reproduction is
(a) They grow indefinitely in size (a) Gamete formation (b) Gamete transport
(b) They can tolerate any degree of change in (c) Gametic fusion (d) Embryogenesis
temperature
(c) They can reproduce throughout their life span Case Type-3
(d) They continue to live as their daughter cells.
30. Read the following passage and answer the questions
given below.
Case Type-2 Successful transfer and coming together of gametes is
29. Read the following passage and answer the questions essential for fertilization. Fertilization is the fusion of
given below. male and female gametes to form a diploid zygote.
After attainment of maturity, all sexually reproducing However, in some organisms (E.g., honey bees), the
organisms exhibit events and processes that have female gamete undergoes development to form new
remarkable fundamental similarity, even though the organisms without fertilization.
structures associated with sexual reproduction are (i) Process of fusion of gametes (haploid cells) is known as
indeed very different. The events of sexual (a) Cell cycle (b) Meiosis
reproduction though elaborate and complex, follow a (c) Mitosis (d) Syngamy
regular sequence. Sexual reproduction is (ii) Development of new individual from female gamete
characterised by the fusion (or fertilisation) of the without fertilization is termed as
male and female gametes, the formation of zygote
(a) Syngamy (b) Embryogenesis
and embryogenesis.
(c) Oogamy (d) Parthenogenesis
(i) All organisms have to reach a certain stage of growth
and maturity in their life before they can reproduce (iii) In honeybees, the drones are produced from:
sexually. That period of growth is called the (a) Fasting larvae
(a) Reproductive phase (b) Fertilized eggs
(b) Senescent phase (c) Unfertilized eggs
(c) Vegetative phase in animals and juvenile phase in (d) Larvae fed with royal jelly
plants (iv) Which one has the capacity to reproduce without the
(d) Vegetative phase in plants and juvenile phase in fertilization of eggs?
animals (a) Rotifers (b) Some lizards
(c)Turkey (d)All of the above
EXERCISE – 3: Previous Year Questions

1. A male honeybee has 16 chromosomes whereas its 14. Mention the unique flowering phenomenon exhibited
female has 32 chromosomes. Give one reason. by Strobilanthes kunthiana (neelakurinji).
(Delhi 2016) (Delhi 2012)
2. Explain the significance of meiocytes in a diploid 15. Name the mode of reproduction that ensures the
organism. (Delhi 2016) creation of new variants. (Delhi 2012C)
3. Explain the importance of syngamy and meiosis in a 16. Name the type of cell division that takes place in the
sexual life cycle of an organism. (Delhi 2016) zygote of an organism exhibiting haplontic life cycle.
4. A single pea plant in your kitchen garden produces (Delhi 2011)
pods with viable seeds, but the individual papaya 17. Name the phenomenon and the cell responsible for
plant does not. Explain. (AI 2015) the development of a new individual without
5. How many chromosomes do drones of honeybees fertilization as seen in honeybees. (Foreign 2011)
possess? Name the type of cell division involved in 18. Mention the site where syngamy occurs in
the production of sperms by them. (AI 2015) amphibians and reptiles, respectively. (Delhi 2010)
6. Meiosis is an essential event in the sexual life cycle 19. A moss plant produces a large number of
of any organism. Give two reasons. (Foreign 2015) antherozoids but relatively only a few egg cells.
7. Give one example of an animal which exhibits an Why? (Delhi 2010)
estrous cycle. (Delhi 2014C) 20. Why are papaya and date palm plants said to be
8. Write the two pre-fertilisation events from the list dioecious, whereas cucurbits and coconut palms
given below: monoecious, despite all of them bearing unisexual
flowers? (Foreign 2010)
Syngamy, Gametogenesis, Embryogenesis,
Pollination (AI 2014C) 21. Which of the following statements is true of Hydra?
(AI 2013C)
9. In which two of the following organisms is the mode
of fertilization external? (i) It produces asexual gemmules
Bony fishes, Ferns, Frogs, Birds (Delhi 2014C) (ii) It produces unicellular buds.
10. Differentiate between oviparous and viviparous (iii) It produces multicellular buds.
animals. (Delhi 2014C) 22. Which one of the following statements is true of
11. Give the name of the common phenomenon with ginger? (AI 2013C)
reference to reproduction in rotifers, honeybees and (i) Germinating buds appear from the eve of the
turkeys. (Delhi 2013C) stem tuber.
12. Which of the following statements is true about date (ii) Germinating buds appear from the node of the
palm? rhizome.
(i) It is monoecious producing both staminate (iii) Germinating bud appears from the notch of the
flowers and pistillate flowers on the same plant. leaf margin.
(ii) It is monoecious producing staminate flowers on 23. Name an organism, where cell division is itself a
one tree and pistillate flowers on another tree. mode of reproduction.
(iii) It is dioecious producing staminate flowers on (AI 2013; Foreign 2010)
one tree and pistillate flowers on another tree. 24. How does Penicillium reproduce asexually?
(AI 2013C) (Delhi 2013)
13. Cucurbits and papaya plants bear staminate and 25. Name an alga that reproduces asexually through
pistillate flowers. Mention the categories they are put zoospores. Why are these reproductive units so
under separately on the basis of the type of flowers called? (AI 2013)
they bear. (Delhi 2012)
Find Answer Key and Detailed Solutions at the end of this book
02
SEXUAL REPRODUCTION
IN FLOWERING PLANTS
22 SEXUAL REPRODUCTION IN FLOWERING PLANTS
Chapter 02
Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants
Chapter at a Glance
SEXUAL REPRODUCTION IN FLOWERING PLANTS 23

Section–A (1 Mark Questions) 17. Give any three advantages of sexual incompatibility.
1. A dithecous anther consists of ______ 18. Enlist the advantages offered by seeds to
microsporangia, _____ in each lobe. angiosperms.
2. What is the function of the filiform apparatus of the 19. Give any three outbreeding devices in flowering
embryo sac? plants to encourage cross-pollination.
3. Give an example of a water-pollinated plant? 20. How does pollination take place in Valllisneria and
4. What are parthenocarpic fruits? sea-grasses?
5. Which part of the gynoecium receives the pollen grain? 21. What are the differences between albuminous and
non-albuminous seeds?
22. What are the different steps involved in the process
Section–B (2 Mark Questions)
of artificial hybridization?
6. Arrange the following in correct developmental
sequence: Male gamete, Potential pollen mother cell,
sporogenous tissue, Pollen grains, Microspore tetrad. Section–D (4 Mark Questions)
7. What kind of structures are formed at the end of 23. A person from a non-biology background is quite
microsporogenesis and megasporogenesis? shocked to know that apple is a false fruit, mango is a
8. Why pollen grains can remain well preserved as true fruit and banana is a seedless fruit. As a biology
fossils? student, how would you explain the difference to
OR them?
8. State any one advantage and disadvantage of pollen
grains to humans. Section–E (5 Mark Questions)
9. Why is emasculation done in the process of artificial 24. Trace the development of megasporocytes into the
hybridization? mature ovule.
10. Why are cleistogamous flowers invariably
OR
autogamous?
24. Explain the development of embryo in a
dicotyledonous plant with neatly labeled diagrams.
Section–C (3 Mark Questions) 25. Describe the post-fertilization changes taking place
11. Describe the structure of a microsporangium with a in a flowering plant?
neatly labeled diagram.
OR
12. How are the cells arranged in an embryo sac? Draw a
25. Describe the structure of a dicot embryo with the
well-labeled diagram.
help of a labeled diagram.
OR
12. Why is the process of fertilization in flowering plants
referred to as double fertilization?
13. What relationship exists between a species of moth
and Yucca plant?
14. Explain the structure of an anatropous ovule with a
neat labeled diagram?
15. Describe the structure of a pollen grain.
16. Define the following terms:
a. Autogamy
b. Geitonogamy
c. Xenogamy
EXERCISE – 2: Basic Objective Questions

Section–A (Single Choice Questions) 10. Continued _______results in inbreeding depression.
1. A dithecous anther consists of (i) microsporangia, (a) Self-pollination (b) Cross pollination
(ii) in each lobe. (c) Dehiscence (d) None of the above
(a) (i) → four: (ii) → two 11. In monoecious plants, unisexuality of flowers
(b) (i) → two; (ii) → one prevents
(c) (i) → two; (ii) → two (a) autogamy, but not geitonogamy
(d) (i) → four; (ii) → one (b) geitonogamy and xenogamy
2. Tapetum is a part of: (c) geitonogamy, but not
(a) Male gametophyte (b) Female gametophyte (d) autogamy and geitonogamy
(c) Ovary wall (d) Anther wall 12. Removal of anthers in bisexual flowers is called
3. One of the most resistant known biological materials (a) emasculation (b) selection
is (c) bagging (d) acclimatization
(a) lignin (b) hemicellulose 13. Double fertilization involves
(c) sporopollenin (d) lignocellulose (a) syngamy and triple fusion
4. In angiosperms, functional megaspore develops into (b) double fertilization
(a) Embryo sac (b) Ovule (c) development of antipodal cell
(c) Endosperm (d) Pollen sac (d) none of the above
5. The process of formation of megaspores from the 14. A single large shield shaped terminal cotyledon in
megaspore mother cell is called monocot embryo is called
(a) Microgametogenesis (a) Scutellum (b) Tigellum
(b) Microsporogenesis (c) Coleoptile (d) Coleorhiza
(c) Megagametogenesis 15. Nucellus forms which of the following parts of fruit?
(d) Megasporogenesis (a) Seed coat (b) Perisperm
6. The filiform apparatus is present in (c) Seed (d) Raphe
(a) synergids (b) egg cell 16. Seed dormancy is a state of
(c) antipodals (d) secondary nucleus (a) Permanent inactivity
7. Which of the following is haploid? (b) Death
(a) Style (c) inactivity
(b) Ovary (d) None of the above
(c) Synergids 17. Coleorhiza and coleoptile are the protective sheaths
(d) Primary endosperm nucleus covering ______ and ______ respectively
8. Which of the following may require pollination but is (a) Radicle, plumule
genetically similar to autogamy? (b) Plumule, radicle
(a) Apogamy (c) Plumule, hypocotyl
(b) Cleistogamy (d) Epicotyl, radicle
(c) Geitonogamy 18. Polyembryony was discovered in:
(d) Xenogamy (a) Citrus (b) Potato
9. Bisexual flowers which never open, and develop (c) Datura (d) Tobacco
underground demonstrate: 19. Seeds develop from:
(a) Autogamy (b) Allogamy (a) Embryo (b) Embryo sac
(c) Cleistogamy (d) None of these (c) Ovary (d) Ovules
28. Assertion: A fully formed angiosperm embryo sac is (iv) Which of the following wall layers help in the
7-celled and 8-nucleate. dehiscence of anther?
Reason: The mitotic divisions in the megaspore that (a) Epidermis, endothecium and middle layers
form the embryo sac are free nuclear, followed by (b) Endothecium, middle layers and tapetum
cell wall formation. (c) Epidermis, endodermis and middle layers
(a) The assertion is a true statement but the reason is (d) Endodermis, middle layers and tapetum
false.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason
is the correct explanation of the assertion. Case Type-2
(c) Both assertion and reason are true but the reason 30. Read the following and answer any four questions:
is not the correct explanation of the assertion. Pollination is the process of transfer of pollen grain
(d) Both assertion and reason are false. from anther to the stigma of a pistil. Based on the
pollen source, there are three different types of
pollinations- Autogamy, Geitonogamy, and
Section–C (Case Study Questions) Xenogamy. Flowering plants use external agents to
achieve pollination. These agents can be biotic
Case Study – 1
(animals) or abiotic (wind and water). Different
29. Read the following and answer any four questions: flowers have different characteristic features to be
A typical stamen consists of filament and anther. The pollinated by different agencies. For example- wind
anther is usually bilobed with each lobe having two pollinated flowers have well-exposed stamens with
theca (dithecous). In each lobe, two microsporangia light and non-sticky pollen grains so that the pollens
are present. A typical microsporangium is generally are easily dispersed into wind currents. Insect-
surrounded by four wall layers– the epidermis, pollinated flowers are large, colorful, fragrant, and
endothecium, middle layers, and the tapetum that rich in nectar.
perform different functions. In young anther, the (i) In aquatic plants- water hyacinth and water lily,
sporogenous tissue occupies the center of each which of the following agents carries out pollination?
microsporangium. As the anther develops, each cell
(a) Water
of the sporogenous tissue is potential pollen or
(b) Wind
microspore mother cell. These pollen mother cells
undergo reduction division and form microspore (c) Insects
tetrads. (d) Both b and c
(i) Which layer of microsporangium provides (ii) What type of flowers are invariably autogamous?
nourishment for developing pollen grains? (a) Chasmogamous
(a) Epidermis (b) Middle layers (b) Cleistogamous
(c) Tapetum (d) Endothecium (c) Unisexual flowers
(ii) What is the ploidy of the microspores in tetrad? (d) Both a and b
(a) Haploid (iii) Which of the following are characteristics of insect-
(b) Diploid pollinated flowers?
(a) Large, colorful flowers that are rich in nectar
(c) Triploid
(b) Large, colorful flowers with non-sticky pollens
(d) can be haploid or diploid
(c) Small, colorless flowers with nectar
(iii) The process of formation of microspores from a
pollen mother cell (PMC) through meiosis is called (d) Large, colorful flowers devoid of nectar
_________. (iv) In a corn cob, the tassels represents:
(a) Dehiscence (a) Anther (b) Hairs
(b) Differentiation (c) Style (d) Ovary
(c) Microsporogenesis
(d) Megasporogenesis

1. Angiosperms bearing unisexual flowers are said to be 15. Name all the haploid cells present in an unfertilised
either monoecious or dioecious. Explain with the mature embryo sac of a flowering plant. Write the
help of one example each. (AI 2016) total number of cells in it. (AI 2013)
2. The diploid number of chromosomes in an 16. Draw a labelled schematic diagram of the transverse
angiospermic plant is 16. What will be the number of section of a mature anther of an angiosperm plant.
chromosomes in its endosperm and antipodal cells? (Delhi 2013)
(AI 2019) 17. Explain the function of germ pores. (AI 2012)
3. Name the parts of the flower which the tassels of 18. Explain the events upto double fertilization after the
corn cob represent. (AI 2014) pollen tube enters one of the synergids in an ovule of
4. Draw a diagram of a mature microspore of an an angiosperm. (AI 2018)
angiosperm. Label its cellular components only. 19. (i) Name the organic material exine of the pollen
(Foreign 2014) grain is made up of. How is this material
5. State the function of the filiform apparatus found in advantageous to pollen grain?
the mature embryo sac of an angiosperm. (ii) Still it is observed that it does not form a
(Foreign 2014) continuous layer around the pollen grain. Give
6. Give an example of a plant which came into India as reasons.
a contaminant and is a cause of pollen allergy. (iii) How are pollen banks' useful? (AI 2016C)
(AI 2014) 20. Draw a labelled diagram of a section of an enlarged
7. A bilobed, dithecous anther has 100 microspore view of microsporangium of an angiosperm.
mother cells per microsporangium. How many male (AI 2016C)
gametophytes this anther can produce? (Delhi 2010)
21. Draw a labelled diagram of a typical anatropous
8. An nther with malfunctioning tapetum often fails to ovule. (Delhi 2014)
produce viable male gametophytes. Give one reason.
22. (a) Explain the role of stigma in pollen-pistil
(Delhi 2010)
interactions.
9. State the reason why pollen grains lose their viability
(b) Describe the post-pollination events leading to
when the tapetum in the anther is malfunctioning.
double fertilization in angiosperms, starting with
(AI 2019)
a two-celled pollen grain. (AI 2018)
10. A mature embryo sac in a flowering plant may
23. Draw a diagram of a mature embryo sac of an
possess 7-cells, but 8-nuclei. Explain with the help of
angiosperm and label the following parts in it.
a diagram only. (Delhi 2017)
(i) Filiform apparatus
11. In a flowering plant, a microspore mother cell
produces four male gametophytes while a megaspore (ii) Synergids
mother cell forms only one female gametophyte. (in) Central cells
Explain. (Delhi 2017) (iv) Egg cell
12. Gynoecium of a flower may be apocarpous or (v) Polar nuclei
syncarpous. Explain with the help of an example (vi) Antipodals (Delhi 2013)
each. (Delhi 2016)
24. (a) List any two characteristic features of wheat
13. Draw a diagram of a section of a megasporangium of flowers that make it a good example of wind
an angiosperm and label funiculus, micropyle, pollination.
embryo sac and nucellus. (AI 2016)
(b) It is observed that plant breeders carrying out
14. Differentiate between the two cells enclosed in a wheat hybridisation often take pollen grains
mature male gametophyte of an angiosperm. from the ‘pollen banks’. Do you agree? Give one
(AI 2013) reason in support of your answer. (AI 2019)
SEXUAL REPRODUCTION IN FLOWERING PLANTS 29
25. Describe the structure of a 3-celled pollen grain of an 39. Why should a bisexual flower be emasculated and
angiosperm. (Delhi 2012C) bagged prior to artificial pollination? (Foreign 2010)
26. (i) Describe the sequence of the process of 40. (i) Can a plant flowering in Mumbai be pollinated
microsporogenesis in angiosperms. by pollen grains of the same species growing in
(ii) Draw a labelled diagram of a 2-celled final New Delhi? Provide an explanation to your
structure formed. (Delhi 2015C) answer.
27. (i) Draw a labelled diagram of the sectional view of (ii) Draw the diagram of a pistil where pollination
microsporangium of an angiosperm. has successfully occurred. the parts involved in
reaching the male gametes to its desired
(ii) Explain the development of male gametophyte in
the microsporangium. (Delhi 2015) destination. (AI 2017)
28. (i) Describe the formation of mature female 41. What does an interaction between pollen grains and
its compatible stigma result in after pollination? List
gametophytes within an ovule in angiosperms.
two steps in sequence that follow the process.
(ii) Describe the structure of the cell that guides the
(Delhi 2016C)
pollen tube to enter the embryo sac. (AI 2014)
42. As a senior biology student you have been asked to
29. Draw a labelled diagram of sectional view of a
demonstrate to the students of secondary level in
mature embryo sac of an angiosperm. (Delhi 2014)
your school, the procedure(s) that shall ensure cross-
30. How does the megaspore mother cell develop into 7- pollination in a hermaphrodite flower. List the
celled and 8-nucleate embryo sac in an angiosperm? different steps that you would suggest and provide
Draw a labelled diagram of a mature embryo sac. reasons for each one of them. (AI 2015)
(Delhi 2012)
43. Flowering plants have developed many devices to
31. (i) Draw a diagram of an enlarged view of TS of discourage self -pollination and to encourage cross-
one microsporangium of an angiosperm and pollination. Explain three such devices.
label the following parts:
(Delhi 2016C)
(a) Tapetum
44. Explain the phenomenon of double fertilization.
(b) Middle layers (Delhi 2014)
(c) Endothecium 45. Write the differences between wind pollinated and
(d) Microspore mother cell insect pollinated flowers. Give an example of each
(i) Mention the characteristic features and function type. (Foreign 2014)
of tapetum. 46. Differentiate between geitonogamy and xenogamy in
(ii) Explain the following giving reasons plants. Which one between the two will lead to
(a) Pollen grains are well-preserved as fossils. inbreeding depression and why? (Delhi 2011)
(b) Pollen tablets are in use by people these days. 47. (i) Write the characteristic features of the anther,
(Foreign 2011) pollen grains and stigma of wind pollinated
flowers.
32. What is pollen-pistil interaction and how is it
mediated? (Foreign 2014) (ii) How do flowers reward their insect pollinator?
Explain. (AI 2010)
33. Differentiate between xenogamy and geitonogamy.
(Delhi 2014C) 48. Draw the longitudinal section of a flower showing
growth of pollen tube upto the embryo sac. Label the
34. How do the pollen grains of Vallisneria protect
following parts:
themselves? (AI 2012)
(i) Stigma
35. List the different types of pollination depending upon
the source of pollen grain. (Delhi 2016) (ii) Pollen tube
36. In angiosperms, zygote is diploid, while the primary (iii) Integument

endosperm cell is triploid. Explain. (AI 2013) (iv) Chalazal end
37. Explain triple fusion in angiosperms. (Delhi 2013C) (v) Nucellus
38. State one advantage and one disadvantage of (vi) Synergids (Delhi 2015)
cleistogamy. (AI 2012)
HUMAN REPRODUCTION 33
03
HUMAN REPRODUCTION
34 HUMAN REPRODUCTION
Chapter 03
Human Reproduction
Chapter at a Glance

13. (i) What is a placenta.
Section–A (1 Mark Questions)
(ii) Write down any three functions of placenta.
1. Where are seminiferous tubules located in human
14. Distinguish between:
body?
2. Which glands secrete the primary male sex hormone? (i) Graafian follicle and corpus luteum
3. Write the names of following. (ii) Spermatocytes and oocytes.
a. Site for maturation of sperms
(iii) Vasa efferentia and vas deferens
b. Embryo at 16 cell stage
4. What is spermiogenesis? 15. What are different parts of the male reproductive
5. What induces foetal ejection reflex in humans? system?
16. How is spermatogenesis different from oogenesis?
Section–B (2 Marks Questions) 17. (i) What do you understand by LH surge?
(ii) Why is LH surge important for menstrual cycle?
6. If a primary spermatocyte undergoes first meiotic
18. (i) What is responsible for parturition signals.
division to form two secondary spermatocytes than
(ii) Name the main hormone involved in parturition.
how many secondary spermatocytes are required to
19. The secretion of milk from mammary glands occurs
form 400 spermatozoa? Explain with reason.
via ducts and tubules. Explain the path of milk
7. Testicular lobules in each testis contain highly coiled
secretion in mammary gland.
seminiferous tubules. Answer the following questions
20. In our society the women are often blamed for giving
regarding seminiferous tubules.
birth to daughters. Can you explain why this is not
(i) What are the two types of cells present on the
correct?
inner lining of seminiferous tubules?
21. Why is breastfeeding recommended during the initial
(ii) What are the functions of these cells?
stages of infant growth?
8. What is colostrum and why is it essential for new-
born babies? OR
What is oogenesis? Give a brief account of oogenesis.
9. Name the locations and functions of the following
22. List the following events observed in human
(i) Corpus luteum reproduction in chronological order. Fertilization,
(ii) Endometrium Parturition, Gametogenesis, Implantation,
10. What happens in the follicular phase of the menstrual Gastrulation, Insemination.
cycle? Section–D (4 Marks Questions)

OR 23. It is commonly observed that most parents feel
What are the main functions of testis and ovary? embarrassed to discuss freely with their young
children about sexuality and reproduction. The loss of
Section–C (3 Marks Questions)
communication sometimes leads to morally
11. Some important events in the human female
reproductive cycle are given below. Arrange the questionable behaviour of adolescents.
events in proper sequence and also provide reasons to (i) What is the reason behind such embarrassment
support your answer. among some parents in discussing such issues
i. Secretion of FSH
with their children?
ii. Growth of Corpus luteum
iii. Growth of the follicle and oogenesis (ii) How can you help these parents to overcome
iv. Ovulation these inhibitions about sexuality and
v. Sudden increase in the levels of LH
reproduction by taking an example of a plant?
12. Write down the difference between a primary oocyte
and a secondary oocyte?
13. Fertilization of ovum by the sperm takes place in Delivery of foetus

iii. Ovulation r.
(a) ampulla of oviduct from uterus
(b) isthmus of uterus Duration between
iv. Implantation s.
(c) fimbriae of oviduct pregnancy and birth
(d) None of the above Fusion of egg nucleus
v. Fertilization t.
14. Acrosomal reaction of the sperm occurs due to with sperm nucleus
(a) Its contact with zona pellucida of the ova (a) i-q, ii-s, iii-p, iv-t, v-r
(b) Reactions within the uterine environment of the (b) i-r, ii-s, iii-p, iv-t, v-q
female (c) i-r, ii-s, iii-q, iv-t, v-p
(c) Reactions within the epididymal environment of (d) i-r, ii-s, iii-q, iv-p, v-t
the male
(d) Androgens produced in the uterus
Section–B
15. Fixing up of the blastocyst in the wall of the uterus is
known as (Assertion & Reason Type Questions)
(a) Fertilization (b) Placentation 21. Assertion: Testes are situated outside the abdominal
(c) Impregnation (d) Implantation cavity in a pouch called the scrotum.
16. Morula is a development stage Reason: Spermatogenesis process needs less
temperature as compared to normal body
(a) between the zygote and blastocyst
temperature.
(b) between the blastocyst and gastrula
(a) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(c) after the implantation
(b) If both assertion and reason are true and the
(d) between implantation and parturition. reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
17. Which hormones are produced in women during (c) If both assertion and reason are true but the reason
pregnancy? is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(a) Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) (d) If both assertion and reason are false.
(b) Relaxin 22. Assertion: In females, menarche starts at around the
(c) Human placental lactogen (hPL) age of puberty.
(d) All the above Reason: In females, menopause occurs at around the
18. Delivery of developed foetus is called age of 50.
(a) Ovulation (b) Oviposition (a) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(c) Parturition (d) Abortion (b) If both assertion and reason are true and the
19. After birth colostrum is released from mammary reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
glands which is rich in (c) If both assertion and reason are true but the reason
(a) Fat and low in proteins is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) Proteins and low in fat (d) If both assertion and reason are false.
(c) Proteins, antibodies and low in fat 23. Assertion: During embryonic development, the
placenta acts as a temporary endocrine gland.
(d) Proteins, fat and low in antibodies
Reason: Placenta produces pheromones during
20. Match the columns:
pregnancy.
Column-I Column-II (a) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
Attachment of (b) If both assertion and reason are true and the
i. Parturition p. blastocyst to reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
endometrium (c) If both assertion and reason are true but the reason
Release of egg from is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
ii. Gestation q.
Graafian follicle (d) If both assertion and reason are false.
24. Assertion: In oogenesis, primary oocytes are haploid. (b) If both assertion and reason are true and the
Reason: Meiosis-I in the oogonia results in the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
formation of primary oocytes. (c) If both assertion and reason are true but the reason
(a) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false. is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason (d) If both assertion and reason are false
is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If both assertion and reason are true but the reason Section–C (Case Study Questions)
is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(d) If both assertion and reason are false.
Case Study – 1
29. Read the following and answer the questions:
25. Assertion: Doctors highly recommend breastfeeding
during the initial period of infant growth. Humans are sexually reproducing organisms and are
viviparous. The reproductive events in humans
Reason: The milk formed during the initial days of
include formation and transfer of gametes, fusion of
lactation contains several antibodies.
gametes, formation of zygote, embryonic
development, and childbirth. All these reproductive
(b) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason events occur after a certain age in humans and
is the correct explanation of the assertion. generate a remarkable number of differences between
(c) If both assertion and reason are true but the reason the reproductive events in male and female.
is not the correct explanation of the assertion. (i) Find the odd one out in the list of organisms given
(d) If both assertion and reason are false. below?
26. Assertion: Maternal pituitary releases oxytocin Human, dog, cow, frog
hormone at the time of foetal-ejection reflex. (a) Human and dog
Reason: Signals for parturition originate from the (b) Dog and cow
placenta alone.
(c) Frog
(d) Cow
(b) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason
(ii) The human gestation period is of
(a) 280 days
(c) If both assertion and reason are true but the reason
(b) 180 days
(c) 20 weeks
(d) 60 weeks
27. Assertion: Fusion of the nucleus of the sperm and the
nucleus of the ovum occurs before the formation of (iii) What is the correct sequence of events during
ootid. reproduction in human beings?
Reason: Secretions of the acrosome help in fusion of (a) Gametogenesis, insemination, fertilization,
the nuclei of sperm and ovum. implantation, gestation, parturition.
(a) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false. (b) Gametogenesis, fertilization, insemination,
implantation, parturition, gestation.
is the correct explanation of the assertion. (c) Gametogenesis, insemination, implantation,
fertilization, gestation, parturition.
is not the correct explanation of the assertion. (d) Gametogenesis, insemination, implantation,
parturition, fertilization, gestation.
(iv) What is the significance of fertilization?
28. Assertion: Ovulation is followed by the
transformation of the ruptured Graafian follicle into (a) It maintains diploid chromosome numbers in
the corpus luteum. zygote.
Reason: Corpus luteum secretes a large amount of (b) Combination of characters from both the parents
oestrogen to maintain pregnancy. brings variations in offspring.
(a) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false. (c) It determines the sex of the embryos in humans.
(d) All of the above
Case Study – 2 Case Study – 3

30. Read the following and answer the questions: 31. Read the following and answer the questions:
Rapid mitotic divisions start in zygote as it moves The first menstruation starts at puberty and is called
through the isthmus of the oviduct. These divisions are menarche. It usually occurs between 12 and 15 years
known as cleavage. The 2, 4, 8, 16 daughter cells are of age in females. Menstruation is repeated at an
called blastomeres. Embryo with 64 blastomeres is average interval of about 28/29 days and is called the
known as blastocyst. Blastocyst has a blastocoel menstrual cycle. Large number of hormones regulate
cavity. Blastocyst gets implanted in the uterine wall this cycle. The hormones produced by the pituitary
and leads to pregnancy. gland influences the ovaries. The hormones secreted
(i) What is the fate of the inner cell mass of blastocyst? by the ovaries affect the uterine wall in females.
(a) It differentiates into the embryo. (i) The breakdown of endometrium of uterus occurs in
(b) It forms the placenta. (a) proliferative phase (b) luteal phase
(c) It forms the extraembryonic membranes. (c) ovulatory phase (d) menstrual phase.
(d) It forms the chorionic villi. (ii) Which days of the menstrual cycle marks the
(ii) Trophoblast develops at which stage of embryonic follicular/proliferative phase?
development? (a) 1-5 (b) 15-28
(a) Morula (b) Zygote (c) 6-13 (d) 10-14
(c) Blastocyst (d) Gastrula (iii) Which of the following occurs during the luteal phase
(iii) Which is the site of implantation in females? of menstrual cycle?
(a) Perimetrium of uterus (a) Remaining parts of the Graafian follicle change
into corpus luteum.
(b) Endometrium of uterus
(b) Primary follicle changes into Graafian follicle.
(c) Cervix
(c) Endometrium is regenerated, and oestrogen
(d) Ampullary-isthmic junction of oviducts
secretion increases.
(iv) What is the correct sequence of the stages formed
(d) LH surge induces the release of an ovum.
during embryonic development?
(iv) Which hormone attains a peak level during ovulatory
(a) Morula → Embryo → Gastrula → Blastula
phase?
(b) Zygote → Embryo → Morula → Blastula
(a) FSH (b) Progesterone
(c) Blastula → Morula → Gastrula → Embryo
(c) LH (d) Both (a) and (c)
(d) Zygote → Morula → Blastula → Gastrula.
43. Draw a labelled diagram of the reproductive system 55. Draw a diagrammatic sectional view of the female
in a human female. (AI 2011) reproductive system of humans and label the parts.
44. Draw a labelled diagrammatic sectional view of a (i) Where does the secondary oocyte develop?
human seminiferous tubule. (Delhi 2017) (ii) Which helps in collection of ovum after
45. (i) How many primary follicles are left in each ovulation?
ovary in a human female at puberty? (iii) Where does fertilization occur?
(ii) Draw a sectional view of the ovary showing the (iv) Where does implantation of embryos occur?
different follicular stages of a human female in
(Delhi 2013)
her preovulatory phase of the menstrual cycle.
56. (i) Arrange the following hormones in the sequence
(Delhi 2016C)
of their secretion in a pregnant woman: CG, LH,
46. Explain the events in a normal woman during her FSH, Relaxin
menstrual cycle on the following days
(ii) Mention their source and the function they
(i) Ovarian event from 13-15 days. perform. (Delhi 2017)
(ii) Ovarian hormones level from 16-23 days. 57. (i) Explain the menstrual phase in a human female.
(iii) Uterine events from 24-29 days. State the level of ovarian and pituitary hormones
(Delhi 2015C) during this phase.
47. Explain the events in a normal woman during her (ii) Why is the follicular phase in the menstrual
menstrual cycle on the following days. cycle also referred to as the proliferative phase?
Explain.
(i) Pituitary hormone levels from 8-12 days.
(iii) Explain the events that occur in a Graafian
(ii) Uterine events from 13-15 days.
follicle at the time of ovulation and thereafter.
(iii) Ovarian events from 16-23 days.
(iv) Draw a Graafian follicle and label the antrum
(AI 2015C, Delhi 2015C) and secondary oocyte. (Delhi 2016)
48. Explain the steps in the formation of an ovum from 58. (i) Explain the process of spermatogenesis in
oogonium in humans. (AI 2013) humans.
49. Draw a diagram of human sperm. Label only those (ii) Draw a human sperm and label the acrosome and
parts along with their functions that assist the sperm the middle piece. Mention their functions.
to reach and gain entry into the female gamete.
(Delhi 2016C)
(Foreign 2014)
59. Describe the roles of pituitary and ovarian hormones
50. Explain the hormonal control of spermatogenesis in during the menstrual cycle in a human female.
humans. (Foreign 2014)
(Delhi 2015)
51. Describe the process of parturition in humans.
60. Explain the ovarian and uterine events that occur
(Delhi 2015) during a menstrual cycle in a human female under the
52. (i) How is placenta formed in human females? influence of pituitary and ovarian hormones,
(ii) Name any two hormones which are secreted by respectively. (Delhi 2014)
it and are also present in a non-pregnant woman. 61. Explain the different phases of the menstrual cycle
(Foreign 2014) and correlate the phases with the different levels of
53. Write the function of each one of the following pituitary hormones in a human female.
(i) Fimbriae (oviducal) (Delhi 2014C)
(ii) Coleoptile 62. With the help of graphical illustration only, show the
changes in the levels of the pituitary hormone during
(iii) Oxytocin (Delhi 2012)
menstrual cycle in humans. (Delhi 2011C)
54. Write the function of each of the following
63. Explain the development of a secondary oocyte
(i) Seminal vesicle (ovum) in a human female from the embryonic stage
(ii) Acrosome of human sperm (Delhi 2012) upto its ovulation. Name the hormones involved in
this process. (Delhi 2015)
04
REPRODUCTIVE HEALTH
REPRODUCTIVE HEALTH 47
Chapter 04
Reproductive Health
Chapter at a Glance
 The term ‘Reproductive health’ refers to healthy reproductive organs that function normally, along with total well-being of a
person encompassing the different aspects of reproduction, i.e., emotional, mental, social and behavioural aspects.
 An increase in health facilities and better living conditions has led to growth of population and longer life expectancy.
Rapid increase in population in over a relatively short period of time is called population explosion.
 Overpopulation can lead to a number of issues at the individual, family or community level, as well as at the national level.
This leads to hunger, death, epidemic etc., leading to mass reduction in population till the balance in the environment is restored.
 Intentional or voluntary termination of pregnancy before full term is called medical termination of pregnancy (MTP) or
induced abortion.
 Government of India legalised MTP in 1971 with some strict conditions to avoid its misuse.
 MTPs are also essential in certain cases where continuation of the pregnancy could be harmful or even fatal either to the
mother or to the foetus or both.
 Infections or diseases which are transmitted through sexual intercourse are collectively called sexually transmitted infections.
 Gonorrhoea, syphilis, genital herpes, chlamydiasis, genital warts, trichomoniasis, hepatitis-B and HIV leading to AIDS are
some of the common STIs.
 People who are unable to conceive or produce children despite unprotected sexual cohabitation are infertile. The lack of a
fertile reproductive system, leading to an inability to conceive is referred to as infertility.
 In case of infertile people or infertile couples, reproduction can be achieved by the means of Assisted Reproductive
Technologies or ART.
48 REPRODUCTIVE HEALTH

Section–A (1 Mark Questions) 18. Comment on the essential features required for an ideal
contraceptive.
1. What is reproductive health?
19. Do you think that reproductive health in our country
2. Mention the primary aim of the “Assisted
has improved in the past 50 years? If yes, mention
Reproductive Technology”(ART) programme.
some such areas of improvement.
3. Why is tubectomy considered a contraceptive method?
20. Explain the sterilization method in detail.
4. Males in whom testes fail to descend to the scrotum are
21. Removal of gonads cannot be considered as a
generally infertile. Why?
contraceptive option. Why?
5. Name two STDs which are completely curable.
22. Why should sex education be introduced to school-
going children? List any five reasons.
6. How can lactation amenorrhea be considered as a Section–D (4 Mark Questions)
natural method of contraception?
23. Recently, there was a news in the Daily Tribune that
7. How do oral contraceptives function? What is the the sex ratio in Haryana has skewed to 876 females in
advantage of Saheli? comparison to boys. The state Government has sealed
8. How do Diaphragms, cervical caps and vaults act as a twenty scanning centers, which were doing illegally
barrier? Give two advantages of using barrier methods sex-determination.
of contraception. (a) What is sex-ratio?
(b) How the sex of the baby is determined before birth?
9. Strict conditions are to be followed in medical (c) Why is there a reduced number of females
termination of pregnancy (MTP) procedures. Mention
two reasons. in Haryana?
(d) What steps has the State Government taken to stop
10. What are the benefits of natural contraceptive methods
over artificial methods? this practice?
Section–C (3 Mark Questions) Section–E (5 Mark Questions)

11. What is the significance of Reproductive Health? 24. What are the advantages and disadvantages of
hormonal contraceptives?
12. Why are non-medicated methods not as effective as the
copper ions releasing Intra-Uterine device ? 25. Describe any three assisted reproductive techniques
practised to treat infertility.
13. When is the medical termination of pregnancy advised
by the doctors?
14. Suggest some important steps that you would
recommend to be taken to improve the reproductive
health standards in India.
15. What are the probable factors that contributed to
population explosion in India?
16. Briefly explain IVF and ET. What are the conditions in
which these methods are advised?
17. All reproductive tract infections RTIs are STDs, but all
STDs are not RTIs. Justify with examples.

Section-A (Single Choice Questions) 10. Fem shield is a
1. A widely accepted method of contraception in India is (a) Barrier contraceptive
(a) IUDs (b) Diaphragms (b) Chemical contraceptive
(c) Tubectomy (d) Cervical caps (c) Emergency contraceptive
2. The function of Copper-T is (d) Injectable contraceptive
(a) Stop gastrulation (b) Stop cleavage 11. Emergency contraceptives are effective if used
(c) Check mutation (d) Prevents fertilization within:
3. A procedure that finds use in testing for genetic (a) 72 hrs of coitus
disorders, but is also misused for female foeticide is: (b) 72 hrs of ovulation
(a) Lactational amenorrhea (c) 72 hrs of menstruation
(b) Amniocentesis (d) 72 hrs of implantation
(c) Artificial insemination 12. From the sexually transmitted diseases mentioned
(d) Parturition below, identify the one which does not specifically
4. In IVF technique zygote or early embryo is affect the sex organs:
transferred into (a) Syphilis (b) AIDS
(a) Cervical canal (b) Uterus (c) Gonorrhea (d) Genital warts
(c) Fallopian tube (d) Vagina 13. Choose the correct statement regarding the ZIFT
5. Which part of the female reproductive system procedure:
remains blocked after tubectomy? (a) Ova collected from a female donor are transferred
(a) Fallopian tube (b) Vagina to the fallopian tube to facilitate zygote
(c) Cervix (d) Uterine cavity formation.
6. Which of the following STDs are not completely (b) Zygote is collected from a female donor and
curable? transferred to the fallopian tube
(a) Chlamydiasis, Gonorrhea, Trichomoniasis (c) Zygote is collected from a female donor and
(b) Chancroid, Syphilis, Genital warts transferred to the uterus
(c) AIDS, Syphilis, Hepatitis B (d) Ova collected from a female donor and
(d) ADDS, Genital herpes, Hepatitis B transferred to the uterus
7. Cu-T, LNG-20 and Cu-7 are examples of 14. Diaphragms are contraceptive devices used by the
females. Choose the correct option from the
(a) Contraceptive pills
statements given below:
(b) Surgical methods of sterilization
i. They are introduced into the uterus
(c) Assisted reproductive technology
ii. They are placed to cover the cervical region
(d) Intrauterine device
iii. They act as physical barriers for sperm entry
8. The technique used to block the passage of sperm in
male is iv. They act as spermicidal agents
(a) Tubectomy (b) Vasectomy (a) i and ii (b) i and iii
(c) Rhythm method (d) Coitus interruptus (c) ii and iii (d) iii & iv
9. Increased IMR and decreased MMR in a population 15. Condoms are one of the most popular contraceptives
will: because of the following reasons:
(a) Cause rapid increase in growth rate (a) These are effective barriers for insemination
(b) Result in decline in growth rate (b) They do not interfere with coital act
(c) Not cause significant change in growth rate (c) These help in reducing the risk of STDs
(d) Result in an explosive population (d) All of the above
16. Choose the right one among the statements given Reason: Infertile couples could have children using
below: assisted reproductive technologies (ART).
(a) IUDs are generally inserted by the user herself (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and the
(b) IUDs increase phagocytosis reaction in the uterus Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion
(c) IUDs suppress gametogenesis (b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but the
(d) IUDs once inserted need not be replaced Reason is not the correct explanation of the
Assertion
17. Intensely lactating mothers do not generally conceive
due to the:
(a) Suppression of gonadotropins
22. Assertion: Saheli the new oral contraceptive for the
(b) Hyper secretion of gonadotropins
females contains a steroidal preparation.
(c) Suppression of gametic transport
Reason; It is a “once in a day” pill with very few
(d) Suppression of fertilisation
side effects.
18. Sterilisation techniques are generally foolproof
methods of contraception with least side effects. Yet,
this is the last option for the couples because:
i. It is almost irreversible
ii. Of the misconception that it will reduce sexual Assertion
urge
iii. It is a surgical procedure
iv. Of lack of sufficient facilities in many parts of
23. Assertion: Diaphragms, cervical caps and vaults are
the country
Reason: They are inserted into the male reproductive
Choose the correct option:
tract during coitus.
(a) i and iii (b) ii and iii
(c) ii and iv (d) i, ii, iii and iv Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion
19. Implants under the skin and injections are also used (b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but the
as contraceptive devices. These devices have Reason is not the correct explanation of the
(a) Progesterone alone Assertion
(b) Estrogen alone (c) Assertion is true, but Reason is false
(c) Progesterone-estrogen combination
(d) Either (a) or (c)
24. Assertion: Periodic abstinence is a method in which
20. How do the pills work?
couples avoid from coitus from Day 17 to 27 of the
(i) Inhibit ovulation and implantation menstrual cycle.
(ii) Alter the quality of cervical mucus to prevent Reason: It is a very effective method and 100% sure
or retard the entry of sperms of birth control.
(iii) Prevent the ejaculated semen from entering (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and the
the female vagina Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion
(iv) Inhibit spermatogenesis (b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but the
(a) (i), (ii)and (iii) (b) (i)and (ii) Reason is not the correct explanation of the
(c) (i), (iii) and (iv) (d) (iii) and (iv) Assertion
Section-B (d) Both Assertion and Reason are false
25. Assertion: In vasectomy, a small part of the vas
deferens is removed or tied up.
21. Assertion: Infertility is inability to produce children
Reason: In tubectomy, a small part of the oviduct is
inspite of unprotected sexual co–habitation.
removed or tied up.
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and the (i) Oral contraceptives are composed of
Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion (a) Estrogen and progesterone
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but the (b) Estrogen and growth hormone
(c) Estrogen and testosterone
Assertion
(d) Progesterone and testosterone
(ii) A contraceptive method in which the male partner
withdraws his penis from the vagina just before
26. Assertion: Introduction of sex education in schools ejaculation as to avoid insemination, is called
should be encouraged.
(a) Periodic abstinence
Reason: This will encourage children to believe in
(b) Coitus interruptus
myths about sex related aspects.
(c) Withdrawal method
Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion (d) Both (b) and (c)
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but the (iii) Which of the following is a hormone releasing Intra-
Reason is not the correct explanation of the uterine device (IUD)?
Assertion (a) Vault
(c) Assertion is true, but Reason is false (b) Multiload-375
(d) Both Assertion and Reason are false (c) LNG-20
27. Assertion: IVF is the fertilization outside the body of (d) Cervical cap
the female. (iv) Contraceptive oral pills used by females help in birth
Reason: The zygote upto 8 blastomeres is transferred control by
into the oviduct of the mother. (a) Killing of ova
(b) Killing of sperms
(c) Preventing ovulation
(d) Forming barrier between sperms and ova
Assertion
(c) Assertion is true, but Reason is false Case Study – 2
(d) Both Assertion and Reason are false 29. International or voluntary termination of pregnancy
before its full term is called medical termination of
Section-C (Case Study Questions) pregnancy. Why MTP ? Obviously the answer is –to
get rid of unwanted pregnancies. Nearly 45 to 50
Case Study – 1 million MTPs are performed in a year all over the
28. An increased health facilities along with better living world which accounts to 1/5th of the total number of
conditions had an explosive impact on the growth of conceived pregnancies in a year. Whether to accept /
population. The world population which was around legalize MTP or not is being debated upon in many
2 billion (2000 million) in 1900 rocketed to about 6 countries due to emotional, ethical, religious and
billion by 2000 and 7.2 billion in 2011. A rapid social issues involved in it. In our country, MTP is
decline in death rate, maternal mortality rate (MMR) legalized but this legalization has come with certain
and infant mortality rate (IMR) as well as an increase strict conditions and restrictions.
in the number of people in reproducible age are (i) Following statements are given regarding MTP.
probable reasons for this. The most important step to Choose the correct options given below:
overcome this problem is to motivate smaller
I. MTPs are generally advised during first trimester
families by using various contraceptive methods. A
wide range of contraceptive methods are presently II. MTPs are used as a contraceptive method
available which could be broadly grouped into the III. MTPs are always surgical
following categories, namely Natural/Traditional, IV. MTPs require the assistance of qualified
Barrier, IUDs, Oral contraceptives, Injectables, medical personnel
Implants and Surgical methods.
(a) II and III Case Study – 3

(b) II and III 30. The most important step to overcome the problem of
(c) I and IV population explosion is to motivate smaller families
(d) I and II by using various contraceptive methods. You might
(ii). The Government of India legalized MTP in the year have seen advertisements in the media as well as
posters/bills, etc., showing a happy couple with two
(a) 1951
children with a slogan Hum Do Hamare Do (we two,
(b) 1971
our two). Many couples, mostly the young, urban,
(c) 1981 working ones have even adopted an ‘one child norm’.
(d) 1992 The marriageable age is increased by the government
(iii). Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) is and incentives are also given to couples with small
considered safe upto how many weeks of pregnancy? families are two of the other measures taken to tackle
(a) Six weeks this problem.
(b) Eight weeks (i) Indian Government initiated ‘family planning’
(c) Twelve weeks program in the year
(d) Eighteen weeks (a) 1951 (b) 1971
(iv) Which of the following is a legal reason for (c) 1974 (d) 1984
performing MTP? (ii) What is the marriageable age of males and females
(a) If pregnancy involves a risk to the life of the in India?
pregnant woman (a) 18 years and 21 years respectively
(b) There is a substantial risk that of the child were (b) 21 years and 18 years respectively
born, it would suffer from such physical or (c) 18 years for both males and females
mental abnormalities (d) 21 years for both males and females
(c) To get rid of unwanted pregnancy as a result of (iii) Which of the following is one of the contraceptive
sexual assault such as rape. method?
(d) All of the above. (a) Amniocentesis
(b) GIFT and ZIFT
(c) IUD and MTP
(iv) Sterilization method in human females is called
(a) Tubectomy
(b) Vasectomy
(c) Rhythm method
(d) Coitus interruptus

1. Our government has intentionally imposed strict 15. If implementation of better techniques and new
conditions for MTP in our country. Justify giving a strategies are required to provide more efficient care
reason. (Delhi 2017) and assistance to people, then why is there a statutory
2. Name an IUD that you would recommend to promote ban on amniocentesis? Write the use of this
the cervical hostility to sperms. (Delhi 2014C) technique and give reason to justify the ban.
(AI 2014)
3. State one reason, why breast-feeding the baby acts as
a natural contraceptive for the mother (Delhi 2014C) 16. A woman has certain queries as listed below, before
starting with contraceptive pills. Answer them.
4. Mention one positive and one negative application of
amniocentesis. (Delhi 2010) (i) What do contraceptive pills contain and how do
they act as contraceptives?
5. Why is tubectomy considered a contraceptive
method? (Foreign 2010) (ii) What schedule should be followed for taking
these pills? (Delhi 2014)
6. Mention the problems that are taken care of by
Reproduction and Child Healthcare Programme. 17. (i) Name any two copper releasing IUDs.
(AI 2015) (ii) Explain how they act as effective contraceptives

in human females. (AI 2014)
7. What is amniocentesis? How is it misused?
18. Name and explain the surgical method advised to
(Delhi 2014C)
human males and females as a means of birth control.
8. What do oral pills contain and how do they act as
Mention its one advantage and one disadvantage.
effective contraceptives? (Delhi 2014C)
(Foreign 2014)
9. Why is Cu-T considered a good contraceptive device
19. How do 'implants' act as an effective method of
to space children? (Delhi 2011)
contraception in human females? Mention its one
10. Describe the lactational amenorrhoea method of birth advantage over contraceptive pills. (Delhi 2012C)
control. (AI 2011)
20. Name any two assisted reproductive technologies
11. At the time of Independence, the population of India that help infertile couples to have children.
was 350 million. which exploded to over 1 billion by
(Delhi 2012C)
May 2000. List any two reasons for this rise in
21. After a brief medical examination a healthy couple
population and any two steps taken by the
came to know that both of them are unable to
government to check this population explosion.
produce functional gametes and should look for an
(Foreign 2011)
'ART' (Assisted Reproductive Techniques). Name the
12. How do copper and hormone releasing IUDs act as
'ART' and the procedure involved that you can
contraceptives? Explain. (AI 2010)
suggest to them to help them bear a child.
13. (i) List any four characteristics of an ideal (Delhi 2015)
contraceptive.
22. An infertile couple is advised to adopt a test-tube
(ii) Name two intrauterine contraceptive devices that baby programme. Describe two principle procedures
affect the motility of sperms. (AI 2016) adopted for such technologies.
14. Name two hormones that are constituents of (Delhi 2015)
contraceptive pills. Why do they have a high and 23. A childless couple has agreed for a test tube baby
effective contraceptive value? Name a commonly programme. List only the basic steps the procedure
prescribed non-steroidal oral pill. (AI 2014) would involve conceiving a baby. (Delhi 2015C)
24. Intra-cytoplasmic sperm injection' and 'Gamete Intra- 25. Your school has been selected by the Department of
Fallopian Transfer (GIFT)' are two assisted Education to organize and host an inter-school
reproductive technologies. How is one different from seminar on "Reproductive Health Problems and
the other? (AI 2014C) Practices". However, many parents are reluctant to
permit their wards to attend it. Their argument is that
the topic is "too embarrassing'. Put forth four
arguments with appropriate reasons and explanations
to justify the topic to be very essential and timely.
(AI 2015)
PRINCIPLES OF INHERITANCE AND VARIATION 55
05
PRINCIPLES OF INHERITANCE AND
VARIATION
56 PRINCIPLES OF INHERITANCE AND VARIATION
Chapter 05
Principles of Inheritance and Variation
Chapter at a Glance
Section–D (4 Mark Questions) Section–E (5 Mark Questions)

23. A child suffering from Thalassemia is born to a 24. A dihybrid heterozygous round, yellow seeded garden
normal couple. But the mother is being blamed by the pea (Pisum sativum) was crossed with a double
family for delivering a sick baby. recessive plant.
(i) What is Thalassemia? (i) What type of cross is this?
(ii) How would you counsel the family to not blame (ii) Work out the genotype and phenotype of the
the mother for delivering a child suffering from progeny.
this disease? Explain. (iii) What principle of Mendel is illustrated through
(iii) List the values your counselling can propagate in the result of this cross?
the families. 25. A plant with yellow flowers was crossed with a plant
with red flowers. The F1 progeny obtained had orange
flowers. What is the inheritance pattern? Mention the
characteristics of a true-breeding line.
PRINCIPLES OF INHERITANCE AND VARIATION 63
Case Type-3 (ii) Chromosomal theory of inheritance can be said to be

30. Read the following and answer the following a combination of which of the following?
questions: (a) Law of dominance with the phenomenon of
In 1900, the scientists de Vries, Correns and von linkage
Tschermak independently rediscovered Mendel’s (b) Chromosomal segregation patterns with
principles that claimed to govern the inheritance of Mendelian principles of inheritance
characters. Besides this, scientists Walter Sutton and (c) Cell division with cell growth
Theodore Boveri also noted that the behaviour of (d) Law of segregation with law of independent
chromosomes were parallel to the behaviour of genes assortment
during cell division and inheritance. Sutton and (iii) Which of the following statements is incorrect about
Boveri put forward a theory that stated that the the behavior of genes and chromosomes during
pairing and separation of a pair of chromosomes inheritance?
would lead to segregation of a pair of factors that (a) Both occur in pairs
these chromosomes carried.
(b) Both consist of pairs that segregate during gamete
(i) Which of the following statements most accurately formation
explains the behaviour of genes and chromosomes
(c) Both consist of pairs where one member of the
during inheritance?
pair is dominant on the other
(a) Both genes and chromosomes segregate into
(d) One pair of genes or homologous chromosomes
different gametes during inheritance
can segregate independently of another pair of
(b) Genes are packaged into chromosomes genes or homologous chromosomes
(c) The alleles of a gene segregate independently of (iv) Segregation of the pair of alleles of a gene occurs
the alleles of another gene and a pair of during
homologous chromosomes also separates
(a) Metaphase I
independent of another chromosome pair.
(b) Metaphase II
(d) Alleles of a gene are located on different
(c) Prophase II
chromosomes
(d) Anaphase I

1. Name the type of cross that would help to find the 13. Write the possible genotypes Mendel got when he
genotype of a pea plant bearing violet flowers. crossed F1 tall pea plants with a dwarf pea plant.
(AI 2017) (Foreign 2012)
2. State a difference between a gene and an allele. 14. Garden pea plant produced round, green seeds.
(AI 2015) Another of the same species produced wrinkled
yellow seeds. Identify the dominant traits.
3. Give an example of a polygenic trait in humans.
(Foreign 2012)
(Delhi 2016C)
15. Mention two contrasting flower related traits studied
4. A geneticist interested in studying variations and
by Mendel in pea plant experiments.
patterns of inheritance in living beings prefers to
(AI 2011C)
choose organisms for experiments with shorter life
16. Name the contrasting pod related traits studied by
cycles. Provide a reason. (Delhi 2015)
Mendel in his pea plant experiment.
5. Mention any two contrasting traits with respect to (AI 2011C)
seeds in pea plants that were studied by Mendel.
17. Mention the type of allele that expresses itself only in
(AI 2014)
a homozygous state in an organism. (Foreign 2011)
6. What are 'true-breeding lines' that are used to study
18. Pea flowers produce assured seed sets. Give a reason.
inheritance patterns of traits in plants. (Delhi 2014)
(AI 2010)
7. How many kinds of phenotypes would you expect in 19. When does a geneticist need to perform a test cross?
F2-generation in a monohybrid cross exhibiting (Foreign 2015)
codominance? (AI 2014)
20. Why did TH Morgan select Drosophila melanogaster
8. Name the stage of cell division where segregation of to study sex-linked genes for his lab experiments.
an independent pair of chromosomes occurs. Name (Foreign 2015)
the event during the cell division cycle that results in
21. Give an example of a gene responsible for multiple
the gain and loss of chromosomes.
phenotypic expressions. What are such genes called?
(AI 2014, Delhi 2011) State the cause that is responsible for such an effect.
9. A garden pea plant (A) produced inflated yellow (Foreign 2015)
pods and another plant (B) of the same species 22. The F2 progeny of a monohybrid cross showed
produced constricted green pods. Identify the phenotypic and genotypic ratio as 1:2:1, unlike that
dominant traits. (Delhi 2012) of Mendel's monohybrid F2 ratio. With the help of a
10. Name the respective pattern of inheritance, where F2 suitable example, work out a cross and explain how it
phenotype is possible. (AI 2015)
(i) does not resemble either of the two parents and 23. With the help of one example, explain the
is in between the two. phenomena of codominance and multiple allelism in
the human population. (AI 2014)
(i) resembles only one of the two parents.
24. Linkage and crossing over of genes are alternatives
(AI 2012)
of each other. Justify with the help of an example.
11. A garden pea plant produced axial white flowers; (AI 2014)
another of the same species produced terminal violet
25. In snapdragon, a cross between true-breeding red
flowers. Identify the dominant traits.
flowered (RR) plants and true-breeding white
(AI 2012)
flowered (rr) plants showed a progeny of plants with
12. In a dihybrid cross, when would the proportion of all pink flowers.
parental gene combinations be much higher than non- (i) The appearance of pink flowers is not known as
parental types, as experimentally shown by Morgan blending. Why?
and his group. (AI 2012)
(ii) What is this phenomenon known as?
(AI 2014)
47. In pea plants, the colour of the flower is either violet 56. A cross was carried out between a pea plant
or white, whereas human skin colour shows heterozygous for round and yellow seeds with a pea
gradients. Explain giving reasons how it is possible. plant having wrinkled and green seeds.
(Delhi 2013C) (i) Show the cross in a Punnett square
48. (i) Explain the phenomena of multiple allelism and (ii) Write the phenotype of the progeny of this cross.
codominance taking ABO blood group as an (iii) What is this cross known as? State the purpose
example. of conducting such a cross.
(ii) What is the phenotype of the following? (AI 2014C; Foreign 2014)
(a) IAi 57. Work out a monohybrid cross upto F2-generation
(b) ii (AI 2012) between two pea plants and two Antirrhinum plants
49. A pea plant with purple flowers was crossed with both having contrasting traits with respect to colour
white flowers producing all plants with only purple of flower. Comment on the pattern of inheritance in
flowers. On selfing, these plants produced 482 plants the crosses carried above. (AI 2014C)
with purple flowers and 162 with white flowers. 58. (i) Differentiate between dominance and
What genetic mechanism accounts for these results? codominance.
Explain. (Delhi 2011) (ii) Explain codominance taking an example of
50. Work out a cross between true breeding red and human blood groups in the population.
white flowered dog flower plants (Snapdragon) upto (AI 2013)
F2 progeny. Explain the results of F1 and F2 59. (i) Explain Mendel's law of independent assortment
generation. (Foreign 2010) by taking a suitable example.
51. State and explain the law of independent assortment' (ii) How did Morgan show the deviation in
in a typical Mendelian dihybrid cross. (Delhi 2017) inheritance pattern in Drosophila with respect to
52. (i) What is polygenic inheritance? Explain with the this law? (AI 2013)
help of a suitable example. 60. What is the inheritance pattern observed in the size of
(ii) How are pleiotropy and Mendelian patterns of starch grains and seed shape of Pisum sativum. Work
inheritance different from polygenic patterns of out the monohybrid cross showing the above traits.
inheritance? (AI 2016) How does this pattern of inheritance deviate from
that of Mendelian law of dominance? (Delhi 2013)
53. (i) A couple with blood group A and B, respectively
61. Differentiate between the following:
have a child with blood group O. Work out a
cross to show how it is possible and the probable (i) Polygenic inheritance and pleiotropy.
blood groups that can be expected in their other (ii) Dominance, codominance and incomplete
offspring. dominance. (AI 2013C; Delhi 2011)
(ii) Explain the genetic basis of blood groups in the 62. State the fate of a pair of autosomes during gamete
human population. (AI 2015C, Delhi 2015) formation. (Delhi 2017)
54. (i) State and explain the law of segregation as 63. Give an example of a human disorder that is caused
proposed by Mendel in a monohybrid cross. due to a single gene mutation. (Delhi 2016)
(i) Write the Mendelian F2 phenotypic ratio in a 64. Give an example of a sex-linked recessive disorder in
dihybrid cross. State the law that he proposed on humans. (Delhi 2016C)
the basis of this ratio. How is this law different 65. Give an example of an organism that exhibits a
from the law of segregation? (Foreign 2015) haplo-diploid sex-determination system.
55. Give a genetic explanation for the following cross. (Delhi 2016C)
When a tall pea plant with round seeds was crossed with 66. Identify the correct statement:
a dwarf pea plant with wrinkled seeds then all the (i) Females of many birds have a pair of dissimilar
individuals of F2 population were tall with round seeds. ZW-chromosomes, while the males possess a
However, selfing among F2-population led to a pair of similar ZZ-chromosomes.
9:3:3:1 phenotypic ratio. (AI 2015) (ii) Females of many birds have a pair of similar ZZ-
chromosomes, while the males possess a pair of
dissimilar ZW-chromosomes. (AI 2014C)
06
MOLECULAR BASIS OF
INHERITANCE
72 MOLECULAR BASIS OF INHERITANCE

Section–A (1 Mark Questions) (ii) If an RNA strand is transcribed from this strand
1. Name the process in which unwanted mRNA regions what would be the base sequence of RNA?
are removed & wanted regions are joined. (iii) What holds these base pairs together?
2. Mention the dual functions of AUG? 19. The length of DNA in a eukaryotic cell is N 2.2 m
3. In which direction, the new strand of DNA How can such a huge DNA be packaged in a nucleus
synthesized during DNA replication. of micrometer in diameter.
4. List three components of the transcription unit. 20. Describe the continuous & discontinuous synthesis of
DNA.
5. What is a replication fork?
21. Discuss the significance of the heavy isotope of
nitrogen in Meselson and Stahl’s experiment.
Section–B (2 Marks Questions)
OR
6. Give two reasons why both the strands of DNA are
Briefly describe the termination of a polypeptide
not copied during transcription.
chain.
7. What do you mean by “Central Dogma of Molecular
22. Write a note on the semi-conservative mode of DNA
Biology?”
replication.
8. “The genetic material in the majority of organisms is
DNA and not RNA.” Comment.
9. Which three codons on mRNA are not recognized by
Section–D (4 Marks Questions)
tRNA? What is the general term used for them and 23. Ratan was a known sportsman in his school. While
what is their significance in protein synthesis? returning home he found some unknown miscreants
beating a young fellow. He tried to drive them off but
10. State the criterias which a molecule must fulfill to act
by that time the fellow died of injury. The police
as genetic material.
arrested Ratan and he was put on trial. The judge,
OR
being convinced by Ratan’s plea, ordered for DNA
Mention any three applications of DNA
fingerprinting reports.
fingerprinting.
(a) Ratan’s fingerprinting on the dead body was
sufficient to convict him but the judge asked for
Section–C (3 Marks Questions) authentic proof? What values can be observed?
11. Why is it essential that tRNA binds to both amino (b) What is the basis of DNA fingerprinting?
acids & mRNA codons during protein synthesis? (c) Explain the steps in DNA fingerprinting.
12. Why is the human Genome project considered a
megaproject?
Section–E (5 Marks Questions)
13. Mention some of the salient features of the genetic
24. What does the lac operon consist of? How is the
code.
operator switch turned on and off in the expression of
14. State some points of difference between DNA and
genes in this operon? Explain.
RNA in their structure/ chemistry and function.
OR
15. Explain how the hnRNA becomes the mRNA
Who performed the blender experiment? What does
16. What are the different types of RNA required in
this experiment prove? Describe the steps followed in
protein synthesis? Mention their role in protein
this experiment?
synthesis.
25. Where do transcription & translation take place in a
17. What is transformation? Describe Griffith’s
prokaryotic cell? Describe the three steps involved in
experiment to show transformation? What did he
translation?
prove from his experiment?
OR
18. The base sequence on one strand of DNA is
Define bacterial transformation? Who proved it
ATGTCTATA.
experimentally & how?
(i) Give the base sequence of its complementary strand.
MOLECULAR BASIS OF INHERITANCE 73

Section–A (Single Choice Questions) 8. Out of the given four combinations which one
possesses the integrated protein-synthesizing
1. Which of the following is the correct pair of
machinery
pyrimidine bases?
(a) m-RNA, t-RNA, DNA and amino acid
(a) Adenine and thymine
(b) ribosomes, t-RNA, DNA, and amino acid
(b) Adenine and guanine
(c) Guanine and cytosine (c) t-RNA, ribosome, nucleus, and mRNA
(d) Thymine and cytosine (d) ribosomes, t-RNA, m-RNA, and amino acid
2. Nucleosome is 9. In Escherichia coli, the product of i gene combines
with
(a) Intron interrupted DNA
(a) Operator gene to switch off structural genes
(b) Double helix DNA
(c) Negatively charged DNA wrapped around (b) Inducer gene to switch off structural genes
positively charged histone octamer (c) Operator gene to switch on structural genes
(d) Satellite DNAs (d) Regulator gene to switch off structural genes
3. Which is correct with reference to the transforming 10. Sequencing the whole set of the genome that
principle? contained all the coding and non-coding sequence
(a) S strain  Inject into mice Mice die and later assigning different region in the sequence
with functions are referred to as
(b) R strain Inject into mice Mice live
(a) Expressed Tags
(c) S strain (heat-killed)  Inject into mice  Mice
live (b) Sequence Annotation
(d) S strain (heat-killed) + R strain (live) Inject into (c) SETs

mice Mice die (d) SNP’s
4. Similarity between DNA and RNA is that both 11. Which is incorrect about DNA polymorphism?
(a) Have similar sugars (a) The two alleles of a chromosome contain different
(b) Have similar modes of replication copy numbers of VNTR.
(c) Have similar pyrimidines (b) Different chromosomes contain different copies of
VNTR.
(d) Are polymer of nucleotide
(c) Polymorphisms are inheritable from parents to
5. DNA replication is
children.
(a) Conservative and discontinuous
(d) DNA from different tissues from an individual
(b) Semiconservative and semi-discontinuous
shows a different degree of polymorphism.
(c) Semiconservative and discontinuous
12. Satellite DNA is important because it :
(d) Conservative
(a) Codes for enzymes needed for DNA replication.
6. Genetic code translates the language of
(b) Codes for proteins needed in cell cycle.
(a) RNA into that of DNA
(c) Shows a high degree of polymorphism in the
(b) RNA into that of proteins
population and also the same degree of
(c) Proteins into that of DNA polymorphism in an individual, which is heritable
(d) Amino acids into that of RNA from parents to children.
7. tRNA takes part in (d) Does not code for proteins and is the same in all
(a) Transfer of genetic code to the cytoplasm members of the population.
(b) Carry amino acids to ribosomes 13. Which one of the following is wrongly matched?
(c) Collection of RNA in the ribosome (a) Transcription-Writing information from DNA to
(d) Copy the genetic code from DNA in the nucleus tRNA
(b) Translation-Using information in mRNA to make 20. Match the components of lac-operon of Escherichia
protein coli and find out the correct combination.
(c) Repressor protein-Binds to operator to stop enzyme
a. Structural gene p. Binding site for repressor
synthesis
protein
(d) Operon-Structural genes, operator and promoter
14. If one strand of DNA has the nitrogenous base b. Operator gene q. Codes for repressor
sequence as ATCTG, what would be the protein
complementary RNA strand sequence? c. Promoter gene r. Induces lactose transport
(a) TTAGU from the medium
(b) UAGAC d. Regulator gene s. Codes from enzyme
(c) AACTG proteins
(d) ATCGU t. Binding site for RNA-
15. Select the two statements out of the four (I-IV) given polymerase
below about lac operon.
(a) a-q, b-t,c-p, d-r
I Glucose or galactose may bind with the
repressor and inactivate it. (b) a-r, b-s,c-t, d-p
(c) a-s, b-p,c-t, d-q
II. In the absence of lactose, the repressor binds
(d) a-t, b-s,c-q, d-p
with the operator region.
III. The z-gene codes for permease.
Section–B
IV. This was elucidated by Francois Jacob and
Jacques Monod. (Assertion & Reason Type Questions)
21. Assertion: When the DNA sequences of two people
The correct statements are
are out using the same restriction enzyme, the length
(a) I and III (b) II and III
and nucleus of fragments obtained are different for
(c) II and IV (d) I and II both.
16. For long DNA molecules, since the two strands of Reason: DNA sequence is arranged tandemly in
DNA cannot be separated in their entire length (due to mary copy number which varies from chromosome to
very high energy requirement), the replication occurs chromosome is an individual, showing high degree of
within a small opening of the DNA helix, referred to polymorphism.
as
(a) Okazaki fragments
(b) If both assertion and reason are true and the
(b) Semiconservative replication reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) Replication fork (c) If both assertion and reason are true but the reason
(d) Origin of replication is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
17. During Meselson and Stahl’s experiments, heavy (d) If both assertion and reason are false.
DNA was distinguished from normal DNA by 22. Assertion: Polycistronic mRNA, found in
centrifugation in: prokaryotes specify a number of polypeptides.
(a) 35SO2 (b) 14
NH4Cl Reason: Monocistronic mRNA, found in eukaryotes,
15
(c) NH4Cl (d) CsCl gradient especially only a single polypeptide.
18. According to Chargaff’s law (a) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(a) A + T = G + C (b) T + A = C (b) If both assertion and reason are true and the
(c) A + T + G = C (d) A + G / C + T = 1 reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
19. The three-dimensional shape of tRNA is (c) If both assertion and reason are true but the reason
(a) L-shaped (b) Clover leaf-like is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) X-shaped (d) Y-shaped (d) If both assertion and reason are false.
23. Assertion: tRNA recognises its corresponding codon a 28. Assertion: DNA acts as a genetic material in all
mRNA. organisms.
Reason: For each codon, there is an individual tRNA. Reason: It is a single-stranded biomolecule.
(a) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false. (a) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason (b) If both assertion and reason are true and the
is the correct explanation of the assertion reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If both assertion and reason are true but the reason (c) If both assertion and reason are true but the reason
is not the correct explanation of the assertion. is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(d) If both assertion and reason are false. (d) If both assertion and reason are false
24. Assertion: Lac operon is a repressible operon.
Reason: The product of gene activity stops the activity
Section–C (Case Study Questions)
of the said gene.
(a) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false. Case Study – 1
(b) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason 29. Read the following and answer the questions:
is the correct explanation of the assertion. DNA is a long polymer of deoxyribonucleotides. The
(c) If both assertion and reason are true but the reason length of DNA is usually defined as the number of
is not the correct explanation of the assertion. nucleotides (or a pair of nucleotides referred to as
(d) If both assertion and reason are false. base pairs) present in it. In 1953, James Watson and
Francis Crick, based on the X-ray diffraction data,
25. Assertion: In a DNA molecule, A–T rich parts melt
proposed a very simple but famous Double Helix
before G–C rich parts.
model for the structure of DNA. One of the hallmarks
Reason: In between A and T there are three H–bonds,
of their proposition was base pairing between the two
whereas in between G and C there are two H-bonds.
strands of polynucleotide chains.
(i) Identify the wrong statement about DNA.
(a) Length of DNA is defined as the number of base
pairs present in it.
(b) Cytosine is common to both DNA and RNA.
(c) In a nucleotide, the nitrogenous base is linked to a
phosphate group.
26. Assertion: The two chains of DNA have anti-polarity.
(d) Thymine is chemically 5-methyl uracil.
Reason: In one chain of DNA, ribose sugar at 5′ end
consists of a free phosphate moiety while at the other (ii) A + G = C + T is applicable to
end the ribose has a free 3′ OH group. (a) rRNA (b) tRNA
(a) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false. (c) mRNA (d) DNA
(b) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason (iii) Choose the correct statement.
is the correct explanation of the assertion. (a) Haploid content of human DNA is 4.6 X106 bp
(c) If both assertion and reason are true but the reason (b) A nitrogenous base is linked to pentose sugar
is not the correct explanation of the assertion. through phosphodiester linkage.
(d) If both assertion and reason are false. (c) X-ray diffraction data of Maurice Wilkins and
27. Assertion: Histones are basic in nature. Rosalind Franklin was the basis of Watson and
Reason: Histones are rich in the amino acids lysine Crick’s DNA model
and arginine. (d) DNA as an acidic substance was first identified by
(a) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false. Watson and Crick.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason (iv) In a DNA segment of six coils, 22 bp are linked by
is the correct explanation of the assertion. two hydrogen bonds. How many cytosine bases
(c) If both assertion and reason are true but the reason would be present?
is not the correct explanation of the assertion. (a) 22 (b) 38
(d) If both assertion and reason are false. (c) 44 (d) 76

30. Read the following and answer the questions: 31. Read the following and answer the questions:
While proposing the double helical structure for DNA, The process of translation requires transfer of genetic
Watson and Crick had immediately proposed a scheme information from a polymer of nucleotides to
for replication of DNA. The scheme suggested that the synthesise a polymer of amino acids. The relationship
two strands would separate and act as a template for between the sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide
the synthesis of new complementary strands. After the and nucleotide sequence of DNA or mRNA is called
completion of replication, each DNA molecule would genetic code. George Gamow suggested that in order
have one parental and one newly synthesised strand. to code for all the 20 amino acids, code should be
(i) Semiconservative replication of DNA was studied in made up of three nucleotides.
E.coli with the help of 15N by (i) What is a codon?
(a) Watson and Crick (b) Kornberg and Ochoa (a) A length of DNA which codes for a particular
(c) Meselson and Stahl (d) Luria and Delbruck protein
(ii) In the experiment conducted by Meselson and Stahl (b) A part of the tRNA molecule to which a specific
using heavy 15N to prove semi-conservative nature of amino acid is attached.
DNA, the first generation was found to to have (c) A part of the tRNA molecule which recognises the
(a) 14N only (b) 15N only triplet code on the messenger RNA.
(c) 14N and 15N only (d) None of these (d) A part of the messenger RNA molecule that has a
(iii) For long DNA molecules, since the two strands of sequence of bases coding for an amino acid.
DNA cannot be separated in its entire length (due to (ii) Three consecutive bases in the DNA molecule
very high energy requirement), the replication occurs provide the code for each amino acid in a protein
within a small opening of the DNA helix, referred to molecule. What is the maximum number of different
as triplets that could occur ?
(a) Okazaki fragments (a) 16 (b) 20
(b) Semiconservative replication (c) 24 (d) 64
(c) Replication fork (iii) Listed below are some amino acids and their
(d) Origin of replication corresponding mRNA triplets.
(iv) Enzyme required to catalyse polymerisation of Amino acid mRNA triplet
deoxynucleotides is Phenylalanine UUU
(a) DNA ligase (b) Stop codon Lysine AAG
(c) DNA polymerase (d) beta− galactosidase Arginine CGA
Alanine GCA
Which DNA sequence would be needed to produce
the following polypeptide sequence? Alanine-
Arginine- Lysine- Phenylalanine
(a) CGT GCT TTC AAA
(b) CGT GCT TTC TTT
(c) CGU GCU UUC AAA
(d) CGU GCU UUC TTT
(iv) Identify the nonsense codons among the following.
(a) AUG (b) GUG
(c) UAA (d) UGG
48. Describe the role of RNA polymerases in 56. Study the flowchart given below and answer the
transcription in bacteria and in eukaryotes. questions that follows
(Foreign 2010) I. S-strain→ into mice→mice die
49. Answer the following questions based on the II. R-strain→y into mice→ mice live
Hershey-Chase experiments:
III. Heat killed S-strain + live R-strain→ into
(i) Name the kind of virus they worked with and why? mice→A
(ii) Why did they use two types of culture media to
IV. Heat killed S-strain + DNase + live R-
grow viruses in? Explain.
strain→into mice→B
(iii) What was the need for using a blender and later a
(i) Name the organism and differentiate between its
centrifuge during their experiments?
two strains S and R respectively.
(iv) State the conclusion drawn by them after the
experiments. (AI 2016) (i) Write the result A and B obtained in step Ill and
IV respectively.
50. (i) Name the stage in the cell cycle where DNA
replication occurs. (iii) Name the scientist who performed the steps I, Il
(ii) Explain the mechanism of DNA replication. and Ill.
Highlight the role of enzymes in the process. (iv) Write the specific conclusion drawn from step
(iii) Why is DNA replication said to be semi- IV. (AI 2010C)
conservative? (AI 2016) 57. Give an example of a codon having dual function.
51. List the criteria of a molecule that can act as genetic (AI 2016)
material must fulfill. Which one of the criteria is best 58. Write the two specific codons that a translational unit
fulfilled by DNA or by RNA thus making one of of mRNA is flanked by one on either side.
them a better genetic material than the other?
(AI 2015C)
Explain. (AI 2016)
52. Describe Meselson and Stahl's experiment that was 59. How does a degenerate code differ from an
unambiguous one? (Foreign 2015)
carried out in 1958 on E. coli. Write the conclusion
they arrived at after the experiment. (AI 2016) 60. How is repetitive/satellite DNA separated from bulk
53. (i) How are the following formed and involved in genomic DNA for various genetic experiments?
DNA packaging in a nucleus of a cell? (Delhi 2014)
(a) Histone octamer 61. State which human chromosome has
(b) Nucleosome (i) the maximum number of genes and
(c) Chromatin (ii) the one which has the least number of genes.
(ii) Differentiate between Euchromatin and
(Foreign 2014, 2011)
Heterochromatin. (AI 2016)
62. Which one of the two subunits of the ribosome
54. (i) Explain with the help of Griffith's experiment
encounters an mRNA? (Delhi 20136)
how the search for genetic material was
conducted and what was the conclusion drawn? 63. Differentiate between the following: Inducer and
repressor in lac operon. (Delhi 2011C)
(ii) How did MacLeod. McCarty and Avery
establish the biochemical nature of the so-called 64. Mention the role of the codons AUG and UGA
'genetic material' identified by Griffith in his during protein synthesis. (Delhi 2011; 2010)
experiment. (Delhi 2016C) 65. Mention the contribution of genetic maps in the
55. (i) Mention the contributions of the following human genome project. (AI 2011)
scientists: 66. What is aminoacylation? State its significance.
(a) Maurice Wilkins and Rosalind Franklin (AI 2016)
(b) Erwin Chargaff 67. State the functions of ribozyme and release factor in
(c) Draw a double-stranded dinucleotide chain protein synthesis respectively. (AI 2015C)
with all the four nitrogen bases. Label the
68. Where does peptide bond formation occur in a
polarity and the components of the
bacterial ribosome and how? (Foreign 2014)
dinucleotide. (AI 2011)
07
EVOLUTION
EVOLUTION 83
Chapter 07
Evolution
Chapter at a Glance
84 EVOLUTION

Section–A (1 Mark Questions) 15. How did Louis Pasteur disprove spontaneous
1. What is the equation of generation theory?
Hardy Weinberg’s equilibrium.? 16. (a) What is the effect of migration on the new
2. Rearrange the following in ascending order of the population?
evolutionary tree. Reptiles, salamanders, Coelacanth, 17. What are the three different ways in which selection
and frogs. may occur? Explain.
3. Which is the earliest human fossil? 18. Trace the important events or stages of human
4. Who were the influencers of Charles Darwin's theory? development considering Homo erectus, Neanderthal
man, and Homo sapiens.
5. State the significance of the study of fossils in
evolution. 19. (i) Explain adaptive radiation with the help of a
suitable example.
(ii) Cite an example where more than one adaptive
Section–B (2 Marks Questions) radiation has occurred in an isolated
6. How is Darwin’s concept of evolution different from geographical area. Name the type of evolution
that of de Vries? your example depicts and state why it is not
7. What is natural selection? Give one example also. named?
8. Distinguish between convergent and divergent 20. ‘Anthropogenic actions hasten evolution.’ Explain
evolution giving one example of each. with the help of a suitable example.
9. Write a short note on Lamarckism. 21. Since the origin of life on earth, there have been five
10. Write about the ancestry and evolution of bats, horses episodes of mass extinction of species.
and humans on the basis of a comparative study of (i) How is the Sixth Extinction, presently in
their forelimbs. What are the limbs categorized as? progress, different from the previous episodes?
(ii) Who is mainly responsible for the 'sixth
Section–C (3 Marks Questions) extinction?
11. State in what ways Stanley Miller simulated the (iii) List any four points that can help to overcome
condition of this disaster.
(i) Primitive atmosphere on earth. 22. Explain the increase in the numbers of melanic (dark-
(ii) Energy source at the time of origin of life. winged) moths in the urban areas of the post-
industrialization period in England.
(iii) Formation of an organic molecule of life
12. The figures given below are of Darwin’s finches.
Section–D (4 Marks Questions)
23. The day next to heavy rains, many insects/moths can
be seen near light sources. Some people believe that
these insects develop from mud. What are the values
associated with this belief? What is this theory of the
a. Mention the specific geographical area where origin of life known as? How will you reject the
these were found development of these insects from mud?
b. Name and explain the phenomenon that has
resulted in the evolution of such diverse species Section–E (5 Marks Questions)
in the region. 24. What does Hardy Weinberg’s principle state? What
13. Write a short note on the theory of panspermia and are the factors which affect Hardy Weinberg’s
the theory of spontaneous generation. equilibrium?
14. (a) Flippers of whale and bat-wings are homologous. 25. (a) Explain the Darwinian theory of evolution with
Justify. the help of one suitable example
(b) Eye of the octopus and of mammals are (b) State the two key concepts of the theory of
examples of the analogous organ. Justify. Darwin.
EVOLUTION 85

Section-A (Single Choice Questions) 8. Branching descent and natural selection are the two
key concepts of ____
1. Which one of the following is considered a unit of
(a) Lamarck (b) Darwin
evolution?
(c) Alfred Wallace (d) Hugo de Vries
(a) Individual
9. T.R. Malthus is famous for his book on
(b) Population
(a) Population (b) Mathematics
(c) Family
(c) Geography (d) Genetics
(d) Species
10. Hugo de Vries worked on the plant
2. Most advanced theory of origin of life is that of
(a) Garden Pea (b) Sweet Pea
(a) Catastrophic (c) Mulberry plant (d) Evening primrose
(b) Haldane and Oparin 11. The given figure shows an example of
(c) Panspermia
(d) Spontaneous
3. Resemblance between widely different groups due to
a common adaptation is
(a) Adaptive radiation
(b) Divergent evolution
(c) Convergent evolution
(d) No evolution (a) Homologous organs
4. Which of the following are analogous structures? (b) Convergent evolution
(a) Wings of bat and wings of a pigeon (c) Divergent evolution
(b) Fins of fish and lungs of man (d) Both (a) and (c)
(c) Thorns of Bougainvillea and tendrils of Cucurbita 12. Embryological support for evolution was disapproved
(d) Flippers of dolphin and legs of a horse by:
5. In the case of the peppered moth (Biston betularia), (a) Charles Darwin
the black-colored form became dominant over the (b) Oparin
light-colored form in England during industrial (c) Karl Ernst von Baer
evolution. This is an example of: (d) Alfred Wallace
(a) Natural Selection 13. What can you infer about the structures in the figure?
(b) Appearance of darker variants due to poor (a) They are homologous structures
sunlight (b) They are vestigial structures
(c) Protective mimicry (c) They are analogous structures
(d) Inheritance of darker color acquired due to darker (d) They have nothing to do with each other
environment 14. Genetic drift operates in :
6. First evidence of ceremonial burial of dead body and (a) Small isolated population
belief in religion has been found with the fossils of: (b) Large isolated population
(a) Neanderthal (c) Non-reproductive population
(b) Cro-magnon (d) Slow reproductive population
(c) Homo erectus 15. Disruptive selection :
(d) Homo erectus (a) Eliminates uncommon forms of alleles
7. The raw material for organic evolution is: (b) Does not favour intermediate forms of a trait
(a) Asexual reproduction (b) Mutation (c) Shifts allele frequencies in a steady,
consistent direction
(c) Nutritive substances (d) Effect of hormones
86 EVOLUTION
16. If you want to see a dinosaur, it would be best to set 22. Assertion: The primitive atmosphere was reducing
the controls of your time machine for the : once i.e., without oxygen.
(a) Mesozoic era Reason: In the primitive atmosphere, oxygen was
(b) Precambrian era involved in forming ozone.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true, and the
(c) Palaeozoic era
Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(d) Pleistocene period
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true, but the
17. Fossil man having a cranial capacity similar to that of
Reason is not the correct explanation of
modern man was
the Assertion
(a) Australopithecus (b) Java Ape Man
(c) If the assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(c) Neanderthal Man (d) Peking Man
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false
18. The ancestors of modern day frogs and salamanders 23. Assertion: Stanley Miller could work on
are experimental evidence of the origin of life because of
(a) Birds Harold Urey.
(b) Coelacanth Reason: H. Urey was a geochemist, cosmochemist
(c) Dinosaurs and teacher of S. miller.
(d) Jawless fish (a) If both Assertion and Reason are true, and the
19. Paleontology is a branch of biology that deals with Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
the (b) If both Assertion and Reason are true, but the
(a) Study of the evolution Reason is not the correct explanation of the
Assertion
(b) Study of fossils
(c) Study of DNA molecules
(d) Study of macromolecules
24. Assertion: Darwin’s finches show a variety of beaks
20. Variation in gene frequencies that occur in suited for eating large seeds, flying insects and cactus
populations outside of natural selection is referred to seeds.
as
Reason: Ancestral seed-eating stock of Darwin’s
(a) Genetic flow finches radiated out from South America main land to
(b) Genetic drift different geographical areas of the Galapagos Islands,
(c) Random mating where they found competitor-free new habitats
(d) Genetic load (a) If both Assertion and Reason are true, and the
Section-B
(Assertion & Reason Type Questions) Assertion
21. Assertion: According to a big-bang hypothesis about (c) If the assertion is true, but Reason is false.
20 billion years ago the universe was a big ball of (d) If both Assertion and Reason are false
only neutrons. 25. Assertion: Homologous organs have common
Reason: The movement of these particles is known to ancestry and similar function.
generate tremendous heat which caused explosions Reason: Analogous organs have unlike origin and
due to temperature and pressure changes. dissimilar functions
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true, and the (a) If both Assertion and Reason are true, and the
Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion. Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true, but the (b) If both Assertion and Reason are true, but the
Reason is not the correct explanation of Reason is not the correct explanation of the
the Assertion Assertion
(c) If the assertion is true, but Reason is false. (c) If the assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false (d) If both Assertion and Reason are false
EVOLUTION 87
26. Assertion: Giraffe is the best example to explain mating, genetic drift, and gene flow. In a population
Lamarck's theory. that is not evolving, allele and genotype frequencies
Reason: Giraffes once had short necks that got will remain constant from generation to
progressively longer as members of each subsequent generation, such a population is said to be in Hardy-
generation stretched their necks as long as they could. Weinberg equilibrium, named for the British
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true, and the mathematician and German physician, respectively,
who independently developed this idea in 1908.
(i) What is the correct formulation of Hardy Weinberg
law?
Reason is not the correct explanation of the 2 2
(a) p + 2pq + q = 1
Assertion
2 2
(c) If the assertion is true, but Reason is false. (b) p + pq + q = 1
2 2
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false (c) p + 2pq + q = 0
2 2
27. Assertion: The theory of survival of the fittest is (d) p + pq + q = 0
widely misunderstood. (ii) Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium is influenced by gene
Reason: Evolution does not always increase the flow, genetic drift, mutation, genetic recombination
chances of species survival and species do not survive and
when such changes happen rapidly. (a) Evolution
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true, and the (b) Limiting factor
Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion. (c) Overproduction
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true, but the (d) Natural selection
(iii) The Hardy-Weinberg principle cannot operate if
Assertion
(a) The population is very large
(b) Frequent mutations occur in the population
(c) The population has no chance of interaction with
28. Assertion: Genetic drift accentuates speciation.
other populations
Reason: Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium seems to retard
(d) Free interbreeding occurs among all members of
speciation.
the population.
Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion. (iv) For the MN-blood group system, the frequencies of
M and N alleles are 0.7 and 0.3, respectively. The
expected frequency of MN-blood group bearing
organisms is likely to be
Assertion
(a) 42%
(b) 49%
(c) 9%
(d) 58%
Section-C (Case Study Questions)
29. The Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium is a principle 30. Natural selection is a process in which individuals
stating that the genetic variation in a population will that have certain heritable traits survive and
remain constant from one generation to the next in the reproduce at a higher rate than other individuals
absence of disturbing factors. When mating is random because of those traits. Over time, natural selection
in a large population with no disruptive can increase the match between organisms and their
circumstances, the law predicts that both genotype environment. If an environment changes, or if
and allele frequencies will remain constant because individuals move to a new environment, natural
they are in equilibrium. The Hardy-Weinberg selection may result in adaptation to these new
equilibrium can be disturbed by a number of forces, conditions, sometimes giving rise to new species.
including mutations, natural selection, nonrandom
88 EVOLUTION
One subtle but important point is that although natural

selection occurs through interactions between
individual organisms and their environment,
individuals do not evolve. Rather, it is the population
that evolves over time. A second key point is that
natural selection can amplify or diminish only, those
heritable traits that differ among the individuals in a
population. Thus, even if a trait is heritable, if all the
individuals in a population are genetically identical
for that trait, evolution by natural selection cannot
occur.
(i) Natural selection is one of the two key concepts of
____
(a) Lamarck (b) Darwin
(c) Herbert Spencer (d) Hugo de Vries
(ii) For evolution, the most important requirement is: (i) During Miller and Urey’s experiment liquefied
(a) Variations gaseous mixture is collected in ______
(b) Adaptations (a) Glass tray
(c) Natural selection (b) “U” shaped trap
(d) Developmental anatomy (c) Conical flask
(iii) Adaptations: (d) Round bottom tube
(a) Are not common (ii) In 1953 S. L. Miller created primitive earth conditions
(b) Result from genetic drift in the laboratory and gave experimental evidence for
(c) Result from natural selection the origin of the first form of life from preexisting
non-living organic molecules. The primitive earth
(d) Are features of the organism that hinder its
conditions created include:
performance in its environment
(a) Low temperature, volcanic storms, atmosphere
(iv) Some bacteria can grow in streptomycin containing
rich in oxygen
medium due to
(b) Low temperature, volcanic storms, reducing
(a) Induced mutation (b) Natural selection
atmosphere
(c) Reproductive isolation (d) Mimicry
(c) High temperature, volcanic storms, non-reducing
atmosphere
Case Study – 3 (d) High temperature, volcanic storms, reducing
31. In 1953, Stanley Miller, a graduate student of Harold atmosphere containing CH4, NH3 etc.
Urey's at the University of Chicago, helped bring the (iii) Miller’s experiment was based on the theory given by
abiotic (nonliving) synthesis of organic compounds (a) S.L. Miller
into the context of evolution. Study the given figure
(b) Oparin and Haldane
to learn about his classic experiment. He set up a
closed system to mimic conditions thought at that (c) Charles Darwin
time to have existed on the early Earth. A flask of (d) Alfred Wallace
water simulated the primeval sea. The water was (iv) Which substrate is obtained for origin of life on earth
heated so that some vaporized and moved into a from Miller’s experiment?
second, higher flask containing the "atmosphere"—a (a) Proteins
mixture of gases. Sparks were discharged in the (b) Amino acids
synthetic atmosphere to mimic lightning. From his
(c) Ammonia
results, Miller concluded that complex organic
(d) Hydrogen
molecules could arise spontaneously under conditions
thought at that time to have existed on the early Earth.
EVOLUTION 89

1. State two postulates of Oparin and Haldane's theory 12. Explain with the help of an example the type of
with reference to the origin of life. (AI 2017) evolution homology is based on. (Delhi 2015C)
2. Why are analogous structures a result of convergent 13. (i) Explain adaptive radiation with the help of
evolution? (AI 2014) suitable examples.
3. Name the type of evolution that has resulted in the (ii) Cite an example where more than one adaptive
development of structures like wings of butterflies radiation has occurred in an isolated
and birds. What are such structures called? geographical area. Name the type of evolution
your example depicts and state why it is so
(Delhi 2014C)
named? (AI 2014)
4. Write the term used for resemblance of varieties of
14. What was proposed by Oparin and Haldane on the
placental mammals to corresponding marsupials in
Australia. (Delhi 2013C) origin of life? How did SL Miller's experiment
support their proposal? (Foreign 2014)
5. Identify the examples of convergent evolution from
15. How do homologous organs represent divergent
the following:
evolution? Explain with the help of a suitable
(i) Flippers of penguins and dolphins
example. (Delhi 2015)
(ii) Eyes of Octopus and mammals
16. Describe the experiment that helped Louis Pasteur to
(iii) Vertebrate brains (Delhi 2013) dismiss the theory of spontaneous generation of life.
6. Identify the examples of homologous structures from (Delhi 2016C)
the following:
17. Explain adaptive radiation with the help of a suitable
(i) Vertebrate hearts example. (Delhi 2015)
(ii) Thorns in Bougainvillea and tendrils of 18. Explain the interpretation of Charles Darwin who
Cucurbita. observed a variety of small black birds on
(iii) Food storage organs in sweet potato and potato. Galapagos Islands. (Delhi 2015)
(Delhi 2013, AI 2018)
19. Given below is a diagrammatic representation of the
7. State the significance of the study of fossils in experimental setup used by SL Miller for his
evolution. (Delhi 2012) experiment.
8. State the significance of biochemical similarities
among diverse organisms in evolution.
(Delhi 2012)
9. Write the similarity between the wing of a butterfly
and the wing of a bat. What do you infer from the
above, with reference to evolution? (Delhi 2012)
10. Name the scientist who disproved spontaneous
generation theory. (Delhi 2010)
11. (i) Identify the following pairs as homologous or
analogous organs:
(a) Sweet potato and potato.
(b) Eye of Octopus and eye of mammals
(c) Thorns of Bougainvillea and tendrils of
(i) Write the names of different gases contained and
Cucurbita.
the conditions set for the reaction in the flask A
(d) Forelimbs of bat and whale.
(ii) State the type of organic molecule he collected
(ii) State the kind of evolution they represent. in the water at B.
(AI 2015) (iii) Write the conclusion he arrived at.
(Foreign 2013)
90 EVOLUTION
20. State the theory of biogenesis. How does Miller's 35. Name the first human-like hominid. Mention his food
experiment support this theory? (Delhi 2012) habit and brain capacity. (AI 2015C)
21. Convergent evolution and divergent evolution are the 36. Explain how natural selection operates in nature by
two concepts explaining organic evolution. Explain taking an example of white-winged and dark-winged
each one with the help of an example. moths of England. (AI 2014C)
(Foreign 2011; Delhi 2010) 37. Rearrange the following in increasing order of
22. Anthropogenic actions hasten evolution. Explain evolution Gnetales, Ferns, Zosterophyllum, Ginkgo.
with the help of suitable examples. (AI 2014C)
(Foreign 2010) 38. Name the ancestors of a man based on the features
23. What role does an individual organism play as per given below.
Darwin's theory of natural selection? (Delhi 2017) (i) Human-like, meat-eater with 900 c brain, lived
24. What is 'fitness of an individual' according to in Java.
Darwin? (Delhi 2017) (ii) More human like with brain size 1400 cc, lived
25. (i) Write the probable differences in eating habits of in Central Asia, used hides and buried their dead.
Homo habilis and Homo erectus. (iii) Human-like, vegetarian, with brain capacity
(ii) Rearrange the following from early to late between 650 cc and 800 cc.
geologic periods: Carboniferous, Silurian, (iv) Man-like primate, that existed about 15 mya.
Jurassic. (Foreign 2016, AI 2019) Fossils found in Tanzania. (AI 2013C)
26. According to Hugo de Vries what is saltation? 39. Write the characteristics of Ramapithecus,
(AI 2016) Dryopithecus and Neanderthal man. (AI 2017)
27. State a reason for the increased population of dark 40 With the help of an algebraic equation, how did
coloured moths coinciding with the loss of lichens Hardy-Weinberg explain that in a given population
(on tree barks) during the industrialisation period in the frequency of occurrence of alleles of a gene is
England. (Delhi 2015) supposed to remain the same through generations?
28. Write the basis of origin of variations in organisms as (AI 2018)
described by Hugo de Vries. (AI 2013C) 41. How did industrialisation play a role in natural
29. State the significance of Coelacanth in evolution. selection of light and dark coloured moths in
(Delhi 2012) England? (Delhi 2015C)
30. Name the common ancestor of the great apes and 42. Since the origin of life on earth, there have been five
men. (AI 2011) episodes of mass extinction of species.
31. Mention how the mutation theory of Hugo de Vries is (i) How is the sixth extinction, presently in
different from Darwin's theory of natural selection? progress, different from the previous episodes?
(Foreign 2011) (ii) Who is mainly responsible for the sixth
extinction?
32. List the two characteristics of mutation that help in
explaining evolution. (Delhi 2011C) (iii) List any four points that can help to overcome
this disaster. (AI 2014C)
33. When does a species become founder to cause
founder effect? (Foreign 2010) 43. Describe the three different ways by which natural
selection can affect the frequency of a heritable trait
34. Mention the evolutionary significance of the
in a population. (Foreign 2014)
following organisms:
44. Giving three reasons, write how Hardy-Weinberg
(i) Shrews
equilibrium can be affected. (Delhi 2014C)
(ii) Lobefins
45. According to Darwinian theory, the rate of
(in) Homo habilis appearance of new forms is linked to their life cycles.
(iv) Homo erectus (Delhi 2017) Explain. (AI 2014C)
EVOLUTION 91
46. Study the schematic representation of evolutionary (ii) Mention any three characteristics of Neanderthal
history of plant forms given below and mention: man that lived in near East and Central Asia.
(Delhi 2014)
50. ‘‘Appearance of melanised moths post-
industrialisation in England is a classic example of
evolution by natural selection.’’ Explain. (AI 2019)
51. According to Darwinian theory of natural selection
the rate of appearance of new forms is linked to the
life cycle or the life-span of an organism. Explain
with the help of an example. (AI 2019)
52. How would the gene flow or genetic drift affect the
(i) The plant forms ferns and conifers are most population in which either of them happens to take
related to. place? (AI 2019)
(ii) The nearest ancestors of flowering plants. 53. (i) Explain the process of natural selection that
(iii) The most primitive group of plants. leads to speciation.
(iv) Common ancestry of Psilophyton provides to. (ii) List the three ways in which the process operates
(v) The common ancestor of Psilophyton and seed in nature. Explain any one of the processes.
ferns. Foreign 2012
(vi) The common ancestors of mosses and 54. (i) Name the primates that lived about 15 million
tracheophytes. (Delhi 2012C) years ago. List their characteristic features.
47. Branching descent and natural selection are the two (ii) (a) Where was the man-like animal found?
key concepts of Darwinian theory of evolution. (b) Write the order in which Neanderthals,
Explain each concept with the help of a suitable Homo habilis and Homo erectus appeared
example. (AI 2011) on the earth. State the brain capacity of each
48. (i) How does the Hardy-Weinberg's expression of them.
(p2 + 2pq + q2 =1) explain that genetic (c) When did modern man Homo sapiens
equilibrium is maintained in a population? appear on this planet? (Delhi 2011)
(ii) List any two factors that can disturb the genetic 55. (i) Explain the salient features of Hugo de Vries
equilibrium. (AI 2010) theory of mutation. How is Darwin’s theory of
49. (i) Explain Darwinian theory of evolution with the natural selection different from it? Explain.
help of one suitable example. State the two key (Delhi 2011)
concepts of theory.
92 HUMAN HEALTH AND DISEASE
08
HUMAN HEALTH AND DISEASES
HUMAN HEALTH AND DISEASE 93
Chapter 08
Human Health and Diseases
Chapter at a Glance
● Health is defined as a state of complete physical, mental and social well-being. It simply does not mean ‘absence of disease’
or ‘physical fitness’.
● A disease is an abnormal condition that negatively affects the structure or function of all or part of an organism, and that is
not due to any immediate external injury.
● Diseases can be congenital or acquired. Acquired diseases can further be differentiated into communicable and non-
communicable diseases.
● Human body has a very efficient in-built defense mechanism which provides immunity to our body. Immunity is of two types
innate and acquired. Acquired immunity comprises cell mediated immunity controlled by T cells and humoral immunity
controlled by B cells.
● The immune cells of the body are formed in lymphoid organs. There are primary lymphoid organs such as bone marrow and
thymus and secondary lymphoid organs such as tonsils, Peyer’s patches, MALT.
● One of the most important non-communicable diseases is cancer. Cancer results due to tumor formation due to uncontrolled cell
division. There are various cancer-causing agents called carcinogens responsible for occurrence of this disease.
● Cancer is curable if detected early. There are various diagnostic techniques such as CT scan, MRI. The treatment for this
disease includes chemotherapy, radiotherapy and surgery.
● AIDS is one of the most fatal communicable diseases which is caused by HIV. It can be transferred through infected blood
transfusion and from infected mother to foetus. There is no permanent cure of this disease

Section–A (Single Choice Questions) 7. A person without thymus would not be able to
1. The term 'Health' is defined in many ways. The most (a) Reject a tissue development
accurate definition of the health would be: (b) Produce antibodies
(a) Health is the state of body and mind in a balanced (c) Develop an inflammatory response
condition. (d) None of these
(b) Health is the reflection of a smiling face. 8. People who are at high risk of getting HIV infection
(c) Health is a state of complete physical, mental and are
social well-being. (a) Individuals who require repeated blood
(d) Health is the symbol of economic prosperity. transfusion
2. Where will you look for the sporozoites of malaria (b) Individuals who have multiple sexual partners
parasites? (c) Drug addicts who take drugs intravenously
(a) Saliva of infected female Anopheles mosquito (d) All of the above
(b) Salivary glands of freshly moulted female 9. Cancer is caused due to activation of...…...to………..
Anopheles mosquito (a) Oncogene, tumour suppressor gene
(c) Spleen of infected humans (b) Tumour suppressor gene, protooncogene
(d) RBCs of humans suffering from malaria. (c) Proto-oncogene, oncogene
3. Common cold differs from pneumonia in, that (d) Oncogene, protooncogene
(a) pneumonia is a communicable disease whereas 10. Metastasis is associated with
the common cold is a nutritional deficiency (a) benign tumours
disease
(b) crown gall tumour
(b) pneumonia can be prevented by a live attenuated
(c) malignant tumours
bacterial vaccine whereas the common cold has
(d) both malignant and benign tumours
no effective vaccine
11. The substance given to cancer patients in order to
(c) pneumonia caused by a virus while the common
activate their immune system and destroy the tumor
cold is caused by the bacterium Haemophilus
is
influenzae
(a) Histamines (b) Interleukins
(d) pneumonia pathogen infects alveoli whereas the
common cold affects nose and respiratory passage (c) α- interferons (d) Morphines
but not the lungs 12. Measures which are useful for prevention and control
4. An antiviral substance produced in response to viral of alcohol and drug abuse among adolescents are
infection for restricting its multiplication is i. Avoid peer pressure
(a) Antigen (b) Antivirus ii. Education and counselling
(c) Interferon (d) Virion iii. Seeking help from parents and peers
5. The cell mediated immunity inside the human body iv. Looking for danger signs
is carried out by v. Seeking professional and medical help
(a) Erythrocytes (b) Thrombocytes (a) i, ii and iii (b) ii, iii and iv
(c) T-lymphocytes (d) B-lymphocytes (c) ii, iii, iv and v (d) i, ii, iii, iv and v
6. AIDS Day is on- 13. Primary response produced due to first time
(a) May 1 encounter with a pathogen is of
(b) December 20 (a) high intensity
(c) June 1 (b) low intensity
(d) December 1 (c) intermediate intensity
(d) no intensity
14. Match the columns I and II, and choose the correct 20. Which one of the following is the correct statement
combination from the options given. regarding the particular psychotropic drug specified?
Column I Column II (a) Hashish causes altered thought, perceptions
a. Typhoid 1. Chronic inflammation of (b) Opium stimulates nervous system and causes
hallucinations
lymphatic vessels
(c) Morphine leads to delusions and disturbed
b. Pneumonia 2. Dry scaly lesions on
emotions
skin
(d) Barbiturates cause relaxation and temporary
c. Filariasis 3. Chill and high fever euphoria
recurring every 3-4 days
21. Common cold differs from pneumonia in, that
d. Ringworm 4. Alveoli filled with fluid (a) pneumonia is a communicable disease whereas
e. Malaria 5. Intestinal perforations the common cold is a nutritional deficiency
disease
(a) a-1, b-2, c-3, d-5, e-4
(b) pneumonia can be prevented by a live attenuated
(b) a-5, b-4, c-1, d-2, e-3
bacterial vaccine whereas the common cold has
(c) a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4, e-5 no effective vaccine
(d) a-5, b-4, c-1, d-3, e-2
(c) pneumonia caused by a virus while the common
15. Which blood cells can engulf bacteria by cold is caused by the bacterium Haemophilus
phagocytosis? influenzae
(a) Eosinophil and basophil (d) pneumonia pathogen infects alveoli whereas the
(b) Basophil and lymphocyte common cold affects nose and respiratory passage
(c) Neutrophil and monocyte but not the lungs
(d) Neutrophil and lymphocyte
16. Passive immunity is defined as immunity Section–B
(a) inherited from parents (Assertion & Reason Type Questions)
(b) achieved through first exposure to the disease 22. Assertion: Streptococcus pneumoniae and
(c) achieved through vaccination Haemophilus influenzae are responsible for causing
(d) achieved through the sera of other animal infectious diseases in human beings.
enriched in antibodies Reason: A healthy person acquires the infection by
17. Smack and crack are produced from___ and ___ inhaling the droplets/aerosols released by an infected
respectively person.
(a) Cannabis sativa and Atropa belladonna (a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is
(b) Erythroxylum coca and Atropa belladonna the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) Cannabis sativa and Papaver somniferum (b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is
(d) Papaver somniferum and Erythroxylum coca not the correct explanation of assertion.
18. The initial stage of the drug addiction is called (c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(a) tolerance (d) If both assertion and reason are false.
(b) dependence 23. Assertion: Histamine is involved in allergic and
inflammatory reactions.
(c) habituation
Reason: Histamine is a vasodilator.
(d) all of these
19. Which of the following immune responses is
responsible for rejection of kidney graft?
(a) Humoral immune response
(b) Inflammatory immune response
Assertion
(c) Cell-mediated immune response (c) If Assertion is true, but Reason is false
(d) Auto-immune response (d) If Both Assertion and Reason are false
24. Assertion: The antibiotics separated from serum are (a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is
homogenous. the correct explanation of assertion.
Reason: Monoclonal antibodies are heterogenous (b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is
immunological reagents. not the correct explanation of assertion.
(a) If Both Assertion and Reason are true, and the (c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion (d) If both assertion and reason are false.
(b) If Both Assertion and Reason are true, but the
Assertion Section–C (Case Study Questions)
(c) If Assertion is true, but Reason is false Case Study – 1
(d) If Both Assertion and Reason are false 29. Health is defined as a state of complete physical,
25. Assertion: Interferons are effective against viruses. mental and social well-being. When the functioning of
Reason: Proteins which can be synthesized only by one or more organs or systems of the body is adversely
genetic engineering are effective against viruses. affected characterized by various signs and symptoms,
(a) If Both Assertion and Reason are true, and the we say that we are not healthy, i.e., we have a disease.
Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion Diseases can be broadly grouped into infectious and
(b) If Both Assertion and Reason are true, but the non-infectious. A wide range of organisms belonging
Reason is not the correct explanation of the to bacteria, viruses, fungi, protozoans, helminths, etc.,
Assertion could cause diseases in man. Such disease causing
(c) If Assertion is true, but Reason is false organisms are called pathogens.
(d) If Both Assertion and Reason are false (i) Match the following diseases with the causative
26. Assertion: Cocaine has a potent stimulating action organism and select the correct option.
on central nervous system, producing a sense of Column – I Column – II
euphoria and increased energy. (a) Typhoid (i) Wuchereria
Reason: Injecting the microbes intentionally during
(b) Pneumonia (ii) Plasmodium
immunization or infectious organisms gaining access
into the body during natural infection induces active (c) Filariasis (iii) Salmonella
immunity. (d) Malaria (iv) Haemophilus
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and the (a) (a) – (iii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (i), (d) – (ii)
Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion (b) (a) – (ii), (b) – (i), (c) – (iii), (d) – (iv)
(c) (a) – (iv), (b) – (i), (c) – (ii), (d) – (iii)
Assertion (d) (a) – (i), (b) – (iii), (c) – (ii), (d) – (iv)
(c) Assertion is true, but Reason is false (ii) Amoebiasis is caused by
(d) Both Assertion and Reason are false (a) Plasmodium vivax
27. Assertion: Cancer cells are virtually immortal until (b) Entamoeba gingivalis
the body in which they reside dies. (c) Trypanosoma gambiense
Reason: Cancer is caused by damage to genes
(d) Entamoeba histolytica
regulating the cell division cycle.
(iii) Many diseases can be diagnosed by observing the
symptoms in the patient.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but the Which group of symptoms are indicative of
Reason is not the correct explanation of the pneumonia?
Assertion (a) Difficulty in respiration, fever, chills, cough,
(c) Assertion is true, but Reason is false headache
(d) Both Assertion and Reason are false (b) Constipation, abdominal pain, cramps, blood clots
28. Assertion: Opioids help to enhance respiratory (c) Nasal congestion and discharge, cough, sore
activity. throat, headache
Reason: Opioids are the drugs which binds to (d) High fever, weakness, stomach pain, loss of
specific opioid receptors present in respiratory tract. appetite and constipation
(iv) HIV that causes AIDS, first starts destroying Case Type-3
(a) B-lymphocytes 2. leucocytes 31. Of late, drug and alcohol abuse among youth and
(b) Leucocytes adolescents is becoming another cause of concern.
(c) Helper T-lymphocytes Surveys and statistics show that use of drugs and
(d) Thrombocytes alcohol has been on the rise especially among the
youth. This is really a cause of concern as it could
result in many harmful effects. Proper education and
Case Type-2 guidance would enable youth to safeguard
30. Some of the human diseases are caused by themselves against these dangerous behaviour
protozoans too. You might have heard about malaria, patterns and follow healthy lifestyles. The drugs,
a disease man has been fighting for many years. which are commonly abused are opioids,
Plasmodium, a tiny protozoan, is responsible for this cannabinoids and coca alkaloids. Majority of these
disease. Different species of Plasmodium (P. vivax, are obtained from flowering plants. Some are
P. malaria and P. falciparum) are responsible for obtained from fungi.
different types of malaria. Plasmodium enters the (i) Ganja and LSD are classified as
human body as sporozoites (infectious form) through (a) Narcotics
the bite of infected female Anopheles mosquito (b) Hallucinogens
(i) The malignant tertian malaria is caused by (c) Stimulants
(a) Plasmodium vivax (d) Depressants
(b) Plasmodium falciparum (ii) Marijuana is extracted from the leaves of
(c) Plasmodium ovale (a) Datura
(d) Plasmodium malariae (b) Papaver somniferum
(ii) Malaria parasite completes its life-cycle in (c) Cannabis indica
(a) One host (d) Cannabis sativa
(b) Two host (iii) Heroin is commonly called as
(c) Three host (a) Coke (b) Crack
(d) Reservoir host (c) Smack (d) Charas
(iii) The sexual cycle of Plasmodium is completed in (iv) Which of the following options are correct?
(a) The gut of mosquito
1. Heroin Stimulant
(b) RBC
(c) Liver tissue 2. Marijuana Cardiovascular
(d) The salivary gland of the mosquito 3. Cocaine Hallucinogens
(iv) The infectious stage of Plasmodium that enters the 4. Morphine Sedative
human body is:
(a) 2, 3 and 4
(a) Sporozoites
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(b) Female gametocytes
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(c) Male gametocytes
(d) 1, 3 and 4
(d) Trophozoites

1. Why is the secondary immune response more intense 19. Why are adolescents especially advised not to
than the primary immune response in humans? smoke? How does smoking affect the functioning of
(AI 2014) the body? (AI 2015C)
2. Name any two types of cells that act as ‘cellular 20. Retroviruses have no DNA. However, the DNA of
barriers’ to provide innate immunity in humans. the infected host cell does possess viral DNA. How is
(Delhi 2014) it possible? (AI 2015)
3. How does haemozoin affect the human body when 21. How are oncogenic viruses different from proto-
released in blood during malarial infection? oncogenes? (AI 2017)
(Foreign 2014) 22. (i) Which organ of the human body is initially
4. What is an autoimmune disease? Give an example. affected when bitten by an infected female
(Foreign 2014) Anopheles? Name the stage of the parasite that
5. Mention the useful as well as the harmful drug infects this organ.
obtained from the latex of poppy plant. (ii) Explain the events that are responsible for chill
(Delhi 2013) and high fever in the patient. (Delhi 2015C)
6. How does smoking tobacco in human lead to oxygen 23. Name a human disease, its causal organism,
deficiency in their body? (Delhi 2012) symptoms (any three) and vector spread by intake of
7. Indiscriminate diagnostic practices using X-rays, etc., water and food contaminated by human faecal
should be avoided. Give one reason. (Delhi 2015) matter. (AI 2017)
8. In what way is monocyte a cellular barrier with 24. Mention one application for each of the following:
reference to immunity? (Delhi 2015) (i) Passive immunization
9. How do cytokine barriers help in evading viral (ii) Antihistamine
injections? (Delhi 2015) (iii) Colostrum
10. When does a human body elicit an anamnestic (iv) Cytokinin-barrier (AI 2017)
response? (AI 2013; Delhi 2011 C)
25. Name two drugs obtained from poppy plants. "These
11. State two different roles of spleen in the human drugs are medically useful, but are often abused'.
body? (AI 2012) Taking the mentioned examples justify by giving
12. How do interferons protect us? (AI 2012) reasons. (Delhi 2016C)
13. Why do pollen grains of some flowers trigger 26. List the symptoms of ascariasis. How does a healthy
sneezing in some people? (Foreign 2012) person acquire this infection? (AI 2014)
14. What is it that prevents a child from suffering from a 27. Name an allergen and write the response of human
disease he/she is vaccinated against? Give one body when exposed to it. (Delhi 2014 C, AI 2019)
reason. (Delhi 2010) 28. Differentiate between active and passive immunity.
15. How does malaria differ from chikungunya with (Delhi 2014 c)
reference to their vectors? 29. What is ‘withdrawal syndrome’? List any two
(AI 2010 C; Delhi 2008) symptoms it is characterised by. (Foreign 2014)
16. Malaria, typhoid, pneumonia and amoebiasis are 30. How are morphine and heroin related? Mention the
some of the human infectious diseases. Which one of effect each one of them has on the human body?
these are transmitted through mechanical carriers. (AI 2014 C)
(Foreign 2010)
31. Write the scientific name of the source plant of the
17. Name any two secondary lymphoid organs in a drugs-marijuana and hashish and mention their effect
human body and state the function of any one of on human body. (Delhi 2014 C)
them. (Delhi 2016C)
18. Suggest a method to ensure an anamnestic response
in humans. (Delhi 2017)
32. Name the plant source of the drug popularly called 43. Why is there a fear amongst the guardians that their
smack. How does it affect the body of the abuser? adolescent wards may get trapped in drug/alcohol
(Delhi 2012) abuse? (AI 2017)
OR 44. Explain 'addiction' and 'dependence' in respect of
Name the opioid drug and its source plant. How does drug/alcohol abuse in youth. (AI 2017)
the drug affect the human body? (AI 2010) 45. Prior to a sports event, blood and urine samples of
33. Why is tobacco smoking associated with a rise in sports persons are collected for drug tests.
blood pressure and emphysema (oxygen deficiency (i) Why is there a need to conduct such tests?
in the body)? Explain. (AI 2011, 2019) (ii) Name the drugs the authorities usually look for.
34. How does a vaccine for a particular disease (iii) Write the generic names of two plants from
immunise the human body against that disease? which these drugs are obtained. (Delhi 2016)
(Delhi 2013c)
46. How is an allergic reaction caused by an allergen?
OR Name the drug that can reduce the symptoms of
Why is a person with cuts and bruises following an allergy? (AI 2011 C)
accident administered tetanus antitoxin? Give 47. (i) Name any two helminths which are known
reasons. (AI 2013) pathogenic to humans.
35. A patient showed symptoms of sustained high fever, (ii) List any two symptoms of the diseases caused by
stomach pain and constipation, but no blood clot in any one of them. (Delhi 2016)
stools. Name the disease and its pathogen. Write a
48. Name the two types of immunity in a human body.
diagnostic test for the disease. How does the disease
Why are cell mediated and humoral immunities so
get transmitted? (Delhi 2013 C)
called? (Delhi 2011)
36. (i) Highlight the role of thymus as a lymphoid organs.
49. Name the causative organism of the disease
(ii) Name the cells that are released from the above amoebiasis. List three symptoms of the disease.
mentioned gland. Mention how they help in (AI 2016)
immunity? (Delhi 2012)
50. (i) Name any two causative organisms responsible
37. Name the parasite that causes filariasis in humans. for ringworm.
Mention its two diagnostic symptoms. How is this
(ii) State any two symptoms of the disease.
transmitted to others? (Delhi 2012)
(Delhi 2016C)
38. Name the two special types of lymphocytes in
51. Write the scientific names of the causal organisms of
humans. How do they differ in their roles in immune
elephantiasis and ringworm in humans. Mention the
response? (AI 2012)
body parts affected by them. (Delhi 2011)
39. (i) Name the group of virus responsible for causing
52. The barriers in the innate immunity are given in the
AIDS in humans. Why are these viruses so named?
following table. Identify A, B, C and D.
(ii) List any two ways of transmission of HIV (Delhi 2010 c)
infection in humans other than sexual contact?
53. (i) How does a vaccine affect immunity?
(AI 2012)
(ii) How can we get immunisation against tetanus?
40. Name the different types of cell providing cellular (AI 2010, 2019)
barrier responsible for innate immunity in humans.
54. Why do normal cells not show cancerous growth?
(Foreign 2012)
(hots; ah India 2010)
41. List any two emergent circumstances, when a
55. How do macrophages in the human body act as an
medical doctor would recommend injection of a
HIV factory? (AI 2010)
preformed antibody into the body of a patient and
why? (HOTS; Delhi 2011C) 56. (i) Differentiate between benign and malignant
tumours.
42. What happens to an individual when a regular dose
of drugs/alcohol is abruptly discontinued? What (ii) Why is colostrum a boon to the new born baby?
characteristics manifest in the individual under such a (Delhi 2015C)
situation? (AI 2016C)
57. (i) It is generally observed that the children who (i) Name a plant from which such chemicals are
had suffered from chickenpox in their childhood obtained.
may not contract the same disease in their (iii) Write the effect of these chemicals on the human
adulthood. Explain giving reasons the basis of body. (Delhi 2015)
such an immunity in an individual. Name this
62. Community service department of your school plans
kind of immunity.
a visit to a slum near the school with an objective to
(ii) What are interferons? Mention their role.
educate the slum dwellers with respect to health and
(Foreign 2016, A1 2019)
hygiene.
58. Certain attributes of innate immunity are given in the (i)Why is there a need to organise such visits?
table below. Identify A, B, C, D, E and F respectively
(ii)Write the steps you will highlight, as a member of
in it.
this department, in your interactions with them to
SR Type of Example of enable them to lead a healthy life. (AI 2014)
Function
No. barrier barrier 63. (i) What precaution(s) would you recommend to a
(i) A B Prevent patient requiring repeated blood transfusion?
microbial (ii) If the advice is not followed by the patient there
growth is an apprehension that the patient might contract
(ii) C Polymorphonuclear D a disease that would destroy the immune system
leucocytes of his/her body. Explain with the help of a
schematic diagram only how the immune system
(iii) G E F would get affected and destroyed. (Delhi 2017)
(Delhi 2016) 64. (i) Name and explain by giving reason, the type of
59. (i) State what happens in the human body when immunity provided to the newborn by the
malarial parasites infected RBCs burst to release colostrum and vaccinations
the parasites in the blood. (ii) Name the type of antibody:
(ii) Mention the specific sites in the host body where ● present in colostrum
production of
● produced in response to allergens in the
(a) sporozoites and human body. (Foreign 2014)
(b) gametocytes takes place in the life cycle of
65. State the three characteristics of acquired immunity.
the malarial parasites (Delhi 2015C)
List the different ways by which it can be attained by
60. A heavily bleeding and bruised road accident victim humans. (Delhi 2016C)
was brought to a nursing home. The doctor
66. How are primary and secondary immune responses
immediately gave him an injection to protect him
carried out in the human body? Explain.
against a deadly disease.
(Delhi 2016C)
(i) Write what did the doctor inject into the patient's
body? 67. (i) HIV and Hepatitis-B are STDs. Mention the two
other ways by which they can be transmitted to a
(ii) How do you think this injection would protect
healthy person.
the patient against the disease?
(ii) Why is early detection of STDs essential? What
(iii) Name the disease against which this injection
can it lead to otherwise? Explain. (Delhi 2016C)
was given and the kind of immunity it provides.
(AI 2015) 68. (i) Name the causative organisms for the following
61. A team of students are preparing to participate in the diseases.
inter-school sports meet. During a practice session (a) Elephantiasis
you find some vials with labels of certain (b) Ringworm
cannabinoids.
(c) Amoebiasis
(i) Will you report to the authorities? Why?
(ii) How can public hygiene help control such
diseases? (Delhi 2014C)
STRATEGIES FOR ENHANCEMENT IN FOOD PRODUCTION 105
09
STRATEGIES FOR ENHANCEMENT IN
FOOD PRODUCTION
106 STRATEGIES FOR ENHANCEMENT IN FOOD PRODUCTION
Chapter 09
Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production
Chapter at a Glance

Section–A (1 Mark Questions) 18. How is plant cell totipotency being used for plant
propagation and improvement?
1. What do you mean by animal husbandry?
2. Which of the following are freshwater fishes? 19. Explain the process of somatic hybridization.
Catla, Common carp, Hilsa, Sardines, Mackerel, 20. What is micropropagation? Why are plants produced
Pomfret? by this technique called somaclones? Name any two
food plants which are produced on commercial scale
3. Which is the best breeding method for animals that
using this method.
are below average in milk production?
4. What is the full form of IARI?
5. State any 2 objectives of biofortification. Section–D (4 Mark Questions)
23. A farmer was facing the problem of low yield from
Section–B (2 Mark Questions) his farm. One day he was reading the newspaper. He
saw a column where it was advised to keep a beehive
6. What is the difference between apiculture and
in the vicinity to improve the yield in the fields. How
pisciculture?
would the beehive help in enhancing yield? What
7. What is aquaculture? Name an animal that be values were shown by the farmer?
multiplied by aquaculture.
8. What is Biofortification? How many methods of
biofortification are there? Section–E (5 Mark Questions)
9. Why and how does beehive help in enhancing the 24. What are the various steps that a Botanist will
yield? undertake to release a new variety of plant?
10. Why are plants obtained by protoplast culture called 25. (a) How are mutations beneficial for plant breeding?
somatic hybrids? Discuss with an example.
(b) Explain in brief the technology that made us
Section–C (3 Mark Questions) self-sufficient in food production.
11. What is animal breeding? Name two main methods.
12. What is inbreeding depression? Why do self -
pollinated crops do not show the ill-effects of
inbreeding depression?
13. How can we improve the success rate of fertilization
during artificial insemination in animal husbandry
programmes?
14. Explain the germplasm collection. What are its
advantages?
15. What is the difference between breed and species?
Explain with the help of examples.
16. (a) List a few examples of biofortified crops.
(b) How do they benefit society?
17. (a) Why does a shift from grain to meat diets create
more demand for cereals?
(b) What is the name of this emerging area of
research where a 250kg cow produces 200g of
protein every day but 250g of Methylophillus
methylotrophus can produce 25 tons of protein?
State the advantages of this area of research.

ii) Proper and safe farm conditions
Section–A (Single Choice Questions)
iii) Proper feed and water
1. The agricultural practice of breeding and raising
livestock is called iv) Hygiene and health care
(a) Domestication (b) Breeding (a) ii, iii, iv (b) i, ii, iv
(c) Animal husbandry (d) Biofortification (c) i, iii, iv (d) i, ii, iii, iv
2. Which one of the following products of apiculture is 9. In plant breeding programmes, the entire collection
used in cosmetics and polishes? (of plants/seeds) having all the diverse alleles for all
genes in a given crop is called
(a) Wax (b) Oil
(a) cross-hybridisation among the selected parents
(c) Honey (d) Royal jelly
(b) evaluation and selection of parents
3. Pisciculture is rearing and production of
(c) germplasm collection
(a) Fishes (b) Birds
(d) selection of superior recombinants
(c) Reptiles (d) Wool yielding animals
10. Which of the following shows the correct sequence
4. Mating of two varieties of cattle breed which have no
of steps of plant tissue culture?
common ancestors on either side of their pedigree for
4-6 generations is an example of (a) Sterilization  hardening  selection of explant
(a) Inbreeding  inoculation  regeneration  plantlet
transfer
(b) Crossbreeding
(b) Selection of explant  inoculation 
(c) Out-crossing
regeneration  sterilization  hardening 
(d) Interspecific hybridization
plantlet transfer
5. The reduction in fertility and productivity that is
(c) Selection of explant  sterilization 
caused by continuous inbreeding can be overcome by
inoculation  regeneration  hardening 
(a) A single outcross plantlet transfer
(b) Out-crossing for many generations (d) Hardening  sterilization  selection of
(c) Cross-breeding explant  inoculation  regeneration 
(d) Interspecific hybridization plantlet transfer
6. Hisardale have been developed by 11. To obtain a virus-free plant, which of the following
(a) Out-crossing can be used as an explant in micropropagation?
(b) Interspecific hybridisation (a) Apical meristem
(c) Cross-breeding (b) Axillary meristem
(d) Intraspecific hybridization (c) Either apical or axillary meristem
7. Which technique is used to overcome several (d) Embryo
problems of normal matings? 12. Pusa Swarnim, a variety of Brassica is resistant to
(a) MOET (a) Bacterial blight
(b) Artificial insemination (b) White rust
(c) Interspecific hybridisation (c) Curl and black rot
(d) Cross-breeding (d) Mosaic virus
8. Which are the important components of poultry farm 13. ‘‘Atlas 66’’ is high protein contained variety of
management? (a) Rice (b) Sugar cane
i) Selection of disease free and suitable breeds (c) Wheat (d) Maize
14. One of the alternate sources of proteins for animal Section–B

and human nutrition is
(a) Biofortification
21. Assertion: Dairy farm management deals with the
(b) Single cell protein (SCP)
processes and systems that increase yield and not the
(c) Explants quality of the milk.
(d) Somaclones Reason: Due to the pressure of increasing
15. Single cell protein can be obtained from population, yield is the prime goal of dairy farm
(a) Bacteria (b) Algae management.
(c) Fungi (d) All of these (a) If both Assertion and Reason are true, and the
16. Breeding of crops with high levels of minerals,
vitamins and proteins is called (b) If both Assertion and Reason are true, but the
(a) somatic hybridisation (b) biofortification
Assertion
(c) biomagnification (d) micropropagation
(c) If assertion is true, but Reason is false
17. Pusa Shubhra, an improved variety of cauliflower is
resistant to
22. Assertion: Cattle breeds can be improved by
(a) White rust (b) Bacterial blight
superovulation and embryo transplantation.
(c) Black rot (d) Leaf curl
Reason: Superovulation in high milk- yielding cows
18. Norman E. Borlaug is associated with is induced by hormonal injection
(a) White revolution (b) Green revolution (a) If both Assertion and Reason are true, and the
(c) Blue revolution (d) Yellow revolution Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion
19. Hairy leaves in cotton provides (b) If both Assertion and Reason are true, but the
(a) Resistance to cereal leaf beetle Reason is not the correct explanation of the
Assertion
(b) Resistance to bollworms
(c) Resistance to jassids
(d) Resistance to sawfly
23. Assertion: Inbreeding increases homozygosity, thus
20. Consider the following four statements (I-IV) and
exposes harmful recessive genes, which are
select the option which includes all the correct ones
eliminated by selection.
only.
Reason: Continued inbreeding reduces fertility and
I. Single cell Spirulina can produce large
productivity.
quantitiesof food rich in protein, minerals,
vitamins, etc. (a) If both Assertion and Reason are true, and the
II. Body weight-wise the microorganism
Methylophilus methylotrophus may be able to (b) If both Assertion and Reason are true, but the
produce several times more proteins than the Reason is not the correct explanation of the
cows per day. Assertion
III. Common button mushrooms are a very rich (c) If assertion is true, but Reason is false
source of vitamin-C. (d) If both Assertion and Reason are false
IV. A rice variety has been developed which is very 24. Assertion: SCP can be produced by using bacteria
rich in calcium. and algae but not fungi.
(a) Statements III and IV Reason: Fungi do not provide a protein-rich
(b) Statements I, III and IV supplement.
(c) Statements II, III and IV (a) If both Assertion and Reason are true, and the
(d) Statements I and II
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true, but the (a) If both Assertion and Reason are true, and
Reason is not the correct explanation of the the Reason is the correct explanation of the
Assertion Assertion
(c) If assertion is true, but Reason is false (b) If both Assertion and Reason are true, but
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false the Reason is not the correct explanation of the
Assertion
25. Assertion: The technique of micropropagation has
been used to introduce variations in the offspring. (c) If assertion is true, but Reason is false
Reason: It is not possible to generate virus-free (d) If both Assertion and Reason are false
plants in micropropagation.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true, and the Section–C (Case Study Questions)
Case Study – 1
Reason is not the correct explanation of the 29. MOET involves specific hormonal treatment of
Assertion donor cows and heifers to cause multiple follicles to
ovulate. Following this superovulation, the donors
are bred using artificial insemination, and
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false approximately seven days after insemination,
26. Assertion: Biofortification is the most practical embryos are non-surgically collected or “flushed”
means to improve public health. from the donor’s uterus. These embryos are then
Reason: Biofortification is aimed at breeding crops transferred into synchronous recipients who will
with higher levels of vitamins and minerals or higher serve as surrogate mothers. The embryos may also be
proteins and healthier fats. cryopreserved or frozen to be transferred at a later
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true, and the time. The frozen embryos will be maintained in
Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion liquid nitrogen storage vessels until they are thawed
and transferred into the cattle. Superovulation allows
cows to ovulate more than one oocyte. Although
some percentage of the females do not respond to the
Assertion
superovulation treatment, this technology has helped
(c) If assertion is true, but Reason is false to increase the prolificacy of selected donor cows and
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false to decrease generation intervals
27. Assertion: In plant tissue culture, somatic embryos (i) MOET is a programme that is used to increase
can be induced from any plant cell. (a) Biomass
Reason: Any viable plant cell can differentiate into (b) Herd size
somatic embryos.
(c) Yield
(d) Disease resistance
(ii) In livestock breeding experiments, which of the
following stages is transferred to surrogate mothers?
Assertion (a) Unfertilized eggs
(c) If assertion is true, but Reason is false (b) Fertilized eggs
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false (c) 8 to 32 celled embryo
28. Assertion: Somatic hybridisation is a process where (d) Frozen semen

protoplasts of two desired plants can be fused to (iii) Arrange in order from the beginning of the event.
develop improved plants. i) The fertilized eggs at 8-32 cell stages are
Reason: Cross breeding can also induce variability. recovered non-surgically and transferred to
surrogate mothers.
ii) Cow is administered hormones, with FSH-like
activity.
iii) The animal is mated with an elite bull or of alleles most likely occurs through Muller's ratchet,
artificially inseminated. when an asexual population's genome accumulates
iv) They produce 6-8 eggs. deleterious mutations that are irreversible.
(a) 2, 3, 4, 1 (i) What strategy would you suggest if a person wants to
evolve a pureline in an animal?
(b) 2, 4, 3, 1
(a) Cross-breeding
(c) 1, 2, 3, 4
(b) Inbreeding
(d) 2, 1, 4, 3
(c) Out-breeding
(iv) Identify the incorrect statement regarding Multiple
Ovulation Embryo Transfer Technology (MOET). (d) Artificial insemination
(a) FSH like hormone or PMSG [pregnant mare (ii) Continued inbreeding reduces fertility and
serum gonadotropin] are used to induce productivity. This is called
superovulation [6-8 eggs per cycle] and (a) Outbreeding
prostaglandins are used to regulate the duration (b) Homozygosity
of the cycle.
(c) Inbreeding depression
(b) Fresh embryos can be stored at 37oC for 6-8
(d) Heterozygosity
hours without much harm but it is recommended
that the embryos are inserted into the recipient (iii) Mark the incorrect statement -
cow or frozen as soon as possible. The embryos (a) Breeding between animals of the same breed is
can be stored forever in liquid nitrogen. called inbreeding.
(c) The animal is either mated with an elite bull or (b) Breeding between different breeds is called
artificially inseminated, and the fertilized eggs at outbreeding.
8-32 cell stages, are recovered non-surgically (c) Inbreeding refers to the mating of more distantly
and transferred to the genetic mothers. related individuals within the same breed for 4-6
(d) The embryos are transferred to a recipient cow generations.
whose oestrous cycle is at the correct receptive (d) Superior males and superior females of the same
stage. breed are identified and mated in pairs.
(iv) Read the following statements carefully and mark the
correct option.
Case Type-2
i) Inbreeding increases homozygosity.
30. Inbreeding is a technique used in selective breeding.
For example, in livestock breeding, breeders may use ii) Inbreeding hides harmful recessive genes that
inbreeding when trying to establish a new and are not eliminated by selection.
desirable trait in the stock and for producing distinct iii) It helps in accumulation of inferior genes and
families within a breed but will need to watch for elimination of useful genes.
undesirable characteristics in offspring, which can iv) Inbreeding is necessary if we want to evolve a
then be eliminated through further selective breeding. pure-line in any animal.
The inbreeding history of the population should also
(a) 1, 2, 3 are correct
be mentioned when discussing the variation in the
severity of inbreeding depression between and within (b) 1 and 4 are correct
species. With persistent inbreeding, there is evidence (c) 3 and 4 are correct
that shows that inbreeding depression becomes less (d) 2, 3 and 4 are correct
severe. This is associated with the unmasking and
elimination of severely deleterious recessive alleles.
However, inbreeding depression is not a temporary Case Type-3
phenomenon because this elimination of deleterious 31. Plant biologists have adopted in vitro methods to
recessive alleles will never be complete. Eliminating clone plants for research. Whole plants can be
slightly deleterious mutations through inbreeding obtained by culturing small pieces of tissue from the
under moderate selection is not as effective. Fixation parent plant on an artificial medium containing
nutrients and hormones. The cells or tissues can

come from any part of a plant, but growth may vary
depending on the plant part, species and artificial
(iii) The technique of obtaining large number plantlets
medium. In some media, the cultured cells divide and
through tissue culture is
form a callus of undifferentiated totipotent cells.
When the concentrations of hormones and nutrients (a) Micropropagation
are manipulated appropriately, a callus can sprout (b) Macropropagation
shoots and roots with fully differentiated cells. If (c) Organ culture
desired, the plantlets can then be transferred to soil, (d) Plantlet culture
where they continue their growth. A single plant can
(iv) Plants obtained through tissue culture are genetically
be cloned into thousands of copies by dividing
identical and they are obtained by somatic cells.
calluses as they grow.
These offsprings are called
(i) Inherent capacity of a cell to regenerate whole
(a) Somaclones
organism is called
(b) Monoclones
(a) Totipotency
(c) Somatic hybrids
(b) Ontogeny
(d) Cross hybrids
(c) Phylogeny
(d) Proliferation
(ii) Somatic embryo can be developed in plant tissue
culture from
(a) a somatic cell
(b) single germ line cell
(c) any type of fertilized cell
(d) anthers
23. State the importance of biofortification. 36. Name any two diseases the ‘Himgiri’ variety of
(AI 2011) wheat is resistant to. (AI 2013)
24. IARI has released several varieties of crop plants that 37. How can healthy potato plants be obtained from a
are biofortified. List three examples of such crops desired potato variety which is viral infected?
and their biofortification. (Foreign 2011) Explain. (Delhi 2014)
25. How can crop varieties be made disease resistant to OR
overcome the food crises in India? Name one A potato plant is infected with a virus. Name and
disease-resistant variety in India of (i) Wheat to leaf explain a method to obtain virus-free potato plants
and stripe rust (ii) Brassica to white rust. from it. (2014C)
(Delhi 2011)
38. List two steps that are essential for carrying out
26. Mention the property of plant cells that has helped
artificial hybridization in crop plants and why?
them to grow into a new plant in vitro. Explain the
advantages of micropropagation. (Delhi 2011) (Foreign 2014)
27. Scientists have succeeded in recovering healthy 39. What is ‘biofortification’? Write its importance.
sugarcane plants from a diseased one. Mention the contribution of the Indian Agricultural
Research Institute towards it with the help of two
(i) Name the part of the plant used as explant by
scientists. examples. (Foreign 2014)
(ii) Describe the procedure the scientists followed to 40. Suggest and describe a technique through which a
recover the healthy parts. virus-free healthy plant can be obtained from a
(iii) Name the technology used for crop diseased sugarcane plant. (2014 c)
improvement. (AI 2011) 41. With advancements in genetics, molecular biology,
28. Name the following (i) The semi-dwarf variety of and tissue culture, new traits have been incorporated
wheat, which is high-yielding and disease resistant. into crop plants. Explain the main steps in breeding a
(ii) Any one interspecific hybrid mammal. new genetic variety of a crop. (AI 2014)
(Delhi 2012) 42. (i) Name the technology that has helped scientists
29. Write the names of the semi-dwarf and high-yielding to propagate on a large scale the desired crops in
rice varieties developed in India after 1966. a short duration. List the steps carried out to
(Delhi 2012) propagate the crops by the said technique.
30. Why is the South Indian sugarcane preferred by (ii) How are somatic hybrids obtained?
agriculturists? (Foreign 2012) (Delhi 2014)
31. How does culturing of Spirulina solve the food 43. Explain the advantage of cross-breeding of two
problems of the growing population? (Foreign 2012) species of sugarcane in India. (Delhi 2011)
32. How is it possible to recover healthy banana plants 44. A herd of cattle is showing reduced fertility and
from a diseased but desirable quality banana plant? productivity. Provide one reason and one suggestion
Explain. (Foreign 2012) to overcome this problem. (AI 2017)
33. How are biofortified maize and wheat considered 45. Mention the role of genetic mother in MOET.
nutritionally improved? (Foreign 2012) (AI 2016)
34. (i) Name the Indian scientist, whose efforts brought 46. Suggest the breeding method most suitable for
‘Green Revolution in India’. animals that are below average in milk productivity.
(ii) Mention the steps that are essentially carried out (AI 2016)
in developing a new genetic variety of crop
47. Mention the economic value of Apis indica.
under plant breeding programme.
(Foreign 2012) (Delhi 2015C)
35. Name the prominent South Indian and North Indian 48. Give two reasons for keeping beehives in crop fields
species of sugarcane used for cross breeding. List the during the flowering period. (Delhi 2016C)
desired qualities of the hybrid that can be obtained 49. Differentiate between outbreeding and outcrossing.
from this cross. (Delhi 2013C) (Foreign 2015)
116 MICROBES IN HUMAN WELFARE
10
MICROBES IN HUMAN WELFARE
MICROBES IN HUMAN WELFARE 117
Chapter 10
Microbes in Human Welfare
Chapter at a Glance
● Microbes or microorganisms are small which are not visible to the naked eye because they have a size of 0.1 mm or less.
They can therefore be seen only under the microscope.
● Microbes are seen everywhere inside the soil, in all types of waters, in air, on dust particles, inside and outside our body
as well as in plants and animals. They even occur in inhospitable environments where no other life form exists like in
snow. In thermal vents or inside geysers (at temperature of 100 C), deep inside soil, highly acidic soil.
● Microbes belong to a diverse group of organisms like bacteria, protozoa, fungi and microscopic plants. Most of these
microbes can grow in nutritive media where they form colonies- bacteria and fungi. The colonies can be seen with naked
eye. They are useful in the study of various aspects of microorganisms.
● Some other types of microorganisms are viruses, viroids and prions.

16. Differentiate between primary sludge and activated
Section–A (1 Mark Questions)
sludge.
1. Name two alcoholic drinks produced in each of the
17. Name the bacteria which is used as a clot buster.
following ways.
Mention about its mode of action.
(i) By distillation
18. For the execution of massive volumes of waste
(ii) Without distillation. waters rich in organic matter, why is aerobic
2. What are statins? Name the microorganism that degradation more important than anaerobic
produces this substance. How is it medically important? degradation?
3. How do mycorrhizae function as biofertilizers? 19. Write a short note on Baculovirus.
Explain with examples. 20. (a) What is the consequence of discharging larger
4. Give any two microbes that are useful in volumes of sewage that is untreated into
biotechnology. a river?
5. Name (b) What is the significance of anaerobic sludge
(i) an immune immunosuppressive agent. digestion in sewage treatment?
(ii) microbe used in production of swiss cheese 21. Fill all the blanks mentioned in the table below.
S. Name of Commercial
Use
No. organism product
Penicillium
6. How was penicillin discovered? 1. Penicillin (a)
notatum
7. What is the chemical nature of biogas? Name an
2. (b) Lactic acid Making curd
organism which is involved in biogas production?
8. What are biofertilizers? Give two examples. Clot buster
3. Streptococcus (c)
enzyme
9. Why are cyanobacteria considered useful in paddy
Immunosup
fields? Trichoderma
4. (d) pressive
10. Why are flocs important in biological treatment of polysporum
agent
waste water? Saccharomyces
5. Ethanol (e)
OR cerevisiae
10. What roles do enzymes play in detergents that we use Food
6. (f) Swiss cheese
for washing clothes? Are these enzymes produced product
from some unique microorganisms? 22. What is a biochemical$ oxygen demand test? At
what stage of sewage treatment, this test is
performed? The BOD level of three samples of water
Section–C (3 Mark Questions)
30 mg/l, 10 mg/l and 500mg/l respectively. Which
11. What is sewage? In which way can this be harmful? sample of water is most polluted?
12. Why are biofertilizers or biopesticides preferred to OR
chemical fertilizers or pesticides?
22. Give reasons for the following.
13. How is lactic acid bacteria beneficial for humans?
(a) Secondary treatment is also called biological
14. Write a short note on : treatment.
(a) Single cell protein (b) Fruit juice in bottles brought from the market is
(b) Toddy clearer than home made juice.
15. What is the role of microbes in reducing (c) Distillation is required for the production of
environmental degradation caused by chemicals? some alcohol drinks
Section–D (4 Mark Questions) Section–E (5 Mark Questions)

23. Rohan's neighbour suffered from kidney failure and 24. Describe the procedure involved in sewage treatment.
his life was in danger. Doctors advised him to get OR
kidney transplanted immediately. His friend Soham 24. Discuss the main ideologies crucial in the biological
was willing to donate one of his kidneys but he was control of diseases and pests.
in dilemma due to low success rate as a result of the
25. Draw a well labeled diagram and explain biogas
immune reaction. He expressed her fear to a doctor
plants briefly.
who removed his doubts by telling her about the
OR
availability of immunosuppressive agents. Read the
above passage and answer the following questions: 25. Write a short note on
(i) What are immunosuppressive agents? (a) Ganga Action Plan
(ii) Name one immunosuppressive agent and its (b) Bacillus thuringiensis
source.
(iii) What value is displayed by the doctor?

Section–A (Single Choice Questions) 9. Trichoderma harzianum has proved to be a useful
microorganism for
1. Mycorrhiza does not help the host plant in
(a) Gene transfer in higher plants
(a) Enhancing its phosphorus uptake capacity
(b) Biological control of soil-borne plant pathogens
(b) Increasing its tolerance to drought
(c) Bioremediation of contaminated soils
(c) Enhancing its resistance to root pathogens
(d) Reclamation of wastelands
(d) Increasing its resistance to insects
10. What would happen if oxygen availability to
2. Methanogenic bacteria are not found in the
activated sludge flocs is reduced?
(a) Bottom of water-logged paddy field
(a) It will slow down the rate of degradation of
(b) Activated sludge organic matter
(c) Gobar gas plant (b) The center of flocs will become anoxic, which
(d) Rumen of cattle would cause death of bacteria and eventually
3. The vitamin whose content increases following the breakage of flocs.
conversion of milk into curd by lactic acid bacteria is (c) Flocs would increase in size as anaerobic bacteria
(a) Vitamin C (b) Vitamin D would grow around flocs.
(c) Vitamin B12 (d) Vitamin E (d) Protozoa would grow in large numbers.
4. Which of the following antibiotics was extensively 11. Activated sludge should have the ability to settle
used to treat American soldiers wounded in World quickly so that it can:
War II? (a) be rapidly pumped back from sedimentation tank
(a) Neomycin (b) Bacitracin to aeration tank
(c) Chloramphenicol (d) Penicillin (b) absorb pathogenic bacteria present in wastewater
5. Physical removal of large and small particles from the while sinking to the bottom of the settling tank
sewage through filtration and sedimentation is called (c) be discarded and anaerobically digested
(a) Primary treatment (d) absorb colloidal organic matter.
(b) Secondary treatment 12. The technology of biogas production from cow dung
(c) Tertiary treatment was developed in India largely due to the efforts
(d) Quaternary treatment (a) Gas Authority of India
6. The greater BOD of wastewater (b) Oil and Natural Gas Commission
(a) Increases oxygen content of water (c) Indian Agricultural Research Institute and Khadi
(b) Decreases oxygen content of water &Village Industries Commission
(c) Relates the decrease of temperature of water (d) Indian Oil Corporation
(d) All of these 13. ____ produced by the bacteria Streptococcus and
7. During anaerobic digestion of organic waste, such as modified by genetic engineering is used as a clot
in producing biogas, which one of the following is buster for removing clots from the blood vessels of
left undegraded? patients who have undergone myocardial infarction
(a) Hemi-cellulose (b) Lignin leading to heart attack.
(c) Lipids (d) Cellulose (a) Lipase
8. Holes in Swiss cheese are due to the metabolic action (b)Streptokinase
of (c) Cyclosporin A
(a) Lactobacillus sp. (d)Antibiotic streptomycin
(b) Propionibacterium shermanii 14. Wine and beer are produced directly by fermentation
(c) Bifidobacterium bifidum whereas brandy and whisky require both
(d) Saccharomyces cerevisiae fermentation and distillation. This is because
(a) Fermentation is inhibited at an alcohol level of (a) Ladybird and dragonflies are used to get rid of
10- 18 % aphids and mosquitoes respectively.
(b) Distillation prolongs storage (b) Bacillus thuringiensis bacteria are used to control
(c) Distillation improves quality butterfly caterpillars.
(d) Distillation purifies the beverage (c) Trichoderma species are used to control several
plant pathogens.
15. The insecticidal Cry protein is found in
(d) All of these
(a) Spores of Trichoderma
(b) Spores of Bacillus thuringiensis
(c) Baculoviruses Section–B
(d) Aphids (Assertion & Reason Type Questions)
16. Methanogens, growing anaerobically on cellulosic 21. Assertion: Besides curdling of milk, LAB also
material, produce; improve its nutritional quality by increasing vitamin-
(a) Methane B12.
(b)Methane and carbon dioxide Reason: LAB, when present in the human stomach,
check disease causing microbes.
(c) Methane and hydrogen
(a) If Both Assertion and Reason are true, and the
(d)Methane, carbon dioxide and hydrogen
17. Infestation by aphids and mosquitoes can be taken
(b) If Both Assertion and Reason are true, but the
care by
(a) Spores of B. thuringiensis Assertion
(b) Trichoderma (c) If Assertion is true, but Reason is false
(c) Baculoviruses (d) If Both Assertion and Reason are false
(d) Dragonflies and Ladybird beetles 22. Assertion: Yeasts such as Saccharomyces cerevisiae
18. Match Column-I with Column-Il and select the are used in baking industry.
correct answer from the codes given below. Reason: Carbon dioxide produced during
Column-I Column-II fermentation causes bread dough to rise by thermal
expansion.
A. Methanogens (i) BOD
B. Fermenters (ii) Methane rich fuel gas Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion
Organic waste Production of (b) If Both Assertion and Reason are true, but the
C. (iii)
in water methane Reason is not the correct explanation of the
Large vessels for Assertion
D. Biogas (iv) (c) If Assertion is true, but Reason is false
growing microbes
(d) If Both Assertion and Reason are false
(a) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(iii), D-(i)
23. Assertion: Secondary treatment of sewage is also
(b) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(i) called biological treatment while primary treatment is
(c) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(iii) called physical treatment.
(d) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(ii) Reason: Primary sewage treatment depends only
19. Microbes which act as biofertilizers are upon sedimentation properties of materials present in
(a) Free-living nitrogen fixing bacteria-Rhizobium sewage and filtration.
(b) Free-living nitrogen fixing bacteria-Azospirillum (a) If Both Assertion and Reason are true, and the
(c) Mycorrhiza formed by the algae of the genus Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion
Glomus (b) If Both Assertion and Reason are true, but the
(d) Root nodule bacteria-Azotobacter fix Reason is not the correct explanation of the
atmospheric nitrogen in paddy fields Assertion
20. Which of the following statements is correct with (c) If Assertion is true, but Reason is false
regard to biocontrol agents? (d) If Both Assertion and Reason are false
24. Assertion: Penicillin is one of the most significant Section–C (Case Study Questions)
discoveries of the twentieth century that greatly
Case Study – 1
contributed towards the welfare of human society.
28. Microbes are used to synthesize a number of
Reason: Statin is a commercial blood cholesterol
products valuable to human beings.
lowering agent.
Beverages and antibiotics are some examples.
Production on an industrial scale, requires growing
Reason is the correct explanation of the
microbes in very large vessels called fermenters.
Assertion
Microbes especially yeasts have been used from time
(b) If Both Assertion and Reason are true, but the immemorial for the production of beverages like
Reason is not the correct explanation of the wine, beer, whisky, brandy or rum. Antibiotics
Assertion produced by microbes are regarded as one of the
(c) If Assertion is true, but Reason is false most significant discoveries of the twentieth century
(d) If Both Assertion and Reason are false and have greatly contributed towards the welfare of
25. Assertion: Energy value of biogas is lower than that the human society. Microbes are also used for
if organic matter. commercial and industrial production of certain
chemicals like organic acids, alcohols and enzymes.
Reason: Biogas minuses the chances of spread of
leaf pathogens. (i) The distillation of the fermented broth is required in
the formation of
(a) If Both assertion and reason are true and reason is
the correct explanation of assertion A. rum
(b) If Both assertion and reason are true but reason is B. beer
not the correct explanation of assertion C. brandy
(c) If Assertion is true but reason is false D. whisky
(d) If Both assertion and reason are false (a) A, B, C
26. Assertion: Dragonflies can be used to decrease (b) A, C, D
occurs of diseases like malaria, dengue, etc. (c) B, C, D
Reason: Baculoviruses are effective in controlling (d) A, B, D
may insects and other arthropods. (ii) Citric acid is produced by
(a) If Both assertion and reason are true and reason is (a) Clostridium (b) Aspergillus niger
the correct explanation of assertion (c) Acetobacter (d) Lactobacillus
(b) If Both assertion and reason are true but reason is (iii) Select the mismatch:
not the correct explanation of assertion
(a) Monascus purpureus - Statins
(c) If Assertion is true but reason is false
(b) Trichoderma polysporum - Cyclosporin-A
(d) If Both assertion and reason are false
(c) Clostridium butylicum - Citric acid
27. Assertion: Nitrogenase enzyme gets inactivated in
(d) Streptococci – Streptokinase
presence of oxygen yet N2 fixation occurs in aerobic
(iv) Read the following four statements (I – IV), find out
cells of legume nodules.
certain mistakes in two of them.
Reason: Leghaemoglobin allows presence of oxygen
I. In our stomach lactic acid bacteria play beneficial
just sufficient for cellular respiration only.
role by checking growth of disease causing
(a) If Both assertion and reason are true and reason is
microbes.
the correct explanation of assertion
II. Lactic acid bacteria produce acid that coagulates
(b) If Both assertion and reason are true but reason is
and completely digests the milk protein.
III. Lactic acid bacteria improve the nutritional
(c) If Assertion is true but reason is false
quality by increasing the amount of Riboflavin
(d) If Both assertion and reason are false (vit B2)
IV. Lactic acid bacteria require a suitable temperature
for their multiplication.
Which of the above two statements are not correct? (iv) Biofertilizers are the organisms
(a) Statements I and II (a) That enrich the nutrient quantity of soil
(b) Statement I and III (b) That reduce the nutrient quantity of soil
(c) Statement II and III (c) That enrich the nutrient quality of soil
(d) Statements II and IV (d) That enrich the nutrient specificity of soil
Case Type-2 Case Type-3

29. Biocontrol refers to the use of biological methods for 30. We know that large quantities of waste water are
controlling plant diseases and pests. generated every day in cities and towns. A major
In agriculture, there is a method of controlling pests component of this waste water is human excreta. This
that relies on natural predation rather than introduced municipal waste-water is also called sewage. It
chemicals. An example of microbial biocontrol contains large amounts of organic matter and
agents that can be introduced in order to control microbes. Many of which are pathogenic. This
butterfly caterpillars is the bacteria Bacillus cannot be discharged into natural water bodies like
thuringiensis. A biological control being developed rivers and streams directly – you can understand
for use in the treatment of plant disease is the fungus why. Before disposal, hence, sewage is treated in
Trichoderma. Some viruses belonging to sewage treatment plants (STPs) to make it less
Baculoviruses are used to attack insects and other polluting.
arthropods. (i) Wastewater treatment generates a large quantity of
(i) Which of the following statements is incorrect? sludge, which can be treated by
(a) Trichoderma is free living fungi, present in root (a) Anaerobic digesters
ecosystem acts as biocontrol agent (b) Activated sludge
(b) Genus of baculoviruses is species group-specific (c) Chemicals
broad spectrum insecticide (d) Oxidation pond
(c) All harmful insect pests should be kept at (ii) Treatment of wastewater is done by the
manageable level as it furthers biodiversity (a) Autotrophic microbes
(d) Ladybird and Dragonflies are used as biocontrol (b) Heterotrophic microbes
agent
(c) Chemoautotrophic microbes
(ii) Biological Pest Control methods are more preferably
used because
(iii) Secondary sewage treatment is mainly a
(a) Chemical pesticides are discriminate
(a) Chemical process
(b) Predators work through check and balance
(b) Mechanical process
(c) Predators are indiscriminate
(c) Biological process
(d) All of above
(d) Physical process
(iii) Match the items in Column ‘A’ and Column ‘B’ and
(iv) Flocs are formed in _____ during sewage treatment.
choose the correct answer:
(a) Anaerobic sludge digester
Column A Column B
(b) Aeration tank
(a) Column A – Ladybird;
(c) Settling tank
Column B – Methanobacterium
(b) Column A – Mycorrhiza;
Column B – Trichoderma
(c) Column A – Sewage treatment;
Column B – Aphids
(d) Column A – Biogas;
Column B – Glomus
126 BIOTECHNOLOGY: PRINCIPLES AND PROCESSES
11
BIOTECHNOLOGY: PRINCIPLES AND
PROCESSES
BIOTECHNOLOGY: PRINCIPLES AND PROCESSES 12
7
Chapter 11
Biotechnology: Principles and Processes
Chapter at a Glance
128 BIOTECHNOLOGY PRINCIPLES AND PROCESSES

SectionA (1 Mark Questions) 14. Since DNA is a hydrophilic molecule, it cannot pass
through cell membranes. Answer the following
1. What are the three steps in a polymerase chain
questions.
reaction?
(i) Why DNA is a hydrophilic molecule?
2. R restriction enzymes belong to which class of
enzymes? (ii) Name and explain the technique with which the
DNA is forced into a bacterial cell, a plant cell
3. Answer the following questions.
and an animal cell.
a. Source organism of enzyme Taq polymerase
15. What is “Insertional Inactivation”?
b. The sequence from where replication starts
16. Observe the given sequence of nitrogenous bases on
4. Name a technique which is associated with DNA a DNA fragment and answer the following questions:
amplification.
5´ - CAGAATTCTTA - 3´
5. Name the process through which a piece of DNA is
3´ - GTCTTAAGAAT - 5´
introduced in a host bacterium.
(i) Name a restriction enzyme which can recognize
this DNA sequence.
SectionB (2 Mark Questions) (ii) Why are the ends generated after digestion called
6. Mention two classes of restriction enzymes. Write sticky ends?
about their respective roles. 17. Answer the following questions.
7. Answer the following questions. (i) What do you understand by bioreactors. Give
(i) Why are proteases added while isolating the optimum growth conditions used in bioreactors.
DNA? (ii) How does a simple stirred tank bioreactor differ
(ii) Name the cell wall degrading enzyme which is from sparged stirred tank’ bioreactor?
necessary while isolating the DNA from yeast. 18. (i) Mention any three vector-less methods that are
8. What do “Eco”, “R” and “I” refer to in the enzyme used to introduce recombinant DNA into a
EcoRI? competent host cell.
9. Answer the following questions. 19. What do you understand by downstream processing?
(i) Give an example of vector used for cloning 20. (i) Why do we use ethidium bromide during gel
genes in plants and animals respectively. electrophoresis?
(ii) What steps are involved in genetic modification (ii) A mixture of the fragmented DNA was run on an
of an organism. agarose gel. The gel was stained with ethidium
10. What is Genetic engineering? bromide, but no bands were observed. What
would be the cause?
OR
21. In the vector pBR322, a foreign DNA is ligated at the
10. What modification is done on the Ti plasmid of
site of tetracycline resistance gene. Answer the
Agrobacterium tumefaciens to convert it into a
following questions:
cloning vector?
(i) Mention the function of ‘rop’ in pBR322 cloning
vector.
SectionC (3 Mark Questions) (ii) What will be the selectable marker for this
11. Write a short on biotechnology. recombinant plasmid and why?
12. How does plasmid differ from chromosomal DNA? OR
13. What are the two basic techniques involved in What are the advantages of Stirred tank Bioreactor
modern biotechnology? over Shake flask? Show diagrammatically a simple
Stirred tank Bioreactor?
BIOTECHNOLOGY PRINCIPLES AND PROCESSES 129
22. Why is Agrobacterium mediated genetic SectionE (5 Mark Questions)

transformation described as Natural Genetic
24. (i) Describe the various steps involved in
engineering in plants?
Recombinant DNA technology with the help of a
well labelled diagram?
SectionD (4 Mark Questions) (ii) Draw neat and well labelled diagram of a
cloning vector.
23. Restriction enzymes that are used in the construction
of recombinant DNA are endonucleases which cut OR
the DNA at ‘specific-recognition sequence’. (i) Mention the important properties which a good
(i) What would happen if the restriction enzymes do vector must possess.
not cut the DNA at specific recognition (ii) Mention the important tools required for genetic
sequences? engineering.
(ii) Can exonuclease be used while producing a 25. (i) What are restriction enzymes and why do
recombinant DNA molecule? bacteria have these enzymes.
(ii) Show diagrammatically a restriction
endonuclease enzyme, its recognition site and
the product it produces?
OR
Expand PCR? Describe the different steps involved
in this technique.

Section–A (Single Choice Questions) 9. The technique in which foreign DNA is precipitated
over surface of metal particles for passing into target
1. Among the following, select the tools of recombinant
cells is
DNA technology
(a) Microinjection
A. Restriction enzymes
B. Polymerase enzymes (b) Electroporation
C. Ligases (c) Particle gun
D. Vectors (d) Chemical mediated gene transfer
E. Host organisms 10. The procedure through which a piece of DNA is
(a) A, B, C, D and E (b) A, C, D and E introduced in a host bacterium is called
(c) A, B, C and D (d) A, B, C and E (a) Translation (b) Transcription
2. An enzyme that joins the ends of two fragments of (c) Transformation (d) Translocation
nucleic acid is 11. Isolation of DNA from a fungal cell involves the use
(a) Polymerase (b) Ligase of enzyme
(c) Synthetase (d) Helicase (a) Chitinase (b) Lysozyme
3. The enzymes commonly used in genetic engineering (c) EcoRI (d) HindII
are: 12. Which of the following enzymes is NOT required
(a) Restriction endonuclease and dehydrogenase during the isolation of DNA from a cell?
(b) Restriction endonuclease and ligase (a) Ligase (b) Lysozyme
(c) Hydrolases and ligase (c) Chitinase (d) Cellulase
(d) Ligase and isomerase 13. Purified DNA ultimately precipitates after the
4. Type of sticky ends produced by the action of the addition of chilled ethanol. This DNA that separates
EcoRI is out can be removed by
(a) GAATTC (b) CTTAA (a) Electrophoresis
(c) ATTCA (d) TTAA (b) Downstream processing
5. _____, a crown gall bacterium, is called as ‘natural (c) PCR
genetic engineer’ of plants. (d) Spooling
(a) Escherichia coli 14. Match column-I (enzyme) with column-II
(b) Streptococcus (Characteristic/activity) and select the correct answer
(c) Agrobacterium tumefaciens from codes given below.
(d) Bacillus Column-I Column-II
6. Which of the following is a plasmid? A. DNA (i) Cleaves the ends of
(a) HindII (b) pBR322 polymerase linear DNA
(c) EcoRI (d) Both a and c B. Exonuclease (ii) Breakdown of fungal
7. Vector for T-DNA is cell membrane
(a) Salmonella typhimurium C. Protease (iii) Replication of DNA
(b) Thermus aquaticus D. Chitinase (iv) Made only by
(c) Agrobacterium tumefaciens eukaryotic cells
(d) Escherichia coli (v) Degradation of
8. An antibiotic resistance gene in a vector usually helps proteins
in the selection of (a) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(ii)
(a) Transformed cells (b) Non-transformed cells (b) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(ii)
(c) Competent cells (d) Non-recombinant cells (c) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(v), D-(iii)
(d) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(v), D-(ii)
15. A recombinant DNA molecule can be produced in (b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is
the absence of: not the correct explanation of assertion.
(a) E. coli (c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(b) DNA ligase (d) If both assertion and reason are false.
(c) DNA fragments 22. Assertion: Genetic engineering requires both
(d) Restriction endonuclease nucleases and ligases.
16. PCR stands for: Reason: Ligases produce the nick in the recombinant
(a) Polymerase chain reaction DNA molecule.
(b) Polymer chemical reaction (a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is
the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) Polygraphed criminal rating
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is
(d) Polyploidy chromosome restrictions
not the correct explanation of assertion.
17. During PCR technique the pairing of primers to
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
ssDNA segment is called
(a) Denaturation
23. Assertion: A bacterial cell with no restriction
(b) Annealing
enzymes will be easily infected and lysed by
(c) Polymerisation
bacteriophages.
(d) Isolation
Reason: Restriction enzymes catalyse synthesis of
18. A bioreactor refers to: protective coat around bacterial cell that prevents
(a) Fermentation tank bacteriophage attack.
(b) Tank for chemical reactions (a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is
(c) Organisms reacting to a stimulus the correct explanation of assertion.
(d) Nuclear reactor for biological studies (b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is
19. For a large-scale production of recombinant product, not the correct explanation of assertion.
the most commonly used bioreactors are of (c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(a) Simple type (d) If both assertion and reason are false.
(b) Stirring type 24. Assertion: Restriction enzymes recognize
(c) Both a and b palindromic sequences.
(d) None of the above Reason: Palindromic sequences read same in both
20. After biosynthetic phase, the product is separated and directions of the two strands.
purified by the process called (a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is
(a) Agarose gel electrophoresis the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) PCR (b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is
(c) Downstream processing
(d) Insertional inactivation
25. Assertion: E. coli having pBR322 with DNA insert
Section–B at BamHI site cannot grow in medium containing
(Assertion & Reason Type Questions) tetracycline.
21. Assertion: Asexual reproduction is more important Reason: Recognition site for BamHI is present in
with regard to biotechnology. tetracycline resistance gene region of pBR322.
Reason: Asexual reproduction preserves the genetic (a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is
information while sexual reproduction permits the correct explanation of assertion.
variations. (b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
the correct explanation of assertion. (c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
26. Assertion: Use of chitinase enzyme is necessary for (i) The technique of using live organisms or enzymes
isolation of DNA from yeast cells but not in case of obtained from organisms to produce products and
Spirogyra. processes useful to human is called
Reason: Fungal cell wall is made up of fungal (a) Biopiracy (b) Biotechnology
cellulose or chitin. (c) Biopatent (d) Biodiversity
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is (ii) Which of the following is a biotechnological
the correct explanation of assertion. process?
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is (a) IVF leading to ‘test tube’ baby
not the correct explanation of assertion. (b) Developing a DNA vaccine
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false. (c) Synthesizing a gene and using it
(d) If both assertion and reason are false. (d) All of the above
27. Assertion: PCR primers must not have self- (iii) The core technique that enabled the birth of modern
complementary regions. biotechnology is
Reason: Self complementary regions result in (a) Genetic engineering
hairpin structures adversely affecting the PCR.
(b) Maintenance of sterile ambience in chemical
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is engineering processes to enable growth of only
the correct explanation of assertion. the desired microbe/eukaryotic cell in large
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is quantities for the manufacture of biotechnological
not the correct explanation of assertion. products like antibiotics, vaccines, enzymes, etc.
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false. (c) Both a and b
(d) If both assertion and reason are false. (d) None of the above
28. Assertion: Restriction enzymes cut the strand of (iv) The technique of insertion of a desired gene into the
DNA to produce sticky ends. DNA of a plasmid vector is
Reason: Stickiness of the ends facilitates the action (a) Gene splicing (b) Gene dressing
of the enzyme DNA polymerase. (c) Gene cloning (d) Gene drafting
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is
Case Type-2
In the year 1963, the two enzymes responsible for
restricting the growth of bacteriophage in
(d) If both assertion and reason are false. Escherichia coli were isolated. One of these added
methyl groups to DNA, while the other cut DNA.
Section–C (Case Study Questions) The later was called restriction endonuclease. The
first restriction endonuclease–HindII, whose
Case Study – 1 functioning depended on a specific DNA nucleotide
29. Read the following and answer the questions: sequence was isolated and characterised five years
Biotechnology deals with techniques of using live later. It was found that HindII always cut DNA
organisms or enzymes from organisms to produce molecules at a particular point by recognising a
products and processes useful to humans. In this specific sequence of six base pairs. This specific base
sense, making curd, bread or wine, which are all sequence is known as the recognition sequence for
microbe-mediated processes, could also be thought as HindII. Besides HindII, today we know more than
a form of biotechnology. However, it is used in a 900 restriction enzymes that have been isolated from
restricted sense today, to refer to such of those over 230 strains of bacteria each of which recognise
processes which use genetically modified organisms different recognition sequences.
to achieve the same on a larger scale. Genetic (i) The term ‘chemical knife’ refers to
engineering and Bioprocess engineering are the two (a) Polymerase (b) Endonuclease
core techniques that enabled birth of modern (c) Ribonuclease (d) Cellulase
biotechnology.
(ii) Restriction endonuclease is employed for cutting (i) In a mixture, DNA fragments are separated by
(a) RNA fragments (a) Restriction digestion
(b) mRNA (b) Bioprocess engineering
(c) Protein (c) Electrophoresis
(d) Double stranded DNA (d) Polymerase Chain Reaction
(iii) Bacteria protect themselves from viruses by digesting (ii) Ethidium bromide is used to
viral DNA upon entry with help of:
(a) Separate the DNA during electrophoresis
(a) Ligase
(b) Visualise DNA
(b) Gyrase
(c) Extract the DNA from agarose gel
(c) Exonuclease
(d) Stop DNA replication
(d) Endonuclease
(iii) What is the criterion for DNA fragments movement
(iv) In nature, the function of restriction enzymes is to: on agarose gel during gel electrophoresis?
(a) Cut plasmids (a) The larger the fragment size, the father it moves
(b) Destroy phage DNA (b) The smaller the fragment size, the farther it
(c) Splice DNA in a cell moves
(d) Destroy foreign DNA in animal cells (c) Positively charged fragments move to farther end
(d) Negatively charged fragments do not move
Case Type-3 (iv) DNA fragments are
31. Read the following and answer the questions: (a) Neutral
In recombinant DNA technology, the fragments of (b) Positively charged
DNA generated after cutting the DNA by restriction (c) Negatively charged
enzymes are separated according to their size or (d) Positively charged depending on size
length by gel electrophoresis. Gel electrophoresis is
performed in a gel matrix so that molecules of similar
electric charges can be separated on the basis of size.
Most commonly used matrix in gel electrophoresis is
agarose. The fragments are separated under the
influence of electric field. The separated DNA
fragments can be seen only after staining the DNA
with compound known as ethidium bromide (EtBr)
followed by exposure to UV radiation as bright
orange band.
138 BIOTECHNOLOGY AND ITS APPLICATIONS
12
BIOTECHNOLOGY AND ITS
APPLICATIONS
BIOTECHNOLOGY AND ITS APPLICATIONS 139
Chapter 12
Biotechnology and its Applications
Chapter at a Glance

SectionA (1 Mark Questions) 16. What are the disadvantages of GMO?
1. ADA is an enzyme which is crucial for the immune 17. How did the process of RNA interference help to
system to function. What is the full form of ADA? control the nematode from infecting the roots of
2. Name a molecular diagnostic technique to detect the tobacco?
presence of a pathogen in its early stage of infection. 18. (i) Write a short note on Golden rice.
3. What does Bt in Bt cotton stands for? 19. How can the gene expression be controlled with the
4. What was the name of first transgenic cow? help of RNA?
5. What does GEAC stands for? 20. Even though green revolution has succeeded in the
production of food supply, yet the farmers prefer to
use genetically modified crops. Why?
SectionB (2 Mark Questions) 21. Explain five areas where biotechnology has
6. What is Biopiracy? influenced human lives.
7. Answer the following questions. OR
(i) For which Indian rice variety was patent filed by 21. What are the drawbacks of the insulin obtained from
a USA company? the slaughtered cows and pigs?
(ii) How are ‘cry’ and ‘CRY’ different from each 22. How is a mature, functional insulin hormone
other? different from its prohormone form?
8. What are the main objectives of GEAC?
9. Name the following questions.
SectionD (4 Mark Questions)
(i) Name the source organism of the gene cryIAc and
23. Is there any alternate method of gene therapy which
its target pest.
an also restore the function of missing of defective
(ii) Name the cry genes that control cotton bollworm
gene? Which in your opinion is a better option? Give
and com borer respectively.
reason for your answer.
10. Why should not the patent on Basmati have gone to
an American company?
OR SectionE (5 Mark Questions)
10. Answer the following questions. 24. (i) Write a short note on transgenic animals.
(i) What are genetically modified organisms (ii) Explain in detail any four areas where transgenic
(GMO)? animals can be utilised.
(ii) Give an example of GMO. OR
24. One of the main objectives of biotechnology is to
minimise the use of insecticides on cultivated crops.
SectionC (3 Mark Questions)
Explain with the help of a suitable example, how
11. Explain the process of synthesis of insulin by Eli insect resistant crops have been developed using
Lilly company. Name the technique used by the techniques of biotechnology.
company.
12. Write a short note on gene therapy? Write a note
25. (i) How PCR can detect very low amounts of DNA.
about its use for the first time.
Explain the utility of PCR for testing HIV in
13. Can insulin be orally administered to diabetic suspected AIDS patient.
people? If not than why?
(ii) Which disease can be detected using ELISA?
14. Why do the toxic insecticidal proteins secreted by Discuss the principle underlying the ELISA.
Bacillus thuringiensis kill the insect and not the
OR
bacteria itself?
25. What are the critical research areas of biotechnology?
15. Answer the following questions.
In view of the current food crisis, it is said, that we
(i) What is insulin? need another green revolution. Highlight the major
(ii) How is insulin different from proinsulin? limitations of the earlier green revolution.

Section–A (Single Choice Questions) 9. The first clinical gene therapy was given for treating:
(a) Chicken pox
1. The bacterium Bacillus thuringiensis is widely used
in contemporary biology as (b) Diabetes mellitus
(a) Source of industrial enzyme (c) Rheumatoid arthritis
(b) Insecticide (d) Adenosine deaminase deficiency
(c) Indicator of water pollution 10. Full form of GMO is
(d) Agent for production of dairy products (a) Genetically mutant organism
2. Natural genetic engineer is (b) Genetically modern organism

(c) Genetically modified organism
(a) Pseudomonas putida
(d) Genetically transferred organism
(b) Agrobacterium tumefaciens
11. Correction of a genetic defect involves the delivery of
(c) Escherichia coli
a normal gene into the individual or embryo to take
(d) Bacillus subtilis
over the function of and compensate for the normal
3. A GM crop is functional gene is called
(a) Irradiated crop (a) Genetic modification (b) Genetic correction
(b) Transgenic crop (c) Gene therapy (d) Bioremediation
(c) Raised on green manure 12. Human insulin produced through microbial factories
(d) A green manure crop does not include the incorporation of gene for
4. The strategy used to prevent nematode infection of (a) A- peptide (b) B-peptide
tobacco roots is (c) C- peptide (d) Both a and b
(a) Use of agrochemicals (b) Bt toxin gene 13. Gene therapy is referred as
(c) Gene mutation (d) RNA interference (a) preclinical testing for the inherited diseases of the
5. Bt toxin is obtained from: newborn
(a) Prokaryotes (b) treatment of diseases caused by genetic defect
(b) Eukaryotes (c) genetic engineering using rDNA technology
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) cancer treatment using in vitro cultured cells
(d) None of these 14. Transgene introduced in the first transgenic cow was
responsible for the production of
6. cry genes introduced in a plant will not be effective
against (a) Albumin enriched milk
(a) Lepidoptera (b) Hymenoptera (b) Protein enriched milk
(c) Coleoptera (d) Rodents (c) Human protein enriched milk
7. Silencing of RNA through RNA interference is done (d) Vitamins enriched milk
to prevent infestation by 15. A regulatory body working for the release of
(a) Insect pests transgenic crop is
(b) Fungal species (a) ICWMI (b) IARI
(c) Nematodes like Meloidogyne incognita (c) IRRI (d) GEAC

16. A monopoly granted to a person who has either
(d) Bacterial species like Agrobacterium sp.
invented a new and useful article, made improvement
8. Golden rice is yellow in colour due to the presence of
in an existing article or invented a new process of
(a) Riboflavin making an article is called
(b) b-carotene (a) Biopiracy (b) Bioethics
(c) Vitamin B1 (c) Patent (d) Genetic modification
(d) Complex genetic material.
17. Which Indian plants have either been patented or (a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is
attempts have been made to patent them by western the correct explanation of assertion.
nations for their commercial use? (b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is
(a) Basmati rice not the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Turmeric (c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(c) Neem (d) If both assertion and reason are false.
(d) All of these have been targeted 23. Assertion: Human insulin can be produced into
18. Bt toxin gene has been cloned from the bacteria and bacterial cells using biotechnology.
expressed in plants to provide resistance to insects Reason: To produce human insulin the A, B and C
without the need for insecticides. Examples of such polypeptides of the human insulin are produced
plants are separately in the bacterial cells, extracted and
(a) Cotton and corn combined by creating disulphide bonds.
(b) Rice and potato (a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is
(c) Tomato and soybean the correct explanation of assertion.
(d) All of these (b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is
19. Silencing of mRNA has been used in the
development of plants resistant to (c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(a) Viruses (b) Insects (d) If both assertion and reason are false.
(c) Fungi (d) Nematodes 24. Assertion: The first clinical gene therapy was given
to a little girl for adenosine deaminase (ADA)
20. Which of the following is not a benefit of transgenic
deficiency, an enzyme crucial for the immune system
animals?
to function.
(a) Investigation of new treatments for diseases
Reason: The normal gene was delivered into the
(b) Early detection of diseases
patient’s cells using retroviral vector.
(c) Testing the safety of vaccines
(d) To produce useful biological products the correct explanation of assertion.
Section–B not the correct explanation of assertion.
21. Assertion: Green revolution was comparatively less
effective in developing world where farmers were 25. Assertion: Biotechnology produces transgenic
dependent on conventional breeding. organisms that function as micro factories for
proteins.
Reason: In developing world, inability to buy
expensive agro chemicals forced farmers to rely on Reason: Transgenic microorganisms can be
conventional breeding. developed to produce proteins of human use like
insulin.
the correct explanation of assertion. (a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is
not the correct explanation of assertion. (b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is
22. Assertion: ‘Cry’ proteins are named so because they
are crystalline proteins. 26. Assertion: Organisations like GEAC are necessary
to monitor GM research and test the safety of
Reason: ‘Cry’ proteins are solubilized in acidic
introducing GM organisms for public services.
environment of insect midgut and then release toxic
core fragments above proteolytic action
Reason: GM research can have unpredictable which (i) Agro chemical-based agriculture includes
even can be disastrous when genetically modified (a) Fertilizers and pesticides
organisms are introduced into the ecosystem.
(b) Genetically modified crops
(c) RNA interference
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is (d) All of these.
not the correct explanation of assertion. (ii) Green revolution resulted in the great increase in
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false. production of food grains due to:
(d) If both assertion and reason are false. (a) Introduction of high-yielding varieties
27. Assertion: Tobacco plant yield is highly reduced (b) Use of pesticides to better management
because of damage to roots. techniques
Reason: Nematode Meloidegyne incognitia infects (c) Use of agrochemicals
the tobacco roots.
(iii) Which of the following statements is not correct
regarding the genetic modification of crops?
not the correct explanation of assertion. (a) It makes the crops more tolerant to abiotic
stresses.
(c) If the assertion is true but the reason is false.
(b) It results in decreased efficiency of mineral usage
by plants.
28. Assertion: Transgenic plant production is an
application of plant tissue culture. (c) It helps to reduce post-harvest losses.
Reason: An organism that contains and express a (d) It enhances the nutritional value of food.
transgene is called transgenic organism. (iv) All of the given options are the biotechnological
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is applications in order to increase food production
the correct explanation of assertion. except
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is (a) Apiculture
not the correct explanation of assertion. (b) Agro chemical-based agriculture
(c) If the assertion is true but the reason is false.
(c) Organic farming
(d) Genetically engineered crop-based agriculture.
Section–C (Case Study Questions)

Case Type-2
Case Study – 1
Plants having foreign genes in their genome through
Biotechnology essentially deals with industrial scale
production of biopharmaceuticals and biologicals genetic engineering are called transgenic plants.
using genetically modified microbes, fungi, plants Genes can be incorporated either through a vector or
and animals. The applications of biotechnology through direct introduction of DNA. Bt cotton is a
include therapeutics, diagnostics, genetically genetically modified organism which is pest resistant.
modified crops for agriculture, processed food, It contains gene cryIAc and cryIIAb of Bacillus
bioremediation, waste treatment, and energy thuringiensis. It is used to control lepidopterans,
production. Agro-chemical based agriculture; organic coleopterans and dipterans. Bt cotton can resist
agriculture; and genetically engineered crop-based cotton bollworm and produce higher yields. Cry
agriculture are the option that are used for increasing genes produce cry protein or Bt toxin. It is an
food production. Biotechnological processes have endotoxin which remains as protoxin in plants and
made immense impact in the area of healthcare by converted to active toxin after getting ingested by the
enabling mass production of safe and more effective insects. Activated toxin creates pores to the midgut
therapeutic drugs. wall of the insects which cause them to die.
(i) Bt cotton is not Case Type-3

(a) a GM plant 31. Read the following and answer the questions:
(b) insect resistant Transgenic animals have their DNA manipulated to
(c) a bacterial gene expressing system possess and express an extra gene. The genome of
(d) resistant to all pesticides these animals has been changed and they can carry
(ii) The trigger for activation of toxin of Bacillus genes from other species. The reason behind
thuringiensis is: producing these transgenic animals is for specific
economic traits, some are produced as disease
(a) High temperature
models (animals genetically manipulated to exhibit
(b) Alkaline pH of gut
disease symptoms so that effective treatment can be
(c) Acidic pH of stomach studied).
(d) Mechanical action in the insect gut (i) Human alpha-lactalbumin is a constituent of
(iii) cryIAc and cryIAb produce toxins that control (a) Milk produced by regular cows
(a) Cotton bollworm and corn borer respectively (b) Milk produced by genetically engineered goats
(b) Corn borer and cotton bollworm respectively (c) Milk produced by a transgenic cow
(c) Tobacco budworm and nematode respectively (d) Milk produced by a superior breed of buffalo
(d) Nematode and tobacco budworm respectively (ii) Transgenic animals have been used
(iv) Bt toxins are (a) For testing safety of vaccines
(a) Intracellular lipids (b) For testing toxicity of drugs
(b) Intracellular crystalline proteins (c) To produce useful biological products
(c) Extracellular crystalline proteins (d) All of the above
(d) Intracellular polysaccharides (iii) 95% of the existing transgenic animals are
(a) fish (b) pigs
(c) sheep (d) mice
(iv) The transgenic animals are those which have foreign:
(a) RNA in all its cells
(b) DNA in some of its cells
(c) DNA in all its cells
(d) Both (a) and (c).

1. State the role of C-peptide in human insulin. 16. Name the disease that was first to get the gene
(AI 2014) therapy treatment. Write the cause of the disease and
the effect it has on the patient. (Delhi 2014C)
2. A boy has been diagnosed with ADA (Adenosine
Deaminase) deficiency. Suggest any one possible 17. (i) State the role of DNA ligase in biotechnology.
treatment. (Delhi 2014C) (ii) What happens when Meloidogyne incognita
3. Write the possible source of RNA interference consumes cells with RNAi gene? (Delhi 2012)
(RNAi) gene. (Delhi 2013C) 18. (i) Mention the cause and the body system affected
4. Name any two techniques that serve the purpose of by ADA deficiency in humans.
early diagnosis of some bacterial/viral human (ii) Name the vector used for transferring ADA-
diseases. (Foreign 2011) DNA into the recipient cells in humans. Name
OR the recipient cells. (AI 2012)
4. Name a molecular diagnostic technique to detect the 19. Explain how a hereditary disease can be corrected.
presence of a pathogen in its early stage of infection. Give an example of the first successful attempt made
(Delhi 2010) towards correction of such disease? (Delhi 2011)
5. How does ds RNA gain entry into eukaryotic cells to OR
cause RNA interference? (Delhi 2011C) How is gene therapy being used in treating ADA
6. Name the source organism of the gene cryIAc and its deficiency patients? (AI 2008C)
target pest. (Foreign 2011) 20. How does recombinant DNA technology help in
7. What is the host called that produces a foreign gene detecting the presence of mutant genes in cancer
product? What is this product called? (Foreign 2010) patients? (AI 2011C)
8. Name the cry genes that control cotton bollworm and 21. Explain the process of RNA interference.
com borer respectively. (AI 2009c) (Delhi 2011)
9. What is the significance of the process of RNA 22. Why is the introduction of genetically engineered
interference (RNAi) in eukaryotic organisms? lymphocytes into an ADA deficiency patient not a
(Foreign 2008) permanent cure? Suggest a possible permanent cure.
(Delhi 2010)
10. How does silencing of specific mRNA in RNA
interference prevent parasitic infection? 23. What are transgenic animals? Give an example
(Delhi 2008C) (AI 2016)
11. How are tobacco plants benefited when nematode 24. What are cry genes? In which organisms are they
specific genes are introduced into them using certain present? (AI 2017)
vectors? Name the vector used. (Delhi 2008C) 25. Suggest any two possible treatments that can be
12. State how Agrobacterium tumefaciens have been given to patient exhibiting adenosine deaminase
made as a useful cloning vector to transfer DNA to deficiency. (Delhi 2015)
plant Cells. (Delhi 2014) 26. Why do children cured by enzyme replacement
13. What do ‘cry genes’ in Bacillus thuringiensis code therapy for adenosine deaminase deficiency need
for? State its importance for the cotton crop. periodic treatment. (AI 2015)
(AI 2014C) 27. Name the source used to produce hepatitis-B vaccine
14. Human insulin when synthesized in the body needs using rDNA technology. (Delhi 2015C)
to be processed before it can act. Explain giving 28. Write the functions of:
reasons. (Delhi 2014C) (i) cryIAc gene
15. Write any two ways how genetically modified plants (ii) RNA interference (RNAi) (AI 2015C)
are found to be useful? (AI 2014C)
29. Describe any three potential applications of
genetically modified plants. (AI 2015)
ORGANISMS AND POPULATIONS 147
13
ORGANISMS AND POPULATIONS
148 ORGANISMS AND POPULATIONS
Chapter 13
Organisms and Populations
Chapter at a Glance
i. What is the name given to curves (a) & (b)? 25. Orchid flower, Ophrys co-evolves to maintain a
ii. Write the equations for curves ‘a’ and ‘b’. resemblance of its petal to female bee. Explain how
iii. What is the status of food & space in the curves and why does it do so?
(a) & (b)? OR
iv. In absence of predators, which curve “a” or “b” 25. i. Explain the following.
would appropriately depict the prey Population? a) Principle of competitive exclusion
Why? b) Resource Partitioning
v. When does curve ‘b’ change into curve ‘a’? ii. Why predators are prudent in nature?
OR
24. Differentiate between regulators and conformers?
Why do small animals do not show regulations?

Section–A (Single Choice Questions) (a) i-1, ii-2, iii-3
1. The average temperature on land varies (b) i-3, ii-1, iii-2
(a) Seasonally (c) i-3, ii-2, iii-1
(b) Decreases progressively from the poles towards (d) i-2, ii-1, iii-3
the equator 8. An animal that can survive at 10°C and 40°C both,
(c) Decreases progressively from mountain tops to can be placed under the category of
the plains (a) Conformers
(d) All of the above (b) Regulators
2. Which of the following habitats exhibit the average (c) Migratory organisms
temperature exceeding 100 ? (d) Modifiers
(a) Thermal springs 9. Thermoregulation is energetically expensive for
(b) Deep-sea hydrothermal vents many organisms, particularly
(c) Tropical deserts in summer (a) Small animals
(d) Both (a) and (b) (b) Shrews
3. Major biomes such as desert, rain forest and tundra (c) Hummingbirds
are formed due to (d) All of the above
(a) Annual variation in the intensity of temperature 10. Various kinds of thick-walled spores which help
(b) Annual variation in the duration of temperature. organisms to survive unfavorable conditions and
(c) Annual variation in the precipitation germinate on the availability of a suitable
(d) All of the above environment are found in
4. Plants require sunlight for their (a) Bacteria
(a) Photosynthesis (b) Fungi
(b) Photoperiodic requirement for flowering (c) Lower plants/algae
(c) Migratory activities (d) All of the above
(d) Both (a) and (b) 11. An inhabitant of Varanasi goes to Rohtang and
5. Organisms restricted to a narrow range of experiences nausea, fatigue, and heart palpitations. It
temperature are is because
(a) Stenothermal (a) They experience altitude sickness
(b) Eurythermal (b) RBC count is lower than required
(c) Biothermal (c) It is an area of low atmospheric pressure
(d) Geothermal (d) All of the above
6. The significance of temperature to living organisms 12. Permanent decrease in population would occur due to
is appreciable because it affects (a) Migration
(a) Kinetics of the enzymes (b) Natality
(b) Basal metabolism and activity (c) Emigration
(c) Physiological functions of the organism (d) Mortality
(d) All of the above 13. Percent individuals of a given age or age group is
7. Match columns I and II, and choose the correct called
combination from the options given. (a) Age distribution
Column I Column II (b) Age pyramid
Salt concentration Example (c) Sex ratio
i. <5 1. Sea (d) Both (a) and (c)
ii. 30-35 2. Hypersaline lagoons
iii. > 100 3. Inland waters
14. In a pond, there were 20 lotus plants last year and Section–B
through reproduction 8 new plants are added, taking
the current population to 28. What is the birth rate?
21. Assertion: Cuscuta is an ectoparasite.
(a) 0.28 offspring per lotus per year
Reason: Cuscuta does not depend on other plants for
(b) 0.8 offspring per lotus per year
nutrition requirements.
(c) 0.32 offspring per lotus per year
(d) 0.4 offspring per lotus per year the correct explanation of assertion.
15. For which of the following population, the (b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is
population size is measured indirectly without not the correct explanation of assertion.
actually counting them or seeing them? (c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(a) Fishes (d) If both assertion and reason are false.
(b) Tigers 22. Assertion: A population growing in a habitat with
(c) Siberian cranes limited resources shows initially a lag phase,
(d) All of the above followed by phases of acceleration and deceleration,
16. If a new habitat is just being colonized, ...1… may and finally an asymptote when the population density
contribute more significantly to population growth reaches the carrying capacity.
than ...2... Reason: This type of population growth is called
(a) 1-Birth rate, 2-Emigration Verhulst-Pearl Logistic growth, in which a plot of N
(population density) at the time (t) results in a
(b) 1-Immigration, 2-Birth rate
sigmoid curve.
(c) 1-Immigration, 2-Emigration
(d) 1-Birth rate, 2-Immigration
17. The population growth curve is sigmoid if the growth
pattern is
(a) Logistic (c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(b) Geometric (d) If both assertion and reason are false.
(c) Exponential 23. Assertion: No two species can occupy the same
(d) Decelerating ecological niche in a habitat.
18. There are two ways of exploitation. One way is Reason: A habitat can contain only one ecological
parasitism, the other one is niche.
(a) Symbiosis (a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is
(b) Mutualism the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) Predation (b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is
(d) Commensalism not the correct explanation of assertion.
19. In the rocky intertidal communities of the American
Pacific Coast, which is an important predator? (d) If both assertion and reason are false.
(a) Barnacle Balanus 24. Assertion: Predation and parasitism are considered
to be negative interactions.
(b) Prickly pear cactus
Reason: Predators and parasites limit the population
(c) Both (a) and (b)
of the other species.
(d) Starfish Pisaster (a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is
20. In the case of brood parasitism, the host and parasite, the correct explanation of assertion.
respectively are (b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is
(a) Crow and koel not the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Koel and crow (c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(c) Both (a) and (b) conditions are possible (d) If both assertion and reason are false.
(d) Can’t be predicted
Case Type-2 Case Type-3

29. Read the following and answer the following 30. Read the following and answer the following
questions: questions:
Growth or a population with time shown specific and Different species are dependent on each other for
predictable patterns. Two types of growth patterns of survival and so they interact. Different populations
the population are exponential and logistic growth. interact differently. These interactions can be
When resources in the habitat are unlimited each detrimental, beneficial, or neutral. A ‘+’ sign for
species has the ability to realize fully its innate beneficial interaction, a ‘-’ sign for detrimental, and
potential to grow in number. Then the population ‘0’ for neutral interaction are usually assigned. Based
grows in an exponential fashion. When the resources on the nature of interactions, we can classify them
are limited growth curve shows an initially slow and into the following categories: Mutualism,
then it accelerates and finally slows giving the Competition, Predation, Parasitism, Commensalism,
growth curve which is sigmoid. and Amensalism.
(i) Which of the following statements is incorrect? (i) Species interaction with negative influence on both
(a) Exponential growth occurs in organisms such as are referred to as
lemmings (a) Amensalism
(b) Logistic growth is more realistic (b) Mutualism
(c) Exponential growth has two phases lag and log. (c) Commensalism
(d) In logistic growth, the population passes well (d) Competition
beyond the carrying capacity of the ecosystem.
(ii) The two interacting species (A and B) live closely
(ii) Which of the following equation correctly represents together in
the exponential population growth curve?
(a) Predation, parasitism and competition
(a) dN/dt = rN
(b) Mutualism, competition and amensalism
(b) dN/dt=rN (K-N/K)
(c) Predation, competition and commensalism
(c) Nt = Noert
(d) Both (a) and (c) (d) Predation, parasitism and commensalism
(iii) In a population, immigration is more than emigration (iii) In a broad ecological context, which one of the
and mortality are lower than natality. The growth following can also be called a predator?
curve of the population will show (a) A seed-eating sparrow
(a) Exponential phase (b) Lag phase (b) Lion
(c) Declining phase (d) Steady phase (c) Tiger
(iv) The population growth is generally described by the (d) Crow
following equation: (iv) The Ophrys are pollinated by the phenomenon of
dN KN (a) Camouflaging
= rN  
dt  K  (b) Pseudocopulation
What does ‘r’ represent in the given equation? (c) Mutual copulation
(a) Population density at a time ‘t’ (d) Parasitism
(b) Intrinsic rate of natural increase
(c) Carrying capacity
(d) The base of natural logarithm

1. Give an example of an organism that enters 18. How do organisms cope with stressful external
‘diapause’ and why? (Delhi 2014) environmental conditions which are localized or of
2. Mention how do bears escape from stressful time in short duration? (AI 2011)
winter. (Delhi 2013c) 19. (i) Explain giving reasons why the tourists visiting
3. Write the basis on which an organism occupies a Rohtang Pass or Mansarovar are advised to
space in its community/natural surroundings. resume normal active life only after a few days
(AI 2013) of reaching there.
4. Why are some organisms called as eurythermals and (ii) It is impossible to find small animals in the polar
some others as stenohaline? (Foreign 2011) regions. Give reasons. (AI 2012)
5. Why are green plants not found beyond a certain 20. State Gause’s competitive exclusion principle.
depth in the ocean? (HOTS; Delhi 2011) (AI 2014)
6. Mention any two activities of animals, which get 21. Write, what do phytophagous insects feed on?
cues from diurnal and seasonal variations in light (Delhi 2012)
intensity. (Delhi 2011 c) 22. What is the interaction called between Cuscuta and
7. How do animals like fish and snails avoid summer- shoe flower bush? (Delhi 2012)
related unfavorable conditions? (Delhi 2010) 23. What is an interaction called when an orchid grows
8. How do prickles help cactus survive in desert? Give on a mango plant? (Delhi 2012)
two methods. (AI 2010 C) 24. In a pond, there were 20 Hydrilla plants. Through
9. Some organisms suspend their metabolic activities to reproduction, 10 new Hydrilla plants were added in a
survive in unfavorable conditions. Explain with the year. Calculate the birth rate of the population.
help of any four examples. (Delhi 2012) (Delhi 2012)
10. Explain the response of all communities to 25. Pollinating species of wasps show mutualism with
environment over time. (AI 2011) specific fig plants. Mention the benefits the female
11. Bear hibernates, whereas some species of wasps derive from the fig trees from such an
zooplanktons enter diapause to avoid stressful interaction. (AI 2011)
external conditions. How are these two ways 26. Why are cattle and goats not seen browsing on
different from each other? (Foreign 2011) Calotropis growing in the fields? (Foreign 2011)
12. How does our body adapt to low oxygen availability 27. If 8 individuals in a laboratory population of 80
at high altitudes? (Foreign 2011) fruitflies died in a week, then what would be the
13. Why are small animals rarely found in the polar death rate for population for the said period?
regions? Explain. (HOTS; Foreign 2010) (Delhi 2010)
14. How do seals adapt to their natural habitat? Explain. 28. In a pond, there were 200 frogs. 40 more were born
(Foreign 2010) in a year. Calculate the birth rate of the population.
15. Hummingbirds live among the bushes in tropics, (Delhi 2010)
while penguins live on icebergs. They cannot survive 29. Why do predators avoid eating Monarch butterfly?
if their habitats are reversed. Justify. How does the butterfly develop this protective
(HOTS; Delhi 2010 C) feature? (Foreign 2010)
16. (i) State how the constant internal environment is 30. Comment on the interaction between a clownfish
beneficial to organisms. living among the tentacles of a sea anemone.
(ii) Explain any two alternatives by which organisms (Delhi 2010)
can overcome stressful external conditions. 31. Comment on the interaction between certain species
(AI 2014) of fig trees and Wasps. (Delhi 2010c)
17. Water is very essential for life. Write any three OR
features both for plants and animals which enable Describe the mutual relationship between a fig tree
them to survive in water-scarce environment. and wasp and comment on the phenomenon that
(Delhi Set-I, 2011) operates in their relationship. (AI 2014)
158 ECOSYSTEM
14
ECOSYSTEM
ECOSYSTEM 159
Chapter 14
Ecosystem
Chapter at a Glance
160 ECOSYSTEM

SectionA (1 Mark Questions) 14. Why is an earthworm considered a farmer's friend?
Explain humification and mineralization occurring in
1. Give examples for the natural ecosystems and man-
a decomposition cycle.
made or artificial ecosystems.
15. Answer the following questions:
2. What does the base tier of the ecological pyramid
represent? (Exemplar) (a) What is standing state?
3. How much time is taken by a primary succession to (b) Define nutrient cycling. What are the types of
complete? nutrient cycles?
4. Why is the rate of assimilation of energy at the 16. Give a diagrammatic representation of the
herbivore level called secondary productivity? decomposition cycle in a terrestrial ecosystem
(Exemplar) 17. Answer the following questions:
5. Define ecological succession. (a)Define trophic level.
(b) “In a food chain, a trophic level represents a
functional level, not a species.” Explain.
SectionB (2 Mark Questions)
18. Why are oceans least productive? (Exemplar)
6. State the importance of phosphorus in living
19. Define the following terms:
organisms.
(a) Standing crop
7. Is the pyramid of biomass in the sea inverted or
upright? Give reason. (b) Sere
8. Define pioneer species. Name the pioneer species (c) Climax community
responsible for primary succession on a rock. 20. Illustrate the carbon cycle with a well-labeled
9. Define stratification. Give an example to support diagram.
your answer. 21. Differentiate between an upright pyramid and an
OR inverted pyramid.
9. Define GPP. How is it related to NPP? 22. Give a diagrammatic representation of trophic levels
in an ecosystem.
10. Why are the number of trophic levels restricted in a

grazing food chain? Is there is any such limitation in SectionD (4 Mark Questions)
a detritus food chain?
23. Avinash went to his village during his summer
vacation. One day, he decided to visit the nearby
SectionC (3 Mark Questions) forest and asked his grandfather to accompany him.
His grandfather told him about the recent cutting of
11. Enlist three limitations of ecological pyramids.
forest and the new factory which had been
12. Construct an ideal pyramid of energy when established. Hearing this Avinash became curious
1,000,000 joules of sunlight is available. Label all its and explained to his grandfather about the ecosystem
trophic levels. services.
13. Give three differences between the carbon cycle and (a) Define ecosystem services.
the phosphorus cycle.
(b) What are the benefits of a healthy forest
OR ecosystem?
13. Explain the stages of primary succession in a wet (c) Explain the contribution of Robert Constanza in
area with the help of a well-labeled diagrammatic ecosystem services.
representation.
(d) What is the cost distribution of various
ecosystem services?
(e) What values are shown by Avinash?
ECOSYSTEM 161
SectionE (5 Mark Questions) OR

24. Describe the biotic components of an ecosystem. 25. Answer the following questions.
OR (a) Human activities interfere with the carbon cycle.

List any two such activities. (Exemplar)
24. Differentiate between primary and secondary
succession. (b) In the North East region of India, during the
process of jhum cultivation, forests are cleared
25. Define ecological pyramids and describe with
by burning and left for regrowth after a year of
examples, the pyramid of numbers and biomass.
cultivation. How would you explain the
regrowth of forest in ecological term?
(Exemplar)
(c) In relation to energy transfer in an ecosystem,
explain the statement “10 kg of deer's meat is
equivalent to 1 kg of lion's flesh”. (Exemplar)
ECOSYSTEM 163
A B C 20. According to Robert Constanza, 50% of the total cost

for ecosystem services goes to:
(a) Top carnivore Detritus Secondary
consumer (a) Recreation
(b) Soil formation
(b) Top carnivore Detritus Primary
consumer (c) Nutrient cycling
(d) Climate regulation
(c) Secondary Grazing Secondary
consumer consumer
(d) Scavenger Grazing Producer Section–B
14. Which one of the following animals may occupy (Assertion & Reason Type Questions)
more than one trophic level in the same ecosystem at 21. Assertion: Oceans are low productivity ecosystems
the same time? despite occupying about 70% of the earth’s surface.
(a) Sparrow (b) Lion Reason: In aquatic ecosystems, productivity is
(c) Goat (d) Frog limited by light which decreases with increasing
15. The pyramid of biomass in a pond ecosystem is: water depth.
(a) inverted (a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is
(b) always upright the correct explanation of assertion
(c) sometimes upright (b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is
(d) upright and sometimes inverted not the correct explanation of assertion
16. Pyramid of numbers is (Exemplar) (c) If assertion is true but reason is false
(a) Always upright (d) If both assertion and reason are false
(b) Always inverted 22. Assertion: Temperature and soil moisture are the
(c) Either upright or inverted important climatic factors that regulate the process of
decomposition.
(d) Neither upright nor inverted
Reason: Warm and moist environments favor
17. Identify the correct sequence of the stages in xerarch
decomposition whereas low temperature and
succession.
anaerobiosis inhibit decomposition.
A. Lichen B. Bigger plants
C. Forest D. Bryophytes
the correct explanation of assertion
(a) A, B, C, D (b) B, A, D, C
(c) A, D, B, C (d) A, B, D, C not the correct explanation of assertion
18. All types of successions lead to
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false
(a) Xeric climax community
(d) If both assertion and reason are false
(b) Hydric climax community
23. Assertion: The loss of biologically useful energy as
(c) Mesic climax community heat with every transfer in a food chain is a
(d) Any climax community depending on nature of consequence of the second law of thermodynamics.
the habitat Reason: Energy does not remain trapped
19. Phosphorus is the major constituent of permanently in any organism, it is either passed on to
A. Biological membranes the higher trophic level or becomes available to
B. Nucleic acids detrivores and decomposers after the organism dies.
C. Cellular energy transfer systems (a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is
D. Proteins the correct explanation of assertion
(a) A, B and C (b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is
(b) B, C and D
(c) A, B and D
(d) If both assertion and reason are false
(d) A, B, C and D
164 ECOSYSTEM
24. Assertion: In a marine aquatic ecosystem, the Section–C (Case Study Questions)
biomass of phytoplankton (producers) at any given
Case Study – 1
time, is lower than the biomass of zooplanktons
(primary consumers). 28. Read the following passage and answer the questions
given below.
Reason: Phytoplankton are consumed almost as
rapidly as they are formed and thus have shorter life Decomposition is the physical and chemical
spans. breakdown of complex organic matter into inorganic
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is substances, like carbon dioxide, water, and nutrients
the correct explanation of assertion. with the help of organisms called decomposers. Dead
plant remains such as leaves, bark, flowers, and dead
remains of animals, including fecal matter, constitute
detritus, which is the raw material for decomposition.
The important steps in the process of decomposition
(d) If both assertion and reason are false. are fragmentation, leaching, catabolism, humification
25. Assertion: Primary succession occurs over a and mineralization. The rate of decomposition is
primarily bare area where there was no living matter controlled by the chemical composition of detritus
from the very beginning. and climatic factors.
Reason: During primary succession, the reproductive (i) In the process of mineralization, micro-organisms
structures of the previous occupants give rise to a help in the release of
new seral community as soon as the conditions (a) Inorganic nutrients from the humus
become favorable.
(b) Both organic and inorganic nutrients from detritus
(c) Organic nutrients from the humus
(d) Inorganic nutrients from detritus and the
formation of humus
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false (ii) Which of the following is an enzymatic process?
(d) If both assertion and reason are false. (a) Fragmentation (b) Leaching
26. Assertion: Pioneer community is the stable and final (c) Catabolism (d) All of the above
biotic community of ecological succession. (iii) Which of the following helps in catabolism?
Reason: Pioneer community has maximum diversity (a) Bacteria (b) Fungi
and niche specialization. (c) Mycoplasma (d) Both (a) and (b)
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is (iv) Decomposition rate is slow if detritus is rich in
the correct explanation of assertion (a) Nitrogen (b) Phosphorous
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is (c) Sugars (d) Lignin and Chitin
(d) If both assertion and reason are false Case Type-2
27. Assertion: The natural reservoir of phosphorus is 29. Read the following passage and answer the questions
rock, which contains phosphorus in the form of given below.
phosphates. The present-day communities in the world have come
Reason: Phosphate circulates in the abiotic to be because of succession that has occurred over
environment in the lithosphere as well as in the millions of years since life started on earth. Actually
atmosphere. succession and evolution would have been parallel
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is processes at that time. Succession is hence a process
the correct explanation of assertion. that starts in an area where no living organisms are
there – these could be areas where no living
organisms ever existed, say bare rock; or in areas that
somehow, lost all the living organisms that existed
there.
ECOSYSTEM 165
(i) During the process of ecological succession, the (ii) Another name of nutrient cycling is
changes that take place in communities are (a) Chemical cycle
(a) Orderly and sequential (b) Geological cycle
(b) Random (c) Geochemical cycle
(c) Very quick (d) Biogeochemical cycle
(d) Not influenced by the physical environment (iii) In which of the following, both pairs have the correct
(ii) Successions that occur on soils or areas which have combination?
recently lost their community are referred to as (a) Gaseous nutrient cycle: Carbon and nitrogen,
(a) primary successions Sedimentary nutrient cycle: Sulfur and
(b) secondary successions phosphorus
(c) lithoseres (b) Gaseous nutrient cycle: Carbon and sulfur,
(d) priseres Sedimentary nutrient cycle: Nitrogen and
phosphorus
(iii) Primary succession occurs in:
(c) Gaseous nutrient cycle: Sulfur and nitrogen,
(a) previously unoccupied area
Sedimentary nutrient cycle: Carbon and
(b) previously occupied area
phosphorus
(c) both of the above
(d) Gaseous nutrient cycle: Sulfur and phosphorus,
(d) none of the above Sedimentary nutrient cycle: Carbon and nitrogen
(iv) The final stable community in an ecological (iv) Environmental factors which regulate the rate of
succession is release of nutrients into the atmosphere are
(a) Sere (b) Climax A. pH
(c) Pioneers (d) Carnivores B. Soil
C. Moisture
Case Type-3 D. Temperature
30. Read the following passage and answer the questions (a) A, B and C
given below. (b) B, C and D
Organisms need a constant supply of nutrients to (c) A, B and D
grow, reproduce and regulate various body functions. (d) A, B, C and D
The amount of nutrients, such as carbon, nitrogen,
phosphorus, calcium, etc., present in the soil at any
given time varies in different kinds of ecosystems
and also on a seasonal basis. The movement of
nutrient elements through the various components of
an ecosystem is called nutrient cycling. Nutrient
cycles are of two types: (a) gaseous and (b)
sedimentary. The reservoir for the gaseous type of
nutrient cycle exists in the atmosphere and for the
sedimentary cycle, the reservoir is located in Earth’s
crust. Certain environmental factors regulate the rate
of release of nutrients into the atmosphere.
(i) The amount of nutrients, such as carbon, nitrogen,
phosphorus, calcium, etc., present in the soil at any
given time is referred to as
(a) Standing state
(b) Standing crop
(c) Biogeochemical cycling
(d) Trophic level
166 ECOSYSTEM

1. How is ‘stratification’ represented in a forest 15. Name the type of food chains responsible for the
ecosystem? (Delhi 2014) flow of a larger fraction of energy in an aquatic and a
2. What does ‘R’ represent in the given equation for terrestrial ecosystem respectively. Mention one
productivity in an ecosystem? GPP – R = NPP difference between the two food chains.
(AI 2014C) (Delhi 2010)
3. Mention any two reasons why the primary 16. Explain standing crop in an ecosystem. Draw a
productivity varies in different types of ecosystems? pyramid of biomass when a small standing crop of
(AI 2014C) phytoplanktons supports a large standing crop of
zooplankton in the sea. (Delhi 2010)
4. Why are green algae not likely to be found in the
deepest strata of the ocean? (AI 2013) 17. Construct a grazing food chain and detritus food
chain using the following five links each. Earthworm,
5. Write a difference between net primary productivity
bird, snake, vulture, grass, grasshopper, frog,
and gross primary productivity. (AI 2011)
decaying plant matter. (Foreign 2008)
6. (i) What is primary productivity? Why does it vary
18. Differentiate between two different types of pyramids
in different types of ecosystems?
of biomass with the help of an example. (Delhi 2013)
(ii) State the relation between gross and net primary
19. (i) With suitable examples, explain the energy flow
productivity. (Delhi 2014)
through different trophic levels. What does each
7. How is detritus decomposed step-by-step by different
bar in this pyramid represent?
agents and made available as nutrients to the plants?
(ii) Write any two limitations of ecological
Explain. (Delhi 2013c)
pyramids. (Delhi 2014C)
OR
20. Explain how a primary succession starts on a bare
Describe the process of decomposition of detritus
rock and reaches a climax community? (Delhi 2012)
under the following heads fragmentation, leaching,
21. (i) Draw a pyramid of numbers of a situation, where
catabolism, humification and mineralization.
a large population of insects feed upon a very big
(AI 2018C)
tree. The insects in turn, are eaten by small birds
8. (i) Explain primary productivity and the factors that
which in turn are fed upon by big birds.
influence it.
(ii) Differentiate giving reasons, between the
(ii) Describe how oxygen and chemical composition
pyramid of biomass of the above situation and
of detritus control decomposition. (Delhi 2011)
the pyramid of numbers that you have drawn.
9. State what does standing crop of a trophic level (Delhi 2012)
represents. (Delhi 2013)
22. (i) Explain the significance of ecological pyramids
10. What is a detritus food chain made up of? How do with the help of an example.
they meet their energy and nutritional requirements?
(ii) Why are the pyramids referred to as upright or
(AI 2013) inverted? Explain. (AI 2012)
11. Mention the role of pioneer species in primary
23. (i) Draw the pyramids of biomass in a sea and in a
succession on rocks. (Foreign 2012)
forest. Explain the reason why the two pyramids
12. List any two ways of measuring the standing crop of are different.
a trophic level.(Foreign 2010)
(ii) Pyramid of energy is always upright. Explain.
13. Apart from being a part of the food chain, predators (HOTS; Foreign 2010)
play other important roles. Mention any two such
24. (i) Explain how a hydrarch succession progresses
roles supported by examples. (Delhi 2014)
from hydric to mesic condition from a stable
14. ‘It is possible that a species may occupy more than community?
one trophic level in the same ecosystem at the same
(ii) Why is the rate of secondary succession faster
time.’ Explain with the help of one example.
than that of primary succession? (Delhi 2010c)
(AI 2013)
168 BIODIVERSITY
15
BIODIVERSITY
BIODIVERSITY 169
Chapter 15
Biodiversity
Chapter at a Glance
BIODIVERSITY 171
SectionD (4 Mark Questions) SectionE (5 Mark Questions)

23. Rahmi’s cousin, Neha, who is born and brought up in 24. What is ‘The Evil Quartet’ in the context of
the USA, comes to visit India during her vacations? biodiversity? Explain.
One day, Rashmi takes her to nearby forests; Neha OR
noticed that in some areas, people are worshiping 24. What are the different conservational strategies to
trees in these forest areas, which seems odd to her. prevent the loss of biodiversity?
How will you explain this to Neha?
25. What do you mean by latitudinal gradient? What
could be the possible reasons for diversity between
tropic and temperate regions?
OR
25. Write a short note on the ‘Rivet popper hypothesis’.
172 BIODIVERSITY

8. Which of the following regions will have the highest
Section–A (Single Choice Questions)
biodiversity?
1. The term biodiversity was popularised by
(a) Equatorial region
(a) Paul Ehrlich
(b) Regions just above the Tropic of Cancer
(b) David Tilman
(c) Regions between the Tropic of Cancer and the
(c) Edward Wilson poles
(d) Robert May (d) Near the poles
2. The Western Ghats have a greater number of 9. Tropical rainforests once covered more than …a…
amphibian species than the Eastern Ghats. What kind percent of the Earth's surface but now cover not more
of diversity does it represent? than …b… percent.
(a) Species diversity (a) a-30, b-19.8
(b) Genetic diversity (b) a-8.1, b-2.4
(c) Ecological diversity (c) a-14, b-6
(d) None of these (d) a-19.8, b-8
3. India’s share in the global species diversity is about 10. The species-area relationship on a logarithmic scale
(a) 2 percent (b) 4 percent (log-log scale) is
(c) 6 percent (d) 8 percent (a) Rectangular parabola
4. Which of the following is a mismatched pair? (b) Rectangular hyperbola
(a) Genetic Diversity- Genus level (c) Straight line/linear
(b) Species Diversity- Species level (d) Sigmoid
(c) Ecological Diversity- Ecosystem level 11. Ecologists have discovered that the value of Z lies in
(d) None of the above the range of
5. The genetic variation shown by Rauwolfia might be (a) 0.1 to 0.2
in terms of (b) 0.1 to 1.2
(a) Potency of reserpine (c) 0.6 to 1.2
(b) Concentration of reserpine (d) 0.2 to 1.2
(c) Fragrance of reserpine 12. The “rivet popper hypothesis” refers to the
(d) Both (a) and (b) (a) Species richness of an ecosystem
6. The patterns of biodiversity are affected by (b) Species evenness in an ecosystem
(a) Latitudinal gradients (c) Stability of an ecosystem
(b) Species-area relationships (d) The number of habitats in an ecosystem
(c) Both (a) and (b) 13. David Tilman’s long-term ecosystem experiments
(d) None of the above using outdoor plots showed that
7. Species diversity ______ as we move away from the (a) Increased diversity contributed to lower
_____ towards _____. productivity
(a) Decreases, equator, poles (b) Increased diversity contributed to higher
(b) Increases, equator, equator, poles productivity
(c) Decreases, poles, equator (c) Increased diversity has no impact on productivity
(d) None of these (d) Increased diversity has an unpredictable impact

on productivity
BIODIVERSITY 173
14. Which is referred to as ‘Lungs of the Planet Earth’? Section–B

(a) Western Ghats (Assertion & Reason Type Questions)
(b) Lake Victoria
21. Assertion: Threatened species are those living
(c) Green land species that have been greatly reduced in their
(d) Amazon rainforest number and are liable to become extinct if the
15. Due to the introduction of Nile perch into Lake causative factors continue.
Victoria, how many species of the cichlid fish Reason: IUCN is an international organization that
become extinct? maintains the IUCN Red List of threatened species to
(a) 200 assess the conservation status of different species.
(b) 1200 (a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is
(c) 2000
(d) 687
16. Bioprospecting is related to
(a) Narrowly utilitarian
(b) Broadly utilitarian
22. Assertion: Speciation is a function of time and
(c) Ethical tropical regions had a long evolutionary time for
(d) All of the above species diversification as compared to temperate
17. Endemic species are those which are regions.
(a) Cosmopolitan in distribution Reason: Temperate regions have undergone frequent
glaciations in the past whereas tropical regions have
(b) Found in Arctic region
remained relatively undisturbed for millions of years.
(c) Restricted to a certain area
(d) Gregarious in habitat the correct explanation of assertion.
18. In many cultures, tracts of forest were set aside, and (b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is
all the trees and wildlife within were venerated and not the correct explanation of assertion.
given total protection. These regions are called
(a) Biodiversity hotspots
(b) Wildlife sanctuaries
23. Assertion: Biodiversity hotspots are the regions that
(c) Wildlife safari parks possess high levels of species richness, a high degree
(d) Sacred groves of endemism, and no loss to habitats.
19. An example of in situ biological conservation method Reason: Total number of biodiversity hotspots in the
is to establish world is 32 with two of these hotspots found in India.
(a) zoos (a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is
(b) seed banks the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) botanical gardens (b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is
(d) biosphere reserves not the correct explanation of assertion.
20. The Earth Summit at Rio de Janeiro was held in (c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(a) April 1990 (d) If both assertion and reason are false.
(b) June 1992 24. Assertion: Offsite collections can be used to restock
depleted populations, reintroduce species in the wild
(c) August 1994
and restore degraded habitats.
(d) December 1995
Reason: In situ conservation refers to the
conservation of endangered species in their natural
habitats.
174 BIODIVERSITY
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is Section–C (Case Study Questions)
Case Study – 1
not the correct explanation of assertion. 29. Read the following passage and answer the questions
given below.
IUCN maintains a Red Data Book or Red List which
is a catalog of taxa facing the risk of extinction. The
25. Assertion: Genetic variation shown by the plant IUCN Red List (2004) documents the extinction of
Rauwolfia vomitoria growing in different Himalayan 784 species in the last 500 years. Some examples of
ranges is very important economically. recent extinctions include dodo, quagga, thylacine,
Reason: The amount and variety of alkaloids present and Steller’s sea cow. The last twenty years alone
in this plant, change both between the Rauwolfia have witnessed the disappearance of 27 species.
species and between the different strains of R. (i) Which of the following is the wrongly matched
vomitoria. recent extinction?
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is (a) Dodo-Mauritius
(b) Quagga-Africa
(c) Thylacine-Australia
(d) Steller’s sea cow-Stanford
(ii) Which of the following data regarding extinction is
not according to the IUCN Red List (2004)?
26. Assertion: Over-exploitation of a species reduces the
(a) Vertebrates-338 (b) Invertebrates-359
size of its population eventually leading to its
extinction. (c) Plants-87 (d) Bacteria-104
Reason: Steller's sea cow is a large, herbivorous, (iii) Steller’s sea cow and passenger pigeon became
extinct due to
terrestrial mammal that is on the verge of extinction
due to overexploitation. (a) Alien species invasion
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is (b) Over-exploitation
the correct explanation of assertion. (c) Coextinctions
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is (d) Intensive agriculture
not the correct explanation of assertion. (iv) Bali, Javan, and Caspian are
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false. (a) Species of tiger
(d) If both assertion and reason are false. (b) Species of Cheetah
27. Assertion: Broadly utilitarian arguments say that we (c) Subspecies of Cheetah
should conserve biodiversity because biodiversity
(d) Subspecies of tiger
plays a major role in many ecosystem services that
nature provides.
Reason: Exploration of molecular, genetic, and Case Type-2
species-level diversity to obtain the products of
economic importance is included under the broadly
given below:
utilitarian category.
The accelerated rates of species extinctions that the
world is facing now are largely due to human
activities. There are four major causes of biodiversity
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is losses described by the sobriquet ‘ The Evil Quartet’.
not the correct explanation of assertion. In general, loss of biodiversity in a region may lead
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false. to (a) decline in plant production, (b) increased
(d) If both assertion and reason are false. variability in certain ecosystem processes, etc.
BIODIVERSITY 175
(i) Which of the following causes of biodiversity loss is (ii) When we conserve and protect the whole ecosystem,
not included in the evil quartet? its biodiversity at all levels is protected- we save the
(a) Coextinction entire forest to save the tiger. This approach is called
(b) Pollution (a) In vivo conservation
(c) Alien species invasion (b) Ex situ (off-site) conservation
(d) Habitat loss and fragmentation (c) In situ (on site) conservation
(ii) The most important cause of loss of biodiversity (d) In vitro conservation
today is (iii) Which is not included under in situ conservation?
(a) Habitat loss and fragmentation (a) National Park
(b) Overexploitation (b) Sanctuary
(c) Alien species invasions (c) Biosphere reserve
(d) Coextinctions (d) Zoological / Botanical Gardens
(iii) The recent illegal introduction of the African catfish (iv) One of the ex situ conservation methods for
______ for aquaculture purposes is posing a threat to endangered species is
the indigenous catfishes of our rivers. (a) Wildlife sanctuaries (b) Biosphere reserves
(a) Clarias gariepinus (c) Cryopreservation (d) National Parks
(b) Cichlid fishes
(c) Parthenium
(d) Steller’s sea cow
(iv) Which of the following give the most dramatic
examples of habitat loss?
(a) Tropical rainforest
(b) Temperate deciduous forest
(c) Temperate evergreen forest
(d) Grasslands
Case Type-3
given below:
Conservation of biodiversity is essential to maintain
and derive sustainable benefits in the present as well
as for future generations. Conservation can be done
in two ways: In situ conservation and ex situ
conservation. In situ approach includes conserving
the organism on-site i.e., in the habitat where it lives.
In ex situ conservation, the threatened organism is
kept in specially protected settings.
(i) Keeping fish in an aquarium is a type of
(a) Ex-situ conservation
(b) In-situ conservation
(c) Conservation in protected areas
(d) Sacred grove
176 BIODIVERSITY

1. Identify A and B in the figure given below
representing the proportionate number of major
vertebrate taxa. (Delhi 2014)
11. With the help of an example, explain how alien

species invasion causes biodiversity loss?
2. Write the level of biodiversity represented by a (Delhi 2011)
mangrove. Give another example falling in the same OR
level. (Delhi 2014C) 11. Alien species are a threat to native species. Justify
3. Name the type of biodiversity represented by the taking examples of an animal and a plant alien
following. species. (AI 2010)
● 1,000 varieties of mangoes in India. OR

11. Sometimes alien species affect the indigenous
● Variations in terms of potency and concentration
organisms leading to their extinction. Substantiate
of reserpine in Rauwolfia vomitoria growing in
this statement with the help of any two examples.
different regions of Himalayas. (AI 2013)
(Delhi 2010 C)
4. Why is the tropical environment able to support
12. In the biosphere, immense biological diversity exists
greater species diversity? (Delhi 2011C)
at all levels of biological organization. Explain any
5. Eichhornia crassipes is an alien hydrophyte two levels of biodiversity. (AI 2010)
introduced in India. Mention the problem posed by
13. List the features that make a stable biological
this plant. (AI 2010C)
community. (AI 2010)
6. The Amazon rainforest is referred to as the lungs of 14. Write any two hypotheses put forth by ecologists
the planet. Mention any one human activity which explaining the existence of greater biodiversity in
causes loss of biodiversity in this region. tropical regions than in temperate regions.
(AI 2010C) (Foreign 2010)
7. List four causes of biodiversity loss. (Delhi 2014C) OR
8. What is meant by alien species invasion? Name one 14. Giving two reasons explain why there is more
plant and one animal alien species that are a threat to species biodiversity in tropical latitudes than in
our Indian native species. (AI 2013) temperate ones. (AI 2010)
9. Justify with the help of an example where a 15. Name the sociobiologist who popularized the term
deliberate attempt by humans has led to the biodiversity. Identify the levels of biodiversity in
extinction of a particular species. (Delhi 2011) India represented by
10. The given graph shows the species-area relationship. ● Diversity among amphibians in Eastern and
Write the equation of the Curve ‘a’ and Explain. Western Ghats.
(AI 2011)
● 50,000 strains of rice in India.
● Presence of deserts, mangroves and coral reefs
of India. (AI 2017)
BIODIVERSITY 177
16. Explain three reasons why tropics show the greatest 24. Biodiversity must be conserved as it plays an
levels of species diversity? (AI 2014) important role in many ecosystem services that
OR nature provides. Explain any two services of the
ecosystem. (Delhi 2010)
16. List the reasons that account for the greater
biological diversity in tropics. (Foreign 2012) 25. Why have certain regions been declared as
biodiversity hot spots by environmentalists of the
17. Alien species are highly invasive and are a threat to
world? Name any two hot spot regions of India.
indigenous species. Substantiate this statement with
(Delhi 2010)
any three examples. (AI 2012)
26. There are many animals that have become extinct in the
18. Explain by giving an example, how co-extinction is
wild but continue to be maintained in zoological parks.
one of the causes of loss of biodiversity? List the
● What type of biodiversity conservation is
three causes also (without description).
observed in this case?
(Foreign 2011)
● Explain any other two ways which help this type
19. Explain the rivet popper hypothesis. Name the
of conservation. (Delhi 2014)
ecologist who proposed it. (Foreign 2011)
27. White Bengal tigers are protected in special settings
20. The following graph shows the species-area
in zoological parks. Tiger reserves are maintained in
relationship. Answer the following questions as
the Western Ghats.
directed.
● How do these two approaches differ from each
other? Mention the advantages of each one.
● What is the significance of cryopreservation
technique? (AI 2010C)
28. Name and explain any two ways that are responsible
for the loss of biodiversity. (AI 2014)
29. (i) Why is there a need to conserve biodiversity?
(ii) Name and explain any two ways that are
responsible for the loss of biodiversity.
(AI 2014)
30. Explain the levels of biodiversity at genetic, specific,
and ecological levels with the help of one example
(i) Name the naturalist who studied the kind of each. (Delhi 2016)
relationship shown in the graph. Write the
31. Suggest two practices giving one example of each,
observations made by him.
that help to protect rare or threatened species.
(ii) Write the situations as discovered by the (AI 2017)
ecologists when the value of Z (slope of the line)
32. Why are sacred groves highly protected?
lies between
(AI 2016)
● 1 and 0.2 33. List any four techniques where the principle of ex
● 6 and 1.2 situ conservation of biodiversity has been employed.
What does Z stand for? (AI 2015)
(iii) When would the slope of the line ‘b’ become 34. In situ conservation can help endangered/threatened
steeper? (AI 2014) species. Justify the statement. (Delhi 2017)
21. Write the importance of cryopreservation in 35. Why should biodiversity be conserved? Explain
conservation of biodiversity. (Delhi 2011) giving three reasons. (AI 2016C)
22. State the uses of biodiversity in modern agriculture. 36. Many plant and animal species are on the verge of
extinction because of loss of forest land by
(AI 2011)
indiscriminate use by humans. As a biology student,
23. Differentiate between in situ and ex situ approaches
what method would you suggest along with its
of conservation of biodiversity. (AI 2011)
advantages that can protect such threatened species
from getting extinct? (Delhi 2015)
178 BIODIVERSITY
37. Compare narrowly utilitarian and broadly utilitarian 39. How did David Tillman show that ‘‘stability of a
approaches to conserve biodiversity, with the help of community depends on its species richness’’?
suitable examples. (Foreign 2015) Explain. (AI 2019)
38. (a) ‘‘India has greater ecosystem diversity than 40. List six advantages of “ex-situ” approach to
Norway.’’ Do you agree with the statement? conservation of biodiversity. (AI 2019)
Give reasons in support of your answer.
(b) Write the difference between genetic
biodiversity and species biodiversity that exists
at all the levels of biological organization.
(AI 2018)
ENVIRONMENTAL ISSUES 179
16
ENVIRONMENTAL ISSUES
180 ENVIRONMENTAL ISSUES
Chapter 16
Environmental Issues
Chapter at a Glance

Section–A (1 Mark Questions) 20. What is deforestation? Mention some of its causes
and also the measures taken to prevent deforestation.
1. When did the Air Prevention and Control of
Pollution Act come into force? 21. People have been actively participating in the efforts
for the conservation of forests.
2. What is biomagnification?
(i) Name the award instituted in respect of Amrita
3. Which method is the most suitable for the disposal of
Devi to promote such efforts.
nuclear waste?
(ii) Name the movement launched to protect the
4. Why is lead-free petrol or diesel recommended to
trees by hugging them.
reduce pollutants emitted by automobiles?
(iii) Name the step the Government of India has
5. What is the Joint Forest Management Concept?
undertaken in 1980’s to work closely with the
local communities for protecting and managing
Section–B (2 Mark Questions) forests.
6. What is the difference between good and bad ozone? 22. A factory drains its waste water into the nearby lake.
7. What is the importance of the greenhouse effect? It has caused algal bloom.
Name a few of the greenhouse gases. (i) How was the algal bloom caused?
8. What do you mean by accelerated eutrophication? (ii) What would be the consequences?
9. Why Bharat stage IV emission norms have been (iii) Name the phenomenon that caused it.
applied?
10. How is BOD used as a measure of water pollution? Section–D (4 Mark Questions)
23. Waste disposal and waste management poses a major
Section–C (3 Mark Questions) problem in present times. Generation of garbage
11. Explain the ‘El Nino’ effect. specially non-biodegradable and its disposal is a
12. Discuss briefly the catalytic converter. major threat and consequently leads to severe
environmental and health issues. Ahmed Khan, a
13. What is biological magnification? Explain how DDT
plastic sack manufacturer of Bangalore, found an
as a water pollutant undergoes biological
ideal solution to the problem of increasing plastic
magnification?
waste. His company developed Polyblend, a fine
14. What is Eutrophication? Explain its consequences on
powder of recycled modified plastic.
the life of plants and animals living in such water?
(a) How did Polyblend, a fine powder of recycled
15. Describe the different components that compose
modified plastic, prove important?
solid wastes.
(b) What values were shown by Ahmed Khan?
16. What is the contribution of Ramesh Chandra Dagar
in Sonipat?
17. In Arcata, the town’s people have created an Section–E (5 Mark Questions)
integrated waste water treatment process within a 24. Write notes on electronic wastes. Write about the
natural system. A citizen group called FOAM helps various sources of e-wastes and issues associated
in upkeep of this project. What are the main steps in with its disposal.
wastewater management done in this way? 25. How can you explain the working of the electrostatic
18. (i) What is meant by ozone shield? precipitator?
(ii) Name two ozone depleting substances.
(iii) Write one damaging effect of ozone – depletion
on humans and plants respectively?
19. What is the Greenhouse effect? Discuss the various
impacts of the greenhouse effect on the environment?
(c) Peak A - Sharp increase in BOD, the appearance 18. Montreal Protocol is associated with
of clean water organisms, Peak B - Increase in (a) Control of emission of ozone-depleting
dissolved oxygen, the disappearance of clean substances
water organisms (b) Control of radioactive wastes
(d) Peak A - Increased number of anaerobic bacteria, (c) Control of desertification
the disappearance of clean water organisms, Peak
(d) Protection and management of forests
B - Sharp decline in dissolved O2, the
reappearance of clean water organisms. 19. The main cause of soil erosion is
12. ‘Ecosan toilets’ are advantageous to handle human (a) Afforestation
excreta because (b) Fewer rains
(a) Produce natural fertilizer (c) Thinning of the ozone layer
(b) Sustainable system (d) Deforestation
(c) Requires more water 20. National Forest Policy of India has recommended
(d) Both (a) and (b) (i) forest cover for the plains and (ii) for the hills.
13. Polyblend developed by Ahmad Khan is a (a) (i) 33%, (ii) 67%
(a) Possible solution to accumulating plastic wastes (b) (i) 67%, (ii) 33%
(b) Method for dealing with electronic wastes (c) (i) 50% ,(ii) 50%
(c) Synthetic fiber produced in India (d) (i) 40%, (ii) 60%
(d) Organic farming product
14. It has been recommended that storage of nuclear Section–B
waste after sufficient pretreatment should be done in
suitably shielded containers buried within rocks
about 21. Assertion: Pollution is always caused by human
activities.
(a) 50 m deep
Reason: Pollution is not different from
(b) 100 m deep below the ocean bed
contamination.
(c) 500 feet deep
(d) 500 m deep Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion
15. If there is no greenhouse effect, the average (b) If both Assertion and Reason are true, but the
temperature at the surface of the Earth would have Reason is not the correct explanation of the
been Assertion
(a) 15 (b) -18 (c) If the assertion is true, but Reason is false
(c) -6 (d) 10 (d) If both Assertion and Reason are false
16. The major ozone-depleting substance out of the 22. Assertion: Suspended particulate matter (SPM) is an
following is important pollutant released by diesel vehicles.
(a) CFCs Reason: Catalytic converters greatly reduce pollution
(b) O2 caused by automobiles.
(c) Nitrogen (a) If both Assertion and Reason are true, and the
(d) all of these Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion
17. The thickness of ozone in a column of air from (b) If both Assertion and Reason are true, but the
ground to top of the atmosphere is measured in terms Reason is not the correct explanation of the
of Assertion
(a) Decibel units (c) If the assertion is true, but Reason is false
(b) Pascal units (d) If both Assertion and Reason are false
(c) Svedberg units 23. Assertion: The sounds which cannot be heard
(d) Dobson units pleasantly are called noise.
184 ENVIRONMENTAL ISSUES
Reason: The sound above 80 dB becomes painful. (d) If both Assertion and Reason are false
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true, and the 27. Assertion: The greenhouse effect is harmful to life
Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion on earth.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true, but the Reason: It leads to increased risk in human beings
Reason is not the correct explanation of the for the development of certain cancers.
Assertion (a) If both Assertion and Reason are true, and the
(c) If the assertion is true, but Reason is false Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false (b) If both Assertion and Reason are true, but the
24. Assertion: Cultural eutrophication is nutrient Reason is not the correct explanation of the
enrichment of water bodies due to human activities Assertion
like the passage of sewage, industrial effluents, etc. (c) If the assertion is true, but Reason is false
Reason: The prime contaminants from sewage and (d) If both Assertion and Reason are false
industrial effluents are nitrates and phosphates, which 28. Assertion: Reforestation is the process of restoring a
act as plant nutrients and overstimulate the growth of forest that once existed but was removed at some
algae. point in time in the past.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true, and the Reason: Reforestation may occur naturally in a
Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion deforested area; however, it can be speeded up by
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true, but the planting trees with due consideration to biodiversity
Reason is not the correct explanation of the that earlier existed in that area.
Assertion (a) If both Assertion and Reason are true, and the
(c) If the assertion is true, but Reason is false Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false (b) If both Assertion and Reason are true, but the
25. Assertion: Landfills are not really much of a solution Reason is not the correct explanation of the
to solid waste disposal. Assertion
Reason: The amount of garbage generation (c) If the assertion is true, but Reason is false
especially in the metros has increased too much that (d) If both Assertion and Reason are false
these sites getting filled also.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true, and the Section–C (Case Study Questions)
Case Study – 1
Reason is not the correct explanation of the 29. Air pollution refers to the release of pollutants into
Assertion the air—pollutants which are detrimental to human
health and the planet as a whole. According to the
(c) If the assertion is true, but Reason is false
World Health Organization (WHO), each year air
pollution is responsible for nearly seven million
26. Assertion: Burying radioactive waste in suitably deaths around the globe. Nine out of ten human
shielded containers deep in the rocks is a method not beings currently breathe air that exceeds the WHO’s
agreeable to many people. guideline limits for pollutants, with those living in
Reason: According to them the best solution will be low- and middle-income countries suffering the most.
to dispose of the nuclear waste in space. The pollution level has always been a pain point for
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true, and the Delhi among its many issues, but of late, it has been
Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion drastic to the extent of becoming life-threatening. On
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true, but the November 8, 2017, the Air Quality Index crossed the
Reason is not the correct explanation of the pollution levels of 999, making it the worst of all.
Assertion November 2017 is referred to as the Great Smog of
(c) If the assertion is true, but Reason is false Delhi as well because the air particulate hit the worst
level, beyond the safe limit of 100.
(i) Select out the pair of harmless gases. (iii) Wastes from homes, offices, stores, schools,
(a) CO and CO2 (b) SO2 and CH4 hospitals that are collected and disposed of by the
(c) N2 and O2 (d) NO2 and NO municipality are called
(ii) In the 1990s, among the 41 most polluted cities of the (a) Municipal solid wastes
world, Delhi ranked (b) Sanitary landfills
(a) Second (b) Third (c) Electronic wastes
(c) Fourth (d) Fifth (d) Open dumping
(iii) Which of the following is the way to control (iv) Everything that goes out in trash is called
vehicular air pollution in Indian cities like Delhi? (a) Sanitary landfills
(a) Use of CNG as fuel (b) Solid wastes
(b) Use of unleaded petrol in the vehicles (c) Electronic wastes
(c) Use of catalytic converter in the vehicles (d) radioactive wastes
(d) All of these
(iv) What measures can be taken to control the emission
Case Type-3
of air pollutants from automobiles?
31. India's average temperature has risen by around
(a) Proper maintenance of automobiles
0.7°C during Jan 2018. The temperature increase has
(b) Use of lead-free petrol or diesel led to severe loss and damage and decreased work
(c) Use of catalytic converters productivity that has ravaged lives and livelihoods.
(d) All of the above As global warming starts lowering food production
around the world, many more people will die in
Case Type-2 densely populated and vulnerable countries such as
India. As many as 160,000 people will die every year
30. Improper disposal of municipal solid waste can
in India by 2050 due to decreased food production
create unsanitary conditions, and these conditions in
because of climate change, an Oxford University
turn can lead to pollution of the environment and to
study has predicted. India ranks second in the
outbreaks of vector-borne disease—that is, diseases
mortality forecast after China.
spread by rodents and insects. The tasks of solid-
(i) An increase in the level of greenhouse gases has led
waste management present complex technical
to considerable heating of the Earth leading to
challenges. They also pose a wide variety of
administrative, economic, and social problems that (a) Ozone depletion
must be managed and solved. (b) Skin cancer
A great initiative is taken in India by the Reliance (c) Global warming
foundation under the leadership of Mrs. Nita Ambani (d) Both a and b
ma'am and her daughter by collecting record setting (ii) The measures that can be taken to control global
78 tonnes of waste plastic bottles for recycling to warming
spread 'Swachhata Hi Seva'.
(a) Planting trees
(i) Which were adopted as the substitute for open
(b) Slowing down the growth of the human
burning dumps?
population
(a) Sanitary landfills
(c) International initiatives are also being taken
(b) Earmuffs
(c) Incinerators
(iii) So-called greenhouse gases have been given this
(d) Cyclone collectors name because they
(ii) All the wastes that we generate can be categorized into (a) Trap the heat radiated from Earth's surface.
(a) Two types (b) Three types (b) Are produced by plants.
(c) Four types (d) Five types (c) Are necessary for plant growth.
(d) Are similar to gases produced in greenhouse
ANSWER KEY 191
Answer Key
CHAPTER – 1: REPRODUCTION IN ORGANISMS
EXERCISE - 1: Basic Subjective Question EXERCISE - 2: Basic Objective Questions
 DIRECTION FOR USE:-

Scan the QR code and check detailed solution. Scan the QR code and check detailed solution.
1. (d) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (d)
6. (d) 7. (b) 8. (b) 9. (b) 10. (c)
11. (d) 12. (c) 13. (b) 14. (d) 15. (a)
16. (b) 17. (d) 18. (a) 19. (d) 20. (c)
21. (a) 22. (b) 23. (a) 24. (c) 25. (d)
26. (a) 27. (b)
28. i. (d) ii. (c) iii. (d) iv. (d)
29. i. (d) ii. (d) iii. (d) iv. (c)
30. i. (d) ii. (d) iii. (c) iv. (d)
EXERCISE - 3: Previous Year Questions NCERT Solved Exercises
Scan the QR code and check detailed solution.

192 ANSWER KEY
Answer Key
CHAPTER – 2: SEXUAL REPRODUCTION IN FLOWERING PLANTS

1. (a) 2. (d) 3. (c) 4. (a) 5. (d)
6. (a) 7. (c) 8. (c) 9. (c) 10. (a)
11. (a) 12. (a) 13. (a) 14. (a) 15. (b)
16. (c) 17. (a) 18. (a) 19. (d) 20. (a)
21. (a) 22. (b) 23. (d) 24. (c) 25. (a)
26. (b) 27. (a) 28. (b)
29. i. (c) ii. (a) iii. (c) iv. (a)
30. i. (d) ii. (b) iii. (a) iv. (c)
31. i. (b) ii. (d) iii. (a) iv. (b)

ANSWER KEY 193
Answer Key
CHAPTER – 3: HUMAN REPRODUCTION

1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (d) 5. (a)
6. (a) 7. (d) 8. (b) 9. (d) 10. (c)
11. (b) 12. (b) 13. (a) 14. (a) 15. (d)
16. (a) 17. (d) 18. (c) 19. (c) 20. (d)
21. (b) 22. (c) 23. (a) 24. (d) 25. (b)
26. (a) 27. (d) 28. (a)
29. i. (c) ii. (a) iii. (a) iv. (d)
30. i. (a) ii. (c) iii. (b) iv. (d)
31. i. (d) ii. (c) iii. (a) iv. (d)

194 ANSWER KEY
Answer Key
CHAPTER – 4: REPRODUCTIVE HEALTH

1. (a) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (a)
6. (c) 7. (d) 8. (b) 9. (b) 10. (a)
11. (a) 12. (b) 13. (b) 14. (c) 15. (d)
16. (b) 17. (d) 18. (b) 19. (d) 20. (b)
21. (b) 22. (d) 23. (c) 24. (d) 25. (b)
26. (c) 27. (b)
28. i. (a) ii. (d) iii. (c) iv. (c)
29. i. (c) ii. (b) iii. (c) iv. (d)
30. i. (a) ii. (b) iii. (c) iv. (a)

ANSWER KEY 195
Answer Key
CHAPTER – 5: PRINCIPLES OF INHERITANCE AND VARIATION

1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (b)
6. (c) 7. (c) 8. (b) 9. (b) 10. (b)
11. (d) 12. (a) 13. (a) 14. (b) 15. (b)
16. (d) 17. (b) 18. (c) 19. (d) 20. (a)
21. (c) 22. (b) 23. (c) 24. (a) 25. (c)
26. (b) 27. (b)
28. i. (b) ii. (c) iii. (d) iv. (a)
29. i. (c) ii. (c) iii. (c) iv. (d)
30. i. (c) ii. (b) iii. (c) iv. (d)

196 ANSWER KEY
Answer Key
CHAPTER – 6: MOLECULAR BASIS OF INHERITANCE

1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (d) 5. (b)
6. (b) 7. (b) 8. (d) 9. (a) 10. (b)
11. (d) 12. (c) 13. (a) 14. (b) 15. (c)
16. (c) 17. (d) 18. (d) 19. (a) 20. (c)
21. (b) 22. (c) 23. (a) 24. (d) 25. (a)
26. (b) 27. (b) 28. (d)
29. i. (c) ii. (d) iii. (c) iv. (b)
30. i. (c) ii. (c) iii. (c) iv. (c)
31. i. (d) ii. (d) iii. (b) iv. (c)

ANSWER KEY 197
Answer Key
CHAPTER – 7: EVOLUTION

1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (a) 5. (a)
6. (a) 7. (b) 8. (b) 9. (a) 10. (d)
11. (a) 12. (c) 13. (a) 14. (a) 15. (b)
16. (a) 17. (c) 18. (b) 19. (b) 20. (b)
21. (a) 22. (c) 23. (c) 24. (a) 25. (d)
26. (a) 27. (a) 28. (d)
29. i. (a) ii. (d) iii. (b) iv. (a)
30. i. (b) ii. (a) iii. (c) iv. (b)
31. i. (b) ii. (d) iii. (b) iv. (b)

198 ANSWER KEY
Answer Key
CHAPTER – 8: HUMAN HEALTH AND DISEASE

1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (c) 5. (c)
6. (d) 7. (c) 8. (d) 9. (c) 10. (c)
11. (c) 12. (d) 13. (b) 14. (b) 15. (c)
16. (d) 17. (d) 18. (c) 19. (c) 20. (a)
21. (d) 22. (b) 23. (a) 24. (d) 25. (c)
26. (c) 27. (d) 28. (d)
29. i. (a) ii. (d) iii. (a) iv. (c)
30. i. (b) ii. (b) iii. (d) iv. (a)
31. i. (b) ii. (d) iii. (c) iv. (a)

ANSWER KEY 199
Answer Key
CHAPTER – 9: STRATEGIES FOR ENHANCEMENT IN FOOD PRODUCTION

1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (a)
6. (c) 7. (b) 8. (d) 9. (c) 10. (c)
11. (c) 12. (b) 13. (c) 14. (b) 15. (d)
16. (b) 17. (c) 18. (b) 19. (c) 20. (d)
21. (d) 22. (b) 23. (b) 24. (d) 25. (d)
26. (a) 27. (a) 28. (b)
29. i. (b) ii. (c) iii. (b) iv. (c)
30. i. (d) ii. (c) iii. (c) iv. (b)
31. i. (a) ii. (a) iii. (a) iv. (a)

200 ANSWER KEY
Answer Key
CHAPTER – 10: MICROBES IN HUMAN WELFARE

1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (d) 5. (a)
6. (b) 7. (b) 8. (b) 9. (b) 10. (a)
11. (a) 12. (c) 13. (b) 14. (a) 15. (b)
16. (d) 17. (d) 18. (d) 19. (b) 20. (d)
21. (b) 22. (a) 23. (a) 24. (b) 25. (b)
26. (b) 27. (a)
28. i. (b) ii. (b) iii. (c) iv. (c)
29. i. (b) ii. (b) iii. (b) iv. (c)
30. i. (b) ii. (b) iii. (c) iv. (b)

ANSWER KEY 201
Answer Key
CHAPTER – 11: BIOTECHNOLOGY: PRINCIPLES AND PROCESSES

1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (b) 5. (c)
6. (b) 7. (c) 8. (a) 9. (c) 10. (c)
11. (a) 12. (a) 13. (d) 14. (d) 15. (a)
16. (a) 17. (b) 18. (a) 19. (b) 20. (c)
21. (a) 22. (c) 23. (c) 24. (a) 25. (a)
26. (a) 27. (a) 28. (c)
29. i. (b) ii. (d) iii. (c) iv. (c)
30. i. (b) ii. (d) iii. (d) iv. (b)
31. i. (c) ii. (b) iii. (b) iv. (c)

202 ANSWER KEY
Answer Key
CHAPTER – 12: BIOTECHNOLOGY AND ITS APPLICATIONS

1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (d) 5. (a)
6. (d) 7. (c) 8. (b) 9. (d) 10. (c)
11. (c) 12. (c) 13. (b) 14. (c) 15. (d)
16. (c) 17. (d) 18. (d) 19. (d) 20. (b)
21. (a) 22. (a) 23. (c) 24. (b) 25. (b)
26. (a) 27. (a) 28. (b)
29. i. (a) ii. (d) iii. (b) iv. (a)
30. i. (d) ii. (b) iii. (a) iv. (b)
31. i. (c) ii. (d) iii. (d) iv. (c)

ANSWER KEY 203
Answer Key
CHAPTER – 13: ORGANISMS AND POPULATIONS

1. (a) 2. (d) 3. (d) 4. (d) 5. (a)
6. (d) 7. (b) 8. (b) 9. (d) 10. (d)
11. (d) 12. (d) 13. (a) 14. (d) 15. (b)
16. (b) 17. (a) 18. (c) 19. (d) 20. (a)
21. (c) 22. (b) 23. (c) 24. (a) 25. (c)
26. (c) 27. (d)
28. i. (c) ii. (a) iii. (d) iv. (a)
29. i. (d) ii. (a) iii. (a) iv. (b)
30. i. (d) ii. (d) iii. (a) iv. (b)

204 ANSWER KEY
Answer Key
CHAPTER – 14: ECOSYSTEM

1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (d)
6. (a) 7. (c) 8. (b) 9. (c) 10. (a)
11. (b) 12. (a) 13. (a) 14. (a) 15. (a)
16. (c) 17. (c) 18. (c) 19. (a) 20. (b)
21. (a) 22. (a) 23. (b) 24. (a) 25. (c)
26. (d) 27. (c)
28. i. (a) ii. (c) iii. (d) iv. (d)
29. i. (a) ii. (b) iii. (a) iv. (b)
30. i. (a) ii. (d) iii. (a) iv. (d)

ANSWER KEY 205
Answer Key
CHAPTER – 15: BIODIVERSITY

1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (a) 5. (d)
6. (c) 7. (a) 8. (a) 9. (c) 10. (c)
11. (a) 12. (c) 13. (b) 14. (d) 15. (a)
16. (a) 17. (c) 18. (d) 19. (d) 20. (b)
21. (b) 22. (a) 23. (d) 24. (b) 25. (a)
26. (c) 27. (c)
28. i. (d) ii. (d) iii. (b) iv. (d)
29. i. (b) ii. (a) iii. (a) iv. (a)
30. i. (a) ii. (c) iii. (d) iv. (c)

206 ANSWER KEY
Answer Key
CHAPTER – 16: ENVIRONMENTAL ISSUES

1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (a) 5. (c)
6. (b) 7. (d) 8. (d) 9. (a) 10. (d)
11. (a) 12. (d) 13. (a) 14. (d) 15. (b)
16. (a) 17. (d) 18. (a) 19. (d) 20. (a)
21. (d) 22. (b) 23. (a) 24. (b) 25. (a)
26. (c) 27. (d) 28. (b)
29. i. (c) ii. (c) iii. (d) iv. (d)
30. i. (a) ii. (b) iii. (a) iv. (b)
31. i. (c) ii. (d) iii. (a) iv. (a)

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Typesetting Team Graphic Designers

Sexual reproduction in flowering plants

Principles of Inheritance and Variation

Molecular Basis of Inheritance

Human Health and Disease

Strategies for Enhancement in Food production

Microbes in Human Welfare

Biotechnology: Principles and Processes

Biotechnology and its Applications

Organisms and Populations

 Organisms may be bisexual or unisexual.

EXERCISE – 1: Basic Subjective Questions

Section–B 25. Assertion: Isogametes are formed in the majority of

EXERCISE – 3: Previous Year Questions

Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants

EXERCISE – 1: Basic Subjective Questions

EXERCISE – 2: Basic Objective Questions

EXERCISE – 3: Previous Year Questions

36. In angiosperms, zygote is diploid, while the primary (iii) Integument

EXERCISE – 1: Basic Subjective Questions

cycle? Section–D (4 Marks Questions)

13. Fertilization of ovum by the sperm takes place in Delivery of foetus

Case Study – 2 Case Study – 3

(i) Fimbriae (oviducal) (Delhi 2014C)

EXERCISE – 1: Basic Subjective Questions

Section–C (3 Mark Questions) Section–E (5 Mark Questions)

EXERCISE – 2: Basic Objective Questions

(a) II and III Case Study – 3

EXERCISE – 3: Previous Year Questions

(AI 2015) (ii) Explain how they act as effective contraceptives

Principles of Inheritance and Variation

Section–D (4 Mark Questions) Section–E (5 Mark Questions)

Case Type-3 (ii) Chromosomal theory of inheritance can be said to be

EXERCISE – 3: Previous Year Questions

EXERCISE – 1: Basic Subjective Questions

EXERCISE – 2: Basic Objective Questions

(d) S strain (heat-killed) + R strain (live) Inject into (c) SETs

Case Study – 2 Case Study – 3

EXERCISE – 1: Basic Subjective Questions

EXERCISE – 2: Basic Objective Questions

One subtle but important point is that although natural

EXERCISE – 3: Previous Year Questions

Human Health and Diseases

EXERCISE – 2: Basic Objective Questions

EXERCISE – 3: Previous Year Questions

Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production

EXERCISE – 1: Basic Subjective Questions

EXERCISE – 2: Basic Objective Questions

14. One of the alternate sources of proteins for animal Section–B

(c) If assertion is true, but Reason is false (b) Fertilized eggs

28. Assertion: Somatic hybridisation is a process where (d) Frozen semen

nutrients and hormones. The cells or tissues can

Microbes in Human Welfare

EXERCISE – 1: Basic Subjective Questions

Section–D (4 Mark Questions) Section–E (5 Mark Questions)