MCQs

Chap 1:
1. Communication skills
a. are not as important as technical skills for career success.
b. are not necessary in today's competitive job market.
c. are ranked by recruiters at the top of qualities they most desire in job seekers.
d. cannot be learned; they are innate.
ANSWER: C
2. Which of the following statements is most accurate?

a. Because today's workers are more geographically dispersed, the need for well-
written messages has declined.
b. Employers rank oral and written communication skills as less valuable than hard
skills such as mathematical computation, computer literacy, and troubleshooting.
c. Communication skills are critical to your job placement, performance, career

advancement, and organizational success.
d. Business letters and interoffice memoranda remain the top forms of business
correspondence.
ANSWER: C
3. On the job you are more likely to be taken seriously and promoted if you
a. look and sound professional.
b. frame your degree or certificate and hang it on your office or cubicle wall.
c. appear to be busy even when you're not really doing anything.
d. attend office parties.
ANSWER: A

a. Workers today communicate less than in previous years.
b. Technology has not affected how and why we communicate.
c. Businesses today generate a wide range of messages in a variety of media.
d. Writing is a skill set used only by managers and corporate executives.
ANSWER: C
5. Major trends in today's dynamic world of work include increased emphasis on self-
directed work groups and virtual teams, heightened global competition, innovative
communication technologies, new work environments, and focus on
a. creating an entirely online presence.
b. promoting from within.
c. restructuring and downsizing.
d. business ethics.
ANSWER: D
6. Which of the following statements about today's business environments is most

accurate?
a. The number of telecommuting employees is expected to decline in the future.
b. All companies assign offices for employees.
c. Many employees today no longer need an office; they can work anytime and
anywhere.
d. Workers today spend more time in offices than workers in the past.
ANSWER: C
7. Which of the following statements is correct?

a. Ethics is a priority for many businesses.
b. Because of economic concerns, American companies are relying on local
markets.
c. Most companies encourage workers to work independently.
d. Today's businesses are expanding their hierarchies to meet the demands of their
workers and their competition.
ANSWER: A
8. Communication is defined as "the transmission of information and meaning from one

individual or group to another." The crucial element of this definition is
a. transmission.
b. information.
c. meaning.
d. individual.
ANSWER: C
9. Converting ideas into words or gestures to convey meaning is called

a. feedback.
b. decoding.
c. encoding.
d. nonverbal communication.
ANSWER: C
10. The communication process begins when the sender

a. determines the appropriate communication channel.
b. has an idea.
c. encodes an idea into a message.
d. plans for feedback.
ANSWER: B
11. Translating the message from its symbol form into meaning involves
a. feedback.
b. decoding.
c. encoding.
d. nonverbal communication.
ANSWER: B
12. Which of the following statements about feedback is most accurate?

a. Feedback is the verbal response from the receiver.
b. Senders should provide as much information as they can to their receivers to
show their intellectual capabilities.
c. Paraphrasing a speaker's message is a waste of time.
d. Feedback can include both nonverbal and verbal responses.
ANSWER: D
13. The medium over which the message is transmitted is the

a. context of the message.
b. encoding process.
c. communication channel.
d. decoding process.
ANSWER: C
14. Communication noise

a. includes anything that disrupts the transmission of a message.
b. is also called feedback.
c. describes only externally produced sounds.
d. occurs only during the encoding process.
ANSWER: A
15. Many of us are poor listeners because

a. the brain can process information at least three times as fast as people talk.
b. we tend to "tune out" speakers whose ideas run counter to our own.
c. we would rather talk than listen.
d. All answer choices are correct.
ANSWER: D
16. According to research, what percentage of our work time is spent listening?
a. 50 percent
b. 90 percent
c. 10 percent
d. 25 percent
ANSWER: A

a. Very few management problems are related to listening.
b. The average person remembers nearly three quarters of what he or she hears
following a10-minute presentation.
c. We misinterpret, misunderstand, or change very little of what we hear.
d. Most people are not very good listeners.
ANSWER: D
18. Approximately how many words per minute do most North Americans speak?
a. 375
b. 500
c. 250
d. 125
ANSWER: D
19. Peter must inform his employees that his company will need to let go of employees.
Which word would be best for Peter to use when conveying this idea to his employees?
a. Layoff
b. Streamlining
c. Downsizing
d. Rightsizing
ANSWER: A
20. You can improve your listening skills if you follow tips for active listening,
including
a. keeping an open mind, establishing a receptive mind-set, and listening between
the lines.
b. establishing a receptive mind-set, concentrating on appearance and delivery,
and sifting information through biases.
c. capitalizing on lag time, concentrating on your next comment, and taking as
many notes as possible.
d. asking questions immediately, focusing on the speaker's face, and concentrating
on the details presented in the message.
ANSWER: A
21. Your boss is giving instructions for a new method of keeping expense accounts.
However, you find it difficult to concentrate because you think the change is unnecessary.
What type of barrier to effective listening are you experiencing?
a. Language problem barrier
b. Psychological barrier
c. Physical barrier
d. Nonverbal distraction barrier
ANSWER: B
22. A listener who nods her head and maintains eye contact with a speaker is probably
a. listening actively to what the speaker is saying.
b. not understanding what the speaker is saying.
c. faking attention while she listens to music on her MP3 player.
d. formulating her response to a point with which she disagrees.
ANSWER: A
23. Brian is attending a seminar on workplace efficiency and must make a presentation
on this topic when he returns to work. Brian can increase his comprehension by keeping
an open mind, listening for main points, taking selective notes, and
a. closing his eyes.
b. speaking up immediately when he has a question or does not agree with the
speaker.
c. filling in the lag time by mentally reviewing other tasks he must do that day.
d. judging ideas, not appearances.
ANSWER: D
24. Amelia has made a conscious effort to become an active listener. Therefore, she
shuts down her computer, turns off her cell phone, and asks her assistant to hold all
incoming calls when she conducts interviews. What technique is she using to improve
listening?
a. Keeping an open mind
b. Establishing a receptive mind-set
c. Capitalizing on lag time
d. Controlling her surroundings
ANSWER: D
25. Which of the following statements about nonverbal communication is most

accurate?
a. Nonverbal communication comprises approximately 10 percent of a message.
b. When verbal and nonverbal messages contradict, receivers believe that the
verbal message is more accurate.
c. Meanings of nonverbal behaviors are often influenced by one's culture.
d. Nonverbal communication applies to only intended messages.
ANSWER: C
26. Which of the following is a form of nonverbal communication?

a. Facial expressions, such as frowning or raising the eyebrows
b. Eye contact, such as staring or avoiding looking someone in the eye
c. Time, such as showing up too late or too early
d. All of these choices are forms of nonverbal communication.
ANSWER: D
27. According to Edward T. Hall, in which spatial zone do most people converse with
friends and family members?
a. Intimate
b. Personal
c. Social
d. Public
ANSWER: A
28. According to Edward T. Hall, which spatial zone is the largest?

a. Intimate
b. Personal
c. Social
d. Public
ANSWER: D
29. Which of the following tips should you follow to improve your nonverbal
communication skills?
a. Focus only on the sender's words when you are engaged in conversation.
b. Proofread all correspondence you send.
c. Avoid individuals from other cultures so that you don't start using nonverbal
behaviors displayed in other cultures.
d. Avoid asking the speaker questions when his or her nonverbal and verbal
messages contradict.
ANSWER: B
30. Nonverbal communication includes

a. all unwritten and unspoken messages, intended or not.
b. only body language and gestures that accompany a spoken message.
c. only eye contact and facial expressions that support the meaning of the words.
d. only cues that reveal agreement with or contradiction of the verbal message.
ANSWER: A
31. Most people think that the best predictor of a speaker's true feelings is his or her
a. facial expressions.
b. posture.
c. gestures.
d. eyes.
ANSWER: D
32. Suzanne wants to make a good impression during a job interview. What should she
do?
a. Avoid eye contact with her interviewer to show respect.
b. Slump down in her chair to show that she's relaxed.
c. Wear professional business attire.
d. Ask the interviewer to lunch.
ANSWER: C
33. The manager noticed that Stephen slammed his desk drawer right after he said that
he was happy to work late. The manager should
a. tell Stephen that he should behave more professionally.
b. respond to the verbal message only and thank him for working late.
c. politely seek additional information by saying, I'm not sure that you really want
to stay late. Do you have somewhere you need to be?
d. fire Stephen for insubordination.
ANSWER: C
34. Every country has a unique culture or common heritage that

a. teaches its members how to behave and conditions their reactions.
b. results from a common gene pool.
c. is created by a structured educational system.
d. comes from an orderly system of government and laws.
ANSWER: A
35. Communicators in ____ cultures (such as those in North America, Scandinavia, and
Germany) depend little on the context of a situation to convey their meaning. They tend to
be logical, analytical, and action oriented.
a. high-context
b. civilized
c. ancient
d. low-context
ANSWER: D
36. Which of the following countries represents a high-context culture?

a. United States
b. Germany
c. Norway
d. Japan
ANSWER: D
37. Which of the following is a common trait of a business communicator from a low-
context culture?
a. Valuing relationships, harmony, status, and saving face
b. Relying on relationships and group decisions
c. Keeping business and social relationships separate
d. Assuming listeners require little background information
ANSWER: C
38. North Americans value straightforwardness and are suspicious of evasiveness.

These traits identify the cultural dimension of
a. individualism.
b. formality.
c. communication style.
d. time orientation.
ANSWER: C
39. Which of the following countries would likely view a business contract as a binding
document?
a. Mexico
b. Greece
c. Japan
d. Germany
ANSWER: D
40. Learning about beliefs and practices different from our own and appreciating them
means displaying
a. tolerance
b. individualism.
c. stereotyping.
d. gender norming.
ANSWER: A
41. An American businessperson who thinks that all Swiss are hardworking, efficient,
and neat is illustrating an example of
a. ethnocentrism.
b. tolerance.
c. stereotyping.
d. a cultural norm.
ANSWER: C
42. Robert frequently comments that he likes working independently because that's the
American way and the American way is the best way! Robert's belief in the superiority of
his own culture is an example of
a. stereotyping.
b. individualism.
c. ethnocentrism.
d. communication style.
ANSWER: C
43. Working with people from other cultures will require tolerance. One of the best
ways to become more tolerant is by
a. practicing empathy.
b. increasing your individualism.
c. encouraging ethnocentrism.
d. knowing your communication style.
ANSWER: A
44. While conducting business with a customer from Italy, Zoe was careful to speak
slowly and clearly, using short sentences and familiar words. However, she noticed that
the customer had a glazed expression and did not understand her. Zoe should
a. repeat what she has said in a louder voice.
b. graciously accept the blame for not making her meaning clear.
c. end the conversation until an interpreter can be found.
d. require the Italian businessperson to restate the message in simple words.
ANSWER: B
45. When speaking with someone for whom English is a second language, you should
talk slowly, enunciate clearly, check frequently for comprehension, observe eye messages,
listen without interrupting, and
a. follow up important messages in writing.
b. avoid smiling, which might make you appear to lack seriousness.
c. use words that will impress the listener.
d. assume that the listener understands if he or she nods and smiles in agreement.
ANSWER: A
46. When writing for a multicultural audience, you are more likely to be understood if
you use short sentences and short paragraphs and if you include
a. slang, such as This product really rocks!
b. idioms, such as You can improve your bottom line by using this product.
c. acronyms, such as ASAP.
d. action-specific verbs, such as e-mail me if you have any questions rather than
contact me if you have any questions.
ANSWER: D
47. Max is preparing a contract between his company and one in Mexico. What should
he do when citing numbers in the contract?
a. Use the metric system.
b. Use American currency figures.
c. Write all months as figures rather than as words.
d. Avoid using any figures in the contract.
ANSWER: A
48. Which of the following is a benefit of a diverse work environment?

a. Better ability to create the products desired by consumers
b. Fewer discrimination lawsuits, fewer union clashes, and less government
regulatory action
c. Improvement of employee relationships and increased productivity
d. All are benefits of a diverse work environment.
ANSWER: D
49. Megahertz Technology Solutions, Inc., recently suffered a discrimination lawsuit.

Advice to improve its workforce diversity is likely to include understanding the value of
differences, providing diversity training for employees, building on similarities, and
a. hiring a more homogenous work group.
b. making fewer assumptions.
c. requiring all employees to use jargon that conveys stereotypes.
d. making sure all employees conform to a standard company culture.
ANSWER: B
50. Workers who communicate successfully with diverse audiences must make few
assumptions, learn about their own and other cultures, and
a. seek common ground.
b. help others conform.
c. avoid noticing differences.
d. see professional advice.
ANSWER: A
91. ____________________ is defined as "the transmission of information and

meaning from one individual or group to another."
ANSWER: Communication
92. In the communication process, ____________________ means converting an idea
into words or gestures that will convey meaning.
ANSWER: encoding
93. When you decide the spoken or written means by which you will send a message,
you have selected the ____________________ of communication.
ANSWER: channel
94. When the receiver translates the message from its symbol form into meaning, it is
known as ____________________.
ANSWER: decoding
95. The verbal and nonverbal responses of the receiver create ____________________,
a vital part of the entire communication process that helps the sender know that the
message was received and understood.
ANSWER: feedback
96. ____________________ cues include eye contact, facial expression, body

movements, space, time, territory, and appearance.
ANSWER: Nonverbal
97. According to a model developed by cultural anthropologist Edward T. Hall,

____________________ refers to the stimuli, environment, or ambience surrounding an
event and is arranged on a continuum from low to high.
ANSWER: context
98. The belief in the superiority of one's own culture is known as

____________________. This natural attitude is found in all cultures.
ANSWER: ethnocentrism
99. An oversimplified perception of a behavior pattern or characteristic applied to

entire groups is a(n) ____________________.
ANSWER: stereotype
100. ____________________ means learning about beliefs and practices different from
our own and appreciating them. One of the best ways to develop this trait is to practice
empathy.
ANSWER: Tolerance
Chap 2:
1. Which of the following represents a goal for business writers?
a. You should concentrate on your feelings in business messages.
b. You should get your audience to believe and accept your ideas.
c. You should create messages that are lengthy to demonstrate your superior
intellect and language skills.
d. You should write business messages from your perspective.
ANSWER: B
2. When preparing a business message, you should make your writing audience
oriented. Audience oriented means you should
a. write to solve a problem or convey information.
b. attempt to get your audience to believe and accept your message.
c. present ideas clearly but concisely.
d. concentrate on looking at the problem from the receiver's perspective.
ANSWER: D
3. Business writing should be purposeful. In this context purposeful can best be defined
as
a. presenting ideas clearly and concisely.
b. concentrating on the receiver's perspective instead of your own.
c. solving problems and conveying information.
d. getting your audience to believe and accept your message.
ANSWER: C
4. Business writing should be economical. In this context economical can best be

defined as
ANSWER: A
5. Business writing should be persuasive. In this context persuasive can best be defined
as
ANSWER: D
6. The first phase of the writing process involves analyzing the audience and your
purpose for writing, anticipating your audience' reaction to your message, and
a. investigating background information.
b. composing your message.
c. adapting your message to the audience.
d. looking for previous company documents on the topic.
ANSWER: C
7. Adapting your message to the audience involves

a. thinking of the right words and tone to use in your message.
b. rewriting your message several times to ensure it is clear.
c. selecting the best research to incorporate within the message.
d. conducting a thorough audience analysis.
ANSWER: A
8. During the second phase of the writing process, you conduct research,
a. clarify the audience demographics, and edit word choices.
b. anticipate audience reaction, and adapt the message.
c. organize ideas, and compose the message.
d. evaluate message effectiveness, and revise as needed.
ANSWER: C
9. In the final phase of the writing process, check the message for clarity and readability,
proofread for errors, and
a. evaluate for effectiveness.
b. assess the cost in the selected delivery channel.
c. solve the problem.
d. forward the document to the publishing department.
ANSWER: A
10. Experts say that writers should spend the most time in the ____ stage of the writing
process.
a. prewriting
b. writing
c. revising
d. transmission
ANSWER: C
11. According to writing experts, approximately what percentage of time should you
spend on the prewriting phase of a business message?
a. 90 percent
b. 50 percent
c. 25 percent
d. 5 percent
ANSWER: C
12. The primary purpose of business writing is typically to inform or persuade; a

common secondary purpose is to
a. promote goodwill.
b. comply with governmental regulations.
c. create written documentation.
d. avoid lawsuits.
ANSWER: A
13. Before Melissa organizes and composes her message, she should ask two questions:
(1) Why am I sending this message? and (2)
a. Why did my boss give this task to me?
b. What do I hope to achieve with this message?
c. How can I get this message written as quickly as possible?
d. Do I have enough time and financial resources to complete the work?
ANSWER: B
14. Travis must determine the appropriate channel for an important business message.
In this context channel refers to the
a. individuals who will receive the message.
b. degree of formality required.
c. medium through which the message is sent.
d. tone and approach needed to accomplish his purpose.
ANSWER: C
15. You are selecting a channel for sending your message. Which of the following is
not a factor to consider when making this decision?
a. Amount and speed of feedback and interactivity required
b. Cost of the channel
c. Confidentiality and sensitivity of the message
d. Your competitors' channel use
ANSWER: D
16. Which of the following communication channels is considered the richest medium?
a. Written proposal
b. E-mail message
c. Face-to-face conversation
d. Blog posting
ANSWER: C
17. Human Resources Manager Claire Siu must inform Anthony that company job
changes will require him to seek retraining or lose his position. The best channel for Ms.
Siu to deliver this message is
a. an e-mail message.
b. face-to-face communication.
c. voice mail.
d. an instant message.
ANSWER: B
18. Michael usually holds team meetings on Tuesday mornings, but he needs to
reschedule next week's meeting to Wednesday morning. To tell team members of the date
change for the next meeting, Michael should
a. send an e-mail.
b. meet in person with each team member.
c. call a team meeting.
d. write a short team report.
ANSWER: A
19. What communication channel would be most appropriate to deliver data to a

customer?
a. Business letter
b. E-mail
c. Report or proposal
d. Memorandum
ANSWER: C
20. What communication channel would be most appropriate when you must share
digital information with other members of your work team?
a. Wiki
b. E-mail
c. Fax
d. Instant message
ANSWER: A
21. What communication channel would be most appropriate when a written record or
formality is required?
a. Report or proposal
b. Letter
c. E-mail
d. Blog
ANSWER: B
22. What is the preferred channel choice for today's corporate communicators?
a. Memos
b. Letters
c. E-mail
d. Instant messaging
ANSWER: C
23. Lindsay is writing a property description for a new real estate brochure. To make
her brochure more effective, Lindsay should anticipate her audience. This means she
a. identifies the property's outstanding traits and describes them clearly.
b. concentrates on the price and value of the property.
c. writes using familiar words and a friendly, informal tone.
d. considers what the readers are like and how they will react to the message.
ANSWER: D
24. Profiling the audience for a business message helps the writer
a. identify the appropriate tone, language, and channel.
b. guarantee that the audience will respond positively to the message.
c. select slang and jargon the audience will recognize and appreciate.
d. create a perfect first draft.
ANSWER: A
25. What question should you ask to visualize your audience?

a. What position does the person hold in the organization?
b. Do I need to include more background information?
c. Should I expect a neutral, positive, or negative response to my message?
d. All answer choices are questions you should ask to visualize your audience.
ANSWER: D
26. What is the primary way tone is conveyed through a business message?
a. Sentence structure
b. Language choice
c. Document design and layout
d. Sentence length
ANSWER: B
27. One technique that improves business writing is the use of empathy. Empathy refers
to
a. using inclusive language to eliminate bias.
b. putting yourself in the receiver's shoes to adapt the message to the receiver's
needs.
c. appealing to the audience by using a sender focus.
d. formatting documents to meet business standards.
ANSWER: B
28. Which of the following sentences best focuses on the audience?

a. We are very pleased to have you as our newest customer.
b. You can help us by sending us your payment immediately.
c. Register now to lock in your preferred travel dates.
d. All sentences are focused on the audience rather than the sender.
ANSWER: C
29. Jorge must inform Samantha that she is not eligible to have an August vacation for
which she recently applied. Which of the following sentences best demonstrates the "you"
view Jorge should use in denying Samantha's application?
a. I have not approved your August vacation because you applied too late.
b. We didn't receive your application early enough for the August vacation
schedule.
c. Although the August vacation schedule is full, you may qualify for a vacation in
September if you apply now.
d. The August vacation schedule was posted in May. You should have consulted it
earlier.
ANSWER: C
30. Business messages should be conversational, professional, positive, and

a. long.
b. Courteous. (lịch sự)
c. written from the sender's perspective.
d. filled with many common abbreviations.
ANSWER: B
31. Create a conversational but professional tone in letters, e-mail messages, instant
messages, and memos by
a. choosing a clear format and effective document layout.
b. using emoticons.
c. using familiar words, occasional contractions, and pronouns such as you and I.
d. using slang and abbreviations such as IMHO and BTW.
ANSWER: C
32. Marketing Director Kiprova will inform the board of directors that customers are
not responding positively to the company's Paris Hilton ads. Which of the following is the
most appropriate announcement?
a. Our customers are ripping on our Paris Hilton ads, even though we know these
ads rock.
b. Our customers are badmouthing this awesome new marketing campaign; they
are obviously just out of it.
c. At the meeting you will receive reports on recent customer criticism of the new
Paris Hilton ads.
d. It has come to my attention that our customers have denigrated our strategic
implementation of Paris Hilton's notoriety in our novel ad campaign.
ANSWER: C
33. Which of the following sentences demonstrates effective business writing?

a. Hey, Bob. Ur proposal is rad!
b. Your proposal demonstrates how our call center can better meet the needs of
our customers.
c. FYI, i liked your proposal :).
d. Congrats on the proposal. You rock!
ANSWER: B
34. Which of the following sentences demonstrates effective business writing?

a. As per your request, enclosed is our latest catalog.
b. Enclosed is our latest catalog.
c. The latest catalog is contained under separate cover.
d. Pertaining to your request, our latest catalog is enclosed.
ANSWER: B
35. Which of the following sentences demonstrates conversational business writing?

a. Your return policy really ticks me off.
b. I am upset about your return policy.
c. Your return policy has provoked me to write this letter.
d. All answer choices reflect conversational business writing.
ANSWER: B
36. As employees use instant messaging to conduct more business, they should send
messages that are informal, conversational, and
a. professional.
b. streamlined (e.g., using abbreviations such as ur for you are).
c. casual, including low-level language.
d. filled with slang and jargon.
ANSWER: A
37. Which of the following represents the best business writing?

a. We regret that we are unable to accept you as a credit customer at this time.
b. You will never be sorry that you opened a checking account with our bank.
c. We cannot accept the returned merchandise because it is not resalable.
d. You can return all resalable merchandise for a store credit.
ANSWER: D
38. Business messages should use positive language rather than negative language.
Positive language
a. has no effect on the tone of a message.
b. conveys less information than negative language.
c. grants the reader all requests or demands.
d. tells what is and what can be done.
ANSWER: D
39. Courteous business messages

a. avoid using words that sound demanding or preachy.
b. often turn demands into rhetorical questions.
c. avoid hostility or anger.
ANSWER: D
40. Which of the following demonstrates effective business writing?

a. I'm ticked! Credit my account now!
b. Will you please credit my account for $125 due to the computer error on May 1.
c. You should credit my account.
d. Please get it right and credit my account for $125.
ANSWER: B

a. All executives and their wives will attend the Reno conference.
b. A salesman must meet monthly sales quotas.
c. The female attorney graduated from Yale.
d. The office personnel will assist you with your forms.
ANSWER: D
42. Which of the following is most acceptable for business writing?

a. Every physician must carry his own malpractice insurance.
b. Every physician must carry their own malpractice insurance.
c. All physicians must carry their own malpractice insurance.
d. Every physician must carry his or her own malpractice insurance.
ANSWER: C

a. An Asian CEO was the keynote speaker.
b. An African American man was the next customer.
c. A record number of Japanese investors are purchasing real estate in the United
States.
d. Mr. Hernandez, a Mexican, is my boss.
ANSWER: C

a. Julie Neibauer, 45, was promoted to our call center.
b. The little, old lady needed assistance with her purchases.
c. Daniel Simpson, a senior citizen, volunteered with Habitat for Humanity.
d. The new tax rule applied to individuals over 62.
ANSWER: D

a. Victoria uses a wheelchair.
b. Victoria is confined to a wheelchair.
c. Crippled by multiple sclerosis, Victoria uses a wheelchair.
d. Victoria is suffering from multiple sclerosis.
ANSWER: A
46. Business writers are encouraged to use plain English, which means
a. using active-voice verbs, personal pronouns, short sentences, and familiar
words.
b. writing without weakening qualifiers.
c. avoiding all negative expressions.
d. including slang and low-level diction that everyone understands.
ANSWER: A
47. Francisco is writing an article for the company's intranet to encourage managers to
use plain English. Which of these sentences uses an appropriate business style to express
Francisco's point?
a. If you obliterate the obfuscation in your e-mail messages, your department
members will respond more appropriately.
b. Employees will respond better if you write e-mail messages with familiar
language and a friendly, conversational style.
c. Before sending an e-mail message to your department, run it up the flagpole to
see if anyone salutes.
d. Per company directives, please cease and desist from sending incomprehensible
e-mail messages to department members.
ANSWER: B
48. Business writers who use words such as interrogate, remuneration, and terminate
are using language many readers would consider
a. slang.
b. conversational.
c. jargon.
d. unfamiliar.
ANSWER: D

a. It is imperative that we ascertain whether you qualify for benefits.
b. Our company stipulates that you must submit your hours so that we can
compensate you properly.
c. Please check with your supervisor for information about salary increases.
d. Your remuneration will perpetuate for three weeks after your termination.
ANSWER: C

a. Please think about the new insurance option.
b. Caltrek experienced a change in profits during the last fiscal year.
c. Retailers can expect to pay higher amounts for their goods and services.
d. Sheila will examine the job proposal carefully.
ANSWER: D
91. During the ____________________ phase of the writing process, the writer
analyzes the audience and the purpose for writing.
ANSWER: prewriting
92. Sam is collecting and organizing information for a marketing report he is writing.
Sam is involved in the second phase of the writing process, which is the
____________________ phase.
ANSWER: writing
93. Catherine is proofreading her cover letter and résumé for accuracy before e-mailing
them to a prospective employer. She is in the third phase of the writing process, which is
the ____________________ phase.
ANSWER: revising
94. An interesting theory called ____________________ richness describes the extent

to which a channel or medium recreates or represents all the information available in the
original message.
ANSWER: media
95. The channel of choice for corporate communicators today is clearly

____________________.
ANSWER: e-mail
96. ____________________ is the process of creating a message that suits your

audience. One important aspect of this process is tone. Conveyed largely by the words in a
message, tone affects how a receiver feels after reading or hearing a message.
ANSWER: Adaptation
97. Conveyed largely by the words in a message, ____________________ affects how

a receiver feels after reading or hearing a message.
ANSWER: tone
98. Putting yourself in the receiver's shoes to better adapt your message to that person's
needs is called ____________________.
ANSWER: empathy
99. Theresa has emphasized second-person pronouns (you, your) instead of first-person
pronouns (I/we, us, our) in a letter to a customer. She is using the ____________________
view.
ANSWER: you
100. ____________________ describes technical or specialized terms within a field.

ANSWER: Jargon
Chap 3:
1. Matthew must develop a proposal for his supervisor that will describe the cost
savings for an automated call center. Where should he begin?
a. Writing the proposal
b. Locating other proposals that he can copy
c. Researching the proposal
d. Determining an appropriate layout
ANSWER: C
2. Before composing a business document, you should gather information that will
answer which of these questions?
a. Will I have enough time to complete thorough research?
b. What is the receiver to do?
c. What information will be the easiest to locate?
d. How will I use this information?
ANSWER: B
3. Formal research methods are generally required for what type(s) of business
document(s)?
a. Routine e-mail messages
b. Routine memos
c. Long reports and complex business problems
d. All of these choices would require formal research.
ANSWER: C
4. Which of the following is a formal research method?

a. Talking with your boss
b. Organizing a focus group
c. Brainstorming
d. Looking in company files
ANSWER: B
5. Which formal research source is best to obtain firsthand information?
a. Internet Web sites and articles
b. Reference books
c. Electronic databases
d. Interviews
ANSWER: D
6. Stephanie is preparing a market analysis for her business plan. For firsthand
information she should
a. search manually in her local library.
b. conduct interviews and surveys or organize a focus group.
c. search the Internet for related Web sites.
d. review scientific experiments conducted by experts.
ANSWER: B
7. Quality Building Materials Inc. has developed a new whole-house weather blanket
and needs to determine the price point at which builders would switch to this new product.
The best research method for this is a(n)
a. manual search of other companies' price lists.
b. interview with a local builder.
c. Internet search of insulation values for weather blankets.
d. scientific experiment that presents price choices with controlled variables.
ANSWER: D
8. As interns in human resource management, Brad and his team are administering a
professionally developed employee questionnaire to collect information on workplace
violence. This type of research produces data that is considered
a. firsthand information.
b. informal documentation.
c. supplementary, secondary information.
d. scientific experimentation.
ANSWER: A
9. Ahna is sending a persuasive memo to her staff asking them to participate in the new
wellness program. Which of the following sources of information would be most
appropriate to help Ahna shape an effective persuasive message for her staff?
a. Tightly controlled scientific experimentation
b. Library research rooms
c. Questionnaires and surveys of employees
d. Research in company files
ANSWER: C
10. Many routine writing tasks such as composing e-mail messages or informational
reports require that you collect information informally by
a. conducting extensive Web research.
b. conducting a scientific experiment.
c. looking in the files.
d. searching a variety of books, journals, or magazines.
ANSWER: C
11. When brainstorming to generate ideas, you should

a. critique each idea as it is suggested.
b. record ideas without judging them.
c. always work alone for greater efficiency.
d. allow no more than five ideas to be discussed.
ANSWER: B
12. You will create clear, readable messages if you

a. proceed free form from one idea to the next for maximum creative effect.
b. avoid emphasizing important ideas to allow readers to judge for themselves.
c. group similar items together and emphasize important ideas.
d. do not follow any pattern that restricts the free flow of your ideas.
ANSWER: C
13. Organizing data includes two processes. These processes are
a. grouping and strategizing.
b. brainstorming and researching.
c. outlining and drafting.
d. drafting and editing.
ANSWER: A
14. According to communication experts, what is the greatest failing of business

writers?
a. Poor spelling
b. Unclear sentence structure
c. Ambiguous wording
d. Poor organization
ANSWER: D
15. Organizing your ideas into an outline is especially important when you are
a. developing a complex project.
b. writing a routine memo.
c. replying quickly to an e-mail message.
d. beginning the research phase of the writing process.
ANSWER: A
16. The direct strategy would be most appropriate when

a. delivering bad news.
b. presenting ideas requiring persuasion.
c. expecting the audience to be pleased, mildly interested, or neutral.
d. revealing sensitive news.
ANSWER: C
17. Which of the following business messages would use the direct strategy?
a. A letter denying credit to a customer
b. A sales letter
c. A letter rejecting a customer's claim
d. An e-mail to your staff reminding them of the upcoming all-staff meeting
ANSWER: D
18. Which of the following is an advantage of the direct strategy?

a. Minimizes a negative reaction
b. Respects the feelings of the reader
c. Saves the reader time
d. Encourages a fair hearing
ANSWER: C
19. Which of the following message openings is the most direct opening for an e-mail
message announcing a new telecommuting plan?
a. A number of employees have asked about telecommuting options.
b. Many businesses have been implementing telecommuting programs, and we
have studied their programs extensively.
c. Rising gas prices have led many companies to allow telecommuting, and we
think this might be a good idea for our company.
d. Our new telecommuting program will begin on August 1.
ANSWER: D
20. Yosevin began his memo with background information and explanations before
announcing a reduction in health insurance coverage. The strategy Yosevin used is called
a. frontloading.
b. direct.
c. passive voice.
d. indirect.
ANSWER: D
21. Which of the following is an advantage of the indirect strategy?

a. Saves the reader's time
b. Respects the feelings of the audience
c. Prevents frustration
d. Sets a proper frame of mind
ANSWER: B
22. When you expect a reader of your message to be uninterested, unwilling,

displeased, or hostile, you should
a. put the bad news first.
b. begin with the main idea.
c. explain all background information first.
d. send the message via e-mail, text message, or IM.
ANSWER: C
23. Which of the following kinds of business messages typically use the indirect
strategy?
a. Non-sensitive memos
b. Routine requests
c. Informational reports
d. Sensitive messages
ANSWER: D
24. What kind of sentence contains only one independent clause?

a. Simple sentence
b. Compound sentence
c. Complex sentence
d. Compound-complex sentence
ANSWER: A
25. What kind of sentence contains two independent clauses?

a. Simple sentence
c. Complex sentence
ANSWER: B
26. What kind of sentence contains an independent clause and a dependent clause?
a. Simple sentence
c. Complex sentence
ANSWER: C
27. What kind of sentence contains at least two independent clauses and a dependent
clause?
a. Simple sentence
c. Complex sentence
ANSWER: D
28. Which of the following is a simple sentence?

a. If health insurance costs continue to rise, employee copays may increase.
b. Having healthy employees decreases the cost of monthly premiums; therefore,
we will be implementing a wellness program.
c. HMO and PPO insurance plans offer additional cost savings.
d. Because we will be reducing employee health insurance benefits, some
employees may be unhappy; however, we must make sure that they understand
the reason for the change.
ANSWER: C
29. What is the recommended maximum number of words for a sentence?

a. 10
b. 20
c. 25
d. 30
ANSWER: B
30. What is a sentence fragment?

a. Two independent clauses connected without punctuation or a conjunction
b. Two independent clauses connected by a comma without a conjunction
c. A broken-off part of a complex sentence
d. The part of a sentence containing the verb
ANSWER: C
31. What is a comma splice?

a. Two independent clauses run together without punctuation or a conjunction
b. Two independent clauses joined by a comma without a conjunction
d. Two dependent clauses
ANSWER: B
32. What is a run-on sentence?

a. Two independent clauses run together without punctuation or a conjunction
b. Two independent clauses joined by a comma without a conjunction
d. An independent clause containing two dependent clauses
ANSWER: A
33. Which of the following contains no sentence faults?

a. Which is why we are considering new health insurance options.
b. HealthNet's coverage is extensive, and the rates are fair.
c. Review the list of benefits, then let me know what you think.
d. Having good health insurance is important to employees we need to keep that
in mind.
ANSWER: B
34. How should the following be classified? ReliaCare increased insurance premiums
by 28 percent for our next fiscal year, that is why we are seeking new insurance bids.
a. Complete sentence
b. Fragment
c. Fused or run-on sentence
d. Comma splice
ANSWER: D
35. How should the following be classified? Liana called ReliaCare she also requested
a new bid for health insurance premiums.
a. Complete sentence
b. Fused or run-on sentence
c. Fragment
d. Comma splice
ANSWER: B
36. To emphasize an idea through mechanics, place it in

a. boldface.
b. a different font style.
c. capital letters.
d. Any of these techniques would emphasize the idea.
ANSWER: D
37. To emphasize an idea through style, place it

a. in a simple sentence.
b. in a dependent clause.
c. in the middle of a sentence.
d. Any of these techniques would emphasize the idea.
ANSWER: A
38. Which of the following sentences is most effective in de-emphasizing the bad
news?
a. Although cash refunds are not offered, you can exchange resalable
merchandise.
b. Although you can exchange returned merchandise, cash refunds are not
available.
c. Since we only exchange merchandise, it is impossible for you to receive a cash
refund.
d. Because of our exchange policy, you may not receive a cash refund.
ANSWER: A
39. Active-voice sentences

a. direct the action of the verb toward the subject.
b. place the subject of the sentence as the doer of the action.
c. generally use a to be helping verb.
d. should always be avoided.
ANSWER: B
40. Which of the following uses only active voice in a complete sentence?
a. The company's rigid return policy was criticized by a few unhappy customers.
b. Because a few unhappy customers criticized the company's rigid return policy.
c. Managers were told about the unhappy customers who criticized the company's
rigid return policy.
d. A few unhappy customers criticized the company's rigid return policy.
ANSWER: D
41. When should passive voice be used in business writing?

a. When you want to de-emphasize the action or the recipient of the action
b. When you want to emphasize the doer of the action
c. When you want to de-emphasize negative news
d. Never
ANSWER: C
42. Which of the following uses parallel structure?

a. Our new paralegal must be smart, efficient, and have flexibility.
b. The accident shattered her pelvis, dislocated her foot, and her spinal column
was broken in three places.
c. Big business demands superior forecasting, reporting, and analyzing.
d. A good financial planner must be certified, competent, and must possess ethical
standards.
ANSWER: C
43. Which of the following sentences uses modifiers correctly?

a. Competent in computer graphics, our Web site was designed by Gloria.
b. To take advantage of the discounted pricing, place your order immediately.
c. To meet customers' orders, shipments must be increased.
d. Placing the proposal on the desk, the office was left by John.
ANSWER: B
44. Effective paragraphs

a. usually present the main idea in the first sentence.
b. are coherent.
c. include supporting sentences that expand and explain the main idea.
ANSWER: D
45. What do most writers use as the first sentence in a paragraph?

a. Supporting sentence
b. Transitional sentence
c. Topic sentence
d. Pivoting sentence
ANSWER: C
46. Paragraphs are coherent when

a. all sentences are written in the active voice.
b. each sentence includes dependent and independent clauses.
c. ideas are linked; that is, one idea leads logically to the next.
ANSWER: C
47. Transitional expressions such as next, first, and finally are useful to show
a. cause and effect.
b. illustration.
c. comparison and contrast.
2 time association.
ANSWER: D
48. Paragraphs should

a. focus on as many ideas as necessary.
b. avoid the repetition of key or similar words.
c. contain long, solid chunks of print.
d. contain eight or fewer printed lines.
ANSWER: D
49. Writer's block can best be defined as

a. a block of time set aside to compose documents and projects.
b. the organization of research and ideas into an outline or scratch list.
2 an inability to produce a first draft because of poor preparation.
d. a neighborhood in a city or town where writers live and work together.
ANSWER: C
50. Most writers can compose their business messages more effectively if they
a. have a quiet environment in which to concentrate.
b. turn on a TV, CD player, stereo, or other device to stimulate their thinking.
c. maintain a normal working environment, including accepting phone calls, text
messages, IMs, and occasional visitors.
d. hold off writing until the perfect wording forms the complete message in their
minds.
ANSWER: A
91. Nicola is collecting information for a business document she is writing. We call this
collection process ____________________.
ANSWER: research
92. Long reports and complex business problems generally require some use of
____________________ research methods.
ANSWER: formal
93. Looking in the files and talking with your boss are methods of
____________________ research.
ANSWER: informal
94. In the ____________________ pattern of organization, the main idea comes first,
followed by details, an explanation, or evidence.
ANSWER: direct
95. Persuasive and bad-news messages should usually use the ____________________
pattern.
ANSWER: indirect
96. A(n) ____________________ sentence contains an independent clause (a complete

thought) and a dependent clause (a thought that cannot stand by itself).
ANSWER: complex
97. The refund authorization was processed by our customer service representative is
an example of a sentence using the ____________________ voice.
ANSWER: passive
98. A dangling ____________________ results when the word or phrase the modifier
describes is missing from its sentence.
ANSWER: modifier
99. A(n) ____________________ is a group of sentences about one idea.

ANSWER: paragraph
100. Before and meanwhile are examples of transitional expressions that show
____________________ association.
ANSWER: time
Chap 5:
1. Which of the following statements about communication in the workplace is most
accurate?
a. Today's workplaces are nearly all paperless; employees conduct business with
digital media and communicate only with electronic messages.
b. Most employees exchange documents and complete projects on the Web, but
only management creates content, reviews products, or edits projects.
c. More data are stored on and accessed from PDAs and individual computers
rather than on the Internet or a network.
d. Although today's workplaces are still far from paperless, increasingly
information is exchanged electronically and on the go.
ANSWER: D
2. Business are storing and accessing ever more data along with software in remote
network clusters. This process of remote storage is called
a. community sourcing.
b. networking.
c. cloud computing.
d. data dumps.
ANSWER: C
3. Web 2.0
a. allows users to create content, review products, and edit and share information.
b. is a software editing package that finds and corrects all grammar and spelling
errors in business documents.
c. has replaced the need for paper copies of business documents.
d. is a Web site that contains journals on a variety of topics usually written by one
person.
ANSWER: A
4. How are businesses using VPNs (virtual private networks) today?

a. Businesses use VPNs to send confidential e-mails on their intranets.
b. Small businesses share VPNs instead of developing their own Web sites.
c. VPNs offer businesses secure access to company information from any
worldwide location that provides an Internet connection.
d. VPNs are the primary host site of corporate blogs used to promote new
products.
ANSWER: C
5. The technological revolution of the last 25 years has resulted in

a. shortened workweeks for lucky i-workers (information workers).
b. amazing productivity gains.
c. fewer workers telecommuting than expected.
d. increasing worker freedom from workplace communications.
ANSWER: B
6. You must communicate up-to-date information immediately to customers who are

digitally connected. Which of these is the best communication channel to offer you this
always-on connectedness for your business message?
a. E-mail
b. Twitter
c. Podcast
d. Blog
ANSWER: B
7. You are delivering your salary and benefits proposals for employees in your
department to your supervisor. What is the best communication channel to deliver this
confidential information?
a. E-mail
b. Podcast
c. Interoffice memo
d. All are appropriate channels to deliver confidential information.
ANSWER: C
8. Which of the following messages is appropriate to send via e-mail?

a. An announcement of a major benefit reduction for all employees
b. An announcement of a change in a meeting date
c. A quarterly performance appraisal of an employee
d. Notification of company layoff plans for the next quarter
ANSWER: B
9. Jackson is sending an e-mail message about an important upcoming meeting. Which

of the following represents the most effective subject line?
a. Urgent!
b. Our next staff meeting will be held on the 15th of August.
c. Please Attend Staff Meeting August 15

d. Please Read NOW
ANSWER: C
10. Most e-mail messages and memos

a. have non-sensitive topics and begin directly.
b. require persuasion.
c. are indirect and begin with an explanation.
d. need not be carefully organized because they are informal.
ANSWER: A
11. Bennett is sending an e-mail message about a change in procedure for submitting
work hours. Which of the following represents the most direct opening?
a. Recently, the management staff discussed our process for submitting work
hours.
b. A new procedure for submitting work hours will go into effect on April 1.
c. Are you in the mood to try something a little different?
d. We all hate when procedures change, but this change is needed.
ANSWER: B
12. Which of the following is the best advice for writing the body of an e-mail
message?
a. To help the receiver act on the subject, discuss only one idea.
b. Because e-mail messages and memos are informal, do not use numbered or
bulleted lists.
c. Limit white space to place all information on a single screen if possible.
d. Do not waste space on headings and subheadings.
ANSWER: A
13. Your e-mail messages and memos should have high skim value, which
meANSWER
a. you write the message quickly and efficiently.
b. information presented is easy to read and comprehend.
c. all sentences contain ten or fewer words.
d. all paragraphs contain five or fewer lines.
ANSWER: B
14. An e-mail message or memo usually ends with action information, needed dates, a
summary of the message, or a
a. witty quotation.
b. copyright notice or confidentiality statement.
c. closing thought.
d. reference line that includes the typist's initials.
ANSWER: C
15. Which of the following is the most appropriate closing for an e-mail message or
memo?
a. Please submit your report by August 1 so that the information can be presented
at the seminar.
b. Please let me know if I may be of further assistance.
c. Thank you in advance for answering my questions.
d. It's been great talking with you.
ANSWER: A
16. Which of the following is not a guide word used in e-mail messages and memos?
a. TO:
b. FROM:
c. RESPONSE:
d. DATE:
ANSWER: C
17. What is the current advice on the use of a greeting on business e-mail?
a. Omit greetings because they make an e-mail appear too casual.
b. Add a greeting only when forwarding an e-mail with a lengthy header.
c. Don't waste precious digital space on the nonessential keystrokes of a greeting
or salutation.
d. Begin with a greeting to provide a visual cue and to show friendliness.
ANSWER: D
18. If a coworker is using company computers to communicate with family members,

what is the best advice?
a. Send e-mail to family or friends if you wish because the employer can't monitor
non-business e-mail anyway.
b. Use company computers for e-mail and shopping, but don't visit any gambling
sites.
c. Don't use company computers for personal matters.
d. Be certain to complete all personal communication during break time.
ANSWER: C
19. If you have to send a long message via e-mail, what is the best advice?
a. Place all information in the body of the e-mail message.
b. Attach a separate document to the e-mail message, leaving the body of the
message blank.
c. Attach a document to the e-mail message, including identifying information in
the body of the e-mail.
d. Send it another way because you should not send attachments via e-mail.
ANSWER: C
20. The final element of an e-mail message should be

a. your name.
b. a witty phrase and your name.
c. the name of the business or organization only.
d. the final paragraph of the message containing action information.
ANSWER: A
21. To correctly format a hard-copy interoffice memorandum, which of the following is

not a guideline you should follow?
a. Set 1-inch top and bottom margins and left and right margins of 1.25 inches.
b. Insert in bold the guide words: Date:, To:, From:, and Subject: at the left
margin.
c. Provide a heading that includes the name of the company plus "Memo" or
"Memorandum."
d. Justify the right margin.
ANSWER: D
22. Business e-mail users must learn that e-mail can be dangerous because messages
travel long distances, are difficult to erase, and
a. can't be used to transmit official documents.
b. are informal, allowing a few spelling and punctuation mistakes.
c. may become evidence in court.
d. are challenging to type using only two fingers.
ANSWER: C
23. E-mail is the No. 1 communication channel in business today. To make your
messages effective, you should
a. consider the receiver.
b. compose quickly.
c. organize indirectly.
d. edit and revise as you draft.
ANSWER: A
24. Samantha must use e-mail frequently to communicate with others in her new job.
What is the best advice to give her?
a. Consider composing important messages offline.
b. Use general tags such as Hi! or Important as the subject line to catch the
reader's attention.
c. Add frequent emoticons such as happy faces to appear friendly and
approachable in e-mail messages.
d. Always press "Reply to All" when responding to e-mail messages.
ANSWER: A
25. Good advice for e-mail is to use the "top-of-screen" test, which meANSWER
a. beginning with a cute graphic or witty quotation to capture your reader's
attention.
b. getting the e-mail address right.
c. composing offline.
d. conveying your purpose in the subject line and first paragraph.
ANSWER: D
26. Which of the following situations is most appropriate for sending an e-mail
message?
a. Matthew is angry with one of his colleagues and wants to let her know exactly
how he feels.
b. Jane found a great political joke she wants to share with her colleagues.
c. Chris must send the monthly sales data to his department.
d. Maggie needs to vent her frustrations about working conditions to her shift
supervisor.
ANSWER: C
27. Which of these is the best recommendation for business communicators using e-
mail?
a. Use e-mail to deliver bad news or to resolve arguments to limit or avoid
workplace confrontation.
b. Add humor or tongue-in-cheek comments to lighten the tone of serious e-mail
topics.
c. Use e-mail, not hard-copy memos, for messages that the business would not
want to be made public or for topics that should not be published.
d. Care about tone, correctness, and conciseness to create messages with the reader
in mind.
ANSWER: D
28. If business writers want to demonstrate good netiquette when using e-mail, they
should
a. document every business decision and action in hard-copy memos or e-mail.
b. write important e-mail messages in all capital letters for emphasis and increased
professionalism.
c. ask permission before forwarding e-mail messages.
d. add a cc (carbon copy) to their supervisors on all business messages.
ANSWER: C
29. Which of the following is the best tip for replying to e-mail messages?
a. Reply to an e-mail message immediately because reading additional e-mail
messages before replying might confuse you.
b. If you can't reply immediately, acknowledge receipt of the message and tell the
sender when you'll be able to reply.
c. Include the sender's entire original message in the body of your reply to clarify
the meaning of your response.
d. Retain the original subject line to identify a conversation thread even if the topic
shifts.
ANSWER: B
30. Which of the following is an advantage of instant messaging (IM)?

a. It includes "presence functionality," allowing coworkers to locate each other
online, which saves time tracking someone down who is out of the office.
b. It is delayed; a user has time to recall sent messages if he or she decides the
message should not have been delivered.
c. It prevents multitasking and encourages employees to focus on one job at a
time.
d. It allows in-depth analysis of data, including charts and graphs, and lengthy
conversation of the chosen topics.
ANSWER: A
31. Why do some employers forbid employees to use instant messaging (IM)?
a. Instant messaging is more expensive to use than faxes or phone calls.
b. Employers consider IM yet another distraction in addition to the interruptions
caused by telephones and e-mails.
c. Delivery of instant messages takes longer than e-mail message delivery.
d. Many companies forbid instant messaging use for all these reasons.
ANSWER: B
32. Porter's company has decided to let employees use instant messaging (IM) as an
internal communication tool, and she wants to make sure that she's using it professionally.
What should she do?
a. Make sure she's available via IM at all times so that her colleagues can always
reach her.
b. Include both professional and personal contacts on the same IM contact list for
efficiency.
c. Respect her receivers by using proper grammar, spelling, and proofreading in
her instant messages.
d. Create an imaginative IM name for herself such as "PrettySmart1."
ANSWER: C
33. Podcasts, blogs, and wikis are part of the new user-centered virtual environment
called
a. the Total Network.
b. Web 2.0.
c. Cloud Computing.
d. VPN.
ANSWER: B
34. Because access to the Web is readily available, the dangers are obvious. Which of
these represents a common danger of the Web?
a. Fact checking is reducing productivity.
b. Buzz may become more important than truth.
c. It is difficult to establish or verify a reputation.
d. People can access information on the Web.
ANSWER: B
35. News professionals, educators, and corporate trainers create digital audio or video
files; and receivers can download the files to a computer or a smartphone to view or hear
the file contents. What are these digital audio or video files called?
a. Blogs
b. Podcasts
c. Wikis
d. Web forums
ANSWER: B
36. Businesses have embraced podcasts for audio and video messages because podcasts
a. do not require a live presence, yet offer a friendly human face.
b. can't replace costlier live teleconferences but can replace most business travel.
c. provide up to 1,000 views per podcast, saving money over individual
presentations.
d. broadcast interactive, non-repetitive information.
ANSWER: A
37. Which of the following is the best tip for preparing a podcast?
a. Purchase a high-end digital recorder, memorize your message, and record your
presentation.
b. Speak clearly, deliver off the cuff, and maintain eye contact.
c. Know the subject, know your audience, and know your goal.
d. Select a digital recorder, organize your message, and rehearse your delivery.
ANSWER: D
38. The biggest advantage of business blogs is that

a. they have the potential to reach a vast, far-flung audience.
b. they have become the primary method of business communication internally.
c. they provide anytime access to digital audio and video files containing
corporate training, marketing, and informational messages.
d. they provide digital security against hackers and rival companies.
ANSWER: A
39. Some companies now use Twitter and other social media to monitor what is being
said about them, to engage with customers, and
a. to serve as cover letters for longer documents.
b. to post job openings.
c. to market to other businesses.
d. to share files and collaborate on projects.
ANSWER: C
40. You are using the corporate blog to respond to an business emergency. Which of
the following is the best recommendation?
a. Use the blog as the sole provider of emergency information to avoid muddled
messages.
b. Make the blog part of your overall effort to communicate information regarding
the business's emergency.
c. Soothe emotional reactions by posting information on your corporate blog,
replacing all other communication channels.
d. Do not address rumors or misinformation on the blog; address factual content
only.
ANSWER: B
41. Blogs have several internal communication purposes including

a. posting employee changes such as layoffs, promotions, and firings.
b. announcing employee illnesses, adoptions, and vacations.
c. providing information about benefits or featuring profiles on key employees.
d. posting administrative salaries, raises, and incentive packages.
ANSWER: C
42. You are crafting a message for your corporate blog. What advice should you
follow?
a. Make your writing serious, reserved, and formal.
b. Offer a professional perspective on subjects you care about or a topic your
company needs to promote.
c. Get to know the blogosphere in your industry and avoid discussing topics from
other blogs.
d. Blog about topics that showcase your expertise and insights.
ANSWER: D
43. Experts advise that you use blogrolling to maximize effectiveness. What does
blogrolling mean?
a. You provide links to other sites or blogs on the Web that you find valuable and
that are related to your business or industry.
b. You frequently update or "roll over" the information on your blog to keep it
fresh.
c. Your company or organization maintains separate blogs for each department or
division and posts rolling messages daily.
d. You add links to other technologies, allowing viewers to access podcasts,
Twitter feeds, Facebook pages, and company files.
ANSWER: A
44. How do companies use wikis?

a. Companies share special deals and incentives in short messages of 140
characters or less.
b. Corporate teams respond to internal and external customers in rapid-fire posts to
emergencies and other high-pressure situations.
c. Global companies share information between headquarters and satellite offices.
d. Companies post photos and biographies of their top-tier managers.
ANSWER: C
45. You must contribute to projects on your departmental wiki. Which of the following
is not a guideline you should follow?
a. Follow the conventions of polite society and commonsense rules and show
respect.
b. Watch out for improper or ambiguous language.
c. Freely and severely criticize obvious errors by another contributor.
d. Verify your facts and give credit where credit is due.
ANSWER: C
46. Which of the following statements best describes use of social networks by
businesses today?
a. All companies are comfortable with using social networking for brainstorming
and teamwork.
b. Companies struggle with finding the right balance between permitting access to
the Web and protecting security as well as ensuring productivity.
c. Companies must run their own social networks to capitalize effectively on the
benefits this medium offers.
d. Large companies (like McDonalds and British Telecom) create buzz and
promote their brands via social networking, but social networking offers no
benefit to small businesses.
ANSWER: B
47. Travis has asked you for some advice regarding the use of social networking in the
workplace. What advice will you share?
a. Do not share any sensitive information.
b. Refuse friend requests or "unfriend" people to avoid jeopardizing professional
relationships.
c. Establish boundaries, and don't share information online that you wouldn't share
openly in the office.
d. Assume the content posted on a social networking site is protected.
ANSWER: C
48. Which of the following represents a potential reward of using professional

networking sites such as LinkedIn?
a. Sites like LinkedIn are inexpensive, simple, and fast ways to connect recruiters
and job candidates.
b. Professional networking sites can replace face-to-face interviews.
c. Candidates do not need to craft their profiles with the same care as used for
their traditional résumés.
d. Networking sites are automatically updated, relieving the jobseeker of the
obligation of keeping documents current.
ANSWER: A
49. Why do busy employees choose to use RSS feeds?

a. Most employers demand that employees remain connected via RSS at all times.
b. Including RSS (Recent Senders Service) feeds allows employees to track
customer activity levels in their e-mail and other communication tools.
c. RSS feeds have identified computer viruses and malware, saving millions of
dollars for large corporations.
d. These feeds can be a time-saver, allowing users to monitor many news sources
in one convenient spot.
ANSWER: D
50. What is the purpose of social bookmarking?

a. It helps users search, organize, manage, and store bookmarks on the Web with
the help of metadata.
b. It connects single employees with other singles in the same company.
c. It allows businesses to identify emerging data needs, to select new digital
communication technologies, and to merge existing software.
d. It enables interdepartmental collaboration on long-term projects by managing
multiple-data packages.
ANSWER: A
91. ____________________ messages tend to carry more weight, are more formal, and
are taken more seriously in certain situations.
ANSWER: Hard copy
92. In the ____________________ of an e-mail message, you should cover just one
topic.
ANSWER: body copy
93. Sending unsolicited advertisements, also called ____________________, either by

fax or e-mail is illegal in the United States.
ANSWER: spam copy
94. A(n) ____________________ is a digital audio or video file that can be

downloaded to a computer or watched on a smartphone.
ANSWER: podcast copy
95. An e-mail message should include a descriptive ____________________ to help

ensure that the message will be read.
ANSWER: subject line copy
96. To, From, Date, and Subject in an e-mail message or a memo are called
____________________ words.
ANSWER: guide copy
97. Unless your company specifically allows it, never use your employer's computers
for ____________________ messages or entertainment.
ANSWER: personal copy
98. Although e-mail is still a relatively new business communication tool, a set of rules
for polite online interaction called ____________________ has emerged.
ANSWER: netiquette copy
99. ____________________ messaging enables you to use the Internet to communicate

in real time in a private chat room with one or more individuals. It is like live e-mail or a
text telephone call.
ANSWER: Instant copy
100. Teams or departments use ____________________ to collect and disseminate

information to large audiences creating a database for knowledge management.
ANSWER: wikis copy
Chap 9:
1. Which of the following statements about reports is accurate?
a. Business professionals rarely write reports.
b. Writers develop reports for internal audiences only.
c. Informal reports of eight or fewer pages are the most common report in the
workplace.
d. Business writers deliver reports only through hard copies.
ANSWER: C
2. Reports convey information, answer questions, and

a. present your opinions.
b. solve problems.
c. comply with government regulations.
d. demonstrate your proficiency as a technical writer.
ANSWER: B
3. Reports that present data without analysis or recommendations are

a. informational reports.
b. analytical reports.
c. cost-benefit analysis reports.
d. justification reports.
ANSWER: A
4. Which of the following is most likely to be written as an informative report?

a. A recommendation from the Information Technology Department that your
company install a wireless network
b. A feasibility study addressing tuition reimbursement to all employees
c. A comparison of five handheld communication devices that your company
might purchase
d. A summary of information presented at a recent conference for technical writers
ANSWER: D
5. Reports that provide data or findings, analyses, and conclusions are

a. informational reports.
b. analytical reports.
c. summaries.
d. progress reports.
ANSWER: B
6. Which of the following reports is an example of an analytical report?

a. A report summarizing the details of a recent seminar you attended
b. A report recommending an antiterrorism security system for mass transit
c. A report outlining the new company procedure for reporting workplace injuries
d. A report showing state budget allocations for education
ANSWER: B
7. The direct pattern of organization is appropriate for a business report when readers
a. need to be educated.
b. must be persuaded.
c. are informed.
d. may be disappointed or hostile.
ANSWER: C
8. When you organize a report directly, what is the correct order of ideas to follow?
a. Introduction, facts, and summary
b. Introduction, summary, and facts
c. Summary, introduction, and facts
d. The direct pattern presents ideas in any order for maximum effectiveness.
ANSWER: A
9. The indirect pattern of organization is appropriate for a business report when readers
a. are supportive of the topic.
b. must be persuaded.(thuyết phục)
c. are familiar with the topic.
d. want to know the results immediately.
ANSWER: B
10. When you organize a report indirectly, in which order should you present your
ideas?
a. Description of the problem, conclusions, facts, and recommendations
b. Conclusion, recommendations, description of the problem, and facts
c. Description of the problem, facts, conclusions, and recommendations
d. The indirect pattern does not follow a set order of ideas.
ANSWER: C
11. Which is the most accurate statement about business report organizational patterns?
a. The primary difference between direct and indirect organizational patterns is the
location of the findings.
b. Many business executives place most importance on the analysis of the problem
in a report.
c. When using the indirect organizational pattern, place the conclusions and
recommendations at the beginning of the report.
d. The indirect pattern seems more logical to many readers because it mirrors the
way we solve problems.
ANSWER: D
12. Connor has studied the effect of on-site daycare on employee work attendance. He
must present his findings to his supervisor, who is opposed to this service. How should
Connor present his information?
a. Use persuasive strategies and an indirect organizational pattern.
b. Arrange the report using the direct organizational pattern.
c. Omit background data as this might bore his supervisor.
d. Give up; his boss will never go for this idea anyway.
ANSWER: A
13. The format of a report depends primarily on

a. its topic, recommendations, and organizational pattern.
b. your knowledge of the writing process.
c. its length, topic, audience, and purpose.
d. your printer quality and paper type.
ANSWER: C
14. You are writing a short, informal report that will stay inside your organization.
Which format would be most appropriate?
a. Letter format
b. Memo or e-mail format
c. Manuscript format
d. Full-block format
ANSWER: B
15. You are writing a short, informal report that you will send to one of your
customers. Which format would be most appropriate?
a. Letter format
b. Memo or e-mail format
c. Manuscript format
d. Printed form
ANSWER: A
16. You work for a development firm and must explain to a customer the results of a
year-long study of potential sites for new stores. In what format should you develop this
report?
a. Memo or e-mail format
b. Printed form
c. Letter format
d. Manuscript format
ANSWER: D
17. You are an inventory specialist for a retail store. Your boss has asked you to
compile a year-end report listing the merchandise sold each month through the company's
Web site. In what format should you present this data?
a. Memo or e-mail format
b. Preprinted form
c. Letter format
d. Manuscript format
ANSWER: B
18. Which statement regarding digital report formats and delivery is accurate?
a. Although digital media allows writers to produce and distribute reports
electronically, good writers follow up such electronic reports with hard copies.
b. Only certain kinds of reports can be attached to an e-mail.
c. New technology allows users to hyperlink multimedia content within a
document or with associated text or files.
d. When attaching a report to an e-mail message, you do not need to introduce the
report or reference the attachment in the e-mail message.
ANSWER: C
19. When you receive an assignment to write a report, you should begin the report-
writing process by
a. analyzing your audience.
b. determining your purpose.
c. beginning your research.
d. looking for someone else to write the report.
ANSWER: B
20. Many business writers begin their report research by

a. conducting interviews.
b. observing others.
c. constructing questionnaires and inventories.
d. visiting company records.
ANSWER: D
21. What type of research source provides the richest and most accurate first-hand
information?
a. Surveys
b. Interviews
c. Company records
d. Observations
ANSWER: B
22. Typical sources for factual information in an informal report include

a. company records, observation, and electronic resources.
b. observation, personal opinion, and print sources.
c. printed materials, the writer's educated guesses, and electronic resources.
d. personal experience, personal observation, and personal opinion.
ANSWER: A
23. Which of the following statements is accurate?

a. Primary data result from reading what others have experienced or observed.
b. Secondary data come from firsthand experience and observation.
c. Secondary data are easier and cheaper to gather than primary data.
d. Secondary data are always gathered after the collection of primary data.
ANSWER: C
24. A report that monitors the headway of a nonroutine or unusual activity is called
a. the minutes of a meeting.
b. an information report.
c. a progress report.
d. a summary.
ANSWER: C
25. A report that attempts to solve problems by presenting data, drawing conclusions,
and offering solutions is called a(n)
a. justification/recommendation report.
b. information report.
c. progress report.
d. summary.
ANSWER: A
26. Reports that describe routine activities without analysis are called
a. justification/recommendation reports.
b. information reports.
c. progress reports.
d. summaries.
ANSWER: B
27. A record of the proceedings of a meeting is called

a. a progress report.
b. an information report.
c. a summary.
d. the minutes.
ANSWER: D
28. What kind of report condenses the primary ideas, conclusions, and
recommendations of a longer report or publication?
a. Progress report
b. Information report
c. Summary
d. Analytical report
ANSWER: C
29. As chairperson of a customer service task force, you must update management on
your team's progress. What kind of report will you write?
a. Justification/recommendation report
b. Information report
c. Progress report
d. Feasibility report
ANSWER: C
30. Your department needs a new copier, and your job is to research the options. Based
on your research, you have selected an all-in-one machine that you believe will be cost
effective and will perform well. What kind of report would you write to present your
findings?
a. Summary report
b. Justification/recommendation report
c. Information report
d. Progress report
ANSWER: B
31. As a human resources (HR) assistant, you must write a monthly report to the HR
director summarizing the number of job applicants, the number of interviews conducted,
and the number of active employees. What kind of report would you prepare?
a. Information report
b. Justification/recommendation report
c. Progress report
d. Feasibility report
ANSWER: A
32. Your current assignment is to condense a 200-page government policy report on oil
drilling in Alaska into a shorter report for Sierra Club members to read. What kind of
report would you most likely write?
a. Information report
b. Summary report
c. Justification/recommendation report
d. Progress report
ANSWER: B
33. Your company currently processes its payroll internally but is considering the use
of an external accounting firm. You are in charge of determining whether your company
should proceed with this plan. What kind of report would you most likely write?
a. Feasibility report
b. Progress report
c. Information report
d. Summary report
ANSWER: A
34. Which of the following is most likely to be written as an informational report?

a. A report recommending the installation of retina scanner to improve security
b. A report telling management about the current status of a long-term project
c. A government regulatory report to be filed with the Securities and Exchange
Commission
d. A report comparing three locations and identifying the best for a new franchise
outlet
ANSWER: C
35. You have organized the findings section of your information report by answering
who, what, when, where, why, and how. This pattern is called
a. chronological.
b. journalism style.
c. geographical.
d. alphabetical.
ANSWER: B
36. Which of the following situations might require a progress report?

a. The work of a committee preparing for an open house when a new wing of a
hospital is completed
b. The reporting of monthly sales figures for all divisions
c. A study of whether a company should provide on-site childcare
d. A one-page summary of a long article in The Wall Street Journal
ANSWER: A
37. In what order should you organize your ideas when you believe your audience will
be agreeable to the suggestions in your justification/recommendation report?
a. Announce the recommendation, explain the recommendation, identify the
problem or need, and provide necessary action.
b. Provide necessary action, identify the problem or need, announce the
recommendation, and explain the recommendation.
c. Identify the problem or need, announce the recommendation, explain the
recommendation, and provide necessary action.
d. Identify the problem or need, provide necessary action, announce the
recommendation, and explain the recommendation.
ANSWER: C
38. Which of the following is not needed in a feasibility report?

a. The background and problem necessitating the proposal
b. Problems that may result from implementation
c. Costs of implementing the proposal
d. Persuasive techniques
ANSWER: D
39. Thomas is in charge of taking formal minutes during an Institute of Internal

Auditors chapter meeting. Which of the following is the best advice?
a. Record only new business because old business will appear in previous minutes.
b. Avoid using the exact wording of motions because that would be too time
consuming.
c. Record voting results and actions taken.
d. Omit his name and signature as the person recording the minutes because he is
acting on behalf of the organization.
ANSWER: C
40. Which of the following is the best advice to follow when writing a summary?
a. Include specific examples from the report, article, or book you are
summarizing.
b. Copy passages word for word to ensure that you cover the main ideas.
c. Avoid headings or lists to prevent reader distraction.
d. Condense the original ideas.
ANSWER: D
41. An informal writing style includes

a. contractions (for example, wouldn't, don't, they're).
b. second-person pronouns (for example, you and your).
c. mainly passive-voice verbs.
d. longer sentences.
ANSWER: A
42. Which of the following constructions uses the best writing style for an informal
report?
a. James, Deloitte, and Wilts, Inc., after extensive review of references and
credentials of contractors, has elected to contract with Peck Builders for the
new office complex.
b. We're pleased to announce the selection of Peck Builders as general contractor
for our new office complex.
c. After conducting an exhaustive search of building design elements and cost-
efficiency data, the company has verified the qualifications of Peck Builders.
d. The findings demonstrate the imperative of selecting a fully qualified and
bonded contractor for the new building project of James, Deloitte, and Wilts,
Inc.; that contractor is Peck Builders.
ANSWER: B
43. Which of the following sentences demonstrates active-voice verbs?

a. Superior writing skills are required by many employers.
b. Employee use of e-mail was monitored by management.

c. Research indicates a correlation between strong writing skills and promotions.
d. The proposals were carefully reviewed by the screening committee.
ANSWER: C
44. Irina wants to make sure that she sounds credible in her business report. What
should she do to build her credibility?
a. Discuss only the position that she favors so that her readers don't get confused.
b. Write her personal opinions so that they sound like facts.
c. Tell her readers the source of her information.

d. Irina should do all of these to build credibility.
ANSWER: C
45. Which of the following represents the best use of language?

a. Most people agree...
b. Some people agree...
c. Seventy-five percent of people agree...
d. All answer choices reflect appropriate language choice.
ANSWER: C
46. Headings that show the outline of a report are called

a. talking headings.
b. topic headings.
c. functional headings.
d. descriptive headings.
ANSWER: C
47. Headings that describe the content of a report section are called
a. talking headings.
b. topic headings.
c. functional headings.
d. descriptive headings.
ANSWER: A
48. Which of the following statements about functional headings is accurate?

a. Functional headings are useful for complex reports.
b. Functional headings provide more information than talking headings.
c. Functional headings are not appropriate for sensitive or controversial topics.
d. Background is an example of a functional heading.
ANSWER: D
49. Which of the following is a talking heading?

a. IT Outsourcing
b. Savings
c. Cost Savings
d. Projected Cost Savings for IT Outsourcing
ANSWER: D
50. Vanessa is writing a report that will include headings. What should she do to make
sure that her headings are effective?
a. Enclose the headings in quotation marks (dấu ngoặc kép) to make them stand
out on the page.
b. Vary same-level headings in terms of physical position and appearance to help
the reader maintain interest in the report.
c. Use headings as antecedents for pronouns to make her report more concise.
d. Include at least one heading per report page.
ANSWER: D
91. Business ____________________ are systematic attempts to convey information,

answer questions, and solve problems.
ANSWER: reports
92. In a report using the ____________________ organizational pattern, the problem,

discussion, and findings are presented before the conclusions and recommendations.
ANSWER: indirect
93. Use ____________________ format for short (usually eight or fewer pages)
informal reports addressed outside an organization.
ANSWER: letter
94. Use Empowered Team Decision-Making Without Losing Control is an example of

a(n) ____________________ heading.
ANSWER: talking
95. A distinct type of information report is the ____________________ report. In this

type of report, business travelers identify the event they attended or the company they
visited; summarize three to five main points objectively; and, if requested, itemize their
expenses on a separate sheet.4
ANSWER: trip
96. The purpose of a(n)____________________ report is used to tell management

whether a nonroutine project is on schedule.
ANSWER: progress
97. ____________________ or recommendation reports attempt to solve problems by

evaluating options and offering recommendations.
ANSWER: Justification
98. A(n) ____________________ condenses the primary ideas, conclusions, and

recommendations of a longer report or publication.
ANSWER: summary
99. When a company must decide whether to proceed with a plan of action, it may
require a(n) ____________________ report.
ANSWER: feasibility
100. ____________________ are a record of the proceedings of a meeting.

ANSWER: Minutes
Chap 10:
a. Proposals are persuasive documents used to solve problems, provide services,
or sell equipment.
b. Proposals are always solicited.
c. Proposals are informative documents used to share problems, identify emerging
issues, and categorize available resources for resolution.
d. Proposals are developed for external audiences only.
ANSWER: A
2. A company might prepare a proposal for which of the following reasons?

a. To show its compliance with Homeland Security rules and regulations
b. To solicit competitive bids for a new building
c. To inform company shareholders of an attempted hostile takeover
d. To bid for a contract to retrofit a local bridge
ANSWER: D
3. An RFP (request for proposal) can best be defined as

a. a document that solicits competitive bids on a project.
b. an offer to provide a service, sell equipment, or solve a problem.
c. an internal report justifying a request for additional staffing and equipment.
d. a persuasive sales presentation emphasizing benefits for the reader.
ANSWER: A
4. A business would be most likely to write a request for proposals
a. to advertise openings for two sales positions.
b. to attract new clients.
c. to renovate offices.
d. to begin expansion in global markets.
ANSWER: C
5. In addition to an introduction, the background information, and the proposal itself,

informal or letter proposals often contain
a. staffing requirements, a budget, and an authorization request.
b. service dates, applicable laws and statutes, and a signed contract.
c. a bill for services rendered and a signed contract.
d. free prizes and other gimmicks.
ANSWER: A
6. You can make the introduction of a proposal more persuasive if you

a. explain in great detail how much better you are than your competitors.
b. hint at the problem you will solve but avoid explaining the reasons for the
proposal.
c. remain as vague as possible to keep the reader intrigued.
d. provide a "hook" such as mentioning a remarkable resource available
exclusively to the writer.
ANSWER: D
7. Which of the following is the best tip to fight writer's block when writing proposals?
a. Drink a lot of coffee to make your mind sharp. (tình trạng bí ý tưởng)
b. Begin by making a bulleted list of customer wants and needs.
c. Make a list of personal benefits you will receive after receiving the contract.
d. Type anything because proposals must adhere to deadlines.
ANSWER: B
8. In which part of a solicited proposal would you most likely convince your reader that
you understand the problem completely?
a. Introduction
b. Background
c. Authorization
d. Budget
ANSWER: B
9. In which section of an informal proposal would you most likely include a timetable
for a project to be completed?
a. Staffing
b. Authorization
c. Budget
d. Proposal
ANSWER: D
10. What may be included in the staffing section of an informal proposal?

a. Credentials and expertise of project leaders
b. Size and qualifications of support staff
c. Resources such as computer facilities
d. All may be included in the staffing section.
ANSWER: D
11. The budget in a proposal should

a. reflect careful research because a proposal is a legal contract.
b. provide only rough estimates so that you can raise the price later if costs
increase.
c. never itemize hours and costs, but offer only a total sum.
d. include a disclaimer to ensure that the budget is not legally binding.
ANSWER: A
12. Jeremy has decided to include a deadline for acceptance in his proposal to install
energy-efficient workstations for a local manufacturer. In which section should Jeremy
place the deadline?
a. Introduction
b. Background
c. Authorization request
d. Proposal
ANSWER: C
13. The main differences between informal and formal proposals are
a. the primary and secondary audiences.
b. the style and need for correctness.
c. identification of resources used and placement of documentation.
d. format and length.
ANSWER: D
14. Although formal reports are similar to formal proposals, a primary difference is that
a. formal reports represent the end product of thorough investigation and analysis.
b. formal reports use a more conversational tone.
c. reports are written for internal audiences only.
d. more formal reports are written than formal proposals.
ANSWER: A
15. What is the first step in preparing to write a formal report?

a. Analyze your audience.
b. Research primary and secondary data.
c. Define the project and limit its scope.
d. Determine the length of the report.
ANSWER: C
16. What is the best advice when writing a statement of purpose for a formal report?
a. Write a statement of purpose only for external formal reports.
b. Omit limitations to avoid a negative tone.
c. Use action verbs that tell what you intend to do.
d. Do all of these choices when writing statements of purpose.
ANSWER: C
17. Primary research data can be defined as

a. information that comes from reading what others have experienced and
observed.
b. information gained from firsthand experience and observation.
c. statistics collected during the first stage of research.
d. data you get from the Web.
ANSWER: B
18. Your boss asks you to write a formal report on the impact of smoking on employee
healthcare costs. Like nearly every writer of a research project, you should begin your
research by
a. reviewing secondary data in the library or on the Internet.
b. interviewing your colleagues to solicit their input and feelings.
c. preparing a questionnaire to distribute to your colleagues.
d. conducting a field experiment.
ANSWER: A
19. Although researchers are increasingly using electronic data, you should learn to use
print resources because
a. electronic sources are never considered as reliable as books and magazines.
b. print sources provide primary data and electronic sources provide secondary
data.
c. some data is available only in print.
d. audiences respect only writers who include data from print sources.
ANSWER: C
20. What type of print resource provides excellent historical data?
a. Periodicals
b. Bibliographic indexes
c. Brochures
d. Books
ANSWER: C
21. Many researchers today begin by looking in electronic databases because

a. they know that all data found in electronic databases is valid and reliable.
b. electronic databases are always a free resource if you have Internet access.
c. it is easy to cite sources found in an electronic database.
d. electronic databases are convenient to use.
ANSWER: D
22. Which statement about the World Wide Web is accurate?

a. The Web always provides accurate, credible information.
b. The Web is a collection of hypertext pages that offer information and links of
trillions of pages.
c. The number of Web sites is now decreasing after reaching its peak of 235
million sites.
d. Only certain individuals or organizations are permitted to post on the Web.
ANSWER: B
23. Searching the Web requires a(n)

a. e-mail address.
b. Web browser.
c. handheld wireless device.
d. master's degree.
ANSWER: B
24. Which statement about search tools is accurate?

a. A search tool is also called a Web browser.
b. A search tool is a service that indexes, organizes, and often rates and reviews
Web pages.
c. Bing is currently the most-used search tool.
d. A search tool helps to protect the user's computer against viruses and malware
as the user conducts Web searches.
ANSWER: B
25. What is the best advice for conducting an Internet search?

a. When connecting to a search tool for the first time, always read the FAQs
(Frequently Asked Questions), Help, and How to Search sections.
b. Use one search tool only so that you can master it.
c. Use all uppercase letters for your searches.
d. Include articles and prepositions in search phrases to make searches more
specific.
ANSWER: A
26. A blog is
a. an online diary or journal that allows visitors to leave public comments.
b. a computer virus that frequently appears from Web sites such as Facebook and
MySpace.
c. a collection of hypertext pages that offer information and links.
d. an electronic information storage base that users access via computer and search
digitally.
ANSWER: A
27. Which of the following is a primary data source?

a. Periodicals (tạp chí định kỳ)
b. Electronic databases
c. Blogs
d. Experimentation
ANSWER: D
28. Surveys, which are used to collect firsthand data, have many advantages. One
advantage is that
a. those who respond to mailed or online surveys exactly represent the overall
population.
b. respondents can be relied on to respond openly and truthfully to anonymous
surveys.
c. data can be gathered economically and efficiently.
d. return rates for online and mailed surveys are typically over 90 percent.
ANSWER: C
29. Brittany is writing a business report about protecting workplace data and will be
conducting an interview with a data security expert. What is the best advice you can give
her?
a. Call before the interview to confirm the arrangements, and then arrive on time.
b. Learn about the individual she is interviewing, and research the background and
terminology of the topic.
c. Use open-ended questions rather than yes-or-no questions to draw out the
responses from the expert.
d. Brittany should complete all these steps.
ANSWER: D
30. Plagiarism (Đạo văn)

a. involves using good data from reputable sources to increase your credibility and
to enhance the logic of your reasoning.
b. happens in only academic settings.
c. is the act of using others' ideas without proper documentation or by
paraphrasing poorly.
d. is restating an original passage in your own words.
ANSWER: C
31. Which of the following statements about documenting data is not accurate?
a. Documenting data can strengthen your argument.
b. Documenting data protects you from charges of plagiarism.
c. Documenting data is not necessary if you put the information in your own
words.
d. Documenting data helps the reader pursue the topic further.
ANSWER: C
32. Which of the following statements would need to be documented in a report?

a. Tornadoes caused extensive loss of property and lives in Missouri.
b. You can get an idea of how dangerous a tornado is by its rating.
c. Damaging winds, common in strong tornadoes, caused problems for the
residents of Missouri.
d. The Fujita-Pearson tornado scale rates tornadoes with wind speeds of 261 to
318 miles per hour as F5 storms.
ANSWER: D
33. Paraphrasing is
a. restating an original passage in your own words.
b. repeating the grammatical structure of the original passage.
c. replacing original words with appropriate synonyms.
d. indicating the source of the original work.
ANSWER: A
34. Which of the following is not a purpose for a direct quotation?

a. To duplicate exact wording before criticizing an idea
b. To repeat identical phrasing because of its precise wording
c. To add length to a researched document
d. To provide objective background information
ANSWER: C
35. Which of the following is the best advice about the use of direct quotations in a
report?
a. Beware of overusing quotations because you may appear as if you have no ideas
of your own.
b. If you use a direct quotation, don't dilute its impact by summarizing it or
introducing it in your own words.
c. Place the direct quotation in quotation marks, but change a few words to show
you have your own ideas.
d. Direct quotations do not need to be placed in quotation marks if the audience is
already familiar with the quote such as "The buck stops here."
ANSWER: A
36. What is the correct order of ideas for a report using the indirect strategy?
a. Recommendations, findings, and conclusions
b. Conclusions, findings, and recommendations
c. Findings, conclusions, and recommendations
d. Recommendations, conclusions, and findings
ANSWER: C
37. Chronological organization arranges ideas by

a. time.
b. order of importance.
c. physical location.
d. simple to complex.
ANSWER: A
38. Tanika must prepare a formal report detailing the findings of a year-long study of
her company's new wellness program. In this report she must discuss employee
absenteeism before and after the program's implementation. What type of organizational
pattern will she likely use?
a. Chronological
b. Spatial
c. Compare/Contrast
d. Importance
ANSWER: C
39. Tyler is writing a report that analyzes the GlobalCom, Inc., market share of cell
phone subscriptions worldwide by region. He will probably organize his report
a. chronologically by the date the cell phone subscriptions reached their
maximums.
b. around extensive secondary data to assure the reader that he conducted adequate
research before he wrote the report.
c. using a functional arrangement to show types of subscriptions globally.
d. geographically with sections representing each region's market share.
ANSWER: D
40. Logan is creating an outline to help him write a report on e-waste generated by his
company. What advice should he follow?
a. Include the outline as part of the final report so that his audience can quickly see
his organizational pattern.
b. Create a balanced outline with exactly the same number of subpoints and details
for each main point.
c. Avoid placing only one subpoint under a main idea.
d. Avoid using the main points used on the outline as main headings in the written
report.
ANSWER: C
41. Yolanda must include a long table in a report she is preparing on employee Internet
use. What advice should she follow when creating the table?
a. Avoid distracting her readers with shading.
b. Place the table as close as possible to its text discussion.
c. Leave missing data blank.
d. Because the emphasis is on the data, avoid the use of headings for each row.
ANSWER: B
42. The major advantage of line charts is that they

a. compare related items.
b. present large amounts of data.
c. show the proportion of parts to a whole.
d. demonstrate trends.
ANSWER: D
43. What type of graphic illustrates changes in data over time?

a. Line chart
b. Flowchart
c. Bar chart
d. Table
ANSWER: C
44. In her letter to policyholders, Min Yi needs a graphic depicting the procedure a
policyholder follows when filing a claim. Which of these would be most appropriate?
a. Organizational chart
b. Flowchart
c. Illustration
d. Table
ANSWER: B
45. Which statement about pie charts is accurate?

a. Pie charts are most useful for technical audiences.
b. Pie charts are most appropriate for showing percentages.
c. Pie charts are more flexible than bar or line charts.
d. Pie charts can be confusing to readers because of the use of multiple colors.
ANSWER: B
46. Which of the following is the best advice when using graphics in reports?
a. Don't overuse color because too much color can be distracting and confusing.
b. Don't introduce a graphic; a good graphic should communicate clearly itself.
c. Avoid summarizing the main point of the graphic.
d. Avoid the use of headings on a graphic.
ANSWER: A
47. What is the purpose of a letter or memo of transmittal?

a. To present an overview of the report
b. To provide a list of sources used within the report
c. To introduce the writer of the report
d. To designate the parts of the report
ANSWER: A
48. What advice should you follow when preparing a table of contents?
a. Avoid leaders (spaced or unspaced dots) on a table of contents to avoid
confusing the reader.
b. Include all headings for a long report on the table of contents.
c. Include a list of figures on the table of contents.
d. Wait until you have completed the report before writing the table of contents.
ANSWER: D
49. The discussion of findings in a report should do all of the following except
a. use graphics to illustrate key points and findings.
b. use first-person pronouns.
c. analyze and interpret the research findings or solution.
d. present evidence to justify your conclusions.
ANSWER: B
50. What information is included in the appendix (phụ lục) in of a formal report?
a. Surveys
b. Sources mentioned in the report
c. Recommendations based on the report findings
d. Author's credentials
ANSWER: A
91. Graphics should incorporate lots of color and decorations to provide visual impact
for readers.
ANSWER: FALSE
92. Informal proposals are sometimes called ____________________ proposals.

ANSWER: letter
93. In the ____________________ section, your aim is to discuss your plan for solving
the problem.
ANSWER: proposal
94. The ____________________ section promotes the credentials and expertise of

project leaders and support staff.
ANSWER: staffing
95. The planning of every report begins with a statement of ____________________

that describes the goal, significance, and limitations of a formal report.
ANSWER: purpose
96. A(n) ____________________ is a collection of information stored electronically so

that it is accessible by computer and digitally searchable.
ANSWER: database
97. A(n) ____________________ tool is a service such as Google that indexes,

organizes, and often rates and reviews Web pages.
ANSWER: search
98. An online diary or journal that allows visitors to leave public comments is called a
weblog or ____________________.
ANSWER: blog
99. ____________________ is giving credit to your information sources.

ANSWER: documentation
100. Business reports often rely on ____________________ data from firsthand
experience such as surveys, interviews, observations, and experimentations.
ANSWER: primary
101. Using the ideas of someone else without giving credit is called
____________________ and is unethical.
ANSWER: plagiarism
CHAP 11
1. Which statement about professionalism is accurate?
a. Professionalism refers to those behaviors exhibited only to customers.
b. Professionalism describes desirable (mong muốn) workplace behavior.
c. Professionalism emphasizes hard skills or technical knowledge desired by employers.
d. Professionalism is important only in large companies.
ANSWER: B
TYPE: MC
2. A synonym for professionalism is

a. hard skills.
b. social
acceptance.
c. business
etiquette.
d. diversity.
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
3. Professional behavior is comprised of six dimensions, including courtesy and respect,

appearance and appeal, tolerance and tact, honesty and ethics, reliability and responsibility, and
a. soft and hard skills.
b. self-actualization and self-control.
c. diligence and collegiality.
d. education and training.
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
4. Which of the following statements about professionalism in the workplace is accurate?

a. Unprofessional behavior affects only the individual who displays it.
b. More organizations are establishing procedures or policies to encourage
professionalism.
c. Employees need to exhibit professional behavior only when working at their desks.
d. You exhibit professional behavior only through nonverbal actions such as dressing
appropriately or maintaining eye contact with others.
ANSWER: B
TYPE: MC
5. Stephen is starting a new job and wants to demonstrate that he is a professional

employee. What advice should he follow?
a. Never apologize for errors or misunderstandings because doing so calls attention to
them.
b. Show up a few minutes to late every so often to show that he isn't an overzealous
employee.
c. Share confidential information with his closest coworkers.
d. Keep personal opinions of people private.
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
6. Richard wants to prove that he is diligent and collegial. What is the best advice you can
give him?
a. Put all focus on his job and avoid volunteering his services to a worthy community or
charity group.
b. Turn in projects on time, even if he's not proud of the work he's done.
c. Show a willingness to share his expertise with others.
d. Richard should do all of these to come across as diligent and collegial.
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
7. How do recruiters and employers view the importance of professional behavior in the
workplace?
a. Although recruiters are impressed with applicants who speak well, a candidate's
technical expertise is all that matters.
b. Employers will often promote or advance individuals who display appropriate
communication skills and professional polish.
c. Professionalism and soft skills are important only in service-oriented fields.
d. Team, communication, and people skills are low priorities for most hiring managers.
ANSWER: B
TYPE: MC
8. Jue understands that soft skills and professional polish will ensure her long-term success
on the job. Which of the following is not a soft skill?
a. A grasp of workplace etiquette
b. An eagerness to learn
c. The ability to work effectively as part of team
d. Proficiency in using a variety of computer software packages
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
9. Which of the following statements about face-to-face communication is accurate?

a. Face-to-face communication is less expressive and persuasive than written
communication.
b. Face-to-face communication increases the likelihood of misunderstandings.
c. Face-to-face conversations reduce cooperation and limit problem solving during
conflict.
d. Face-to-face interaction is the most effective of all communication channels.
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
10. Saying words correctly and clearly with the accepted sounds and syllables reflects
a. rate.
b. pitch.
c. vocal quality.
d. proper pronunciation.
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
11. Alec, hoping for a promotion, wants to improve his pronunciation skills so that he's able
to say words correctly and clearly with accepted sounds and accented syllables. Which of the
following is the best advice for Alec?
a. Hire a professional speech coach.
b. Listen carefully to educated people.
c. Practice sounding enthusiastic when speaking.
d. Relax. Mispronouncing a few words is common and will not affect the opportunity for
promotion.
ANSWER: B
TYPE: MC

a. The quality of your voice sends only verbal messages.
b. You can learn to change your voice to make it more
powerful.
c. Listeners do not judge people's voices.
d. Speakers should use a higher-pitched voice.
ANSWER: B
TYPE: MC
13. The best definition of uptalk is

a. a flat or monotonous delivery.
b. a rising inflection at the end of a sentence that makes statements sound like questions.
c. self-gratifying comments to make you appear better than others.
d. an unnaturally quick speaking pattern.
ANSWER: B
TYPE: MC
14. To use your voice effectively,

a. speak in a moderately low-pitched voice at about 125 words per minute.
b. overemphasize all words to guarantee audience understanding.
c. avoid listening to educated individuals to retain your speaking uniqueness.
d. keep the same volume and rate while speaking.
ANSWER: A
TYPE: MC
15. LaTarsha's coworker has told her that LaTarsha is more likely to be promoted if she
speaks effectively in conversations. Which of the following is a good tip for LaTarsha?
a. Learn and use first names for all coworkers, clients, and customers.
b. Prove that she is relaxed and confident by telling some political jokes that are sure to
"raise an eyebrow."
c. Show strength of conviction by openly discussing her complaints.
d. Give sincere and specific praise to managers, colleagues, and workers.
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
16. Which of the following is the best advice regarding small talk in the workplace?
a. Avoid small talk in the workplace because doing so is unprofessional.
b. Read newspapers and listen to the radio and TV so that you can discuss current events
intelligently.
c. Bring up controversial topics such as politics or religion as often as possible to show
your intelligence.
d. Be defensive if someone brings up a topic that upsets you.
ANSWER: B
TYPE: MC
17. A coworker has justly criticized you for poor performance at work. If you agree quickly
with this on-target criticism,
a. the coworker is likely to take the criticism to your supervisor.
b. others will view you as a coward who doesn't fight back when criticized.
c. the coworker is more likely to take advantage of your weakness.
d. others will more likely respect you.
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
18. You are in a meeting receiving your performance review and are surprised that your
supervisor has offered you many suggestions for improvement. How should you react to the
criticism?
a. Interrupt your supervisor frequently to comment on his or her suggestions so that you
don't miss giving feedback on anything.
b. To avoid any type of confrontation with your supervisor, agree with all comments made.
c. Try to deflect blame for anything negative said to others in your department.
d. Ask for clarification of comments when necessary.
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
19. You recently chaired a team implementing new federal confidentiality requirements.
After implementation, you must evaluate each team member's performance. Which of the
following suggestions about giving constructive criticism is not accurate?
a. Use language that focuses on improvement instead of problems.
b. To show more compassion, be as vague as possible.
c. Ask the team members for feedback.
d. Discuss the behavior, not the person.
ANSWER: B
TYPE: MC
20. Which of the following statement best provides constructive criticism?

a. You seem to think that you can submit any kind of work and that it doesn't
matter.
b. Your work is often shoddy.
c. Producing inferior work often causes this company to lose time and money.
d. You need to produce work that meets this company's standards.
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
21. Which of the following is the best advice when making business telephone calls?
a. Realize that the responsibility for ending a call lies with the person who receives the
call, not with the caller.
b. Before you make a call, ask yourself if it's necessary.
c. To sound natural and spontaneous, decide what you're going to say after the receiver
answers.
d. Don't worry about smiling because the person can't see you.
ANSWER: B
TYPE: MC
22. Marsha has limited time and must call Charlie for answers to several questions. Which of
the following is the best example of a brisk and professional approach?
a. Charlie, I have only a few minutes, but I knew you were the one with answers to my
questions.
b. Hey, Charlie, what's up, dude?
c. I can't waste any time chit chatting, so you need to get to the point pronto!
d. Look, Charlie, you always have the inside scoop at work; what's going on?
ANSWER: A
TYPE: MC
23. Which of the following demonstrates the best example when answering a telephone call?
a. This is Beth. May I help you?
b. Precision Integrations. What's on your mind?
c. Hello. What can I do for you?
d. Thanks for calling Precision Integrations. This is Beth Dittmer. How may I help you
today?
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
24. Which of the following is the best advice to follow when receiving telephone calls for
others?
a. Identify your colleague's whereabouts if you are answering his or her phone.
b. Provide only your name when answering a call.
c. Verify telephone numbers and spelling of names when taking messages.
d. Guarantee the caller that your colleague will return the call within a few hours.
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
25. Which of the following is the best example of a response when answering calls for
others?
a. Annette is currently participating in an important budget meeting with our board of
directors.
b. We're not really sure where Annette is right now, but she'll return your call immediately
whenever she gets back.
c. Annette has run down to the ladies' room for a few minutes, but she should be back
soon.
d. Annette is away from her desk, but I will give her your message when she returns.
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
26. Melinda uses a cell phone for all her business communications. What advice should she
follow?
a. Talk openly and freely on her cell phone in any location.
b. Converse in her normal speaking voice.
c. Answer her cell phone when it rings while she is driving to ensure she communicates
with her customers at all times.
d. Screen incoming calls.
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
27. Which of the following statements about using cell phones for business is most accurate?
a. Because cell phones can be annoying to others, don't use them for business purposes.
b. To make yourself look professional and important, leave your cell phone on at all times
during the workday.
c. Choose a unique and creative ring style such as your college fight song to distinguish
calls to your cell phone.
d. Be careful about using your cell phone to discuss private or confidential company
information.
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
28. The benefits of voice mail include eliminating unnecessary chit chat, telephone tag,
inaccurate messages, and
a. time-zone barriers.
b. the need for written messages.
c. the necessity of a cordial, friendly greeting.
d. prompt responses.
ANSWER: A
TYPE: MC
29. Shawn needs to record his business voicemail outgoing message. Which of the following
outgoing messages is most professional?
a. Hi! I'm sorry I missed your call. Please leave a brief message after the tone.
b. This is Shawn. I'm not available right now. But if you leave a message, I promise to call
you back. Be sure to include your name, phone number, and the best time to return your
call.
c. Your call is important to me. Please leave your name and number so that I can return
your call promptly.
d. Hi! You have reached the voice mail of Shawn Berg of Juarez Accounting. I am
currently away from my phone but will return by 2 p.m. Please call back then. Thank
you for calling.
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
30. Leticia has called a client and gotten his voice mail. What is the best advice you can give
Leticia for leaving a message?
a. Hang up and call back later; her client won't want to be bothered with having to listen to
a message.
b. Speak as quickly as possible to make her message more concise.
c. Smile when leaving her message to add warmth to her voice.
d. Leave a complete message, including confidential details about the project Leticia is
working on, to make her message as useful as possible.
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
31. Which of the following statements about workplace teams is most accurate?
a. Teams tend to respond more slowly to competition or problem solving.
b. Because conflict often results, teams tend to have decreased productivity.
c. Team members who are involved in the decision-making process show less resistance to
change.
d. Individuals tend to make better decisions than teams.
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
32. What term describes groups of people who work interdependently with a shared purpose
across space, time, and organization boundaries using technology?
a. Blogs
b. Virtual teams
c. Team players
d. Social networking
ANSWER: B
TYPE: MC
33. The most effective groups have members who

a. do not establish rules.
b. make excessive jokes to make everyone laugh.
c. ignore silent group members.
d. offer information and try out their ideas on the group to stimulate discussion.
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
34. The most successful workplace teams

a. have a small number of members.
b. are homogeneous.
c. avoid conflict.
d. work independently.
ANSWER: A
TYPE: MC
35. What is the optimum number of participants for most group projects?
a. Two
b. Four to five
c. Ten
d. There is no "optimum" number; more is always better.
ANSWER: B
TYPE: MC
36. Which of the following would probably best help a group achieve its goal?
a. Competition
b. Individual leadership
c. Emphasis on individualism
d. Active listening skills
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
37. Which of the following statements about meetings is most accurate?
a. Reliance on e-mail and wireless devices are causing face-to-face meetings to disappear.
b. Meetings consist of ten or more individuals who gather to achieve a goal, solve a
problem, or create a work plan.
c. As businesses become more team-oriented, people are attending more meetings than
ever.
d. Most people enjoy attending meetings because they recognize that meetings present
great opportunities for professional growth and recognition.
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
38. What is your first task before holding a meeting?

a. Decide how and where to meet.
b. Prepare an agenda.
c. Invite participants.
d. Determine your purpose.
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
39. Which statement about group conflict is accurate?

a. Good groups acknowledge conflict and address the root of the problem openly.
b. Addressing group conflict wastes valuable time and reduces team commitment.
c. Groups should use majority voting to resolve group conflicts.
d. Groups that confront conflict should be person oriented, not task oriented.
ANSWER: A
TYPE: MC
40. Tao has just volunteered to participate in a work team that will explore the establishment
of an employee exercise facility. Which of the following behaviors should he practice?
a. Concentrate on his desire to stay fit rather than on other employees' goals.
b. Agree with all group members' contributions.
c. Remind group members of their task if they periodically get off track.
d. Hold back his knowledge of an employee exercise program from a previous
employer.
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
41. When the purpose of your meeting is to solve a problem, what is the recommended
number of meeting participants?
a. Five or fewer
b. Ten or fewer
c. Thirty or fewer
d. An unlimited number of participants
ANSWER: A
TYPE: MC
42. A meeting agenda should include the date and place of the meeting, start and end times, a
brief description of each topic with its time allotment, and
a. a refreshment list.
b. an explanation of the leader's position on each of the topics.
c. the speaker order.
d. any premeeting preparation expected of participants.
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
43. Which of the following is the best practice for a group when it begins a meeting?
a. Wait until all participants arrive.
b. Give a quick recap to anyone who arrives late.
c. Establish ground rules.
d. Always avoid self-introductions.
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
44. Antonia is leading her first professional business meeting and wants to follow
professional meeting etiquette. Which of the following is the best tip for Antonia?
a. Avoid following an agenda because the meeting will appear too rigid.
b. End the meeting on time, even if the group hasn't discussed all agenda items.
c. Don't waste time on introductions because you may run out of time to complete your
meeting business.
d. Encourage friendly, informal side conversations.
ANSWER: B
TYPE: MC
45. Lucas will attend his first sales meeting and wants to follow proper meeting etiquette.
Which of the following should he do to make a good impression?
a. Keep his cell phone and pager on so that he doesn't miss an important call.
b. Leave the room only for breaks and emergencies.
c. Use body language to show if he's bored; the chair will appreciate his
honesty.
d. Avoid direct eye contact with other group members.
ANSWER: B
TYPE: MC
46. How should a group leader keep a meeting progressing effectively?

a. Engage in most of the talking to ensure that the meeting ends on time.
b. Allow group members to digress on a topic because other topics may be beneficial to
explore.
c. Discourage members who monopolize the discussion.
d. Summarize only at the end of the meeting.
ANSWER: C
TYPE: MC
47. Which of the following statements about meetings is not accurate?

a. Meetings should start on time unless someone important is late.
b. An agenda should be distributed at least two days before the meeting.
c. Meetings should not be held if the flow of information will be strictly one
way.
d. The real expense of a meeting is the lost productivity of the attendees.
ANSWER: A
TYPE: MC
48. Which of the following statements about managing workplace conflict is most accurate?
a. Conflict in the workplace can be desirable.
b. Because conflict makes people feel awkward and uneasy, it inhibits creativity.
c. Since conflict is always negative, you should always avoid it in the workplace.
d. Unresolved conflict indicates leadership failure.
ANSWER: A
TYPE: MC
49. Team leaders can handle difficult group members during a meeting by
a. announcing the rules for expected behavior as soon as a participant digresses.
b. seating the difficult group member as far from the leader as possible.
c. making direct eye contact with everyone when asking questions.
d. assigning a task to the disruptive person.
ANSWER: D
TYPE: MC
50. Which of the following should occur at the end of a meeting?

a. A meeting should end only when participants have discussed all agenda items.
b. The leader should provide a summary of accomplishments and a review of action items.
c. The leader should remind participants that they are responsible for taking their own
minutes.
d. Participants should pass their assigned tasks on to someone who did not attend.
ANSWER: B
TYPE: MC
91. ____________________, also known as business etiquette, civility, social intelligence, or

soft skills, refers to a whole range of desirable workplace behaviors.
ANSWER: Professionalism
TYPE: FB
92. ____________________ intelligence is defined as "the ability to get along well with
others and to get them to cooperate with you."
ANSWER: Social
TYPE: FB
93. The ____________________ of your voice is the degree of loudness or the intensity of
sound.
ANSWER: volume
TYPE: FB
94. ____________________ criticism involves planning what you will say, focusing on
improvement, offering to help, being specific, and avoiding anger.
ANSWER: Constructive
TYPE: FB
95. ____________________ enable you to conduct business from virtually anywhere at any
time and have become an essential part of communication in today's workplace.
ANSWER: Smartphones
TYPE: FB
96. ____________________ mail links a telephone system to a computer that digitizes and
stores incoming messages.
ANSWER: Voice
TYPE: FB
97. To connect with distant team members across borders and time zones, many
organizations are creating ____________________ teams. These teams work interdependently
with a shared purpose across space, time, and organization boundaries using technology.
ANSWER: virtual
TYPE: FB
98. ____________________ consist of three or more people who gather to pool information,
solicit feedback, clarify policy, seek consensus, and solve problems.
ANSWER: Meetings
TYPE: FB
99. The list of topics to be discussed at a meeting is called a(n) ____________________.

ANSWER: agenda
TYPE: FB
100. The ____________________ are a record of points of discussion, decisions made, and
tasks assigned at a meeting.
ANSWER: minutes
TYPE: FB
Chap 12:
1. Choose the most accurate statement about business presentations.
a. At some point nearly half of business, people have to inform others or sell an
idea.
b. Good speakers are born, not made.
c. If you are like most people, you may be apprehensive about making
informational or persuasive oral presentations.
d. Information and persuasion are seldom conveyed in person because e-mail,
memos, and letters are more effective.
ANSWER: C
2. Which of the following statements about business presentations and speaking skills is
most accurate?
a. Speaking skills are useful only for individuals in upper-level positions.
b. Effective speaking skills and career success go hand in hand.
c. For many positions only technical skills, not communication skills, are needed.
d. Oral presentations in the workplace are necessary only when you must motivate
action.
ANSWER: B
3. According to a major study on public speaking,

a. the No. 1 predictor of success and upward mobility is how much you enjoy
public speaking and how effective you are at it.
b. everyone fears public speaking, and overcoming that fear is impossible; instead
you must learn to focus your fears.
c. presentation skills measure the success and pay of middle and upper
management but have little correlation to entry-level employment.
d. job seekers who highlight public-speaking skills in their application materials
are more than twice as likely to receive an interview.
ANSWER: A
4. Which of the following statements about preparing for an oral presentation is not
accurate?
a. Many people feel a great deal of anxiety when getting ready for an oral
presentation.
b. You can lay the foundation for a professional performance by focusing on
preparation, organization, audience rapport, visual aids, and delivery.
c. The key element in successful preparation for an oral presentation is assessing
your knowledge and related technical skills.
d. For many people fear of speaking before a group is even greater than fear of
dying.
ANSWER: C
5. Anxiety about a presentation is normal. You can reduce your anxiety and set the
groundwork for a professional performance by focusing on five areas:
a. audience clothing, your clothing, seating arrangement or pattern, sight lines, and
lighting.
b. volume, pace, pitch, tone, and pattern.
c. adequate rest, driving time (or commuting time), parking arrangements,
building identification, and name tags.
d. preparation, organization, audience rapport, visual aids, and delivery.
ANSWER: D
6. The most important part of preparing for an oral presentation is

a. analyzing the audience.
b. determining the purpose.
c. gathering research.
d. creating a professional appearance.
ANSWER: B
7. Choose the best example of a statement of purpose for an oral presentation.

a. To persuade the management team to offer flexible work schedules to all
executive-level employees.
b. To persuade my listeners in a brief, interesting, and effective speech.
c. This effective presentation will be both entertaining and informative for my
audience about my chosen subject.
d. We made fiscal mistakes that we can't afford to repeat that caused the economic
downturn and created widespread business closures and the collapse of the
housing market in several major metropolitan areas.
ANSWER: A
8. After determining your purpose for the presentation, what is your next important
step?
a. Conducting research
b. Examining the room where the presentation will be made
c. Preparing your PowerPoint slides
d. Analyzing the audience
ANSWER: D
9. Your task in audience analysis is to

a. select a presentation topic and a purpose best suited to your audience.
b. anticipate the audience's reactions and adjust to its needs, if necessary.
c. determine your needs and develop your visual aids.
d. begin information research and organization.
ANSWER: B
10. Audience analysis issues you should consider when preparing your presentation
include size, age, gender, and which of the following?
a. Height and weight
b. Race, religion, and culture
c. Stereotypes, biases, and prejudices
d. Experience, attitude, and expectations
ANSWER: D
11. Presentations are given to many types of audiences. According to your text, what
are the four categories of audiences?
a. Informed, uninformed, intelligent, and stupid
b. Hostile, friendly, neutral, and uninterested
c. Workplace, education or school-related, community, and political
d. Manuscript, extemporaneous, impromptu, and memorized
ANSWER: B
12. Your audience analysis reveals that audience members will be friendly and
interested in your topic. You should be
a. warm, pleasant, and open; and you should use a lot of eye contact and smiles.
b. be calm and controlled, and you should speak evenly and slowly.
c. controlled and do nothing showy; you should use confident, small gestures.
d. dynamic and entertaining; you should also use large gestures and move around.
ANSWER: A
13. If you have agreed to speak to an audience with which you are unfamiliar, you
should
a. obtain the names of several audience members, and contact them to ask
questions about their backgrounds, attitudes, and expectations.
b. imagine for yourself what an average audience in this part of the country might
be like.
c. use a search engine to collect as much information about the region and its
people as possible and then base your audience analysis on this.
d. ask the person sponsoring the event to complete your audience analysis
worksheet for you.
ANSWER: A
14. Irina will make her presentation to a large audience of members whose negative
attitudes range from displeased to outraged. What advice should Irina follow in preparing
her presentation for this audience?
a. Include plenty of personal stories, several anecdotes, and lots of jokes or humor.
b. Use facts, statistics, and expert opinions along with an energizing, upbeat
delivery style.
c. Be humorous, add colorful visuals and startling statistics, and keep the
presentation brief.
d. Present objective data and expert opinion in a calm, controlled delivery style.
ANSWER: D
15. After you determine your purpose and analyze your audience, your next step is to
a. practice your delivery.
b. collect information.
c. organize the ideas.
d. choose your topic.
ANSWER: B
16. Two of the most effective techniques to improve your audience's ability to
understand and remember your speech are
a. good organization and intentional repetition.
b. eliminating repetition and removing obvious signposting.
c. startling statistics and colorful visuals.
d. striking quotations and well-placed gestures.
ANSWER: A
17. Some repetition in oral presentations

a. is necessary because speaking speed is much greater than listening speed.
b. is helpful because it increases audience comprehension and retention.
c. bores listeners and should be avoided.
d. encourages daydreaming and makes the speaker sound unprepared.
ANSWER: B
18. You should do all of the following in the introduction of a presentation except
a. preview the main points of your presentation.
b. capture your listeners' attention and get them involved.
c. develop the main points with adequate explanation and details.
d. introduce yourself and establish your credibility.
ANSWER: C
19. The best techniques to establish your credibility in a business presentation include
a. describing your knowledge, position, or experience.
b. telling the audience your salary, age, and hometown.
c. revealing your ethnicity, cultural heritage, and religious background.
d. discussing your love for public speaking.
ANSWER: A
20. Jessica tells her audience about her five years' experience as a social networking
professional helping over 100 local businesses learn to use social networking as an
effective marketing tool. Jessica is attempting to
a. capture her listeners' attention and get them involved.
b. preview the main points of her presentation.
c. present the main goals of her presentation.
d. identify herself and establish credibility.
ANSWER: D
21. Connor opened his presentation to an audience of business owners with this
statement: If you want to reduce employee benefit costs by at least 15 percent without
hurting employee morale or impacting your work environment, please stand up right now.
By asking them to stand, Connor is
a. identifying himself and establishing credibility.
b. previewing the main points of his presentation.
c. capturing listeners' attention and getting them involved.
d. misleading his audience.
ANSWER: C
22. What is the biggest problem with most oral presentations?

a. Failure to focus on a few principal ideas
b. Use of too many visuals
c. Poor eye contact
d. Unprofessional attire
ANSWER: A
23. The body of a short, 20-minute presentation should focus on

a. at least five to eight main points.
b. up to ten main points.
c. approximately two to four main points.
d. as many points as necessary to convey your message.
ANSWER: C
24. Paul is explaining to upper-level management how converting to a four-day
workweek can solve their budget woes by decreasing expenses. How will he most likely
organize his presentation?
a. Geography/space
b. Chronological
c. Problem/solution
d. Value/size
ANSWER: C
25. When preparing your speech, you should

a. aim for 20 percent past the time limit when rehearsing because most speakers
speed up during actual delivery
b. eliminate one third of the body to prevent speed talking, a common hazard
among novice public speakers.
c. remove about 10 percent of your content because most speakers exceed their
time limits.
d. prepare a little more material than you think you will actually need.
ANSWER: D
26. In an effective presentation conclusion, you will strive to accomplish three goals:
a. state your recommendation, prove your persuasion, and reinforce the purpose.
b. remind the audience of your credibility, review the attention getter, and restate
the purpose.
c. summarize the main themes, give the audience a memorable take-away, and
include a statement that allows for a graceful exit.
d. promote your primary claim, advance your supporting claims, and elevate the
most viable evidence.
ANSWER: C
27. In the conclusion of your speech, you say, I recommend developing and posting
high-quality video podcasts on our Web site to recruit new employees. You are using the
conclusion to
a. introduce one additional main point of interest to the audience.
b. review the main themes of the presentation.
c. include a statement that allows you to depart gracefully.
d. provide a final action-oriented focus.
ANSWER: D
28. Your speech will be more effective if you have audience rapport. Rapport can be
defined as
a. a bond connecting the speaker with the audience.
b. the awareness of topic importance.
c. an understanding of key points.
d. the ability to hear clearly.
ANSWER: A
29. Speakers build audience rapport by

a. researching thoroughly and organizing the speech effectively.
b. establishing credibility and demonstrating authority.
c. forming a bond with the audience by entertaining as well as informing.
d. speaking loudly, clearly, and rapidly.
ANSWER: C
30. Tyrone has just told his audience that engineering a hostile business takeover is
similar to conducting guerilla warfare. He is using what technique?
a. Personal anecdote
b. Metaphor
c. Personalized statistic
d. Analogy
ANSWER: D
31. To help his listeners keep track of where he is in the presentation, Dominic has just
said, Next I will discuss three plans for reducing waste. What verbal signpost is Dominic
using?
a. Summarizing
b. Previewing
c. Switching directions
d. Enumeration
ANSWER: B
32. In her presentation on improving employee morale, Jillian makes this statement: So
far, you've heard only about the problems we have with morale; let's move to some
solutions. Jillian has employed the verbal signpost called
a. summarizing.
b. previewing.
c. switching directions.
d. revealing.
ANSWER: C
33. Like it or not, speakers are judged on their appearance. Which of these is the best
advice on choosing your attire for a business presentation?
a. Dress only as well as the best-dressed person in your audience, even if that
means shorts and a t-shirt.
b. For everything but small, in-house presentations, dress professionally.
c. Wear formal business attire for all presentations, both internal and external.
d. Clothing makes the man but not the woman; therefore, men must wear a suit
and tie for all presentations, but experts indicate women may dress casually for
most presentations.
ANSWER: B
34. Effective speakers must be aware of their nonverbal messages. Nonverbal means
a. content delivered by visual aids.
b. information included on the outline, but not in the speech.
c. appearance, movements, and vocal qualities.
d. body language only.
ANSWER: C
35. All of these are good advice for nonverbal messages during a presentation except
a. avoid being planted behind the podium.
b. use a variety of gestures planned and rehearsed in advance.
c. punctuate your words by varying your tone, volume, pitch, and pace.
d. maintain appropriate eye contact to show you are confident and prepared.
ANSWER: B
36. When selecting and preparing your visual aids, keep in mind your goals as a
speaker:
a. to make listeners understand, remember, and act on your ideas.
b. to observe your audience, adjust your delivery, and continue your presentation.
c. to inform, to entertain, and to persuade.
d. to plan and collect information, organize and rehearse, and deliver your
presentation.
ANSWER: A
37. During a business presentation, an effective visual aid will

a. emphasize and clarify main points.
b. increase audience interest.
c. help to jog the memory of a speaker.
d. do all of these.
ANSWER: D
38. Which of these tips regarding the use of handouts (phát ấn phẩm cho khán giả) as a
visual aid is most accurate?
a. Handouts should be discussed during the presentation, but you should delay
distribution of the handouts until your presentation is finished.
b. Savvy speakers no longer distribute handouts because audiences view the lowly
handout as outdated and environmentally unfriendly.
c. If you choose to use a handout, the most appropriate information for a handout
is the speaker's biography only.
d. Handouts should be included in the registration packet, along with name tags,
lunch tickets, and other event materials distributed prior to the presentation.
ANSWER: A
39. Because the presenter can create dynamic, colorful presentations that incorporate
Web links, music, and video, one of the most popular visual aids is
a. overhead transparencies.
b. flipcharts.
c. multimedia slides.
d. handouts.
ANSWER: C
40. Julio is designing a PowerPoint slide show that he will present in a darkened
conference room. What should Julio do?
a. Place the greatest focus on the visual component of his slides because this will
be his audience's focus.
b. Use as many special effects (animation, sound effects, and so on) as possible to
maintain his audience's interest.
c. Use light text on a dark background.
d. Use at least five different font colors to provide visual impact.
ANSWER: C
41. For effective presentation slides, you should apply the 6-x-6 rule to most slides.
The 6-x-6 rule means that
a. the entire presentation has no more than six slides.
b. each slide has no more than six words per line and no more than six lines.
c. each main idea has no more than six bullet points.
d. each slide is discussed for six minutes.
ANSWER: B
42. What is the best advice for composing a PowerPoint slideshow?

a. Always design your own template to show your creativity and uniqueness.
b. Occasionally convert bullet points to diagrams, charts, and other images to
make your slideshow more interesting.
c. When including numbers, use lists rather than charts or graphs.
d. Make sure that every point has at least one bullet point and one visual.
ANSWER: B
43. Malinda wants to be certain that her audience remains engaged during her
PowerPoint presentation at today's business meeting. What should she do?
a. Keep a careful eye on the computer monitor or screen to make sure she doesn't
miss anything.
b. Read the bullet points word for word to make sure her audience understands the
information.
c. Use a laser pointer to highlight slide items to discuss.
d. Make the room as dark as she can to make her slides more visible.
ANSWER: C
44. Which of the following is the best recommendation for delivering an effective oral
presentation?
a. Memorize the entire oral presentation so that you don't have to use notes.
b. Read the entire oral presentation to the audience so that nothing important will
be overlooked.
c. Use the notes method, using note cards or an outline containing key sentences
and major ideas.
d. Wing it!
ANSWER: C
45. Niccolo is nervous about his upcoming presentation. Which of these techniques will
overcome his case of nerves and allow Niccolo to deliver a good presentation?
a. Hold his breath as long as he can to clear his head.
b. Tell the audience that he's nervous to get them to empathize with him.
c. Ignore any stumbles and keep going.
d. Have a stiff drink right before presenting
ANSWER: C
46. Nearly every speaker must overcome stage fright; one of the most effective
techniques to decrease stage fright is
a. wearing comfortable, relaxed clothing to enhance self-confidence.
b. knowing the subject thoroughly.
c. displaying a fully animated PowerPoint presentation.
d. picturing the audience naked.
ANSWER: B
47. Which of these is the most accurate description regarding the use of pauses and
silence in a presentation?
a. Don't pause when you first approach the audience because you will appear
unsure.
b. Fill awkward silences with short phrases such as "you know" or "basically."
c. Words always carry more impact than a silent pause.
d. Silence is preferable to meaningless fillers.
ANSWER: D
48. For a smooth start to your presentation, you should prepare thoroughly, rehearse
repeatedly, dress professionally, and
a. practice stress reduction.
b. avoid personal contact with audience members before the presentation.
c. remove barriers (lecterns, podiums, tables, etc.) between you and the audience.
d. pump yourself up to build some tension, pressure, power, and enthusiasm.
ANSWER: A
49. Follow all of these guidelines to deliver your presentation effectively except
a. present your first sentence from memory.
b. begin speaking immediately; that is, speak as soon as you are behind the lectern.
c. control your voice and your vocabulary.

d. show enthusiasm.
ANSWER: B
50. If you will take questions at the end of your presentation, which of these is the best
advice?
a. Announce the question-and-answer period in the conclusion of your
presentation.
b. If you don't know the answer to a question, you should offer your best guess or
make up an answer.
c. Begin each answer with a repetition of the question.
d. Direct your answer just to the person who asked the question.
ANSWER: C
91. ____________________ analysis issues include size, age, gender, experience, and
professional background.
ANSWER: Audience
92. You should capture listeners' attention, introduce yourself, establish your
credibility, and preview your topic in the ____________________ of your presentation.
ANSWER: introduction
93. Develop each of your main points in the ____________________ of your

presentation.
ANSWER: body
94. In the ____________________ of your presentation, you should summarize your

main themes and leave the audience with something memorable.
ANSWER: conclusion
95. A comparison of similar traits between dissimilar items, such as Turning the course
of this economic downturn has been like stopping an avalanche; it's possible, but very,
very difficult, is a(n) ____________________.
ANSWER: simile
96. Help your audience recognize the organization and main points in an oral message
with ____________________ signposts that keep listeners on track.
ANSWER: verbal
97. ____________________ points in a PowerPoint presentation consist of concise and
parallel key phrases.
ANSWER: Bullet
98. To ensure professional results for your multimedia presentation, choose a

professionally designed ____________________ that will combine harmonious colors,
borders, bullet styles, and fonts for pleasing visual effects.
ANSWER: template
99. After delivering their presentations, businesspeople often post their multimedia
shows online because attendees appreciate these ____________________ handouts.
ANSWER: electronic
100. ____________________ delivery means speaking freely, generally without notes,

after preparation and rehearsing. This delivery method allows you to freely discuss the
ideas you have prepared and rehearsed several times.
ANSWER: Extemporaneous
Chap 13:
1. Begin the job search by studying the job market and
a. identifying your interests, goals, and qualifications.
b. specifying your target job, ideal supervisor, and perfect working conditions.
c. developing a short-range career plan to present at interviews.
d. searching Web sites for job openings.
ANSWER: A
2. Your first step in finding a satisfying career should be

a. researching salary, benefits, and job stability in a chosen field.
b. developing an effective résumé to send to prospective employers.
c. locating job openings at desirable companies.
d. learning about yourself, the job market, and the employment process.
ANSWER: D
3. Which of the following is an effective question you should ask to determine your best
career path?
a. Do I speak, write, or understand another language?
b. Do I want to retrain frequently, and will my employer pay for this retraining?
c. How well will I stand out from other candidates applying for jobs in this career
field, and how likely will I be to get an interview and land a job?
d. Would I like to work for someone else or be my own boss?
ANSWER: D
4. Which of the following statements about the changing nature of jobs in today's
workplace is most accurate?
a. In many companies teams complete special projects and then disband.
b. The primary employers in today's economy are large businesses.
c. Employers prefer hiring people for jobs with narrow descriptions.
d. Jobs are becoming less flexible and more permanent.
ANSWER: A
5. As you prepare for a successful job search, you must understand the role of the Web
in the process. Which of the following is most accurate?
a. The Web has made the process both easier and more challenging.
b. The Web has made it easy for job candidates to get noticed; standing out among
candidates is now simple.
c. The Web should be the only research tool in the job-search arsenal for savvy
hunters and recruiters.
d. The Web now provides one-stop employment services for job seekers and for
employers seeking employees.
ANSWER: A
6. Given the changing nature of the job market today, which of these is the best advice
for job seekers?
a. Seek a lifelong career with a single company.
b. Upgrade your skills regularly and plan to retrain yourself frequently.
c. Start with a career that relies on existing technology skills to remain secure over
the long haul.
d. Remember that you will still have pay raises, promotions, and, finally, a
comfortable retirement over the course of your career, despite the changing job
market.
ANSWER: B
7. The best advice for college students who need to learn about careers and establish a
professional network is to
a. enroll in classes in many programs to sample every career path.
b. write your own blog to attract potential employers.
c. volunteer with a nonprofit organization.
d. purchase a good interview suit.
ANSWER: C

a. You can expect to have two or three employers over the course of your career.
b. Because you are likely to change jobs often, do not train now for a specific
career.
c. You make better career decisions if you match your interests to specific career
requirements.
d. The Web provides all the career data you need to gather.
ANSWER: C
9. Kendra is searching for a job and wants to use electronic sources. Which of the
following will probably be her best source of online job listings?
a. Big job boards such as Monster.com and Yahoo HotJobs
b. Specific company Web sites
c. Her college Web site job board
d. Social networking sites such as MySpace and Facebook
ANSWER: B
10. Experts report a new online information source for successful job seekers. What is
this recently emerged online job source?
a. Big online job boards
b. Online newspapers
c. Public service Web sites
d. Social media sites
ANSWER: D
11. Which of the following is a traditional job-search technique?

a. Developing a network
b. Searching CareerBuilder and HotJobs
c. Visiting a company Web site to search for job openings
d. Checking LinkedIn or Facebook
ANSWER: A
12. Which of the following tips will best help you conduct a safe, effective Web job
search?
a. Respond only to "blind" job postings.
b. Renew your résumé posting about every 45 days.
c. Post your résumé only at reputable sites that charge a fee for this service.
d. Consider omitting your home address and home phone number.
ANSWER: D
13. The most successful job seekers are those who

a. avoid career fairs and other "cattle calls" where the job seeker can become lost
in a crowd of applicants.
b. launch aggressive, proactive campaigns, which includes sending unsolicited
application letters with résumés to target companies.
c. focus their job searches on nontraditional methods such as Twitter and
Facebook and use traditional methods only as a last resort.
d. study the job market and companies in college and don't worry about their
grades because employers no longer place importance on GPAs.
ANSWER: B
14. Because job competition is stiff, you must have a customized résumé. Having a
customized résumé means that you
a. prepare a special résumé for every position you want.
b. create résumés for each of the job categories to which you plan to apply.
c. hire a professional résumé preparation company to review and refine your basic
résumé and then "dress it up."
d. include your photo, add color, or place other graphics on the résumé.
ANSWER: A
15. The primary way to make a résumé persuasive is to

a. limit it to one page.
b. customize it to fit each company and position.
c. use a good laser printer to print it on high-quality bond paper.
d. put a copy of it on the Web.
ANSWER: B
16. Because it quickly reveals a candidate's education and experience record, most
recruiters favor a(n)
a. scannable résumé.
b. functional résumé.
c. chronological résumé.
d. online résumé.
ANSWER: C
17. You are just graduating from college and have little employment experience, yet
you want to put together a persuasive résumé. What would be the best résumé style to use?
a. Chronological résumé
b. Scannable résumé
c. Functional résumé
d. Online résumé
ANSWER: C
18. Which of the following is the best advice about résumé length?
a. Because recruiters are busy, keep it to one page.
b. Because recruiters and hiring managers want to know your skills, make it as
long as needed to sell yourself.
c. Because recruiters interview applicants with two-page résumés, make it two
pages.
d. Because experts are divided between one- or two-page résumé length, make
your résumé a page and a half.
ANSWER: B
19. Which of these is the best tip for arranging the parts of a persuasive résumé?
a. Always include a Career Objective to show your commitment.
b. Use as many headings as needed to cover your background essentials.
c. List Education before Work Experience.
d. Always begin your résumé with your name and contact information.
ANSWER: D
20. Opinions on the use of a Career Objective on the résumé are mixed. Which of the
following the best reason for candidates to add a Career Objective to their résumés?
a. An Objective shows flexibility and indicates that a candidate is adaptable and
willing to change to suit the employer's needs.
b. The primary goal of an Objective is to make the recruiter's life easier by quickly
classifying the résumé, which means the applicant is more likely to be hired.
c. An Objective can rapidly disqualify a candidate if the stated Objective does not
match a company's job description.
d. An Objective can tell the prospective employer that this candidate is sure about
what he or she wants to do.
ANSWER: D
21. Which of the following is the best Career Objective for a résumé?
a. An entry-level position in the marketing area with a possibility of promotion
b. A challenging job at an organization that raises the bar in data security
c. Serving as a team player in a company where independent thinking is Job #1
d. An accounting position in which 10 years' experience and a license as a CPA
will allow me to assist the company with payroll, employee benefits, and
governmental tax and records reporting
ANSWER: D
22. What statement best describes the Summary of Qualifications portion of a résumé?
a. Recruiters and hiring managers dislike the Summary of Qualifications section
because it adds reading time.
b. The Summary of Qualifications usually appears at the end of a résumé to
provide a strong closing.
c. Smart job seekers add a summary of their most impressive qualifications to
their résumés to save the time of recruiters and hiring managers.
d. The Summary of Qualifications section is typically one or two concise
paragraphs.
ANSWER: C
23. In the Education section of your résumé, you should

a. list all college courses you have taken to give the employer a complete picture.
b. include relevant seminars attended and workshops completed.
c. list only colleges where you have completed a degree or certificate program.
d. specify your high school and college GPAs.
ANSWER: B
24. Which of the following statements describing employment achievements would be

most effective on a résumé?
a. Directed work flow and scheduling for emergency room personnel
b. Performed preventative maintenance on production equipment
c. Achieved 125 percent of production goal for three consecutive quarters
d. Knowledgeable in a variety of production processes and Just-in-Time theories
ANSWER: C
25. Which of the following statements uses an action verb to highlight an aptitude?
a. Competent in creation of multimedia presentations
b. Mastered QuickBooks Pro accounting software in 20 hours with minimal
instruction
c. Ability to develop innovative and interactive Web pages
d. Able to adapt quickly to changing work environments
ANSWER: B
26. Which of these résumé tips is most accurate?

a. Don't list awards and honors on a résumé; if you list them, you will appear to be
bragging.
b. Omit school and community activities from your résumé because they are
unrelated to your work experience.
c. Include your personal information (height, weight, and marital status) to give a
potential employer a complete picture.
d. Improve the visual impact of your résumé by placing your employment
achievements and relevant job duties in an easy-to-read bulleted list.
ANSWER: D
27. Which statement represents the best advice on the use of references?
a. Include a list of references directly on the résumé.
b. Do not include personal or character references.
c. Remember that companies generally check references before a job interview to
learn about a candidate in advance.
d. Be sure to add the statement References furnished upon request at the bottom of
your résumé.
ANSWER: B
28. Experts argue about the best length for a résumé, but they agree that you shouldn't
waste space on unnecessary information. Which of the following should you omit on your
résumé?
a. Awards, honors, and certificates
b. Description of internship experiences as part of your college education
c. Complete listing of all courses taken during schooling
d. Skills and responsibilities learned at part-time jobs while in college
ANSWER: C
29. Employers today will probably ask you to submit your résumé in any of following
formats except as a
a. PDF document.
b. professionally typeset document.
c. Word document.
d. plain-text document.
ANSWER: B
30. Employers often use scanners to sort and evaluate résumés. Which of these steps
will maximize the "hits" your résumé receives from scanners?
a. Describe your experience, education, and qualifications in general terms.
b. Spell out all abbreviations and acronyms, especially those related to your field.
c. Eliminate descriptions of interpersonal skills or aptitudes.
d. Use accurate, specific names of schools, degrees, products, job titles, and
companies.
ANSWER: D
31. What is the most accurate statement about plain-text résumés?

a. Plain-text résumés are in high demand for electronic applications because
recruiters and employers no longer ask candidates to send application materials
by postal mail.
b. A plain-text format is widely used for posting to online job boards and for
applying by e-mail.
c. Plain-text résumés will look exactly like the original and cannot be altered
without Adobe Acrobat and other conversion software.
d. A plain-text résumé enables employers to plug your data into their formats for
rapid searching.
ANSWER: B
32. Another name for a print-based résumé is

a. presentation résumé.
b. plain-text résumé.
c. employability résumé.
d. e-portfolio résumé.
ANSWER: A
33. An e-portfolio is
a. an electronic copy of your résumé recorded on a CD or flash drive.
b. the addition of work samples and personal information as an attachment to your
embedded résumé.
c. a collection of digitized materials that give a snapshot of the candidate's
qualifications.
d. the name given to résumés posted on job-search Web sites such as
Monster.com.
ANSWER: C
34. Generally, job seekers offer their e-portfolios on Web sites where potential
employers can access the information round the clock, but e-portfolios are also
a. burned onto CDs and DVDs to be mailed to prospective employers.
b. shared via YouTube and Tweets.
c. printed into hard-copy and arranged into three-ring binders.
d. posted on the big job boards.
ANSWER: A
35. Omar has asked you for a tip to improve his résumé. Which of these is your best
advice?
a. Switch your incomplete college education from a total number of credits to a
completed degree because a small inflation is normal.
b. For the employers who didn't assign actual job titles to your positions, create
more impressive job titles, for instance, replacing data entry technician with
information technology administrator.
c. Study model résumés to get ideas to improve your own; and if your skills don't
measure up, begin working now to improve them.
d. Improve your employment record by claiming a couple group projects as a solo
effort that you completed.
ANSWER: C
36. Which of the following statements about résumés is inaccurate?

a. A résumé is expected to showcase your strengths and minimize your
weaknesses.
b. An ethical résumé may include half-truths but not outright lies.
c. Even after you have been hired, a misrepresentation on the résumé can be cause
for firing.
d. Although they can't verify everything, most recruiters will verify your previous
employment and education before hiring.
ANSWER: B
37. Which of the following is considered unethical on a résumé?

a. Misrepresenting a job title to make it sound more important
b. Extending employment dates to avoid showing periods of unemployment
c. Making your job duties sound more impressive and responsible than they really
were
d. All of these choices are unethical.
ANSWER: D
38. Because your résumé is probably the most important document you will ever write,
you should
a. enhance your job titles to make your résumé more impressive.
b. include ample use of the personal pronoun I to make it more personal.
c. consider having a knowledgeable friend or relative proofread it.
d. use a professional résumé service to prepare your résumé.
ANSWER: C
39. When writing your job application letter, avoid the biggest error most applicants
make, which is
a. misspelling the receiver's name or the company's name.
b. forgetting to enclose their résumé.
c. making the letter too generic.
d. not asking for the interview.
ANSWER: C
40. The purposes of a cover letter include all of the following except
a. securing a job offer.
b. introducing the résumé.
c. relating the sender's strengths to reader benefits.
d. gaining an interview.
ANSWER: A
41. A job opening has been announced. Which of these answer choices will be the best
opening sentence in an application letter?
a. You seek a master Web engineer, and I need a job; we are perfect for each
other!
b. Dr. Matthew Skalski, IT director at Northwestern University, told me that you
have an opening for a Web engineer with experience in networking, data
management, and innovations.
c. Please consider this letter my application for your opening in the IT
Department.
d. Do you need a Web engineer with over three years of experience?
ANSWER: B
42. Openings in a cover letter for a solicited job should refer to

a. the source of the information, the job title, and qualifications for the position.
b. the reader's business, position, and name.
c. the applicant's education, the target position, and the desired hire date.
d. the desired position, the applicant's qualifications, and the desire for an
interview.
ANSWER: A
43. Which of the following statements is inaccurate regarding the opening in a cover
letter for an unsolicited job?
a. If you are unsure whether a position exists, use a more persuasive opening.
b. Demonstrate knowledge of the reader's business that may convince the person
to continue reading.
c. Show how your special talents will benefit the company and convince the
reader that your skill is exactly what this position demands.
d. Be vague about the type of position you're seeking so that you might be
considered for a variety of jobs.
ANSWER: D
44. Which of these statements about the body of a cover letter is most accurate?
a. Discuss the company's qualifications as your potential employer in the body.
b. Explain what courses you took in college and what duties you performed in
previous jobs to give hiring officers a complete picture of your background.
c. Stress writer benefits because hiring officers want to know what appeals to you
about this particular company.
d. Share your experiences demonstrating your initiative and ability to learn easily
because employers seek employees with these qualities.
ANSWER: D
45. Which of these is the best statement to present a job candidate's information in the
body of a cover letter?
a. I am a qualified and fully licensed pediatric nurse.
b. Your posting description closely matches my experiences assisting
dysfunctional families in crisis, and recently I've taken seminars in family
dynamics to develop the additional skills that your ad indicates are essential.
c. You need a licensed, registered nurse, and I meet those qualifications.
d. Having graduated summa cum laude from Southwest College, I am well-
prepared and eager to apply my knowledge in nursing.
ANSWER: B
46. Choose the best closing sentence for a cover letter.

a. You should schedule my interview on Tuesday, September 7, at 10 a.m.
b. Please feel free to call me at your earliest convenience.
c. I hope you contact me soon to set up an interview for the systems analyst
position.
d. To add to your team an experienced systems analyst with proven analytical and
troubleshooting skills, call me at (555) 555-4321 to arrange an interview.
ANSWER: D
47. Which of the following is the best advice for a cover letter to accompany a résumé
sent by e-mail or fax?
a. Take the time to prepare a professional cover letter to accompany your résumé
sent electronically.
b. Send your cover letter separately from a faxed or e-mailed résumé.
c. Shorten your e-mail or fax cover letter to a brief statement such as Please
consider the attached résumé for your opening.
d. Skip the cover letter; you don't need to introduce yourself because the fax or e-
mail includes your name.
ANSWER: A
48. Which of the following is the best tip for creating a successful cover letter?
a. Use different paper colors and paper types for your résumé and cover letter to
create a strong visual impact.
b. Make activities and outcomes, not yourself, the subject of sentences to reduce
overuse of "I."
c. Use a creative letter style to surprise the reader and make a big impact.
d. Keep the focus on your skills and traits through frequent use of "I" statements.
ANSWER: B
49. To ensure your cover letter will look professional and suggest high quality, you
should
a. revise it yourself and then pay a professional to read it for content and
mechanics.
b. format the document traditionally using a business memorandum heading.
c. create a quality, professional look by (1) printing your letter on a brightly
colored paper; (2) choosing a fun, appealing font; and (3) signing your letter in
a complementary ink color.
d. polish the letter repeatedly because just like your résumé, your cover letter must
be perfect.
ANSWER: D
50. Choose the best sentence to present an applicant's skills in an application letter.
a. I took classes in business at the local college, and I learned the skills needed to
perform well in any business setting.
b. I really enjoy and excel at teamwork, but I work well independently too.
c. Helping customers has been a pleasure in previous jobs, and serving your
customers would be equally rewarding.
d. If I didn't know better, I would swear this job had been written precisely for me
because the description exactly matches my skills and experiences.
ANSWER: C
91. ____________________ accounts for most of the jobs found by candidates.

ANSWER: Networking
92. A résumé that focuses on a candidate's skills rather than on past employment has
been prepared using the ____________________ style.
ANSWER: functional
93. A résumé that lists work history job by job, starting with the most recent position,
has been prepared using the ____________________ style.
ANSWER: chronological (theo thời gian)
94. Seeking a position in criminalistics in a professional crime laboratory where my

skills in operating lab and field equipment, knowledge of the procedures to protect
evidence, and six years' experience analyzing physical evidence will help the organization
prevent crime and convict criminals is an example of a career ____________________.
ANSWER: objective
95. A(n) ____________________ of qualifications, which presents three to eight

bulleted statements identifying your most impressive accomplishments to prove you are
the ideal candidate for the position, appears near the top of your résumé.
ANSWER: summary
96. A(n) ____________________ résumé should be sent to companies that use

automated applicant-tracking software to screen incoming résumés.
ANSWER: scannable
97. An e-____________________ offers links to examples of a job candidate's

performance, talents, and accomplishments in digitized form.
ANSWER: portfolio
98. When an employer has advertised a job opening, you will write a(n)
____________________ application letter.
ANSWER: solicited
99. In the ____________________ of your application letter, you should promote your
qualifications for the position.
ANSWER: body
100. Motivate action by requesting an interview in the ____________________ of your

application letter.
ANSWER: closing
Chap 14:
1. During your interview you will
a. convince the employer of your potential.
b. research the company.
c. create success stories and match them to common interview questions.
d. organize yourself and your materials into a persuasive package.
ANSWER: A
2. The job interview provides the opportunity for you to

a. expand on information in your résumé.
b. find out more about the job and whether it suits your career goals.
c. learn more about the company to decide whether you would fit into the
company culture.
d. do all of these.
ANSWER: D
3. Which of the following statements about hiring/placement interviews is most

accurate?
a. During sequential interviews sell your qualifications to each interviewer.
b. A hiring manager in the department with the job opening will probably ask
more general questions than will a human resources representative.
c. Panel interviews occur when a company interviews several candidates for the
same position at the same time.
d. The most common type of interview is the stress interview.
ANSWER: A
4. Panel interviews are typically conducted by people who will be your supervisors and
colleagues. An important advantage of the panel interview is
a. allowing the company to measure the candidate's leadership and communication
skills.
b. saving company money on repeated interviews and related costs.
c. determining the best candidate through multiple interviews.
d. testing the reactions of a candidate during nerve-racking situations.
ANSWER: B
5. One common form of hiring interview is the sequential interview. Which of the
following statements most accurately describes a sequential interview?
a. In a sequential interview, you should outshine your competition at Sequence 1
when all candidates are screened in the group interview.
b. You can assume that later interviewers know what was said in a previous
interview because sequential interviews are designed to save time.
c. As sequential interviews progress, interviews become more in-depth, which
meANSWER that you need to know even more about the company.
d. You must be totally committed to the job and the company to participate in a
sequential interview, which often takes weeks or even months to complete.
ANSWER: C
6. Global Connections Inc. is interviewing several candidates for a leadership position

requiring strong communication skills. What form of interview will most likely be used
for this interview?
a. A one-on-one interview conducted by the human resources director
b. A stress interview conducted by the head of the programming division
c. A computer screening interview to test applicants' programming skills
d. A group interview of several candidates at one time
ANSWER: D
7. When interviewing for high-pressure positions, companies may use stress interview
techniques, which include being
a. greeted immediately by the interviewer.
b. asked rapid-fire questions by members of a team.
c. given a test with no time limit.
d. offered challenging food, beverages, or tobacco products.
ANSWER: B
8. Alejandro is an active job seeker now that he has submitted several job applications.
Which of the following is the best advice for Alejandro?
a. If you put your cell phone number on your application, answer the cell phone
only if your location is appropriate.
b. Tell your children or roommates that they must answer the phone promptly to
avoid missing any job calls.
c. Stop using voice mail to screen calls because employers are likely to find voice
mail unprofessional.
d. If you use voice mail, have someone with a clear, professional speaking voice
record your outgoing message.
ANSWER: A
9. Which of the following is the best advice to make a positive first impression in a
phone conversation with an employer?
a. Don't refer to your résumé or references during the first phone call because
these are appropriate only in the placement interview.
b. Take notes about the conversation immediately after hanging up to avoid
forgetting details.
c. In the first phone call, be polite and enthusiastic; but don't be pushy by
discussing your qualifications.
d. If caught off guard by the call, ask whether you can call back in a few minutes.
ANSWER: D
10. Which of the following is recommended for job seekers to complete as

"homework" when preparing for an interview?
a. Google the interviewer.
b. Allow a "cooling-off period"; stop thinking about the interview for 12 hours.
c. Select an interesting and appealing fragrance (aftershave or perfume).
d. Develop a thick skin because rejections are likely.
ANSWER: A
11. Rebecca has an interview with a large company in a nearby city. What information
should she learn about the company before her interview?
a. The company's mission and goals
b. The company's customers and competitors
c. The management structure and names of leaders
d. Rebecca should find out all this information about the prospective employer.
ANSWER: D
12. The best source of inside information about a company would probably result from
a. investigating its record at the Better Business Bureau.
b. calling the local Chamber of Commerce.
c. searching Wikipedia.
d. talking with company employees.
ANSWER: D
13. Effective interview-preparation techniques include practicing answers to possible
questions, preparing to explain problem areas on your résumé, deciding on professional
attire, and
a. informing your current employer of your plans.
b. preparing success stories.
c. writing a resignation letter.
d. purchasing a gift for the interviewer.
ANSWER: B
14. Experts recommend you prepare success stories for your interview, but what should
you emphasize in these stories?
a. Highlight something humorous from your past to make the interviewer laugh.
b. Discuss a prior success of the company and the ways your skills will make the
company even better.
c. Share a story that showcases a strategic skill or key accomplishment.
d. Identify a weakness and share how you have turned it into a strength.
ANSWER: C
15. Braden is preparing several success stories prior to his job interview for a sales
representative position. Which of the following scenarios would result in the best success
story for this position?
a. A story about a lemonade stand that Braden ran when he was a child
b. A story about working as part of a team in college to prepare a classroom
presentation about a company's history
c. A story about volunteering for a local food bank over the holidays
d. A story about developing a new sales technique that increased his customer
sales by 30 percent over a six-month period
ANSWER: D
16. You are trying to decide what to wear to a job interview. Which of these provides
the best tip for you to follow?
a. Buy the most expensive suit you can afford to make a good impression.
b. Call the company to find out how its employees dress and dress the same to
match the look of the company culture.
c. Dress professionally, regardless of how company employees dress.
d. Don't worry about what you wear; it's what you say during the interview that
counts.
ANSWER: C
17. Social networking has impacted the job hunt for more than posting and searching
jobs. Which of the following best describes another important impact of social networking
on the job hunt?
a. Cleaning up digital dirt is essential because 70 percent of recruiters report
eliminating candidates based on information found on social networking sites.
b. Employers in large employment markets are most likely to eliminate candidates
based on information found online.
c. Social networking is so common that employers expect to find a few party
pictures or off-color comments; a little digital dirt is no longer harmful.
d. You can't control what others post about you online; thus employers no longer
check social networking sites.
ANSWER: A
18. Which of the following is the best advice when traveling to and arriving at your
interview?
a. Limit grooming time because the more time you have, the more nervous you
will get.
b. If something unexpected happens causing you to be late, immediately call the
interviewer to explain what is happening.
c. If you smoke on the way to the interview, brush your teeth or chew some gum
when you arrive and liberally apply perfume or cologne.
d. Arrive at the interview 15 to 20 minutes early, and greet the receptionist
promptly on arrival.
ANSWER: B
19. Which of the following statements about fear related to interviewing is most
accurate?
a. Expect to be nervous before the interview and then to feel calm once the
interview begins; that is the natural fear cycle.
b. Other than public speaking, employment interviews are the most dreaded events
in people's lives.
c. One of the best ways to overcome fear is to be surprised by the structure of the
interview; anticipation is the biggest generator of fear.
d. Most job applicants cut their fear in half simply be dressing casually;
professional dress heightens stress, and stress increases interview fears.
ANSWER: B
20. Which of the following will not help you reduce your fears during an interview?
a. Let the interviewer have complete charge of the entire interview.
b. Practice interviewing as much as you can, especially with real companies.
c. Practice how you will answer the most frequently asked interview questions.
d. Take deep breaths while waiting for the interview to begin.
ANSWER: A
21. When you enter the office for an interview,

a. greet the interviewer confidently, and wait for him or her to initiate a
handshake.
b. avoid small talk and obvious flattery such as "You have beautiful facilities
here."
c. introduce yourself to the receptionist, and wait to be invited to sit.
d. immediately open your briefcase to sort through your contents to locate copies
of your résumé and references.
ANSWER: C
22. You can send positive nonverbal messages during your interview by dressing
professionally, controlling your body movements, making eye contact, and
a. arriving on time.
b. using gender-neutral language.
c. presenting success stories to respond to behavioral questions.
d. preparing thoroughly.
ANSWER: A
23. Which of the following statements about nonverbal messages during an interview is
most accurate?
a. Sit erect, leaning forward slightly to show interest and confidence.
b. Change positions often and gesture as frequently as possible to convey high
energy.
c. Lean forward, resting your arms on the desk or table before you, to indicate
control.
d. Relax back into your chair, slouching slightly, to demonstrate self-assurance.
ANSWER: A
24. Which of the following is the best advice when answering interview questions?
a. Focus your answers on your strengths, but reveal a weakness or two to show
your humanity and humble nature.
b. Use the interviewer's name and title each time you answer a question to show
respect.
c. To be concise, answer questions with a simple yes or no whenever possible.
d. Aim answers at the key characteristics needed, such as expertise, motivation,
and a pleasant personality.
ANSWER: D
25. To find people who will fit into their organizations, some interviewers use the
airport test, which is
a. an informal personality measure asking what it would be like to spend 12 hours
stuck in an airport with this person.
b. an ethics questionnaire administered originally by the U.S. government to
airline employees.
c. a personality examination used to identify phobias related to heights.
d. a test containing ten questions asked of the candidate during the interview.
ANSWER: A
26. Although you can't expect to be perfect in an employment interview, you can do
your best by
a. showing some passion by bringing up a controversial topic and taking a clear
stand.
b. speaking forcefully but using some slang such as "like" and "ya know" to sound
relaxed and friendly.
c. elaborating on your answers and criticizing the person or object causing the
problems at a previous job.
d. occasionally refocusing and clarifying vague questions by asking "Do you
mean...?"
ANSWER: D
27. Employment interviews are all about questions. Which of the following statements
about interview questions is accurate?
a. Your interviewer may use questions to become acquainted with you.
b. Some interview questions are meant to showcase the business to the candidate.
c. None of the questions you will be asked are new.
d. You can anticipate and prepare for every question.
ANSWER: A
28. If an interviewer says Tell me about yourself, what is the best way to respond?
a. Present your brief biography as a chronology, beginning with when and where
you were born.
b. Briefly discuss educational, professional, or business-related strengths.
c. To start the interview positively, provide a few humorous personal anecdotes.
d. Tell several success stories, making sure to fill at least ten minutes of interview
time.
ANSWER: B
29. If an interviewer says Why do you want to work for us?, you should
a. briefly summarize problems at your current job that require you to change
employers.
b. show what you know about the interviewer's company and how your goals
match the company and its culture.
c. explain that as a recent graduate you want to work for any company needing a
person with your skills and background.
d. tell the truth about your reasons for seeking this job; for example, you are
unemployed, you need more pay or better benefits, or you just graduated.
ANSWER: B
30. When the interviewer asks you questions about the future, you should provide
answers that
a. show ambition and interest in succeeding with this company.
b. enable you to work in your practiced success stories.
c. demonstrate you have the skills required for the target position.
d. illustrate your interest in their organization and in the open position.
ANSWER: A
31. How should you respond if an interviewer asks, Why should we hire you when
other applicants have better credentials?
a. Admit that you are less qualified, but stress you can be paid less than more
experienced applicants.
b. Describe how you are correcting one of your most significant weaknesses to
display your strong work ethic and determination.
c. Confidently explain your strengths such as your openness to new ideas and
knowledge of the latest methods and equipment.
d. Since it is clear that you will not get this job offer, do not answer this question.
ANSWER: C
32. Which of these responses is the best answer to the question, Where do you see
yourself in your career five years from now?
a. I see myself in your job.
b. I see myself as the president of this company.
c. I hope to be running my own business.
d. As a member of your team, I will have grown and learned enough to advance to
a position in management.
ANSWER: D
33. Which of these is the most effective response to the question, What do you think is
your greatest weakness?
a. Some people complain that I'm a workaholic with nearly too much passion for
this field.
b. To tell the truth, I become frustrated with lazy coworkers who don't pull their
own weight.
c. My typing speed isn't as fast as I would like, but this position doesn't require me
to use the computer.
d. I've worked hard to eliminate every weakness, and I am confident you will find
me the perfect employee for this position.
ANSWER: A
34. When an interviewer asks you a challenging question about a weakness, what is the
best way to respond?
a. To prove you have only strengths, reply that you have no weaknesses at all.
b. To be completely honest with the interviewer, talk about the employment
weakness that concerns you most.
c. Mention a previous weakness and the way you have corrected it.
d. Demonstrate your honesty by bringing up every weakness you can identify.
ANSWER: C
35. Which of the following is an example of a situational question?

a. If you were aware that a coworker submitted false data, what would you do?
b. What is your ideal work environment?
c. What do you predict for the future of our industry?
d. Tell me about a time when you dealt with confidential information.
ANSWER: A
36. Which of the following is an example of a behavioral interview question?

a. Who in your life has most inspired you and why?
b. An irate customer is demanding her money back. How would you handle the
situation?
c. Tell me about a time when you solved a difficult problem.
d. What is your greatest strength?
ANSWER: C
37. When the interviewer says Describe a time when you worked successfully as a
member of a team, your best response will be to
a. reply that you have been a member of so many successful teams that no
particular instance stands out.
b. say that you not only enjoy teamwork, especially problem-solving groups, but
also work well independently.
c. tell a success story about a specific group project, your contributions, and the
results.
d. list the names of all work teams on which you participated and stress that all
were successful.
ANSWER: C
38. If the interviewer begins a question with Tell me about a time when..., you should
a. recognize that this is a trick question and tactfully refuse to answer.
b. politely explain that you have never experienced such a situation.
c. make up any answer and wish that you had been better prepared.
d. describe a situation or task, tell what action you took, and emphasize a positive
result.
ANSWER: D
39. What is the most effective way to handle an illegal or inappropriate question during
an interview?
a. If you find the question harmless and you want the job, go ahead and answer it.
b. Confront the interviewer about the illegal nature of the question.
c. Storm out of the room in anger; after all, you wouldn't work for a company with
such low ethics.
d. Refuse to answer the question because it is your legal right to do so.
ANSWER: A
40. If an interviewer asks if you have any questions at the end of an interview, which of
the following is an inappropriate (không phù hợp) response?
a. May I have a tour of the facilities?
b. When do you expect to make a decision?
c. No, I have no questions right now; you have shared all the information I need.
d. What are the major challenges for a person in this position?
ANSWER: C
41. How should you close an interview?

a. Briefly review your strengths, thank the interviewer, and ask what action will
follow.
b. Be confident and say, "This job sounds great! When do I start work?"
c. Ask about salary and benefits.
d. Invite the interviewer to lunch.
ANSWER: A
42. What should you do after the interview?

a. Write a thank-you letter immediately.
b. Wait a few days to see if you hear from the employer; if not, write a thank-you
letter.
c. Call the interviewer to thank him or her.
d. Send the interviewer(s) flowers.
ANSWER: A
43. After writing a follow-up letter to thank your interviewer, your next step should be
a. alerting your references that they may be contacted by the employer.
b. sending a small gift to the receptionist to show your sincere appreciation.
c. calling the organization's human resources department to learn more about your
competitors for the open position.
d. waiting at least one month for a call of acceptance or rejection.
ANSWER: A
44. The purposes of sending a follow-up e-mail or letter to the employer include
jogging the memory of the hiring officer, showing your serious interest in the position, and
a. emphasizing your qualifications or adding new information.
b. sending a personal note to the receptionist, who often helps make the final
decision.
c. sharing your photograph to match your qualifications to your face.
d. setting a deadline for the employer to offer you the position.
ANSWER: A
45. Kalinda made a follow-up call to her interviewer five days after the interview.
Several weeks later, Kalinda has still not heard from the employer. What action should
Kalinda take now?
a. Assume that no decision has been made and that a call could come soon.
b. Send the interviewer a rejection follow-up letter.
c. Show her frustration and determination by calling the employer at least once or
twice a day for the next two weeks.
d. Assume that she didn't get the job and continue her job search.
ANSWER: D
46. Recommended guidelines for completing application forms include which of the
following?
a. Disregard questions that do not apply to you by leaving them blank.
b. Read the entire form before beginning to complete it.
c. Ignore misspellings because you are not expected to carry a dictionary.
d. Leave any questions about salary blank since they might limit what you will be
paid.
ANSWER: B
47. When you apply for a position but are rejected, employment experts recommend
that you
a. send a rejection letter saying you believe the employer has made a hiring
decision error in not choosing you.
b. phone the employer's personnel office and have your application materials
placed in the inactive file in case the person hired "doesn't work out."
c. send a rejection e-message indicating you are disappointed but will contact the
company again in a month in case a job opens up.
d. do not apply at that company again for at least 12 months.
ANSWER: C
48. When writing a resignation letter to your employer, you should

a. allow more than the standard two-week notice if you have a high or responsible
position within the company.
b. offer thanks and end with a forward-looking statement.
c. remind the employer of your contributions.
ANSWER: D
49. In a job acceptance letter, your tasks are

a. accepting the position, asking for clarification as needed, and expressing
appreciation.
b. thanking the interviewer for the interview and job offer and accepting the
position.
c. confirming your acceptance, reviewing salary and benefits, and affirming the
start date.
d. noting the job offer date, specifying the job acceptance date, and agreeing to the
job start date.
ANSWER: C
50. If you must turn down a job offer, employment experts suggest you should send the
employer a letter
a. declining the offer, providing a thorough explanation of the reasons for
declining, and expanding on your qualifications for a new position.
b. thanking the employer for the offer and briefly declining the position.
c. specifying personal reasons for your decision.
d. declining the position and offering assistance finding your replacement.
ANSWER: B
91. Many companies now use ____________________ interviews to save time and
money by eliminating less-qualified candidates before scheduling face-to-face interviews.
ANSWER: screening
92. A(n) ____________________ interview is meant to test a candidate's reactions

during nerve-racking situations. Người phỏng vấn đặt câu hỏi hoặc đưa ra những tình
huống để thử phản ứng của ứng viên trong điều kiện sức ép về tâm lý.
ANSWER: stress
93. ____________________ interviews are typically conducted by a group of people

who will be your supervisors and colleagues. Usually seated around a table, interviewers
may take turns asking questions. Nhiều người phỏng vấn 1 ứng viên
ANSWER: Panel
94. To feel confident and to sell your qualifications, you should prepare and practice
____________________ stories that provide specific examples of your educational and
work-related experience to showcase your qualifications and achievements.
ANSWER: success
95. Examples of positive ____________________ messages for the interview process

include arriving on time, dressing professionally, controlling your body movements,
exhibiting good posture, using appropriate eye contact, smiling appropriately, and
listening attentively.
ANSWER: nonverbal
96. To test your thought processes and ability to think logically, interviewers describe a
hypothetical scenario and ask you how you would handle it using ____________________
questions.
ANSWER: situational
97. Your interviewer says to you Describe a time when... or Tell me about a time
when... These phrases are openings for a(n) ____________________ question.
ANSWER: behavioral
98. To provide the best possible recommendation of you to a potential employer, your
____________________ need information about the company and position.
ANSWER: references
99. Some job candidates who are declining a job offer choose to write a(n)
____________________ letter to thank the employer for the job offer and to formally
refuse the position.
ANSWER: rejection
100. You should write a formal ____________________ letter to confirm the exact date
you will terminate your employment when it is a position you have held for an extended
period. (Đơn xin nghỉ việc)
ANSWER: resignation

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Chap 1:

2. Which of the following statements is most accurate?

c. Communication skills are critical to your job placement, performance, career

4. Which of the following statements is most accurate?

6. Which of the following statements about today's business environments is most

7. Which of the following statements is correct?

8. Communication is defined as "the transmission of information and meaning from one

9. Converting ideas into words or gestures to convey meaning is called

10. The communication process begins when the sender

12. Which of the following statements about feedback is most accurate?

13. The medium over which the message is transmitted is the

14. Communication noise

15. Many of us are poor listeners because

17. Which of the following statements is most accurate?

25. Which of the following statements about nonverbal communication is most

26. Which of the following is a form of nonverbal communication?

28. According to Edward T. Hall, which spatial zone is the largest?

30. Nonverbal communication includes

34. Every country has a unique culture or common heritage that

36. Which of the following countries represents a high-context culture?

38. North Americans value straightforwardness and are suspicious of evasiveness.

48. Which of the following is a benefit of a diverse work environment?

49. Megahertz Technology Solutions, Inc., recently suffered a discrimination lawsuit.

91. ____________________ is defined as "the transmission of information and

96. ____________________ cues include eye contact, facial expression, body

97. According to a model developed by cultural anthropologist Edward T. Hall,

98. The belief in the superiority of one's own culture is known as

99. An oversimplified perception of a behavior pattern or characteristic applied to

4. Business writing should be economical. In this context economical can best be

7. Adapting your message to the audience involves

12. The primary purpose of business writing is typically to inform or persuade; a

19. What communication channel would be most appropriate to deliver data to a

25. What question should you ask to visualize your audience?

28. Which of the following sentences best focuses on the audience?

30. Business messages should be conversational, professional, positive, and

33. Which of the following sentences demonstrates effective business writing?

34. Which of the following sentences demonstrates effective business writing?

35. Which of the following sentences demonstrates conversational business writing?

37. Which of the following represents the best business writing?

39. Courteous business messages

40. Which of the following demonstrates effective business writing?

41. Which of the following demonstrates effective business writing?

42. Which of the following is most acceptable for business writing?

43. Which of the following demonstrates effective business writing?

44. Which of the following demonstrates effective business writing?

45. Which of the following demonstrates effective business writing?

49. Which of the following is most acceptable for business writing?

50. Which of the following is most acceptable for business writing?

94. An interesting theory called ____________________ richness describes the extent

95. The channel of choice for corporate communicators today is clearly

96. ____________________ is the process of creating a message that suits your

97. Conveyed largely by the words in a message, ____________________ affects how

100. ____________________ describes technical or specialized terms within a field.

4. Which of the following is a formal research method?

11. When brainstorming to generate ideas, you should

12. You will create clear, readable messages if you

14. According to communication experts, what is the greatest failing of business

16. The direct strategy would be most appropriate when

18. Which of the following is an advantage of the direct strategy?