Model Test Paper - 1 1

MODEL TEST PAPER

Time : 3½ hours.
1
Maximum Marks : 200

PHYSICS 5. In the arrangement shown in figure, the current

through 5 W resistor is
1. A car travels equal distances in the same
direction with velocities 60 km h–1, 20 km h–1 2 2
12 V 5 12 V
and 10 km h–1 respectively. The average
velocity of the car over the whole journey of
motion is (a) 2 A (b) 1 A
(a) 8 m s–1 (b) 7 m s–1 12
(c) A (d) zero
(c) 6 m s–1 (d) 5 m s–1 7
2. Moment of inertia of a thin rod of mass M 6. The greatest length of steel wire that can hang
and length L about an axis passing through its vertically without breaking is
ML2 (Given, breaking stress of steel = 8.0 × 108 N m–2,
centre is . Its moment of inertia about a Density of steel = 8.0 × 103 kg m–3)
12
L (a) 10 m (b) 102 m
parallel axis at a distance of from this axis is
4 3
(c) 10 m (d) 104 m
given by
ML2 ML3 7. A rectangular vessel when full of water, takes
(a) (b) 10 min to be emptied through an orifice in
48 48
ML2 7 ML2 its bottom. How much time will it take to be
(c) (d) emptied when half filled with water?
12 48
(a) 9 min (b) 7 min
3. Two linear SHMs of equal amplitude A and
(c) 5 min (d) 3 min
angular frequencies w and 2w are impressed
on a particle along the axes x and y respectively. 8. If the frequency of sound produced by a siren
If the initial phase difference between them is increases from 400 Hz to 1200 Hz while the
p/2, the resultant path followed by the particle wave amplitude remains constant, the ratio
is of the intensity of the 1200 Hz to that of the
(a) y2 = x2(1 – x2/A2) (b) y2 = 2x2(1 – x2/A2) 400 Hz wave will be
(c) y2 = 4x2(1 – x2/A2) (d) y2 = 8x2(1 –x2/A2) (a) 1 : 1 (b) 1 : 3
4. Equal charges, q each are placed at the vertices (c) 3 : 1 (d) 9 : 1
A and B of an equilateral triangle ABC of side 9. A spherical charged conductor has surface
a. The magnitude of electric intensity at the charge density s. The electric field on its
point C is surface is E and electric potential of conductor
q 2q is V. Now the radius of the sphere is halved
(a) 2 (b)
4πε0a 4πε0a 2 keeping the charge to be constant. The new
values of electric field and potential would be
3q 2q
(c) (d) (a) 2E, 2V (b) 4E, 2V
2
4πε0a 4πε0a 2 (c) 4E, 4V (d) 2E, 4V
2 AIIMS EXPLORER

10. In a series LCR circuit, the voltage across the of 5 × 10–2 T, experience a moment of couple
resistance, capacitance and inductance is 10 V 2.5 × 10–6 N m. If the length of the magnet is
each. If the capacitance is short circuited, the 5 cm, its pole strength is
voltage across the inductance will be (a) 2 × 102 A m (b) 2 × 10–3 A m
(a) 10 V (b) 10 2 V (c) 5 A m (d) 5 × 10–2 A m
10 16. A concave lens forms the image of an object such
(c) V (d) 20 V
2 that the distance between the object and image
11. Light of two different frequencies whose is 10 cm and the magnification produced is 1/4.
photons have energies 1 eV and 2.5 eV The focal length of the lens will be
respectively, successively illuminate a metal (a) 8.6 cm (b) 6.2 cm
whose work function is 0.5 eV. The ratio of the (c) 10 cm (d) 4.4 cm
maximum speeds of the emitted electrons will 17. In Young’s double slit experiment, the spacing
be between the slits is d and wavelength of light
(a) 1 : 5 (b) 1 : 4 used is 6000 Å. If the angular width of a fringe
(c) 1 : 2 (d) 1 : 1 formed on a distant screen is 1°, then value of
d is
12. If the series limit wavelength of the Lyman (a) 1 mm (b) 0.05 mm
series for hydrogen atom is 912 Å, then the (c) 0.03 mm (d) 0.01 mm
series limit wavelength for the Balmer series
18. An oil drop of mass 50 mg and of charge
for the hydrogen atom is
–5 µC is just balanced in air against the force
(a) 912 Å (b) 912 × 2 Å
of gravity. The strength of the electric field
912
(c) 912 × 4 Å (d) Å required to balance, is (Take g = 9.8 m s–2)
2
(a) 98 N C–1 upwards
13. A freshly prepared radioactive source of (b) 98 N C–1 downwards
half-life 2 hours emits radiation of intensity (c) 9.8 N C–1 towards north
which is 64 times the permissible safe level. (d) 9.8 N C–1 towards south
The minimum time after which it would be
19. A potential difference of 2 V is applied between
possible to work safely with the source is
the opposite faces of a Ge crystal plate of area
(a) 6 hours (b) 12 hours
1 cm2 and thickness 0.5 mm. If the concentration
(c) 24 hours (d) 128 hours
of electrons in Ge is 2 × 1019 m–3 and mobilities
14. A constant voltage is applied between the two of electrons and holes are 0.36 m2 V–1 s–1 and
ends of a uniform metallic wire. Some heat is 0.14 m2 V–1 s–1 respectively, then the current
developed in it. The heat developed is doubled flowing through the plate will be
if (a) 0.25 A (b) 0.45 A
(a) both the length and radius of the wire are (c) 0.56 A (d) 0.64 A
halved 20. At 1 atm pressure, 1 g of water having a volume
(b) both the length and radius of the wire are of 1000 cm3 becomes 1671 cm3 of steam when
doubled boiled. The heat of vaporization of water at
(c) the radius of the wire is doubled 1 atm is 539 cal g–1. What is the change in
(d) the length of the wire is doubled. internal energy during the process?
15. A bar magnet when placed at an angle of 30° (a) 539 cal (b) 417 cal
to the direction of magnetic field induction (c) 498.5 cal (d) 835.5 cal
Model Test Paper - 1 3

21. A particle is projected from a point at a certain 26. When an electron jumps from the fourth orbit
angle with the horizontal. At any instant t, if to the second orbit, one gets the
p is the linear momentum and E the kinetic (a) second line of Paschen series
energy, then which of the following graphs is (b) second line of Balmer series
correct? (c) first line of Pfund series
(d) second line of Lyman series
27. The critical angle of a certain medium is
(a) (b)
3
sin–1   . The polarising angle of the medium is
5
4 −1  5 
(a) sin −1   (b) tan  
5 3
(c) (d) 3 4
(c) tan −1   (d) tan −1  
4 3
28. Which of the following types of electromagnetic
22. A man measures the period of a simple radiation travels at the greatest speed in
pendulum inside a stationary lift and finds it vacuum?
to be T second. If the lift accelerates upwards (a) Radio waves
g (b) Visible light
with an acceleration , then the period of the
pendulum will be 4 (c) X-rays
T (d) All of these travel at the same speed
(a) T (b)
4 
2T 29. A vector A is along the positive z-axis and its
(c) (d) 2 5T vector product with another vector B is zero,
5 
then vector B could be
23. A pendulum bob of mass 10–2 kg is raised to ^ ^ ^
a height 5 × 10–2 m and then released. At the (a) i + j (b) 4 i
bottom of its swing, it picks up a mass 10–3 kg. ^ ^ ^
(c) j + k (d) −7 k
To what height will the combined mass rise?
(a) 4.1 × 10–2 m (b) 2.5 × 10–2 m 30. Two perfect gases having masses m1 and m2 at
–2
(c) 1.3 × 10 m (d) 0.7 × 10–2 m temperatures T1 and T2 respectively are mixed
without any loss of energy. If the molecular
24. A rod of length 1.0 m and mass 0.5 kg fixed at
weights of the gases are M1 and M2 respectively,
one end is initially hanging vertical. The other
then the final temperature of the mixture is
end is now raised until it makes an angle 60°
with the vertical. The work required to be done (m1T1 + m2T2 ) ( M1T1 + M2T2 )
(a) (b)
for this, is (m1 + m2 ) ( M1 + M2 )
(a) 1.2 J (b) 1.8 J
 m1T1   m2T2   M1T1 M2T2 
(c) 2.4 J (d) 3.0 J  M  +  M   m + m 
1 2  1 2 
25. A common emitter transistor amplifier has (c) (d)
 m1   m2    M1   M2  
a current gain of 50. If the load resistance is  M  +  M   + 
4 kW and input resistance is 500 W, the voltage 1 2   m1   m2  
gain of the amplifier is 31. A proton with energy of 2 MeV enters a region
(a) 200 (b) 400 of a uniform magnetic field of 2.5 T normally.
(c) 600 (d) 800 The magnetic force on the proton is
4 AIIMS EXPLORER

(Take, mass of proton to be 1.6 × 10–27 kg) (b) its radius of orbit is 4R and orbital velocity
(a) 3 × 10–12 N (b) 3 × 10–8 N v
–12 is o .
(c) 8 × 10 N (d) 2 × 10–10 N 2
(c) its radius of orbit is 2R and orbital velocity
32. The power and type of lens by which a person
is vo.
can see clearly the distant objects, if the person
cannot see objects beyond 40 cm, are (d) its radius of orbit is 2R and orbital velocity
v
(a) –2.5 D and concave lens is o .
(b) –2.5 D and convex lens 2
(c) –3.5 D and concave lens 37. Force constant of a spring (k) is analogous to
(d) –3.5 D and convex lens YA YL
(a) (b)
33. A reactor is developing energy at the rate of L A
3000 kW. How many atoms of U235 undergo AL
(c) (d) ALY
fission per second, if 200 MeV energy is Y
released per fission? 38. Two rings of same radius r and mass m are
(a) 6.5 × 1022 (b) 5.15 × 1021 placed such that their centres are at a common
(c) 3.384 × 10 23
(d) 9.4 × 1016 point and their planes are perpendicular to
each other. The moment of inertia of the system
34. Power supplied to a particle of mass 2 kg varies about an axis passing through the centre and
3t 2 perpendicular to plane of one of the rings is
with time as P = W, where t is in seconds.
2 1
(a) mr 2 (b) mr2
If velocity of particle at t = 0 is zero, then the 2
3
velocity of particle at t = 2 s will be (c) mr 2 (d) 2mr2
2
(a) 1 m s–1 (b) 4 m s–1
(c) 2 m s–1 (d) 2 2 m s −1 39. Four equal and parallel
forces are acting on a rod
35. Three identical spherical balls A, B and C are of length 100 cm, as shown
placed on a table as shown in the figure along a in figure, at distances of
straight line. 20 cm, 40 cm, 60 cm and 80 cm respectively
from one end of the rod. Under the influence
of these forces, the rod (neglecting its weight)
(a) experiences no torque
B and C are at rest initially. The ball A hits B (b) experiences torque
head on with a speed of 10 m s–1. Then after (c) experiences a linear motion
all collisions (assumed to be elastic) A and B (d) experiences torque and also a linear motion
come to rest and C takes off with a velocity of
(a) 5 m s–1 (b) 10 m s–1 40. The current gain of a transistor in a common
–1 base arrangement is 0.98. Find the change in
(c) 2.5 m s (d) 7.5 m s–1
collector current corresponding to a change of
36. The time period of an artificial satellite in 5.0 mA in emitter current. What would be the
a circular orbit of radius R is 2 days and its change in base current?
orbital velocity is vo. If time period of another (a) 4.9 mA, 0.1 mA
satellite in a circular orbit is 16 days then (b) 4.9 mA, 0.2 mA
(a) its radius of orbit is 4R and orbital velocity (c) 5.9 mA , 0.3 mA
is vo. (d) 5.9 mA, 0.8 mA
Model Test Paper - 1 5

Directions (41-60) : In the following questions, a Reason : Equipotential surfaces are closer
statement of assertion is followed by a statement together where the electric field is stronger and
of reason. Mark the correct choice as : farther apart where the field is weaker.
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and 48. Assertion : When temperature difference
reason is the correct explanation of assertion. across the two sides of a wall is increased, its
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason thermal conductivity remains constant.
is not the correct explanation of assertion. Reason : Thermal conductivity depends on
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false. nature of material of the wall.
(d) If both assertion and reason are false.
49. Assertion : Young’s modulus for a perfectly
41. Assertion : During rapid pumping of air plastic body is zero.
in tyres, air inside the tyre is hotter than Reason : For a perfectly plastic body, restoring
atmosphere air. force is zero.
Reason : Adiabatic process occurs at very high
50. Assertion : Orbit of a satellite is within the
rate.
gravitational field of earth whereas escaping is
42. Assertion : When a cyclist doubles his speed beyond the gravitational field of earth.
of turning, the chance of his skidding becomes Reason : Orbital velocity of a satellite is greater
nearly four times. than its escape velocity.
Reason : When the speed of the vehicle 51. Assertion : We can change the temperature
increases, the angle of bending also increases. of a system without giving (or taking) heat to
43. Assertion : At higher temperatures, the peak (or from) it.
emission wavelength of a black body shifts to Reason : According to principle of conservation
lower wavelengths. of energy, total energy of a system should
Reason : The peak emission wavelength of a remain conserved.
black body is proportional to the fourth power 52. Assertion : Adding a scalar to a vector of the
of absolute temperature. same dimensions is a meaningful algebraic
44. Assertion : Work done by a gas in isothermal operation.
expansion is more than the work done by the Reason : The displacement can be added with
gas in the same expansion, adiabatically. distance.
Reason : Temperature remains constant in 53. Assertion: A p-n junction with reverse bias
isothermal expansion, and not in adiabatic can be used as a photodiode to measure light
expansion. intensity.
Reason : In a reverse bias condition the current
45. Assertion : A current carrying conductor
though small is more sensitive to change with
produces only an electric field.
incident light intensity.
Reason : Electrons in motion give rise to only
an electric field. 54. Assertion : Most amplifiers use common
emitter circuit configuration.
46. Assertion : The energy stored in the inductor of Reason : Its input resistance is comparatively
2 H, when a current of 10 A flows through it is higher.
100 J.
55. Assertion : Magnetic force between two
Reason : Energy stored in an inductor is
short magnets, when they are co-axial follows
directly proportional to its inductance.
inverse square law of distance.
47. Assertion : The electric field and hence electric Reason : The magnetic forces between two
field lines are everywhere at right angle to an poles do not follow inverse square law of
equipotential surface. distance.
6 AIIMS EXPLORER

56. Assertion : A photon has no rest mass, yet it 63. The donor atoms in EDTA are
carries definite momentum. (a) Two N and two O
Reason : Momentum of photon is due to its (b) Two N and four O
energy and hence its equivalent mass. (c) Four N and two O
(d) Three N and Three O.
57. Assertion : A capacitor of suitable capacitance
can be used in an A.C. circuit in place of the 64. The reaction,
C6H5ONa + CO2 + H2O → C6H5OH + NaHCO3
choke coil.
suggests that
Reason : A capacitor blocks D.C. and allows
(a) phenol is a stronger acid than carbonic
A.C. only.
acid
58. Assertion : Static crashes are heard on radio, (b) carbonic acid is a stronger acid than
when a lightning flash occurs. phenol
Reason : Light and radio waves travel with the (c) water is a stronger acid than phenol
same speed. (d) none of these.
59. Assertion : Diffraction is common in sound 65. The solubility of BaSO4 in water is 2.33 × 10–3 g/L.
but not common in light waves. Its solubility product will be (molecular weight
of BaSO4 = 233)
Reason : Wavelength of light is more than the
(a) 1 × 10–15 (b) 1 × 10–10
wavelength of sound. –5
(c) 1 × 10 (d) 1 × 10–20
60. Assertion : All nuclei are not of same size. 66. Which of the following is a heterocyclic
Reason : Size of nucleus depends on atomic compound?
mass. (a) Furan (b) Pyridine
CHEMISTRY (c) Thiophene (d) All are correct.
67. In which of the following reactions methane is
61. Which of the following compounds involve formed?
sp3d3 hybridisation? (a) CH3COOH
[H]

(a) SF6 (b) IF7 (b) CH3COOH

NaOH/CaO

(c) PF5 (d) SnCl4 (c) CH3COOH

[O]

NaOH/CaO
62. Plot of Maxwell’s distribution of velocities is (d) CH3CH2COOH
given below : 68. Which of the following alkaline earth metals
has highest ionic mobility in aqueous solution?
(a) Be2+ (b) Ca2+
2+
(c) Ba (d) Mg2+
69. Which of the following is formed, when
benzaldehyde reacts with alcoholic KCN?
(a) Benzoin (b) Benzyl alcohol
(c) Benzoic acid (d) Ethyl benzoate
70. Coefficients p, q and r in the following reaction,
Which of the following is correct about this pFeCr2O4 + qNaOH + rO2 → Na2CrO4 + Fe2O3
plot? 
+ H2O are
(a) T1 < T2 (b) f1 > f2 (a) 5, 10, 5 (b) 3, 5, 6
(c) u1 < u2 (d) None of these. (c) 4, 16, 7 (d) 4, 14, 9
Model Test Paper - 1 7

71. An element (atomic mass 100 g/mol) having (i) C H MgI

bcc structure has unit cell edge 400 pm. III. CH2O 
2 5
(ii) H2 O
→
Neutral KMnO
The density of element is IV. CH2 CH CH3  4
→
[No. of atoms in bcc (Z) = 2] (a) I and II (b) II and III
(a) 2.144 g/cm3 (b) 7.289 g/cm3 (c) III and I (d) II and IV
3
(c) 5.188 g/cm (d) 10.376 g/cm3 79. A particular reaction has a negative value
72. Ozonolysis product of cyclobutene is for the free energy change. Then at ordinary
(a) glyoxal (b) dimethylglyoxal temperature,
(c) succinaldehyde (d) methanal. (a) it has a large –ve value for the entropy
change
73. A first order reaction, which is 30% complete
in 30 minutes has a half-life period of (b) it has a large +ve value for the enthalpy
(a) 102.2 min (b) 58.2 min change
(c) 24.2 min (d) 120.2 min (c) it has a small +ve value for enthalpy change
(d) it has a +ve value for the entropy change
74. Permanent hardness of water can be removed and a –ve value for the enthalpy change.
by adding
Hydrolysis
(a) Na2CO3 (b) K 80. Glucose HCN
→ → → A,
HI, heat

(c) Ca(OCl)Cl (d) Cl2 A is

(a) heptanoic acid (b) 2-iodohexane
75. The major product of the reaction between (c) heptane (d) heptanol.
m-dinitrobenzene with NH4HS is
NH2
81. Ionization potential of hydrogen atom is
NH2
13.6 eV. Hydrogen atom in ground state is
excited by monochromatic light of energy
(a) (b)
12.1 eV. The spectral lines emitted by hydrogen
NO2
NH2 according to Bohr’s theory will be
NH2 NH2 (a) one (b) two
(c) three (d) four.
(c) (d) 82. Which of the following order about their basic
HS NO2 HS NH2 strengths is correct?
76. A certain aqueous solution of FeCl3 [formula (a) NH3 < NH2OH < HN3 < NH2NH2
mass = 162] has a density of 1.1 g/mL and (b) NH2OH < HN3 < NH2NH2 < NH3
contains 20.0% FeCl3. Molar concentration of (c) HN3 < NH3 < NH2OH < NH2NH2
this solution is (d) HN3 < NH2OH < NH2NH2 < NH3
(a) 0.028 M (b) 0.163 M
83. Amongst the acids,
(c) 1.357 M (d) 1.47 M
(i) CH CCOOH (ii) CH2 CHCOOH and
77. Hydrolysis of 1,1-dichloroethane with aqueous (iii) CH3CH2COOH,
potassium hydroxide gives the acid strength follows the sequence
(a) ethene (b) ethyne (a) (i) < (ii) > (iii) (b) (i) > (ii) > (iii)
(c) ethylene glycol (d) ethanal. (c) (i) = (ii) = (iii) (d) (i) = (ii) > (iii)
78. Which of the following reactions will yield 84. Which of the following statement is true for an
2-propanol? + electrochemical cell?
I. CH2 CH CH3 + H2O H  → (a) H2 is anode and Cu is cathode
(i) CH MgI
II. CH3 CHO  3
(ii) H O
→ (b) H2 is cathode and Cu is anode
2
8 AIIMS EXPLORER

(c) reduction occurs at H2 electrode 93. Which of the following is the correct order
(d) oxidation occurs at Cu electrode of stability of the following four distinct
conformation of n-butane?
85. If 0.189 g of a chlorine containing organic
compound gives 0.287 g of silver chloride, (a) Staggered > Gauche > Partially eclipsed >
then the percentage of chlorine in the organic  Fully eclipsed
compound is (b) Gauche > Staggered > Partially eclipsed >
(a) 35.47 (b) 35.57  Fully eclipsed
(c) 37.57 (d) 45.37 (c) Staggered > Partially eclipsed > Gauche >
 Fully eclipsed
86. Gold number of few colloids are given below :
(d) Fully eclipsed > Staggered > Partially
Gelatin = 0.005 Starch = 25
 eclipsed > Gauche
Egg albumin = 0.18 Gum arabic = 0.23
Which is best protective colloid? 94. CuSO4 reacts with KCN solution and forms
(a) Gelatin (b) Starch (a) K3[Cu(CN)4] (b) CuCN
(c) Egg albumin (d) Gum arabic (c) Cu(CN)2 (d) K4[Cu(CN)6]
87. Arsenic drugs are mainly used in the treatment 95. The correct order of solubility of fluorides of
of alkaline earth metals is
(a) Jaundice (b) Typhoid (a) MgF2 > BaF2 > SrF2 > CaF2 > BeF2
(c) Syphilis (d) Cholera. (b) BeF2 > MgF2 > CaF2 > SrF2 > BaF2
(c) BeF2 > BaF2 > SrF2 > CaF2 > MgF2
88. Oxygen is not evolved when conc. H2SO4
(d) None of these.
reacts with
(a) KMnO4 (b) MnO2 96. Two elements A and B form compounds of
(c) K2Cr2O7 (d) CuSO4 formula AB2 and AB4. When dissolved in 20.0 g
of benzene 1.0 g of AB2 lowers f. pt. by 2.3°C
89. Electron is an alloy of whereas 1.0 g of AB4 lowers f. pt. by 1.3°C. The
(a) Ni and Zn (b) Fe and Mg Kf for benzene is 5.1. The atomic masses of A
(c) Mg and Zn (d) Al and Zn and B are
90. The heat liberated when 1.89 g of benzoic acid (a) 25, 42 (b) 42, 25 (c) 52, 48 (d) 48, 52
is burnt in a bomb calorimeter at 25°C and it 97. The standard reduction potentials in acidic
increases the temperature of 18.94 kg of water conditions are 0.77 V and 0.54 V respectively
by 0.632°C. If the specific heat of water at 25°C for Fe3+/Fe2+ and I3–/I– couple.
is 0.998 cal/g-deg, the value of the heat of 2Fe3+ + 3I– 2Fe2+ + I3–
combustion of benzoic acid is What will be the equilibrium constant for the
(a) 881.1 kcal (b) 771.12 kcal reaction?
(c) 771.12 cal (d) 871.2 kcal (a) 7.07 × 108 (b) 7.07 × 103
91. Which of the following on reaction with (c) 6.07 × 109
(d) 6.07 × 107
nitrous acid followed by treatment with NaOH 98. The true statement for the acids of phosphorus,
produces a blue colouration ? H3PO2, H3PO3 and H3PO4 is
(a) RCH2NO2 (b) R3CNO2 (a) the order of their acidity is
(c) C6H5NO2 (d) R2CHNO2 H3PO4 > H3PO3 > H3PO2
92. Which of the following combinations (b) all of them are reducing in nature
illustrates the law of reciprocal proportions? (c) all of them are tribasic acids
(a) N2O3, N2O4, N2O5 (b) NaCl, NaBr, NaI (d) the geometry of phosphorus is tetrahedral
(c) CS2, CO2, SO2 (d) PH3, P2O3, P2O5 in all the three.
Model Test Paper - 1 9

99. The colourless species is Reason : The overall effect of –I and +R

(a) [V(H2O)6]SO4⋅H2O effect of phenyl group decreases the electron
(b) VCl3 density on the carbon atom of C O group in
(c) Na3VO4 benzaldehyde.
(d) none of these. 107. Assertion : The total number of isomers
100. A hydride of nitrogen which is acidic is shown by [Co(en)2Cl2]+ complex ion is three.
(a) NH3 (b) N2H4 Reason : [Co(en)2Cl2]+ complex ion has an
(c) N2H2 (d) N3H octahedral geometry.
Directions : In the following questions (101-120), 108. Assertion : Bond order in a molecule, can
a statement of assertion is followed by a statement assume any value positive or negative, integral
of reason. Mark the correct choice as : or fractional including zero.
(a) If both assertion and reason are true Reason : Bond order depends on the number
and reason is the correct explanation of of electrons in the bonding and antibonding
assertion. orbitals.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but 109. Assertion : Nitrobenzene undergoes
reason is not the correct explanation of electrophilic substitution at m-position while
assertion. nucleophilic substitution occurs at o- and
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false. p-positions.
(d) If both assertion and reason are false. Reason : Nitro group in benzene ring
101. Assertion : The dimerization reaction of NO2 significantly lowers the electron density at
gas to N2O4 is an exothermic reaction. o- and p-positions while at m-position, the
2NO2(g) N2O4(g); DH = –57.2 kJ mol–1 electron density is only originally lowered.
Reason : Increase in temperature shifts the 110. Assertion : The ease of dehydration of alcohols
equilibrium in the forward direction. follows the order :
102. Assertion : Cyclobutane is less stable than Tertiary > Secondary > Primary
cyclopentane. Reason : Dehydration proceeds through the
Reason : In cycloalkanes, as the ring size formation of oxonium ions.
increases angle strain decreases. 111. Assertion : The second ionization energies of
103. Assertion : PbO2 is a powerful oxidising agent, 23V, 24Cr and 25Mn are in the order V < Cr < Mn.

it evolves O2 gas on reaction with conc. H2SO4. Reason : Ionization energies show a regular
Reason : Due to inert pair effect, +2 oxidation increase along a period with increase of atomic
state of Pb is the most stable. number.

104. Assertion : Nucleophilic substitution reaction 112. Assertion : 0.003500 has six significant figures.
on an optically active alkyl halide gives a Reason : Zeros to the left of the first non-zero
mixture of enantiomers. digit in a number are signifcant.
Reason : The reaction occurs by SN1 But if a number ends in zeros and these zeros
mechanism. are to the right of the decimal point, then these
zeros are not significant.
105. Assertion : N2 and NO+ both are diamagnetic.
Reason : NO+ is isoelectronic with N2. 113. Assertion : Pure acetic acid is converted into
ice like solid called glacial acetic acid.
106. Assertion : Benzaldehyde is less reactive than Reason : Acetic acid is stronger than formic
ethanal towards nucleophilic attack. acid.
10 AIIMS EXPLORER

114. Assertion : Conductivity of silicon increases 123. Pick the odd pair out.
by doping it with group-15 elements. (a) Porifera : choanoflagellates
Reason : Doping means introduction of small (b) Cnidaria : nematocysts
amount of impurities like P, As or Bi into the (c) Nematoda : pseudocoelom
pure crystal. (d) Mollusca : torsion
115. Assertion : Ionization potential across the 124. The population dynamics of a species is
period is Na < Al < Mg < Si. basically regulated by
Reason : Ionization potential decreases with
(a) climate
decrease in atomic size.
(b) food supply
116. Assertion : Benzene reacts with n-propyl (c) competition between and within the
chloride in presence of AlCl3 to give isopropyl species
benzene.
(d) all of the above.
Reason : Benzene undergoes electrophilic
substitution readily. 125. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
117. Assertion : If standard reduction potential for (a) The spermatids differentiate into
the reaction Ag+ + e– → Ag is 0.80 volt, then structurally complex spermatozoa by the
for the reaction 2Ag+ + 2e– → 2Ag, it will be process of spermiogenesis.
1.60 volt. (b) Fertilisation is a physico-chemical event.
Reason : If concentration of Ag+ ions is (c) Cleavage transforms the fertilized ovum
doubled, its standard electrode potential is also into a sphere of aggregated blastomeres.
doubled. (d) Cleavage divisions bring appreciable
118. Assertion : Both chlorine and sulphur dioxide increase in the mass of protoplasm in the
act as bleaching agents. developing embryo.
Reason : Chlorine bleaches by mild reduction, 126. Which of the following can be classified G0
while sulphur dioxide bleaches by vigorous cells?
oxidation. (a) Neurons (b) Fibroblasts
119. Assertion : If 100 cc of 0.1 N HCl is mixed (c) Monocytes (d) Lymphocytes
with 100 cc of 0.2 N HCl, the normality of the
127. The following is a scheme showing the fate of
final solution will be 0.30.
carbohydrates during digestion in the human
Reason : Normalities of similar solutions like
HCl can be added. alimentary canal. Identify the enzymes acting
at stages indicated as A, B, C and D. Choose
120. Assertion : BeSO4 is soluble in water while the correct option from those given.
BaSO4 is not.
Reason : Hydration energy decreases down
the group from Be to Ba and lattice energy A
remains almost constant.
BIOLOGY
B C D
121. The enzyme amylase belongs to the class
(a) hydrolase (b) isomerase
(c) transferase (d) lyases.
(a) A = Amylase, B = Maltase, C = Lactase,
122. A ‘foreign body giant cell’ is formed by D = Invertase
(a) osteoclasts (b) mast cells (b) A = Amylase, B = Maltase, C = Invertase,
(c) plasma cells (d) histiocytes. D = Lactase
Model Test Paper - 1 11

(c) A = Amylase, B = Invertase, C = Maltase, 133. The organelle common among prokaryotic
D = Lactase and eukaryotic cell is
(d) A = Amylase, B = Lactase, C = Maltase, (a) centrosome (b) ribosome
D = Invertase (c) peroxisome (d) glyoxisome.
128. In the tissues, high concentrations of carbon 134. Which of the following shows linkage group
dioxide in coupling phase?
(a) increases the affinity of haemoglobin to
(a) A B
(b) A b
both oxygen and hydrogen a b a B
(b) increases the affinity of haemoglobin a B
(c) A b
(d)
to oxygen but decreases its affinity to a b a b
hydrogen 135. The characteristic features of the mycoplasma
(c) decreases the affinity of haemoglobin are that
to oxygen but increases its affinity to (a) they are much smaller than bacteria in size
hydrogen (b) they can be grown on cell free medium
(d) decreases the affinity of haemoglobin to (c) they are highly pleomorphic and are
both oxygen and hydrogen. bounded by a triple layered unit membrane
129. If the stoma remains surrounded by a limited (d) all of the above.
number of cells which cannot be distinguished 136. The slow process by which new types of
from other epidermal cells, then this type of organism arise from existing forms by genetic
stomata is known as variation is called
(a) perigynous type (b) paracytic type (a) hybridization (b) mutation
(c) anisocytic type (d) anomocytic type. (c) evolution (d) transformation.
130. The so-called tertian periodicity of 137. In the given diagram of section of root of
Plasmodium vivax refers to the maize, different parts have been indicated by
(a) pre-erythrocytic phase alphabets; choose the answer in which these
(b) post erythrocytic phase alphabets have been correctly matched with
(c) erythrocytic phase the parts which they indicate.
(d) sexual phase.
131. The rod shaped cells of Bacillus megatarium are
converted to spherical units called protoplasts
on treatment with the enzyme
(a) lysozyme
(b) cellulase
(c) cellulase and hemicellulase
(d) cellulase, hemicellulase and pectinase.
132. Complete genomic sequence of the following
plant has been recently announced is
(a) Arabidopsis thaliana
(b) Tritium vulgare (a) A = Phloem, B = Xylem, C = Cortex,
(c) Cucurbita pepo D = Endodermis, E = Pith, F = Root hair,
(d) Pisum sativum. G = Epidermis
12 AIIMS EXPLORER

(b) A = Pith, B = Root hair, C = Epiblema, (b) some enzymes of the cycle require
D = Cortex, E = Endodermis, F = Phloem, molecular oxygen
G = Xylem (c) molecular oxygen is essential to reoxidise
(c) A = Root hair, B = Epiblema, C = Cortex, the coenzymes reduced during operation
D = Endodermis, E = Pith, F = Xylem, of the cycle
G = Phloem (d) in absence of oxygen, the enzymes of TCA
(d) A = Epiblema, B = Root hair, C = Vascular cycle are denatured.
bundle, D = Cortex, E = Phloem, F = 143. Okazaki fragments are proportions of DNA
Xylem, G = Pith (a) synthesized on the leading strand of DNA
138. Photorespiration is favoured by replication fork
(a) high O2 and low CO2 concentration (b) synthesized on the lagging strand of DNA
(b) low O2 and high CO2 concentration replication fork
(c) low light intensity (c) produced during the digestion of DNA by
restriction endonucleases
(d) low temperature.
(d) none of the above.
139. Substances that enter living cells by facilitating
144. The function of leghaemoglobin is
diffusion are
(a) to provide oxygen to leg muscles of
(a) generally polar in nature
nitrogen-fixing
(b) transported in the direction of (b) to protect oxygen-sensitive enzymes of
concentration gradient nitrogen fixing bacteria in the root nodules
(c) transported with the help of carrier of legumes
proteins (c) to ‘walk’ to the sites where oxygen is
(d) all of the above. required
140. The examples (s) of modified leaves are (d) to function when haemoglobin is not
(a) tendrils of pea available.
(b) spines of cacti 145. The C4 plants grow very efficiently in warm
(c) pitcher of the pitcher plant climates because they
(d) all of the above. (a) consume fewer ATP molecules for glucose
141. Oil is the prefer energy storing molecule in synthesis
seeds of several plants, while excess energy in (b) minimize photorespiratory losses
other parts of the plant is stored as starch. This (c) have more efficient chloroplasts
is related to (d) contain enzymes which are not inactivated
(a) the requirement of concentrated form of at high temperatures.
energy in seeds in order to make them light 146. Cobalt is present in the molecule of
in weight and facilitate their dispersal. (a) vitamin B6 (b) vitamin B12
(b) dependence of the seeds totally on the (c) vitamin B2 (d) vitamin B1.
stored fat for germination 147. Chitin is a polysaccharide found in the
(c) protective role of the oil against insect exoskeleton of
pests (a) prawn (b) insects
(d) the antioxidant role of the soils. (c) crabs (d) all of these.
142. The TCA cycle is considered as an aerobic 148. Which of the following is an essential amino
pathway because acid?
(a) all enzymes of the cycle use molecular (a) Cystine (b) Glycine
oxygen (c) Phenylalanine (d) Serine
Model Test Paper - 1 13

149. NAD, NADH and NADP are (a) pathogen (b) parasitic
(a) not a participant in any catalytic reaction (c) healthy person
(b) participants as cofactors in non-catalytic (d) susceptible person
reaction 157. Which of the following is used to make
(c) participants as cofactor in enzyme vaccines?
catalysed reactions (a) Activated pathogen
(d) participants as cofactor in both non- (b) Pathogen blocked by antibody
catalytic and enzyme catalysed reactions. (c) Attenuated pathogen
150. Castration cells are found in (d) None of the above
(a) adenohypophysis (b) pars intermedia 158. Cleavage differs from mitosis in lacking
(c) hypothalamus (d) pars nervosa. (a) synthetic phase (b) growth phase
151. In a lake that undergoes thermal stratification, (c) both (a) and (b) (d) all of these.
blooms of phytoplankton tend to occur 159. Low levels of LH during the secretory phase of
(a) before thermal stratification the menstrual cycle are primarily due to
(b) after thermal stratification (a) high estrogen level
(c) at the onset of thermal stratification (b) inhibin
(d) at the mid-phase of thermal stratification. (c) high progesterone level
152. Hybridoma is a synonym of (d) high estrogen and progesterone level.
(a) polyclonal antibody 160. Which one of the following phenomena is
(b) monoclonal antibody commonly referred as ‘cell drinking’?
(c) polymerase chain reaction (a) Endocytosis (b) Exocytosis
(d) florescent in situ hybridization (c) Phagocytosis (d) Pinocytosis
153. Which of the following statements is incorrect? Directions for Q. 161 to 180 : These questions
(a) Life processes are consequences of consist of two statements each, printed as
reactions that occur in an organism. Assertion and Reason. While answering these
(b) Living organisms are made of inorganic questions you are required to choose any one of
and organic compounds. the following four responses.
(c) Life comes from pre-existing life. (a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and
(d) Genes are not responsible for the stability the Reason is a correct explanation of the
or changeability of species. Assertion.
154. In the foetus, the ductus arteriosus connects (b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but
the Reason is not a correct explanation of the
(a) pulmonary vein with pulmonary artery Assertion.
(b) pulmonary artery with aorta (c) If Assertion is true but the Reason is false.
(c) pulmonary vein with aorta (d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
(d) pulmonary artery with vena cava. 161. Assertion : A cholera patient is given glucose,
155. In a neuron the concentration of intracellular electrolytes and water.
potassium and extracellular sodium is in a Reason : These plasmolyse the disease causing
ratio of germs.
(a) 1:1 (b) 30:1 162. Assertion : It is considered advantageous to
(c) 10:1 (d) 3:1. give the polio vaccine orally.
156. Communicability of disease depends upon the Reason : It prevents reinfection by causing
availability of a intestinal immunity.
14 AIIMS EXPLORER

163. Assertion : Calamine lotion is recommended 172. Assertion : The aerobic respiration is
for applying on chickenpox rashes. bioenergetically more efficient than the
Reason : It gives relief by attenuating the anaerobic glycolysis.
chickenpox virus. Reason : The aerobic respiration occurs in
164. Assertion : Typhoid carriers may be cured by the mitochondria, while glycolysis is purely
surgical removal of their spleen. cytosolic.
Reason : The disease germs remain 173. Assertion : In mammals, a secondary palate is
concentrated in spleen. developed.
165. Assertion : A father may be a haemophilic Reason : The development of secondary palate
only if his mother is carrier. is mainly in response to the shifting of internal
Reason : The father cannot pass on a sex- areas.
linked gene to his son. 174. Assertion : The development in cockroach is
166. Assertion : Plants possessing C4-pathway heterometabolous metamorphosis.
of carbon fixation have a higher net primary Reason : The young ones resemble the adults
productivity than the C3-pathway possessing in all.
plants. 175. Assertion : In cells engaged in active secretion,
Reason : For each unit weight of fixed carbon, as in pancreas, the rough endoplasmic
C4-pathway possessing plants require less reticulum is well developed.
water than the C3-pathway possessing plants. Reason : Ribosomes attached to endoplasmic
167. Assertion : A single strand of m-RNA is reticulum are actively engaged in protein
capable of forming a number of different synthesis.
polypeptide chains. 176. Assertion : ‘Lac Operon Model’ is applicable
Reason : Termination codons occur in only to E.coli.
m-RNA. Reason : E.coli lacks a definite nucleus.
168. Assertion : Action spectrum of photosynthesis 177. Assertion : Ionising radiations are harmful for
compares well with the absorption spectrum. the living organism.
Reason : Chlorophyll a is the only pigment Reason : They form toxic photoproducts in the
which can absorb and convert light energy into cells.
chemical energy. 178. Assertion : In woody stems, the amount of
169. Assertion : The non-allelic genes for red hair heart wood continues to increase year after year.
and freckles are usually inherited together. Reason : The activity of the cambial ring
Reason : The genes for red hair and freckles continues uninterrupted.
are located on same chromosome in close 179. Assertion : Secondary succession always
association. involves a predictable sequence of species and
170. Assertion : Chromosomal aberrations are ends up with the same climax community as
caused by a break in the chromosome or its existed prior to the disturbance.
chromatid. Reason : A pond cannot be considered as a
Reason : Duplication, deficiency, transversion self-sustained ecosystem as it does not possess
and translocations are the result of all the structural and functional components
chromosomal aberrations. which work as a unit in an ecosystem.
171. Assertion : The third cleavage in frog is 180. Assertion : C4-plants photosynthesise more
latitudinal. efficiently than C3-plants.
Reason : The mitotic spindle orients parallel to Reason : C4-plants have a shorter carbon
the polar axis. dioxide fixation cycle.
Model Test Paper - 1 15

GENERAL KNOWLEDGE AND (c) upper and lower position of the earth
APTITUDE & LOGICAL THINKING (d) temperature difference between different
areas on earth.
181. Which of the following is a food crop?
(a) Maize (b) Cotton 191. Find the odd one out.
(c) Palm (d) Jute (a) Hydrogen (b) Oxygen
182. Who said these words “Play the game in the (c) Iodine (d) Nitrogen
spirit of the game”. 192. Find the missing number, if same rule in
(a) Rajiv Gandhi (b) Indira Gandhi applied in all the three figures.
(c) Chandrashekar (d) Jawahar Lal Nehru
11 44 16 40 ? 12
183. The capital of ‘Barbados’ is 110 112 114
(a) Capetown (b) Bridgetown 22 33 24 32 23 34
(c) Belarus (d) Berlin.
(a) 35 (b) 37
184. Mother Teresa won the Nobel Prize for peace
(c) 45 (d) 46
in
(a) 1992 (b) 1989 193. A, B, C and D are playing cards. A and B are
(c) 1984 (d) 1979. partners. No two partners sit together. D faces
towards North. If A faces towards West, then
185. The first woman President of Indian National
Congress was who faces towards South?
(a) Annie Besant (a) B (b) C
(b) Sarojini Naidu (c) D (d) Data inadequate
(c) Indira Gandhi 194. Refer to the following Venn diagram.
(d) Vijayalakshmi Pandit.
History
186. ‘Prince of Wales Cup’ is related with P
(a) Golf (b) Hockey
S U
(c) Football (d) Cricket. V
Maths Q R Science
187. ‘Diesel Engine’ was invented by T
(a) Carnot (b) H.W. Seeley
(c) Edison (d) Rudolf Diesel. The person who took neither Science nor
188. Integrated Rural Development Progress Maths is represented by
(IRDP) was initiated during (a) P (b) Q
(a) 1975-1976 (b) 1969-1970 (c) S (d) T
(c) 1976-1977 (d) 1980-1981. 195. A set of three figures X, Y and Z shows
189. The natural growth rate of population during a sequence of folding of a piece of paper.
any year is the difference between the Fig. (Z) shows the manner in which the folded
(a) birth rate and death rate per 1000 paper has been cut. Select a figure from the
(b) death rate and birth rate per 1000 options which would most closely resemble
(c) birth rate and average population
the unfolded form of fig. (Z).
(d) average population and birth rate per 1000.
190. Latitude is the distance in degrees on the
earth’s surface is measured
(a) north and south poles of the equator
(b) east and west poles of the equator X Y Z
16 AIIMS EXPLORER

198. The distance between two cities P and Q is

(a) (b) 330 km. A train starts from P at 8 a.m. and
travels towards Q at 60 km/hr. Another train
starts from Q at 9 a.m. and travels towards P at
75 km/hr. At what time do they meet ?
(c) (d) (a) 10 a.m. (b) 10.30 a.m.
(c) 11 a.m. (d) 11.30 a.m.

196. Arrange the following in a meaningful 199. Select a figure from the options which when
placed in the blank space of fig. (X) would
sequence.
complete the pattern.
1. Consultation 2. Illness
3. Doctor 4. Treatment
5. Recovery
(a) 2, 3, 1, 4, 5 (b) 2, 3, 4, 1, 5
?
(c) 4, 3, 1, 2, 5 (d) 5, 1, 4, 3, 2
197. Select a figure from the options which will
continue the same series as established by the
five Problem figures. Fig. (X)

Problem Figures
(a) (b)

(c) (d)

(a) (b)
200. In a code language, STARK is written as
VWDUN and MOBILE is written as PRELOH.
How is BLAME written in that code?
(c) (d) (a) ESFRJ (b) EODPH
(c) NJFTP (d) TSFGJ