Exit Model 2
Exit Model 2
Exit Model 2
Select one:
a. Modeling
b. Testing
c. Data acquisition
d. Data representation
e. None
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The correct answer is: Data acquisition
10. From the list of transition functions given below, select the transition function for F-NFA.
Select one:
a. A(q1, x) , q2 , where q1, q2 Q and x .
b. B(q1, x) , q2+ , where q1, q2 Q and x .
c. C(q1, x) , q2* , where q1, q2 Q and x .
The correct answer is: D(q1, x∪∪) ) q2* , where q1, q2 Q and x .
100. The opposing forces to Integrity, Confidentiality, and Availability are?
Select one:
a. Disclosure. Alteration, and destruction
b. Disclosure, destruction, and alteration
c. Alteration, destruction, and disclosure
d. Alteration, disclosure, and destruction
The correct answer is: Alteration, destruction, and disclosure
101. Which one of the following is not a kind of passive network security attack?
Select one:
a. Traffic analysis
b. Release of message content
c. Wire tapping
d. Session hijacking
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The correct answer is: Wire tapping
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102. Which one of the following is an example of a block cipher and Asymmetric cryptosystem?
Select one:
a. DES
b. RC4
c. RSA
d. None of the above
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The correct answer is: None of the above
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103. Which one of the following cryptographic algorithms is odd?
Select one:
a. RSA
b. DES
c. RC4
d. 3DES
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104. Which of the following statement is true about network security?
Select one:
a. It is a set of rules and configurations designed to protect the integrity, confidentiality and
accessibility of computer networks and data using both software and hardware technologies.
b. Every organization, regardless of size, industry or infrastructure, requires a degree of network
security solutions in place to protect it from the ever-growing landscape of cyber threats in the
world today
c. Today's network architecture is complex and we faced with a dangerous environment that is
always changing and attackers that are always trying to find and exploit vulnerabilities are highly
increasing.
d. All of the above
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The correct answer is: Today's network architecture is complex and we faced with a dangerous
environment that is always changing and attackers that are always trying to find and exploit
vulnerabilities are highly increasing.
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105. Imagine, as a user of Hawassa University’s SIS system, you are unable to login using your
correct username and password. Which computer security goal is not fulfilled?
Select one:
a. Integrity
b. Availability
c. Authenticity
d. Confidentiality
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The correct answer is: Availability
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106. Which one of the following services is not provided by SET?
Select one:
a. Confidentiality of information
b. Accountability
c. Authentication
d. Integrity of data
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The correct answer is: Accountability
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107. Which of the following statements are not correct?
Select one:
a. In symmetric cryptography, only single key is shared between sender and receiver.
b. DES is a symmetric cryptography algorithm which groups the message into 64 bits to encrypt.
c. Rail Fence cipher is a public-key cryptographic algorithm.
d. PGP provides confidentiality and authentication service for electronic mail application.
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The correct answer is: Rail Fence cipher is a public-key cryptographic algorithm.
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108. What is an umbrella term for managing access to a network?
Select one:
a. AR
b. NAS
c. NAC
d. All of the above
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The correct answer is: NAS
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109. Which one of the following is used to stop traffic or permit only specified traffic while
stopping all other traffic on their network?
Select one:
a. Default gateway
b. ACL
c. Routing table
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
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The correct answer is: ACL
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11. What is dead state?
Select one:
a. A state that can lead the transition to final state.
b. A state that cannot lead the transition to final state.
c. A state which is unreachable from initial state.
d. A state which can be reached from initial state.
e. All Except A.
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The correct answer is: A state that cannot lead the transition to final state.
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110. Which one of the following router component is used to contain the operating system?
Select one:
a. NVRAM
b. ROM
c. RAM
d. A and C
e. None of the above
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The correct answer is: None of the above
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111. What is a routing protocol that uses number of hops as its metric?
Select one:
a. EIGRP
b. OSPF
c. RIP
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
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The correct answer is: RIP
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112. Which one of the following routing protocol uses unequal cost load balancing?
Select one:
a. EIGRP
b. RIP
c. IS-IS
d. None of the above
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113. What is an address that is not changed when a packet is forwarded from router to router?
Select one:
a. IP address
b. Port number
c. MAC address
d. None of the above
e. All of the above
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The correct answer is: IP address
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114. What is the interface of a router that is used to connect to the LAN?
Select one:
a. Serial interface
b. Fast Ethernet interface
c. Console interface
d. A and B
e. B and C
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The correct answer is: Fast Ethernet interface
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115. What is the command that is used to activate an interface?
Select one:
a. ipconfig
b. ip route
c. shutdown
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
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The correct answer is: None of the above
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116. What is the type of ACL in which packets are processed before they are routed to the
outbound interface?
Select one:
a. Outbound ACL
b. ACL loop
c. Inbound ACL
d. None of the above
e. All of the above
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The correct answer is: Inbound ACL
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117. Which one of the following is not included in the command of static routing?
Select one:
a. Subnet mask
b. Wildcard mask
c. Destination ip address
d. None of the above
e. All of the above
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The correct answer is: Wildcard mask
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118. What is the command used to save running configuration file?
Select one:
a. Router#copy startup-config running-config
b. Router(config)#copy startup-config running-config
c. Router(config-line)#copy startup-config running-config
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
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The correct answer is: None of the above
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119. Which one of the following Structured Query Languages (SQL) is used to create a
database?
Select one:
a. DML
b. DDL
c. DCL
d. TCL
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The correct answer is: DDL
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12. Which of the following equality if false?
Select one:
a. (L*)* = L*
b. B* = Ø
c. C* = *
d. L+ = LL*
e. L* = L + L+
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The correct answer is: B* = Ø
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120. Which of the following is a constraint between two sets of attributes from the database?
Select one:
a. Normalization
b. functional dependency
c. Denormalization
d. All
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The correct answer is: functional dependency
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13. According to the Church-Turing thesis, a problem is solvable if and only if_________?
Select one:
a. It converted into equivalent Turing machine problem.
b. A Turing machine halts for all inputs.
c. A Turing machine halts only when it accepts the input.
d. A and B
e. B and C
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The correct answer is: A and B
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14. Which of the following language cannot be recognized using a finite state automaton?
Select one:
a. 0n1n for n 1
b. 0n1n0n for n 1
c. WWR for W={0,1} and R 1
d. (0*1*)*
e. All of the above.
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The correct answer is: 0n1n0n for n 1
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15. A context free grammar is ambiguous if and only if___________________________?
Select one:
a. It has one rightmost and one leftmost derivation tree for a string.
b. It has more than one rightmost derivation tree for a string.
c. It has more than one leftmost derivation tree for a string.
d. B and C
e. None of the above.
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The correct answer is: B and C
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16. Which automata-memory combination if wrong?
Select one:
a. Finite automata – queue
b. Turing machine – tape
c. Linear bound automata – tape
d. Pushdown automata – stack
e. A and C
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17. Which statement is true according to the Noam Chomsky hierarchy of grammars?
Select one:
a. Regular grammars are subsets of context-free grammars.
b. Context-free grammars are subsets of context-sensitive grammars.
c. Context-free grammars are subsets of unrestricted grammars.
d. Regular grammars are subsets of context-sensitive grammars.
e. All of the above.
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The correct answer is: All of the above.
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18. Choose the right arrangement in increasing order computing capability of the following
theoretical computing machines.
Select one:
a. Pushdown automata, finite automata, linear bound automata then Turing machine.
b. finite automata, linear bound automata, pushdown automata then Turing machine.
c. Turing machine, linear bound automata, pushdown automata then finite automata.
d. Linear bound automata, pushdown automata, finite automata then Turing machine.
e. Finite automata, pushdown automata, linear bound automata then Turing machine.
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The correct answer is: Finite automata, pushdown automata, linear bound automata then Turing
machine.
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19. Among the following addressing modes, which addressing mode is more suitable to array
assignment?
Select one:
a. Immediate AM
b. Direct AM
c. Index AM
d. Base-register AM
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The correct answer is: Index AM
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2. which one of the following is challenge of machine learning?
Select one:
a. Lack of data
b. Quality of the dataset
c. Limitations of processing machines and chips
d. All
e. None
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The correct answer is: All
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20. Which statement is correct for recognizing identifier lexemes from the input buffer?
Select one:
a. Look forward until incidence of white-space.
b. Look forward until incidence of non-alphanumeric characters.
c. Look forward until incidence of numeric characters.
d. Look forward until incidence of alphabet characters.
e. All except A.
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The correct answer is: Look forward until incidence of non-alphanumeric characters.
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21. Assume we are designing a compiler for AAA language, and we need to design it to work on
three different architectures namely Windows, Linux and Macintosh operating systems. Which
phases of the compiler can be reused in all three architectures?
Select one:
a. Lexical, Syntax and Semantic analysis
b. Intermediate code generation, Code optimization and Code generation
c. Semantic analysis, Code optimization and Code generation
d. Intermediate code generation and code optimization
e. Only lexical analysis
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The correct answer is: Lexical, Syntax and Semantic analysis
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22. Which of the following protocol is used for E-Mail Traffic?
Select one:
a. ARP
b. DMS
c. SMTP
d. IM
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The correct answer is: SMTP
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23. The transmission signal coding method that use three levels is called____________
Select one:
a. NRZ
b. Bipolar AMI
c. Manchester
d. Binary
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The correct answer is: Bipolar AMI
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24. Which type of topology is best suited for large businesses which must carefully control and
coordinate the operation of distributed branch outlets?
Select one:
a. Ring
b. Local area
c. Hierarchical
d. Star
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The correct answer is: Star
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25. What kind of transmission medium is most appropriate to carry data in a computer network
that is exposed to electrical interferences?
Select one:
a. Unshielded twisted pair
b. Optical fiber
c. Coaxial cable
d. Microwave
Feedback
The correct answer is: Coaxial cable
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26. The IP network 192.168.50.0 is to be divided into 8 equal sized subnets. Which of the
following subnet masks can be used for the above requirement?
Select one:
a. 255.255.243.240.
b. 255.255.0.0
c. 255.255.255.0
d. 255.255.2.55.224
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The correct answer is: 255.255.2.55.224
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27. What is the size of the destination port in the UDP protocol?
Select one:
a. 8 bits
b. 16 bits
c. 20 bits
d. 32 bits
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The correct answer is: 16 bits
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28. Which of the following is the purpose of computer network?
Select one:
a. Sharing of software
b. Sharing of hardware resource
c. Sharing of data
d. All of the above
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The correct answer is: All of the above
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29. A routing information of a router that is set by the network administrator is called ______
Select one:
a. Fixed routing
b. Static routing
c. Dynamic routing
d. Automatic routing
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The correct answer is: Static routing
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3. What is state space in the field of Artificial Intelligence?
Select one:
a. The whole problem
b. Your definition to a problem
c. Problem you design
d. Representation of a problem using states and actions
e. None
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The correct answer is: Representation of a problem using states and actions
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30. What can be used to store one or more bits of data, which can accept and transfer information
serially?
Select one:
a. Parallel registers
b. Counters
c. Shift registers
d. None
Feedback
The correct answer is: Shift registers
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31. Counter that holds addresses of next fetched instruction is called:
Select one:
a. sequence control register
b. temporary register
c. program counter
d. both A and B
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The correct answer is: program counter
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32. The primary purpose of a three-state buffer is usually:
Select one:
a. to provide isolation between the input device and the data bus
b. to provide the sink or source current required by any device connected to its output without
loading down the output device
c. temporary data storage
d. to control data flow
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The correct answer is: to provide isolation between the input device and the data bus
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33. Which language is termed as the symbolic depiction used for indicating the series:
Select one:
a. Random transfer language
b. Arithmetic transfer language
c. Register transfer language
d. All of these
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The correct answer is: Register transfer language
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34. The register is a type of ____________.
Select one:
a. Combinational circuit
b. Sequential circuit
c. CPU
d. Latches
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The correct answer is: Sequential circuit
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35. In the direct address mode:
Select one:
a. The effective address is equal to the address part of the instruction
b. The content of the program counter is added to address part of the instruction
c. A memory is addressed by a register
d. Address in the instruction points to location of the effective address
Feedback
The correct answer is: The effective address is equal to the address part of the instruction
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36. An instruction used to set the carry flag in a computer can be classified as
Select one:
a. Data transfer
b. Process control
c. Logical
d. None of these
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The correct answer is: Logical
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37. Assume that a digital computer has a common bus system for 8 registers of 16 bits each.
Then, how many multiplexers and selection inputs in each multiplexer are there, respectively?
Select one:
a. 8 and 3
b. 16 and 3
c. 3 and 8
d. 3 and 16
e. None
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The correct answer is: 16 and 3
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38. Dijkstra's banking algorithm in an operating system solves the problem of:
Select one:
a. deadlock avoidance
b. deadlock recovery
c. mutual exclusion
d. context switching
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The correct answer is: deadlock avoidance
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39. ____________ contains all the key parameters about the file system and is read into memory
when the computer is booted or the file system is first touched.
Select one:
a. MBR
b. Bootblock
c. Superblock
d. Partition
e. None
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The correct answer is: Superblock
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4. A search algorithm takes _________ as an input and returns ________ as an output.
Select one:
a. Input, output
b. Problem, solution
c. Solution, problem
d. None
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The correct answer is: Problem, solution
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40. The CPU can request data from an I/O controller one byte at a time, but doing so wastes the
CPU’s time. What was the solution to this?
Select one:
a. DMA
b. Buffering
c. Partitioning
d. Parallelizing
e. All
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The correct answer is: DMA
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41. Cascading termination refers to termination of all child processes before the parent
terminates, such type of termination is known as terminated ______.
Select one:
a. Normally
b. Abnormally
c. Normally and involuntarily
d. None of the mentioned
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The correct answer is: Normally
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42. Two operations in a schedule are side to be conflict if they satisfy all the following conditions
except:
Select one:
a. They belongs to different transactions
b. They access the same data item X
c. At least one of the operation is a write Items(X)
d. They belongs to the same transactions
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The correct answer is: They access the same data item X
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43. Based on a transaction schedule Sb, given as Sb: r1(X); r2(x); w1(X); r1(Y); W2(X); W1(Y);
identify non-conflicting operation.
Select one:
a. r1(X) and w2(X)
b. r2(X) and w1(X)
c. w2(X) and w1(Y)
d. W1(X) and w2(X)
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The correct answer is: w2(X) and w1(Y)
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44. Which one of the following locks data items from write but not from read?
Select one:
a. Implicit lock
b. Explicit lock
c. exclusive lock
d. shared lock
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The correct answer is: exclusive lock
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45. Which one of the following Structured Query Languages (SQL) is used to create a database?
Select one:
a. DML
b. DDL
c. DCL
d. TCL
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The correct answer is: DDL
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46. __________defines a collection (or set) of entities that have the same attributes.
Select one:
a. entity type
b. relationship
c. attribute
d. constraint
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The correct answer is: entity type
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47. The ER model includes all the following modeling concepts except:
Select one:
a. specialization and generalization
b. entity
c. relationship
d. constraint
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The correct answer is: specialization and generalization
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48. Which of the following is a constraint between two sets of attributes from the database?
Select one:
a. Normalization
b. functional dependency
c. Denormalization
d. All
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The correct answer is: functional dependency
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49. Which of the following method is used to enforce access control in a database system based
on the granting and revoking privileges?
Select one:
a. Mandatory Access Control
b. Role-Based Access Control
c. Statistical Database Security
d. Discretionary Access Control
e. Encryption
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The correct answer is: Discretionary Access Control
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5. Breadth first search always expands the ______ node in the problem representation of a search
tree.
Select one:
a. Shallowest
b. Child node
c. Deepest
d. Minimum cost
e. All
f. None
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The correct answer is: Shallowest
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50. Which of the following is not property of a transaction?
Select one:
a. Simplicity
b. B. Atomicity
c. C. Isolation
d. D. Durability
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The correct answer is: Simplicity
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51. Why the DMBS needs to keep track of operations when transaction starts, terminates and
commits or aborts?
Select one:
a. For concurrency control
b. For transaction characterization
c. For recovery purpose
d. All of the above
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The correct answer is: For recovery purpose
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52. The following are benefits of the database systems approach except:
Select one:
a. Data can be shared
b. Improved accessibility of data
c. Security measures can be enforced
d. Complexity in designing and managing data
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The correct answer is: Complexity in designing and managing data
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53. A full scale DBMS should have the following services to be provided to users except:
Select one:
a. Data storage, retrieval and update in the database
b. Concurrency Control Services
c. Recovery Services
d. Authorization Services (Security)
e. All of the above
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The correct answer is: All of the above
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54. Which one of the following pair of function declaration does not show function overloading?
Select one:
a. void Abs(); and int Abs();
b. int Abs(); and int Abs(int);
c. float Div(float,int); and void Div(long);
d. float Div(float); and int Div(int);
e. None of the above
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The correct answer is: void Abs(); and int Abs();
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55. Which one of the following array initialization is not possible?
Select one:
a. int age[3]={1,2,3,4};
b. float temp[10]={1.2,3.5,1.2};
c. int age[4]={1,2,3,4};
d. float temp[]={0.8,0.7,6.4};
e. None of the above
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The correct answer is: int age[3]={1,2,3,4};
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56. If you declare a float pointer as float*ptr, and you declare a float variable as float sum; then
which of the following is legal?
Select one:
a. sum=&ptr;
b. ptr=∑
c. *sum=*ptr;
d. &sum=ptr;
e. All except C
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The correct answer is: ptr=∑
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57. Which of the following statements are not equivalent, if there is a declaration of an array a as
follow? int a[]={1,2,0,3};
Select one:
a. cout<<a[0]; and cout<<a[a[2]];
b. cout<<a[a[0]+2]; and cout<<a[a[0]+a[2]]+a[0];
c. cout<<a[0]; and cout<<a[3]-a[1];
d. cout<<a; and cout<<a[0];
e. None of the above
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The correct answer is: cout<<a; and cout<<a[0];
Question 75
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58. Consider the following code segment int x=3, y=1; int *p=&x; (*p) ++; p=&y; y-=2; What is
the value of *p after the code executes?
Select one:
a. 3
b. 1
c. 2
d. 4
e. None of the above
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The correct answer is: 2
Question 76
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59. Assume that you want to declare a function named Model which takes an array of integers
and the size of the array as parameters and returns nothing. Which one of the following is the
correct syntax of declaring the function?
Select one:
a. void Model(float [],int );
b. void Model(int [], int );
c. void Model(float[],int);
d. void Model(int a[], int n);
e. B and D
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The correct answer is: B and D
Question 77
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6. _____________________is refers to the objective an artificial machine.
Select one:
a. Initial state
b. Intermediate state
c. Goal
d. Input
e. None
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The correct answer is: Goal
Question 78
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60. Referring to question number 5, if you want to find the sum of 10 integers stored in an array
named list, which one of the following is correct syntax of calling the function?
Select one:
a. Sum(list[10],10);
b. Sum(int list[10],10);
c. void Sum(list,10);
d. Sum(list,10);
e. void Sum(int list[10],10);
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The correct answer is: Sum(list,10);
Question 79
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61. Which of the following code fragment outputs the number 3 to the screen?
Select one:
a. cout << 1 + 2 * 3 / 4 << endl;
b. cout << 1 * 2 + 3 / 4 + 2 << endl;
c. cout << 2 * (2 + 3) / 4 << endl;
d. cout << 1 / 2 * 2 + 3 << endl;
e. All of the above
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The correct answer is: cout << 1 / 2 * 2 + 3 << endl;
Question 80
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62. Which of the following prototypes does not associate with Prototyping Model?
Select one:
a. Domain Prototype
b. Vertical Prototype
c. Horizontal Prototype
d. Diagonal Prototype
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The correct answer is: Diagonal Prototype
Question 81
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63. What is the major drawback of the Spiral Model?
Select one:
a. Higher amount of risk analysis
b. Doesn't work well for smaller projects
c. Additional functionalities are added later on
d. Strong approval and documentation control
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The correct answer is: Doesn't work well for smaller projects
Question 82
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64. When the user participation isn't involved, which of the following models will not result in
the desired output?
Select one:
a. Prototyping & Waterfall
b. Prototyping & RAD
c. Prototyping & Spiral
d. RAD & Spiral
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The correct answer is: Prototyping & RAD
Question 83
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65. Which of the following falls under the category of software products?
Select one:
a. Firmware, CAD
b. Embedded, CAM
c. Customized, Generic
d. CAD, Embedded
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The correct answer is: Customized, Generic
Question 84
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66. Which of the following activities of the generic process framework delivers a feedback
report?
Select one:
a. Deployment
b. Planning
c. Modeling
d. Construction
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The correct answer is: Deployment
Question 85
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67. Which of the following refers to internal software equality?
Select one:
a. Scalability
b. Reusability
c. Reliability
d. Usability
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The correct answer is: Reusability
Question 86
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68. Which one of the following activities is not recommended for software processes in software
engineering?
Select one:
a. Software Evolution
b. Software Verification
c. Software Testing & Validation
d. Software designing
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The correct answer is: Software Verification
Question 87
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69. On what basis is plan-driven development different from that of the software development
process?
Select one:
a. Based on the iterations that occurred within the activities.
b. Based on the output, which is derived after negotiating in the software development process.
c. Based on the interleaved specification, design, testing, and implementation activities.
d. All of the above
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The correct answer is: Based on the iterations that occurred within the activities.
Question 88
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7. Which one of the following is a logical connector?
Select one:
a. ==>
b. B
c. C,
d. D
e. All
f. None
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The correct answer is: All
Question 89
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70. How would you store user name ‘Informatics’ in ‘UserName'?
Select one:
a. setcookie(‘UserName’, ‘Informatics’);
b. makeCookie(‘UserName’, ‘Informatics’);
c. Cookie(‘UserName’, ‘Informatics’);
d. UserName(‘Informatics’);
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The correct answer is: setcookie(‘UserName’, ‘Informatics’);
Question 90
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71. Select the CSS property that sets the width of an element’s bottom border?
Select one:
a. Border-width
b. Border-bottom
c. Border-width-down
d. Border-buttom-width
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The correct answer is: Border-buttom-width
Question 91
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72. Which of the following is not correct about PHP?
Select one:
a. Using PHP, you can restrict users to access some pages of your website
b. PHP can handle forms, i.e. gather data from files, save data to a file, via email you can send
data, return data to the user
c. It depends on the browser and giving the user more control over the browser
d. Allow you to add, delete, and modify elements within your database via PHP
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The correct answer is: It depends on the browser and giving the user more control over the
browser
Question 92
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73. Which one of the following statements should you use to set the session username to
INSY3082?
Select one:
a. $SESSION[‘username’] = “INSY3082”;
b. $_SESSION[‘username’] = “INSY3082”;
c. session_start(“INSY3082”);
d. $SESSION_START[“username”] = “INSY3082”;
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The correct answer is: $_SESSION[‘username’] = “INSY3082”;
Question 93
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74. Which is the correct way to write a JavaScript array?
Select one:
a. var txt = new Array(1:"tim",2:"kim",3:"jim")
b. var txt = new Array:1=("tim")2=("kim")3=("jim")
c. var txt = new Array("tim","kim","jim")
d. var txt = new Array="tim","kim","jim"
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The correct answer is: var txt = new Array("tim","kim","jim")
Question 94
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75. When is a cookie saved on a user’s web browser?
Select one:
a. Only when a user submits a form
b. Whenever a user requests a web page
c. If a web page is loaded that includes JavaScript code that sets the cookie
d. If PHP is used to send back an http response header that sets the cookie
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The correct answer is: If PHP is used to send back an http response header that sets the cookie
Question 95
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76. Which one of the following method is responsible for sending the query to the database?
Select one:
a. query()
b. send_query()
c. sendquery()
d. query_send()
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The correct answer is: query()
Question 96
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77. Which of the following is the correct way to applying style to a document?
Select one:
a. Use an external style sheet, either by importing it or by linking to it
b. Directly embed a document-wide style in the head element of the document
c. Set an inline style rule using the style attribute directly on an element
d. All
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The correct answer is: All
Question 97
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78. One of the following is not true about algorithm
Select one:
a. An algorithm should be independent of programming language
b. An empirical approach measure reliability of an algorithm
c. Pseudocode representation of an algorithm is more suitable for analyzing an algorithm
d. A computer program is an implementation of an algorithm
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The correct answer is: An empirical approach measure reliability of an algorithm
Question 98
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79. An algorithm with a running time O(logn), where n is an input size, is not faster than an
algorithm with running time.
Select one:
a. nlogn
b. n2
c. 2n
d. log(n/2)
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The correct answer is: log(n/2)
Question 99
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8. which one of the following is a quantifier?
Select one:
a. ==>
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. All
f. None
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The correct answer is: C
Question 100
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80. An optimization algorithm that tries to find the globally optimal solution to a problem by
taking locally optimal solution at each step is ?
Select one:
a. greedy
b. dynamic programming
c. backtracking
d. divide-and-conquer
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The correct answer is: greedy
Question 101
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81. A running time function of an algorithm who recurrence relation is represented by
T(n)=2T(n/2)+n , where n is an input size and the base condition is T(1)=0
Select one:
a. logn
b. n
c. nlogn
d. logn+n
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The correct answer is: nlogn
Question 102
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82. A graph traversal algorithm that is equivalent to the preorder traversal of a tree is?
Select one:
a. breadth first search
b. depth first search
c. best first search
d. binary search
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The correct answer is: depth first search
Question 103
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83. If a graph has n vertices the minimum spanning tree that can be constructed from the graph
will have
Select one:
a. n edges
b. n-1 vertices
c. n-1 edges
d. n+1 vertices
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The correct answer is: n-1 edges
Question 104
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84. the following output of ascendingly sorting a list 5,0,4,1,2 shows that the sorting algorithm
most importantly applied is
Select one:
a. bubble sort
b. selection sort
c. insertion sort
d. quick sort
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The correct answer is: insertion sort
Question 105
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85. One of the following statements is not true about linked lists
Select one:
a. In singly-linked list navigation can be performed forward only
b. In doubly-linked list navigation can be done backward only
c. In singly-circular linked list last node can point to the first node
d. In any circular linked list there is no any node pointing to NULL
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The correct answer is: In doubly-linked list navigation can be done backward only
Question 106
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86. One of the following is not true about binary tree
Select one:
a. Binary tree has at most two children
b. Full binary tree has maximum depth of 2
c. In balanced binary tree all leave nodes are at the same level
d. In a complete binary tree the length from root to any leaf node is h or h-1
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The correct answer is: Full binary tree has maximum depth of 2
Question 107
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87. Which one of the following is not true about a binary search tree constructed from the list of
keys 2,1,0,10,7,9,4,3,11,20,15,6,5,8? (if the same order of the list is followed)
Select one:
a. The tree has depth 5
b. The keys 4 and 9 are at the same level
c. The deepest node has the key 5
d. The tree is a full binary tree
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The correct answer is: The tree is a full binary tree
Question 108
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88. Which feature of OOP is implemented by the following code? class Student {int marks;}
class Postgraduate extends Student { int age; public Postgraduate (int age){ this.age=age; } }
Select one:
a. Encapsulation and Inheritance
b. Inheritance and polymorphism
c. Polymorphism
d. Inheritance
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The correct answer is: Inheritance
Question 109
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89. All are true about polymorphism, except?
Select one:
a. It is an object-oriented concept by which we can perform a single action in different ways.
b. Polymorphism occurs when a parent class reference is used to refer a child class object.
c. Any Java object that can pass more than one IS-A test is considered to be polymorphic.
d. Polymorphism occurs when a child class reference is used to refer a parent class object.
e. None of the above
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The correct answer is: Polymorphism occurs when a child class reference is used to refer a parent
class object.
Question 110
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9. Which string is not belongs to the regular expression (0+1)*1?
Select one:
a. 1111
b. 0000
c. 1110
d. 1010
e. All except A.
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The correct answer is: All except A.
Question 111
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90. Suppose that you have given a super class named Animal. The class Animal contains only
parametrized constructors and you also have defined Animal’s subclass called Dog. The Dog
class is the demonstration class that contains the main method. Based on the given scenario,
which of the following is/are false statement /s?
Select one:
a. it is possible to create an object of Animal within the main method of the subclass with the
syntax Animal animal1 = new Animal ();
b. It is a must to define a constructor with in the subclass Dog
c. It is a must to use a super () call in the subclass constructors to invoke the super class
constructors.
d. There is no default constructor provided by the compiler for the Animal class.
e. All except A
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The correct answer is: it is possible to create an object of Animal within the main method of the
subclass with the syntax Animal animal1 = new Animal ();
Question 112
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91. We use this keyword in java. All are true about this keyword except?
Select one:
a. We use this keyword to refer the current object instance data members of its own class.
b. We use this keyword to invoke the current objects’ instance method of its own class.
c. We use this keyword to invoke the constructor of own class from within another constructor of
the same class
d. We use this keyword to invoke the superclass constructor from the subclass constructor
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The correct answer is: We use this keyword to invoke the superclass constructor from the
subclass constructor
Question 113
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92. What is encapsulation in object-oriented programming?
Select one:
a. It is a way of combining various data members and member functions that operate on those
data members into a single unit
b. It is a way of combining various data members and member functions into a single unit which
can operate on any data
c. It is a way of combining various data members into a single unit
d. It is a way of combining various member functions into a single unit
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The correct answer is: It is a way of combining various data members and member functions that
operate on those data members into a single unit
Question 114
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93. Assume that you are attempting to create a non-inheritable Lion class in java. Therefore,
which of the following will define the class correctly?
Select one:
a. class Lion { //….}
b. final abstract class Lion { //…… }
c. static final abstract class Lion { //……. }
d. final class Lion { //…… }
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The correct answer is: final class Lion { //…… }
Question 115
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94. suppose that you are given the following java code segment abstract class Animal { public
abstract void sound (); public void eat() { System.out.println(“All animals can eat!”); } } public
class Dog extends Animal { }. Therefore, what is possible in the Dog subclass?
Select one:
a. Creating an object of Animal in the main method as Animal a = new Animal ()
b. Overriding the sound () method in the subclass is must unless the Dog class is defined itself as
an abstract
c. Overriding the eat () method in the subclass as void eat () {//…. }
d. It is possible to create an object as Animal animal1 = new Dog ()
e. B and D
f. A and C
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The correct answer is: B and D
Question 116
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95. Which of the following is correct way of interface definition?
Select one:
a. public interface Book { int bookNo; String title; void setBookNo( int bookNo) { This.bookNo
= bookNo;} }
b. public interface Book { int bookNo; String title; void setBookNo (int bookNo); }
c. final public interface Book { int bookNo; String title; void setBookNo (int bookNo) {
//…………}; }
d. None of the above
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The correct answer is: public interface Book { int bookNo; String title; void setBookNo (int
bookNo); }
Question 117
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96. What is true about abstract class?
Select one:
a. An abstract class are not complete by their own
b. An abstract class cannot instantiate an object of its own
c. An abstract class must have at least one abstract method
d. An abstract class can implement another abstract class methods
e. All of the above
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The correct answer is: All of the above
Question 118
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97. Assume that you are given two interfaces named A, and B and one class named C to
implement the two interfaces, therefore, which of the following is correct class definition?
Select one:
a. class C implements A, B {}
b. class C implements A, implements B {}
c. class C extends A, B {}
d. class C extends A, extends B {}
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The correct answer is: class C implements A, B {}
Question 119
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98. Assume that you have defined only parametrized constructor in your employee class as given
below as a segment of program. public class Employee { String name; float salary Employee
(String name, float salary) { this. salary = salary; this.name = name; } } So, which of the
following statements are invoking the constructor properly?
Select one:
a. Employee emp = new Employee ();
b. new Employee ();
c. Employee emp = new Employee ("Dawit", 13,500.00f);
d. new Employee ("Dawit", 13,500.00f);
e. C and D
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The correct answer is: C and D
Question 120
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99. Which one of the following is not among the major activities of RSA cryptosystem?
Select one:
a. Signature verification
b. Key generation
c. Digital signing
d. Message digest
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The correct answer is: Digital signing