Q.

1: You can export the data in a grid as a ______

A. Text file, Microsoft Excel, Microsoft Word, or HTML document.

B. Text file, Microsoft Excel, Microsoft Word
C. Text file, Microsoft Excel, or HTML document.
D: Microsoft Excel, Microsoft Word, or HTML document.
Q. 2: When a requirement, test, or defect changes, Quality Center alerts the associated
entities and can notify those responsible for any associated entities.

A. True
B. False

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 3: A ______ indicates that the alert is new. A gray flag indicates that the alert has
already been read.

A. Green flag
B. Pink flag
C. Red flag
D: Blue flag
Q. 4: Quality Center enables you to add your own alerts, in addition to automatic
traceability notifications. You can use ______ flags to remind yourself to follow up on
something.

A. Alert Me
B. Follow up
C. Follow Me
D: Follow

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 5: Throughout the testing process, you can add attachments to help illustrate your
work.

A. True
B. False
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 6: You can use a Uniform Resource Locator (URL) to a Quality Center record as an
attachment.

A. True
B. False

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 7: A follow up flag is specific to your user login name. Anyone else viewing the record
does not see your follow up alert.

A. True
B. False

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 8: A _________ is a view of a Quality Center window with the settings you apply to it.

A. Personal view
B. My view
C. Favorite view
D: Fav view

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 9: By default, Quality Center displays the four most recently used views on the
Favorites menu. You can define the number of views displayed on the menu by setting the
______ parameter in the Site Configuration tab in Site Administration.

A. FAVORITES_DEPTH
B. FAVORITES-DEPTH
C. FAVORITE_DEPTH
D: FAVORITE_DEPTHS

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 10: You save favorite views in either a ______ folder or a _______ folder. Views in a
________ folder are accessible to all users. Views in a ________ folder are accessible only
to the user who created them.

A. Public, private, public, private

B. Root, Base, Root, Base,
C. Locked, unlocked, locked, unlocked
D: Both B & C
Q. 11: You access Quality Center over the _______ via a Web browser.

A. Internet

B. a corporate intranet
C. Mobile Internet
D: Both A & B
Q. 12:Quality Center also features a sophisticated system for tracking application defects,
enabling you to monitor defects closely from initial detection until resolution.

A. True
B. False

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 13: Test management with Quality Center involves five phases:

A. Specify Releases, Specify Requirements, Plan Tests, Execute Tests, Run Tests.
B. Specify Releases, Specify Requirements, Plan Tests, Execute Tests, Track Defects.
C. Specify Releases, Specify Requirements, Plan Tests, Execute Tests, Analyze Tests.
D: Specify Releases, Specify Requirements, Plan Tests, Analyze Tests, Track Defects.

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 14: Each Quality Center project is supported by a _______ that stores project
information.

A. Root folder
B. Database
C. Flat File
D: Both B & C

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 15: Quality Center enables you to manage user access to a project. The_______
determines the privileges that the user has within a project.

A. QC group
B. User_Account group
C. Account group
D: user group

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 16: You can import data from _______ to a Quality Center project.

A. Word or Notepad
B. Word or Wordpad
C. Word or Excel
D: Word or Power Point

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 17: You launch Quality Center on your machine from your Web browser.

A. True
B. False

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 18: Quality Center prompts you to install _______ if it is not already installed on your
machine.

A. Microsoft Java 2.0

B. Microsoft Visio 13.0
C. Microsoft Visual studio 2.0
D: Microsoft .NET Framework 2.0

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 19: Quality Center has the following modules, which are accessible from the sidebar:
A. Releases, Requirements, Test Plan, Test Lab, Defects, Analysis
B. Releases, Requirements, Test Plan, Test Lab, Defects, Business Components
C. Releases, Requirements, Test Plan, Test Lab, Defects, Analysis
D: Releases, Requirements, Test Plan, Test Lab, Defects

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 20: When you customize your project, you can instruct Quality Center to preserve a log
of values for the system and user fields in your Requirement, Test, Test Set, Test
Instance, and Defect entities.

A. True
B. False
Q. 21: The ________ can send messages to users connected to Quality Center projects

A. Site administer
B. Site Controller
C. Site Analyser
D: Site administrator
Q. 22: Quality Center organizes and displays data in ________

A. Grids
B. Trees
C. Folders
D: Both A & B

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 23: You can no longer customize data by specifying the order in which columns
appear, and by changing column size.

A. True
B. False

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 24: You can filter Quality Center data to display only those records that meet the
criteria that you define.
A. True
B. False

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 25: When defining a filter, you can also include a cross filter. This is an advanced
________ on an associated item such as requirements, tests, test sets, or defects.

A. Secondary filter
B. Primary filter
C. Cross filter
D: Second filter

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 26: By default, records appear in Quality Center according to the ________

A. Increasing order
B. Decreasing order
C. Order in which they were added.
D: Order in which they were deleted.

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 27: You cannot copy and paste the filter, sort, and group by settings to and from the
Clipboard.

A. True
B. False

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 28: You can use text search to search for records in predefined fields of the ________

A. Requirements, Test Plan, and Defects modules.

B. Releases, Test Plan, and Defects modules.
C. Requirements and Defects modules.
D: Requirements, Execute Tests, and Defects modules.
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 29: If you have defined filter conditions for a module, you can restrict the search to the
filtered records, or you can search all records in the module

A. True
B. False

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 30: Text search is only available if it has been enabled for the project.

A. True
B. False
Q. 31: QA Manager changes a requirement

from a ___________ status to a Reviewed status once it is approved.

A. Released
B. Tested
C. Not reviewed
D. None of the above

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 32: You can also import requirements to your Quality Center project from Microsoft
Word, Excel, or other third-party requirement management tools. To import requirements,
you must first install the appropriate _____________

A. HP Third Party add-in.

B. HP Quality Center add-in.
C. HP Quality Center
D. HP Quality Center License

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 33: The Requirements Grid view enables you to display requirements in a _________
view.

A. Flat
B. Hierarchical
C. Flat-hierarchical
D. Flat non-hierarchical

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 34: The _________ view enables you to analyze the breakdown of child requirements
according to test coverage status.

A. Coverage Analysis
B. Coverage Requirements
C. Coverage
D. Coverage Tests

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 35: You can access the Requirements menu bar from the Requirements module by
pressing the shortcut key ___________.

A. F1
B. F9
C. Ctrl + R
D. Alt + R

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 36: You can use the ____________to restrict and dynamically change the fields and
values in the Requirements module.

A. Script Edit
B. Scriptor Editor
C. Script Editor
D. Script Editing

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 37: The Requirements module enables you to define and manage your _________

A. Requirements
B. All requirements
C. Some requirements
D. Tedious requirements

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

38: You can rename or delete Requirements root folder.

A. True
B. False

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 39: You can search for a particular requirement in the requirements tree or in the
requirements grid using the _________ command.

A. Search
B. Find
C. Search All
D. Find All

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 40: You can replace field values in the requirements tree or in the requirements grid
using the ___________command.

A. Replace
B. Replace All
C. Find & Replace
D. Replace & Find
Q. 41: To set a Quick Test Professional test as a template test, right-click the test in the test plan tree, and
choose _________

A. Template Test
B. Template Tree
C. Template Plan
D. Template

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 42: You can change the label of any of the test detail fields.

A. True
B. False

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 43: A question mark icon in the test plan tree indicates that the QuickTest Professional
add-in is _________ on your machine.

A. Not activated
B. Not installed
C. Not enabled
D. Not set
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 44: A ________ link is included in the e-mail, enabling the recipient to go directly to the
test.

A. Link To Test
B. Move To Test
C. Go To Test
D. Test

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 45: In the Test Plan module, you create ________ by selecting requirements to link to a
test.

A. RTM
B. Requirements coverage
C. Test coverage
D. SRS

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 46: Alternatively, in the Requirements module, you create _______ by selecting tests to
link to a requirement.

A. RTM
B. Requirements coverage
C. Test coverage
D. SRS

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 47: A test can cover more than one requirement, and a requirement can be covered by
only one test.

A. True
B. False

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 48: You can also create coverage between test instances and requirements. You can
enable this feature using the __________ parameter in Site Administration
A. ALLOW_REQ_COVERAGE_BY_TEST_INSTANCE
B. ALLOW_TEST_COVERAGE_BY_REQ_INSTANCE
C. ALLOW_R_COVERAGE_BY_T_INSTANCE
D. None of above

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 49: Requirements coverage is created automatically when you convert a requirement to

a test. Therefore, even if you have not yet added requirements coverage, it may already
exist.

A. True
B. False

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 50: You can also define requirements coverage by dragging a requirement in the
requirements tree to the coverage grid. The requirement is added to the coverage grid
without its child requirements.

A. True
B. False
Q. 51: Each requirement type with risk-based quality management enabled supports either.

A. Risk analysis or risk assessment

B. Risk breakdown or risk assessment
C. Risk breakdown or risk review
D. Risk analysis or risk evaluation

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 52: Performing a risk-based quality management analysis for an analysis requirement

involves the following steps

A. Determine Risk groups, Define Testing Policy Settings, Finalize Testing Policy, Analyze
Testing Strategy
B. Determine Risk Categories, Define Testing guidelines Settings, Finalize Testing Policy,
Analyze Testing Strategy
C. Determine Risk Categories, Define Testing Policy Settings, Finalize Testing guidelines,
Analyze Testing Strategy
D. Determine Risk Categories, Define Testing Policy Settings, Finalize Testing Policy, Analyze
Testing Strategy

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 53: A __________ requirement is a requirement belonging to a type that represents
higher levels in the requirements tree hierarchy, such as the Folder type.

A. Analysis
B. Assessment
C. Policy
D. Test

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 54: A _________ requirement is a requirement belonging to a type that represents

requirements that are children of analysis requirements and at a lower level in the
requirements tree hierarchy.

A. Analysis
B. Assessment
C. Policy
D. Test

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 55: For each assessment requirement under the analysis requirement, you determine
the Risk Category. The Risk Category is composed of two factors.

A. Business Probability and Failure Criticality

B. Business Vitality and Failure Probability
C. Business Criticality and Failure Probability
D. Business Criticality and Failure Possibility

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 56: The Business Criticality of a requirement has three possible values:

A. Critical, Important, Nice to Have

B. Critical, Importance, Nice to Have
C. Critical, Important, Nice to Had
D. None of these

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 57: The Failure Probability of a requirement has three possible values:

A. High, Standard, Low

B. High, Average, Low
C. High, Medium, Low
D. None of these

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 58: Quality Center defines four Testing Levels.

A. Full, Partial, Basic, and Low

B. Full, Partial, Basic, and None
C. Full, Half, Basic, and None
D. Full, Partial, Critical, and None

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 59: The Business Criticality of a requirement is a measure of how likely a test on the
requirement is to fail, based on the technical complexity of the requirements
implementation, without consideration of the requirements impact on the business.

A. True
B. False

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 60: The Failure Probability of a requirement is a measure of how important the

requirement is to your business

A. True
B. False
Q. 61: You can add a new defect to a Quality Center project from any module at any stage of the testing process.

A. True
B. False

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 62: There are two methods you can use to conduct a search for similar/related defects:

A. Find parallel Defects & Find parallel Text.

B. Find related Defects & Find related Text.
C. Find Similar Defects & Find Similar Text.
D. Find all Defects & Find all Text.
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 63: You can update defects directly in the _____ or in the ______ dialog box.

A. Defects Grid
B. Defects Detail
C. Defects Module
D. Both A & B
E: Both B & C

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 64: You can only see changes made to a defect for selected fields predefined by the
project administrator in Project Customization.

A. True
B. False

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 65: By default, Quality Center sends e-mail in HTML format. To send e-mail as plain text
instead, edit the parameter in the Site Configuration tab in Site Administration

A. M_FORMAT
B. MAIL_FORMAT_ID
C. MAIL_FORM
D. MAIL_FORMAT

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 66: You can link a defect to the run steps and other defects.

A. True
B. False

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 67: You can only remove direct links from the Linked Defects grid. Indirect links are
removed automatically when the direct links are removed.
A. True
B. False

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 68: Quality Center reports can be generated from the

A. Requirements,Test Plan,Test Lab,Defects modules.

B. Requirements,Test Plan,Defects modules.
C. Requirements & Test Plan modules.
D. Requirements,Test Plan,Test Lab modules.

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 69: You can export grid data as a text file, Microsoft Excel spreadsheet, Microsoft Word
document, or HTML document. You export data from the

A. Requirements Grid & Defects Grid.

B. Requirements Grid,Execution Grid, or Defects Grid.
C. Requirements Grid, Test Grid, Execution Grid, or Defects Grid.
D. Requirements Grid, Test Grid, Execution Grid.

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 70: How many Reports (Not Sub-Reports: are available in Requirements module.

A. 5
B. 6
C. 7
D. 4
Q. 71: Using Quality Center Test Lab module, executing tests also consists of __________

A. Run Tests Automatically

B. Run Tests Manually
C. Both A and B
D. None of above

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 72: You can access the Test Lab menu bar from the Test Lab module by pressing the
shortcut key ______

A. F6
B. F7
C. F8
D. F9

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 73: The Test Lab module includes the following toolbars:

A. Test Set and Select Tests

B. Test Select and Set Tests
C. Set Test and Tests Select
D. None of above

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 74: In the Test Lab Module, in Execution Grid Columns, the column Exec Date means

A. The date on which the test was first executed.

B. The date on which the test was last executed
C. The date on which the test was executed
D. The date on which the test will be executed in future

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 75: You can add user-defined fields and change the label of any of the fields in the
Execution Grid.

A. True
B. False

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 76: You can organize test execution by creating _______

A. Test modules
B. Test flows
C. Test beds
D. Test sets

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 77: While creating test sets, after you design tests in the Test Plan module, you create
a _______

A. Test sets tree

B. Test sets flow
C. Test sets grid
D. Test sets rows

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 78: By default, the uppermost level in a test sets tree is the ________

A. Level 0 folder
B. Top folder
C. Highest level folder
D. Root folder

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 79: You can also use the _________ in the Test Instance Properties dialog box
(Changing the Default Failure Rules for Specific Tests) to set the on failure rules for a test
in a test set.

A. Run Events view

B. Run Events Grid
C. Run Events menu
D. Run Eventsmodule

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 80: You can also drag the test sets between lists.

A. True
B. False
Q. 81: You can define a logo for the project document, and save the image so that it is
available for other users in the current

project. If you do not select an image, the Document Generator uses the Mercury logo in the project document.

A. True
B. False

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 82: While specifying Requirements module data (Generating Project Documents)

Microsoft Word is limited to _________ header levels in the table of contents.

A. Seven
B. Eight
C. Nine
D. Ten

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 83: You use the _________ pages to specify the information from the test plan tree view
of the Test Plan module that should appear in the project document.

A. Subject Tree
B. Subject Tests
C. Subject plans
D. Both A & B

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 84: You use the _________ pages to specify the information from the Test Lab module
that should appear in the project document.

A. Tests Lab, Test Set, Tests, and Run

B. Test Labs, Test Sets, Tests, and Runs
C. Test Lab, Test Gets, Tests, and Runs
D. Test Lab, Test Sets, Tests, and Runs

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 85: You can generate a _________ that enables you to quickly see how the document
will look, without all the detail included.

A. View project document

B. Preview project document
C. Pre project document
D. None
<
<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 86: You can generate Excel reports that enable you to export Quality Center data to
Microsoft Excel and analyze the data from within Excel.

A. True
B. False

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 87: You can export Quality Center data to Microsoft Excel. You cannot create a report
with parameters.

A. True
B. False

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 88: Most of the Excel Reports functionality is unavailable if you belong to a user group
that has the necessary permissions.

A. True
B. False

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 89: After you have added a report to the Excel Reports tree, you must define which
project data you want to include in the report. You define this data by creating _______ to
extract the data.

A. Test Queries
B. Lotus Queries
C. Excel Macros
D. SQL queries

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 90: To view the database type used for your project database, click the ________
button.
A. Database in use
B. Database Type
C. Get Database
D. Database version
Q. 91: The Requirements ________ view enables you to display requirements in a flat
non-hierarchical view. Each line in the ________ displays a separate requirement.

A. File, file
B. Hierarchical, hierarchy
C. Grid, Grid
D. Both B & C

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 92: The _________ Analysis view enables you to analyze the breakdown of child
requirements according to test __________ Status.

A. Plan
B. Requirement
C. Coverage
D. Task

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 93: You can access the Requirements menu bar from the Requirements module by
pressing the shortcut key ________

A. F6
B. F7
C. F8
D. F9

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 94: The Requirement module field Direct Cover Status means

A. The current status of the requirement

B. The previous status of the requirement
C. The coming status of the requirement
D. The fixed status of the requirement

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 95: You can add user-defined fields and change the label of any of the fields in the
Requirements module.

A. True
B. False

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 96: You start a requirements tree by adding requirements to the Requirements root
folder.

A. True
B. False

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 97: You can add, view, and edit Microsoft Word rich text from within Quality Center,
without the need to edit the text in Word.

A. True
B. False

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 98: You cannot update your requirements directly in the requirements tree or grid, or in
the Requirement Details dialog box.

A. True
B. False

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 99: You can search for a particular requirement in the requirements tree or in the
requirements grid using the _________ command.

A. Search
B. Find
C. Look
D. Get

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 100: You can send e-mail about a requirement to other users in your Quality Center
project

A. True
B. False
Q. 101: You can view a listof alerts for a _____________ entity.

A. A test in the test plan tree or Test Grid

B. A test instance in the Execution Grid
C. None of above
D. Both A. & B.

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 102: A red flag indicates that the alert is _____________

A. New
B. Old
C. Follow up
D. Urgent

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 103: A gray flag indicates that the alert __________.

A. New
B. has already been read
C. Follow up
D. Urgent

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 104: A follow up flag is specific to your user login name. Anyone else viewing the
record does not see your follow up alert.

A. True
B. False

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 105: Quality Center assigns the image a unique file name with a _______ Extension.

A. .jpeg
B. .gif
C. .doc
D. .jpg

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 106: A __________ is a view of a Quality Center window with the settings you apply to
it.

A. Personal View
B. My view
C. Favorite View
D. My QC View

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 107: You save favorite views in ______

A. Favorite folder
B. Personal folder
C. Both A & B
D. Public & Private folder

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 108: You can define the number of views displayed on the menu by setting the
________ parameter in the Site Configuration tab in Site Administration.

A. favorites
B. favorites_Depth
C. favorites_view
D. favorites_Path
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 109: The requirements specification workflow consists of the following:

A. Define Testing Scope, Create Requirements, Detail Requirements, Assign to Releases,

Analyze Requirements
B. Define Testing Scope, Detail Requirements, Create Requirements, Assign to Releases,
Analyze Requirements
C. Define Testing Scope, Create Requirements, Detail Requirements, Analyze Requirements,
Assign to Releases
D. Define Testing Scope, Create Requirements, Analyze Requirements, Detail Requirements,
Assign to Releases

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 110: Requirement topics are recorded in the Requirements module by creating a

A. Requirements cycle
B. Requirements tree
C. Requirements plan
D. Requirements module

Q. 111: You cannot copy arequirement within the same project or between projects.

A. True
B. False

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 112: Test coverage, defect linkage, and risk-based quality management data for the
requirement are not copied.

A. True
B. False

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 113: Methods you can use to create tests from requirements:

A. Convert Requirements to Tests

B. Generate a Test from Requirements.
C. Get a test from a requirement
D. Both A & B
E: Both B & C

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 114: Using the Requirements Traceability tab in the Requirement Details view, you can
add traceability links to and from a selected requirement. _______ Links indicate
requirements that affect a selected requirement. _________ Links indicate requirements
that are affected by a selected requirement.

A. Trace from, Trace to

B. Trace to, Trace from
C. Trace from select, Trace to select
D. Trace to select, Trace from select

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 115: When a requirement changes, Quality Center alerts the affected requirements. The
alerts can be seen by all users.

A. True
B. False

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 116: You can display traceability relationships that exist between requirements in the
________ tab. This tab contains the Trace From and Trace To grids.

A. Traceability
B. Relationships
C. Req-traceability
D. Traceability-Req

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 117: The __________ feature enables you to calculate at which level to test each
requirement, based on the nature of the requirement and the resources you have
available.
A. Level-based quality management
B. Calculate-based quality management
C. Risk-based quality management
D. None of above

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 118: You can assign or calculate the Risk Category of an assessment requirement. The
Risk Category is composed of its __________

A. Business Criticality & Failure Probability

B. Business Probability & Failure Criticality
C. Priority & Severity
D. None of above

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 119: Quality Center defines four Testing Levels:

A. First, second, third, and fourth

B. Full, Partial, Basic, and None
C. Full, Partial, Basic, and moderate
D. Partial, Basic, moderate and Advanced

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 120: The __________ link displays the requirements for which you did not determine a
Risk Category or exclude explicitly from the analysis.

A. Missing risk assessment

B. Miss assessment
C. Missing assessment
D. Exclude assessment

Q. 121: By default, Quality Center sends e-mail in HTML format. To send e-mail as plain text instead, edit the
_________ parameter in the Site Configuration tab in Site Administration.

A. EMAIL_FORMAT
B. EMAIL_FORM
C. MAIL_FORMAT
D. QC_MAIL_FORMAT

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 122: You can copy a requirement within the same project or between projects. Which of
the below items are copied at the time of copying a requirement.

A. Test coverage.
B. Defect linkage.
C. Risk-based quality management data
D. All of above
E: None of above

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 123: You can also move a requirement to a new location in the requirements tree by
dragging it.

A. True
B. False

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 124: You can delete a requirement from the Requirements module. Deleting a
requirement does not delete its child requirements, tests coverage, requirement
traceability links, and defects linkage.

A.True
B. False

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 125: There are two methods you can use to create tests from requirements:

A. Convert Requirements to Tests & Generate a Test from Requirements

B. Convert Requirements to Tests & Convert a Test from Requirements
C. Convert Requirements to Tests & Generate a Requirement from Tests
D. Convert a Test from Requirements & Generate Requirements to Tests

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 126: When analyzing the impact of a change proposed in a specific requirement, the
traceability links indicate the other ________ that the change might affect.

A. Tests
B. Requirements
C. Tests & requirements
D. None

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 127: The ______ links indicate requirements that affect a selected requirement _______
links indicate requirements that are affected by a selected requirement.

A. Trace from, Trace to

B. Trace to, Trace from
C. From trace, To trace
D. None of above

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 128: When a requirement changes, Quality Center alerts the affected requirements. The
alerts can be seen by______

A. Author of the requirement

B. Users authorized by the Author of the requirement
C. All users
D. Administrator

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 129: while Defining Traceability Relationships, You cannot add a requirement

traceability link by dragging a requirement from the requirements tree to the appropriate
grid.

A. True
B. False

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 130: While viewing Traceability Impact, the Impact Analysis tab helps you understand
the many associations and dependencies that exist between the ______ by displaying
them in a hierarchical tree structure.

A. Tests
B. Requirements
C. Both
D. None
Q. 131: The requirements_________ is a graphical representation of your requirements specification,
displaying the hierarchical relationship between different requirements.
A. Graph
B. Plan
C. Path
D. Tree

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 132: For each requirement topic, a QA tester creates a list of __________ in the
requirements tree.

A. Detailed requirements
B. Detailed specifications
C. Detailed plans
D. Detailed sub-requirements

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 133: Each requirement in the tree is described in detail and cannot include any relevant
attachments.

A. True
B. False

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 134: After defining your requirements, you can add traceability between the
requirements. When analyzing the impact of a change proposed in a specific requirement
_________ shows the other requirements that the change might affect.

A. Equality
B. Link-ability
C. Traceability
D. Cross-links

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 135: QA managers assign the requirements to releases and cycles in the releases tree
in the Releases module.
A. True
B. False

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 136: The assigned requirements are then used as a basis for the test plan in the Test
Plan module. The tests you create during the test plan phase are then linked to these
requirements to create _______

A. Linkages
B. Linked-requirements
C. Requirements plan
D. Coverage

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 137: QA managers review the requirements, they change a requirement from a Not
Reviewed status to a _______ Status once it is approved.

A. Passed
B. Reviewed
C. Partially reviewed
D. Both B & C

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 138: You can also import requirements to your Quality Center project from ________

A. Microsoft Word
B. Excel
C. Other third-party requirement management tools
D. All of above

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 139: In the Requirements Tree view, Indicator columns indicates that the specified
requirement has
A. Attachments, linked defects, alerts, and follow up flags
B. Attachments, linked defects, alerts
C. Attachments, linked defects and follow up flags
D. Linked defects, alerts, and follow up flags

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 140: To find a specific requirement by ReqID in the Requirements Tree view, choose
__________ and enter the requirement ID.

A. Requirements > Find Requirement

B. Requirements > Go to Requirement
C. Requirements > Get Requirement
D. Requirements > Display Requirement
Q. 141: During Requirement Risks calculation, the ________ displays the requirements for which you did not
determine a Risk Category or exclude explicitly from the analysis

A. Missing assessment link

B. Missing assessment field
C. Missing assessment value
D. Missing assessment relation

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 142: A good test plan enables you to assess the quality of your application ________ in
the testing process.

A. At the beginning
B. At the end
C. At the point
D. At the middle

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 143: Which of the item is not a part of "Developing a test plan" in QC.

A. Design Test Steps

B. Design Tests
C. Automate Tests
D. Define Testing Policy Settings

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 144: You can access the Test Plan menu bar from the Test Plan module by pressing the
shortcut key ________

A. F7
B. F9
C. F12
D. F11

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 145: To find a specific test by Test ID in the Test Grid, choose ________ and enter the
test ID

A. Test > Go to Test

B. Test > find Test
C. Test > search Test
D. Test > link Test

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 146: In relation to a test plan module, You can add user-defined fields and change the
label of any of the fields in the Test Grid

A. True,
B. False

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 147: You can use the ________ to restrict and dynamically change the fields and values
in the Test Grid.

A. Text editor
B. Script editor
C. Scriptor editor
D. Scripts editor

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 148: The typical application is too large to test as a whole. The Test Plan module
enables you to divide your application according to ________

A. Functionality
B. Requirements
C. Tst plans
D. Test modules
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 149: During the testing process, you may need to modify your test plan. You can
update the test plan tree ________

A. At the beginning
B. At the end
C. At any time
D. In the middle

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 150: Developing and editing a test plan tree requires appropriate user ________

A. IDs
B. Requirements
C. Permissions
D. Passwords
Q. 151: You beginthe application testing process by defining a releases tree in the ________

A. Requirements module
B. Releases module
C. Plan Tests module
D. Either B or C

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 152: Releases tree enables the modeling of upcoming releases within a hierarchical
tree structure.

A. True
B. False

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 153: A release represents a _________ in one or more applications that willbe available
for distribution at the same time.

A. Group of releases
B. Group of changes
C. Group of defects
D. Group of requests

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 154: After defining the release, a QA manager defines _________ A _________ is a set
of Development and quality assurance efforts performed to achieve a common goal based
on the release timeline.

A. Cycles, cycle
B. Tries, Try
C. Priorities, Priority
D. Files, File

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 155: After defining the releases tree, the QA manager defines and reviews the
_________ in the Requirements module and assigns them to releases andcycles.

A. Plans
B. Groups of plans
C. Upcoming modules
D. Requirements

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 156: After the QA manager assigns requirements, the QA team leader assigns each
________ folder in the Test Lab module to a cycle.

A. Test sets
B. Test set
C. Tests set
D. Testing set

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 157: A __________ is a group of testinstances in a Quality Center project designed to

achieve specific test goals.
A. Test sets
B. Test set
C. Tests set
D. Testing set

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 158: A defect can be submitted to a Quality Center project from any module atany stage
of the testing process.

A. True
B. False

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 159: While reviewing and deciding which new defects need to be fixed, the QAmanager
assigns them to the appropriate __________

A. Release and cycle

B. Cycle and release
C. Defect and cycle
D. Cycle and defect

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 160: The QA manager cannot track the progress of the testing process in real time by
analyzing the releases tree and ensuring that it matches the release goals.

A. True
B. False
Q. 161: Test management with Quality Center involves _______ Phases.

A. Four
B. Five
C. Six
D. Seven

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 162: The phases of Test management with Quality Center in order are:

A. Specify Releases, Specify Requirements, Plan Tests, Execute Tests, Track Defects
B. Specify Requirements, Specify Releases, Plan Tests, Execute Tests, Track Defects
C. Specify Requirements, Plan Tests, Specify Releases, Execute Tests, Track Defects
D. Specify Releases, Specify Requirements, Plan Tests, Track Defects, Execute Tests

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 163: By creating a list of authorized users and assigning each user a password and
user group, you control the kinds of additions and modifications each user makes to the
project.

A. True
B. False

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 164: The _______ determines the privileges that the user has within a project.

A. User ID
B. User Name
C. User group
D. User SID

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 165: You can import data from Word or Excel to a Quality Center project.

A. True
B. False

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 166: Quality Center 9.2 prompts you to install Microsoft .NET _______ if it is not already
installed on your machine.

A. Framework 2.0
B. Framework 1.0
C. Framework 3.0
D. Framework 4.0

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 167: When you connect to a project, the Quality Center main window opens and
displays the module in which you were last working.
A. True
B. False

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 168: The can change and override a user _______s properties or password.

A. Global Administrator
B. Site Administrator
C. Administrator
D. QC Administrator

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 169: You can filter Quality Center data to display only those records that meet the
criteria that you define. How many filters can you define?

A. Single item as a filter

B. Two items as a filter
C. Multiple items as filter
D. Five items as filter

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 170: In the test plan tree, you can define the _______ filter for associated test sets as
”Open”. This ensures that only tests that belong to an open test set are displayed.

A. Double
B. Twice
C. Cross
D. Multiple
Q. 171: You can view the test results from the ___________

A. Test Instance dialog box.

B. Test Properties dialog box
C. Test Instance Properties dialog box
D. None

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 172: The Linked Defects view on the sidebar of Test Instance Properties dialog box
displays:
A. Linked defects and requirements coverage for a test instance
B. Only linked defects for a test instance
C. Linked defects and history for a test instance
D. Linked defects and test results for a test instance

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 173: Quality Center enables you to compare the results of a test run with the results of
previous runs.

A. True
B. False

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 174: In the Test Instance Properties dialog box, You can view and edit the On Failure
rules for an automated test instance using the __________ view.

A. Automated
B. Details
C. Run Events
D. Both A & C

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 175: You track defects in the Quality Center Defects module, which you open by
clicking the ________ button on the sidebar.

A. Track Defects
B. Open Defects
C. Defects
D. Log Defects

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 176: To find a specific defect by Defect ID in the Defects Grid, choose _________

A. Defects > Defect

B. Defects > Move To Defect
C. Defects > Set Defect
D. Defects > Go To Defect

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 177: Each line in the Defects Grid displays a separate defect record.

A. True
B. False

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 178: You cannot add user-defined fields and change the label of any of the fields in the
Defects Grid.

A. True
B. False

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 179: You can use the _________ to restrict and dynamically change the fields and
values in the Defects Grid.

A. Scripting Editor
B. Notepad Editor
C. QC Editor
D. Script Editor

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 180: You can link defects to other Quality Center entities, such as requirements, tests
and other defects.

A. True
B. False
Q. 181: Test coverage is created automatically when you generate a requirement from a test.

A. True
B. False
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 182: In the Requirements module, you can use the _________ view to examine the
status of your requirements.

A. Coverage Analysis
B. Coverage Breakdown
C. Requirements Status
D. Coverage Status

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 183: By default, coverage is available only for the following requirement types:

A. Functional, Testing, and Defined.

B. Functional, Testing, and Undefined.
C. Functional, System, and Undefined.
D. Functional, Review, and Undefined.

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 184: You can create design steps for __________

A. Manual tests
B. Automated tests
C. SRS
D. Both A and B

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 185: To increase the flexibility and power of a test, you can add ________ to the called
test and to the tests that call it.

A. Input Values
B. Output Values
C. Parameters
D. None of above

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 186: You do not need to set a test as a template test to be able to call it or to add
parameters. Marking a test as a template test is used for filtering purposes only.

A. True
B. False
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 187: If you do not assign values to parameters when creating a test call, you are
prompted to do so when you call this test from another test, when you add your test to a
test set, or when you run your test.

A. True
B. False

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 188: You can navigate between steps in the Design Step Editor using shortcut keys.
Use _________ to access the first step.

A. ALT+LEFT
B. ALT+RIGHT
C. ALT+HOME
D. ALT+ UP

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 189: While generating automated test scripts, what does WR-AUTOMATED automated
test type means.

A. A test that is created by Winrunner

B. A test that is executed by Winrunner
C. A test that is deleted by Winrunner
D. None of above

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 190: To run a system test, you must install the System Execute Remote Agent Add-in
and the HP Quality Center Connectivity Add-in on the machine where the test is to be run.

A. True
B. False
Q. 191: Quality Center enables you to generate graphs from the __________.

A. Requirements module
B. Test Plan module
C. Test Lab module
D. Defects module
E: Both A & C
F: All of Above

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 192: Requirements - Summary Graph

A. Shows how many requirements accumulated in a Quality Center project at specific points
during a period of time.
B. Shows the history of changes to specific requirement fields in a Quality Center project
C. Shows how many requirements are currently in a Quality Center project.
D. Shows how many tests are currently in a Quality Center project.

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 193: By default, the graph appears as a

A. Pie chart,
B. Bar chart
C. Pareto chart
D. Both A & B

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 194: You can also use the Graph Wizard to guide you through the graph creation
process.

A. True
B. False

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 195: You can determine how information appears in the graph using the _________

A. Graph toolbar.
B. Graph settings
C. Graph menu
D. Both A & C

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 196: The ________ graphs enable you to create and display a dynamic graphical
representation of data related to test plans and test sets.

A. Live Value
B. Live Analysis
C. Live Analytics
D. Both A & C

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 197: You use Live Analysis graphs to view data that relates to a _________ folder.

A. Test subject
B. Test set
C. Test category
D. Both A & B

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 198: The Live Analysis graphs that you create are unique for your user login.

A. True
B. False

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 199: The Quality Center Document Generator enables you to create a Microsoft Word
document containing a projects requirements, planning, test list, test set folders, and
defect tracking data.

A. True
B. False
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 200: The Document Generator enables you to create a hard copy of the data contained
in a Quality Center project.

A. True
B. False
Q. 201: In theProgress tab, in the Coverage Progress graph, the Planned coverage curve below the Assigned
requirements curve indicates the percentage of requirements that are_______ throughout the release.

A. Run
B. Covered
C. Passed
D. Assigned

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 202: The _________ helps you draw conclusions quickly and see the number of defects
submitted over the course of a release or cycle.

A. Details tab
B. Attachments tab
C. Progress tab
D. Quality tab

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 203: The defects are categorized by _______ in terms of how they impact system
operation.

A. Priority
B. Severity

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 204: You can move a release folder or a release to a different location in the releases
tree.

A. True
B. False

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 205: The Releases root folder can also be moved.

A. True
B. False

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 206: You can create a duplicate of a cycle within the same release.

A. True
B. False

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 207: Deleting a release folder, release, or cycle, does not unassigns the associated
requirements, test set folders, and defects.

A. True
B. False

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 208: You can also move a release folder or a release to a new location in the releases
tree by dragging it.

A. True
B. False

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 209: After you define a releases tree in the Releases module, you continue the
application testing process by specifying ________
A. Requirements
B. Releases
C. Plan Tests
D. Either B or A

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 210: Requirement topics are recorded in the Requirements module by creating a

requirements _________

A. Graph
B. Tree
C. Path
D. Plan
Q. 211: By default, records appear in Quality Center in the

A. Increasing Order
B. Decreasing Order
C. Order in which they were added
D. None of these

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 212: You can save filter and sort information as a favorite view and then load it as
needed.

A. True
B. False

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 213: You can copy and paste the filter, sort, and group by settings to another project.

A. True
B. False

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 214: You can also share the settings (filter, sort, and group by settings: with another
user by pasting them to an e-mail or a text file.

A. True
B. False
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 215: When you use text search, the search ignores

A. Articles (a, an, the)

B. Coordinate conjunctions (and, but, for, nor, or)
C. Boolean operators (and, or, not, if, or, then)
D. All of above

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 216: You can export the data in a grid as a

A. Text files,
B. Microsoft Excel worksheet,
C. Microsoft Word document
D. HTML document.
E. All of above

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 217: The __________. alerting functions available in Quality Center

A. Three
B. Four
C. Two
D. Five

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 218: The alerting functions in Quality Center are:

A. Automatic notification alerts, Follow up alerts

B. Email alerts, Automatic notification alerts, Follow up alerts
C. Defect alerts, Email alerts, Automatic notification alerts, Follow up alerts
D. Final alerts, Email alerts, Automatic notification alerts, Follow up alerts

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 219: You can create traceability links between __________ in the Requirements module.

A. Requirements
B. Test Cases
C. Tests
D. Defects
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 220: You can associate a test instance with a defect. This is performed by creating
__________in the Test Plan module, or by adding a defect during a manual test run.

A. Linked Tests
B. Linked Defects
C. Linked Errors
D. Linked Data
Q. 221: The Execution Flow tab enables you to watch the execution process as it happens and to control
the way your tests are executed.

A. True
B. False

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 222: In the Execution Flow, a dashed line -- -- -> arrow indicates that the test

A. Is to be executed after the previous test, with no conditions.

B. Is to be executed only if the previous test has status Finished
C. Is to be executed only if the previous test has status Passed
D. None

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 223: You can delete a _______ execution condition(s) connected to a test.

A. Single
B. Two
C. Three
D. All

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 224: When we Run a test, in the Manual Test Run window, by default which option is
selected
A. Manual Runner (Run according to the order in the Execute GriD.
B. Manual Runner (Run according to the order in then Executing GriD.
C. Manual Runner (Run according to the order in the Execution GriD.
D. Manual Runner (Run according to the order in the Execution GrinD.

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 225: You can assign multiple values to a parameter during a test run.

A. True
B. False

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 226: If a manual test run was paused during execution, you can continue the run at a
later stage.

A. True
B. False

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 227: You can run tests automatically on __________

A. Your machine
B. Remote Hosts
C. Both A & B
D. None

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 228: To run several test sets concurrently on multiple remote hosts, open a new
Automatic Runner dialog box instance for each test set.

A. Auto Runner
B. Automate Runner
C. Automatic Runner
D. Manual Runner

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 229: When you run QuickTest Professional tests from the Test Lab module, they are
automatically run in Fast mode. They cannot be run in Normal mode.

A. True
B. False

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 230: You can only view the Execution Log even if you did not select Enable Log in the
Automatic Runner dialog box before you executed the test.

A. True
B. False

Q. 231: What web client can be used with Quality Center 9.2?

A. Netscape
B. Safari
C. Firefox
D. Internet Explorer

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 232: Which term describes the main function of Quality Center?

A. Test cases
B. Repository
C. Load test
D. Defects

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 233: What database can be used with Quality Center 9.2? Select two.

A. Access
B. Sybase
C. Microsoft SQL Server
D. Paradox
E. Oracle

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 234: What HP functional testing tools integrate with Quality Center? (Select two.)
A. HP OpenView
B. HP WinRunner
C. HP QuickTest Professional
D. HP LoadRunner
E. HP Change Control Management

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 235: Which component provides an executive-level view of the entire quality process?

A. Quality Center Foundation

B. Business Process Insight
C. Service Test Component
D. Quality Center Dashboard

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 236: When designing test steps it is important to ensure that all aspects of the
application are tested. When writing test steps, what are two things that should be done to
ensure clear and accurate steps? (Select two.)

A. Specify all actual results

B. Use parameters in the step names
C. Specify pass and fail conditions for the step
D. Use the numbering system for the step names
E. Use consistent terminology throughout the test

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 237: Where can you link tests to requirements?

A. From the Test Lab module

B. From the Requirements module
C. On the test details page (Test Plan)
D. On the attachments page (Test Plan)

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 238: When a called test has parameters, when can you assign values to the
parameters?

A. Values are assigned from within the calling test

B. Values must be assigned when the test is executed
C. Values are assigned during test design or execution
D. Values must be assigned when the test is called, during test design

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 239: What are the steps, in the correct order, to convert a requirement to a test?

A. Make changes to the automatic conversion, select an automatic method

B. Select convert to test, select the destination path, convert to automated test
C. Select an automatic method, make changes to the automatic conversion, select the
destination subject path
D. Select the destination subject path, select an automatic method, make changes to the
automatic conversion

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 240: How is a test configured as a template test?

A. The test type chosen must be MANUAL-TEMPLATE

B. The first step in the test must be named template test
C. Right-click on the test name and choose Template Test
D. During test planning, mark the checkbox, under details, labeled template Test

Q. 241: What does the icon in the exhibit indicate in the Test Plan module, under the Test
Script tab?

A. There is a test script

B. There is not a test script
C. There is a manual test case
D. The test script has changed

Q. 242: While designing the test plan tree, you accidentally delete a folder that contained
some tests that you need. Can you recover the tests?

A. No, once a test is deleted, it is gone

B. Yes, the tests can be recovered from the Subject folder
C. Yes, the test can be recovered from the Unattached folder
D. No, only Project Managers have permission to recover deleted tests

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 243: When you define tests inside of Quality Center, it is important that the tests are
accurate and traceable. What are two other key pointers when defining tests? Select two.

A. Simple
B. Consistent
C. Repeatable
D. Convertible
E. Automation
F. Appropriate

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 244: What test types can be created in Quality Center? Select three

A. batch-test
B. vugen-test
C. lr-scenario
D. system-test
E. interface-test
F. wr-automated test

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 245: In order to reuse a test across other tests, must the reused test be a template test?
A. Yes, only template tests are reusable
B. No, the test must be a VAPI test to be reusable
C. Yes, template tests are reusable automated tests
D. No, tests do not need to be template tests to be reused

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 246: What does a live analysis graph illustrate in a visual overview?

A. All the tests in the Test Plan

B. All the cycles or releases the test is linked to
C. All the requirements linked to the specified test
D. All the tests in a specified folder in the Test Plan

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 247: How can you create a test plan tree?

A. Convert releases to tests

B. Define test folders and tests manually
C. Save automated tests in Quality Center
D. Define test names for each test needed

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 248: Can you change the values of a called test's parameters?

A. No, values are assigned at run time

B. Yes, if the called test is a template test
C. No, you must delete the called test and call it again
D. Yes, right-click and choose Called Test Parameters

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 249: When you generate an Excel report, why is it an advantage to use parameters?

A. Enables the report to be saved

B. Enables the user to name the report
C. Enables the report to be used across projects
D. Enables the report to be used for different purposes

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 250: Using the Excel Macro, what type of data can be imported into Quality Center?
(Select three.)

A. Defects data
B. Test set data
C. Test plan data
D. Releases data
E. Test Instance data
F. Requirements data
Q. 251: Once the Word macro is installed on your computer, what Quality Center toolbars
will Word display?

A. Test Plan, Requirements

and Export
B. Requirements, Defects and Common
C. Test Plan, Requirements and Defects
D. Test Plan, Requirements and Common

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 252: When a predefined report is saved, what is the file extension?

A. txt
B. xls
C. html
D. doc

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 253: Which modules in Quality Center provide predefined graph templates?

A. Requirements, Test Lab and Defects

B. Releases, Test Plan, Test Lab and Defects
C. Requirements, Test Plan, Test Lab and Defects
D. Releases, Requirements, Test Plan and Defects

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 254: How is data defined for use in an Excel report?

A. With an SQL query

B. With an XML query
C. With ETL data extraction
D. With a WebDataScraper

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 255: On the General page of the Excel Report Generator window, what name is
displayed, by default, in the designer field?

A. The project manager

B. The site administrator
C. The user currently logged in
D. The user who created the report

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 256: Which menu allows you to generate a predefined report?

A. Help
B. Tools
C. Analysis
D. Favorites

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 257: What elements can be linked directly to a requirement in the releases module?

A. A cycle
B. Release tree
C. Cycle details
D. A cycle progress

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 258: Which module, in Quality Center, starts the testing process?

A. Defects
B. Releases
C. Dashboard
D. Requirements

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 259: What details about a cycle can you define in the details tab? (Select two.)

A. Name
B. End date
C. Attachments
D. Release version
E. Linked test sets

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 260: What constitutes a release folder?

A. Cycles of the release

B. Test plan for the release
C. Releases of the application
D. Requirements for the release

Q. 261: Why do you create a release tree?

A. To define the framework of releases

B. To define the workflow for the project
C. To define the requirements hierarchy
D. To define the test plan for the release

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 262: How many buttons are available to create a Release Tree?

A. Two
B. Three
C. Four
D. Five

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 263: What types of attachments can be added to a cycle? (Select three.)

A. Snapshot
B. Test plans
C. Clipboard image
D. Release versions
E. System properties
F. Linked requirements

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 264: Which module allows you to view coverage by cycle?

A. Cycle
B. Releases
C. Test Plan
D. Requirements

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 265: What is the function of the New Release button?

A. Creates a release tree

B. Creates a cycle within a release
C. Creates a release within a release folder
D. Creates a new Release folder in the release tree

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 266: What is the foundation of the Releases module?

A. The release tree

B. The cycle versions
C. The release cycles
D. The release folders

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 267: What is an example of an indicator column in the Defect module?

A. Status
B. Priority
C. Attachments
D. Reproducible

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 268: Where can you find an audit trail of the changes made to a defect?

A. Audit tab in the Defect module

B. Status column in the defect grid
C. History tab in the Defect module
D. Summary column in the defect grid

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 269: How can you save a filter that you set in the Defect module?
A. Choose Defects>Save
B. Click the Favorites button
C. Click the Save Filter button
D. Choose Favorites>Add to Favorites

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 270: When defects are exported out of Quality Center, what type of file is created?

A. .xls
B. .doc
C. .mdb
D. .qcd

Q. 271: When should you use a private favorite view for defects?
A. Need one more
B. Use for private sessions of Quality Center
C. Use for data on which only you are working
D. Use for data on which your group is working

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 272: When you log a new defect, how is the Detected By field populated?

A. This field must be filled out as you log the defect

B. This field must be filled out after the defect is logged
C. This field is auto-populated with the user who is currently logged in
D. This field is auto-populated with the user who executed the linked test

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 273: Which button or menu will allow you to view additional fields in the Defects Grid?

A. View button
B. Select>View menu
C. Favorites>View menu
D. Select Columns button

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 274: How many defects can be associated with a requirement?

A. Any requirement can have one defect

B. Any requirement can have multiple defects
C. One for each parent requirement and child requirement
D. A parent requirement can be associated with multiple defects, but a child requirement can be
associated with one

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 275: What is tracked when a defect is assigned a status?

A. The defect's priority

B. The defect's severity
C. The defect's lifecycle
D. The users to whom the defect is assigned

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 276: How many views are available in the Defects module?

A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 277: What are some examples of entities that a defect can be associated?

A. Cycle, Release, Test Step, Defect

B. Release, Requirement, Test Set, Test Step
C. Requirement, Test Instance, Test Step, Defect
D. Requirement, Test Step, Test Run, Test Result

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 278: While running a manual test in the Manual Runner, you log a defect against a
specific step. Is that defect automatically linked to any other entities?

A. Yes, indirectly linked to the test instance

B. No, a defect can be linked to only one entity
C. No, all links to other entities must be done separately
D. Yes, directly to other defects linked to the test instance

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 279: From which module or modules can you log a defect?

A. Defect
B. Requirement and Defect
C. Requirement, Test Plan and Defect
D. Requirement, Test Plan, Test Lab and Defect

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 280: In the Defect module, what is a fixed column?

A. A column with a section list

B. A column with flexible values
C. A column that is non-scrolling
D. A column with a predetermined width

Q. 281: When searching for Similar Defects, what field or fields in each defect are searched?
A. Name and history
B. Name and description
C. Summary and history
D. Summary and description
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 282: Which statement best describes the requirements traceability feature?

A. Enables definition of a link between multiple requirements

B. Enables definition of a link between a requirement and a test
C. Enables definition of a link between a requirement and a cycle
D. Enables definition of a link between a requirement and a test set

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 283: When a requirement is assigned to a release, in which cycles is it tested?

A. All of the cycles

B. Only the first cycle
C. Only the last cycle
D. None of the cycles

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 284: What is the purpose of requirements traceability?

A. To view and establish Test coverage

B. To view cycles that are linked to the requirement
C. To view and establish linkage to other requirements
D. To view and establish what Releases are linked to the requirements

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 285: What are some characteristics of a useful Test Requirement? (Select two.)

A. Vague
B. General
C. Familiar
D. Precise
E. Bounded
F. Ambiguous

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 286: What does the requirements tree define?

A. Hierarchical relationships between requirements

B. The number of test plans needed for each requirement
C. Identify defects that are associated with each requirement
D. Which releases and/or cycles are linked to each requirement

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 287: What feature does Quality Center use to calculate the testing level for each
requirement? (Select two.)

A. Risk analysis
B. Impact analysis
C. Requirement type
D. Failure probability
E. Resource availability

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 288: What are two steps in risk-based testing? (Select two.)

A. Perform risk analysis

B. Establish testing time
C. Perform impact analysis
D. Establish failure probability
E. Establish development time
F. Establish the number of testers needed

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 289: If a child requirement is linked to a test, what else is automatically linked to the
test?

A. The Release Cycle

B. The Parent Requirement
C. The Functional Requirement
D. The other child requirements

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 290: What does the Direct Cover Status of a requirement indicate?

A. The type of parent requirement

B. The execution status of linked tests
C. The component of the application covered
D. Whether the requirement has any linked defects

Q. 291: What can you do under the RichContent tab in the Requirements module?

A. Add, view and edit RTF content

B. Add, view and edit MS Word content
C. Add, view and edit MS Excel
content
D. Add, view and edit MS Access content
E. Add, view and edit SQL statement content

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 292: What is the Coverage Analysis View used for in the Requirements module?

A. To identify which test sets are associated with the requirement

B. To identify and analyze the tests that are associated with the requirement
C. To identify which releases and cycles are associated with the requirement
D. To identify and analyze which defects are associated with the requirement

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 293: What are some examples of the default Quality Center requirement types? (Select
three.)

A. Child
B. Cycle
C. Parent
D. Testing
E. Business
F. Functional

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 294: What testing levels does Quality Center define for risk-based testing? (Select two.)

A. ALL
B. BASIC
C. NONE
D. UPPER
E. GROUP
F. FUNCTIONAL

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 295: What additional Quality Center modules may you have access to if installed and/or
licensed? Select all that apply.

A. Reports
B. Releases
C. Dashboard
D. Documents
E. Business components

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 296: What link do you click on to log on to Quality Center 9.2?

A. Add-Ins Page
B. Quality Center
C. Site Administrator
D. Authenticate User

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 297: What tools does Quality Center provide for performing test data analysis? (Select
two.)

A. Linking
B. Graphs
C. Reports
D. Tracking
E. Traceability

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 298: What can be accomplished using the Tools Menu of the Common Toolbar? (Select
two.)

A. Define a cycle
B. Log a new defect
C. Switch to another project
D. Open the Documentation Library
E. Display the Quality Center version

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 299: Quality Center 9.2 provides what type of repository for all testing assets?

A. Database
B. File system
C. Web-based
D. Open access

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 300: Where is the common toolbar located?

A. Lower-left part of the window

B. Upper-left part of the window
C. Upper-right part of the window
D. Lower-right part of the window

Q. 301: Which toolbar contains buttons for frequently used commands in the current
Quality Center module?

A. Module Toolbar
B. Standard Toolbar
C. Common Toolbar
D. Formatting
Toolbar

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 302: How do you make a context-specific shortcut menu appear?

A. Right click on an interface element

B. Double click on the interface element
C. Choose Shortcut from the Help menu
D. Choose Context Menu from the View menu

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 303: What HP testing tools does Quality Center integrate with? (Select two.)

A. WinRunner
B. Open View
C. Visual API-XP
D. Performance Center
E. Change Control Management
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 304: How many core modules are in Quality Center 9.2?

A. Three
B. Four
C. Five
D. Six

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 305: In the Execution Flow tab of the Test Lab module, what does a solid blue line
between two tests indicate?

A. The previous test must pass

B. The previous test must finish
C. The test has undefined parameters
D. The second test is called from within the first

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 306: When defining execution conditions in a test set, what completion status choice or
choices available?

A. Finish
B. If/then
C. Pass and fail
D. Pass and finish

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 307: What must the goal of a test set meet?

A. The goal of the test plan

B. The description of the test set
C. The description of the requirement
D. The goal of the associated cycle or cycles

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 308: Can a test set include both manual and automated tests?

A. No, a test set must be all manual tests

B. No, a test set must be all automated tests
C. Yes, however an automated test can not follow a manual test
D. Yes, automated and manual tests may be used in the same test set

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 309: When developing a test plan, what should the tester be careful about and plan for
between tests?

A. Execution time
B. Execution control
C. Automation timing
D. Data dependencies

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 310: How do you run an automated test concurrently on multiple remote hosts in a test
set?

A. Run the test locally

B. Select a host group for the local machine
C. Select multiple hosts for the automated test
D. Add multiple instances of the test to the test set

Q. 311: Quality Center provides the framework for test execution. What are the stages of
this framework?

A. Import requirements, import tests, run the tests

B. Link the tests to cycles, run the tests, log defects
C. Develop the test set tree, organize test sets, set test-set properties, run the tests
D. Convert the test plans to test
sets, set the hosts for automated scripts, run the tests

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 312: What are two elements of the Test Lab module? (Select two.)

A. Linked Cycles
B. Linked Defects
C. Execution Flow
D. Execution Results
E. Graph of Selected
F. Linked Requirements

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 313: What types of tests make up a test set?

A. Smoke and integration

B. Smoke and automated
C. Integration and manual
D. Manual and automated

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 314: In executing a test, what do you link to a test set?

A. A cycle
B. A defect
C. An LOB
D. A release

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 315: At what level is a main test set tree folder?

A. Root
B. Main
C. Subject
D. Unattached

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 316: When a test set folder is linked to a cycle, are all of the test sets in the folder
linked to that cycle?

A. No, only a test set can be linked to a cycle

B. No, a test set folder can only be linked to a release
C. Yes, all of the test sets in the folder will be linked to that cycle
D. Yes, all of the test sets in the folder will be linked to the cycle and all other cycles in that
release

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 317: What is a test set?

A. A folder of test results

B. A folder of testing cycles
C. A group of tests to achieve a goal
D. A group of tests assigned to a release

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 318: What choices are available in Test Set Properties if any test fails?

A. Rerun the test up to 5 times

B. Run the next Test Set, Do Nothing
C. Run cleanup test before each rerun of the test
D. Do Nothing, Stop the Test Run, Rerun the Test Set

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 319: While defining a test set, you want to notify your Project Manager if the permission
levels on the testing box are inadequate. What is the best way to accomplish this?

A. Select inadequate in the permissions field

B. Ensure that the correct alert rule is in effect
C. Check the appropriate checkbox in Test Set Properties>Notifications
D. Email test results to the Project Manager at the completion of the test set

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 320: When designing a test, which practice would you consider is most integral in
determining test success?

A. Write test steps in the active voice.

B. Verify the version of the application is working.
C. Validate that the fields indicated in the test exist.
D. Specify the pass and fail conditions and expected results.
Q. 321: In designing a test, where can you specify parameters. Select two.

A. Call to Test
B. Test Name
C. Step Name
D. Description
E. Expected Result

<<<<<< ===================

Q. 322: When converting requirements to tests, to what can a requirement be converted?

A. A Subject Folder, a Test or a Test Set

B. A Subject Folder, a Test or a Design Step
C. A Test, a Business Component or a Design Step
D. A Subject Folder, a Business Component or a Design Step

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 323: At what step in the quality management process would you analyze the impact of
changes in requirements?

A. After test execution

B. After requirements traceability
C. After defects have status "Closed"
D. After new requirements are added

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 324: To run a test set at a remote location, what setting in Quality Center 9.2 would you
configure?

A. Run All
B. Enable Log
C. Run on Host
D. Run All Tests Locally

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 325: In the Execution Flow tab, which Execution Conditions can be indicated by arrows
between tests? Select two.

A. Failed
B. Passed
C. Finished
D. Not Completed

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 326: Which tool forces manual tests to run in a specific order?

A. Manual Runner
B. Generate Script
C. Automated Runner
D. Test Set Properties

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 327: A manual test started but did not complete the test run. Which feature will allow
you to proceed with the test run?

A. Cancel Run
B. Run Manually
C. Repeat Begin Run
D. Continue Manual Run

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 328: What Execution Conditions are supported in Test Set Execution Flow tab?

A. Done or Failed
B. Done or Passed
C. Passed or Failed
D. Finished or Passed

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 329: Which steps must you perform when developing a test set tree? Select two.

A. Create test set folders.

B. Schedule execution date and time.
C. Link test sets to releases and cycles.
D. Populate the test set folders with tests.
E. Define test run sequence and conditions.

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 330: In the Test Lab module, which tab allows you to define a time when Tests will
execute?

A. Execution Grid
B. Linked Defects
C. Execution Flow
D. Test Set Properties

Q. 331: In the Test Plan Tree, which basic test information is required to create a new
test? Select two.

A. Level
B. Priority
C. Template
D. Test Type
E. Test Name
Q. 332: Which Test Lab feature displays tests in a diagram for easy sequencing and
scheduling?

A. Execution Grid
B. Test Plan Tree
C. Linked Defects
D. Execution Flow

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 333: A test set could not execute due to remote connectivity issues. The QA manager
would like to receive an email update when the test execution halts. Which notification
setting would you select?

A. On Failure
B. Environmental failure
C. Any test in the Automatic Runner with status "Failure"
D. All tests in the Automatic Runner that were run have finished

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 334: Which action is required in order to execute an automated test in Quality Center
9.2?

A. Have design steps defined

B. Have the tester field defined
C. Set the design status to Ready
D. Be a member of at least one test set

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 335: In the Test Lab module, to which entity can you assign a Cycle?

A. Run
B. Test Set
C. Test Instance
D. Test Set Folder

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 336: What options are available to users in the Quality Center Tools menu? Select two.

A. Log out
B. Add users
C. New defects
D. Change projects
E. Change passwords

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 337: Which module allows you to run tests on an application and analyze results?

A. Test Set
B. Test Lab
C. Test Plan
D. Test Execution

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 338: Which add-ins allow you to export tests, requirements and defects from a third-
party application to Quality Center? Select two.

A. BPT add-in
B. QTP add-in
C. Excel add-in
D. Word add-in

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 339: From which menu command would you execute an export of data from Excel to
Quality Center?

A. Excel > Data > Export

B. Quality Center > Add-Ins page
C. Excel > Tools > Export to Quality Center
D. Quality Center > Tools > Excel Report Generator

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 340: What are the key pointers for defining tests?

A. Economical, Unique, Graphic, Clear, Traceable

B. Generalized, Unique, Reasonable, Graphic, Definite
C. Accurate, Economical, Consistent, Appropriate, Traceable
D. Consistent, Well Written, Generalized, Ambiguous, Appropriate

Q. 341: Which statements about linking defects are true? Select two.
A. Linking defects enables you to link only one entity of any type to one defect.
B. Linking defects enables you to use History to search for defects with no known links.
C. Linking defects enables you to link multiple entities of the same type to the same defect.
D. Linking defects enables you to search defects that are related to specific Quality Center entities.

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 342: Which entity cannot be associated with a defect?

A. Test
B. Run
C. Cycle
D. Defect

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 343: What is tracked by the defect's lifecycle in Quality Center?

A. The defects status

B. The defects priority
C. The defects severity
D. The defect's assigned users

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 344: Which defect status indicates that a defect is ready to be retested?

A. New
B. Fixed
C. Open
D. Reopen

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 345: A defect has been logged for a test in a test set, which has been removed from the
Test Lab module. Which association remains for the defect?

A. The original test in the Test Plan module

B. The original cycle in the Releases module
C. The original release in the Releases module
D. The original requirement in the Requirements module

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 346: Which feature allows you to view the order of changes made to a defect?

A. History
B. Details
C. Others
D. Update

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 347: What types of graphs can be generated in the Test Plan Module under the Live
Analysis tab? Select three.

A. Trend
B. Progress
C. Summary
D. Time Interval
E. Execution Status

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 348: Which statement is correct about associating defects?

A. Test runs are performed on open and reopened defects.

B. If a requirement has not been met, a defect is not reported for a test run.
C. When a defect is logged for a test instance, it is automatically logged for a test.
D. To remove a defect-test relationship, remove the defect-test instance relationship.

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 349: What entities can a defect be directly associated with in Quality Center 9.2? Select
two.
A. A cycle
B. Release
C. Test result
D. Attachment
E. Test instance

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 350: Which command will you use to save your search settings and filter criteria?

A. Group By...
B. View Settings...
C. Save Settings...
D. Add to Favorites...

Q. 351: Which statement best describes Quality Center software?

A. It is a Web-based database used to organize and identify configuration items of the testing
project.

B. It is a GUI-based functional testing tool used to organize, create, and enhance the testing
process.
C. It is a Web-based test management tool used to structure, organize and document phases of the
testing project.

D. It is a Web-based application used to govern the entire portfolio of IT projects, applications

and opportunities in real-time.

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 352: In the test management process within Quality Center, in which phase can
traceability links be added?

A. Track Defects
B. Execute Tests
C. Define Release
D. Define Requirements
E. Develop the Test Plan

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 353: Which elements of the Release module can be linked directly to a requirement
from the Requirements module? Select two.

A. A cycle
B. Cycle details
C. A release
D. A cycles progress

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 354: In Quality Center, what is meant by the term "release"?

A. It is a subset of the new features implemented in an application that has undergone a series of
test cycles.

B. It is a set of tests designed for a specific purpose such as new feature functionality, security
and performance.

C. It is a group of test cycles that have been completed within a specific time period and all the
high priority defects closed.

D. It is a version of an application representing a group of changes that is available for

distribution to customers at the same time.

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 355: Which statement best describes the Releases folder in the Release module?

A. It is a predefined folder that can be deleted.

B. It is a predefined folder that cannot be deleted.
C. It is a folder that you can add but not delete once it is added.
D. It is a folder that you can add and delete as part of the Release tree.

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 356: In Quality Center 9.2, what is typically referred to as a version of an application

containing a group of changes that is distributed to customers at the same time?

A. Release
B. Specifications
C. Requirements
D. Line of Business

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 357: By default, which action can you perform on the predefined RELEASES folder?

A. You can delete or rename according to your requirement and add releases to it.
B. You can only rename according to your requirement; you cannot delete or add to it.
C. You can rename according to your requirement and add releases to it; you cannot delete it.
D. You can only add releases to it; you cannot delete or rename according to your requirement.

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 358: Which statement is correct about tying a requirement to a cycle in Quality Center,
and releasing it?

A. The requirement is automatically tied to the release

B. You are manually tying the requirement to the release
C. You have to manually link the requirement to each cycle to release it
D. The requirement is automatically tied to all the cycles within the release

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 359: Which statement is true about releases in Quality Center 9.2?

A. Releases have one-to-one correspondence with a testing cycle.
B. An alpha release can occur with seventy-five percent release cycle progress.
C. A release's start and end date must encompass all cycles within that release.
D. The release process begins by approving the requirements in the Requirements module.

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 360: What is the sequence of command used to copy a cycle?

A. Right click on the Cycle name and select Repeat cycle

B. Right click on the Release name and select Copy cycle
C. Right click on the Cycle name and select Duplicate cycle
D. Right click on the Release name and select Recreate cycle

Q. 361: What are the default requirement types within Quality Center 9.2?

A. System, Group, Testing, Functional, Unknown, and User

B. Business, Folder, Functional, Group, Testing, and Undefined
C. Functional, Business, Group, Undefined, System, and Internal
D. Functional, System, Undefined, Testing, Folder, and Unknown

Q. 362: Which are some of the advantages of defining test requirements clearly and
correctly at the beginning of a project? Select three.

A. It helps prevent scope creep.

B. It aids development and testing.
C. It is used as code-base definition.
D. It sets clear expectations between teams.
E. It reduces planning for the infrastructure architecture. .

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 363: After defining a manual test, which component do you use to add the step details
of the test?

A. Detail Editor
B. Script Editor
C. Design Test Editor
D. Design Step Editor

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 364: Which reports come pre-configured in the Requirements module? Select three.

A. Traced from Requirements

B. Standard Requirements Report
C. Requirements with Linked Bugs
D. Requirements with Pass Status
E. Requirements with Coverage Tests

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 365: Which statement best describes a requirement?

A. A requirement links the defects found in the application.

B. A requirement provides the timeline of the testing process.
C. A requirement maps the coverage of tests to be performed.
D. A requirement details what needs to be tested in an application.

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 366: Which sub-tabs does the Requirements Traceability tab contain?

A. Relationships and Impact Analysis

B. Relationships and Traceability Links
C. Impact Analysis and Traceability Links
D. Traceability Relationships and Analysis

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 367: In relationships between modules in Quality Center 9.2, which statement is true?

A. You are not required to use the Release module in order to use the Requirements Module.

B. You must use the Test Lab module in order to establish linkage between a defect and a
requirement.

C. If you want defects linked to test runs, you must log them via the Test Lab module at test
execution time.

D. You are required to set up testing requirements in the Requirements Module before you can
use the Test Plan module.

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 368: When tying a requirement to a cycle, to what else is it automatically tied?

A. To the release of the cycle

B. To other cycles within the release
C. To other requirements within the cycle
D. To other requirements within the release

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 369: Which command is used to create an automated test from an existing manual
test?

A. Generate Test
B. Automate Test
C. Generate Script
D. Automate Script

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 370: What does the Direct Cover Status field represent?

A. Has the requirement been linked to a test set, and if so, what tests are included?
B. Has the requirement been linked to a cycle, and if so, what is the status of the cycle?

C. Has the requirement been linked to a defect, and if so, what is the status of the defect?

D. Has the requirement been linked to a test, and if so, what is the status of the test's execution?

Q. 371: What does the Direct Cover Status of a requirement indicate?

A. The type of parent requirement

B. The execution status of linked tests
C. The component of the application covered
D. Whether the requirement has any linked defects

Q. 372: Which command would you use to modify report settings of Analysis reports?

A. Generate Report
B. Add to Favorites
C. Save Report Settings
D. Configure Report and Sub-reports

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 373: Using the Excel add-in, what type of data can be exported to Quality Center?
(Select three.)

A. Tests
B. Test set
C. Defects
D. Releases
E. Test instance
F. Requirements

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 374: Which standard graph is specific to the Requirements module?

A. Tabular
B. Standard Requirements
C. Requirements Summary
D. Requirements Coverage

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 375: When you generate an Excel report, what is an advantage of using parameters?

A. It enables the report to be saved.

B. It enables the user to name the report.
C. It enables the report to be used across projects.
D. It enables the report to be used for different purposes.

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 376: In the Test Plan module, which tab has the option of converting a Manual test to
an Automated test?

A. Details
B. Test Script
C. Design Steps
D. Req Coverage

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 377: Which tool will you use to generate a comprehensive report of your project
documentation?

A. Live Analysis
B. Microsoft Word
C. Document Generator
D. Excel Report Generator

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 378: Which predefined graphs are available in the Requirements, Test Plan, Test Lab
and Defects modules?

A. Age and summary

B. Trend and progress
C. Summary and progress
D. Requirements, coverage and age

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 379: Which Quality Center option enables you to generate graphs?

A. Help menu
B. Tools menu
C. Analysis menu
D. Common menu

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 380: Once the Microsoft Word add-in is installed on your computer, what Quality Center
toolbars will Word display?

A. Test Plan, Requirements and Export

B. Requirements, Defects and Common
C. Test Plan, Requirements and Defects
D. Test Plan, Requirements and Common

Q. 381: If the QA manager would like to know how the testing process is going with
respect to a release cycle, which graph would best serve the requirement?

A. Trend graph
B. Progress graph
C. Summary graph
D. Live Coverage graph
Q. 382: If the QA manager would like to see an overview of status of the tests within folder
in the Test Plan Tree, which graph would you generate?

A. Live Analysis
B. Defect Age Graph
C. Coverage Analysis
D. Test Plan Summary

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 383: Which standard graph is specific to the Defects module?

A. History graph
B. Defects Age graph
C. Defects Coverage graph
D. Fixed or Rejected Defects graph

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 384: When a predefined report is saved, what are the file extensions allowed? Select
two.

A. .txt
B. .xls
C. .html
D. .doc

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 385: What are template tests?

A. Test designs that contain steps and parameters that are generally reusable across different
tests

B. Small automation units taking the form of QTP reusable Actions which accept input from the
tester via parameters

C. Tests, where key fields like Description, Tester, and Status have been pre-set, and can be
copied and pasted to form the basis of new tests

D. Pre-configured Design Steps views that let testers add new columns beyond just the standard
Step, Actual Result, and Expected Result columns

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 386: Which modules in Quality Center provide predefined graph templates?

A. Releases, Test Plan, Test Lab and Defects

B. Cycles, Requirements, Test Lab and Defects
C. Requirements, Test Plan, Test Lab and Defects
D. Releases, Requirements, Test Plan and Defects

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 387: By default, Quality Center sends e-mail in HTML format. To send e-mail as plain
text instead, edit the parameter in the Site Configuration tab in Site Administration

A. M_FORMAT
B. MAIL_FORMAT_ID
C. MAIL_FORM
D. MAIL_FORMAT

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 388: You use the _________ pages to specify the information from the test plan tree
view of the Test Plan module that should appear in the project document.

A. Subject Tree
B. Subject Tests
C. Subject plans
D. Both A & B

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 389: Performing a risk-based quality management analysis for an analysis requirement

involves the following steps

A. Determine Risk groups, Define Testing Policy Settings, Finalize Testing Policy, Analyze
Testing Strategy

B. Determine Risk Categories, Define Testing guidelines Settings, Finalize Testing Policy,
Analyze Testing Strategy

C. Determine Risk Categories, Define Testing Policy Settings, Finalize Testing guidelines,
Analyze Testing Strategy

D. Determine Risk Categories, Define Testing Policy Settings, Finalize Testing Policy, Analyze
Testing Strategy

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 390: You can define the number of views displayed on the menu by setting the
________ parameter in the Site Configuration tab in Site Administration.

A. Favorites
B. Favorites_Depth
C. Favorites_view
D. Favorites_Path

Q. 391: Click Next or More to Continue

Click the Task Button

Identify the steps for developing the test sets tree and place them in the correct order.
Identify the steps for creating a release tree and place them in the correct order.

Q. 392: Which products or components integrate with Quality Center? (Select four.)

A. WinRunner scripts
B. VuGen scripts
C. LoadRunner scenarios
D. QAInspect
E. SiteScope
F. Diagnostic monitors
G. QuickTest Professional scripts

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 393: What is an advantage of using cross project customization?

A. Customizing a template project and applying the customization to Quality Center projects
enables you to standardize policies and procedures across projects.

B. Defining the users who can access the project and determining the types of tasks each user
can perform enables you to control access to the project.
C. Defining the users who can log in to the project and specifying the types of tasks each user
can perform enables you to control access to the project.

D. Customizing a template instance and applying the customization to Quality Center instances
enables you to standardize policies and procedures across instances.

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 394: Which features are specific to the Premier Edition of Quality Center?

A. Synchronize, share libraries, share defects, and cross project customization

B. Synchronize, share test sets, share requirements, and cross project customization

C. Share libraries, synchronize, share projects, and cross project customization

D. Synchronize, share libraries, share defects, and cross instance customization

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 395: Click Next or More to Continue

Click the Task Button

Place the test management process steps in the correct order.

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 396: Which submodule enables you to define releases and cycles?

A. Management
B. Libraries
C. Cycles
D. Releases

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 397: The CTO asks you to confirm the version of Quality Center your organization is
using. From which toolbar can you access this information?

A. Tools
B. About Quality Center Software
C. Help
D. HP Support Software

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 398: What does the Management module address? (Select two.)

A. Libraries
B. Test resources
C. Release models
D. Dashboards
E. Releases

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 399: Which types of attachments are allowed in Quality Center?

A. File, URL, system information, JPG, system attachments

B. JPG, file, URL, snapshot, TXT, clipboard, system attachments

C. File, URL, snapshot, system information, clipboard images

D. File, snapshot, clipboard images, JPG, clipboard snaps

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 400: Which submodule enables you to check the number of test instances that still
need to run?

A. Cycle
B. Baseline
C. Library
D. Releases

Q. 401: Which module enables you to define graphs and reports?

A. Test Plan
B. Test Resources
C. Dashboard
D. Requirements
Q. 402: What does the term severity refer to?

A. Importance level of the defect

B. Impact of the defect on the release goals
C. Impact of the defect on the test set
D. Impact of the defect on system operation

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 403: What should you use to gather and display the information in Quality Center?
(Select three.)

A. External reports and graphs

B. Predefined reports and graphs
C. Document generator
D. User-defined reports and graphs
E. Custom reports and graphs
F.Custom document generator

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 404: You want to view the child requirements data related to the tests that the
requirements cover. Which graph type should you use to accomplish this?

A. Progress graph
B. Trend graph
C. Requirements coverage graph
D. Summary graph

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 405: Which graph provides a visual overview of all the tests within a folder in the Test
Plan Tree?

A. Visual analysis graph

B. Live analysis graph
C. Trend analysis graph
D. Summary graph

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 406: Your project manager wants to see a list of test instances and the results. Which
type of report should you create to accomplish this?

A. Cross Test Set

B. Execution
C. Test Plan
D. Execution Status

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 407: You need to generate a report to monitor requirements and test coverage. Which
report type should you use to accomplish this? (Select two.)
A. Standard
B. Predefined
C. Non-standard
D. Non-customized
E. Custom

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 408: What is a release?

A.A subset of the new features implemented in an application that has undergone a series of test
cycles

B.A set of tests designed for a specific purpose such as new feature functionality, security, and
performance

C.A group of test cycles that has been completed within a specific time period and in which all
the high priority defects have been closed

D.A version of an application representing a group of changes that is available for distribution to
customers at the same time

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 409: What is a cycle?

A.A subset of the new features implemented in an application that has undergone a series of test
cycles

B.A set of tests designed for a specific purpose such as new feature functionality, security, and
performance

C.A set of development and quality assurance efforts that is performed to achieve a common
goal based on the release timeline

D.A version of an application representing a group of changes that is available for distribution to
customers at the same time

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 410: Which requirement type needs to be defined as a custom type?

A. Business
B. Group
C. Functional
D. Testing
E. Security

Q. 411: What is the term for a series of steps that check whether a requirement is met?

A. An instance
B. A cycle
C. A test set
D. A test
Q. 412: When naming a requirement, which names are valid? (Select three.)

A. FlightTicket
B. Flight^Ticket
C. Flight_Ticket
D. Flight*Ticket
E. FlightTicket
F. Flight.Ticket

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 413: What is the relationship between requirements, releases, and cycles?

A. Requirements, releases, and cycles can be assigned to libraries.

B. Libraries can be assigned to requirements, releases, and cycles.

C. Releases and cycles are used for version control of requirements.

D. Requirements can be assigned to releases and cycles.

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 414: Which view provides a non-hierarchical view of requirements data?

A. Requirements Grid view

B. Requirements Non-hierarchical view
C. Requirements view
D. Requirements Coverage view

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 415: What are the testing levels in risk-based testing?

A. Full, Partial, Basic, and Completed

B. Assigned, Full, Partial, and Basic
C. Full, Partial, Basic, and None
D. Full, Partial, Basic, and Advanced

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 416: Which tabs can be found under the Requirements Traceability tab?

A. Relationships and Impact Analysis

B. Relationships and Functional Complexity
C. Relationship Link and Impact Analysis
D. Relationship Advancement and Impact Analysis

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 417: What is the function of an Impact Analysis?

A. To graph the impact of requirement changes

B. To analyze the impact of requirement changes
C. To graph the impact of requirement complexity
D. To analyze the impact of the requirement list
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 418: What does business criticality determine?

A. How redundant a requirement is for a business

B. How critical a requirement is for a business
C. How critical a requirement is for a project
D. How critical a requirement is for the software life cycle

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 419: What is the relationship between requirements and tests? (Select two.)

A. A test can cover more than one requirement.

B. A requirement can be covered by more than one test.
C. A test can cover only one requirement.
D. A requirement can be covered by only one test.
E. A maximum of ten tests can cover a requirement.

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 420: Which steps are considered part of the risk-based testing process? (Select two.)

A. Establish Business Criticality, Assess Functional Complexity

B. Establish Failure Probability, Perform Risk Assessment

C. View Analysis Results, Assess Impact Analysis

D. Establish Failure Probability, Perform Risk Analysis

E. Assess Risk, Calculate Failure Probability

Q. 421: Which factors are used to calculate the testing level in risk-based testing?

A. Testing time and failure probability

B. Business criticality and functional complexity
C. Failure probability and risk analysis
D. Business criticality and failure probability

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 422: Which default format does Quality Center use when you send an email about a
requirement to the author of a test set?

A. XML
B. Plain text
C. HTML
D. DHTML

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 423: What are the functions of the Test Plan Tree? (Select three.)

A. Organizes tests according to the functional units or subjects of an application

B. Organizes instances according to the functional units or subjects of an application

C. Provides a clear picture of the testing building blocks and assists in the development of actual
tests

D. Provides a broader picture of the testing building blocks and assists in the development of
actual tests

E. Shows the hierarchical relationships and dependencies between tests

F. Shows the graphical relationships and dependencies between tests

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 424: In addition to being accurate and economical, what are the key characteristics of a
test in Quality Center?

A. Concrete, accessible, and functional

B. Consistent, appropriate, and traceable
C. Accessible, appropriate, and reusable
D. Unique, appropriate, and compatible

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 425: Which benefit does a good test plan provide?

A. The ability to assess the quality of your application at any stage in the testing process

B. A clear and concise plan to successfully develop an application

C. The ability to assess the impact of defects at any stage in the testing process

D. The ability to assess the efficiency of the test runs at any stage in the testing process

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 426: Which Quality Center module enables you to convert a requirement to a test?

A. Test Lab module

B. Requirements module
C. Test Resources module
D. Test Plan module

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 427: Which button enables you to create an automated test from a manual test?

A. Generate Automated Test

B. Generate Test
C. Generate Script
D. Convert into Automated Script

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 428: What does Call to Test enable you to do?

A. Modularize and reuse a standard sequence of steps across multiple tests

B. Establish and reuse a standard sequence of steps across multiple tests

C. Arrange and reuse a standard sequence of instances across multiple tests

D. Analyze and reuse a standard sequence of steps across multiple tests

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 429: Which fields can be edited to enter the parameter values? (Select two.)

A. Standard and Default

B. Actual and Description
C. Actual and Expected
D. Standard and Actual
E. Actual and Parameter

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 430: In which folder should you create a new Test Set folder?

A. Subject
B. Root
C. Test Set
D. New Test

Q. 431: How can you determine the number of resolved and outstanding defects?

A. By assigning tests to releases

B. By assigning tests to cycles
C. By assigning tests to requirements
D. By assigning tests to test coverage

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 432: Which feature enables you to determine the sequence in which tests are executed?

A. Execution Grid
B. Run Manually
C. Execution Flow
D. Sequential Execution Wizard

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 433: Which execution status is used to set the rule to execute the dependent test after
the controlling test finishes its execution?

A.PASSED
B.FAILED
C.FINISHED
D.COMPLETED

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 434: In Quality Center, you can send a status alert email to the author of the test set
when it completes execution. How is the notification sent?

A. Atomatically
B. Using an automatic Alert Wizard
C. Using a dynamic alert
D. Manually

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 435: Which options enable you to record the results of a manual test run? (Select two.)

A.ACTUAL field
B.KEEP ON TOP button
C.MANUAL TEST RUN Wizard
D.STATUS column
E.RESULT view

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 436: Where can you define hosts for remotely executing tests?

A. Remote Agent
B. Remote Manager
C. Host Manager
D. Remote Wizard

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 437: To track the progress of tests, what can you associate with the test set?

A. Baseline
B. Cycle
C. Library
D. Defects

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 438: Which feature enables you to graphically view the dependencies between
successive tests?

A. Execution Grid
B. Execution Wizard
C. Execution Flow
D. Graphical View

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 439: Your project manager wants you to run automated tests concurrently on remote
hosts. Which steps should you take to meet this requirement? (Select two.)

A. Add multiple instances of the test to the test set.

B. Add multiple concurrent users to the test set.
C. Select a different host for each test instance.
D. Select a different user for each test instance.
E. Select a different alias for each test instance.

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 440: What enables you to view the results of a test run for an automated test?

A. Execution Grid
B. Test run result
C. History Results button
D. Launch Report button

Q. 441: Which elements are considered part of the Defects module? (Select three.)

A. Defects grid
B. Test grid
C. Link defect
D. Grid filters
E. Defects toolbar
F. Rich textbox

Q. 442: In accordance with best practice, what should you do before logging a new defect?

A. Assign a defect ID.

B. Search for an existing defect.
C. Copy from an existing defect.
D. Link the defect with a requirement.

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 443: What can be directly associated with defects? (Select three.)

A. Requirements
B. Test resources
C. Test sets
D. Test components
E. Test instances
F. Baselines

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 444: Which Quality Center modules enable you to perform version control? (Select
two.)

A. Test Plan, Test Resources

B. Test Plan, Test Lab
C. Test Resources, Defects
D. Requirements, Business Components

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 445: In a version controlled project, which command enables you to create a new version
for an entity?
A.CHECK OUT
B.CHECK IN
C.KEEP CHECKED OUT
D.ASSIGN

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 446: Your project manager wants you to open an existing test case and make some
changes. When you check out the test case for update, your manager finds that the
changes are not required and asks you to retain the test case in its original state. What
should you do to retain the test case?

A. Delete the changed portion.

B. Undo checkout.
C. Undo check-in.
D. Redo checkout.

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 447: In a version controlled project, which icon indicates that you have an entity
checked-out?

A. Red lock icon

B. Blue lock icon
C. Green lock icon
D. Yellow lock icon

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 448: Your project manager wants you to use an existing set of requirements and tests
across five projects in your organization. Which function should you use to accomplish
this?

A. Baseline
B. Template
C. Component
D. Version

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 449: What does baseline enable a user to do? (Select two.)

A.Establish a snapshot of the library at a specific point in time

B.Establish a screenshot of the Library Tree at every point in time

C.Keep track of changes made to a project over time

D.Keep track of modifications made to the Quality Center software over time

E.Keep track of changes made to a project plan over time

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 450: What happens when you synchronize two libraries?

A.Both libraries are updated with any changes.

B.Both libraries remain the same.

C.The synchronizing library is updated with changes made in the other library.

D.Changes from the synchronizing library are made in the other library.

Q. 451: What are the reasons to assign test set folders to a cycle? (Select three,)

A. To review the progress of tests

B. To view the status of tests
C. T determine the number of resolved and outstanding defects
D. To calculate the number of defects that are pending
E. To enhance the reporting granularity
F. To enhance the quality of the reports and graphs

Q. 452: Which edition is newly added to Quality Center v07

A. Enterprise Edition
B. Starter Edition
C. Premier Edition
D. Center of Excellence Edition

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 453: Which URL should you use to access Quality Center?

A. http://[<:port number>/qcstart

B. http://[<:port number>]/qcbin

C. smtp://[<:port number>]/qcbin

D. http://intranet[<:port number>/qcbin

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 454: Which module enables you to view the instances of tests?

A. Test Resources
B. Test Plan
C. Test Lab
D. Business Components

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 455: What are functions of the Dashboard module? (Select four.)

A. Create standard and Excel reports

B. Export and publish dashboard pages
C. Create dashboard pages
D. Create, view, and manage graphs
E. Create and view defects
F. Generate results
G. Analyze Quality Center data

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 456: Which tool enables you to export data from Quality Center to a Microsoft Word
document?

A. Word Document Generator

B. Document Generator
C. Data Exporter
D. Data Export Wizard

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 457: Which type of data from an Excel spreadsheet can be imported Into Quality
Center? (Select three.)

A. Requirements
B. Tests
C. Test instances
D. Defects
E. Baseline
F. Test plan

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 458: How can you verify that the Excel add-in is successfully installed?

A. Quality Center-> Tools -> Export to Quality Center

B. Excel Spreadsheet -> Tools -> Export to Quality Center
C. Quality Center -> Tools -> Import to Duality Center
D. Excel Spreadsheet -> Tools -> Import to Quality Center

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 459: What does the term priority refer to?

A. How soon the defect needs to be fixed

B. How quickly you can assign the defect to the developer
C. How soon you can close the defect
D. Which action to take to close the defect

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 460: Using Dashboard, what is the maximum number of graphs per page that you can
create by default?

A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6

Q. 461: When creating an Excel report, what is used to extract the data?
A. Data Definition Wizard
B. Structured Data Wizard
C. Data Definition Language
D. Structured Query Language

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 462: What is a cycle?

A. A subset of the new features implemented in an application that has undergone a series of
test cycles

B. A set of tests designed for a specific purpose such as new feature functionality, security, and
performance

C. A set of development and quality assurance efforts that is performed to achieve a common
goal based on the release timeline

D. A version of an application representing a group of changes that is available for distribution to

customers at the same time

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 463: What are the advantages of a well-defined requirement? (Select four.)

A. Aids development and testing

B. Establishes guidelines for the Center of Excellence
C. Helps prevent scope creep
D. Sets clear expectations between teams
E. Facilitates reuse of test cases
F. Saves time and money
G. Helps define libraries

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 464: What should you consider while gathering requirements? (Select two.)

A. Customer's expectations
B. Testing processes
C. Business processes
D. Life cycle model
E. Developers expectations

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 465: Which function enables you to associate a requirement with other requirements?

A. Impact Analysis
B. Requirements Traceability
C. Requirements Analysis
D. Functional Complexity

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 466: Which entities can be associated with a requirement?

A. Tests, defects, and non-hierarchical requirements
B. Tests, defects, and linked requirements
C. Cycles, releases, tests, defects, and requirements
D. Releases, business components, tests, defects, and requirements

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 467: What is the purpose of risk-based testing?

A. To calculate the level at which each requirement must be tested

B. To analyze the level at which each requirement must be tested

C. To define the level at which each requirement must be tested

D. To calculate the level at which each instance must be tested

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 468: In which tab can you define traceability links?

A. Impact Analysis
B. Test Coverage
C. Relationships
D. Risk

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 469: What does failure probability determine?

A. The predictability of failure of a test associated with a requirement

B. The complexity of failure of a test associated with a requirement

C. The likelihood of failure of a test associated with a requirement

D. The locality of failure of a test associated with a requirement

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 470: Which Quality Center feature enables you to calculate risks?

A. Risk-based management
B. Analysis requirement management
C. Risk computation management
D. Functional complexity management

Q. 471: Which risk-based factor enables you to determine whether a requirement should
be fully or partially tested?

A. Testing cost
B. Defect probability
C. Functional relevance
D. Testing time

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>

Q. 472: Which parameter can be used to send an email message in plain text?

A. MAIL SERMES
B. MAIL FORMAT
C. MAIL-MESSAGE-FORMAT
D. MAIL FORMATS

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 473: Which button should you use to link a test from the Test Plan Tree to a
requirement?

A. Add to Requirements
B. Add to Coverage
C. Add to Link Tests
D. Add to Req Coverage

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 474: In the automatic conversion of requirements to tests, a requirement can be

converted into what?

A. Folders, scripts, or design steps

B. Files, folders, or tests
C. Folders, tests, or design steps
D. Folders, subfolders, or tests

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 475: Which command enables you to reuse and modularize test steps across multiple
tests?

A. Adjust tests
B. Call to test
C. Call to steps
D. Call to instance

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 476: Which grammatical voice should you use to write the test steps?

A. Passive
B. Active
C. Middle
D. Present

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 477: The Test Set Tree can contain as many top-level Test Set folders as you need, and
each sublevel can have its own sublevels, What is the maximum number of Test Set
subfolders allowed?

A. 254
B. 675
C. 676
D. 999

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 478: How does Quality Center define the type of tests in a test set?

A. White box and black box

B. Manual and integrated
C. Manual and automated
D. Automated and unit

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 479: What does the Execution Grid enable a user to do? (Select two,)

A. Declare the tests that make up each test set

B. View the tests in a diagram for adding or deleting tests C. Display test data in a grid
D. Display test data in a diagram
E. Display email notification rules

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 480: Your test set includes two automated tests: Open Order and Update Order. How
can you configure the Execution Flow to ensure the Update Order test will only run after
the Open Order test completes successfully?

A. Define an Execution Condition where Open Order must Finish before Update Order starts,

B. Define Update Order as a dependent test to Open Order.

C. Define an Execution Condition where Open Order must Pass before Update Order starts.

D. Define an Execution Condition where Update Order must Pass before Open Order starts,

Q. 481: What is the best practice for running an automated test concurrently on multiple
remote hosts?

A. Adding multiple instances of the test, selecting a host for each instance

B. Running a test separately on each of the multiple remote hosts

C. Running a test set sequentially on each of the multiple remote hosts

D. Using the Host Manager Wizard to configure hosts and run tests and test sets

Q. 482: Which factors affect time dependency when running the tests?

A. Schedule and time

B. Date and flow
C. Time and date
D. Schedule and flow

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 483: Your project manager requests that you send the execution status of a test set of
10 tests by tomorrow morning. There is a chance that the fifth test might fail. What should
you do to ensure that the subsequent tests run?

A. Schedule the test run based on the Execution Condition.

B. Schedule the test run independently.

C. Schedule the test run by selecting the execution status Never Stop.

D. Schedule the test run based on the parameter,

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 484: Your project manager wants you to run an automated test on a remote host, You
are not able to view this host , What should you do to solve this problem?

A. Set up the host In Host Manager.

B. Add the host using the Add Hosts Wizard.
C. Use the Host Wizard to find the host.
D. Set up the host in the Host Manager Wizard,

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 485: Which feature provides an audit trail of changes made to each dpfact2

A. Defects grid
B. Grid filter
C. Audit trail
D. History tab

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 486: You find a defect in an application and send it to the developer to fix. The
developer cannot interpret the problem and requests a snapshot of the application with
the defect. What enables you to take a snapshot?

A. History tab
B. Attachments tab
C. Description tab
D. Details tab

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 487: How do you associate defects with tests? (Select three,)

A. Associate tests from the Test Plan module with defects.

B. Associate test sets from the Test Lab module with defects.

C. Associate defects with tests run during a manual test run,

D. Associate test instances with defects during a manual test run.

E. Associate tests with multiple defects.

F. Associate requirements with multiple defects,

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 488: The project manager requests that the test engineer make changes in a test case.
Which version control feature should the test engineer use to modify the test case?

A. UNDO
B. CHECK IN
C. CHECK OUT
D. COMPARE

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 489: Where do you view prior versions of an entity?

A. History
B. Versions
C. Dependencies
D. Management

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 490: Which Quality Center feature allows you to view the complete chronology of an
entity, including previous versions, authors of the versions, and its date of creation?

A. Version history
B. Entity history
C. Chronology history
D. Complete history

Q. 491: What is the function of a library?

A. To create and manage a set of entities in a project and the relationship between them
B. To create and manage a set of instances
in a project and the relationship between them
C. To define a Hierarchical Instance Tree to create and manage your resources
D. To define and manage a set of baseline projects and the relationship between them

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 492: What enables you to associate the test set with the tests stored in a baseline?

A. Baselining
B. Pinning
C. Skimming
D. Popping

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 493: What enables you to move library folders and libraries?

A. Copy and Paste

B. Cut and Paste
C. Library Wizard
D. Select and Paste
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

New Set of Questions begin from Here

Q. 494: What is the implication of having a direct link between a defect and a test?

A. The defect is directly linked to the related Test Run.

B. The defect is indirectly linked to the related Requirement.
C. The defect is indirectly linked to the related Test Set.
D. The defect is directly linked to the related Test Instance.

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 495: What are the potential subsequent states of a "Fixed" defect? (Select two.)

A. Closed
B. Reopened
C. Complete
D. New
E. Reviewed

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 496: By default, what does HP Application Lifecycle Management assign when a new
defect is created? (Select two.)

A. A unique defect ID
B. The status Created
C. A version number
D. The status New
E. A unique test set

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 497: Which options can be used to submit defects from HP Sprinter to HP Application
Lifecycle Management? (Select two.)

A. Smart Identification
B. Defect Checking
C. Smart Defects
D. Smart Defects Identification
E. Defect Reminder

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 498: Which annotation tools can be used to detect a defect during an HP Sprinter test
run? (Select two.)

A. Ruler tool
B. Step tool
C. Click tool
D. Guides tool
E. Align tool

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 499: Which tool can be used to store information about a defect in HP Sprinter without
disrupting test flow?

A. Defect Highlighter tool

B. Test Defect tool
C. Smart Defect tool
D. Defect Reminder tool

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 500: Which entities can be linked to a defect? (Select two.)

A. Cycles
B. Releases
C. Reports
D. Defects
E. Tests

Q. 501: A tester reports that when running a test, HP Sprinter is preventing him from
attaching a movie of the test run to the defect he is submitting. How can this problem be
resolved?

A.
By the user adjusting options in his HP Sprinter user interface

B. By the user re-establishing his HP Application LIfecycle Management connection

C. By the project administrator enabling the Ilow attaching movies to defects?option on the
Customization > HP Sprinter pageby the project administrator enabling the ?flow attaching
movies to defects?option on the Customization > HP Sprinter page

D. By the project administrator enabling the Ilow attaching movies to defects?option for the
appropriate user group on the Customization >by the project administrator enabling the ?flow
attaching movies to defects?option for the appropriate user group on the Customization >
Groups and Permissions > Defects page

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 502: What is HP Sprinter?

A. An automated test environment for exploratory testers

B. A manual test environment for exploratory testers
C. A manual test execution environment
D. A manual test development environment

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 503: What does Risk-Based Quality Management enable you to do?

A. Determine which requirements to add to the application
B. Calculate the number of tests to be built per requirement
C. Calculate the level at which each requirement should be tested
D. Predict defect per requirement

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 504: How are related projects grouped?

A. By test set
B. By package
C. By domain
D. By class

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 505: What happens when an HP Application Lifecycle Management (ALM) project

administrator saves a customization change as a Major Change rather than a Minor
Change?

A. The customization is added to the parent project template.

B. The user must log out and log back in to load the change.
C. The customization loads when the user reconnects after a session timeout.
D. The customization loads when the user changes screens in ALM.

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 506: A testing team wants to add a new field named "Approver" to the Test Details form
that becomes mandatory whenever test status changes to "Ready".

After adding the new field, how should the project administrator customize its behavior to
meet this requirement?

A. By modifying the code of the appropriate event function in Customization > Workflow > Script
Editor

B. By setting configuration options for the new field via Customization > Project Entities > Test >
User Fields

C. By setting configuration options for the new field via Customization > Workflow > Script
Generator-Test Details Field Customization

D. By creating a custom event function in Customization > Workflow > Script Editor

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 507: What does the pie chart in the Coverage Analysis window display?

A. Only the number of passed tests regarding the current cycle

B. The full test coverage for the test set, grouped according to test status
C. Only the number of passed tests regarding the current requirement
D. The full test coverage for the requirement, grouped according to test status

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 508: The Automail customization feature applies to which modules?

A. All licensed modules

B. Only Test Lab and Defects
C. Only Defects
D. Only Requirements, Test Plan, Test Lab, and Defects

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 509: Which entities support version control? (Select three.)

A. Cycles
B. Test steps
C. Tests
D. Defects
E. Requirements
F. Test resources

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 510: What is defined as a set of development and quality assurance efforts performed
to achieve a common goal, based on the release timeline?

A. Test Set
B. Requirement
C. Test Plan
D. Cycle
Q. 511: When synchronizing libraries, an entity is modified in the source and the target
libraries. How is the entity in the target library updated?

A. The entity in the source library is overwritten.

B. A report is generated and changes are suspended.
C. The entity in the target library is overwritten.
D. Changes are merged in both libraries.

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 512: Which tabs are available in the right pane of the Requirements Details view?
(Select two.)

A. Requirements Traceability
B. Test Coverage
C. Requirements Coverage
D. Test Plan Description
E. Linked Test Unit

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 513: What can be specified when using the Execution Flow tab of the Test Lab module?
(Select three.)
A. The parameters for a test set instance execution
B. The condition for executing a test instance
C. The test step executed in a test instance
D. The requirements for executing a test instance
E. The date of a test instance execution
F. The time of a test instance execution

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 514: What is true in a Not Completed requirement coverage status?

A. Almost one test has an execution status of Failed.

B. None of the tests have an execution status of Blocked.
C. None of the tests can have execution status of Passed.
D. None of the tests can have execution status of No Run.

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 515: When defining content for a Library, which entities can be added based on their
relationship to the requirements selected?

A. Only Tests
B. Tests and Test Sets
C. Tests and Components
D. Tests and Test Resources

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 516: Which customization use cases can only be accommodated by editing workflow
code?

A. Sending an email to a test's owner whenever a linked requirement is updated

B. Permitting developers to see only the defects submitted by their team
C. Adding a new status called "Pending Review" to the Test Status system field
D. Denying access to the Releases module for certain groups of users

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 517: All licenses for a specific HP Lifecycle Management (ALM) module are currently in
use and an additional user tries to access that module. Which statement is true about
what happens in this situation?

A. ALM uses a concurrency model. The user will be declined access and receive a message
indicating such.
B. ALM uses a fixed seat model. What happens depends on whether or not the user is accessing
ALM from a computer that has been registered as licensed.

C. ALM allows the user read-only access. Once a license is released, the user will be informed
that write privileges have been granted.

D. ALM allows timesharing-based access. All users can access with write privileges for a fixed
time.

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 518: The ALM Synchronizer is a service that provides out-of-the box integration with
which tools? (Select three.)

A. Tasktop
B. Rational CIearQuest
C. Microsoft Project
D. CollabNet TeamForge
E. Rational RegPro
F. Defects between two ALM Projects

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 519: In which fields of the Design Steps tab is it possible to use parameters? (Select
two.)

A. Step Name
B. Expected Result
C. Parameters
D. Test Configurations
E. Description

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 520: Which HP Application Lifecycle Management command enables you to convert a

Manual test to an Automated test type?

A. Convert Script
B. Create Script
C. Generate Script
D. Generate Script from manual test
Q. 521: How is a set of data defined in an Excel report?

A. SQL queries on the project database

B. SQL queries on the management database
C. Data Grid view from the Testing module
D. Data Grid view from the Dashboard module

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 522: In the Test Plan module, which graph enables you to correlate the number of tests
and the elapsed time interval?

A. Tests Summary graph

B. Tests Results graph
C. Tests Trend graph
D. Tests Progress graph

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 523: A company is using HP Quality Center (QC) 10 and HP Application Lifecycle

Management (ALM) 11. During an upgrade, how should you install the clients?

A. Do not install HP QC 10 and HP ALM11 clients on the same machine; it will cause errors and
HP QC 10 will fail to start.

B. Do not install HP QC 10 and HP ALM11 clients on the same machine; it will cause errors and
HP ALM 11 will fail to start.

C. Install HP QC 10 and HP ALM11 clients on the same machine; do not start both clients
because it will cause errors.

D. Install HP QC 10 and HP ALM11 clients on the same machine; use both clients, side-by-side,
in different browser instances.

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 524: What are the advantages of clearly and correctly defining requirements at the front
end of a project? (Select three.)

A. Sets clear expectations between stakeholders

B. Improves the automated test performance
C. Provides stakeholders with guidelines of what the priorities are
D. Cuts waste and eliminates unnecessary expenditure
E. Allows integration with external tools
F. Eases the association between test sets and cycles

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 525: You are the QA manager for a company, working on a new project. In the past, end
users have claimed that IT does not deliver what they ask for. For this release, you decide
the end users will sign off on all the requirements.
Which feature enables the manager of an HP Application Lifecycle Management project to
define a snapshot of the requirements after they are signed off by users?

A. Baseline
B. Traceability Matrix
C. Document Generator
D. Graph Wizard

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 526: What does HP Sprinter's Storyboard feature do?

A. Enhances test results with screen captures of the application under test, taken during the test
run

B. Enables testers to design tests by capturing, annotating, and assembling a sequence of

screen captures of the application under test

C. Provides a movie editing toolbox for extracting, annotating, and assembling a sequence of
screen captures after a test run

D. Enables testers to view a guiding sequence of annotated screen captures during their test run
via the Storyboard sidebar

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 527: Coverage Progress and Outstanding Defects are two graphs for tracking progress
and quality of your releases. Which entities must be assigned to the release and cycle for
these graphs to provide the complete information for your release? (Select three.)

A. Tests
B. Components
C. Resources
D. Test Sets
E. Requirements
F. Defects

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 528: Which description applies to HP Application Lifecycle Management access?

A. Login credentials are required (Single Sign On Supported), access may be restricted by
project, and projects to which you have no access are not visible.
B. Login credentials are required (Single Sign On Supported), access may be restricted by
project or role, and projects to which you have no access are visible.

C. Login credentials are required (Single Sign On Not Supported), access may be restricted only
by role, and projects not accessible by your role are not visible.

D. Login credentials are required (Single Sign On Supported), access may be restricted only by
role, and projects not accessible by your role are not visible.

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 529: What is a prerequisite for using the Business Models module?

A. Models must be created in standard BPMN or EPC modeling tools.

B. Models must be created using RUP.
C. Models must be created in Excel.
D. HP Application Lifecycle Management Modeling Manager must be implemented.

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 530: Which HP Application Lifecycle Management module allows you to manage, view,
and create graphs?

A. Management
B. Dashboard
C. Reports
D. Business Objects
Q. 531: Which icon indicates a checked out entity?

A. A red lock
B. A green exclamation mark
C. A green lock
D. A red exclamation mark

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 532: A team wants to set up field searching in an HP Application Lifecycle Management

project. What should they know to accomplish this?

A. All system fields are searchable, which may impact search times.
B. Only user fields of type memo or string are searchable.
C. By default, all eligible fields are set to searchable.
D. The searchable option is only available for the Test and Defects modules.

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 533: In HP Sprinter, what comprises the Tests list?

A. Tests that are currently under development in HP Sprinter

B. Tests that may be included in the tester's next run
C. The list of tests comprising the currently opened test set
D. Tests that have been activated for HP Sprinter execution

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 534: How does the ALM Synchronizer operate?

A. Through data mapping that occurs directly between databases

B. Through synchronization links that are established between end points
C. Through scheduled API calls
D. Through chronjobs doing command line calls to the backend

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 535: Which feature determines the good, bad, or warning level for a KPI?

A. Milestone
B. Scope item
C. Threshold
D. KPI type

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 536: Which entities must be defined for Project Planning and Tracking?

A. Only Release and KPIs

B. Only Milestones, KPIs, and Scope Items
C. Release, Milestones, KPIs, and Requirements
D. Release, Milestones, KPIs, and Scope Items

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 537: What are solutions for running manual tests? (Select two.)

A. HP QuickTest Professional
B. Manual Runner
C. Manual Test Runner
D. HP Sprinter
E. HP LoadRunner

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 538: When should tests be automated? (Select two.)

A. When tests are executed only once

B. When tests check a multi-user client/server system
C. When tests require immediate execution
D. When tests check how easy the application is to use
E. When tests check the stability of application basic functionality

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 539: What are execution statuses of a test instance? (Select two.)

A. OK
B. Completed
C. Not Completed
D. Blocked
E. Suspended

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 540: How would you leverage test configurations to cover multiple requirements and
avoid unneeded duplications?

A. By associating different test configurations in multiple tests with each requirement

B. By associating different test configurations in the same test with each requirement
C. By associating the same test configuration in the same test with each requirement
D. By associating the same test configuration in multiple tests with each requirement
Q. 541: As the project administrator of a project that is linked to a template project, what
can you do?

A. Synchronize project customizations with the linked template project on demand

B. Roll back project customizations if problems are detected

C. Request suspension of template customizations being applied

D. Run verification prior to synchronization with the template project

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 542: DRAG DROP: Click the Task button. The process for Risk-Based Quality
Management includes four steps. Identify the valid steps and place them in the correct
order of execution.
Answer

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 543: Which type of data can be added to a Dashboard page?

A. Releases

B. Requirements

C. Reports

D. Graphs

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 544: What are supported test types out-of-the-box? (Select three.)

A. LOAD-TEST

B. CAPACITY-TEST

C. BLACK-BOX-TEST

D. LR-SCENARIO

E. QUICKTEST TEST

F. MANUAL

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 545: Which condition best allows leveraging of test configurations?

A. The test is configurable.

B. The test is manual.

C. The test is automated.

D. The test has parameters.

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 546: HOTSPOT: Click the Task Button. Click on the entity where data hiding can be
configured.

Answer
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 547: Which application can you use to design a new Custom Report Template?

A. Microsoft Excel

B. Microsoft Word

C. HP Template Generator

D. ALM Template Manager

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 548: What can you do in the Configuration tab of a report?

A. Assign a report to a test step

B. Share reports

C. Link reports to test step

D. Select the report output format

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 549: What is required to create a Baseline Report?

A. The baseline must support the history template.

B. All report sections must support test configurations.

C. All report sections must support baselines.

D. The baseline must support the standard template.

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 550: Which integrations for HP Application Lifecycle Management are supported by the
Free HP ALM Mylyn Connector? (Select two.)

A. Microsoft TFS connector

B. Bugzilla

C. Collabnet connector

D. CVS

E. Rational CiearQuest

Q. 551: From which tabs in the Test Lab module can you add tests to a test set? (Select
two.)

A. Testing Tree tab

B. Requirements Tree tab
C. Test Plan Tree tab
D. Releases Tree tab
E. Cycle Tree tab

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 552: What does assigning each Test Set folder to a Cycle enable you to do?

A. Group together test sets that will be run during the same cycle and analyze the progress of the
cycle as you run your tests

B. Separate test sets that will be run during the same cycle and analyze the progress of the cycle
as you run your tests

C. Group together test sets that will be run during different cycles and check the global
requirements

D. Separate test sets that will be run during the same cycle and check the global requirements

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 553: What happens if a team member tries to delete a representative requirement?

A. The deletion succeeds. The requirement coverage of the model entity is lost.

B. The deletion fails. The representative requirements are read-only and are therefore protected
from deletion.

C. The deletion fails. The representative requirement is automatically made read-only, and an
alert is optionally triggered.

D. The deletion succeeds. The representative requirement is moved to the Obsolete folder.

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 554: The business analyst team released a new version of the "Ship Product" Business
Process model. What does HP Application Lifecycle Management do when it re-imports
the model file?

A. It unlinks all existing representative requirements associated with the model and activity
entities, and creates and links new ones.

B. It adds new path entities for any new alternate flows it detects.

C. It creates new model and activity entities if any new models or activities are detected in the
imported file based on name.
D. It creates duplicate representative requirements for any re-imported activities that have
different GUIDs than before.

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 555: What can you do by creating a new Requirement Type? (Select two.)

A. Define a new KPI

B. Define which fields are required
C. Associate the new requirement with a Cycle
D. Define a Rich Text Template
E. Define new requirement coverage status

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 556: What can you define by configuring the Traceability Matrix? (Select three.)

A. The source requirements

B. The tests linked to and from the test steps
C. The associated tests
D. The source releases
E. The associated cycles
F. The requirements linked to and from the source requirements

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 557: In HP Application Lifecycle Management 11, which learning aids are supplied with
the client install? (Select four.)

A. Feature movies
B. Tutorials
C. Support links
D. User documentation
E. FAQs
F. Certified partner integration documentation
G. Support chat window
H. HP Solutions Integration Catalog

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 558: DRAG DROP: Click the Task button. Identify the phases that are embodied within
HP Application Lifecycle Management.
Answer
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 559: Which products are available for the HP Application Lifecycle Management (ALM)
and HP Quality Center (QC) 11.x release? (Select three.)

A. QC Starter Edition
B. QC Enterprise Edition for Site, Area, and Global Locations
C. ALM for Site, Area, and Global Locations
D. ALM Enterprise Edition for Site, Area, and Global Locations
E. ALM Starter Edition
F. QC Premier Edition for Site, Area, and Global Locations

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 560: Which Project Planning and Tracking feature allows you to analyze the KPI
results?

A. Scorecard
B. Master Plan
C. KPI Report
D. Progress Report